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The Atmosphere An Introduction to Meteorology 12th Edition by Lutgens –

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The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 1   Introduction to the Atmosphere

 

1) The term meteorology:

  1. A) can be used interchangeably with climate because they have the same meaning.
  2. B) is the study of the atmosphere and its related weather systems.
  3. C) is the study of the long-term average weather conditions at a given location.
  4. D) is the study of meteors and their effects on the atmosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

2) This country has the greatest variety of weather in the world.

  1. A) China
  2. B) United States
  3. C) South Africa
  4. D) Australia
  5. E) Russia

 

 

 

 

 

3) Which of the following statements is an expression of climate?

  1. A) Big Rapids, MI, recorded six inches of snowfall today.
  2. B) Tornado warnings are in effect for Oklahoma City, OK.
  3. C) February is the wettest month in Los Angeles, CA, with an average rainfall of 3.92 inches.
  4. D) Tomorrow’s high is forecasted to be 67°F.

 

 

 

 

 

4) A primary difference between the concepts of weather and climate is the:

  1. A) measuring technique used.
  2. B) type of weather elements measured.
  3. C) temperature scale used.
  4. D) time period involved.

 

 

 

 

5) The BEST definition of the term climate is:

  1. A) a comprehensive statistical analysis of aggregate weather conditions in a specific place or region.
  2. B) average weather over a long period of time.
  3. C) identical to the definition of meteorology.
  4. D) the weather occurring in the atmosphere at a specific place and time.

 

 

 

 

 

6) The basic elements of weather and climate include all of the following, except:

  1. A) the humidity of the air.
  2. B) the temperature of the air.
  3. C) the pressure of the air.
  4. D) the chemical composition of the air.
  5. E) the type and amount of cloudiness.

 

 

 

 

 

7) In the process of scientific inquiry, a theory is best defined as:

  1. A) the initial formulation of an idea based on a few observed facts.
  2. B) a “best guess” that may explain how something works, but is as yet untested and unproven.
  3. C) a hypothesis that has been extensively tested and is generally accepted by the scientific community.
  4. D) a final solution to a scientific problem that is proven correct and will never be disproven.

 

 

 

 

 

8) The primary function of the Tropical Rainfall Measuring Mission is to:

  1. A) provide satellite data about precipitation in the low latitudes, over both land and water.
  2. B) aid in the reconstruction of past climates in the tropics.
  3. C) forecast the tracks of hurricanes in the Northern Hemisphere.
  4. D) utilize remote sensing to measure precipitation amounts in uninhabited rain forests.

 

 

 

 

 

9) In meteorological terminology, the acronym TRMM refers to:

  1. A) the Tropical Rainfall Measuring Mission satellite.
  2. B) Tropospheric Radiation and Meteorological Measurement.
  3. C) the international scientific panel on Technology, Research, and Methods in Meteorology.
  4. D) the Typical Receipt of Mesospheric Meteors.

 

 

 

 

10) Which of the following outlines the steps of the scientific method in the correct order?

  1. A) collect data; develop hypothesis; test hypothesis; accept/modify/reject hypothesis
  2. B) develop hypothesis; test hypothesis; accept/modify/reject hypothesis; collect data
  3. C) test hypothesis; develop hypothesis; collect data; accept/modify/reject hypothesis
  4. D) collect data; test hypothesis; develop hypothesis; accept/modify/reject hypothesis

 

 

 

 

 

11) Which one of the following is not a term used to designate one of the “spheres” of the earth’s environment?

  1. A) atmosphere
  2. B) geosphere
  3. C) biosphere
  4. D) aquasphere

 

 

 

 

 

12) The common boundary where different parts of a system interact is called:

  1. A) a systemic boundary.
  2. B) the plane of interaction.
  3. C) a cycle.
  4. D) an interface.

 

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the following is an example of an interface?

  1. A) The circulation of water through the hydrologic cycle.
  2. B) Solar energy traveling through space.
  3. C) The formation of an igneous rock as lava cools following a volcanic eruption.
  4. D) The formation of the Grand Canyon as running water erodes, transports, and deposits rock.

 

 

 

 

 

14) The least dense portion of the solid Earth is the:

  1. A) mantle.
  2. B) center.
  3. C) core.
  4. D) crust.

 

 

 

 

15) The majority of the water outside of the oceans is in the form of:

  1. A) groundwater.
  2. B) glacial ice.
  3. C) water vapor in the atmosphere.
  4. D) streams.
  5. E) lakes.

 

 

 

 

 

16) Which of the following spheres is composed exclusively of water?

  1. A) biosphere
  2. B) lithosphere
  3. C) hydrosphere
  4. D) atmosphere

 

 

 

 

 

17) The earth system:

  1. A) is powered solely by the Sun.
  2. B) includes parts that affect one another.
  3. C) is the highest level of system possible.
  4. D) cannot be affected by anything from space.

 

 

 

 

 

18) An interacting group of parts that is fueled by energy and works to accomplish the movement of matter or energy is called:

  1. A) a system.
  2. B) a threshold.
  3. C) a collection.
  4. D) a sphere.

 

 

 

 

 

19) Air may best be described as:

  1. A) an element.
  2. B) one of four basic substances that composes all things.
  3. C) a compound.
  4. D) a mixture.

 

 

 

 

20) Decay of plants, animals eating, and volcanic eruptions are all part of which major Earth system cycle?

  1. A) the carbon cycle
  2. B) the hydrologic cycle
  3. C) the nitrogen cycle
  4. D) the rock cycle

 

 

 

 

 

21) Which one of the following is the MOST abundant gas in the atmosphere?

  1. A) hydrogen
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) argon
  5. E) carbon dioxide

 

 

 

 

 

22) Which two gases make up a combined total of 99% of clean, dry air in the homosphere?

  1. A) nitrogen and oxygen
  2. B) oxygen and carbon dioxide
  3. C) nitrogen and argon
  4. D) carbon dioxide and water vapor

 

 

 

 

 

23) The formation of fossil fuels begins when:

  1. A) dormant volcanoes fail to erupt, trapping carbon dioxide under ground.
  2. B) biomass is deposited and buried with sediment instead of decaying.
  3. C) carbon-rich rocks are buried beneath volcanic lava flows.
  4. D) extensive fossil deposition occurs all at once, such as when the dinosaurs went extinct in a short period of time.

 

 

 

 

 

Consider the following diagram, and then answer the question below.

 

 

 

24) According to current scientific consensus, what is the reason for the upward trend in overall CO2 concentrations demonstrated in the graph above?

  1. A) large and increasingly frequent volcanic eruptions
  2. B) changes in Earth’s atmosphere brought about by natural climate variation
  3. C) rapidly increasing fossil fuel combustion and the resulting emissions
  4. D) The causes are still unknown.

 

 

 

25) What best explains the “bumps” seen in the seen in the CO2 concentrations on the graph above?

  1. A) greater amounts of CO2released by the burning of fossil fuels for heat during the winter
  2. B) higher levels of traffic producing more CO2during the summer travel season
  3. C) changes in plant growth that result in less CO2being absorbed during the dormant season
  4. D) a cyclic pattern in the eruption of volcanoes, causing more CO2to be released each spring

 

 

 

 

26) Scientists believe that a growing amount of this gas in the atmosphere will probably bring about a warming of the lower atmosphere.

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) argon
  5. E) hydrogen

 

 

 

 

 

27) Which of the following is NOT a variable component of the atmosphere?

  1. A) water vapor
  2. B) ozone
  3. C) aerosols
  4. D) argon

 

 

 

 

 

28) This variable atmospheric component can exist in all three states of matter (solid, liquid, and gas) at the temperatures and pressures that normally exist on Earth.

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) methane
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) water
  5. E) ozone

 

29) Which of the following is the MOST important atmospheric component with regard to the earth’s climate and the formation of weather systems?

  1. A) water vapor
  2. B) ozone
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) nitrogen
  5. E) argon

 

 

 

 

30) The most important source of the free oxygen in our atmosphere is:

  1. A) green plants that carry on photosynthesis.
  2. B) deforestation.
  3. C) volcanic degassing.
  4. D) the dissociation of water vapor in the upper atmosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

31) Water vapor represents what fraction of the air near the earth’s surface?

  1. A) 40 – 100 percent
  2. B) about 20 percent
  3. C) less than 4 percent
  4. D) 0 – 100 percent
  5. E) about 10 percent

 

 

 

 

 

32) Photosynthesis:

  1. A) was prevalent during the first years of the earth’s atmosphere.
  2. B) releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
  3. C) is carried out primarily by bacteria.
  4. D) releases oxygen into the atmosphere.

 

 

 

33) Which of these was NOT involved with the formation and evolution of our present atmosphere?

  1. A) stratification
  2. B) cooling
  3. C) outgassing
  4. D) photosynthesis

 

 

 

 

 

34) Which one of the following gases has the greatest effect on weather?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) argon
  4. D) ozone
  5. E) water vapor

 

 

 

 

35) Which of these is NOT a significant factor in the role played by particles or dust in the atmosphere?

  1. A) cloud formation
  2. B) ozone production
  3. C) reflection of sunlight
  4. D) absorption of sunlight

 

 

 

 

 

36) The first function of water vapor in the earth’s original atmosphere was to:

  1. A) fall as rain and thus cool the earth’s surface.
  2. B) create oxygen.
  3. C) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
  4. D) provide needed nourishment for primitive plants.
  5. E) block the solar wind.

 

 

 

 

 

37) The ozone layer is found in the:

  1. A) thermosphere.
  2. B) stratosphere.
  3. C) troposphere.
  4. D) mesosphere.
  5. E) ionosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

38) Dust and aerosols in the atmosphere are associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) altering the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
  2. B) optical phenomena such as red sky at sunset
  3. C) reflection of solar energy
  4. D) condensation and cloud formation

 

 

 

 

 

39) This atmospheric component absorbs damaging ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

  1. A) neon
  2. B) argon
  3. C) helium
  4. D) nitrogen
  5. E) ozone

 

 

 

 

40) Studies have shown that on average ozone depletion is greatest over this area.

  1. A) Antarctica
  2. B) Australia
  3. C) Europe
  4. D) the Middle East
  5. E) North America

 

 

 

 

 

41) When chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are subjected to sunlight, ________ is released, in turn leading to the destruction of ozone molecules.

  1. A) chlorine
  2. B) carbon
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) hydrogen
  5. E) carbon dioxide

 

 

 

 

 

42) Ozone:

  1. A) is considered beneficial at the surface of the Earth.
  2. B) protects life on Earth by filtering harmful UV radiation from sunlight.
  3. C) is rapidly depleting for reasons scientists do not yet fully understand.
  4. D) is concentrated in the mesosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

43) The Montreal Protocol:

  1. A) is generally considered a diplomatic disaster by most environmentalists.
  2. B) called for a 10 percent reduction in CFC production by the end of the century.
  3. C) has already created a reduction in ozone-depleting gases in the atmosphere.
  4. D) was not adhered to by the United States.
  5. E) was designed primarily to address the problem of global warming.

 

 

 

 

44) Ninety percent of our atmosphere lies below an altitude of about:

  1. A) 65 km.
  2. B) 16 km.
  3. C) 100 km.
  4. D) 6 km.
  5. E) 31 km.

 

 

 

 

 

45) With an increase in altitude, air pressure:

  1. A) increases at a constant rate.
  2. B) increases at a decreasing rate.
  3. C) decreases at a decreasing rate.
  4. D) decreases at an increasing rate.
  5. E) decreases at a constant rate.

 

 

 

 

 

46) Atmospheric pressure is caused by:

  1. A) Earth’s magnetic field.
  2. B) the weight of the air above.
  3. C) the rotation of Earth.
  4. D) solar radiation.

 

 

 

 

 

47) The four thermal layers of the atmosphere in order beginning from the surface are:

  1. A) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
  2. B) thermosphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, troposphere
  3. C) mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere
  4. D) stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

 

 

 

 

 

48) Which of the following associations is CORRECT?

  1. A) thermosphere — high heat
  2. B) mesosphere — begins at a height of 50 km
  3. C) troposphere — positive lapse rate
  4. D) stratosphere — coldest temperatures in the atmosphere

 

 

 

 

49) On the average, for every 1 km increase in altitude in the troposphere the air temperature:

  1. A) drops about 6.5 degrees Celsius.
  2. B) rises by day and drops by night.
  3. C) rises about 6.5 degrees Celsius.
  4. D) remains unchanged for the first 500 m and then drops.

 

 

 

 

 

50) The vertical temperature structure of the troposphere is described by:

  1. A) air temperature.
  2. B) the barometric pressure.
  3. C) the lapse rate.
  4. D) its density.
  5. E) the wind speed.

 

 

 

 

 

51) Assuming the average value of the environmental lapse rate, what would be the temperature in the tropopause at a height of 3 km if the temperature at the surface is 20°C?

  1. A) 32.9°C
  2. B) 9.2°C
  3. C) 0.5°C
  4. D) The answer cannot be calculated with the information given.

 

 

 

 

 

52) The summit of Mt. Everest (8.85 km) is found in the:

  1. A) stratosphere.
  2. B) troposphere.
  3. C) mesosphere.
  4. D) thermosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

53) The troposphere is most likely to be thickest:

  1. A) over the North Pole.
  2. B) over the Arctic Circle.
  3. C) over the equator.
  4. D) at about 45 degrees north and 45 degrees south.
  5. E) over the South Pole.

 

 

 

 

54) The term troposphere literally means:

  1. A) “layer of life.”
  2. B) “region of weather.”
  3. C) region where air “turns over.”
  4. D) “warm air.”

 

 

 

 

 

55) The “weather sphere” is in the:

  1. A) troposphere.
  2. B) stratosphere.
  3. C) thermosphere.
  4. D) mesosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

56) While ascending through the atmosphere, you record temperature with a standard thermometer and find that the temperature has risen from -48°C (-54°F) to -18°C (-0.4°F) over the last 10 km (6.2 miles). Which of the following regions of the atmosphere are you most likely in?

  1. A) troposphere
  2. B) stratosphere
  3. C) mesosphere
  4. D) thermosphere

 

 

 

 

 

57) The normal lapse rate applies to the

  1. A) thermosphere.
  2. B) stratosphere.
  3. C) troposphere.
  4. D) mesosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

58) Ozone is concentrated in the

  1. A) mesosphere.
  2. B) troposphere.
  3. C) thermosphere.
  4. D) stratosphere.

 

 

 

 

59) The name of the instrument being launched with a weather balloon in the photograph above is:

  1. A) a radiosonde.
  2. B) a TRMM sensor.
  3. C) a satellite.
  4. D) a Doppler radar.

 

60) The level of the atmosphere with the highest temperatures is the:

  1. A) thermosphere.
  2. B) mesosphere.
  3. C) stratosphere.
  4. D) troposphere.

 

 

 

 

 

61) If you were to put your hand out into the thermosphere, it would:

  1. A) instantly burn up because of very high temperatures.
  2. B) gradually warm up above body temperature.
  3. C) not feel any heat, because very few air molecules would collide with your skin.
  4. D) freeze quickly because of the very cold temperatures.

 

 

 

 

 

62) Which of the following is NOT true of radiosondes?

  1. A) They are carried aloft by weather balloons.
  2. B) They are only used in a few dozen places around the world.
  3. C) They are critical sources of data for weather forecasters.
  4. D) They send meteorological data to the ground via radio transmitters.

 

 

 

 

 

63) You are gathering information for a severe weather forecast and you need to know the temperature and relative humidity of the air throughout the tropopause above your head. The instrument you need to employ is:

  1. A) a satellite.
  2. B) a weather radar.
  3. C) a weather balloon with radiosonde.
  4. D) an aircraft.

 

64) The lowest temperatures in the atmosphere exist in the:

  1. A) stratosphere.
  2. B) thermosphere.
  3. C) mesosphere.
  4. D) troposphere.

 

 

 

 

65) The heterosphere and ionosphere are both found in the:

  1. A) stratosphere.
  2. B) thermosphere.
  3. C) mesosphere.
  4. D) troposphere.

 

 

 

 

 

66) The aurora that is visible in the southern hemisphere is the:

  1. A) aurora borealis.
  2. B) aurora australis.
  3. C) ionic aurora.
  4. D) antarctic aurora.

 

 

 

 

 

67) The approximate altitude of auroral displays is:

  1. A) above 1000 km.
  2. B) 80-400 km.
  3. C) above 500 km.
  4. D) about 50 km.
  5. E) below 30 km.

 

68) The ionosphere is an atmospheric region defined on the basis of:

  1. A) temperature structure.
  2. B) composition.
  3. C) electrical charges.
  4. D) pressure.

 

 

 

 

 

69) The aurora borealis will most likely be stronger:

  1. A) when there is a lot of solar flare activity.
  2. B) above the South Pole.
  3. C) nearest the equator.
  4. D) when there are few ions in the ionosphere.

 

 

 

 

70) Weather influences people, but people don’t influence weather.

 

 

 

 

71) Weather and climate are synonymous terms.

 

 

 

 

 

72) “Average weather” is an adequate definition of climate.

 

 

 

 

 

73) Climate knowledge can be used to accurately predict weather.

 

74) Scientific hypotheses are rejected when they do not agree with observed data.

 

 

 

 

 

75) A scientific hypothesis may be regarded as a tentative explanation of observed facts or events.

 

 

 

 

 

76) The biosphere interacts with the lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and the atmosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

77) Nearly all of planet Earth’s mass is in the region known as the hydrosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

78) The oceans cover about 50 percent of the earth’s surface.

 

 

 

 

79) Although carbon dioxide is present only in small amounts, it is still more significant meteorologically than the other more abundant gases composing dry air.

 

 

 

 

 

80) Carbon dioxide’s importance in the atmosphere is solely due to its absorption and release of latent heat.

 

81) The rise of atmospheric carbon dioxide levels over the last century is due primarily to the burning of fossil fuels.

 

 

 

 

 

82) Ozone is actually a form of the element hydrogen.

 

 

 

 

 

83) Ozone is continually created in our atmosphere by solar radiation.

 

 

 

 

 

84) At one time the earth’s atmosphere contained no free oxygen.

 

 

 

 

 

85) Ozone is a significant atmospheric component in the greenhouse effect.

 

 

 

 

 

86) The depletion of stratospheric ozone is primarily a problem only in urban areas.

 

 

 

 

87) Depletion of the ozone layer leads to increased amounts of UV radiation striking the surface of the earth.

 

 

 

88) The largest hole in the ozone layer was observed in 1974.

 

 

 

 

 

89) Weather occurs in the thermosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

90) The stratosphere is an example of a temperature inversion.

 

 

 

 

 

91) The tropopause is found where the air temperature stops decreasing with height.

 

 

 

 

 

92) Vertical motion in the lower atmosphere is strongly related to the environmental lapse rate.

 

 

 

 

 

93) The environmental lapse rate is not constant.

 

 

 

 

 

94) The thermosphere has the lowest temperatures in the atmosphere.

 

 

 

 

95) The troposphere is part of the homosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

96) There is a sharp and definable boundary between the atmosphere and outer space.

 

 

 

 

 

97) The atmosphere ends abruptly at an altitude of 30 kilometers.

 

 

 

 

 

98) There is no well-defined thermopause.

 

 

 

 

 

99) Satellites do not orbit in the thermosphere because the intense heat would quickly incinerate them.

 

 

 

 

 

100) The ionosphere is a region within the stratosphere.

 

 

 

 

 

101) Auroral displays increase conspicuously at times when sunspots are most numerous.

 

 

 

 

 

102) The ions in the ionosphere come primarily from oxygen and nitrogen.

 

 

 

 

103) If a scientific theory is to be accepted and considered useful, it must be able to: ________.

 

 

104) The state of the atmosphere at a given time and place defines the term ________.

 

 

 

105) List four of the basic elements of weather and climate.

 

 

 

106) The primary usefulness of satellites in observing the weather is their ability to provide ________.

 

 

 

107) The earth’s physical environment is traditionally divided into three major parts, one solid, one liquid, and one gaseous. List these three parts.

 

 

 

108) What are the two energy sources for the earth system?

 

 

 

109) The stratosphere is home to a layer of gas known as ________.

 

 

 

110) What causes the region of warmer temperatures found in the stratosphere?

 

111) A lightweight instrument package that is carried aloft by a balloon and transmits data on temperature, pressure, and humidity is called a(n) ________.

 

 

 

112) That portion of the atmosphere where the makeup of the air is uniform in terms of the proportions of its component gases is termed the ________.

 

 

 

113) Use the weather map above to answer the following questions.

  1. a) Based on this map, what kind of weather might you generally expect to be associated with a low pressure system (red L)?
  2. b) Describe the temperature and precipitation currently occurring in Wisconsin.

) Snow, rain, ice, fronts

  1. b) Wisconsin is experiencing snow and temperatures in the 20s and 30s (Fahrenheit).

 

 

 

114) Define the two terms “weather” and “climate.” Explain the difference between them.

