Sample Chapter


Psychology In Modules 11th Edition by David G. Myers – Test Bank
Sample  Questions




1. A completely focused state of consciousness resulting from optimal engagement of one’s skills is called
A) charisma.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) transformational leadership.
D) flow.



2. Personnel psychology is one of the main subfields of
A) organizational psychology.
B) industrial-organizational psychology.
C) human factors psychology.
D) social psychology.



3. Analyzing job content and optimizing worker placement is a characteristic of
A) human factors psychologists.
B) clinical psychologists.
C) organizational psychologists.
D) personnel psychologists.



4. By scripting specific job relevant questions to be asked of all those applying for a particular work position, a personnel psychologist is most clearly developing a framework for
A) the experience of flow.
B) transformational leadership.
C) structured interviews.
D) 360-degree feedback.



5. For each performance review, Professor Donnell is evaluated by her students, colleagues, department chair, and research assistants. This best illustrates
A) managing by objectives.
B) the experience of flow.
C) human factors psychology.
D) 360-degree feedback.



6. Assessing the impact of different management styles on the motivation and productivity of employees best illustrates the professional concerns of
A) personnel psychology.
B) clinical psychology.
C) organizational psychology.
D) human factors psychology.



7. Compared with ineffective managers, those who are effective are more likely to
A) avoid solving conflicts between employees.
B) exercise a directive leadership style for achieving organizational goals.
C) encourage employee productivity by reinforcing it.
D) do all of these things.



8. Human factors psychologists would be most likely to aid in the design of
A) employee weight-reduction programs.
B) management training seminars.
C) user-friendly factory machinery.
D) work-skills assessment tests.


1. The early school of psychology that used introspection to reveal the mind’s makeup was known as
A) psychiatry.
B) behaviorism.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) structuralism.



2. Edward Titchener was concerned primarily with the study of
A) sensory experiences.
B) psychological disorders.
C) inherited traits.
D) social relationships.



3. Who was the functionalist who authored a textbook for the emerging discipline of psychology?
A) Wilhelm Wundt
B) John B. Watson
C) Edward Titchener
D) William James



4. Compared with the structuralists, early behaviorists were much less likely to focus on the study of
A) smiling.
B) screaming.
C) fighting.
D) thinking.



5. The scientific study of behavior without reference to mental processes was of special interest to
A) Edward Titchener.
B) William James.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) B. F. Skinner.



6. Professor Schroeder argues that children have an innate concept of justice that enables them to distinguish between fair and unfair rules. This argument is most consistent with the views of
A) Aristotle.
B) Plato.
C) John Locke.
D) John B. Watson.



7. In the context of debates over the origins of ideas, nature is to nurture as ________ is to Locke.
A) Aristotle
B) Plato
C) Darwin
D) Descartes



8. Debates as to whether the excessive use of alcohol is biologically determined or culturally influenced are most relevant to the issue of
A) nature and nurture.
B) observation and introspection.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) structuralism and functionalism.



9. An integrated explanation of human behavior provided by the neuroscience, cognitive, social-cultural, and other perspectives in psychology is most clearly provided by
A) SQ3R.
B) behaviorism.
C) a psychodynamic perspective.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.



10. Understanding why the fear of darkness may have contributed to the survival of our human ancestors is most relevant to the ________ perspective.
A) behavioral
B) cognitive
C) evolutionary
D) psychodynamic



11. Which perspective would be most helpful for understanding the role of retrieval practice on long-term memory of information?
A) psychodynamic
B) social-cultural
C) cognitive
D) behavior genetics



12. Inherited traits are to learned habits as the ________ perspective is to the ________ perspective.
A) behavioral; social-cultural
B) evolutionary; behavioral
C) social-cultural; neuroscience
D) neuroscience; evolutionary



13. Basic research on persistent human traits like optimism and pessimism is most characteristic of the specialty known as ________ psychology.
A) biological
B) personality
C) social
D) developmental



14. Professor Thurstone investigates whether a teacher’s negative perceptions of some students can affect the students’ test scores. Professor Thurstone is most likely a ________ psychologist.
A) clinical
B) social
C) biological
D) personality



15. Testing your ability to recall information you have just studied improves your long-term retention of that information. Psychologists have referred to this as
A) SQ3R.
B) introspection.
C) the testing effect.
D) positive psychology.


1. After the horror of 9/11, many people said the CIA and FBI should obviously have foreseen the likelihood of this form of terrorism. This perception most clearly illustrates
A) overconfidence.
B) hindsight bias.
C) an empirical approach.
D) critical thinking.



2. Political officials who have no doubt that their own economic and military predictions will come true most clearly demonstrate
A) hindsight bias.
B) curious skepticism.
C) overconfidence.
D) an empirical approach.



3. Hindsight bias and overconfidence often lead us to overestimate
A) the value of an empirical approach.
B) how often random sequences fail to look random.
C) the need for critical thinking.
D) the accuracy of our intuition.



4. The tendency to perceive meaningful patterns in random sequences of outcomes often leads us to underestimate the extent to which outcomes result from
A) curious skepticism.
B) psychic powers.
C) hidden values.
D) chance.



5. When Leanne read a newspaper report that drinking orange juice triggers hyperactivity in children, she questioned whether the children’s behavior had been assessed using scientifically appropriate methods. Leanne’s reaction best illustrates
A) the perils of intuition.
B) hindsight bias.
C) critical thinking.
D) overconfidence.
1. Stacey suggests that because children are more impulsive than adults, they will have more difficulty controlling their anger. Stacey’s prediction regarding anger management is an example of
A) a hypothesis.
B) informed consent.
C) an operational definition.
D) the placebo effect.



2. Professor Carter observes and records the behavior of grocery shoppers as they select items to purchase. Which type of research is Professor Carter using?
A) survey research
B) case study
C) experimentation
D) naturalistic observation



3. A negative correlation between people’s work-related stress and their marital happiness would indicate that
A) work-related stress has a negative impact on marital happiness.
B) marital unhappiness promotes work-related stress.
C) higher levels of marital happiness are associated with lower levels of work-related stress.
D) marital happiness has no causal influence on work-related stress.



4. When people’s negative moods are at their worst, whatever they do to try to alleviate the condition is likely to be followed by an improvement in their mood rather than further worsening. This is best explained in terms of
A) random assignment.
B) illusory correlation.
C) informed consent.
D) regression toward the mean.



5. Which method offers the most reliable way of assessing whether athletic performance is boosted by drinking soda with caffeine in it?
A) the survey
B) the case study
C) the experiment
D) naturalistic observation



6. In drug-treatment studies, double-blind procedures minimize outcome differences between experimental and control conditions that could be attributed to
A) replication.
B) operational definitions.
C) random sampling.
D) placebo effects.



7. To assess whether sense of humor is affected by sexual stimulation, researchers exposed married couples to either sexually stimulating or to sexually nonstimulating movie scenes prior to watching a comedy skit. In this research, the independent variable consisted of
A) reactions to the comedy skit.
B) level of sexual stimulation.
C) marital status.
D) sense of humor.



8. In an experimental study of the extent to which mental alertness is inhibited by sleep deprivation, mental alertness would be the
A) control condition.
B) independent variable.
C) experimental condition.
D) dependent variable.



9. Ethical principles developed by psychologists urge investigators to
A) avoid the use of animals in experimental research.
B) minimize the use of the double-blind procedure with human research participants.
C) treat information about individual research participants confidentially.
D) avoid the use of financial incentives in any kind of research.



1. One person in a 10-person group is 10 times older than anyone else in the group. With respect to age, it is MOST likely that the majority of group members are younger than the group’s
A) mode.
B) median.
C) mean.
D) standard deviation.



2. The ________ is a measure of ________.
A) standard deviation; central tendency
B) mean; variation
C) median; central tendency
D) mode; variation



3. Janet has five brothers who are 4, 6, 6, 9, and 15 years of age. The mean age of Janet’s brothers is
A) 6.
B) 7.
C) 8.
D) 9.



4. The maximum height of a normal curve corresponds to the ________ of a normal distribution.
A) range
B) mean
C) standard deviation
D) statistical significance



5. Random samples provide ________ estimates of population averages if the samples have small ________.
A) good; means
B) good; standard deviations
C) poor; means
D) poor; standard deviations



1. An axon transmits messages ________ the cell body and a dendrite transmits messages ________ the cell body.
A) away from; toward
B) away from; away from
C) toward; away from
D) toward; toward



2. To excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the
A) axon.
B) synaptic gap.
C) myelin sheath.
D) endocrine glands.



3. The release of ________ to muscle cell receptors triggers muscle contractions.
A) ACh
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) adrenaline



4. Depressed mood states are linked to ________ levels of serotonin and ________ levels of norepinephrine.
A) low; low
B) high; high
C) low; high
D) high; low



5. A drug molecule that increases the release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic gap is a(n)
A) glutamate.
B) steroid.
C) agonist.
D) opiate.



6. The peripheral nervous system consists of
A) interneurons.
B) the spinal cord.
C) endocrine glands.
D) sensory and motor neurons.



7. The autonomic nervous system most directly controls
A) speech production.
B) thinking and memory.
C) movement of the arms and legs.
D) bladder contractions.



8. Although Ron has no genital sensations, he is capable of an erection if his genitals are stimulated. Ron’s experience is most indicative of a(n)
A) morphine antagonist.
B) severed spinal cord.
C) synaptic gap.
D) all-or-none response.



9. The release of epinephrine and norepinephrine ________ blood pressure and ________ blood sugar levels.
A) raises; raises
B) lowers; lowers
C) raises; lowers
D) lowers; raises



1. Which of the following would be most useful for detecting the brain areas that are most active as a person performs mathematical calculations?
A) a brain lesion
B) enlarged ventricles
C) a PET scan
D) an MRI scan



2. Which region of the brain appears to have the oldest evolutionary history?
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) brainstem
D) hypothalamus



3. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) medulla
D) cerebellum



4. After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth and coordinated manner. She has probably suffered damage to her
A) amygdala.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) corpus callosum.



5. The limbic system structure that regulates hunger is called the
A) thalamus.
B) amygdala.
C) hippocampus.
D) hypothalamus.



1. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in making plans and formulating moral judgments?
A) occipital lobes
B) frontal lobes
C) temporal lobes
D) parietal lobes



2. The brain devotes more tissue within the ________ for body areas requiring the most precise movement control such as the fingers.
A) hippocampus
B) corpus callosum
C) occipital lobes
D) motor cortex



3. The regions of the parietal lobes that are involved in mathematical and spatial reasoning are known as
A) the hippocampus.
B) the corpus callosum.
C) the somatosensory cortex.
D) association areas.



4. If you lose a finger, the somatosensory cortex that received its input will begin to pick up signals from the neighboring fingers. This best illustrates the value of
A) neurogenesis.
B) lateralization.
C) plasticity.
D) hemispherectomy.



5. Speech is processed primarily in the right hemisphere by the ________ of those who are left-handed and by the ________ of those who are right-handed.
A) minority; minority
B) majority; majority
C) minority; majority
D) majority; minority



1. Some neuroscientists believe that synchronized activity across different regions of the brain is a sign of
A) the cocktail party effect.
B) conscious awareness.
C) change blindness.
D) selective inattention.



2. A skilled tennis player’s brain and body respond automatically to an oncoming serve before becoming consciously aware of the ball’s trajectory. This best illustrates our capacity for
A) the popout phenomenon.
B) inattentional blindness.
C) choice blindness.
D) dual-processing.



3. The simultaneous processing of information on many parallel tracks is most closely associated with
A) sequential processing.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) the popout phenomenon.
D) unconscious mental activity.



4. A teenager focused on texting while crossing the street is not likely to notice a car rounding the corner and about to cross her path. This best illustrates the impact of
A) choice blindness.
B) selective attention.
C) dual processing.
D) the popout phenomenon.



5. In one experiment, many of the research participants who were keeping track of basketball tosses between players failed to notice a gorilla-suited research assistant thumping his chest as he moved among the players. This best illustrated
A) blindsight.
B) the popout phenomenon.
C) inattentional blindness.
D) the cocktail party effect.



1. Staying up especially late on weekends is most likely to have an influence on
A) narcolepsy.
B) sleep apnea.
C) the circadian rhythm.
D) night terrors.



2. Alpha waves are associated with
A) NREM-2 sleep.
B) NREM-3 sleep.
C) REM sleep.
D) a relaxed but awake state.



3. A recurring sleep stage during which most vivid dreams commonly occur is known as ________ sleep.



4. Bright light inhibits our feelings of sleepiness by influencing the production of
A) melatonin.
B) dopamine.



5. Sleep deprivation increases levels of the hunger-arousing hormone
A) melatonin.
B) ghrelin.
C) leptin.
D) serotonin.



6. Narcolepsy is associated with a relative absence of a hypothalamic neural center that produces
A) leptin.
B) orexin.
C) melatonin.



7. Which of the following sleep disorders is most strongly associated with obesity?
A) narcolepsy
B) insomnia
C) night terrors
D) sleep apnea



8. Sleepwalking is most likely to be associated with ________ sleep.



9. The distinction between manifest content and latent content is central to ________ theory of dreams.
A) the neural activation
B) the information processing
C) Freud’s wish-fulfillment
D) the cognitive development



1. As drug users experience neuroadaptation, they demonstrate signs of
A) REM sleep.
B) a near-death experience.
C) tolerance.
D) hallucinations.



2. Felix can’t remember the conversation he had with his girlfriend yesterday when he was intoxicated with alcohol. His memory failure is most likely a result of the way alcohol
A) increases self-consciousness.
B) reduces sensitivity to pain.
C) suppresses REM sleep.
D) increases sympathetic nervous system activity.



3. Nicotine triggers a(n) ________ in anxiety and a(n) ________ in mental alertness.
A) increase; decrease
B) increase; increase
C) decrease; decrease
D) decrease; increase



4. The experience of vivid geometric images and dreamlike scenes is most likely to be triggered by
B) heroin.
C) Nembutal.
D) amphetamines.



5. To prevent or reduce marijuana use, young people should be educated about
A) the tendency for teens to underestimate marijuana usage among their peers.
B) the increased self-consciousness caused by marijuana use.
C) the need for increasingly larger doses of marijuana to produce the desired high.
D) the long-term costs of regular marijuana use.



1. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are
A) less similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and less similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
B) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
C) equally similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
D) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and equally similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.



2. Adoptive parents are LEAST likely to influence the ________ of their adopted children.
A) personality traits
B) religious beliefs
C) political attitudes
D) moral values



3. Intense and reactive infants become unusually anxious and aroused when facing new or strange situations. This best illustrates the impact of
A) high serotonin levels.
B) temperament.
C) epigenetic molecules.
D) extraversion.



4. Heritability refers to the extent to which trait variations among individuals are attributable to their differing
A) epigenetic marks.
B) temperaments.
C) prenatal environments.
D) genes.



5. Researchers studying mice have found that in utero exposure to certain chemicals can cause genetically identical twins to have different colored fur. This is best explained by the fact that genetically linked traits can be modified by
A) serotonin molecules.
B) epigenetic marks.
C) a reactive temperament.
D) prenatal genetic testing.



1. The prevalence of genetically predisposed traits that have a reproductive advantage is best explained in terms of
A) social learning theory.
B) natural selection.
C) the human genome.
D) sexual overperception bias.



2. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of
A) gene splicing.
B) selective mating.
C) food deprivation.
D) hormone injections.



3. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to
A) fear dangerous animals.
B) love their own children.
C) seek healthy-looking mates.
D) do all of these things.



4. According to evolutionary psychology, men’s tendency to pair widely and women’s tendency to pair wisely are best explained by the fact that these differing strategies have contributed to men’s and women’s
A) shared human genome.
B) reproductive success.
C) social scripts.
D) genetic mutations.



5. Social learning theory is most likely to highlight the importance of ________ in accounting for the ways in which we sexually interact with others.
A) a universal moral grammar
B) a sexual overperception bias
C) our shared human genome
D) social scripts



1. In emphasizing that heredity’s effects on behavior depend on a person’s home environment, psychologists are highlighting the importance of
A) individualism.
B) a pruning process.
C) androgyny.
D) nature‒nurture interactions.



2. Premature babies are especially likely to gain weight if stimulated by
A) sound and music.
B) light and colors.
C) touch and massage.
D) movement and acceleration.



3. Displays of humility are most characteristic of those who value
A) individualism.
B) gender typing.
C) collectivism.
D) androgyny.



4. Over the last century, Western parents have placed ________ priority on teaching children to respect and obey parents and ________ priority on teaching them loyalty to their country.
A) decreasing; increasing
B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; decreasing
D) increasing; increasing



5. Men are LESS likely than women to
A) stare at people who make them angry.
B) be diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder.
C) interrupt others who are talking.
D) ask for other people’s opinions in a group discussion.



6. How many human chromosomes are common to both males and females?
A) 22
B) 23
C) 45
D) 46



7. Puberty is most closely related to the onset of
A) gender identity.
B) menarche.
C) androgyny.
D) gender typing.



8. Over the past decades, women have been increasingly expected to take responsibility for political leadership. This best illustrates a change in
A) sexual orientation.
B) gender identity.
C) secondary sex characteristics.
D) gender roles.



9. The effect of rewards and punishments on gender typing is most clearly emphasized by
A) evolutionary psychology.
B) cognitive neuroscience.
C) Freudian psychology.
D) social learning theory.



10. The acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role is called
A) heterosexuality.
B) androgyny.
C) gender typing.
D) gender identity.



11. The concepts of masculinity and femininity that we use to organize our world are called gender
A) types.
B) schemas.
C) roles.
D) complexes.



1. Dr. Matsuko’s major research interest is the long-term effects of child-raising practices on the psychological adjustment of offspring. It is most likely that Dr. Matsuko is a(n) ________ psychologist.
A) cognitive
B) developmental
C) biological
D) psychodynamic



2. Questions about the extent to which maladaptive habits learned in childhood can be overcome in adulthood are most directly relevant to the issue of
A) continuity and stages.
B) stability and change.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) nature and nurture.



3. Nutrients and oxygen are transferred from a mother to her developing fetus through the
A) embryo.
B) ovaries.
C) teratogens.
D) placenta.



4. If research suggested that a pregnant mother’s use of an artificial sweetener caused harm to the fetus, the artificial sweetener would be considered a(n)
A) habituation.
B) stress hormone.
C) digestive enzyme.
D) teratogen.



5. When touched on the cheek, infants reflexively
A) retract their arms.
B) open their mouths.
C) close their eyes.
D) cry.



1. The importance of schemas was most clearly highlighted by
A) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory.
B) Piaget’s cognitive development theory.
C) Harlow’s attachment theory.
D) Vygotsky’s social cognitive theory.



2. Two closed, pyramid-shaped beakers containing clearly identical amounts of a liquid are judged by a child to hold different amounts after one of the beakers is inverted. The child apparently lacks a
A) sense of object permanence.
B) concept of conservation.
C) capacity for habituation.
D) secure attachment.



3. A child’s realization that others may have beliefs that the child knows to be false best illustrates the development of
A) object permanence.
B) egocentrism.
C) a theory of mind.
D) stranger anxiety.



4. The process of imprinting occurs during a brief developmental phase known as
A) the preoperational stage.
B) object permanence.
C) accommodation.
D) a critical period.



5. Although 3-year-old Adam happily explores the attractive toys located in the dentist’s waiting room, he periodically returns to his mother’s side for brief moments. Adam most clearly displays signs of
A) secure attachment.
B) object permanence.
C) egocentrism.
D) conservation.



6. “I don’t care whether you want to wash the dishes, you will do so because I said so!” This statement is most representative of a(n) ________ parenting style.
A) preconventional
B) authoritative
C) formal operational
D) authoritarian



1. During adolescence, maturation of the ________ lags behind maturation of the ________.
A) brainstem; pituitary
B) pituitary; brainstem
C) limbic system; frontal lobes
D) frontal lobes; limbic system



2. Adolescents’ sense of what’s fair is most likely to change from simple equality to what’s proportional to merit when they achieve
A) formal operations.
B) menarche.
C) preconventional morality.
D) an identity.



3. Mark believes that choosing to violate government laws is morally justifiable if it is done to protect the lives of innocent people. Kohlberg would suggest that this illustrates ________ morality.
A) conventional
B) unconventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional



4. Jessica acts so differently with her parents than with her girlfriends that she often thinks her personality is completely phony. Erik Erikson would have suggested that Jessica is experiencing
A) delay of gratification.
B) stagnation.
C) role confusion.
D) generativity.



5. Adolescents are most likely to be influenced by their parents with respect to ________, and they are most likely to be influenced by their peers with respect to ________.
A) online communication habits; college choices
B) dating practices; religious faith
C) bedtime preferences; political views
D) career choices; clothing preferences



6. A public initiation into adult responsibilities and status is called a
A) pruning process.
B) critical period.
C) rite of passage.
D) delay of gratification.



1. Physical exercise in late adulthood has been found to
A) enhance muscle strength.
B) help prevent heart disease.
C) stimulate brain cell development.
D) do all of these things.



2. The preferred age for retirement is quite different in Mexico than in Western Europe. This best illustrates that ________ differs from culture to culture.
A) the maturational cycle
B) an empty nest
C) terminal decline
D) the social clock



3. Among older adults, hearing loss, and its associated social isolation, predicts the incidence of depression and
A) menopause.
B) brain plasticity.
C) neurocognitive disorder.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.



4. Since the advent of the Internet, there has been a(n) ________ in the percentage of American couples who report meeting online. The percentage meeting online is currently ________ among same-sex couples than among heterosexual couples.
A) increase; smaller
B) decrease; smaller
C) increase; larger
D) decrease; larger



5. There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her
A) risk of neurocognitive disorder.
B) ability to recall meaningless information.
C) level of life satisfaction.
D) susceptibility to accidental physical injury.



1. Normal vision accompanied by prosopagnosia best illustrates the distinction between
A) absolute thresholds and difference thresholds.
B) subliminal sensation and subliminal persuasion.
C) sensory adaptation and perceptual set.
D) sensation and perception.



2. The local fire department sounds the 12 o’clock whistle. The process by which your ears transform the sound waves from the siren into neural impulses is an example of
A) a threshold.
B) signal detection.
C) transduction.
D) sensory adaptation.



3. A subliminal message is one that is presented
A) below one’s absolute threshold for awareness.
B) in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive.
C) with very soft background music.
D) repetitiously.



4. Weber’s law is relevant to an understanding of
A) absolute thresholds.
B) difference thresholds.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) subliminal persuasion.



5. If you move your watchband up your wrist an inch or so, you will feel it for only a few moments. This best illustrates
A) a perceptual set.
B) priming.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) Weber’s law.



1. The wavelength of light determines its
A) retinal disparity.
B) brightness.
C) amplitude.
D) hue.



2. Receptor cells in the human eye that are the most sensitive to fine detail are called
A) feature detectors.
B) supercell clusters.
C) cones.
D) rods.



3. Multiple ________ send combined messages to a bipolar cell, whereas a single ________ may link directly to a single bipolar cell.
A) rods; cone
B) cones; rod
C) feature detectors; supercell cluster
D) supercell clusters; feature detector



4. The opponent-process theory is most useful for explaining a characteristic of
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) retinal disparity.
C) accommodation.
D) afterimages.



5. Some stroke victims lose the capacity to perceive motion but retain the capacity to perceive shapes and colors. Others lose the capacity to perceive colors but retain the capacity to perceive movement and form. These peculiar visual disabilities best illustrate our normal capacity for
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) parallel processing.
C) feature detection.
D) accommodation.



6. The way in which you quickly group the individual letters in this test item into separate words best illustrates the principle of
A) closure.
B) proximity.
C) interposition.
D) perceptual constancy.



7. The fact that we recognize objects as having a consistent form regardless of changing viewing angles illustrates
A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) linear perspective.



8. The Moon illusion refers to our tendency to perceive the Moon as unusually
A) large when it is near the horizon.
B) large when it is high in the sky.
C) bright when it is near the horizon.
D) bright when it is high in the sky.



9. Immanuel Kant and John Locke would have been most likely to disagree about the extent to which perception is influenced by
A) cultural experience.
B) retinal disparity.
C) accommodation.
D) relative luminance.


1. Damage to the basilar membrane is most likely to affect one’s
A) olfaction.
B) audition.
C) sense of smell.
D) vestibular sense.



2. Dissociation has been used as an explanation for
A) the McGurk effect.
B) synesthesia.
C) hypnotic pain relief.
D) stereophonic hearing.



3. Receptor cells for the vestibular sense send messages to the
A) temporal lobes.
B) cerebellum.
C) olfactory cortex.
D) frontal lobes.



4. Holding a heavy rather than a light clipboard leads people to perceive job candidates as more important. This best illustrates
A) the volley principle.
B) psychokinesis.
C) embodied cognition.
D) the McGurk effect.



5. Psychics are unable to make millions of dollars betting on horse races. This undermines their claims to possess the power of
A) clairvoyance.
B) interposition.
C) precognition.
D) telepathy.



1. Through direct experience with animals, we come to anticipate that dogs will bark and that birds will chirp. This best illustrates
A) higher-order conditioning.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) operant behavior.
D) associative learning.



2. The first time that Liza heard the loud sound of her father’s bass drum, she responded with fear. The fear response is most clearly an example of
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) operant behavior.
C) associative learning.
D) respondent behavior.



3. John B. Watson believed that psychology should be the science of
A) observable behavior.
B) cognitive processes.
C) genetic predispositions.
D) all of these factors.



4. Pavlov noticed that dogs began salivating at the mere sight of the person who regularly brought food to them. For the dogs, the sight of this person was a(n)
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) unconditional stimulus.
C) secondary conditioner.
D) conditioned stimulus.