 

 

 

115) Discuss the role of ozone in the upper atmosphere. In your discussion, explain what ozone does, how it is threatened, and what legislation has been enacted in order to protect it.

 

========================================================

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 2   Heating Earth’s Surface and Atmosphere

 

1) Earth’s perihelion:

  1. A) coincides with the summer solstice.
  2. B) would not exist if the earth’s orbit were circular.
  3. C) coincides with the winter solstice.
  4. D) occurs when the earth is farthest from the Sun.

 

 

 

 

 

2) Earth is closest to the Sun during:

  1. A) Northern hemisphere autumn.
  2. B) Southern hemisphere autumn.
  3. C) Southern hemisphere winter.
  4. D) Northern hemisphere winter.
  5. E) Northern hemisphere summer.

 

 

 

 

 

3) Early in January the earth is closer to the Sun than at any other time of year. This position is termed:

  1. A) equinox.
  2. B) perihelion.
  3. C) aphelion.
  4. D) albedo.
  5. E) revolution.

 

 

 

 

 

4) Low sun angles result in reduced solar energy because:

  1. A) energy is spread over a larger area.
  2. B) Sun – Earth distance is greater.
  3. C) absorption is reduced.
  4. D) day lengths are shorter.

 

 

 

 

5) Over the course of this year, the tilt of Earth’s polar axis will:

  1. A) remains constant at 90 degrees.
  2. B) vary from 0 to 23.5 degrees.
  3. C) vary from 0 to 47 degrees.
  4. D) remain constant at 23.5 degrees.

 

 

 

 

 

6) Flagstaff, AZ is at 35 degrees N latitude. What is the angle of the Sun’s noon rays here on March 21?

  1. A) 35 degrees
  2. B) 55 degrees
  3. C) 47 degrees
  4. D) 0 degrees

 

 

 

 

 

7) The 90 degrees angle rays strike the Tropic of Cancer on:

  1. A) June 21.
  2. B) March 21.
  3. C) September 22.
  4. D) December 21.
  5. E) July 4.

 

 

 

 

 

8) Which of the following correctly describes the equinoxes?

  1. A) The length of daylight at the Arctic and Antarctic Circle is 24 hours.
  2. B) The Sun’s vertical rays are striking either the Tropic of Cancer or the Tropic of Capricorn.
  3. C) Days and nights are equal in length in all parts of the world.
  4. D) They occur in June and December.

 

0

 

 

 

9) At 45 degrees S latitude, the angle of the noon Sun is lowest and the length of daylight is shortest on:

  1. A) December 21.
  2. B) January 23.
  3. C) June 21.
  4. D) March 21.
  5. E) September 22.

 

0

 

 

10) The first day of the climatological season of summer is:

  1. A) June 1.
  2. B) June 21.
  3. C) July 1.
  4. D) July 4 (perihelion).

 

0

 

 

 

11) Which of the following associations is INCORRECT?

  1. A) aphelion — Earth furthest from the sun
  2. B) vernal equinox — equal day/equal night
  3. C) summer solstice — solar declination at the Tropic of Cancer
  4. D) autumnal equinox — shortest day of the year for the Arctic Circle

 

0

 

 

 

12) The spring equinox in the Northern Hemisphere occurs on approximately:

  1. A) June 21.
  2. B) March 21.
  3. C) September 22.
  4. D) December 21.
  5. E) January 3.

 

0

 

 

 

13) At what time of year is the earth’s axis not tilted either toward or away from the Sun?

  1. A) autumnal equinox
  2. B) winter solstice
  3. C) summer solstice
  4. D) perihelion
  5. E) aphelion

 

0

 

 

 

14) The length of daylight gets progressively longer going south from the equator on:

  1. A) June 21.
  2. B) December 21.
  3. C) September 22.
  4. D) March 21.

 

1

 

 

15) New York City has its greatest length of daylight on:

  1. A) March 21.
  2. B) September 22.
  3. C) June 21.
  4. D) December 21.

 

1

 

 

 

16) During the spring equinox in the northern hemisphere, the circle of illumination passes directly through the:

  1. A) equator.
  2. B) Tropic of Capricorn.
  3. C) poles.
  4. D) Tropic of Cancer.

 

1

 

 

 

17) The date that the Sun “sets” at the North Pole is:

  1. A) June 21.
  2. B) March 21.
  3. C) December 21.
  4. D) September 22.

 

1

 

 

 

18) The date that the Sun “rises” at the North Pole is:

  1. A) January 3.
  2. B) June 21.
  3. C) March 21.
  4. D) September 22.
  5. E) December 21.

 

1

 

 

 

19) The longest day of the year in the United States occurs on:

  1. A) June 21.
  2. B) March 3.
  3. C) November 18.
  4. D) December 4.
  5. E) September 30.

 

1

 

 

20) The primary cause of Earth’s seasons is:

  1. A) changes in atmospheric thickness.
  2. B) varying orbital speed.
  3. C) tilt of Earth’s rotation axis, which causes sun angles and daylight length to vary.
  4. D) regular changes in radiation emitted by the Sun.
  5. E) varying distance from the Sun, which changes how much radiation Earth receives from the Sun.

 

2

 

 

 

21) The energy associated with motion is called:

  1. A) kinetic energy.
  2. B) potential energy.
  3. C) vibrational energy.
  4. D) molecular motion energy.

 

3

 

 

 

22) During natural processes, heat transfer is always from:

  1. A) warmer to cooler substances.
  2. B) cooler to warmer substances.
  3. C) solids to liquids.
  4. D) gases to solids.

 

4

 

 

 

23) Heat:

  1. A) is a measure of the average kinetic energy possessed by molecules.
  2. B) is synonymous with temperature.
  3. C) is a transfer of energy from areas with high temperatures to those with low temperatures.
  4. D) measures the total kinetic energy in a substance.

 

4

 

 

 

24) The two types of heat recognized by meteorologists are:

  1. A) latent heat and sensible heat.
  2. B) latent heat and kinetic heat.
  3. C) kinetic heat and radiative heat.
  4. D) sensible heat and conductive heat.

 

4

 

 

25) The process of ________ involves the movement or circulation of a mass or substance.

  1. A) radiation
  2. B) conduction
  3. C) convection

 

5

 

 

26) The transfer of heat through matter by molecular collisions is called:

  1. A) conduction.
  2. B) radiation.
  3. C) convection.

 

5

 

 

 

27) The longest wavelengths on the electromagnetic spectrum are:

  1. A) gamma.
  2. B) ultraviolet.
  3. C) infrared.
  4. D) radio.
  5. E) visible light.

 

6

 

 

 

28) The earth receives energy from the Sun by:

  1. A) convection.
  2. B) radiation.
  3. C) conduction.
  4. D) scattering.

 

6

 

 

 

29) Wind is an example of:

  1. A) advection.
  2. B) conduction.
  3. C) radiation.

 

6

 

 

30) Thermals and advection are both types of:

  1. A) conduction
  2. B) radiation.
  3. C) convection.
  4. D) transmission.

 

6

 

 

31) Wavelengths of the visible spectrum are between:

  1. A) 0.4 and 0.7 meters.
  2. B) 0.25 and 2.5 micrometers.
  3. C) 0.4 and 0.7 micrometers.
  4. D) 4 and 7 micrometers.

 

6

 

 

 

32) In meteorological terminology, the primary difference between convection and advection is:

  1. A) Convection represents vertical heat transfer and advection represents horizontal heat transfer.
  2. B) Convection represents horizontal heat transfer and advection represents vertical heat transfer.
  3. C) Convection represents upper atmosphere heat transfer and advection represents surface heat transfer.
  4. D) Convection represents surface heat transfer and advection represents upper atmosphere heat transfer.
  5. E) None of the above; the terms are used interchangeably.

 

6

 

 

 

33) The wavelengths emitted by the earth are:

  1. A) shorter than those emitted by the Sun.
  2. B) longer than those emitted by the Sun.
  3. C) ultraviolet.
  4. D) about the same as those emitted by the Sun except when the Sun is experiencing sunspots.

 

7

 

 

34) The type of energy that is responsible for sunburn is:

  1. A) infrared energy.
  2. B) ultraviolet energy.
  3. C) gamma ray energy.
  4. D) microwave energy.

 

7

 

 

 

35) The earth emits terrestrial radiation:

  1. A) only over the continents.
  2. B) all the time.
  3. C) only at night.
  4. D) only during winter.
  5. E) only during the day.

 

7

 

 

 

36) Most of the radiation emitted by the earth and its atmosphere is in the category of:

  1. A) x-rays.
  2. B) ultraviolet.
  3. C) gamma.
  4. D) infrared.

 

7

 

 

 

37) Radiation is intercepted in the atmosphere and its wavelength is measured at 1.0 micrometers. This radiation was most likely emitted by:

  1. A) the Earth.
  2. B) a cloud.
  3. C) the atmosphere.
  4. D) the Sun.

 

7

 

 

 

38) Objects with higher temperatures:

  1. A) emit only shortwave radiation.
  2. B) emit more shortwave radiation than cooler objects do.
  3. C) emit most of their energy in the form of longwave energy.
  4. D) radiate less total energy than cooler objects radiate.

 

8

 

 

 

E = σ

 

 

39) The equation shown above mathematically represents the:

  1. A) Wien’s Displacement Law.
  2. B) Stefan-Boltzmann Law.
  3. C) Surface Albedo calculation.
  4. D) Radiation Displacement Theory.

 

8

 

 

 

40) The Stefan-Boltzmann Law states that:

  1. A) the rate of radiation emitted by a body is based on its size.
  2. B) the wavelength of radiation emitted by a body is determined by its temperature.
  3. C) all bodies emit equivalent wavelengths of energy, regardless of size or temperature.
  4. D) the rate of radiation emitted by a body is proportional to the fourth power of its temperature.

 

8

 

 

 

 

 

 = C/T

 

 

41) In the equation for Wien’s Displacement Law (shown above), the  stands for:

  1. A) a radiating body’s wavelength of maximum emission.
  2. B) a radiating body’s maximum rate of energy emission.
  3. C) the maximum temperature associated with a given energy wavelength.
  4. D) the value of Wien’s constant associated with a given energy wavelength.

 

8

 

 

 

42) The temperature of a pool of lava is measured at 1275 K. Given a Wien’s constant value of 2898 μmK, what is the wavelength of maximum emission from the lava?

  1. A) 149838.63 μm
  2. B) 2.273 μm
  3. C) 0.213 μm
  4. D) The answer cannot be determined from the information given.

 

8

 

 

43) The temperature of a cloud is measured at 280 K. Given the Stefan-Boltzmann constant of 5.67 × 10-8, what is the rate of radiation emitted by the cloud?

  1. A) 349 W/m2
  2. B) 10.4 W/m2
  3. C) 4.9 × 10-8 W/m2
  4. D) The information cannot be determined with the information given.

 

8

 

 

 

44) The primary factor which determines what type and how much radiation an object emits is its

  1. A) color.
  2. B) conductivity.
  3. C) size.
  4. D) density.
  5. E) temperature.

 

8

 

 

 

45) The UV Index can tell you:

  1. A) the expected rate of skin cancer occurrence in a given city.
  2. B) the relative change in UV production during a severe solar wind event.
  3. C) the approximate time it will take you to sunburn on a given day, based on your skin type.
  4. D) what percent of Earth’s radiation is emitted as UV radiation.

 

9

 

 

 

46) Suppose the albedo of a planet is measured to be 40 percent. This means that:

  1. A) 60 percent of the Sun’s energy is reflected.
  2. B) 40 percent of the Sun’s energy is absorbed.
  3. C) 40 percent of the Sun’s energy is reflected.
  4. D) more energy is reflected than absorbed.

 

0

 

 

47) On the average, how much of the Sun’s energy that is intercepted by the earth system is reflected to space?

  1. A) 19 percent
  2. B) 30 percent
  3. C) 25 percent
  4. D) 45 percent
  5. E) 51 percent

 

0

 

 

 

48) Most of the solar energy absorbed by planet Earth and its atmosphere is absorbed by:

  1. A) atmospheric dust.
  2. B) the earth’s surface.
  3. C) clouds.
  4. D) atmospheric gases.

 

0

 

 

 

49) Which of the following does NOT happen to solar radiation as it passes through the atmosphere?

  1. A) Intensification
  2. B) Scattering
  3. C) Transmission
  4. D) Absorption

 

0

 

 

 

50) Clouds are most likely to ________ incoming solar radiation.

  1. A) conduct
  2. B) transmit
  3. C) reflect
  4. D) absorb

 

0

 

 

51) During reflection,

  1. A) radiation is separated into several groups of weaker rays that travel in different directions.
  2. B) radiation retains the same intensity but bounces back from the surface at a random angle.
  3. C) a portion of radiation is absorbed by the surface and the rest bounces off of the surface.
  4. D) radiation retains the same intensity and bounces back at the same angle with which it struck the surface.

 

1

 

 

 

52) Of the following choices, the surface with the HIGHEST albedo is:

  1. A) fresh snow.
  2. B) grass.
  3. C) sand.
  4. D) water (Sun near zenith).
  5. E) thin cloud.

 

1

 

 

 

53) Scattering:

  1. A) prevents nearly half of incoming solar radiation from reaching the surface of the earth.
  2. B) changes the wavelength of light.
  3. C) is responsible for the redness of sunsets.
  4. D) is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in the atmosphere.

 

2

 

 

 

54) Crepuscular rays:

  1. A) are emitted by objects with very low temperatures.
  2. B) are usually tinted blue.
  3. C) occur only when no clouds, haze, or dust particles are present in the atmosphere.
  4. D) occur when water droplets scatter all wavelengths of sunlight equally.

 

2

 

 

 

55) Which of the following gases does not absorb any portion of incoming solar radiation?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) ozone
  4. D) water vapor

 

3

 

 

56) The atmosphere is strongly ________ with respect to terrestrial radiation.

  1. A) absorptive
  2. B) reflective
  3. C) transparent
  4. D) conductive

 

3

 

 

 

57) The atmosphere is highly ________ with respect to solar radiation.

  1. A) absorptive
  2. B) transparent
  3. C) reflective
  4. D) conductive

 

3

 

 

 

58) Which of the following gases is the best absorber of ultraviolet light?

  1. A) nitrogen dioxide
  2. B) water vapor
  3. C) carbon dioxide
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) carbon monoxide

 

3

 

 

 

59) The atmosphere is ________ to terrestrial radiation that has a wavelength between 8 and 11 micrometers.

  1. A) reflective
  2. B) absorptive
  3. C) conductive
  4. D) transparent

 

4

 

 

 

60) The atmosphere is heated primarily by:

  1. A) absorption of Earth’s longwave radiation.
  2. B) absorption of solar radiation.
  3. C) conduction from the ground.
  4. D) convection from the ground.

 

4

 

 

61) Clouds play an important role in the earth’s energy budget because they:

  1. A) absorb longwave radiation and re-radiate it towards the surface.
  2. B) cool the air around them.
  3. C) reflect solar energy.
  4. D) reflect the earth’s infrared energy.
  5. E) Both A and C

 

4

 

 

 

62) When encountering terrestrial longwave radiation, clouds are most likely to ________ it.

  1. A) transmit
  2. B) scatter
  3. C) reflect
  4. D) absorb

 

4

 

 

 

63) The absorption of longwave radiation by certain gases in the lower atmosphere is responsible for:

  1. A) photon effect.
  2. B) greenhouse effect.
  3. C) atmospheric window effect.
  4. D) adiabatic effect.

 

4

 

 

 

64) An astronomer tells you that he has discovered a new planet that he calls Planet X. All he knows about Planet X so far is that it has a very dense atmosphere with a temperature approximately 5 times warmer than that of Earth. What hypothesis can you reasonably make regarding the atmosphere of Planet X?

  1. A) The atmosphere of Planet X must not contain any oxygen, so people couldn’t live there.
  2. B) Planet X cannot contain water in any form.
  3. C) The nitrogen cycle does not operate on Planet X in the same way it does on Earth.
  4. D) The atmosphere of Planet X has a higher concentration of greenhouse gases than Earth’s does.

 

5

 

 

65) If an imbalance occurs between incoming and outgoing energy at the earth’s surface,

  1. A) temperatures remain steady.
  2. B) maximum temperatures occur.
  3. C) minimum temperatures occur.
  4. D) temperatures either increase or decrease.

 

6

 

 

 

66) Which of the following describes the role played by the water cycle in determining the earth’s heat budget?

  1. A) has no significant role
  2. B) transfers heat from atmosphere to space
  3. C) transfers heat from atmosphere to surface
  4. D) transfers heat from surface to atmosphere

 

6

 

 

 

67) An analemma is best used to determine:

  1. A) the distance between the sun and the earth on any day of the year.
  2. B) the tilt of Earth’s axis on any day of the year.
  3. C) the solar declination on any day of the year.
  4. D) solar altitude at any given time of the day.

 

3

 

 

 

 

68) Based on the analemma above, what is the approximate location of the solar declination on August 26?

  1. A) 10° N
  2. B) 10° S
  3. C) 23.5° N
  4. D) 18°N

 

69) Using the analemma above, calculate the noon Sun angle for a latitude of 40° N on February 14. Choose the correct answer below.

  1. A) 15°
  2. B) 0°
  3. C) 47°
  4. D) 63°

 

3

 

 

 

70) Perihelion occurs during the Northern Hemisphere’s winter.

 

 

 

 

 

71) Seasonal temperature variations are due primarily to the changing distance between the earth and the Sun.

 

 

 

 

 

72) Low sun angles are associated with longer atmospheric path lengths.

 

 

 

 

 

73) The North Pole remains pointed towards the sun at all times, regardless of where the Earth is in its orbit.

 

 

 

 

 

74) The earth’s axis is not perpendicular to the plane of its orbit around the Sun.

 

75) Sun angle is the angular distance from the observer’s horizon to the Sun at noon.

 

 

 

 

76) The equator receives vertical rays from the Sun year ’round.

 

0

 

 

 

77) In Australia, the summer solstice occurs a few days before Christmas.

 

0

 

 

 

78) The Sun ‘rises’ at the South Pole on September 22.

 

1

 

 

 

79) Fairbanks, Alaska, has more hours of daylight in June than Miami, Florida.

 

1

 

 

 

80) A change in the temperature of an object signifies that its heat (or energy) content is stable.

 

4

 

 

 

81) Heat transfer by convection in the atmosphere is usually downward, from air to ground.

 

5

 

 

 

82) Meteorologically, conduction is the most important mechanism of heat transfer.

 

5

 

 

 

83) Advection refers to vertical convection motions.

 

6

 

 

 

84) Microwaves have the shortest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.

 

6

 

 

85) Conduction in the oceans redistributes most of the “extra” heat from the equatorial regions to the polar regions.

 

6

 

 

 

86) When an object absorbs radiant energy, its temperature increases.

 

7

 

 

 

87) All objects emit radiation.

 

7

 

 

 

88) Visible light comprises more than half of the total solar energy.

 

7

 

 

 

89) Although electromagnetic radiation is described with a variety of names and wavelengths, it is all fundamentally similar in behavior.

 

7

 

 

 

90) The primary reason why planet Earth radiates much less energy than the Sun is because of its much smaller size.

 

8

 

 

 

91) The higher the temperature of a radiating body, the shorter the wavelength of maximum radiation.

 

8

 

 

 

92) As an object cools, the wavelengths of its maximum radiation shorten.

 

8

 

 

93) Snow-covered surfaces have a low albedo.

 

1

 

 

 

94) A 300-meter-thick cloud cover can reflect no more than 14 percent of incoming solar radiation.

 

1

 

 

 

95) Water vapor accounts for the majority of atmospheric warming in the lower troposphere.

 

4

 

 

 

96) The troposphere warms as a direct result of shortwave energy passing into it.

 

4

 

 

 

97) Deserts experience cool nighttime temperatures because of a weaker greenhouse effect.

 

4

 

 

 

98) Distance variations between the earth and the Sun are extremely important in understanding seasonal temperature variations.

 

4

 

 

 

99) The atmosphere is heated chiefly by radiation emitted from the earth’s surface.

 

4

 

 

 

100) More solar energy is reflected back to space than is absorbed directly by the atmosphere.

 

4

 

 

101) The atmosphere of Venus is composed primarily of carbon dioxide.

 

5

 

 

 

102) The intensity of the Sun’s rays at a place is determined by the time of year and the ________ of the place.

 

 

 

103) ________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the individual atoms or molecules in a substance.

104) During a cold winter, snow can provide a useful shelter material for animals and humans because of its low ________.

 

 

 

105) The wavelengths of energy that can be detected by the human eye are called ________.

Answer:  visible light

6

 

 

 

106) What contributes the greatest amount of reflection to Earth’s total albedo?

 

 

 

107) The fraction of the total radiation encountered that is reflected by a surface is called its ________.

 

 

 

108) The blue color of the sky is due to ________ of light.

 

109) The brightness of the daytime sky is due to ________ of light.

 

 

 

110) Light that is scattered and eventually reaches the earth’s surface after having its direction changed is called ________.

111) Part of the cause of the greenhouse effect is the near ________ of the atmosphere to solar radiation.

 

 

 

112) What energy transfer process is the most important in the transfer of energy from the earth’s surface into the atmosphere?

 

 

 

113) You are building a new home in a climate where there is a persistent snow cover for the 6 coldest months of the year. In order to improve your energy efficiency, should you choose light colored shingles or dark colored shingles? Justify your answer using appropriate terminology.

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 3   Temperature

 

1) If the maximum temperature for a particular day is 26°C and the minimum temperature is 14°C, the daily mean would be:

  1. A) 20°C.
  2. B) 13°C.
  3. C) 12°C.
  4. D) 40°C.
  5. E) The daily mean cannot be determined with the data provided.

 

6

 

 

 

2) If the maximum temperature on a particular day is 30°F and the minimum temperature is 21°F, then the daily temperature range is:

  1. A) 25.5°F
  2. B) 9°F
  3. C) 51°F
  4. D) the daily temperature range cannot be determined with the data provided.

 

6

 

 

 

3) How is the annual mean temperature calculated?

  1. A) It is the average of the warmest and the coldest temperatures recorded during that year.
  2. B) It is the average of the warmest and the coldest monthly mean temperatures.
  3. C) It is the average of all 12 monthly mean temperatures.
  4. D) It is the average of all the daily mean temperatures for the year.

 

6

 

 

 

4) The annual range of temperature may be described as:

  1. A) the difference between the average temperatures of the warmest and coldest months.
  2. B) the sum of the average temperatures for each month of the year.
  3. C) the difference between maximum and minimum temperatures during the period of one month.
  4. D) the difference between maximum and minimum temperatures over a period of one year.

 

6

 

 

 

 

MONTH MONTHLY MEAN TEMP.
January 28.4°F
February 29.9°F
March 36.9°F
April 42.9°F
May 46.8°F
June 58.2°F
July 66.1°F
August 65.2°F
September 57.6°F
October 49.1°F
November 32.5°F
December 27.5°F

2010 Monthly Mean Temperatures for the state of Idaho.  Source: NOAA’s NCDC Climate at a Glance

 

5) Refer to the chart above of 2010 monthly mean temperatures for the state of Idaho. Based on this data, what was the average annual temperature for Idaho in 2010?

  1. A) 47.25°F
  2. B) 45.1°F
  3. C) 46.8°F
  4. D) 38.6°F

 

6

 

 

6) Refer to the chart above of 2010 monthly mean temperatures for the state of Idaho. Based on this data, what was the annual temperature range for Idaho in 2010?

  1. A) 38.6°F
  2. B) 45.1°F
  3. C) 47.3°F
  4. D) 66.1°F

 

6

 

 

 

7) An isotherm on a map:

  1. A) connects points of equal temperature.
  2. B) represents the coldest place on the map.
  3. C) represents the warmest place on the map.
  4. D) identifies all places that have the same annual mean temperature.

 

6

 

 

 

8) A primary reason for drawing isotherms on a map of temperature values is to allow:

  1. A) recognition of temperature patterns.
  2. B) determination of temperature ranges.
  3. C) calculation of mean values.
  4. D) elimination of extreme values.

 

6

 

 

 

9) The ________ is defined as the amount of temperature change per unit of distance.

  1. A) range in temperature
  2. B) temperature gradient
  3. C) degree dissipation
  4. D) isotherm

 

 

 

10) Consider the isotherm map of the United States shown above. Which of the following statements best describes the area between Las Vegas, NV, and Palm Springs, CA?

  1. A) This area exhibits one of the greatest temperature gradients on the map.
  2. B) This area exhibits one of the lowest temperature gradients on the map.
  3. C) One would expect to encounter a temperature of 40°F if driving from Las Vegas to Palm Springs.
  4. D) The average temperature in this area is below freezing.

 

7

 

 

 

11) Consider the isotherm map of the United States shown above. Which of the following is the best realistic estimate of the current temperature at the spot marked by an X?

  1. A) 70°F
  2. B) 75°F
  3. C) 80°F
  4. D) 85°F

 

12) Which of the following associations is CORRECT?

  1. A) high latitude — low annual temperature range
  2. B) land — distributes heat through convection
  3. C) water — high specific heat
  4. D) evaporation — raises the temperature of air

 

7

 

 

 

13) All of the following explain the difference between land and water temperature patterns EXCEPT:

  1. A) Land has a higher specific heat than water.
  2. B) Radiation does not penetrate as deeply in land as it does in water.
  3. C) Convective mixing helps distribute heat energy throughout a water body.
  4. D) Evaporative cooling is more common over water than over land.

 

8

 

 

 

14) Over a one year period, how thick a layer in the oceans is subject to heating and cooling as the seasons change?

  1. A) 6 meters
  2. B) over 200 meters
  3. C) 15 meters
  4. D) 10 centimeters
  5. E) 1 meter

 

8

 

 

 

15) The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1°C is called:

  1. A) latent heat.
  2. B) specific heat.
  3. C) kinetic heat.
  4. D) conductive heat.

 

9

 

 

 

16) The highest accepted temperature record for the United States is 57°C (134°F) and was set at:

  1. A) Death Valley, California.
  2. B) Dodge City, Kansas.
  3. C) Salt Lake City, Utah.
  4. D) Houston, Texas.
  5. E) Key West, Florida.

 

9

 

 

17) The specific heat of water is high; what does this mean?

  1. A) Water will always be warmer than other materials for the same energy gain or loss.
  2. B) Water has a high density.
  3. C) Water must gain or lose large amounts of energy when its temperature changes.
  4. D) Water absorbs a higher percentage of solar energy than land does.

 

9

 

 

 

18) A primary reason why land areas warm up more rapidly than water areas is that:

  1. A) land is a better emitter of energy.
  2. B) evaporation is usually greater on land.
  3. C) on land, all solar energy is absorbed in a shallow layer.
  4. D) heat from Earth’s interior warms the land.
  5. E) land absorbs more solar energy.

 

9

 

 

 

19) Which American state ties Alaska for the lowest recorded high temperature?

  1. A) North Dakota
  2. B) Hawaii
  3. C) Maine
  4. D) Vermont
  5. E) Minnesota

 

9

 

 

 

20) Two cities are located at the same latitude (40 degrees). City A is in the Southern Hemisphere and City B is in the Northern Hemisphere. Assume the two cities reflect the general characteristics of the hemispheres where they are located. Which city should have the warmer winter temperatures?

  1. A) City A
  2. B) City B
  3. C) Both cities should have nearly identical winter temperatures.

 

0

 

 

21) How does the phase change of water from liquid to vapor generally influence the air temperature experienced in locations near water?

  1. A) They have higher maximum temperatures.
  2. B) Water phase change has no specific influence.
  3. C) Air temperatures are generally warmer.
  4. D) Air temperatures are generally cooler.

 

0

 

 

 

22) Which of the following factors would have the net effect of making a place warmer in the summer?

  1. A) in the middle of a landmass
  2. B) at a high elevation
  3. C) at a high latitude
  4. D) near an ocean

 

0

 

 

 

23) The annual temperature range at most latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere is much smaller than that in the Northern Hemisphere. The reason for this is that:

  1. A) less area is covered by desert in the Southern Hemisphere.
  2. B) there is a greater percentage of water surface in the Southern Hemisphere.
  3. C) a greater proportion of the land surface is mountainous in the Southern Hemisphere.
  4. D) rainfall and cloudiness are greater in the Southern Hemisphere.
  5. E) the earth is closest to the Sun during the Southern Hemisphere summer.

 

0

 

 

 

24) A poleward moving (northward moving in the Northern Hemisphere) ocean current is:

  1. A) a cold current.
  2. B) either a warm or a cold current.
  3. C) a warm current.
  4. D) warm in summer and cold in winter.

 

1

 

 

25) Since the equator-to-pole temperature contrast is the major cause of atmospheric circulations, you would expect wind speeds to be slowest in the:

  1. A) spring.
  2. B) summer.
  3. C) winter.
  4. D) autumn.

 

1

 

 

 

26) The primary purpose served by surface ocean currents is to:

  1. A) transfer heat and equalize the imbalance of energy between the poles and the equator.
  2. B) drive atmospheric wind patterns.
  3. C) help dissipate excess energy received at the poles during their periods of 24-hour daylight.
  4. D) equalize climate impacts felt on opposite sides of the same continent.

 

1

 

 

 

27) Summer temperatures along the California coast are cooler than along the coast of South Carolina, due to the influence of:

  1. A) evaporation.
  2. B) latitude.
  3. C) specific heat.
  4. D) ocean currents.
  5. E) altitude.

 

2

 

 

 

28) Why are average monthly temperatures cooler in Quito, Ecuador than Guayaquil, Ecuador?

  1. A) Quito is at a higher latitude.
  2. B) Guayaquil is feeing the effects of global warming.
  3. C) Glaciers in the Andes Mountains moderate the air temperature in Quito.
  4. D) Quito is at a higher elevation.

 

3

 

 

29) A location on a windward coast refers to a place where the prevailing wind is:

  1. A) from the north.
  2. B) strong.
  3. C) always light or calm.
  4. D) away from land.
  5. E) toward the land.

 

4

 

 

 

30) A place located along a windward coast:

  1. A) will probably have summer temperatures that are very similar to an inland place at the same latitude.
  2. B) will probably have warmer summer temperatures than an inland place at the same latitude.
  3. C) will probably have cooler summer temperatures than an inland place at the same latitude.

 

4

 

 

 

31) How is the daily maximum temperature affected by the presence of clouds?

  1. A) cooler
  2. B) no conclusive effect
  3. C) warmer during day, cooler at night
  4. D) warmer

 

5

 

 

 

32) How is the daily temperature range affected by the presence of clouds?

  1. A) The temperature range is greater when clouds are present.
  2. B) The temperature range is lower when clouds are present.
  3. C) The temperature range is not affected by the presence or absence of clouds.
  4. D) Temperature range is not affected in a predictable way by the presence of clouds.

 

5

 

 

 

33) What type of severe weather event killed up to 35,000 people in Europe during the summer of 2003?

  1. A) a heat wave
  2. B) a drought
  3. C) a tornado outbreak
  4. D) a flood on the Elbe River

 

6

 

 

34) Heat waves are usually more severe in:

  1. A) large urban areas.
  2. B) very rural areas.
  3. C) coastal areas.
  4. D) no one particular place; they are equally severe everywhere.

 

6

 

 

 

35) The annual temperature range at most latitudes in the southern hemisphere is much smaller than in the northern hemisphere. Why?

  1. A) Rainfall and cloudiness are greater in the southern hemisphere.
  2. B) Earth is closer to the Sun during southern hemisphere summer.
  3. C) There is more area covered by water in the southern hemisphere.
  4. D) There is less desert area in the southern hemisphere.
  5. E) There is more mountainous area in the southern hemisphere.

 

9

 

 

 

36) The annual temperature range is quite small near the equator. This is true primarily because:

  1. A) solar radiation is nearly uniform all year.
  2. B) the earth emits more infrared energy at these locations.
  3. C) low pressure systems are almost never present.
  4. D) the elevation of most land areas there is near sea level.
  5. E) wind speeds tend to be always slow.

 

9

 

 

 

37) Locations on Earth which have the largest annual temperature change from summer to winter are often:

  1. A) near an ocean.
  2. B) very humid.
  3. C) at the equator.
  4. D) at high latitudes.
  5. E) at low altitudes.

 

Page Ref: 81

 

 

38) The most important cause of temperature variations is:

  1. A) altitude.
  2. B) differences in receipt of solar radiation.
  3. C) cloud cover and albedo.
  4. D) differential heating of land and water.
  5. E) ocean currents.

 

Page Ref: 81

 

 

 

39) Temperatures at the Earth’s surface tend to DECREASE when solar radiation:

  1. A) is less than Earth’s longwave radiation.
  2. B) exceeds Earth’s longwave radiation.
  3. C) is equal to Earth’s longwave radiation.
  4. D) is increasing.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

40) The minimum temperature usually occurs near sunrise because:

  1. A) atmospheric path is longest.
  2. B) the Sun angle is lowest then.
  3. C) reflection of solar radiation is a maximum.
  4. D) Earth experiences a net loss of radiation until then.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

41) Daily and seasonal temperature cycles depend primarily on:

  1. A) the combined effects of solar and terrestrial radiation.
  2. B) only solar radiation.
  3. C) only terrestrial radiation.
  4. D) distance from the Sun.
  5. E) friction between the wind and Earth surface.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

42) The lag of extreme temperatures with respect to minimum or maximum values of solar radiation is due to:

  1. A) the earth being covered mostly by water.
  2. B) the rotational motion of the earth.
  3. C) the influence of the total radiation balance
  4. D) absorption within the atmosphere
  5. E) the elliptical orbit of the earth.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

43) The lag of the maximum is exhibited when:

  1. A) the maximum temperature during a year does not occur until autumn.
  2. B) the highest levels of solar radiation are not received until late afternoon.
  3. C) the maximum temperature for the day occurs several hours after maximum solar radiation receipt.
  4. D) the warmest annual mean temperature occurs in the year following maximum CO2

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

44) An energy surplus in the atmosphere from solar radiation occurs:

  1. A) between sunset and midnight.
  2. B) in the early afternoon.
  3. C) in the morning.
  4. D) between midnight and dawn.
  5. E) exactly at midnight.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

45) The daily maximum temperature occurs at the time:

  1. A) when incoming radiation first exceeds outgoing radiation.
  2. B) of maximum incoming radiation.
  3. C) when outgoing radiation equals incoming.
  4. D) near noon.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

46) Overnight temperatures are warmer when the air is humid because:

  1. A) water vapor is a good absorber of outgoing longwave radiation.
  2. B) water vapor is a good absorber of incoming shortwave radiation, causing more energy to be stored during the day.
  3. C) water vapor and clouds cause the Earth system to have a higher nighttime albedo.
  4. D) water vapor is good at scattering longwave radiation.

 

 

 

 

47) The effect of urban heat production on the urban heat island is GREATEST in the:

  1. A) winter.
  2. B) spring and/or fall.
  3. C) summer.
  4. D) There is no particular season when the effect is greatest.

 

 

 

 

 

48) Which of the following is NOT a valid explanation of the urban heat island effect?

  1. A) Urban areas retain heat longer and do not cool off as quickly at night as surrounding rural areas.
  2. B) Pollution trapped over a city enhances the greenhouse effect of the atmosphere.
  3. C) Urban areas generally have a higher albedo than surrounding rural areas.
  4. D) Increased runoff on urban surfaces reduces evaporative cooling in the area.

 

 

 

 

 

 

49) The phenomenon illustrated in the map above is known as:

  1. A) the urban heat island.
  2. B) the city heat center.
  3. C) geographic positioning.
  4. D) the greenhouse effect.

 

Page Ref: 85

 

 

 

50) Which month is most likely to be the HOTTEST in the northern hemisphere?

  1. A) January
  2. B) June
  3. C) May
  4. D) September
  5. E) August

 

Page Ref: 86

 

 

51) The ________ is often used in making a thermograph.

  1. A) maximum thermometer
  2. B) thermistor
  3. C) minimum thermometer
  4. D) bimetal strip
  5. E) wet bulb thermometer

 

 

 

 

 

52) The ________ instrument contains a liquid of low density such as alcohol.

  1. A) bimetal strip
  2. B) thermistor
  3. C) minimum thermometer
  4. D) maximum thermometer

 

 

 

 

 

53) A small dumbbell-shaped index is part of the:

  1. A) maximum thermometer.
  2. B) bimetal strip.
  3. C) thermistor.
  4. D) minimum thermometer.

 

54) Where is the best location to place a thermometer for an accurate air temperature reading?

  1. A) two to three inches above the ground in a shady place
  2. B) in full sunlight so that it gets full exposure
  3. C) as close to a building as possible
  4. D) inside a shelter painted white

 

 

 

 

 

55) Absolute zero equals:

  1. A) 273 K.
  2. B) 0°C.
  3. C) -273°C.
  4. D) -400°F.
  5. E) 0°F.

 

 

 

 

56) The boiling point of water occurs at:

  1. A) 100°C.
  2. B) 200°F.
  3. C) 273 K.
  4. D) 212°C.

 

 

 

 

 

57) The number of degrees separating the ice point and the steam point:

  1. A) is identical for both the Kelvin and Celsius scales.
  2. B) is identical for both the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales.
  3. C) is identical for the Fahrenheit, Celsius, and the Kelvin scales.
  4. D) is greater for the Celsius scale than for the Fahrenheit scale.

 

 

) The Kelvin scale is preferred in some scientific applications because:

  1. A) 0 K actually represents absolute zero, so the scale is based on the actual scientific definition of temperature.
  2. B) it has the same degree value as the Fahrenheit scale, making it easier for Americans to use.
  3. C) 0 K represents the freezing point of water, a useful scientific basis for a temperature scale.
  4. D) it was created first and so has the longest history of scientific validation.

 

 

 

 

 

59) The Fahrenheit scale is considered to be the LEAST useful temperature scale for scientific purposes because:

  1. A) it is too difficult to convert Fahrenheit data into the Celsius scale.
  2. B) the original fixed points for the scale were arbitrarily (and poorly) chosen, giving 0°F no real meaning.
  3. C) the modern Fahrenheit scale does not properly identify the steam point of water.
  4. D) the Celsius scale was created first, and so has a longer tradition with the scientific community.

 

 

 

 

Complete the following temperature conversions using the appropriate formulas.

 

60) 65°F is equal to ________°C.

  1. A) 149
  2. B) 338
  3. C) 18.3
  4. D) 65

 

 

 

 

 

61) 7°C is equal to ________°F.

  1. A) 44.6
  2. B) -13.9
  3. C) 280
  4. D) 65

 

 

 

 

 

62) 45°F is equal to ________K.

  1. A) 140
  2. B) -228
  3. C) 280.2
  4. D) 318

 

-90

 

 

 

63) 38°C is equal to ________K.

  1. A) 311
  2. B) 100.4
  3. C) -235
  4. D) 3.3

 

0

 

 

 

64) Which temperature scale was developed first?

  1. A) Fahrenheit
  2. B) Kelvin
  3. C) Celsius
  4. D) All three were proposed within a year of each other.

 

 

 

 

65) The city with the highest average of annual heating degree-days is:

  1. A) Anchorage, AK.
  2. B) Salt Lake City, UT.
  3. C) Atlanta, GA.
  4. D) Chicago, IL.
  5. E) Cleveland, OH.

 

0

 

 

 

66) The city with the HIGHEST average annual cooling degree-days between 1971 and 2000 was:

  1. A) St. Louis, MO.
  2. B) Tucson, AZ.
  3. C) Boston, MA.
  4. D) Washington, D.C.
  5. E) Miami, FL.

 

0

 

 

 

67) On a particular day, a place accumulates 15 heating degree days. What was the daily mean temperature on that day?

  1. A) 80°F
  2. B) 40°F
  3. C) 65°F
  4. D) 15°F
  5. E) 50°F

 

0

 

 

 

68) The daily mean temperature in a particular place is 83. How many cooling-degree days were accumulated?

  1. A) 83 cooling degree days
  2. B) 18 cooling degree days
  3. C) 74 cooling degree days
  4. D) 148 cooling degree days

 

0

 

 

69) Assume that there is a linear relationship between the number of heating degree-days and fuel consumption. If the number of heating degree-days tripled from one month to the next for a building, we would expect the fuel bill to:

  1. A) double.
  2. B) be one-third as much.
  3. C) stay the same.
  4. D) be half as much.
  5. E) triple.

 

0

 

 

 

70) Which of these factors influences the sensation of temperature that the human body feels?

  1. A) wind speed
  2. B) air temperature
  3. C) humidity
  4. D) wind speed, air temperature, and humidity

 

1

 

 

 

71) Isotherm lines do not always pass directly through observing station locations.

 

6

 

 

 

72) There are two ways to measure the daily mean temperature, and they could give two different results.

 

6

 

 

 

73) Locations that have the same Sun angle always have very similar temperatures.

 

7

 

 

 

74) Surface air temperatures rise and fall more slowly over land areas.

 

8

 

 

 

75) Typically, daily temperature changes in land surfaces are greater than those for water surfaces.

 

8

 

 

76) The warmest temperature ever recorded in the United States occurred in Death Valley, CA.

 

9

 

 

 

77) The hottest surface temperature ever recorded in the United States was 134°F.

 

9

 

 

 

78) Land cools more slowly than water during autumn because the land has a smaller specific heat value.

 

9

 

 

 

79) The influence of large lakes or oceans generally reduces the annual temperature range.

 

0

 

 

 

80) Evaporation of water from lakes and moist soil increases their temperatures.

 

0

 

 

 

81) The Southern Hemisphere is also referred to as the water hemisphere.

 

0

 

 

 

82) Ocean currents owe their existence primarily to the rapid rotation of the earth about its axis.