5. Blinking in response to a puff of air directed to your eye is a
A) UR.
B) US.
C) CR.
D) CS.



6. Long after her conditioned fear of dogs had been extinguished, Marcy experienced an unexpected surge of nervousness when first shown her cousin’s new cocker spaniel. Her unexpected nervousness best illustrates
A) discrimination.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) observational learning.
D) an unconditioned response.



7. A year after surviving a classroom shooting incident, Kim-Li still responds with terror at the sight of toy guns and to the sound of balloons popping. This reaction best illustrates
A) an unconditioned response.
B) operant conditioning.
C) discrimination.
D) generalization.


1. Cats received a fish reward whenever they maneuvered themselves out of an enclosed puzzle box. With successive trials, the cats escaped from the box with increasing speed. This illustrates
A) negative reinforcement.
B) the law of effect.
C) respondent behavior.
D) spontaneous recovery.



2. In teaching her son to play basketball, Mrs. Richards initially reinforces him with praise for simply dribbling while standing still, then only for walking while dribbling, and finally only for running while dribbling. She is using a procedure known as
A) generalization.
B) partial reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) shaping.



3. If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light. In this case, the light is a ________ reinforcer.
A) partial
B) primary
C) conditioned
D) delayed



4. Airline frequent flyer programs that reward customers with a free flight after every 50,000 miles of travel illustrate the use of a ________ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-interval
B) variable-interval
C) fixed-ratio
D) variable-ratio



5. During a typical morning, Colin checks the clock frequently before being reinforced with confirmation that the time for his regularly scheduled lunch break has arrived. In this case, Colin’s behavior is reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) variable-interval
C) fixed-ratio
D) variable-ratio



6. Punishment ________ the rate of operant responding, and negative reinforcement ________ the rate of operant responding.
A) increases; decreases
B) decreases; increases
C) decreases; decreases
D) has no effect on; has no effect on



1. Rats most easily learn to associate nausea-producing radiation treatments with
A) loud sounds.
B) bright lights.
C) novel tastes.
D) high-pitched sounds.



2. An organism’s ability to mentally anticipate that a US will follow a CS is most likely to be highlighted by a(n) ________ perspective.
A) evolutionary
B) behaviorist
C) cognitive
D) neuroscience



3. If one chimpanzee watches a second chimp solve a puzzle for a food reward, the first chimp may thereby learn how to solve the puzzle. This best illustrates
A) operant conditioning.
B) observational learning.
C) classical conditioning.
D) instinctive drift.



4. An empathic husband who sees his wife in pain will exhibit some of the same brain activity she is showing. According to many researchers, this best illustrates the functioning of
A) cognitive maps.
B) latent learning.
C) mirror neurons.
D) extrinsic motivation.



5. Most of the TV shows that 9-year-old Fred watches involve violence. This is most likely to lead Fred to
A) react with a sense of distress at the sight of two children fighting on the school playground.
B) perceive the injuries of victims of violence as less severe.
C) be more inhibited about personally starting a fight on the school playground.
D) overestimate the pain and injury experienced by victims of violent crime.



1. After Maya told her friend the 5-digit password to a protected website, her friend was able to remember it only long enough to type it into the password box. In this instance, the password was clearly stored in her friend’s ________ memory.
A) procedural
B) short-term
C) iconic
D) implicit



2. The encoding of information directly into long-term storage without the aid of working memory best illustrates
A) chunking.
B) automatic processing.
C) iconic memory.
D) the spacing effect.



3. Mr. Nydam suffers amnesia and is unable to remember playing golf several times each week on a particular course. Yet the more he plays the course, the more his game improves. His experience illustrates the need to distinguish between
A) short-term memory and long-term memory.
B) massed practice and distributed practice.
C) explicit memory and implicit memory.
D) recognition and recall.



4. Another term for implicit memory is ________ memory.
A) iconic
B) short-term
C) nondeclarative
D) working



5. Mentally rehearsing the glossary definitions of unfamiliar terms in order to remember them for a later test illustrates
A) the peg-word system.
B) procedural memory.
C) effortful processing.
D) echoic memory.



6. Employing the single word HOMES to remember the names of North America’s five Great Lakes best illustrates the use of
A) the spacing effect.
B) the self-reference effect.
C) acronyms.
D) implicit memory.



7. Many students review course material at various times during a semester so they will be prepared for the final exam. These students are especially likely to retain the information far into the future. This best illustrates the value of
A) distributed practice.
B) implicit memory.
C) procedural memory.
D) the self-reference effect.



8. The semantic processing of the words in a short poem illustrates
A) procedural memory.
B) the peg-word system.
C) the testing effect.
D) deep processing.



1. Which of the following is central to the processing of procedural memories?
A) hippocampus
B) hypothalamus
C) basal ganglia
D) amygdala



2. Conscious memories of emotionally stressful events are especially likely to be facilitated by activation of the
A) basal ganglia.
B) amygdala.
C) cerebellum.
D) hypothalamus.



3. Which of the following is believed to be the synaptic basis for learning and memory?
A) priming
B) the primacy effect
C) encoding specificity
D) long-term potentiation



4. The happier Judie is, the more readily she recalls positive life experiences. This best illustrates that emotional states can become
A) retrieval cues.
B) a primacy effect.
C) procedural memories.
D) flashbulb memories.



5. At a block party, Cyndi is introduced to eight new neighbors. Moments later, she remembers only the names of the first three and last two neighbors. Her experience best illustrates
A) state-dependent memory.
B) context-dependent memory.
C) implicit memory.
D) the serial position effect.


1. After suffering a brain injury in a motorcycle accident, Arotza cannot form new memories. He can, however, remember events before the accident. Arotza’s memory difficulty most clearly illustrates
A) retroactive interference.
B) the misinformation effect.
C) anterograde amnesia.
D) proactive interference.



2. During her evening Spanish language exam, Janica so easily remembers the French vocabulary she studied that morning that she finds it difficult to recall the Spanish vocabulary she rehearsed that afternoon. Her difficulty best illustrates
A) the misinformation effect.
B) proactive interference.
C) source amnesia.
D) retroactive interference.



3. Mrs. McBride can’t consciously recall how frequently she criticizes her children because it would be too anxiety-arousing to do so. Sigmund Freud would have suggested that her poor memory illustrates
A) source amnesia.
B) proactive interference.
C) automatic processing.
D) repression.



4. After Teresa was verbally threatened by someone in a passing car, she was asked whether she recognized the man who was driving the car. Several hours later, Teresa mistakenly recalled that the driver was a male rather than a female. Teresa’s experience best illustrates
A) implicit memory.
B) proactive interference.
C) the misinformation effect.
D) anterograde amnesia.



5. Answering practice test questions about text material you have studied is a useful strategy for
A) automatically processing complex information.
B) facilitating the development of implicit memory.
C) inhibiting infantile amnesia.
D) becoming aware of what you do not yet know.



1. Aristotle suggested that a meal makes us sleepy by causing heat to collect around the
A) brain.
B) throat.
C) heart.
D) stomach.



2. Wilhelm Wundt’s laboratory work involved experimental studies of
A) animal intelligence.
B) personality development.
C) social influence.
D) mental processes.



3. The birth of psychology is often attributed to Wilhelm Wundt because he pioneered the investigation of mental processes using
A) a biopsychosocial perspective.
B) an evolutionary perspective.
C) positive psychology.
D) scientific methods.



4. The early school of thought that used introspection to reveal the mind’s makeup was called
A) cognitive neuroscience.
B) behaviorism.
C) structuralism.
D) evolutionary psychology.



5. Introspection was the basic research tool used by ________ in order to study people’s inner sensations and mental images.
A) John B. Watson
B) Charles Darwin
C) Edward Titchener
D) B. F. Skinner



6. Looking inward and reporting your immediate sensations, images, and feelings is called
A) cognitive neuroscience.
B) introspection.
C) behaviorism.
D) humanistic psychology.



7. Research participants are asked to monitor and report their own immediate sensory reactions to differently colored objects. This research involves a technique known as
A) behavior genetics.
B) psychoanalysis.
C) massed practice.
D) introspection.



8. The unreliability of _____ led to the waning popularity of structuralism.
A) introspection
B) spaced practice
C) behaviorism.
D) humanistic psychology



9. William James was a prominent American
A) psychoanalyst.
B) behaviorist.
C) functionalist.
D) psychiatrist.



10. Functionalism was a school of psychology that focused attention on the
A) adaptive value of thoughts and behaviors.
B) component elements of sensory experience.
C) disruptive effects of unconscious motives.
D) treatment of psychological disorders.



11. Which theorist most clearly influenced William James’ efforts to understand the adaptive functions of thinking and consciousness?
A) John B. Watson
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Carl Rogers
D) Charles Darwin



12. Edward Titchener is to structuralism as William James is to
A) behaviorism.
B) humanistic psychology.
C) cognitive neuroscience.
D) functionalism.



13. Who was the American philosopher-psychologist who authored a textbook in 1890 for the emerging discipline of psychology?
A) Wilhelm Wundt
B) John B. Watson
C) Sigmund Freud
D) William James



14. Who was a student of William James and the first female president of the American Psychological Association?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Margaret Floy Washburn
C) Rosalie Rayner
D) Mary Whiton Calkins



15. Early psychologists such as Wilhelm Wundt and William James focused on the study of
A) mental processes.
B) clinical psychology.
C) unconscious motives.
D) conditioned responses.



16. From the 1920s into the 1960s, American psychologists emphasized the study of
A) genetic influences.
B) self-esteem.
C) conscious thoughts and feelings.
D) observable behavior.



17. The view that psychology should be an objective science that studies observable human activity without reference to mental processes is known as
A) behaviorism.
B) cognitive neuroscience.
C) humanistic psychology.
D) positive psychology.



18. Behaviorists dismissed the value of
A) science.
B) introspection.
C) spaced practice.
D) applied research.



19. Early behaviorists such as John B. Watson would have considered the introspective study of self-esteem to be
A) applied research.
B) a positive psychology.
C) an unscientific method.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.



20. John B. Watson is to Edward Titchener as ________ is to ________.
A) biology; environment
B) observable behavior; inner sensations
C) mental illness; psychiatry
D) cognitive perspective; psychoanalytic perspective



21. Which major force in psychology emphasized unconscious thought processes?
A) evolutionary psychology
B) Freudian psychology
C) behavior genetics
D) behaviorism



22. Sherry is often overly generous in sacrificing her time to help others. Her friend suggests that by keeping busy in this way Sherry avoids confronting her own unconscious conflicts. Her friend’s suggestion illustrates the type of explanation that is most typical of
A) evolutionary psychology.
B) cognitive neuroscience.
C) structuralism.
D) Freudian psychology.



23. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow promoted a historically significant approach known as
A) behaviorism.
B) humanistic psychology.
C) cognitive neuroscience.
D) behavior genetics.



24. Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people’s
A) childhood memories.
B) genetic predispositions.
C) unconscious thought processes.
D) potential for healthy growth.



25. In the 1960s, the cognitive revolution in psychology involved a renewal of interest in the scientific study of
A) mental processes.
B) hereditary influences.
C) unconscious motives.
D) learned behaviors.



26. The scientific study of mental activities associated with perceiving, processing, and remembering information is most central to
A) clinical psychology.
B) humanistic psychology.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) cognitive psychology.



27. Cognitive neuroscience studies relationships between
A) natural selection and genetic predispositions.
B) childhood memories and psychological disorders.
C) thought processes and brain functions.
D) philosophy and physiology.



28. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of
A) conscious and unconscious mental activity.
B) observable responses to the environment.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) maladaptive and adaptive behaviors.



29. Smiling is to feeling as ________ is to ________.
A) evolution; natural selection
B) behavior; mental process
C) conscious; unconscious
D) nurture; nature



30. The young science of psychology developed from the more established fields of philosophy and
A) economics.
B) biology.
C) geography.
D) sociology.



31. The personality theorist, Sigmund Freud, was an Austrian
A) chemist.
B) physician.
C) theologian.
D) politician.



32. One of the last century’s most influential observers of children was the Swiss biologist
A) Edward Bradford Titchener.
B) Margaret Floy Washburn.
C) William James.
D) Jean Piaget.



33. Today’s psychology is best described as increasingly
A) introspective in its methods.
B) psychodynamic it its perspective.
C) globalized in its influence.
D) controversial in its application.



34. The nature–nurture issue refers to the debate over the relative contributions that ________ make to the development of psychological traits.
A) massed practice and spaced practice
B) unconscious and conscious motives
C) behavior and mental processes
D) genes and experience



35. Innate ability is to learned skill as ________ is to ________.
A) observation; introspection
B) psychology; psychiatry
C) nature; nurture
D) behavior; mental processes



36. Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more heavily influenced by their biology or by their home environments are most directly relevant to the debate regarding
A) structuralism and functionalism.
B) conscious and unconscious thought.
C) observation and introspection.
D) nature and nurture.