 

1

 

 

 

83) The California coast is influenced by a cold ocean current.

 

2

 

 

84) The daily temperature range is greater at higher elevations.

 

3

 

 

85) The influence of altitude upon temperature results in surface temperatures falling more rapidly with height than the normal lapse rate value.

 

3

 

 

 

86) A leeward coastal city will display climate patterns typical of a continental climate, even though they are located on the coast of an ocean.

 

4

 

 

 

87) Cloud cover reduces both the daily high and daily low temperatures.

 

5

 

 

 

88) Clouds have a significant influence on surface temperatures because they absorb most solar radiation.

 

5

 

 

 

89) The seasonal shift of isotherms is greater over the continents than over the ocean.

 

8

 

 

 

90) Isotherms are more irregular in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.

 

8

 

 

 

91) Latitude is a major control of temperature since latitude determines the Sun angle.

 

Page Ref: 81

 

 

92) The daily range of temperatures depends only on the amount of solar radiation received.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

93) During a typical day, the lowest temperature usually occurs about midnight.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

94) Air temperature drops when the rate of terrestrial energy loss is less than the rate of solar energy gain.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

95) A dry location is more likely than a humid location to have its maximum temperature in the late afternoon.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

 

 

96) Thermistors are electrical thermometers commonly used in radiosondes.

 

 

 

 

 

97) The coldest temperature ever recorded on Earth was -129°C.

 

 

 

 

 

98) The melting point of ice is 32°C.

 

 

 

 

 

99) Comfortable room temperature is roughly 22°C.

 

 

 

 

100) Negative values are not possible on the Celsius temperature scale.

 

 

 

 

 

101) Heating degrees days are used to evaluate energy demand and consumption.

 

0

 

 

 

102) Miami, FL averages less than 500 annual heating-degree days.

 

0

 

 

 

103) If the mean daily temperature is 70°F, then there are 5 heating degree days accumulated.

 

0

 

 

 

104) Calculating the accumulated growing degree-days for a crop can help a farmer tell when his crop will be ready for harvest.

 

1

 

 

 

105) If other factors are constant, an increase in humidity will lead to an increase in the rate of perspiration evaporation from skin.

 

1

 

 

 

106) The calculations of growing degree days, heating degree days and cooling degree days all require ________ to be known.

 

 

107) List three factors that contribute to the differential heating of land and water.

ny three:

1) land is opaque, water is more transparent

2) water mixes, land does not

3) specific heat of water is higher than for land

4) evaporation from water bodies is greater than from land

8

 

 

 

108) Two inland cities are located at the same latitude and within 50 km of each other. City A has an annual mean that is 12°C lower than City B. What control is the most likely cause for the much lower annual mean at City A?

 

 

109) Less water is available for evaporation in cities. Why is this so?

 

 

 

110) In addition to a good quality thermometer, list three factors that are needed to obtain an accurate temperature reading.

Below is a diagram of continents observed on a planet identical to the Earth, but which rotates in the opposite direction.

 

 

 

111) What season (winter or summer) is the Northern Hemisphere experiencing?

 

 

112) Is the ocean current influencing City A cold or warm?

 

 

113) Is the temperature at City B likely warmer or colder than the temperature at City C?

 

 

 

114) If no ocean currents existed and the winds were from the west (left), which city (E or G) would have the lower annual temperature range?

 

4

 

 

 

115) A growing trend in urban design is the concept of a rooftop garden. If every building in a city were to install a rooftop garden, how might the urban heat island be affected? Describe and explain at least two different impacts you might observe.

 

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 4   Moisture and Atmospheric Stability

 

1) About what percent of Earth’s water can be found in the oceans?

  1. A) 97%
  2. B) 90%
  3. C) 70%
  4. D) 53%

 

8

 

Nat. Geog. Stand:  16: Changes Related to Resources

 

2) All of the following are properties that make water unique among other substances on Earth EXCEPT:

  1. A) water does not participate easily in hydrogen bonding.
  2. B) water’s solid phase is less dense than its liquid phase.
  3. C) water exists naturally in all three phases (solid, liquid, vapor) and changes easily from one to another.
  4. D) water is able to store large quantities of heat.

 

8

 

 

 

3) The attractive forces between the hydrogen atoms in one water molecule and the oxygen atoms in another molecule are known as:

  1. A) water bonds
  2. B) liquid bonds
  3. C) hydrogen bonds
  4. D) dark forces

 

0

 

 

 

4) Which of the following requires the GREATEST RELEASE of latent heat energy into the atmosphere?

  1. A) melting of 1 gram of water
  2. B) freezing of 1 gram of water
  3. C) evaporation of 1 gram of water
  4. D) condensation of 1 gram of water

 

5) In which phase do water molecules have the lowest kinetic energy?

  1. A) vapor
  2. B) liquid
  3. C) ice
  4. D) It has the same kinetic energy in all three phases.

 

1

 

 

 

6) Which of the following processes requires the highest RELEASE of energy from the water molecules?

  1. A) melting
  2. B) freezing
  3. C) condensation
  4. D) deposition

 

1

 

 

 

7) As liquid water is evaporated into the atmosphere, heat energy is:

  1. A) absorbed by the remaining liquid.
  2. B) given off by the water vapor.
  3. C) released by the evaporating water.
  4. D) absorbed by the evaporating water.
  5. E) absorbed by the surrounding air.

 

1

 

 

 

8) Evaporation is a process which tends to keep temperatures cooler where it occurs. This is because the atmosphere:

  1. A) increases the outgoing radiation.
  2. B) reduces the absorption of solar energy.
  3. C) increases the reflection of solar energy.
  4. D) uses energy to change the phase of water instead of increasing air temperature.
  5. E) increases the specific heat.

 

1

 

 

9) The two changes of state that are the most important part of the water cycle for the atmosphere would be:

  1. A) condensation, freezing.
  2. B) condensation, melting.
  3. C) melting, sublimation.
  4. D) melting, freezing.
  5. E) evaporation, condensation.

 

2

 

 

 

10) The heat released when water vapor condenses to form a cloud or when liquid droplets freeze in a cloud:

  1. A) makes the air heavier.
  2. B) adds water to the cloud.
  3. C) cools off the cloud.
  4. D) evaporates more water.
  5. E) helps the cloud to rise higher.

 

2

 

 

 

11) The amount of water vapor in the air (by volume) usually does not exceed:

  1. A) 4 percent.
  2. B) 14 percent.
  3. C) 100 percent.
  4. D) 28 percent.
  5. E) 40 percent.

 

3

 

 

 

12)       ? =

 

The formula shown above defines the humidity measure known as:

  1. A) the mixing ratio.
  2. B) absolute humidity.
  3. C) vapor pressure.
  4. D) relative humidity.

 

3

 

 

13)       ? =

 

The formula shown above defines the humidity measure known as:

  1. A) the mixing ratio
  2. B) absolute humidity
  3. C) vapor pressure
  4. D) relative humidity

 

3

 

 

 

14) Water vapor constitutes about this much of the atmosphere by volume.

  1. A) 0-4 percent
  2. B) 0-12 percent
  3. C) 0-100 percent
  4. D) 4-25 percent
  5. E) 4-12 percent

 

3

 

15) Refer to the diagram of a simple parcel above. What is the absolute humidity of this parcel?

  1. A) 0.2 g/kg
  2. B) 10 g/m3
  3. C) 2 g/m3
  4. D) 5 g/kg

 

3

 

 

16) Refer to the diagram of a simple parcel above. What is the mixing ratio of this parcel?

  1. A) 10 g/m3
  2. B) 2 g/m3
  3. C) 0.2 g/kg
  4. D) 5 g/kg

 

3

 

 

 

17) Refer to the diagram of a simple parcel above. What would the absolute humidity be if the volume were to double?

  1. A) 5 g/m3
  2. B) 20 g/m3
  3. C) 2.5 g/m3
  4. D) The absolute humidity would remain unchanged.

 

3

 

 

 

18) Refer to the diagram of a simple parcel above. What would the mixing ratio be if the volume were to double?

  1. A) 5 g/m3
  2. B) 20 g/m3
  3. C) 2.5 g/kg
  4. D) The mixing ratio would remain unchanged.

 

3

 

 

 

19) Refer to the diagram of a simple parcel above. What additional information would you need in order to be able to calculate the relative humidity of this parcel?

  1. A) air pressure inside the parcel
  2. B) temperature outside of the parcel
  3. C) current temperature/capacity to hold water vapor inside the parcel
  4. D) current vapor pressure inside the parcel

 

6

 

 

20) Saturation is best defined as:

  1. A) a mixing ratio of at least 100 g/kg.
  2. B) equal numbers of water molecules evaporating from and condensing into a water surface.
  3. C) the point when water molecules completely stop evaporating from a water surface.
  4. D) a vapor pressure greater than 1000 mb.

 

4

 

 

 

21) The capacity of the air to hold water vapor:

  1. A) increases with a decrease in temperature.
  2. B) decreases with an increase in temperature.
  3. C) increases with an increase in temperature.
  4. D) increases with an increase in pressure.

 

5

 

 

 

22) The property which primarily controls how much water can be present as a gas is:

  1. A) number of particulates present.
  2. B) availability of latent heat.
  3. C) temperature of the air.
  4. D) water’s specific heat.
  5. E) amount of dry air gases present.

 

5

 

 

 

23) Relative humidity indicates the:

  1. A) probability of precipitation.
  2. B) chance of cloud formation.
  3. C) chance for evaporation of water.
  4. D) nearness to saturation for the air.
  5. E) actual amount of water in the air.

 

6

 

 

 

24) If the air temperature remains constant, evaporating water into the air will ________ the dew point and ________ the relative humidity.

  1. A) increase, decrease
  2. B) not change, increase
  3. C) decrease, increase
  4. D) decrease, decrease
  5. E) increase, increase

 

6, 109

 

 

25) Relative humidity depends on the water vapor present in the air and the:

  1. A) altitude.
  2. B) dew point.
  3. C) latitude.
  4. D) air temperature.
  5. E) pressure.

 

6

 

 

 

26) The air in Great Falls, Montana has a temperature of 5°C and a relative humidity of 50%. On the same afternoon, the air in Palm Springs, California has a temperature of 25°C and a relative humidity of 50%. What can be said about the amount of vapor in the air at these two cities?

  1. A) Palm Springs will have a higher vapor content than Great Falls.
  2. B) Great Falls will have a higher vapor content than Palm Springs.
  3. C) Great Falls and Palm Springs will have the same vapor content.

 

7

 

 

 

27) Assume that the actual vapor content of the air remains constant over the course of a day. How does the relative humidity at 2:00 p.m. probably compare to the relative humidity at 5:00 a.m.?

  1. A) The relative humidity at 2:00 p.m. is higher.
  2. B) The relative humidity at 2:00 p.m. is lower.
  3. C) The relative humidity is the same at 2:00 p.m. as at 5:00 a.m.

 

9

 

 

 

28) Which of the following is a good explanation for why dew tends to form in the grass at night?

  1. A) Temperatures are coolest in the grass.
  2. B) The atmosphere cannot form clouds at night.
  3. C) Pressure is greatest then.
  4. D) More water vapor is present at night.

 

9

 

 

 

29) During a clear, relatively calm day, the relative humidity will tend to ________ from sunrise to early afternoon.

  1. A) decrease
  2. B) remain nearly steady
  3. C) increase

 

9

 

 

30) As the temperature of air is reduced to its dew point, which of these is most likely to occur?

  1. A) freezing
  2. B) condensation
  3. C) melting
  4. D) supercooling
  5. E) evaporation

 

9

 

 

 

31) An instrument used to measure relative humidity is called a:

  1. A) hygrometer.
  2. B) hydrometer.
  3. C) humidimeter.
  4. D) aquimeter.

 

0

 

 

 

32) In order to have significant snowfall accumulation, dew points must generally be above:

  1. A) 0°F.
  2. B) -10°F.
  3. C) 10°F.
  4. D) 32°F.

 

33) When the dry and wet bulb temperatures measured by a psychrometer are equal, all but one of the following is true. Which one is false?

  1. A) A rise in temperature would cause condensation.
  2. B) The air is saturated.
  3. C) Water vapor content is at a maximum.
  4. D) Relative humidity is 100 percent.

 

1

 

 

 

34) A wet-bulb thermometer and a dry-bulb thermometer are both parts of which meteorological instrument?

  1. A) an anemometer
  2. B) a thermistor
  3. C) a sling psychrometer
  4. D) a barometer

 

1

 

 

35) During the process of adiabatic cooling, the temperature decreases because the air has:

  1. A) been compressed.
  2. B) lost heat to the colder air at higher altitudes.
  3. C) lost some of its water vapor.
  4. D) expanded to a larger volume.
  5. E) emitted infrared radiation.

 

1

 

 

 

36) The most important process of cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

  1. A) cooling by release of latent heat of vaporization.
  2. B) cooling by compression of air.
  3. C) radiation cooling.
  4. D) cooling by expansion of air.

 

37) The buoyancy of a rising air parcel is greatly affected by:

  1. A) heat released if water vapor condenses.
  2. B) absorption of solar radiation.
  3. C) air pressure.
  4. D) convergence of the parcel.
  5. E) wind speed.

 

2

 

 

 

38) The temperature of rising air parcels ________ as they move upward.

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) increases
  3. C) remains constant
  4. D) may either increase or decrease

 

2

 

 

 

39) Adiabatic processes are only important for air:

  1. A) masses which remain near the earth’s surface.
  2. B) that is saturated.
  3. C) that is polluted.
  4. D) that is stagnant.
  5. E) which is rising or sinking.

 

2

 

 

40) An adiabatic process is one in which the:

  1. A) temperature remains constant.
  2. B) altitude of the air parcel remains constant.
  3. C) heat exchanged with the surroundings is zero.
  4. D) pressure on the air parcel remains constant.
  5. E) work done is zero.

 

41) Why does a rising air parcel cool off?

  1. A) Its relative humidity is less than 100 percent.
  2. B) It loses heat to its surroundings.
  3. C) It loses energy by radiation.
  4. D) It expands.
  5. E) It is unstable.

 

2

 

 

 

42) The moist adiabatic rate is different from the dry adiabatic rate because:

  1. A) an unstable air parcel expands more rapidly.
  2. B) latent heat is released inside a parcel of rising saturated air.
  3. C) saturated air is always unstable.
  4. D) a parcel of saturated air weighs less than a parcel of unsaturated air.
  5. E) unsaturated air is always stable.

 

2

 

 

 

43) All of the following are lifting mechanisms in the atmosphere EXCEPT:

  1. A) Orographic
  2. B) Divergence
  3. C) Convection
  4. D) Frontal wedging

 

3

 

 

 

44) An air parcel rises over a mountain and cools adiabatically. Which lifting mechanism has acted on this parcel?

  1. A) orographic lifting
  2. B) convective lifting
  3. C) convergence
  4. D) frontal wedging

 

45) Which type of lifting mechanism results from warm air lifting over cold air?

  1. A) orographic lifting
  2. B) convective lifting
  3. C) convergence
  4. D) frontal wedging

 

4

 

 

 

46) A convergence of winds near the surface is associated with cloud production because it:

  1. A) increases the lapse rate.
  2. B) creates a vortex or spiral pattern.
  3. C) increases the wind speed.
  4. D) increases the dew point.
  5. E) forces the air to rise.

 

4

 

 

 

47) Natural convection and turbulence are most likely to occur when:

  1. A) temperature decreases rapidly with height.
  2. B) relative humidity is low.
  3. C) temperature increases with height.
  4. D) air pressure is relatively high.
  5. E) wind is nearly calm.

 

5

 

 

 

48) The vertical motions that occur when the air is unstable are termed:

  1. A) convection.
  2. B) subsidence.
  3. C) cyclonic.
  4. D) geostrophic.
  5. E) convergence.

 

49) The environmental lapse rate of an air layer next to the ground is strongly influenced by:

  1. A) barometric pressure.
  2. B) relative humidity.
  3. C) heating or cooling of the ground.
  4. D) adiabatic heating.
  5. E) wind speed.

 

7

 

 

50) The change in the actual air temperature as you go up into the atmosphere is called:

  1. A) environmental lapse rate.
  2. B) convergence.
  3. C) latent heat.
  4. D) conversion.
  5. E) diffusion.

 

7

 

 

 

51) A large negative temperature lapse rate would occur in a layer with:

  1. A) uniformly cold temperatures throughout.
  2. B) cold air above, warm air below.
  3. C) warm air above, cold air below.
  4. D) uniformly warm temperatures throughout.

 

8

 

 

 

52) If your environmental lapse rate is 7 C/km on a partly cloudy afternoon, then the atmosphere is said to be:

  1. A) absolutely stable.
  2. B) absolutely unstable.
  3. C) conditionally stable.

 

8

 

 

 

53) If your environmental lapse rate is 17 C/km on a partly cloudy afternoon, then the atmosphere is said to be:

  1. A) absolutely unstable.
  2. B) absolutely stable.
  3. C) conditionally stable.

 

8

 

 

 

54) An inversion represents an extremely stable atmosphere because a parcel of air that rises into an inversion will eventually become ________ and ________ dense than the air surrounding it.

  1. A) colder, less
  2. B) colder, more
  3. C) warmer, less
  4. D) warmer, more

 

8

 

 

55) These two conditions, working together, will make the atmosphere the most unstable.

  1. A) warm the surface and warm the air aloft
  2. B) warm the surface and cool the air aloft
  3. C) cool the surface and warm the air aloft
  4. D) cool the surface and cool the air aloft

 

8

 

 

 

56) The atmosphere is most unstable when the temperature of the air ________ with height.

  1. A) is uniform
  2. B) drops rapidly
  3. C) increases slightly
  4. D) decreases slightly
  5. E) increases rapidly

 

8

 

 

 

57) Which of these pairs of processes, working together, will make the atmosphere most unstable?

  1. A) cool the surface and cool the air aloft
  2. B) cool the surface and warm the air aloft
  3. C) warm the surface and warm the air aloft
  4. D) warm the surface and cool the air aloft

 

8

 

 

 

58) A stable atmosphere is one in which:

  1. A) clouds are forming.
  2. B) upward vertical motions are resisted.
  3. C) rising bubbles of air accelerate upward.
  4. D) temperatures are adiabatic.

 

8

 

 

 

59) The stability of an air layer refers to its:

  1. A) tendency to either sustain or suppress upward vertical motions.
  2. B) albedo.
  3. C) overall density.
  4. D) pressure as measured at its base.

 

8

 

 

60) An increase in the environmental lapse rate of an air layer results in the layer becoming:

  1. A) less stable.
  2. B) an air parcel.
  3. C) cooler.
  4. D) more stable.
  5. E) heavier.

 

8

 

 

 

61) If the environmental lapse rate is less than the wet adiabatic lapse rate, then the atmosphere is:

  1. A) absolutely stable.
  2. B) absolutely unstable
  3. C) conditionally unstable
  4. D) cannot determine from this information.

 

8

 

 

 

62) The stability of the air layer close to the earth’s surface can vary markedly. Much of this variation is caused by:

  1. A) changes in wind speed.
  2. B) changes in pressure.
  3. C) changes in wind direction.
  4. D) changes in heating or cooling of the surface.

 

1

 

 

 

63) A cold air mass that is warmed at its base from contact with the warm ground will have its lapse rate:

  1. A) compressed.
  2. B) decreased.
  3. C) remain constant.
  4. D) increased.
  5. E) changed to an inversion.

 

1

 

 

64) If air at sea level with a temperature of 27°C is forced up a mountain slope and the air’s dew point at the condensation level is 14°C, at what elevation will condensation begin?

  1. A) 2700 meters
  2. B) 1300 meters
  3. C) 1400 meters
  4. D) 2600 meters

 

2

 

 

 

65) Sinking or subsiding air cannot form clouds due to the:

  1. A) release of latent heat.
  2. B) loss of particulates.
  3. C) removal of water vapor.
  4. D) formation of unstable layers.
  5. E) warming temperatures.

 

2

 

 

 

66) Which of the following will not cause air to become more unstable?

  1. A) forceful lifting of air
  2. B) subsidence of an air column
  3. C) intense solar heating which warms the air from below
  4. D) upward movement caused by general convergence

 

2

 

 

 

67) Which of the following would not be associated with stable atmospheric conditions?

  1. A) buildup of pollutants
  2. B) temperature inversion
  3. C) widespread fog
  4. D) afternoon thunderstorms

 

For the following questions, refer to the diagram shown below.

 

 

 

68) Given the conditions shown in the diagram above, the elevation of the cloud base would be:

  1. A) 111000 m
  2. B) 2000 m
  3. C) 2500 m
  4. D) 3000 m

 

2

 

 

 

69) In the diagram shown above, the temperature and dew point at the peak (4000 m) would be: (Assume 100% relative humidity and a wet adiabatic lapse rate of 5°C/km.)

  1. A) both equal to -5°C.
  2. B) both equal to -15°C.
  3. C) equal to -5°C and -10°C, respectively.
  4. D) equal to -15°C and -5°C, respectively.