37. Lissette wonders whether personality differences between her friends who recently moved from Nigeria and those who moved from Thailand result primarily from biological influences or from cultural influences. In this instance, Lissette is primarily concerned with the relative contributions of
A) neuroscience and cognition.
B) nature and nurture.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) conscious and unconscious thoughts.



38. Plato’s assumption that we inherit character traits and intelligence is most directly relevant to the controversy regarding
A) conscious and unconscious thoughts.
B) observation and introspection.
C) nature and nurture.
D) basic and applied research.



39. In the context of debates over the origins of psychological traits, nature is to nurture as
A) Plato is to Aristotle.
B) Watson is to Skinner.
C) Aristotle is to Plato.
D) Skinner is to Watson.



40. Professor McClure believes that young children are frequently able to make morally correct decisions because humans are endowed with an inborn knowledge of basic ethical principles. The professor’s belief is most consistent with the views of
A) Aristotle.
B) Plato.
C) John Locke.
D) B. F. Skinner.



41. Who suggested that the mind at birth is a blank sheet upon which experience writes?
A) Charles Darwin
B) René Descartes
C) John Locke
D) Plato



42. Which seventeenth-century European philosopher believed that some ideas are innate?
A) John Locke
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) Edward Titchener
D) René Descartes



43. Who highlighted the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits?
A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) John Locke
D) Charles Darwin



44. Charles Darwin attempted to explain the ________ that he encountered.
A) unconscious thought processes
B) species variation
C) biopsychosocial approach
D) SQ3R method



45. The survival of organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as
A) functionalism.
B) natural selection.
C) behavior genetics.
D) structuralism.



46. Natural selection refers to the principle that variations in ________ that contribute to reproduction and survival will most likely be passed on to succeeding generations.
A) learned habits
B) inherited traits
C) levels of analysis
D) cultural practices



47. Exploring how we humans are alike because of our common biology and evolutionary history is the focus of
A) cognitive neuroscience.
B) community psychology.
C) behavior genetics.
D) evolutionary psychology.



48. Exploring how we humans are diverse because of our differing genes and environments is the focus of
A) behavior genetics.
B) cognitive psychology.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) humanistic psychology.



49. By suggesting that nurture works on what nature endows, psychologists highlight the fact that we are biologically endowed with a capacity for
A) inborn ideas.
B) natural selection.
C) introspection.
D) learning and adaptation.



50. The enduring traditions, attitudes, ideas, and behaviors shared by a large group of people constitute their
A) culture.
B) levels of analysis.
C) massed practice.
D) community psychology.



51. Studying people of all races and cultures is most helpful for
A) promoting the testing effect.
B) inhibiting introspection.
C) discerning human similarities and differences.
D) encouraging massed practice.



52. Psychological differences between the genders are
A) of little interest to contemporary psychologists.
B) simply reflections of biological differences between the sexes.
C) no longer evident in contemporary Western societies.
D) far outweighed by gender similarities.



53. Depression and suicide are more common in today’s North American culture than they were in the very different North American culture of nearly a century ago. But in both the past and the more recent cultural settings, pessimistic thinking and feelings of loneliness corresponded with a heightened risk of depression and suicide. This best illustrates that ________ often underlie cultural differences in behavior.
A) genetic differences
B) unconscious motives
C) early childhood memories
D) common psychological processes



54. Discovering and promoting human strengths and virtues that help individuals and communities to thrive is the major focus of
A) the psychodynamic perspective.
B) positive psychology.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) behavior genetics.



55. Different accounts of the same behavior that together give us a more complete understanding represent different
A) cognitive functions.
B) unconscious motives.
C) levels of analysis.
D) natural selections.



56. The biopsychosocial approach provides an understanding of social-cultural influences integrated within the larger framework of
A) SQ3R.
B) introspection.
C) humanistic psychology.
D) multiple levels of analysis.



57. Janna has low self-esteem because she is often teased for being overweight. Appreciating the complexity of Janna’s difficulties requires
A) introspection.
B) psychoanalysis.
C) massed practice.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.



58. The biopsychosocial approach incorporates different levels of analysis, which
A) have little value for applied research.
B) typically contradict common sense.
C) are generally impossible to test scientifically.
D) complement one another.



59. The neuroscience perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by
A) environmental circumstances.
B) blood chemistry.
C) unconscious conflicts.
D) subjective interpretations.



60. Which perspective would help us to understand the impact of strokes and brain diseases on memory?
A) evolutionary
B) behavioral
C) psychodynamic
D) neuroscience



61. Professor Lopez believes that severe depression results primarily from an imbalanced diet and abnormal brain chemistry. Professor Lopez favors a ________ perspective on depression.
A) neuroscience
B) psychodynamic
C) behavior genetics
D) cognitive



62. Which perspective highlights the reproductive advantages of inherited psychological traits?
A) evolutionary
B) cognitive
C) behavioral
D) social-cultural



63. Which perspective would suggest that the facial expressions associated with the emotions of lust and rage are inherited?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) evolutionary
D) social-cultural



64. Professor Crisman believes that most women prefer tall and physically strong partners because this preference promoted the survival of our ancestors’ genes. This viewpoint best illustrates the ________ perspective.
A) social-cultural
B) cognitive
C) evolutionary
D) psychodynamic



65. Which perspective studies the relative contributions of our genes and our environment on our individual differences?
A) cognitive
B) behavior genetics
C) social-cultural
D) psychodynamic



66. Professor Brody attempts to measure the relative contributions of inborn traits and social influences on sexual preferences and behavior patterns. Her research efforts best illustrate the interests of the ________ perspective.
A) behavior genetics
B) psychodynamic
C) behavioral
D) cognitive



67. The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on
A) natural selection.
B) brain chemistry.
C) unconscious conflicts.
D) learned behaviors.



68. Mrs. Alfieri believes that her husband’s angry outbursts against her result from his unconscious hatred of his own mother. Mrs. Alfieri is looking at her husband’s behavior from a(n) ________ perspective.
A) evolutionary
B) behavioral
C) psychodynamic
D) behavior genetics



69. Which perspective most clearly focuses on how we learn observable responses?
A) evolutionary
B) neuroscience
C) behavioral
D) behavior genetics



70. Akira believes that her son has become a good student because she frequently praises his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________ perspective.
A) behavior genetics
B) neuroscience
C) psychodynamic
D) behavioral



71. The cognitive perspective in psychology focuses on how
A) feelings are influenced by blood chemistry.
B) people try to understand their own unconscious motives.
C) behavior is influenced by environmental conditions.
D) people encode, process, store, and retrieve information.



72. Which perspective is most concerned with how individuals interpret their experiences?
A) behavioral
B) cognitive
C) neuroscience
D) behavior genetics



73. Which psychological perspective is most likely to be concerned with identifying the powers and the limits of human reasoning?
A) cognitive
B) behavioral
C) neuroscience
D) behavior genetics



74. Which perspective in psychology is most likely to focus on how behavior and thinking vary across situations and cultures?
A) evolutionary
B) neuroscience
C) cognitive
D) social-cultural



75. Which perspective would focus on the extent to which different parenting styles are encouraged among various ethnic groups?
A) evolutionary
B) psychodynamic
C) social-cultural
D) neuroscience



76. Dr. Wilson attributes the delinquent behaviors of many teens to the pressures associated with being members of street gangs. Her account best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.
A) behavior genetics
B) social-cultural
C) neuroscience
D) evolutionary



77. Studies conducted for the sake of building psychology’s base of knowledge are most clearly examples of
A) the testing effect.
B) replication.
C) basic research.
D) positive psychology.



78. Dr. Robinson conducts research on the relationship between brain chemistry and intellectual functioning. Which psychological specialty does Dr. Robinson’s research best represent?
A) social psychology
B) clinical psychology
C) biological psychology
D) industrial-organizational psychology



79. Dr. Santaniello conducts research on how children’s moral thinking changes as they grow older. It is most likely that Dr. Santaniello is a(n) ________ psychologist.
A) social
B) clinical
C) developmental
D) industrial-organizational



80. Dr. Caleigh conducts research on the relationship between adults’ language skills and their capacity to solve mathematical problems. Dr. Caleigh is most likely a _________ psychologist.
A) cognitive
B) biological
C) clinical
D) social



81. Dr. Roberts studies how best to assess individual differences in traits such as impulsiveness and sociability. Which specialty area does her research best represent?
A) social psychology
B) biological psychology
C) industrial-organizational psychology
D) personality psychology



82. Dr. Mills conducts research on why individuals conform to the behaviors and opinions of others. Which specialty area does his research best represent?
A) cognitive psychology
B) social psychology
C) developmental psychology
D) clinical psychology



83. Which psychologists are MOST likely to be involved in applied research?
A) industrial-organizational psychologists
B) developmental psychologists
C) personality psychologists
D) biological psychologists



84. Dr. Lipka focuses on ways to improve employee job satisfaction and productivity. Dr. Lipka is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist.
A) clinical
B) developmental
C) personality
D) industrial-organizational



85. Dr. Vazquez helps people make career choices by assisting them in identifying their strengths and interests. Dr. Vazquez is most likely a
A) biological psychologist.
B) counseling psychologist.
C) cognitive psychologist.
D) social psychologist.



86. Clinical psychologists specialize in
A) constructing surveys.
B) animal research.
C) providing therapy to troubled people.
D) providing drugs to treat behavioral disorders.



87. For no apparent reason, Adam has recently begun to feel so tense and anxious that he frequently stays home from work. It would be best for Adam to contact a ________ psychologist.
A) developmental
B) clinical
C) personality
D) biological



88. The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a
A) clinical psychologist.
B) personality psychologist.
C) developmental psychologist.
D) psychiatrist.



89. Rather than seeking to change people to fit their environments, ________ work to create social and physical environments that are healthy for all.
A) counseling psychologists.
B) cognitive psychologists.
C) community psychologists.
D) clinical psychologists.



90. The testing effect refers to the ________ that accompanies repeated retrieval of learned information.
A) introspection
B) natural selection
C) enhanced memory
D) increasing boredom



91. Students learn and remember course materials best when they
A) practice introspection.
B) engage in massed practice.
C) process information actively.
D) avoid multiple levels of analysis.



92. SQ3R is a study method incorporating five steps: survey, question, read, ________, and review.
A) revise
B) reason
C) retrieve
D) research



93. The SQ3R study method emphasizes the importance of
A) massed practice.
B) introspection.
C) retrieving information.
D) role modeling.



94. Discerning the unstated assumptions and values that underlie conclusions best illustrates ________, which is an important learning tool.
A) critical thinking
B) the testing effect
C) introspection



1. A theory is an explanation using an integrated set of principles that ________ observations and ________ behaviors or events.
A) questions; surveys
B) replicates; controls
C) organizes; predicts
D) randomly samples; randomly assigns



2. Professor Shalet contends that parents and children have similar levels of intelligence largely because they share common genes. His idea is best described as a(n)
A) theory.
B) replication.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) operational definition.



3. The explanatory power of a scientific theory is most closely linked to its capacity to generate testable
A) assumptions.
B) correlations.
C) predictions.
D) variables.



4. A hypothesis is a(n)
A) observable relationship between specific independent and dependent variables.
B) testable prediction that gives direction to research.
C) set of principles that organizes observations and explains newly discovered facts.
D) unprovable assumption about the unobservable processes that underlie psychological functioning.



5. Testing hypotheses and refining theories in light of those tests is central to
A) debriefing.
B) regression toward the mean.
C) the scientific method.
D) informed consent.



6. Professor Delano suggests that because people are especially attracted to those who are good-looking, handsome men will be more successful than average-looking men in getting a job. The professor’s prediction regarding employment success is an example of
A) informed consent.
B) the placebo effect.
C) a hypothesis.
D) a confounding variable.



7. A statement describing the exact procedures for measuring an anticipated experimental outcome is known as a(n)
A) hypothesis.
B) control condition.
C) replication.
D) operational definition.



8. In a published report of a research study on social anxiety, psychologists included a 30-item questionnaire, which they had used to assess levels of social anxiety. The psychologists have thus provided their readers with a(n)
A) hypothesis.
B) independent variable.
C) operational definition.
D) double-blind procedure.



9. Replication of a research study is most likely to be facilitated by
A) regression toward the mean.
B) debriefing.
C) operational definitions.
D) the placebo effect.



10. Repeating the essence of a previous research study to verify that the findings of the original study extend to a new group of research participants and to different circumstances is called
A) replication.
B) random sampling.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) the double-blind procedure.



11. Recent instances of fraudulent or hard-to-believe research findings have led psychologists to give greater priority to the process of
A) debriefing.
B) replication.
C) informed consent.
D) naturalistic observation.



12. Professor Ambra was skeptical about the accuracy of recently reported research on sleep deprivation. Which process would best enable her to assess the reliability of these findings?
A) naturalistic observation
B) replication
C) random sampling
D) the case study



13. The case study is a research method in which
A) a single individual or group is studied in great depth.
B) a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviors.
C) organisms are carefully observed in a laboratory environment.
D) an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behavior.