 

70) In the diagram shown above, the parcel would have a temperature of ________ when it reached the base on the leeward side of the mountain.

  1. A) 15°C
  2. B) 20°C
  3. C) 25°C
  4. D) 35°C

 

2

 

 

71) Plants release water to the atmosphere through the process of sublimation.

 

8

 

 

 

72) More water is evaporated from the oceans than is returned to the oceans by precipitation.

 

8

 

 

 

73) The average annual precipitation for the earth is equal to the annual amount of evaporated water.

 

8

 

 

 

74) It takes 1 calorie to raise 1 gram of water 1°C.

 

1

 

 

 

75) Evaporation is a cooling process.

 

1

 

 

 

76) The formation of frost is an example of deposition.

 

2

 

 

 

77) If the temperature remains unchanged and the mixing ratio drops, the relative humidity will increase.

 

3, 106

 

 

 

78) If the mixing ratio remains unchanged and the temperature drops, the relative humidity will increase.

 

3, 106

 

 

79) When discussing the water vapor in the air, meteorologists prefer to use absolute humidity rather than mixing ratio.

 

3

 

 

 

80) Both absolute humidity and relative humidity change if the temperature of the air changes.

 

3, 107

 

 

 

81) The saturation vapor pressure is independent of temperature.

 

4

 

 

 

82) The capacity of air to hold water vapor is temperature dependent.

 

5

 

 

 

83) Relative humidity is “relative” to pressure.

 

6

 

 

 

84) Relative humidity levels are always higher in St. Louis, MO than Anchorage, AK.

 

7

 

 

 

85) Relative humidity gives a measurement of the amount of water in the air, and is usually measured in grams per cubic meter.

 

8

 

 

 

86) The absolute humidity of the air is expressed as a percent.

 

8

 

 

87) An area that is very cold in winter will probably also have a relatively dry winter.

 

8

 

 

 

88) On a calm night, the relative humidity a few inches above grass is lower than it is a few feet above the grass.

 

8

 

 

 

89) Stability is measured using a sling psychrometer.

 

1

 

 

 

90) Adiabatic temperature changes refer to parcels of air that rise or sink.

 

2

 

 

 

91) When air sinks, it is compressed and warmed.

 

2

 

 

 

92) For a given mass of rising air, the dry adiabatic rate will always be higher than the wet adiabatic rate.

 

2

 

 

 

93) The environmental lapse rate is usually the same as the dry adiabatic rate.

 

7

 

 

 

94) Temperature inversions occur when warm air is below cold air.

 

8

 

 

95) When the lapse rate is 7 degrees per kilometer, the atmosphere is absolutely unstable.

 

9

 

 

 

96) If the relative humidity is 100 percent and the environmental lapse rate is 8 degrees C per kilometer, then the air is conditionally unstable.

 

9

 

 

 

97) Thunderstorms are most likely to occur when the atmosphere is absolutely unstable.

 

2

 

 

 

98) Clear skies are associated with subsidence or sinking motion.

 

2

 

 

 

99) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

 

3

 

 

 

100) Once precipitation has fallen on land, it may take one of three paths. List these three possible routes.

Answer:  runoff, infiltration, evaporation

8

 

 

 

101) Plants release water to the atmosphere through the process of ________.

Answer:  transpiration

8

 

 

 

102) If you know the amount of heat it takes to melt 1 gram of water and turn it to vapor, you also know the amount of heat it takes to do this other phase change of water: ________.

 

 

103) That part of the total atmospheric pressure attributable to its water vapor content is termed ________.

 

 

 

104) The instrument consisting of a wet bulb thermometer and a dry bulb thermometer is termed a ________.

105) Why does the wet bulb thermometer of a psychrometer read less than the dry bulb?

 

 

 

106) What is the most frequent cause of the air becoming saturated?

 

 

107) Why is the wet adiabatic rate of cooling less that the dry adiabatic rate?

 

 

 

108) Thermals are created by the lifting mechanism known as ________.

 

 

109) To make a decision about the stability of the air, what is the most important information that you need to know?

 

110) List two atmospheric phenomena in air near the surface that are likely when the air is very stable.

111) In your own words, describe the process that causes a cold glass of ice water to ‘sweat’. Include a discussion of the flow of energy through this system, and use appropriate vocabulary.

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 5   Forms of Condensation and Precipitation

 

1) All of the following are necessary ingredients for cloud formation EXCEPT:

  1. A) warm surface air temperatures.
  2. B) rising, cooling air.
  3. C) high moisture content.
  4. D) condensation nuclei.

 

0

 

 

 

2) Hygroscopic nuclei:

  1. A) repel water and prevent condensation.
  2. B) can allow cloud droplets to form even if the relative humidity is less than 100%.
  3. C) are not generally found in nature.
  4. D) are not the most ideal type of condensation nuclei for encouraging droplet growth.

 

0

 

 

 

3) The most common way for air to be cooled in order that a cloud may form is by:

  1. A) sinking and contracting.
  2. B) emitting radiation.
  3. C) evaporating water.
  4. D) rising and expanding.
  5. E) reflecting radiation.

 

0

 

 

 

4) The cloud droplets in a cloud are formed by water vapor molecules and:

  1. A) protons.
  2. B) ions.
  3. C) molecules of air.
  4. D) condensation nuclei.
  5. E) other water vapor molecules.

 

5) Clouds and precipitation form in the air primarily due to:

  1. A) air being cooled as it rises.
  2. B) moisture being added to the air.
  3. C) excessive numbers of condensation nuclei.
  4. D) absorption of infrared radiation.
  5. E) release of latent heat.

 

0

 

 

 

6) The process by which a cloud droplet first forms is:

  1. A) condensation.
  2. B) supercooling.
  3. C) collision and coalescence.
  4. D) evaporation.
  5. E) precipitation.

 

0

 

 

 

7) The most important process for cloud formation in the atmosphere is:

  1. A) cooling by loss of latent heat.
  2. B) cooling by compression of the air.
  3. C) radiational cooling.
  4. D) cooling by contact with the cold ground.
  5. E) cooling by expansion of the air.

 

0

 

 

 

8) Dew point is the temperature at which water vapor in the air begins to condense. The temperature inside a cloud would therefore be:

  1. A) about equal to the dew point.
  2. B) way above the dew point.
  3. C) below freezing.
  4. D) just above the dew point.

 

9) Clouds, dew and frost all form because air has become saturated. This condition of saturation is usually caused by:

  1. A) a temperature increase.
  2. B) lack of convective mixing.
  3. C) adding water vapor.
  4. D) the air being cooled.
  5. E) an abundance of condensation nuclei.

 

0

 

 

 

10) Salt, dust particles, and smoke are all examples of:

  1. A) anthropogenically-produced cloud nuclei.
  2. B) freezing nuclei.
  3. C) hydrophobic nuclei.
  4. D) condensation nuclei.

 

0

 

 

 

11) Who first created the cloud classification system on which our modern system is based?

  1. A) Benjamin Franklin
  2. B) Luke Howard
  3. C) Tor Bergeron
  4. D) Andrew Ellis

 

1

 

 

 

12) Where is the dryest place on Earth?

  1. A) Arica, Chile
  2. B) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
  3. C) Cairo, Egypt
  4. D) Canberra, Australia

 

1

 

 

 

13) Clouds are classified and named according to their altitude and:

  1. A) temperature.
  2. B) water content.
  3. C) size of droplets in the cloud.
  4. D) form or appearance.
  5. E) amount of precipitation produced.

 

1

 

 

14) High clouds are those that form at altitudes of at least:

  1. A) 6500 ft (2000 m).
  2. B) 20,000 ft (6000 m).
  3. C) 32, 800 ft (10,000 m).
  4. D) 65,617 ft (20,000 m).

 

2

 

 

 

15) You observe a cloud at an altitude of 3000 m. This cloud name would have the prefix:

  1. A) alto.
  2. B) cirro.
  3. C) strato.
  4. D) medial.

 

2

 

 

 

16) Which association is correct?

  1. A) low cloud…stratus
  2. B) middle cloud…cirrus
  3. C) vertical cloud…nimbostratus
  4. D) high cloud…altostratus
  5. E) low cloud…cirrocumulus

 

17) Clouds which have extensive vertical dimensions are often classified as:

  1. A) cirrus.
  2. B) very thin.
  3. C) nimbus.
  4. D) lenticularis.
  5. E) cumulus.

 

2

 

 

 

18) Which of these clouds is least likely to produce precipitation that reaches the ground?

  1. A) cirrostratus
  2. B) cumulonimbus
  3. C) nimbostratus
  4. D) stratus

 

2

 

 

19) Why are high altitude clouds always so thin?

  1. A) Winds are faster at high levels.
  2. B) Not enough particulates are present.
  3. C) Very little water vapor is present.
  4. D) Air layers are stable there.
  5. E) Air layers are unstable there.

 

2

 

 

 

20) This cloud sometimes resembles mare’s tails.

  1. A) altostratus
  2. B) cumulonimbus
  3. C) cirrostratus
  4. D) nimbostratus
  5. E) cirrus

 

21) A halo around the Sun or the Moon indicates the cloud ________ is present.

  1. A) nimbostratus
  2. B) cirrostratus
  3. C) cirrus
  4. D) altostratus
  5. E) cumulonimbus

 

2

 

 

 

22) Which association is not correct?

  1. A) high cloud…stratus
  2. B) middle cloud…altostratus
  3. C) low cloud…stratocumulus
  4. D) high cloud…cirrus
  5. E) vertical cloud…cumulus

 

2

 

 

23) The cloud form that is best described as sheets or layers that cover much or all of the sky is termed:

  1. A) cirrus.
  2. B) mackerel sky.
  3. C) alto.
  4. D) cumulus.
  5. E) stratus.

 

3

 

 

 

24) Of the following cloud types, which is most likely to produce the most rain?

  1. A) stratus
  2. B) cumulus
  3. C) altocumulus
  4. D) nimbostratus
  5. E) stratocumulus

 

25) A cumulus cloud is recognized mainly by its:

  1. A) obvious vertical dimension.
  2. B) darkness or color.
  3. C) association with high winds.
  4. D) layered structure.
  5. E) precipitation.

 

3

 

 

 

26) A(n) ________ is a low layer of dark gray clouds that produces precipitation.

  1. A) cumulonimbus
  2. B) altostratus
  3. C) nimbostratus
  4. D) cirrostratus
  5. E) cirrus

 

3

 

 

27) The ________ cloud is confined to the middle height range.

  1. A) cumulonimbus
  2. B) cirrus
  3. C) nimbostratus
  4. D) cirrostratus
  5. E) altostratus

 

3

 

 

 

28) Which of these is a mid-level cloud?

  1. A) stratocumulus
  2. B) altostratus
  3. C) cumulus
  4. D) cirrus
  5. E) stratus

 

29) How are jet contrails thought to influence the surface temperatures of cities near major airports?

  1. A) Decrease the daily temperature range.
  2. B) Definitely make the daily mean temperature warmer.
  3. C) Definitely make the daily mean temperature cooler.
  4. D) They have no measurable influence on surface temperature.

 

5

 

 

 

30) Contrails formed by aircrafts most closely mimic which type of cloud?

  1. A) cirrus
  2. B) stratus
  3. C) fair-weather cumulus
  4. D) cirrocumulus

 

5

 

 

31) You are flying in an airplane at 36,000 feet above sea level. You see lightning outside your plane window. The cloud that is close by is:

  1. A) cirrus.
  2. B) cumulus.
  3. C) stratus.
  4. D) cumulonimbus.
  5. E) altocumulus.

 

6

 

 

 

32) Where are lenticular clouds most likely to form?

  1. A) over oceans
  2. B) along coastlines
  3. C) to the lee of mountains
  4. D) in desert regions

 

33) Which association is not correct?

  1. A) fractus — clouds broken into smaller pieces
  2. B) mammatus — rounded, udder-like bottoms
  3. C) uncinus — hook-shaped
  4. D) lenticular — associated with rainbows

 

6

 

 

 

34) Cirrus uncinus clouds are often precursors of:

  1. A) clear skies.
  2. B) bad weather.
  3. C) calm conditions.
  4. D) lenticular clouds.

 

6

 

 

 

35) The ________ cloud may have an “anvil head.”

  1. A) cumulonimbus
  2. B) altostratus
  3. C) cirrus
  4. D) nimbostratus
  5. E) cirrostratus

 

6

 

 

36) Thunder and lightning are associated with the ________ cloud.

  1. A) cumulonimbus
  2. B) altostratus
  3. C) cirrus
  4. D) cirrostratus
  5. E) nimbostratus

 

6

 

 

 

37) The conditions that persist along the West Coast of the U. S. that are conducive to fog formation are:

  1. A) inversions and a warm land surface.
  2. B) moist air moving over a cold surface.
  3. C) inversions and a warm water surface.
  4. D) steep lapse rate and cold surface.
  5. E) steep lapse rate and a warm surface.

 

8

 

 

 

38) When warm moist air moves over a cold surface, ________ fog may result.

  1. A) steam
  2. B) advection
  3. C) radiation
  4. D) precipitation
  5. E) upslope

 

8

 

 

 

39) Which type of fog occurs during nights when skies are clear and relative humidity is high?

  1. A) radiation fog
  2. B) evaporation fog
  3. C) advection fog
  4. D) steam fog

 

8

 

 

 

40) A radiation fog requires which of the following in order to form?

  1. A) a warm body of water and a cold breeze
  2. B) cold air moving up a slope
  3. C) high relative humidity and clear nighttime skies
  4. D) warm air moving over a cold surface

 

8

 

 

41) The type of fog produced when cold air moves over a warm, moist surface is called:

  1. A) advection fog.
  2. B) radiation fog.
  3. C) steam fog.
  4. D) frontal fog.

 

9

 

 

 

42) The water content or volume of a raindrop is approximately ________ times that of a typical cloud droplet.

  1. A) 1 million
  2. B) 1000
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 10
  5. E) 1 billion

 

0

 

 

 

43) What is the basic reason why condensation is not very important in causing a cloud droplet to grow to raindrop size?

  1. A) Not enough particulates are present.
  2. B) Condensation is too slow.
  3. C) Electrical effects limit condensation.
  4. D) The question is incorrect; condensation is very important.
  5. E) Latent heat limits condensation.

 

0

 

 

 

44) Supercooled water is water which is:

  1. A) part liquid and part solid.
  2. B) a special form of ice.
  3. C) still liquid at temperatures below 0°C.
  4. D) of a slightly different chemical nature than ordinary.
  5. E) produced from dry ice.

 

1

 

 

45) A cloud that forms liquid droplets has a relative humidity of 100 percent with respect to the liquid droplets. If temperature is <0°C and ice crystals form in this cloud, the relative humidity will be ________ with respect to the ice crystals.

  1. A) 100 percent
  2. B) less that 100 percent
  3. C) more than 100 percent
  4. D) 0 percent

 

2

 

 

 

46) The important difference between liquid droplets and ice crystals in a supercooled cloud is that ice crystals:

  1. A) are more pure.
  2. B) are colder.
  3. C) grow much more rapidly.
  4. D) are smaller.
  5. E) increase the water vapor content of the cloud.

 

2

 

 

 

47) The Bergeron process causes cloud droplets to grow because:

  1. A) water freezes instantly when its temperature reaches 0°C.
  2. B) freezing nuclei are much more common in the atmosphere than other condensation nuclei.
  3. C) larger drops fall and collect smaller droplets in the cloud.
  4. D) the saturation vapor pressure is lower near ice crystals than it is near supercooled droplets.

 

2

 

 

 

48) The growth of a cloud droplet into a rain drop large enough to fall to Earth in a warm cloud is accomplished primarily through:

  1. A) hygroscopic action.
  2. B) condensation of water vapor.
  3. C) supercooling of water.
  4. D) evaporation of water in the cloud.
  5. E) collision and coalescence.

 

3

 

 

49) Most of the precipitation that falls in the middle latitudes is formed by:

  1. A) the Bergeron process.
  2. B) collision-coalescence.
  3. C) spontaneous freezing of water droplets in the absence of condensation nuclei.
  4. D) condensation of water vapor.

 

3

 

 

 

50) The formation of raindrops by collision and coalescence of smaller cloud droplets is strongly influenced by:

  1. A) solar radiation.
  2. B) dew point temperature of the cloud.
  3. C) electrical charges on the droplets.
  4. D) presence of dust.
  5. E) number of droplets in the cloud.

 

4

 

 

 

51) Graupel is:

  1. A) hail stones that have been shattered into pieces.
  2. B) “soft hail” produced by rime.
  3. C) rain that evaporates before it hits the ground.
  4. D) a special instrument used to measure snow water equivalent.

 

5

 

 

 

52) Rain that evaporates before it hits the ground, forming characteristic streaks below clouds, is known as:

  1. A) virga.
  2. B) graupel.
  3. C) uncinus.
  4. D) fractus.

 

6

 

 

 

53) Under what conditions does light and fluffy snow form?

  1. A) warm air and low humidity
  2. B) warm air and high humidity
  3. C) cold air and low humidity
  4. D) cold air and no humidity

 

6

 

 

54) How does drizzle differ from rain?

  1. A) It is warmer.
  2. B) It has a smaller diameter.
  3. C) It is evaporating before it hits the ground.
  4. D) It forms at higher altitudes.

 

6

 

 

 

55) Freezing rain (ice storm) or sleet occurs when:

  1. A) upper air is warm and surface air is cold.
  2. B) both surface and upper air are cold.
  3. C) both surface and upper air are warm.
  4. D) upper air is cold and surface air is warm.

 

7

 

 

 

56) Hail is most commonly associated with:

  1. A) cumulonimbus clouds.
  2. B) cirrus clouds.
  3. C) nimbostratus clouds.
  4. D) altostratus clouds.
  5. E) cirrocumulus clouds.

 

57) The necessary conditions for hail formation include strong upward vertical motion and:

  1. A) raindrops larger than 5 mm.
  2. B) warm temperatures at high levels in the cloud.
  3. C) large numbers of supercooled droplets.
  4. D) large numbers of particulates.

 

8

 

 

 

58) The growth of a hailstone usually involves everything EXCEPT:

  1. A) spontaneous freezing of large water droplets.
  2. B) being carried several times into the frozen region of the cloud by updrafts.
  3. C) ice pellets encountering supercooled water droplets.
  4. D) the development of alternating layers of clear and cloudy ice.

 

8

 

 

59) The weather forecast is calling for blizzard conditions. What kind of conditions can you expect at a minimum?

  1. A) visibility of 1/2 mile or better
  2. B) heavy snowfall of at least 3 inches per hour, but with calm winds
  3. C) winds of at least 50 mph for a minimum of 3 hours
  4. D) winds of at least 35 mph for a minimum of 3 hours

 

9

 

 

 

60) Under which of the following conditions would a heavy snowfall warning be issued?

  1. A) snowfall of ten inches in 24 hours
  2. B) snowfall of four inches in one hour
  3. C) snowfall of four inches in 12 hours
  4. D) all of the above

 

61) When supercooled droplets freeze directly to very cold surfaces and create fine, needle-like ice crystals, the result is:

  1. A) rime.
  2. B) graupel.
  3. C) virga.
  4. D) uncinus.

 

0

 

 

 

62) Snowfall depths can be difficult to measure because:

  1. A) snow usually melts too quickly once it reaches the surface.
  2. B) there is no automated instrument capable of measuring snowfall.
  3. C) wind causes snow to vary in depth across the surface.
  4. D) it is difficult to locate instruments far enough away from buildings.

 

1

 

 

 

63) The process of releasing silver iodide into the atmosphere to stimulate rainfall is called:

  1. A) artificial droplet supplementation.
  2. B) precipitation harvesting.
  3. C) rain enhancement.
  4. D) cloud seeding.

 

3

 

 

64) The process of cloud seeding is based on the theory that:

  1. A) silver iodide crystals act as freezing nuclei and enhance the Bergeron process.
  2. B) silver iodide crystals make droplets heavier than usual so that they fall to the ground.
  3. C) warm clouds will produce more rain if droplets are encouraged to freeze inside the cloud.
  4. D) it is impossible to add too many freezing nuclei; the more you add, the more rain will fall.

 

65) The primary motivation for hail suppression experiments is:

  1. A) to generate more rain and less hail in order to supplement the water supply.
  2. B) to protect endangered species living in hail-prone areas.
  3. C) to reduce loss of human life in severe hail storms.
  4. D) to prevent or lessen damage to crops and property.

 

4

 

 

 

66) Water condensation can occur even if the air is not saturated.

 

0

 

 

 

67) Clouds are named by their height and water content.

 

1

 

 

 

68) Tornadoes are only associated with cumulonimbus clouds.

 

2

 

 

 

69) A halo around the Sun is associated with an altocumulus cloud.

 

2

 

 

 

70) Nimbostratus clouds can produce long, steady periods of precipitation.

 

3

 

 

71) Cumulus clouds can develop as a consequence of local convection.