14. To understand the unusual behavior of an adult client, a clinical psychologist carefully investigates the client’s current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and educational history. Which research method has the psychologist used?
A) the survey
B) the case study
C) experimentation
D) naturalistic observation



15. Little Hans’ extreme fear of horses was observed as part of a(n)
A) experiment.
B) survey.
C) case study.
D) double-blind procedure.



16. The biggest danger of relying on case-study evidence is that it
A) is based on naturalistic observation.
B) may be unrepresentative of what is generally true.
C) overestimates the importance of operational definitions.
D) leads us to underestimate the causal relationships between events.



17. A descriptive technique of monitoring and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to change or control the situation is called
A) random sampling.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) replication.
D) the double-blind procedure.



18. Psychologists who carefully watch the behavior of chimpanzee societies in the jungle are using a research method known as
A) the survey.
B) experimentation.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) the case study.



19. Professor Ober carefully observes and records the behaviors of children in their classrooms in order to track the development of their social and intellectual skills. Professor Ober is most clearly engaged in
A) survey research.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) experimentation.
D) replication.



20. New technologies such as smart phone apps and body-worn sensors have enabled the collection of “big data” by means of
A) scatterplots.
B) case studies.
C) experimentation.
D) naturalistic observation.



21. One research team studied the ups and downs of human moods by counting positive and negative words in 504 million Twitter messages from 84 countries. The researchers’ method best illustrates the use of
A) experimentation.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) case studies.
D) a survey.



22. University of Texas students were fitted with electronically activated recorders for up to four days so that researchers could sample their daily activities. The researchers employed a scientific method known as
A) naturalistic observation.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) experimentation.
D) the case study.



23. To compare the pace of life in different countries, investigators measured the speed with which postal clerks completed a simple request. Which research method did this illustrate?
A) the case study
B) naturalistic observation
C) the double-blind procedure
D) the survey



24. A descriptive technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a representative sample of a population is known as
A) naturalistic observation.
B) natural selection.
C) a case study.
D) a survey.



25. Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the religious beliefs of Americans and their attitudes toward abortion?
A) the survey
B) naturalistic observation
C) the case study
D) experimentation



26. Surveys indicate that people are less likely to support “welfare” than “aid to the needy.” These somewhat paradoxical survey results best illustrate the importance of
A) random sampling.
B) wording effects.
C) the placebo effect.
D) naturalistic observation.



27. People often fail to make accurate generalizations because they are unduly influenced by ________ cases.
A) randomly selected
B) vivid
C) representative
D) operationally defined



28. A representative sample is one that accurately reflects a larger
A) control group.
B) scatterplot.
C) dependent variable.
D) population.



29. After noting that a majority of professional basketball players are African-American, Ervin concluded that African-Americans are better athletes than members of other racial groups. Ervin’s conclusion best illustrates the danger of
A) replication.
B) random assignment.
C) the placebo effect.
D) generalizing from vivid cases.



30. When every individual in a large population has a small but equal chance of being included in a survey, researchers are using a procedure known as
A) the case study.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) random sampling.
D) naturalistic observation.



31. Which of the following is most useful for helping survey researchers avoid false generalizations?
A) the case study
B) naturalistic observation
C) random sampling
D) operational definitions



32. Governor Donovan was greeted by large, enthusiastic crowds at all of his political rallies. As a result, he became overconfident about his chances of re-election. In this instance, the governor needs to be alerted to the value of
A) replication.
B) random sampling.
C) experimental control.
D) naturalistic observation.



33. To learn about the TV viewing habits of all the children attending Oakbridge School, Professor DeVries randomly selected and interviewed 50 of the school’s students. In this instance, all the children attending the school are considered to be a(n)
A) population.
B) representative sample.
C) independent variable.
D) control condition.



34. To assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her school, Ariana sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the registrar’s alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Ariana is ensuring that her survey results are accurate by using
A) random assignment.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) replication.
D) random sampling.



35. Suppose you want to find out which candidate college students will vote for in an upcoming national election. To be sure the sample of college students you survey is representative of the college student population, you should
A) survey only a small sample of college students.
B) survey only politically informed college students.
C) survey every college student on your own campus.
D) survey a large, representative sample of the college student population.



36. In a survey, psychologists select a random sample of research participants in order to ensure that
A) the participants are representative of the population they are interested in studying.
B) there will be a large number of participants in the research study.
C) the study will not be influenced by the researcher’s personal values.
D) the same number of participants will be assigned to each of the experimental conditions.



37. Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two factors
A) vary together.
B) are random samples.
C) influence each other.
D) have similar operational definitions.



38. Correlational research is most useful for purposes of
A) explanation.
B) prediction.
C) control.
D) replication.



39. To discover the extent to which economic status can be used to predict political preferences, researchers are most likely to use
A) the case study approach.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) correlational measures.
D) experimental research.



40. Which of the following is a statistical measure of both the direction and the strength of a relationship between two variables?
A) correlation coefficient
B) standard deviation
C) range
D) mean



41. To determine whether the strength of people’s self-esteem is related to their income levels, researchers would most likely make use of
A) case studies.
B) correlational research.
C) experimentation.
D) naturalistic observation.



42. A graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two factors, is called a
A) replication.
B) scatterplot.
C) control group.
D) correlation coefficient.



43. Displaying data in a scatterplot can help us see the extent to which two variables are
A) random samples.
B) operationally defined.
C) correlated.
D) replications.



44. If the correlation between the physical weight and reading ability of children is +0.85, this would indicate that
A) there is very little statistical relationship between weight and reading ability among children.
B) low body weight has a negative effect on the reading abilities of children.
C) better reading ability is associated with greater physical weight among children.
D) body weight has no causal influence on the reading abilities of children.



45. A correlation between physical attractiveness and dating frequency of +0.60 would indicate that
A) physical attractiveness has no causal influence on dating frequency.
B) more frequent dating is associated with lower levels of physical attractiveness.
C) it is impossible to predict levels of physical attractiveness based on knowledge of dating frequency.
D) less frequent dating is associated with lower levels of physical attractiveness.



46. If the points on a scatterplot are clustered in a pattern that extends from the upper left to the lower right, this would suggest that the two variables depicted are
A) operationally defined.
B) positively correlated.
C) negatively correlated.
D) not correlated.



47. Which of the following correlations between self-esteem and body weight would enable you to most accurately predict body weight from knowledge of level of self-esteem?
A) +0.60
B) +0.01
C) –0.10
D) –0.06



48. A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between
A) intelligence and academic success.
B) financial poverty and physical health.
C) self-esteem and depression.
D) school grades and school absences.



49. If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than poor people are, this would indicate that wealth and marital satisfaction are
A) causally related.
B) negatively correlated.
C) independent variables.
D) positively correlated.



50. Which of the following correlation coefficients expresses the weakest degree of relationship between two variables?
A) –0.12
B) –0.99
C) +0.25
D) –0.50



51. Illusory correlation refers to
A) the perception of a relationship between two variables that does not exist.
B) a correlation that exceeds the value of +1.00.
C) a random cluster of points on a scatterplot.
D) the belief that the correlation of two variables proves causation.



52. Gamblers often throw dice gently for low numbers and hard for high numbers. This most directly illustrates
A) an illusion of control.
B) a scatterplot.
C) random assignment.
D) regression toward the mean.



53. The illusion that uncontrollable events are correlated with our actions is facilitated by a phenomenon known as
A) regression toward the mean.
B) the correlation coefficient.
C) random assignment.
D) replication.



54. Regression toward the mean refers to the tendency for
A) changes in one factor to predict changes in another factor.
B) unusual events to be followed by more ordinary events.
C) pessimistic thinking to trigger episodes of depression.
D) a placebo pill to reduce suffering.



55. Colette received an unusually high grade of A on her first biology test and a B+ on the second, even though she studied equally for both tests. Which of the following best explains Colette’s deteriorating pattern of performance?
A) illusory correlation
B) the illusion of control
C) the random sampling effect
D) regression toward the mean



56. After sports magazines give cover-story attention to the recent outstanding performances of an athlete, the individual often suffers a real decline in performance. This may be at least partially explained in terms of
A) illusory correlation.
B) the illusion control.
C) the placebo effect.
D) regression toward the mean.



57. Suppose that people who watch a lot of violence on TV are also particularly likely to behave aggressively. This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching violence influences aggressive behavior because
A) we most readily notice associations that confirm our beliefs.
B) association does not prove causation.
C) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations.
D) the sample may have been randomly selected.



58. An extensive survey revealed that children with relatively high self-esteem tend to picture God as kind and loving, whereas those with lower self-esteem tend to perceive God as angry. The researchers concluded that the children’s self-esteem had apparently influenced their views of God. This conclusion best illustrates the danger of
A) failing to construct a scatterplot.
B) generalizing from extreme examples.
C) being influenced by a confounding variable.
D) assuming that association proves causation.



59. If psychologists discovered that more intelligent parents have smarter children than less intelligent parents, this would demonstrate that
A) intelligence is inherited.
B) more intelligent parents provide their children with greater educational opportunities than do less intelligent parents.
C) the intelligence of parents and children is positively correlated.
D) all of these statements are correct.



60. A negative correlation between degree of wealth and likelihood of suffering from a psychological disorder would indicate that
A) poverty makes people vulnerable to psychological disorders.
B) people who are poor are more likely to have a psychological disorder than are wealthy people.
C) psychological disorders usually prevent people from accumulating wealth.
D) all of these statements are correct.



61. Which of the following methods is most helpful for clarifying cause-effect relationships?
A) the survey
B) the experiment
C) correlational research
D) naturalistic observation



62. Researchers use experiments rather than other research methods in order to isolate
A) facts from theories.
B) causes from effects.
C) case studies from surveys.
D) random samples from representative samples.



63. An experiment enables researchers to isolate the effects of one specific factor by manipulating the factor of interest and also
A) obtaining participants’ informed consent prior to beginning the experiment.
B) statistically summarizing participants’ responses on a scatterplot.
C) holding other factors constant across experimental and control groups.
D) fully debriefing participants after completing the experiment.



64. Which research method provides the best way of assessing whether cigarette smoking boosts mental alertness?
A) the case study
B) the survey
C) naturalistic observation
D) the experiment



65. In which type of research would an investigator manipulate one factor and observe its effect on some behavior or mental process?
A) the survey
B) the case study
C) experimentation
D) naturalistic observation



66. In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of
A) naturalistic observation.
B) survey research.
C) a case study.
D) an experiment.



67. The group exposed to a newly created drug that is being tested in an experiment is called the ________ group.
A) control
B) standardized
C) baseline
D) experimental



68. Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group?
A) The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants’ behavior.
B) The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments.
C) The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental treatment.
D) The experimental treatment is absent.



69. To study the potential effects of social interaction on problem solving, some research participants were instructed to solve problems by working together; other participants were told to solve problems by working alone. Those who worked alone were assigned to the ________ group.
A) experimental
B) survey
C) control
D) correlational



70. Research participants drank either caffeinated or decaffeinated beverages in a study of the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. Those who received the caffeinated drinks were assigned to the ________ group.
A) survey
B) experimental
C) correlational
D) control



71. To assess the effectiveness of flu vaccine for county residents, Mr. Carlson wants to administer vaccine injections to all county residents rather than give half of them a placebo injection. Mr. Carlson is most clearly underestimating the importance of
A) testing a large sample.
B) operationally defining his procedures.
C) replicating observations of other researchers.
D) creating a control group.



72. Being randomly assigned to the experimental group in a research project involves being assigned
A) to that group by chance.
B) to the group in which participants are representative of people in general.
C) in a way that ensures that the independent variable will affect the dependent variable.
D) to the group in which participants all have similar personalities.



73. To accurately isolate cause and effect, experimenters should use
A) random assignment.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) case studies.
D) correlation coefficients.



74. To assess the impact of test difficulty on persistence of effort, researchers plan to give one group of children relatively easy tests and another group more difficult tests. To reduce the chance that the children in one group are more intelligent than those in the other group, the researchers should make use of
A) random assignment.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) operational definitions.



75. Research participants are randomly assigned to different groups in an experiment in order to
A) minimize chances that participants in any group know each other.
B) increase chances that participants are representative of people in general.
C) minimize any differences between groups of participants.
D) increase chances that the different groups have the same number of participants.



76. One research team randomly assigned hospitalized premature infants either to formula feedings or to breast-milk feedings. Which research method did they use?
A) case study
B) experimentation
C) naturalistic observation
D) correlational research



77. The most foolproof way of testing whether a newly introduced method of psychological therapy is truly effective is to use
A) survey research.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) correlational research.
D) experimental research.



78. Participants in an experiment are said to be blind if they are uninformed about
A) what experimental hypothesis is being tested.
B) whether the experimental findings will be meaningful.
C) how the dependent variable is measured.
D) which experimental treatment, if any, they are receiving.