 

72) Nimbostratus clouds can form in air that is stable.

 

3

 

 

 

73) Contrails can last long periods of time if they form in air that is near saturation.

 

5

 

 

 

74) Lenticular clouds form most frequently on the windward sides of mountains.

 

6

 

 

 

75) Fog is simply a cloud with a base at or near the ground.

 

7

 

 

 

76) Radiation fog can actually be deeper and more widespread with a light breeze than under calm conditions.

 

8

 

 

 

77) Radiation fog evaporates from the bottom up.

 

8

 

 

 

78) The type of fog that frequently exists along the California coast is an advection fog.

 

8

 

 

79) All fogs form over cold surfaces.

 

9

 

 

80) Advection fogs form best when there is no wind.

 

9

 

 

 

81) Raindrops form by condensation.

 

0

 

 

 

82) Most rainfall in the middle latitudes begins as snow or other forms of frozen water.

 

1

 

 

 

83) The Bergeron process is associated with supercooled clouds.

 

1

 

 

 

84) At -15°C, clouds contain both ice crystals and supercooled water droplets.

 

2

 

 

 

85) The large droplets in a cloud are the least likely to form precipitation.

 

3

 

 

 

86) Both gravity and friction act to pull a raindrop to Earth.

 

3

 

 

 

87) Freezing nuclei are part of the collision-coalescence process.

 

3

 

 

88) The Bergeron process may result in snow or rain.

 

3

 

 

 

89) Atmospheric electricity is believed to play an import role in the collision-coalescence process.

 

4

 

 

 

90) Graupel forms when rime collects on ice crystals in a cloud.

 

6

 

 

 

91) A precipitation droplet with a diameter of 0.25 mm would be classified as rain.

 

6

 

 

 

92) Sleet is produced only when all the air above the ground is below freezing.

 

7

 

 

 

93) Freezing rain and sleet are both the same form of precipitation.

 

7

 

 

 

94) Freezing rain falls as a liquid and freezes once its on the ground.

 

95) Sleet is essentially rain that freezes before reaching the surface.

 

7

 

 

 

96) Large hailstones hit the ground with speeds exceeding 100 mph.

 

8

 

 

97) The largest hailstone ever recorded in the United States weighed over 5 pounds.

 

8

 

 

 

98) When a ‘trace of precipitation’ has been reported, it means that less than 0.25 inches of rain has fallen.

 

0

 

 

 

99) Accurate measurement of precipitation is limited by the effects of the wind.

 

1

 

 

 

100) A tipping-bucket gauge makes use of a spring balance.

 

1

 

 

 

101) A standard rain gauge magnifies rainfall ten times.

 

1

 

 

 

102) It is difficult to distinguish between cloud droplets and raindrops on a radar image, because the radar wavelengths are reflected by both of them.

 

2

 

 

 

103) Cloud seeding can sometimes be used to disperse fog.

 

3

 

 

 

104) Successful dispersal of fog by seeding is limited to supercooled fog.

 

4

 

 

105) Under some conditions, flying a helicopter just above a fog deck can help to disperse the fog.

 

4

 

 

 

106) Studies have shown no statistical significance in attempts to suppress hail via cloud seeding.

 

5

 

 

 

107) Frost tends to form when the surface dew point temperature is below freezing.

 

5

 

 

 

108) Frost prevention by air mixing requires that a temperature inversion be present in the air layer near the ground.

 

6

 

 

 

109) When will an ascending parcel of air begin to condense into a cloud?

 

 

 

110) The most effective cloud condensation nuclei are water absorbent, known as ________ nuclei.

 

 

 

111) Which cloud type is most likely to produce a brief yet intense period of precipitation?

 

 

112) Steam fogs and frontal fogs are both types of ________ fogs.

 

 

113) Why do the liquid droplets that form a cloud (cloud droplets) not fall to the ground as a fine drizzle?

 

 

114) Why are raindrops that reach the ground limited to a maximum size of about 5 mm in diameter?

 

 

115) List the two requirements that a cumulonimbus cloud must meet if hail is to form.

116) List the two different precipitation measurements that are applied to snowfall.

 

 

 

117) What measurement does radar provide concerning clouds and precipitation?

 

 

 

118) Frost is an example of ________.

 

 

119) Explain how a raindrop forms through the Bergeron process.

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 6   Air Pressure and Winds

 

1) The best explanation for the cause of atmospheric pressure is:

  1. A) weight of the air above.
  2. B) air temperature.
  3. C) air compression.
  4. D) wind force.
  5. E) air density.

 

2

 

 

 

2) The National Weather Service measures air pressure in the unit of a millibar, which is equivalent to:

  1. A) 10 Newtons per square meter.
  2. B) 100 Newtons per square meter.
  3. C) 500 Newtons per square meter.
  4. D) 1000 Newtons per square meter.

 

3

 

 

 

3) If the National Weather Service converted to the metric system, they would most likely report air pressure in which units?

  1. A) pascals
  2. B) kilopascals
  3. C) millibars
  4. D) inches of mercury

 

3

 

 

 

4) Who invented the mercury barometer?

  1. A) Galileo
  2. B) Bergeron
  3. C) Toricelli
  4. D) Celsius

 

3

 

 

5) The maximum pressure range of the atmosphere is between:

  1. A) 660-1335 millibars.
  2. B) 720-1335 millibars.
  3. C) 870-1085 millibars.
  4. D) 975-1035 millibars.
  5. E) 0-1000 millibars.

 

3

 

 

 

6) What units of pressure are used when air pressure is reported to the public in the United States?

  1. A) millibars
  2. B) inches of mercury
  3. C) kilopascals
  4. D) Newtons

 

4

 

 

 

7) What is the average sea level pressure in the United States?

  1. A) 29.92 mb
  2. B) 766 mb
  3. C) 1000 mb
  4. D) 1013 mb

 

4

 

 

 

8) If air pressure is reduced by one-half for every five-kilometer increase in altitude, what would be the air pressure at a height of 25 kilometers as a fraction of sea-level air pressure?

  1. A) 1/32
  2. B) 1/8
  3. C) 1/64
  4. D) 1/4
  5. E) 1/16

 

5

 

 

 

9) Which of the following would involve the greatest change in atmospheric pressure?

  1. A) horizontal airplane flight of 200 miles
  2. B) balloon ascent from sea level to 3 miles
  3. C) travel from center of a low pressure system to center of a high pressure system
  4. D) difference between the highest and lowest recorded pressure at any one weather station

 

5

 

 

10) The addition of water vapor will cause the density of air to:

  1. A) decrease.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) stay the same.
  4. D) vary widely in a horizontal direction.

 

6

 

 

 

11) Air pressure drops ________ with altitude in a column of cold (dense) air than in a column of warm (less dense) air.

  1. A) equally
  2. B) more slowly
  3. C) less significantly
  4. D) more rapidly

 

6

 

 

 

12) Divergence in the atmosphere is best defined as:

  1. A) air moving out of an area.
  2. B) air piling up in one area.
  3. C) warm air moving away from cold air.
  4. D) clouds separating and dissipating.

 

7

 

 

 

13) Which of the following has the smallest impact on winds?

  1. A) pressure gradient force
  2. B) Coriolis effect
  3. C) humidity
  4. D) friction

 

7

 

 

 

14) An altimeter is an adaptation of the:

  1. A) aneroid barometer.
  2. B) millibar.
  3. C) mercurial barometer.
  4. D) anemometer.

 

7

 

 

15) What is a limitation of an altimeter that pilots must account for?

  1. A) It has a low battery life at high altitudes.
  2. B) Its readings may be too low or too high if the temperature varies from the expected.
  3. C) Corrections are not as accurate at low levels as they are at higher levels.
  4. D) They can’t ever be used to determine altitude — only pressure.

 

7

 

 

 

16) The primary force which causes all winds is:

  1. A) centrifugal force.
  2. B) Coriolis effect.
  3. C) inertia force.
  4. D) geostrophic force.
  5. E) pressure gradient force.

 

8

 

 

 

17) Neglecting friction, the speed and direction of the horizontal wind are determined by:

  1. A) temperature and humidity.
  2. B) viscosity and turbulence.
  3. C) pressure gradient and Coriolis.
  4. D) gravity and humidity.
  5. E) only gravity.

 

8

 

 

 

18) If the earth were not rotating,

  1. A) all winds would cease.
  2. B) Earth would lose its atmosphere.
  3. C) air would move directly from high to low pressure.
  4. D) atmospheric pressure would decrease.

 

8

 

 

 

19) The term pressure gradient refers to:

  1. A) change in pressure at a weather station over 3 hours time.
  2. B) change in pressure from the tropopause to sea level.
  3. C) change in pressure along a horizontal surface.
  4. D) highest and lowest pressures at a station.
  5. E) change in wind speed at the same station.

 

8

 

 

20) It the Earth were not rotating:

  1. A) all air would move in one direction only.
  2. B) friction would be eliminated.
  3. C) the Earth would lose its atmosphere.
  4. D) air would move directly from high pressure to low pressure.

 

8

 

 

 

21) The pressure gradient force is directed from higher to lower pressure:

  1. A) only in the Northern Hemisphere.
  2. B) only at the poles.
  3. C) everywhere except the equator.
  4. D) only at the equator.
  5. E) everywhere.

 

8

 

 

 

22) The force that generates wind is:

  1. A) pressure gradient force.
  2. B) friction.
  3. C) gravity.
  4. D) Coriolis force.
  5. E) centrifugal force.

 

8

 

 

 

23) Meteorologists convert all atmospheric pressure data to the equivalent sea-level air pressure in order to:

  1. A) make sure all of the data is measured in millibars.
  2. B) correct for the effects of the Coriolis force.
  3. C) remove the effects of elevation.
  4. D) unify the pressure gradient force at all locations.

 

8

 

 

 

24) A steep pressure gradient:

  1. A) produces light winds.
  2. B) produces strong winds.
  3. C) is only possible in the tropics.
  4. D) would be depicted by widely spaced isobars.

 

8

 

 

25) What do isobars represent on a map?

  1. A) lines connecting points of equal air pressure
  2. B) the lowest pressures on the map
  3. C) the highest pressures on the map
  4. D) areas of convergence in the upper atmosphere

 

8

 

 

 

26) The Coriolis effect occurs because of this characteristic of the earth:

  1. A) its magnetic field.
  2. B) its atmosphere.
  3. C) its rotation.
  4. D) its dense core.

 

9

 

 

 

27) Horizontal variations in air pressure cause a force which makes the wind blow. These pressure variations are caused by:

  1. A) warm temperatures in the stratosphere.
  2. B) greenhouse effect.
  3. C) non-circular shape of Earth.
  4. D) Earth’s rotation.
  5. E) uneven heating of the earth’s surface.

 

9

 

 

 

28) Circulations in the earth’s atmosphere are fundamentally caused by:

  1. A) heating of the ozone layer.
  2. B) frontal storm systems.
  3. C) ocean currents.
  4. D) gravity.
  5. E) temperature contrasts between different locations.

 

9

 

 

 

29) The overall strength of a circulation system is determined by:

  1. A) the latitude.
  2. B) no one factor is more important than the others.
  3. C) friction between the ground and the air.
  4. D) its pressure gradient.
  5. E) air temperature.

 

9

 

 

30) A plane takes off from City A headed for City B, located directly to the north. The pilot flies directly north, but arrives at a city some distance to the west of City B. What can be said of the airplane?

  1. A) It probably has a broken compass.
  2. B) It was blown off course by upper atmospheric winds.
  3. C) It was flying in the Northern Hemisphere.
  4. D) It was flying in the Southern Hemisphere.

 

 

 

 

31) Refer to the map above. The black lines on the map are called ________ and they represent lines of equal ________.

  1. A) isobars; pressure
  2. B) isotherms; temperature
  3. C) isotherms; pressure
  4. D) isodrosotherms; humidity

 

0

 

 

32) Refer to the map above. Which of the following areas has the highest pressure gradient?

  1. A) Southwestern Texas
  2. B) Southern California
  3. C) Southern Florida
  4. D) Lake Michigan/Southeastern Wisconsin

 

0

 

 

 

33) Refer to the map above. Which of the following areas is most likely to be experiencing rain or other significant weather?

  1. A) the Great Lakes region
  2. B) the Southwest
  3. C) Western Canada
  4. D) the Pacific Northeast

 

8

 

 

 

34) Refer to the map above. What best explains the high wind speeds found immediately around the low pressure center (L)?

  1. A) the dramatically lower temperatures in the area
  2. B) increased friction
  3. C) the comparatively high pressure gradient in the area
  4. D) the higher humidity associated with low pressures

 

8

 

 

 

35) Which of these factors influence the magnitude of the Coriolis force?

  1. A) wind direction
  2. B) latitude
  3. C) wind speed
  4. D) both wind speed and latitude

 

1

 

 

 

36) As seen by an observer on Earth, the Coriolis effect is an illusion; no deflection can actually be measured.

  1. A) false
  2. B) false, but only near the poles
  3. C) true, but only near the poles
  4. D) true

 

1

 

 

37) The Coriolis effect is important only for motions that:

  1. A) do not involve a pressure gradient.
  2. B) cover short distances.
  3. C) are slow.
  4. D) are near the earth’s surface.
  5. E) cover long distances.

 

1

 

 

 

38) The Coriolis effect influences the wind by:

  1. A) decreasing the wind speed.
  2. B) changing the direction of the wind.
  3. C) increasing the wind speed.
  4. D) starting the air motion.

 

1

 

 

 

39) With respect to the Coriolis force, which association is NOT correct?

  1. A) Northern Hemisphere — deflection to the right of the wind’s original direction
  2. B) North Pole — strongest deflection
  3. C) Low wind speeds — strongest deflection
  4. D) deflection — always at a 90 degree angle to the direction of air flow

 

1

 

 

 

40) Upper air winds:

  1. A) are greatly influenced by friction.
  2. B) are generally faster than surface winds.
  3. C) are unaffected by the Coriolis force.
  4. D) do not influence surface weather.

 

2

 

 

 

41) The wind speed normally increases with height in the layer of air next to the ground. This illustrates the fact that:

  1. A) friction is present only close to the ground.
  2. B) the lowest part of the atmosphere is turbulent.
  3. C) temperature decreases with height.
  4. D) pressure decreases with height.
  5. E) density decreases with height.

 

2

 

 

42) The geostrophic wind concept is most like the real atmospheric winds:

  1. A) in an anticyclone.
  2. B) near the surface.
  3. C) near the equator.
  4. D) in a cyclone.
  5. E) at high altitudes.

 

3

 

 

 

43) When geostrophic conditions exist in the atmosphere, the net force on the moving air is:

  1. A) called a centrifugal force.
  2. B) zero.
  3. C) large when the wind speed is slow.
  4. D) called a centripetal force.
  5. E) large since the wind speed is fast.

 

3

 

 

 

44) The geostrophic wind describes a situation where the air moves:

  1. A) very fast.
  2. B) upward.
  3. C) from pole to equator.
  4. D) very slowly.
  5. E) parallel to the isobars.

 

3

 

 

 

45) What does Buys Ballot’s Law state?

  1. A) If you stand with your back to the wind, there is low pressure on your left and high pressure on the right.
  2. B) If you stand with your back to the wind, there is low pressure on your right and high pressure on your right.
  3. C) If you stand with your back to the wind, there is low pressure directly in front of you.
  4. D) If you stand facing into the wind and you are facing north, the wind is geostrophic.

 

3

 

 

46) A cyclone is generally defined by meteorologists as:

  1. A) an area of high pressure.
  2. B) an area of low pressure.
  3. C) an intense, violent storm.
  4. D) a tornado on the ground.

 

4

 

 

 

47) Anticyclonic flow is:

  1. A) associated with low pressure.
  2. B) associated with storms and rainy conditions.
  3. C) associated with air converging at the surface.
  4. D) in the opposite direction of Earth’s rotation.

 

4

 

 

 

48) According to researchers at University of Colorado Denver, what was the most important factor in the high number of home runs at Coors Field?

  1. A) The predominant summer wind direction is in favor of the batter.
  2. B) The thin air allows the ball to fly further.
  3. C) The lower temperatures help athletes not to overheat.
  4. D) The thin air allows the batter to obtain better auditory cues about the pitch.

 

5

 

 

 

49) The effect of friction on the wind alters its:

  1. A) viscosity.
  2. B) heat content.
  3. C) density.
  4. D) speed and direction.
  5. E) speed only.

 

6

 

 

 

50) Why do surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure (instead of blowing parallel to the isobars)?

  1. A) Friction reduces the speed so Coriolis is weakened.
  2. B) Pressure gradient becomes stronger near the surface.
  3. C) It results from divergence in the surface wind.
  4. D) Coriolis strengthens by combining with friction.
  5. E) Convergence of upper level winds causes this.

 

6

 

 

51) In the southern hemisphere, anticyclonic winds flow:

  1. A) outward and clockwise.
  2. B) inward and clockwise.
  3. C) outward and counterclockwise.
  4. D) inward and counterclockwise.

 

7

 

 

 

52) In the northern hemisphere, cyclonic winds flow:

  1. A) inward and counterclockwise.
  2. B) inward and clockwise.
  3. C) outward and clockwise.
  4. D) outward and counterclockwise.

 

7

 

 

 

53) Instead of the air flowing straight out of a high pressure system, it spirals out in a clockwise direction. The cause of the clockwise spiraling motion is:

  1. A) pressure gradient force.
  2. B) centripetal force.
  3. C) Coriolis force.
  4. D) inertia.
  5. E) turbulence.

 

 

 

54) Identify the choice above that represents high pressure center in the Southern Hemisphere.

  1. A) graph a
  2. B) graph b
  3. C) graph c
  4. D) both a and b
  5. E) none of these

 

7

 

 

55) Identify the choice above that represents low pressure center.

  1. A) graph a
  2. B) graph b
  3. C) graph c
  4. D) both a and b
  5. E) none of these

 

56) Identify the choice above that represents low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere.

  1. A) graph a
  2. B) graph b
  3. C) graph c
  4. D) both a and b
  5. E) none of these

 

7

 

 

 

57) Which option above is generally associated with “fair” weather?

  1. A) graph a
  2. B) graph b
  3. C) graph c
  4. D) both a and b
  5. E) none of these

 

8

 

 

 

58) You would expect vertical airflow in a cyclone to result in:

  1. A) divergence aloft.
  2. B) convergence aloft.
  3. C) divergence at the surface.
  4. D) no cloud development.

 

8

 

 

 

59) You would expect vertical airflow in an anticyclone to result in:

  1. A) convergence aloft.
  2. B) divergence aloft.
  3. C) convergence at the surface.
  4. D) clouds.

 

60) High air pressure zones are usually associated with:

  1. A) converging winds.
  2. B) stormy weather.
  3. C) ascending currents.
  4. D) relatively dry conditions.

 

8

 

 

 

61) If “fair” weather is approaching, the pressure tendency would probably be:

  1. A) falling.
  2. B) steady.
  3. C) rising.
  4. D) Pressure tendency has nothing to do with forecasting good or bad weather.

 

8

 

 

 

62)

TIME PRESSURE
10:51 1016.2 mb
11:51 1015.5 mb
12:51 1015.0 mb
13:51 1014.2 mb
14:51 1013.9 mb
15:51 1013.3 mb
16:51 1013.0 mb

 

Consider the pressure data recorded at Albany International Airport on September 27, 2011. What statement can you make about the weather Albany is likely to experience soon?

  1. A) Winds at Albany will likely be calming down.
  2. B) Albany is likely to experience rain or storms soon.
  3. C) Albany should have clearing skies.
  4. D) Albany will definitely have a tornado within the hour.

 

63) Weather reports of wind express only the horizontal motion of the air. The vertical component of the air motion is usually:

  1. A) very much slower.
  2. B) much faster.
  3. C) only slightly slower.
  4. D) about the same.
  5. E) No general statement can be made.

 

8

 

 

64) Cyclonic airflow is characterized by:

  1. A) divergence aloft and convergence at the surface.
  2. B) convergence aloft and divergence at the surface.
  3. C) divergence both at the surface and aloft.
  4. D) convergence both at the surface and aloft.

 

8

 

 

 

65) When air moves from the ocean onto land:

  1. A) curved flow is initiated.
  2. B) converging winds and ascending air result over the land.
  3. C) divergence and subsidence occur over the land.
  4. D) the winds tend to increase their speed.

 

9

 

 

 

66) Winds from the north are associated with:

  1. A) 0 degrees.
  2. B) 90 degrees.
  3. C) 180 degrees.
  4. D) 235 degrees.

 

1

 

 

 

67) A wind rose is used to identify:

  1. A) prevailing wind direction.
  2. B) wind direction at a given moment.
  3. C) locations with similar wind directions during a storm.
  4. D) the approximate degree of Coriolis deflection at a specific location.

 

1

 

 

 

68) The country that produces the greatest amount of wind energy is:

  1. A) Germany.
  2. B) the United States.
  3. C) China.
  4. D) Italy.

 

2

 

 

69) An aerovane is commonly used to measure:

  1. A) wind direction only.
  2. B) wind speed only.
  3. C) both wind direction and wind speed.
  4. D) pressure gradient force only.

 

3

 

 

 

70) Of the various elements of weather and climate, changes in air pressure are probably the most easily perceived by people.

 

2

 

 

 

71) Air pressure is exerted in all directions.

 

2

 

 

 

72) Under typical atmospheric conditions, gas molecules behave like very elastic balls.

 

2

 

 

73) The inventor of the mercury barometer was Sir Francis Bacon.

 

3

 

 

 

74) If the pressure were 1020 millibars, it would be considered higher than average.

 

3

 

 

 

75) The mercury barometer is larger and less portable than an aneroid barometer.

 

3

 

 

 

76) Standard sea level atmospheric pressure in the U.S. is approximately 29.92 inches of mercury.

 

4

 

 

77) If you’re cooking pasta for your big romantic date, you’d better allow a few extra minutes for it to cook once it comes to a boil if you’re at a high altitude.

 

5

 

 

 

78) During times of warmer temperature (summer), the atmospheric pressure is usually less.

 

6

 

 

 

79) At a given pressure value, the air density will be highest when the temperature is coldest.

 

6

 

 

 

80) The primary cause of wind is not atmospheric pressure but atmospheric pressure differences.

 

8

 

 

 

81) If pressure gradient was the only force acting on the air, it would move in a curved path.

 

8

 

 

 

82) The most important force causing the air’s motion is due to the earth’s rotation.

 

8

 

 

 

83) The speed of the wind at a place is primarily determined by the barometric pressure at that place.

 

8

 

 

 

84) A steep pressure gradient indicates strong winds.

 

8

 

 

85) The sea breeze is a simple thermal circulation that does not involve a pressure gradient.

 

9

 

 

 

86) The most fundamental reason for all atmospheric motions is the non-uniform heating of the earth by the Sun.

 

9

 

 

 

87) The main cause of the sea breeze is the unequal heating of land and water.

 

9

 

 

 

88) Vertical air movement is necessary for the creation of a sea breeze.

 

9

 

 

 

89) The Coriolis effect causes all moving objects to deflect to their right in the northern hemisphere.

 

0

 

 

 

90) The Coriolis effect only applies to atmospheric motions; aircraft, rockets, people, etc. are not influenced.

 

0

 

 

 

91) An isobar is a line connecting points of equal humidity.

 

0

 

 

 

92) The Coriolis effect is strongest at the equator and diminishes in strength poleward.

 

1

 

 

93) Gradient winds follow a curved path.

 

3

 

 

 

94) Winds flow cyclonically around all areas of low pressure.

 

4

 

 

 

95) An elongated region of low pressure is called a ridge.

 

4

 

 

 

96) Friction at the surface results in a stronger Coriolis force.

 

6

 

 

 

97) Anticyclones characteristically have winds blowing toward their center.

 

7

 

 

 

98) Low air pressure zones are associated with cloudy skies and stormy weather.

 

8

 

 

 

99) Stormy weather is more closely associated with anticyclones than with cyclones.

 

8

 

 

 

100) Horizontal wind motion can help cause vertical air motion.

 

8

 

 

 

101) Cyclones are characterized by converging surface winds and rising air.

 

8

 

 

102) A southwest wind blows toward the northeast.

 

0

 

 

 

103) The prevailing wind is defined as the instantaneous direction of the wind at the moment of observation.

 

1

 

 

 

104) A wind direction of 270 degrees means that the wind is blowing from the southeast.

 

1

 

 

 

105) The horizontal movement of air is called ________.

 

 

106) The pattern of isobar lines on a map provides a visual indication of ________.

 

 

107) When winds blow parallel to the isobars, which is usually the case for winds aloft, it is termed a(n) ________ wind.

 

 

 

108) The tendency of a particle to travel in a straight line creates an imaginary outward force called ________ acceleration.

109) Name the three forces that act to cause the air’s motion.

 

 

110) What is the fundamental cause of horizontal pressure differences in the atmosphere?

 

 

111) How does friction act to change the direction of the wind near the earth’s surface?

 

 

 

112) Why are clouds and precipitation associated with surface low pressure systems?

 

 

 

113) What is a wind rose?

 

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 7   Circulation of the Atmosphere

 

1) Microscale winds generally last for:

  1. A) a few seconds.
  2. B) 1 to 2 hours.
  3. C) 1 to 2 days.
  4. D) 3 days or longer.

 

0

 

 

 

2) One type of lake-effect storm that forms over the Great Lakes is characterized by a vortex shape. These vortices can range from 10 km to 100 km across. Based on their size, these storms would be classified as:

  1. A) microscale.
  2. B) mesoscale.
  3. C) synoptic scale.
  4. D) planetary scale.

 

1

 

 

 

3) Planetary scale flow such as trade-winds are best classified as:

  1. A) microscale.
  2. B) mesoscale.
  3. C) synoptic.
  4. D) macroscale.

 

1

 

 

 

4) Which of the following is an example of a mesoscale wind?

  1. A) a traveling anticyclone
  2. B) waves in the westerlies
  3. C) a sea breeze
  4. D) hurricane

 

1

 

 

5) Synoptic scale circulations are of what size, approximately?

  1. A) under 1 km
  2. B) between 1 and 100 km
  3. C) between 100 and 5000 km
  4. D) between 1000 and 40,000 km

 

1

 

 

 

6) Land-sea breezes and ________ are mesoscale winds.

  1. A) Santa Ana winds
  2. B) tornadoes
  3. C) hurricanes
  4. D) cold fronts
  5. E) occluded fronts

 

1

 

 

 

7) Chinook winds, land-sea breezes and Santa Ana winds are examples of ________ circulations.

  1. A) microscale
  2. B) vortex
  3. C) synoptic
  4. D) macroscale
  5. E) mesoscale

 

1

 

 

 

8) The cyclones and anticyclones of the midlatitudes are part of the ________ circulation.

  1. A) microscale
  2. B) trade wind
  3. C) mesoscale
  4. D) synoptic or macroscale
  5. E) Hadley

 

1

 

 

 

9) Dust devils:

  1. A) can last for days.
  2. B) are most common in the tropics.
  3. C) are associated with convective clouds.
  4. D) form from the bottom up.
  5. E) do not occur over vegetated surfaces.

 

2

 

 

10) Winds are usually named for:

  1. A) the direction or place to which they are heading.
  2. B) the direction or place from which they are blowing.
  3. C) the approximate latitude of their origin.
  4. D) the altitude where they are strongest.

 

3

 

 

 

11) Which of the following associations is NOT correct?

  1. A) sea breeze — day time
  2. B) land breeze — blows from the sea onto the land
  3. C) mountain breeze — night time
  4. D) chinooks — leeward side of mountains

 

3

 

 

 

12) Which of these winds is not influenced very much by the Coriolis effect?

  1. A) Northeast trades
  2. B) mid latitude westerlies
  3. C) sea breeze
  4. D) jet stream

 

13) Which mesoscale circulation affects Chicago?

  1. A) land-sea breeze
  2. B) katabatic wind
  3. C) anabatic wind
  4. D) mountain-valley breeze
  5. E) cold fronts

 

3

 

 

 

14) A Santa Ana (or Chinook or Foehn) wind is a:

  1. A) wind that is peculiar to the China mainland.
  2. B) wind associated with a blizzard.
  3. C) cold, damp wind blowing off snow fields.
  4. D) very dry, warm wind coming down a mountain slope.

 

4

 

 

15) The Native American term chinook means:

  1. A) mountain wind.
  2. B) big storm.
  3. C) cold sun.
  4. D) snow eater.

 

4

 

 

 

16) Chinook and foehn winds are warm because:

  1. A) they are warmed adiabatically as they sink downslope.
  2. B) they blow out of areas experiencing intense solar heating.
  3. C) they occur primarily in deserts.
  4. D) they only occur in the tropics.

 

17) Urban heat islands induce ________.

  1. A) foehn winds
  2. B) mistral winds
  3. C) country breezes
  4. D) city breezes

 

5

 

 

 

18) Haboobs:

  1. A) never occur outside of Northern Africa.
  2. B) do not occur more than once or twice a year.
  3. C) are usually only a few meters high.
  4. D) are dust storms triggered by intense thunderstorms.

 

5

 

 

 

19) According to Hadley, the most important factor causing circulation patterns in the atmosphere was:

  1. A) high-low pressure distribution.
  2. B) subsidence.
  3. C) convection.
  4. D) equator-pole temperature contrast.

 

5

 

 

20) G. Hadley’s ideas about atmospheric circulations were concerned with the

  1. A) macroscale.
  2. B) synoptic scale.
  3. C) microscale.
  4. D) mesoscale.

 

21) Summertime wildfires in California are fanned by:

  1. A) the westerlies.
  2. B) katabatic winds.
  3. C) the Santa Ana winds.
  4. D) Hadley circulations.

 

6

 

 

 

22) What changes have increased the risk associated with the Santa Ana winds in southern California?

  1. A) Commonly used landscape trees are more flammable than naturally occurring vegetation.
  2. B) Climate change has increased the local rainfall, leading to mudslides.
  3. C) Very little flammable material exists anymore in the landscape, so houses burn more easily.
  4. D) There hasn’t been an increased risk — people have started building outside of fire zones now.

 

6

 

 

 

23) Why do westerly winds prevail at upper altitudes?

  1. A) rotation of the earth
  2. B) lower air density
  3. C) absence of friction
  4. D) rotation of the earth and equator to pole temperature contrast
  5. E) equator to pole temperature contrast

 

7

 

 

24) Which of the following factors contributes to the general subsidence in the latitude zone 20 degrees to 35 degrees?

  1. A) both the Coriolis force and radiation cooling
  2. B) the Coriolis force
  3. C) radiation cooling of the air
  4. D) release of latent heat

 

25) Most of the United States is situated in which zone of prevailing winds?

  1. A) doldrums
  2. B) trade winds
  3. C) westerlies
  4. D) subpolar easterlies
  5. E) northerlies

 

7

 

 

 

26) The doldrums are associated with what latitude(s)?

  1. A) the Tropic of Cancer
  2. B) the equator
  3. C) the midlatitudes
  4. D) the poles

 

7

 

 

 

27) The prevailing winds that blow from the horse latitudes toward the doldrums are called:

  1. A) subtropical northerlies.
  2. B) westerlies.
  3. C) trade winds.
  4. D) polar easterlies.
  5. E) southerlies.

 

7

 

 

 

28) The term “Hadley cell” applies to:

  1. A) 0 degrees to 30 degrees latitude.
  2. B) the whole atmosphere.
  3. C) 30 degrees to 60 degrees latitude.
  4. D) 60 degrees to 90 degrees latitude.
  5. E) the poles and the equator.

 

7

 

 

29) Taken as a whole, the large scale or general circulation patterns of the atmosphere exist:

  1. A) as nature’s method of balancing heat energy differences.
  2. B) as a result of Earth’s motion through space.
  3. C) because of the earth’s rotation.
  4. D) as a cause of temperature contrasts.
  5. E) as a result of the different landforms on Earth’s surface.

 

7

 

 

 

30) The divergence near the ground that is associated with the subtropical high pressure zone can be cited as the origin of:

  1. A) polar easterlies.
  2. B) jet streams.
  3. C) cyclogenesis.
  4. D) sea breeze.
  5. E) trade winds.

 

7

 

 

 

31) Another name for the subtropical high is:

  1. A) horse latitudes.
  2. B) doldrums.
  3. C) trades.
  4. D) prevailing westerlies.
  5. E) subpolar calm.

 

7

 

 

 

32) The Sahara and Australian deserts (among others) are associated with which pressure belt?

  1. A) subtropical high
  2. B) subpolar low
  3. C) equatorial low
  4. D) polar high

 

7

 

 

 

33) The subpolar low (polar front) is:

  1. A) a zone where the polar easterlies and the westerlies converge.
  2. B) a zone where the trade winds of the two hemispheres meet.
  3. C) the boundary between frozen and liquid ocean.
  4. D) the forward edge of the antarctic ice cap.

 

8

 

 

34) Concerning rainfall patterns, areas of persistent high pressure tend to cause

  1. A) desert regions.
  2. B) pronounced wet and dry seasons.
  3. C) severe flooding.
  4. D) moderate rainfall.

 

8

 

 

 

35) Surface high pressure zones are usually associated with:

  1. A) ascending air.
  2. B) clear or nearly clear weather.
  3. C) converging winds.
  4. D) stormy weather.

 

8

 

 

 

36) The region where the northeast trades meet the southeast trades is known as the:

  1. A) ITCZ.
  2. B) hot zone.
  3. C) high latitudes.
  4. D) subtropics.
  5. E) rainforest.

 

8

 

 

 

37) The C in ITCZ stands for convergence. What does the convergence refer to?

  1. A) surface winds along the equator
  2. B) winds aloft near the poles
  3. C) surface winds in the mid latitudes
  4. D) surface winds in a monsoon

 

8

 

 

 

38) The prevailing winds that tend to influence cities such as Chicago and New York City are

  1. A) westerlies.
  2. B) polar easterlies.
  3. C) doldrums.
  4. D) trade winds.
  5. E) southerlies.

 

9

 

 

39) Although the idealized version of Earth features continuous pressure belts that continue zonally around the planet, the real Earth has broken-up pressure cells that vary seasonally. What explains this?

  1. A) The effects of the Coriolis force vary seasonally.
  2. B) Large landmasses heat differently than oceans and interrupt the pressure pattern.
  3. C) The oceans experience drastic temperature changes from season to season.
  4. D) The intensity of incoming solar radiation varies radically along the same line of latitude.

 

9

 

 

 

40) During the summer season, the subtropical high found in the North Atlantic is also called the:

  1. A) Azores high.
  2. B) Atlantic high.
  3. C) Bermuda high.
  4. D) Carolina high.

 

1

 

 

 

41) The definition of the word monsoon means:

  1. A) rainy season.
  2. B) torrential rainfall.
  3. C) seasonal wind shift.
  4. D) moisture-laden air.

 

1

 

 

 

42) The large rainfall totals associated with the Indian monsoon occur when:

  1. A) the winds shift to the north, blowing off of the Eurasian subcontinent.
  2. B) the ITCZ shifts to the north, near the Himalaya Mountains.
  3. C) high pressure develops over the Indian subcontinent.
  4. D) the ITCZ shifts south towards the Tropic of Capricorn.

 

1

 

 

 

43) Large scale wind circulation systems that reverse with the seasons are called:

  1. A) meridional cells.
  2. B) typhoons.
  3. C) tropical cyclones.
  4. D) monsoons.
  5. E) tropical anticyclones.

 

1

 

 

44) Every year, the clockwise circulation around the subtropical high helps to:

  1. A) transport 40 million tons of dust from the Sahara Desert to the Amazon rainforest.
  2. B) lead hurricanes eastward across the Atlantic.
  3. C) deliver 20 million tons of carbon dioxide generated in Africa into the air above North America.
  4. D) speed ozone depletion by lifting CFCs into the stratosphere.

 

2

 

 

 

45) A primary factor causing monsoon circulations is:

  1. A) mountain ranges.
  2. B) greater temperature changes over continents compared to oceans.
  3. C) waves in the westerlies.
  4. D) ocean currents.
  5. E) Coriolis effect.

 

3

 

 

 

46) The intense rain of India’s monsoon season is attributed to:

  1. A) increased moisture advection from the north.
  2. B) the arrival of the subtropical high.
  3. C) the northward migration of the ITCZ.
  4. D) the cooler winter temperatures, which make it easier for water vapor to condense.

 

3

 

 

 

47) City X experiences very dry conditions in the winter, along with a prevailing northerly wind. In the summer, the prevailing winds shift to southerly and the rainfall at City X increases by a factor of 10. What can you say about the general climate regime of City X?

  1. A) It must be located under the ITCZ for most of the year.
  2. B) It must be located deep in the interior of a large continent.
  3. C) It is probably at a high latitude.
  4. D) It has a monsoon climate.

 

3

 

 

 

48) Which of the following statements about airflow in the middle and upper troposphere is true?

  1. A) The flow is west-to-east throughout the midlatitudes.
  2. B) The predominant flow is easterly in the midlatitudes and westerly in the tropics.
  3. C) The flow is predominantly from the poles toward the equator.
  4. D) The predominant flow is from the equator poleward.

 

4

 

 

49) Jet streams:

  1. A) are usually about ten miles wide.
  2. B) occur at 25,000 to 40,000 feet in middle latitudes.
  3. C) were first detected by George Hadley.
  4. D) reverse direction 180 degrees in summer.
  5. E) do not go below 50 degrees latitude.

 

5

 

 

 

50) Jet streams are associated with fronts because of the:

  1. A) higher pressure behind the front.
  2. B) reduced friction above the front.
  3. C) large temperature gradient.
  4. D) clouds forming there.

 

6

 

 

 

51) When are upper air winds fastest?

  1. A) anytime surface temperature gradients are weak
  2. B) in summer
  3. C) in winter
  4. D) These winds maintain about the same speed throughout the year.

 

6

 

 

 

52) The greater strength of jet stream winds during winter is due to:

  1. A) warmer temperatures at high altitudes.
  2. B) lower humidity.
  3. C) stronger Coriolis effect.
  4. D) greater horizontal temperature contrasts.
  5. E) greater air density.

 

6

 

 

 

53) The wave-like or meandering pattern of the upper level winds in middle latitudes is of major importance for:

  1. A) reducing wind speeds in the tropics.
  2. B) transporting heat between equator and poles.
  3. C) reducing the Coriolis effect.
  4. D) causing westerly winds.
  5. E) causing jet streams.

 

7

 

 

54) The primary force causing ocean currents is:

  1. A) the major winds.
  2. B) temperature differences between cold water below and warm water above.
  3. C) the earth’s rotation about its axis.
  4. D) the earth’s elliptical orbit around the Sun.
  5. E) the Coriolis effect.

 

8

 

 

 

55) The Gulf Stream is the name given to:

  1. A) the circulation of water in the Gulf of Mexico.
  2. B) a warm current carrying water from the equator along the East Coast of the United States.
  3. C) the current carrying cold water from the North Pole along the West Coast of the United States.
  4. D) a counter-clockwise surface current in the Gulf of California.

 

8

 

 

 

56) Which of the following is a characteristic of deserts located near cold ocean currents?

  1. A) They are often cool and shrouded in fog.
  2. B) They often have unstable atmospheric conditions.
  3. C) They tend to be warmer than inland deserts.
  4. D) They receive more rain than other deserts.

 

9

 

 

 

57) El Niño events are characterized by:

  1. A) strengthening of the NE trade winds.
  2. B) a very strong cold current flowing along the eastern edge of South America.
  3. C) warm water piling up near Indonesia.
  4. D) pooling of unusually warm water in the eastern tropical Pacific.

 

0

 

 

 

58) The process that brings cold, nutrient-rich water to the surface along the coasts of Peru and Ecuador is called:

  1. A) thermocline suppression.
  2. B) El Niño.
  3. C) upwelling.
  4. D) the Southern Oscillation.

 

0

 

 

59) All of the following can result from a strong El Niño event EXCEPT:

  1. A) the suppression of the Southern Oscillation.
  2. B) depletion of fish populations as upwelling is suppressed along the western coast of South America.
  3. C) weakening or reversing of the Pacific tradewinds.
  4. D) abnormally high air pressure over Indonesia.

 

1

 

 

 

60) The Southern Oscillation:

  1. A) is a cycle of strengthening and reversing trade winds in the equatorial Pacific.
  2. B) is another name for a La Niña event.
  3. C) does not have the ability to drastically alter climate, and is of little concern.
  4. D) is more important to weather in the United States than anywhere else in the world.

 

2

 

 

 

61) Two of the strongest El Niño events on record began in what years?

  1. A) 1984 and 1999.
  2. B) 1976 and 2003.
  3. C) 1983 and 1997.
  4. D) 2004 and 2007.

 

2

 

 

 

62) The areas of abundant rainfall on the earth tend to be:

  1. A) in midlatitudes.
  2. B) in polar regions.
  3. C) near the equator and in midlatitudes.
  4. D) near the equator.
  5. E) over oceans.

 

3

 

 

 

63) The amount of precipitation received at a given location is primarily controlled by:

  1. A) overnight temperatures.
  2. B) annual temperature range.
  3. C) the solar energy budget.
  4. D) the humidity of the air at that place.
  5. E) circulation patterns in the atmosphere.

 

3

 

 

64) The major features of precipitation distribution patterns are determined by:

  1. A) general circulation and pressure patterns.
  2. B) solar radiation available.
  3. C) temperature lapse rates.
  4. D) ocean water temperature.
  5. E) annual temperature range.

 

3

 

 

 

65) What option below best characterizes the rainfall distribution at a station located south of the Sahara desert at about 20 degrees N latitude?