79. Both the researchers and the participants in a memory study are ignorant about which participants have actually received a potentially memory-enhancing drug and which have received a placebo. This investigation involves the use of
A) naturalistic observation.
B) random sampling.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) replication.



80. To minimize the extent to which outcome differences between experimental and control groups can be attributed to placebo effects, researchers make use of
A) random sampling.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) random assignment.
D) operational definitions.



81. An inert substance that may be administered instead of a drug to see if it produces any of the same effects as the drug is called a
A) placebo.
B) median.
C) case study.
D) replication.



82. In a study of the effects of drinking alcohol, some participants drank a nonalcoholic beverage that actually smelled and tasted like alcohol. This nonalcoholic drink was a
A) dependent variable.
B) replication.
C) placebo.
D) double blind.



83. The relief of pain following the taking of an inactive substance that is perceived to have medicinal benefits illustrates
A) random assignment.
B) hindsight bias.
C) debriefing.
D) the placebo effect.



84. The placebo effect best illustrates the impact of ________ on feelings and behaviors.
A) the double-blind procedure
B) random sampling
C) positive expectations
D) regression toward the mean



85. Random assignment minimizes ________ between experimental and control groups. Random sampling minimizes ________ between a sample and a population.
A) similarities; differences
B) differences; similarities
C) similarities; similarities
D) differences; differences



86. In an experimental study, men with erectile disorder received either Viagra or a placebo. In this study, the drug dosage (none versus peak dose) was the
A) confounding variable.
B) dependent variable.
C) standard deviation.
D) independent variable.



87. In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable.
A) dependent
B) independent
C) control
D) experimental



88. In an experimental study of the impact of exposure to criticism on self-esteem, exposure to criticism would be the ________ variable.
A) replicated
B) dependent
C) confounding
D) independent



89. A factor other than the independent variable that might produce an effect in an experiment is called a
A) wording effect.
B) correlation coefficient.
C) placebo effect.
D) confounding variable.



90. If participants in the experimental group of a drug treatment study are much younger than participants in the control group, the age of the research participants is a
A) dependent variable.
B) correlation coefficient.
C) confounding variable.
D) replication.



91. In a psychological experiment, the factor that may be influenced by the manipulated experimental treatment is called the ________ variable.
A) dependent
B) experimental
C) control
D) independent



92. To assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either insulted or complimented students about their physical appearance just before they went on a blind date. In this research, the dependent variable was
A) insults or compliments.
B) physical appearance.
C) interpersonal attraction.
D) feelings of self-esteem.



93. An experiment was designed to study the potential impact of alcohol consumption on emotional stability. A specification of the procedures used to measure emotional stability illustrates
A) the independent variable.
B) an operational definition.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) random assignment.



94. Which research method assesses how well one variable predicts another without demonstrating a cause-effect relationship between the variables?
A) naturalistic observation
B) correlational research
C) the case study
D) the experimental method



95. The simplified reality of laboratory experiments is most helpful in enabling psychologists to
A) predict human behavior in almost all situations.
B) perceive order in completely random events.
C) develop general principles that help explain behavior.
D) observe random samples of human conduct.



96. Psychologists study animals because
A) animal behavior is just as complex as human behavior.
B) experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical.
C) the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines.
D) similar processes often underlie animal and human behavior.



97. The first major issue that emerges in debates over experimenting on animals centers around the
A) usefulness of studying biological processes in animals.
B) ethics of placing the well-being of humans above that of animals.
C) obligation to treat information about individual animals with confidentiality.
D) need to obtain the informed consent of animals used in research.



98. A major issue that has emerged from debates over the use of animals in psychological research centers on
A) whether operational definitions help to distinguish between animal and human functioning.
B) when use of the double-blind procedure is most appropriate in animal studies.
C) whether experimental methods can reduce the need for descriptive methods in research involving animals.
D) what safeguards should protect the well-being of animals used in research.



99. In an effort to prevent participants in an experiment from trying to confirm the researchers’ predictions, psychologists sometimes
A) obtain written promises from participants to respond honestly.
B) treat information about individual participants confidentially.
C) deceive participants about the true purpose of an experiment.
D) allow people to decide for themselves whether they want to participate in an experiment.



100. Potential research participants are told enough about an upcoming study to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate. This illustrates the practice of seeking
A) a representative sample.
B) informed consent.
C) an operational definition.
D) a placebo effect.



101. The ethics codes of the American Psychological Association and the British Psychological Society urge researchers to
A) avoid the use of monetary incentives in recruiting people to participate in research.
B) forewarn potential research participants of the exact hypotheses that the research will test.
C) avoid the manipulation of independent variables in research involving human participants.
D) explain the research to the participants after the study has been completed.



102. After an experiment, research participants are told its purpose and about any deception they may have experienced. This is called
A) debriefing.
B) replication.
C) informed consent.
D) the double-blind procedure.



103. Psychologists’ personal values and goals
A) are carefully tested by means of observation and experimentation.
B) lead them to avoid experiments involving human participants.
C) can bias their observations and interpretations.
D) have very little influence on the process of scientific observation.



104. The study of psychology is potentially dangerous because
A) psychological knowledge can be used for destructive purposes.
B) psychologists generally believe that people are not personally responsible for their actions.
C) psychological research usually necessitates performing stressful experiments on people.
D) psychological research typically violates personal privacy rights.


1. The ancient Greek philosopher Plato located the mind in the
A) head.
B) heart.
C) stomach.
D) thyroid gland.



2. Phrenology highlighted the presumed functions of
A) specific brain regions.
B) synaptic gaps.
C) endorphins.
D) the myelin sheath.



3. The person most likely to suggest that the shape of a person’s skull indicates the extent to which that individual is argumentative and aggressive would be a
A) neurologist.
B) behavior geneticist.
C) psychoanalyst.
D) phrenologist.



4. Although phrenology incorrectly suggested that bumps on the skull revealed a person’s character traits, phrenology did succeed in focusing attention on
A) synaptic gaps.
B) action potentials.
C) the localization of function.
D) endorphins.



5. A focus on the links between brain activity and behavior is most characteristic of psychologists who work from a ________ perspective.
A) psychodynamic
B) cognitive
C) behavioral
D) biological



6. Dr. Wolski conducts research on the potential relationship between neurotransmitter deficiencies and mood states. Dr. Wolski’s research focus is most characteristic of
A) phrenology.
B) the biological perspective.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) social psychology.



7. A psychologist working from the biological perspective would be most interested in conducting research on the relationship between
A) neurotransmitters and depression.
B) skull shape and bone density.
C) self-esteem and popularity.
D) genetics and eye color.



8. To fully appreciate the interaction of neural activity, mental processes, and the functioning of human communities, it is most necessary to recognize that people are
A) consciously aware.
B) morally accountable.
C) biopsychosocial systems.
D) products of multiple neural networks.



9. Dendrites are branching extensions of
A) neurotransmitters.
B) endorphins.
C) neurons.
D) glial cells.



10. The function of dendrites is to
A) receive incoming signals from other neurons.
B) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.
C) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) control pain through the release of opiate-like chemicals into the brain.



11. An axon is
A) a cell that serves as the basic building block of the nervous system.
B) a layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons.
C) a molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites.
D) the extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body.



12. The longest part of a motor neuron is likely to be the
A) dendrite.
B) axon.
C) cell body.
D) synapse.



13. In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the ________ of a single neuron.
A) dendrites to the axon to the cell body
B) axon to the cell body to the dendrites
C) dendrites to the cell body to the axon
D) axon to the dendrites to the cell body



14. A myelin sheath is a
A) nerve network within the spinal cord that controls physical arousal.
B) large band of neural fibers connecting the two adrenal glands.
C) layer of fatty tissue encasing the axons of some nerve cells.
D) bushy extension of a neuron that conducts impulses toward the cell body.



15. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n)
A) endorphin.
B) myelin sheath.
C) glial cell.
D) synaptic vesicle.



16. Degeneration of the myelin sheath results in
A) reuptake.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) the fight-or-flight response.
D) an action potential.



17. Neurons are surrounded by ________, which guide neural connections and mop up ions and neurotransmitters.
A) endorphins
B) glial cells
C) hormones
D) agonists



18. One function of glial cells is to
A) increase the speed of neural impulses.
B) mimic the effects of neurotransmitters.
C) provide nutrients to neurons.
D) stimulate the production of hormones.



19. Which brain cells play a role in learning and memory by communicating with neurons?
A) endorphins
B) glial cells
C) agonists
D) myelin cells



20. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the
A) synapse.
B) agonist.
C) action potential.
D) refractory period.



21. Mathematical computations by a computer are faster than your quickest mathematical computations because the top speed of a neural impulse is about ________ times slower than the speed of electricity in a computer.
A) 3 hundred
B) 3 thousand
C) 3 hundred thousand
D) 3 million



22. An action potential is generated by the movement of
A) glial cells.
B) glands.
C) vesicles.
D) ions.



23. Neurons generate electricity from a chemical process involving the exchange of
A) ions.
B) enzymes.
C) cortisol.
D) oxytocin.



24. The resting potential of an axon results from the fact that an axon membrane is
A) encased by a myelin sheath.
B) selectively permeable.
C) sensitive to neurotransmitter molecules.
D) part of a larger neural network.



25. The depolarization of a neural membrane can create a(n)
A) action potential.
B) myelin sheath.
C) neural network.
D) interneuron.



26. During a resting pause following depolarization, the sodium/potassium pump transports ________ ions ________ a neuron.
A) positively charged; into
B) negatively charged; into
C) positively charged; out of
D) negatively charged; out of



27. With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which
A) a neuron fires more rapidly than usual.
B) an electrical charge travels from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron.
C) positively charged sodium ions are pumped back outside a neural membrane.
D) an individual reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.



28. The minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse is called the
A) reflex.
B) threshold.
C) synapse.
D) action potential.



29. Excitatory signals to a neuron must exceed inhibitory signals by a minimum intensity in order to trigger
A) reuptake.
B) a refractory period.
C) an action potential.
D) selective permeability.



30. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron’s reaction is
A) inhibited by the myelin sheath.
B) delayed by the refractory period.
C) an all-or-none response.
D) dependent on neurotransmitter molecules.



31. A neuron’s reaction of either firing at full strength or not firing at all is described as
A) an all-or-none response.
B) a refractory period.
C) the resting potential.
D) a reflexive response.



32. A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers
A) the release of endorphins.
B) more intense neural impulses.
C) the release of GABA.
D) more neurons to fire, and to fire more often.



33. Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took an unexpectedly long time to travel a neural pathway. His observation provided evidence for the existence of
A) antagonists.
B) synaptic gaps.
C) interneurons.
D) neural networks.



34. A synapse is a(n)
A) chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions.
B) automatic response to sensory input.
C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
D) neural cable containing many axons.



35. The axon of a sending neuron is separated from the dendrite of a receiving neuron by a
A) myelin sheath.
B) neural network.
C) glial cell.
D) synaptic gap.



36. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) synapses.
D) genes.



37. Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located on knob-like terminals at the end of the
A) dendrites.
B) cell body.
C) axon.
D) myelin sheath.



38. Reuptake refers to the
A) movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap.
B) release of hormones into the bloodstream.
C) inflow of positively charged ions through an axon membrane.
D) reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron.



39. The number of neurotransmitter molecules located within a specific synaptic gap would most clearly be reduced by
A) an action potential.
B) ACh-producing neurons.
C) acupuncture.
D) reuptake.



40. Which neurotransmitter plays the most direct role in learning and memory?
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
D) oxytocin



41. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that
A) causes sleepiness.
B) lessens physical pain.
C) reduces depressed moods.
D) triggers muscle contractions.



42. Mr. Anderson suffers from Parkinson’s disease and his shaking arm movements are so severe that he has difficulty feeding or dressing himself without help. His symptoms are most likely to be linked with an undersupply of the neurotransmitter
A) cortisol.
B) dopamine.
C) serotonin.
D) oxytocin.



43. Schizophrenia is most closely linked with an oversupply of the neurotransmitter
A) dopamine.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.



44. An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to
A) Alzheimer’s disease.
B) schizophrenia.
C) Parkinson’s disease.
D) depression.



45. An undersupply of the major inhibitory neurotransmitter known as ________ is linked to seizures.
A) glutamate
C) serotonin
D) ACh



46. Jacob’s severe migraine headaches have led him to seek medical help. It is likely that his symptoms are most closely linked with an
A) oversupply of GABA.
B) undersupply of serotonin.
C) oversupply of glutamate.
D) undersupply of acetylcholine.



47. Endorphins are
A) neurotransmitters.
B) sex hormones.
C) endocrine glands.
D) glial cells.



48. Opiate drugs occupy the same receptor sites as
A) serotonin.
B) endorphins.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.



49. Which of the following is an opiate that elevates mood and eases pain?
A) melatonin
B) acetylcholine
C) morphine
D) glutamate



50. José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of
A) glutamate.
B) dopamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) endorphins.



51. The body’s natural production of endorphins is likely to be
A) increased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.
B) decreased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
C) increased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
D) decreased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.



52. Jason’s intensely uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms following heroin use were probably due in part to a reduction in his body’s normal production of
A) dopamine.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) endorphins.



53. A drug molecule that increases a neurotransmitter’s action is called a(n)
A) antagonist.
B) endorphin.
C) agonist.
D) steroid.



54. Any drug molecule that occupies a neurotransmitter receptor site and blocks its effect is a(n)
A) glutamate.
B) agonist.
C) opiate.
D) antagonist.



55. Any drug molecule that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter is a(n)
A) steroid.
B) agonist.
C) endorphin.
D) antagonist.



56. Endorphin agonists are likely to ________ one’s immediate pain, and endorphin antagonists are likely to ________ one’s immediate pain.
A) decrease; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) increase; increase
D) decrease; decrease



57. Botulin poisoning from improperly canned food causes paralysis by blocking the release of
A) endorphins.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) dopamine.



58. Madison is experiencing symptoms of paralysis after eating food contaminated by botulin. Her paralysis is most likely to be relieved by a drug that functions as a(n)
A) ACh agonist.
B) serotonin agonist.
C) ACh antagonist.
D) serotonin antagonist.



59. The nervous system is the
A) complete set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream.
B) region of the brain below the cerebral hemispheres that regulates emotion.
C) nerve network running through the brainstem that controls arousal.
D) electrochemical communication network that includes all the body’s neurons.



60. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the ________ nervous systems.
A) autonomic
B) sympathetic
C) somatic
D) peripheral



61. The central nervous system consists of
A) sensory and motor neurons.
B) somatic and autonomic systems.
C) the brain and the spinal cord.
D) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.



62. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) parasympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) autonomic



63. Information travels through axons that are bundled into the cables we call
A) interneurons.
B) action potentials.
C) nerves.
D) reflex pathways.



64. You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
A) the myelin sheath
B) interneurons
C) motor neurons
D) sensory neurons



65. Sensory neurons are located in the
A) synaptic gaps.
B) endocrine system.
C) peripheral nervous system.
D) myelin sheath.



66. Sensory neurons are ________ neurons, and motor neurons are ________ neurons.
A) agonist; antagonist
B) afferent; efferent
C) antagonist; agonist
D) efferent; afferent



67. Neurons that function within the brain and spinal cord are called
A) sensory neurons.
B) interneurons.
C) endorphins.
D) motor neurons.



68. Central nervous system neurons that process information between sensory inputs and motor outputs are called
A) neurotransmitters.
B) interneurons.
C) synapses.
D) dendrites.



69. The vast majority of neurons in the body’s nervous system are
A) glial cells.
B) interneurons.
C) motor neurons.
D) sensory neurons.



70. Information is carried from the central nervous system to the body’s tissues by
A) interneurons.
B) sensory neurons.
C) motor neurons.
D) adrenal glands.



71. Some neurons enable you to grasp objects by relaying outgoing messages to the muscles in your arms and hands. These neurons are called
A) interneurons.
B) sensory neurons.
C) neurotransmitters.
D) motor neurons.



72. Motor neurons transmit signals to
A) glands.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) all of these parts.



73. The two divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the
A) brain and spinal cord.
B) sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.
C) endocrine system and circulatory system.
D) somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.



74. The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic



75. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the movements of your mouth and jaws as you eat is called the
A) somatic nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) endocrine system.
D) autonomic nervous system.



76. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the
A) somatic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) sensory nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.



77. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your heart muscles by the
A) sensory nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) central nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.



78. Which division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its energy in stressful situations?
A) the parasympathetic nervous system
B) the sympathetic nervous system
C) the somatic nervous system
D) the central nervous system



79. You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the
A) somatic nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) parasympathetic nervous system.
D) sensory nervous system.



80. The parasympathetic nervous system
A) stimulates digestion and slows heartbeat.
B) inhibits digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
C) stimulates digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
D) inhibits digestion and slows heartbeat.



81. After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard, Ralph’s blood pressure decreased and his heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his
A) parasympathetic nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) sensory nervous system.



82. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to keep you in a steady internal state called
A) depolarization.
B) reuptake.
C) homeostasis.
D) the resting potential.



83. An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the ________ nervous system is to the ________ nervous system.
A) somatic; autonomic
B) autonomic; somatic
C) sympathetic; parasympathetic
D) parasympathetic; sympathetic



84. Neural networks refer to
A) the branching extensions of a neuron.
B) interrelated clusters of neurons in the central nervous system.
C) neural cables containing many axons.
D) junctions between sending and receiving neurons.



85. The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of
A) interneurons.
B) endorphins.
C) neural networks.
D) glial cells.



86. A football quarterback can simultaneously make calculations of receiver distances, player movements, and gravitational forces. This best illustrates the activity of multiple
A) endocrine glands.
B) endorphin agonists.
C) neural networks.
D) acetylcholine antagonists.



87. The part of the central nervous system that carries information from your senses to your brain and motor-control information to your body parts is the
A) pituitary gland.
B) pancreas.
C) spinal cord.
D) myelin sheath.



88. A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus is called a(n)
A) neural network.
B) action potential.
C) neurotransmitter.
D) reflex.



89. The knee-jerk reflex is controlled by interneurons in the
A) synaptic gap.
B) spinal cord.
C) sympathetic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.



90. In a tragic diving accident, Andrew damaged his spinal cord. As a result, his legs were paralyzed. Andrew’s injury was located in his
A) somatic nervous system.
B) autonomic nervous system.
C) sympathetic nervous system.
D) central nervous system.



91. Aaron consistently exhibits a knee-jerk response without having any sensations of the taps on his knees. Aaron’s experience is most indicative of
A) botulin poisoning.
B) a severed spinal cord.
C) a sympathetic nervous system injury.
D) a refractory period.



92. The endocrine system consists of the
A) communication network that includes all the body’s neurons.
B) regions of the brain that regulate emotion.
C) interneurons within the spinal cord.
D) glands that secrete hormones.



93. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) endocrine system.
D) central nervous system.



94. The speedy nervous system zips messages by way of neurotransmitters. Endocrine messages, however, are delivered more slowly because hormones travel through
A) myelinated neurons.
B) the bloodstream.
C) glial cells.
D) interneurons.



95. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the
A) somatic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) central nervous system.



96. The release of hormones by the adrenal glands is most likely to trigger
A) depression.
B) the fight-or-flight response.
C) the pain reflex.
D) a refractory period.



97. Although brain-damaged patients did not consciously recall having watched a sad film, their sad emotion persisted thanks to the lingering effects of
A) endorphins.
B) the pain reflex.
C) hormones.
D) the refractory period.



98. If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably release ________ into your bloodstream.
A) endorphins
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) insulin



99. The release of epinephrine into the bloodstream is most likely to
A) increase blood sugar.
B) lower blood pressure.
C) stimulate digestion.
D) decrease perspiration.



100. The master gland of the endocrine system is the
A) thyroid gland.
B) adrenal gland.
C) pituitary gland.
D) pancreas.



101. At the age of 22, Mrs. LaBlanc was less than 4 feet tall. Her short stature was probably influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produced by the
A) pancreas.
B) thyroid.
C) adrenal gland.
D) pituitary gland.



102. During a laboratory game, those given a nasal squirt of ________ rather than a placebo were more likely to trust strangers with their money.
A) epinephrine
B) oxytocin
C) dopamine
D) serotonin



103. Oxytocin is secreted by the
A) pancreas.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pituitary gland.
D) adrenal gland.



104. The hypothalamus influences the ________ to send messages to the ________.
A) adrenal glands; pancreas
B) pituitary; endocrine glands
C) motor neurons; sensory neurons
D) somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system



105. The release of cortisol into the bloodstream is most likely to
A) increase blood sugar.
B) lower blood pressure.
C) stimulate digestion.
D) decrease perspiration.


1. A periodic, natural loss of consciousness that involves distinct stages is known as
A) the circadian rhythm.
B) narcolepsy.
C) an hallucination.
D) sleep.



2. Research on sleep and dreaming confirms that
A) sleepwalkers are acting out their dreams.
B) while some people dream every night, others seldom dream.
C) the brain’s auditory cortex responds to sound stimuli even during sleep.
D) older adults sleep more than young adults.



3. When working an occasional night shift, people often feel groggiest in the middle of the night but experience new energy around the time they normally would wake up. This best illustrates the impact of
A) sleep apnea.
B) memory consolidation.
C) the circadian rhythm.
D) REM rebound.



4. Circadian rhythm refers to
A) the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience.
B) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle.
C) the experience of sleep apnea following a lengthy transoceanic plane flight.
D) the cycle of four distinct stages that we experience during a normal night’s sleep.



5. With the approach of night, our body temperature begins to drop. This best illustrates the dynamics of the
A) hypnagogic state.
B) circadian rhythm.
C) alpha wave pattern.
D) REM rebound.



6. Alexis most enjoys talking and socializing with friends late in the evening. Her mother, however, is most energized for social interactions about an hour after breakfast. This difference between Alexis and her mother is best explained by the fact that age and experience tend to alter our
A) REM rebound.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) hypnagogic sensations.
D) circadian rhythm.



7. Most college students are “owls,” with performance ________ across the day. Most older adults are “larks,” with performance ________ as the day progresses.
A) improving; declining
B) declining; improving
C) declining; staying the same
D) staying the same; declining



8. Compared with evening-loving “night owls,” those who are morning types tend to perform ________ in school and tend to be ________ vulnerable to depression.
A) worse; more
B) better; less
C) worse; less
D) better; more



9. Fast and jerky movements of the eyes are especially likely to be associated with
A) sleep spindles.
B) narcolepsy.
C) REM sleep.
D) sleep apnea.



10. The relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state are called
A) beta waves.
B) sleep spindles.
C) alpha waves.
D) delta waves.



11. Jordanna has decided to go to bed early. Although her eyes are closed and she’s very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG is most likely to indicate the presence of
A) delta waves.
B) alpha waves.
C) sleep spindles.
D) rapid eye movements.



12. Sensory experiences that occur without an external sensory stimulus are called
A) night terrors.
B) REMs.
C) sleep spindles.
D) hallucinations.



13. Fantastic images resembling hallucinations occur with the onset of
A) narcolepsy.
B) driver fatigue.
C) cyberloafing.
D) NREM-1 sleep.



14. Hypnagogic sensations are most closely associated with ________ sleep.



15. A minute or two after falling asleep, Luke felt like he was being tossed up and down as if on a boat in rough seas. His experience best illustrates
A) the circadian rhythm.
B) hypnagogic sensations.
C) sleep spindles.
D) narcolepsy.



16. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep are called
A) alpha waves.
B) circadian rhythms.
C) sleep spindles.
D) delta waves.



17. An hour after going to bed, Mike was so soundly asleep his parents were unable to awaken him for a scheduled dose of medicine. At this point in Mike’s sleep, an EEG would have most likely detected
A) alpha waves.
B) beta waves.
C) delta waves.
D) REM rebound.



18. Delta waves are most clearly associated with ________ sleep.



19. Bed-wetting is most likely to occur at the end of ________ sleep.



20. During the course of a full night’s sleep, young adults are most likely to spend more time in
A) NREM-3 sleep than in NREM-2 sleep.
B) REM sleep than in NREM-1 sleep.
C) NREM-1 sleep than in NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep than in NREM-2 sleep.



21. Compared with young adults, older adults are especially likely to
A) spend less time in deep sleep.
B) spend less time in NREM-1 sleep.
C) spend more time in paradoxical sleep.
D) complete the sleep cycle more slowly.



22. At 3 o’clock in the morning, John has already slept for 4 hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of
A) hypnagogic sensations.
B) muscle tension.
C) REM sleep.
D) NREM-3 sleep.



23. The brain waves associated with REM sleep are most similar to those of
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) an awake but relaxed state.



24. Three hours after going to sleep, Shoshanna’s heart rate increases, her breathing becomes more rapid, and her eyes move rapidly under her closed lids. Research suggests that Shoshanna is
A) dreaming.
B) emitting delta waves.
C) about to sleepwalk.
D) experiencing a night terror.



25. Genital arousal is most likely to be associated with
A) sleep apnea.
B) REM sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) sleep spindles.



26. During REM sleep, your skeletal muscles are relaxed because messages from the motor cortex are blocked by the
A) brainstem.
B) hypothalamus.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
D) amygdala.



27. The occasional experience of sleep paralysis is most likely as you awaken from
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep.



28. REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because
A) our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular.
B) we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily.
C) our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move.
D) it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images.



29. After sleeping for about an hour and a half, José enters a phase of paradoxical sleep. He is likely to
A) be easily awakened.
B) have slower, more regular breathing.
C) emit slower brain waves.
D) have very relaxed muscles.



30. For younger adults, the human sleep cycle repeats itself about every
A) 30 minutes.
B) 90 minutes.
C) 2 1/2 hours.
D) 4 hours.



31. Forty-year-old Lance insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably
A) would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep.
B) dreams during NREM-1 rather than during REM sleep.
C) experiences more NREM-2 sleep than most people.
D) cycles through the distinct sleep stages much more rapidly than most people.



32. Identical twins have more similar sleep patterns than do fraternal twins, and people in industrialized nations go to bed later at night than their counterparts of a century ago. These facts best illustrate that sleep patterns are affected by both
A) rapid eye movements and sleep spindles.
B) latent content and manifest content.
C) alpha waves and beta waves.
D) heredity and environment.



33. In response to light, the SCN causes the pineal gland to adjust the production of
A) free radicals.
B) benzene.
C) melatonin.
D) dopamine.



34. The circadian rhythm is influenced by light-sensitive retinal proteins that trigger signals to the
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B) hippocampus.
C) amygdala.
D) brainstem.



35. Exposure to bright light causes the
A) thyroid gland to increase the production of melatonin.
B) thyroid gland to decrease the production of melatonin.
C) pineal gland to increase the production of melatonin.
D) pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin.



36. Our inability to fall asleep early, as we had planned, is most likely a reflection of
A) sleep paralysis.
B) narcolepsy.
C) the circadian rhythm.
D) sleep apnea.



37. After flying from London to New York, Arthur experienced a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his
A) narcolepsy.
B) circadian rhythm.
C) hypnagogic sensations.
D) sleep paralysis.



38. Which of the following animals tend to sleep the least?
A) giraffes
B) dolphins
C) cats
D) bats



39. Bats need a lot of sleep because their high waking metabolism produces ________ that are toxic to neurons.
A) growth hormones
B) high melatonin levels
C) free radicals
D) alpha waves



40. Sleep reactivates recent experiences stored in the ________ and shifts them for permanent storage in the cortex.
A) thalamus
B) suprachiasmatic nucleus
C) amygdala
D) hippocampus



41. Susan is a political cartoonist whose work requires her to think imaginatively and present ideas in visually novel ways. Her work is most likely to be facilitated by
A) hypnagogic sensations.
B) sleep spindles.
C) full nights of sleep.
D) sleep apnea.



42. Production of the human growth hormone necessary for muscle development is most strongly associated with
A) sleep spindles.
B) slow-wave sleep.
C) hypnagogic sensations.
D) REM sleep.



43. Alex is a young adolescent who hopes to achieve the muscular development and gain the height that will enable him to be an outstanding high school basketball player. The hormone production that will help facilitate his goal is most closely associated with
A) REM sleep.
B) NREM-1 sleep.
C) NREM-2 sleep.
D) NREM-3 sleep.



44. The best time for athletes to engage in heavy exercise workouts is
A) early in the morning.
B) shortly before noon.
C) late afternoon or early evening.
D) within three hours of bedtime.



45. In experiments, participants averaged 12 or more hours of sleep a day for the first few days of unrestricted sleep. They then settled back to 7.5 to 9 hours of sleep a day. The unusually lengthy sleep time of the first few days suggests that participants began these experiments with
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) low melatonin levels.
D) a sleep debt.



46. When 909 working women reported on their daily moods, researchers noted that less time pressure at work mattered ________ and a good night’s sleep mattered ________.
A) little; a lot
B) a lot; little
C) little; little
D) a lot; a lot



47. People who regularly sleep less than normal experience a(n) ________ risk of depression and a(n) ________ risk of gaining weight.
A) decreased; decreased
B) increased; increased
C) decreased; increased
D) increased; decreased



48. Sleep deprivation increases levels of the hunger-arousing hormone _______ and decreases levels of the hunger-suppressing hormone ________.
A) melatonin; cortisol
B) serotonin; orexin
C) ghrelin; leptin
D) epinephrine; norepinephrine



49. Sleep deprivation has been shown to
A) increase attentiveness to highly motivating tasks.
B) reduce REM rebound.
C) diminish immunity to disease.
D) decrease narcolepsy.



50. Sleep deprivation ________ the production of body fat by ________ levels of the stress hormone cortisol.
A) stimulates; increasing
B) inhibits; increasing
C) stimulates; decreasing
D) inhibits; decreasing



51. Sleep deprivation had been found to ________ metabolic rate and ________ limbic brain responses to the mere sight of food.
A) increase; enhance
B) decrease; diminish
C) increase; diminish
D) decrease; enhance



52. Julie consistently fails to get as much sleep as she needs. This is most likely to place her at an increased risk of
A) narcolepsy.
B) night terrors.
C) sleep apnea.
D) gaining weight.



53. Traffic accident rates have been found to ________ after the spring change to daylight savings time and to ________ after the fall change back to standard time.
A) increase; increase
B) decrease; decrease
C) increase; decrease
D) decrease; increase



54. Shelley has not had enough sleep in the past week. She is at an increased risk of having a driving accident because her lack of sleep diminishes her
A) cortisol levels.
B) REM rebound.
C) attentional focus.
D) hypnagogic sensations.



55. Students who were sleep deprived subsequently showed a greater incidence of ________ during a 42-minute video lecture.
A) sleep apnea
B) cyberloafing
C) narcolepsy
D) insomnia



56. A recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep is called
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paradoxical sleep.



57. REM sleep is
A) inhibited by alcohol and inhibited by sleeping pills.
B) facilitated by alcohol and inhibited by sleeping pills.
C) inhibited by alcohol and facilitated by sleeping pills.
D) facilitated by alcohol and facilitated by sleeping pills.



58. A need to take larger and larger doses of sleeping pills to avoid insomnia is an indication of
A) narcolepsy.
B) tolerance.
C) sleep apnea.
D) REM rebound.



59. Which of the following is bad advice for a person trying to overcome insomnia?
A) Drink a glass of milk 15 minutes before bedtime.
B) Avoid taking short naps during the day.
C) Drink a glass of wine 15 minutes before bedtime.
D) Don’t engage in strenuous physical exercise just before bedtime.



60. Which of the following is the best advice for a person concerned about occasional insomnia?
A) Relax and drink a glass of milk before bedtime.
B) Eat a big dinner late in the evening so you’ll feel drowsy at bedtime.
C) Relax with a drink of your favorite alcoholic beverage just before bedtime.
D) Engage in some form of vigorous physical exercise shortly before bedtime.



61. Narcolepsy is a disorder in which a person
A) temporarily stops breathing during sleep.
B) has sudden uncontrollable seizures.
C) experiences uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness.
D) has difficulty falling and staying asleep.



62. In severe cases of narcolepsy, people experience a loss of muscular tension as they lapse directly into a brief period of ________ sleep.



63. During a heated argument with his teenage daughter, Mr. Reid suddenly lapsed into a state of REM sleep. Mr. Reid apparently suffers from
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) REM rebound.



64. The absence of a hypothalamic neural center that produces orexin has been linked to
A) insomnia.
B) sleep apnea.
C) narcolepsy.
D) night terrors.



65. In which of the following disorders does the person repeatedly stop breathing while asleep?
A) narcolepsy
B) sleep apnea
C) night terrors
D) insomnia



66. Sleep apnea patients who repeatedly awaken with a gasp and then immediately fall back to sleep typically
A) fail to recall these episodes the next day.
B) experience greater-than-average amounts of slow-wave sleep.
C) have dreams that they are suffocating or drowning.
D) require prescription drugs to recover from this condition.



67. Mr. Oates always sleeps restlessly, snorting and gasping throughout the night. It is most likely that Mr. Oates suffers from
A) sleep apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) night terrors.
D) insomnia.



68. Particularly among men, sleep apnea is linked with
A) night terrors.
B) sleepwalking.
C) narcolepsy.
D) obesity.



69. An air pump that keeps the sleeper’s airway open and breathing regular is often prescribed for serious cases of
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) night terrors.



70. It has been found that night terrors
A) are usually recalled vividly for days following their occurrence.
B) are typically accompanied by a state of temporary muscular immobility or paralysis.
C) jolt the sleeper to a sudden state of full waking alertness.
D) typically occur during NREM-3 sleep.



71. Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________.
A) REM sleep; NREM-3 sleep
B) delta waves; alpha waves
C) NREM-3 sleep; NREM-1 sleep
D) NREM-1 sleep; REM sleep



72. Compared with adults, children are
A) more likely to experience night terrors and less likely to experience sleepwalking.
B) less likely to experience night terrors and more likely to experience sleepwalking.
C) less likely to experience night terrors and less likely to experience sleepwalking.
D) more likely to experience night terrors and more likely to experience sleepwalking.



73. At 1:00 A.M., Luis gets out of bed and begins to sleepwalk. An EEG of his brain activity is most likely to indicate the presence of
A) alpha waves.
B) sleep spindles.
C) REM sleep.
D) delta waves.



74. Research studies of the content of dreams indicate that
A) men are less likely than women to report dreams with sexual overtones.
B) the genital arousal that occurs during sleep is typically related to sexual dreams.
C) most dreams are marked by at least one negative event or emotion.
D) most dreams are pleasant, exotic, and unrelated to ordinary daily life.



75. After suffering a trauma, people commonly report nightmares. One of the benefits of these nightmares is that they help
A) prevent paradoxical sleep.
B) reduce sleep apnea.
C) increase REM rebound.
D) extinguish daytime fears.



76. Our capacity to monitor external stimuli well enough to stroll around our house while sleeping, best illustrates that we function with a
A) circadian rhythm.
B) two-track mind.
C) REM rebound.
D) sleep debt



77. While soundly asleep people cannot
A) talk and dream at the same time.
B) incorporate environmental changes into the content of their dreams.
C) learn recorded messages to which they are repeatedly exposed.
D) do any of these things.



78. According to Freud, the dreams of adults can be traced back to
A) erotic wishes.
B) stressful life events.
C) biological needs for brain stimulation.
D) random bursts of neural activity.



79. Freud called the remembered story line of a dream its ________ content.
A) manifest
B) paradoxical
C) hypnagogic
D) circadian



80. As Inge recalled her dream, she was dancing with a tall, dark, and handsome gentleman when suddenly the music shifted to loud rock and the man disappeared. According to Freud, Inge’s account represents the ________ content of her dream.
A) paradoxical
B) manifest
C) latent
D) hypnagogic



81. According to Freud, the latent content of a dream refers to
A) its accompanying brain-wave pattern.
B) the previous day’s events that prompted the dream.
C) the sensory stimuli in the sleeper’s environment that are incorporated into the dream.
D) its underlying but censored meaning.



82. Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car. Greg’s therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend’s efforts to avoid sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of Greg’s dream.
A) paradoxical content
B) circadian rhythm
C) latent content
D) manifest content



83. Which theory emphasizes that dreams play a role in consolidating the day’s experiences in our memories?
A) wish-fulfillment theory
B) cognitive development theory
C) neural activation theory
D) information-processing theory



84. Evidence suggests that we consolidate our memories of recent life events through
A) sleeptalking.
B) EEG recordings.
C) sleep apnea.
D) REM sleep.



85. Brain regions that are active as people learn to perform a visual-discrimination task are especially likely to be active again later as they experience
A) night terrors.
B) narcolepsy.
C) sleep apnea.
D) REM sleep.



86. Research indicates that total time spent in REM sleep is especially high in
A) males.
B) infants.
C) females.
D) the elderly.



87. Which theory suggests that dreams are mental responses to random bursts of neural stimulation?
A) cognitive development theory
B) memory consolidation theory
C) activation-synthesis theory
D) wish-fulfillment theory



88. Increased activity in the ________ during REM sleep may best explain why dream images are often accompanied by a strong emotional tone.
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) frontal lobes
C) pineal gland
D) amygdala



89. Dreams often involve sudden emotional reactions and surprising changes in scene. This best serves to support the theory that dreams
A) strengthen our memories of the preceding day’s events.
B) reflect one’s level of cognitive development.
C) prepare us for the stress and challenges of the following day.
D) are triggered by random bursts of neural activity.



90. Prior to age 9, children’s dreams seem more like a slide show and less like an active story in which the dreamer is an actor. This best illustrates that the content of dreams reflects children’s
A) latent content.
B) melatonin levels.
C) night terrors.
D) cognitive development.



91. Which theory emphasizes that dreams simulate reality by drawing on our current understandings of reality?
A) wish-fulfillment theory
B) neural activation theory
C) memory consolidation theory
D) cognitive development theory



92. REM rebound involves the
A) tendency for REM sleep periods to become increasingly longer and more frequent as a normal night of sleep progresses.
B) increase in REM sleep that characteristically follows intense learning episodes or stressful daytime experiences.
C) unusual symptoms of tiredness and irritability that follow periods of REM sleep deprivation.
D) tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation.



93. The best indication that dreaming serves a necessary biological function is provided by the fact that
A) most dreams are psychologically meaningless.
B) the disruption of REM sleep leads to narcolepsy.
C) most mammals experience REM rebound.
D) sexual tension is naturally discharged during REM sleep.