  1. A) adequate precipitation all year around
  2. B) dry all year around
  3. C) winter dry season
  4. D) summer dry season

 

4

 

 

 

66) What option below best characterizes the rainfall distribution at a station located on an island in the Arctic Ocean at about 80 degrees N latitude?

  1. A) winter dry season
  2. B) adequate precipitation all year around
  3. C) dry all year around
  4. D) summer dry season

 

4

 

 

 

67) What option below best characterizes the rainfall distribution at a station located along the equator?

  1. A) summer dry season
  2. B) adequate precipitation all year around
  3. C) dry all year around
  4. D) winter dry season

 

4

 

 

68) What option below best characterizes the rainfall distribution at a non-desert station located immediately to the north of the Sahara desert?

  1. A) winter dry season
  2. B) adequate precipitation all year around
  3. C) dry all year around
  4. D) summer dry season

 

4

 

 

 

69) What option below best characterizes the rainfall distribution at a station, such as New York City, located at about 40 degrees N latitude?

  1. A) adequate precipitation all year around
  2. B) summer dry season
  3. C) winter dry season
  4. D) dry all year around

 

5

 

 

 

70) Most of the earth’s deserts are located in the:

  1. A) boundary between liquid and frozen oceans.
  2. B) tradewind belt.
  3. C) subsidence areas of subtropical highs.
  4. D) areas along the polar front.
  5. E) doldrum belt.

 

6

 

 

 

71) Trade winds are a smaller macroscale wind phenomenon than a cyclone.

 

1

 

 

 

72) Dust devils and tornadoes form under similar conditions; tornadoes are just much stronger.

 

2

 

 

 

73) A sea breeze is usually best developed early in the morning.

 

3

 

 

74) Sea breezes are more likely at night, while land breezes are more likely during the day.

 

3

 

 

 

75) Katabatic winds have a cooling effect, and chinook winds have a warming effect.

 

4

 

 

 

76) The chinook wind has been known to cause rapid increases in temperature in the Denver, CO area.

 

4

 

 

 

77) Country breezes occur partly because concrete and asphalt are low albedo surfaces.

 

5

 

 

 

78) The ‘bora’ is an example of a katabatic wind that blows toward the Adriatic Sea.

 

5

 

 

 

79) The bora and mistral are local names given to chinook winds.

 

5

 

 

 

80) The northeast trades are found between 60 degrees and 30 degrees North.

 

7

 

 

 

81) George Hadley correctly described the general circulation of the atmosphere.

 

7

 

 

82) The region where the trade winds meet is sometimes called the doldrums.

 

7

 

 

83) The only true zonal distribution of pressure exists in the region of the subpolar low in the Southern Hemisphere.

 

9

 

 

 

84) Seasonal changes in pressure are greater over continents than over the oceans.

 

1

 

 

 

85) For much of South and Southeast Asia, winter is a period characterized by relatively dry conditions.

 

1

 

 

 

86) The strong Siberian high becomes well developed in the summer.

 

1

 

 

 

87) The United States does not experience a monsoon.

 

3

 

 

 

88) The United States is completely unaffected by monsoons.

 

3

 

 

 

89) The slopes of the Indian Himalayas can be some of the rainiest in the world.

 

3

 

 

90) Westerly flow aloft is unrelated to the earth’s rotation.

 

4

 

 

 

91) The temperature difference between the poles and the equator drive the westerlies.

 

4

 

 

 

92) Since the equator-to-pole pressure gradient increases with altitude, one would expect the westerlies to decrease in speed with increasing altitude.

 

4

 

 

 

93) Jet stream winds are completely distinct from the midlatitude westerlies.

 

5

 

 

 

94) Typically, four to six Rossby waves encompass the earth.

 

5

 

 

 

95) The existence of jet streams was first determined by Ben Franklin as the result of his kite experiments.

 

5

 

 

 

96) The polar jet stream usually slows down in winter.

 

6

 

 

 

97) Strong surface low-pressure systems occur in conjunction with wave-like flow aloft.

 

6

 

 

98) Strong pressure gradients are associated with uniformly cold temperatures.

 

6

 

 

 

99) When reading maps showing the distribution of pressure aloft, high contour readings indicate low pressure and low contour readings indicate high pressure.

 

6

 

 

 

100) Zonal refers to the east-west direction while meridional refers to the north-south direction.

 

7

 

 

 

101) Changes in the polar jet stream help maintain the earth’s heat budget.

 

7

 

 

 

102) The jet stream is best able to accomplish a transfer of heat from south to north when it has meridional flow.

 

7

 

 

 

103) The equatorial currents in the ocean are the principle driving force for the other ocean currents.

 

8

 

 

 

104) During an El Niño event, the water temperatures in the eastern Pacific rise.

 

0

 

 

 

105) El Niño has no measurable impacts on weather in the United States.

 

1

 

 

106) You examine sea surface temperature data collected off the coast of Peru and find that temperatures are 1.5°C below average. From this, you can reasonably conclude that a La Nia event may be in progress.

 

2

 

 

 

107) The Southern Oscillation refers to a change in surface pressure over the south Atlantic Ocean.

 

2

 

 

 

108) Continents have no significant influence on global precipitation patterns.

 

3

 

 

 

109) Phytoplankton populations off the coast of South America bloom when upwelling is present.

 

4

 

 

 

110) For large landmasses, the interiors always receive more precipitation than any of the coasts.

 

7

 

 

 

111) Describe the surface wind direction and the winds aloft direction for the northern hemisphere on a non-rotating Earth. Assume a smooth, uniform Earth.

 

 

 

112) The southeast and northeast trades converge at the ________.

 

 

 

113) Name the four major pressure zones that occur in each hemisphere.

 

114) Name two examples of semi-permanent low-pressure centers.

 

 

 

115) The intensity of the atmosphere’s large-scale circulation patterns is weaker in summer compared to the winter. Why does this occur?

 

 

 

116) The winter season is associated with strong centers of ________ pressure over the continents while centers of ________ pressure intensify over the oceans.

 

 

 

117) The direction of the prevailing winds at mid- and upper levels in the troposphere is from the west. List the two factors that cause this westerly direction to prevail.

 

 

 

118) What feature of the earth’s heat budget leads to the transfer of heat from the equator to the poles by winds and ocean currents?

 

 

 

119) Cold water rising from deep in the ocean to replace warmer water at the surface is called ________.

 

 

 

120) Name the two latitude zones where precipitation is most abundant.

 

 

121) How do mountain ranges alter precipitation patterns?

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 8   Air Masses

 

1) When an area is experiencing several consecutive days of rather constant weather, it is experiencing:

  1. A) warm-front weather.
  2. B) air-mass weather.
  3. C) occluded front weather.
  4. D) cold-front weather.

 

2

 

 

 

2) The usual size of an air mass is:

  1. A) at most a few kilometers across.
  2. B) between 100 and 200 km across.
  3. C) around 1000 km across.
  4. D) at least 1600 km across.

 

2

 

 

 

3) The two most important properties that should be relatively homogeneous at the same altitude in an air mass are:

  1. A) temperature and carbon dioxide concentration.
  2. B) vapor pressure and latitude.
  3. C) moisture content and temperature.
  4. D) relative humidity and radiation.

 

2

 

 

 

4) The situation where a region under the influence of an air mass has generally constant weather conditions is called:

  1. A) boundary layer weather.
  2. B) regional weather.
  3. C) air-mass weather.

 

2

 

 

5) An air mass is a body of air with:

  1. A) very low humidity in its lower layers.
  2. B) very high pressure everywhere.
  3. C) similar values of temperature and moisture in the horizontal.
  4. D) at least two frontal zones.
  5. E) equal density throughout.

 

2

 

 

 

6) The typical amount of time it takes for an air mass to pass over a given area is on the order of a few:

  1. A) minutes.
  2. B) weeks.
  3. C) hours.
  4. D) months.
  5. E) days.

 

2

 

 

 

7) An air-mass source region:

  1. A) is characterized by a general stagnation of atmospheric circulation.
  2. B) is best typified by the central United States.
  3. C) is generally an area characterized by a cyclonic circulation pattern.
  4. D) may consist of both land and water.

 

3

 

 

 

8) Which of the following criteria is NOT a characteristic of a good source region?

  1. A) It must be very large.
  2. B) It must have uniform physical features.
  3. C) The air must able to stagnate over the area for long periods of time.
  4. D) The area must frequently experience cyclones.

 

3

 

 

 

9) Which of the following is not a good source region for air masses?

  1. A) the Gulf of Mexico
  2. B) central Canada
  3. C) the North Pacific
  4. D) the central United States

 

3

 

 

10) Which air mass code letter is paired with the wrong word?

  1. A) c = continental
  2. B) t = temperate
  3. C) m = maritime
  4. D) a = arctic

 

3

 

 

 

11) Air-mass source regions are least likely to exist in:

  1. A) subtropical regions.
  2. B) middle-latitude regions.
  3. C) equatorial regions.
  4. D) polar regions.

 

3

 

 

 

12) The area where an air mass originates is called a:

  1. A) source region.
  2. B) site region.
  3. C) local region.
  4. D) large region.

 

3

 

 

 

13) Air mass source regions tend to be dominated by:

  1. A) converging winds.
  2. B) dry air.
  3. C) fast wind speeds.
  4. D) cyclones.
  5. E) slow moving anticyclones.

 

3

 

 

 

14) Characteristics of an air mass source region include:

  1. A) uniformity of temperature and moisture.
  2. B) sharp temperature contrasts.
  3. C) jet stream winds aloft.
  4. D) high elevation.

 

3

 

 

15) An air mass from the Gulf of Mexico is called:

  1. A) mP.
  2. B) cT.
  3. C) mT.
  4. D) cP.

 

3

 

 

 

16) An ideal source region of air masses should be:

  1. A) roughly half land, half water.
  2. B) located at or near the equator.
  3. C) physically uniform.
  4. D) small.
  5. E) located at or near a pole.

 

3

 

 

 

17) The cP air-mass in North America originates in:

  1. A) the North Atlantic.
  2. B) the Arctic basin.
  3. C) Siberia.
  4. D) interior Alaska and Canada.
  5. E) Greenland.

 

3

 

 

 

18) Air masses are identified by a pair of letters, one lowercase and one uppercase. The uppercase letter (P, A, or T) refers to:

  1. A) average air pressure within the air mass.
  2. B) the approximate latitude of the air mass source region.
  3. C) the humidity levels within the air mass.
  4. D) the elevation of the air mass source region.

 

4

 

 

 

19) Compared to continental air masses with the same air temperature, maritime air masses:

  1. A) have lower water vapor content.
  2. B) have about the same water vapor content.
  3. C) have higher water vapor content.

 

4

 

 

20) A cT air mass is:

  1. A) warm and humid.
  2. B) cold and dry.
  3. C) warm and dry.
  4. D) cold and humid.

 

4

 

 

 

21) An mP air mass is:

  1. A) humid and cold.
  2. B) humid and warm.
  3. C) dry and warm.
  4. D) dry and cold.

 

4

 

 

 

22) What does the lowercase letter w indicate about an air mass?

  1. A) The air mass is drier than the surface over which it is passing.
  2. B) The air mass is colder than the surface over which it is passing.
  3. C) The air mass is warmer than the surface over which it is passing.
  4. D) The air mass is wetter than the surface over which it is passing.

 

4

 

 

 

23) If the lowercase letter k appears at the end of an air mass identification code, what can be said about the changes likely to happen within that air mass?

  1. A) The air mass is likely to become more unstable.
  2. B) The air mass is likely to become more stable.
  3. C) The air mass will not undergo any air mass modifications.
  4. D) The expected air mass modifications are impossible to predict.

 

4

 

 

 

24) A warm, moist air mass from the Gulf of Mexico that moves over the land in the southeastern U.S. during the summer is likely to be classified as:

  1. A) mTk
  2. B) mTw
  3. C) mEk
  4. D) mWk

 

4

 

 

25) Why is Maritime Arctic left out of the air-mass classifications?

  1. A) They do not occur.
  2. B) They only rarely occur.
  3. C) They occur every ten years.

 

4

 

 

 

26) Which two air masses are bitterly cold and very dry?

  1. A) cA and cP
  2. B) cT and mP
  3. C) cA and mP
  4. D) cP and cT

 

4

 

 

 

27) Which of the following air masses probably has the lowest water vapor content?

  1. A) cE
  2. B) cT
  3. C) cP
  4. D) cA

 

4

 

 

 

28) Which of these is NOT a process by which air masses are modified?

  1. A) calm winds
  2. B) lifting over mountains
  3. C) evaporation of water
  4. D) cooling from below
  5. E) heating from below

 

4

 

 

 

29) An air mass from the Gulf of Mexico that moves northward over the U.S. in winter would be labeled:

  1. A) cTw.
  2. B) mTk.
  3. C) mPw.
  4. D) cTk.
  5. E) mTw.

 

4

 

 

30) When an air mass is warmer than the surface over which it is moving:

  1. A) the letter k is added after the air mass symbol.
  2. B) visibility within the air mass is usually very good.
  3. C) the air becomes more stable.
  4. D) the lapse rate in the air mass is increased.

 

4

 

 

 

31) The stability of an air mass can be affected by:

  1. A) cyclones.
  2. B) mountain ranges.
  3. C) anticyclones.
  4. D) mountain ranges, cyclones, and anticyclones.

 

4

 

 

 

32) An air mass is often modified as it moves over the earth’s surface. This modification is largely due to:

  1. A) lifting along fronts.
  2. B) contact with the new surface below.
  3. C) clouds.
  4. D) jet streams above.
  5. E) strong pressure gradients.

 

4

 

 

 

33) An air mass moves out of its source region. Two days later, the lower layers of the air mass are found to be warmer than they were originally. What letter should be added to the end of the air mass’s classification code?

  1. A) k
  2. B) w
  3. C) m
  4. D) c

 

4

 

 

 

34) Where do cA air-masses originate?

  1. A) Arctic basin and Greenland ice cap
  2. B) Interior Canada and Alaska
  3. C) Northwestern Atlantic
  4. D) Patagonia

 

5

 

 

35) What weather is associated with cA air masses?

  1. A) occasional periods of clear, cool weather in the summer
  2. B) cold waves in winter
  3. C) hot humid conditions leading to cumulus cloud development and showers or thunderstorms
  4. D) nor’easters

 

5

 

 

 

36) Air mass modifications produced by cyclones or topography rather than surface temperatures are called:

  1. A) mechanical modifications.
  2. B) thermal modifications.
  3. C) synoptic modifications.
  4. D) microscale modifications.

 

5

 

 

 

37) The air masses that have the greatest influence on weather conditions in the Midwestern United States are:

  1. A) mP and mA.
  2. B) mT and cT.
  3. C) mP and cP.
  4. D) cP and mT.
  5. E) cT and cP.

 

5

 

 

 

38) Which of the following is not an air mass that influences North America?

  1. A) mA
  2. B) cP
  3. C) mT
  4. D) cA
  5. E) mP

 

5

 

 

39) The coldest and driest winter air-mass in North America is the:

  1. A) cP.
  2. B) mP.
  3. C) mT.
  4. D) cT.
  5. E) cA.

 

5

 

 

 

40) The pronounced cooling that occurs on continents at high latitudes during winter leads to the formation of ________ air masses.

  1. A) mA
  2. B) cM
  3. C) mP
  4. D) cP
  5. E) cT

 

5

 

 

 

41) In North America the ________ air mass forms only in the summer.

  1. A) mP
  2. B) cT
  3. C) mT
  4. D) cP

 

6

 

 

 

42) Which air mass does not usually influence weather in the United States during the summer?

  1. A) cA
  2. B) cP
  3. C) cT
  4. D) mP

 

6

 

 

 

43) Siberian Express is the term used when:

  1. A) an outbreak of bitterly cold air from Canada intrudes over a large part of the United States.
  2. B) a modified air mass originating in Siberia reaches the Pacific Northwest.
  3. C) an unusually cold air mass enters the Rocky Mountains.
  4. D) an mP air mass from the north Atlantic enters New England and generates snowfall.

 

 

 

 

44) What term would a meteorologist give to the weather event represented on the map above?

  1. A) The Polar Express
  2. B) The Pineapple Express
  3. C) mP Express
  4. D) The Siberian Express

 

7

 

 

 

45) Consider the map above. What air mass is the most likely to be found in Florida, just ahead of the cold front?

  1. A) mP
  2. B) mT
  3. C) cP
  4. D) mA

 

7

 

 

46) “Lake-effect” snow is associated with the ________ air mass.

  1. A) cT
  2. B) cP
  3. C) mT
  4. D) mP

 

8

 

 

 

47) In the United States, lake-effect snows occur over which area?

  1. A) the eastern side of the Cascade Mountains
  2. B) the windward side of the Mississippi River
  3. C) the leeward shores of the Great Lakes
  4. D) Lake Champlain

 

8

 

 

 

48) Lake-effect snowfall is caused by:

  1. A) air mass modification related to the differential heating of land and water.
  2. B) ice crystals falling from a cP air mass on the windward side of a lake.
  3. C) an mP air mass passing over a cold body of water.
  4. D) warm air masses passing over a cold lake in the autumn.

 

8

 

 

 

49) Which of the following statements is TRUE of lake-effect snowfall?

  1. A) Lake-effect snowfall accounts for only a small portion of seasonal snowfall along the eastern edges of the Great Lakes.
  2. B) Along the Great Lakes, lake-effect snowfall usually only occurs within 80 km of the leeward lake shores.
  3. C) Lake-effect events are not capable of generating more than a centimeter or two of snow.
  4. D) Lake-effect events are produced through the modification of mP air masses.

 

8

 

 

 

50) Where would you expect to find the greatest amount of lake-effect snowfall?

  1. A) on the leeward shores of the Great Lakes
  2. B) on the western coasts of the Great Lakes
  3. C) on the windward side of the Great Lakes
  4. D) directly north of the Great Lakes

 

8

 

 

51) Most mP air masses that influence the U.S. originate over:

  1. A) the north Atlantic.
  2. B) the Gulf of Mexico.
  3. C) the north Pacific.
  4. D) the Arctic Ocean.

 

9

 

 

 

52) The ________ air mass often originates as a different air mass in Siberia and is subsequently altered.

  1. A) mP
  2. B) mT
  3. C) cP
  4. D) cT

 

9

 

 

 

53) Which one of the following conditions would enhance the development of a lake effect storm?

  1. A) moisture advection associated with an mP air mass
  2. B) aA cPw air mass
  3. C) a large temperature gradient between the lake surface temperature the lower atmosphere
  4. D) strong southerly flow

 

0

 

 

 

54) The ________ air mass may produce an occasional “nor’easter” in the winter.

  1. A) mT
  2. B) mP
  3. C) cT
  4. D) cP

 

1

 

 

 

55) A nor’easter typically occurs when:

  1. A) NE winds associated with a low-pressure system draw mP air into the northeastern United States.
  2. B) the polar jet stream weakens and allows mP air to invade New England.
  3. C) the NE tradewinds strengthen in the Pacific during a La Niña event.
  4. D) a cP air mass from the northeast moves into Texas.

 

1

 

 

56) Why are maritime air masses from the north Atlantic of only limited concern for weather in the U.S.?

  1. A) Temperatures are usually mild over this region.
  2. B) Question is incorrect; these air masses are very important.
  3. C) Prevailing winds move them away from the U.S.
  4. D) They never cause severe storms.
  5. E) Polar fronts block these air masses from the U.S.

 

1

 

 

 

57) Which air mass is unstable in the winter but stable in the summer?

  1. A) cP
  2. B) mT
  3. C) mP
  4. D) cT

 

1

 

 

 

58) Which region of origin for mT air masses has the most impact on North American weather?

  1. A) mT air masses from the Gulf of Mexico
  2. B) mT air masses from the Northern Pacific
  3. C) mT air masses from the subtropical Pacific.
  4. D) mT air masses from Australia

 

1

 

 

 

59) While on vacation in Florida, you experience several days of weather with maximum temperatures of 90°F and dew points above 65°F. What educated guess could you make about the weather?

  1. A) It is caused by an mP air mass.
  2. B) It is caused by a cT air mass.
  3. C) It is caused by an mT air mass.
  4. D) It is not air mass weather.

 

1

 

 

 

60) All of the following accompany a classic New England nor’easter EXCEPT:

  1. A) heavy snowfall
  2. B) a strong storm forming in Canada and moving into New England from the North
  3. C) widespread power outages and transportation interruptions
  4. D) mP air pulled in from the Atlantic Ocean

 

2

 

 

61) The ________ air mass provides much of the moisture for precipitation in the central and eastern United States.

  1. A) cP
  2. B) cT
  3. C) mP
  4. D) mT

 

3

 

 

 

62) Lines connecting places having equal rainfall on a map are called:

  1. A) isotopes.
  2. B) isohyets.
  3. C) isolines.
  4. D) isobars.

 

3

 

 

 

63) What air-mass contributes to the formation of thunderstorms in the central U.S.?

  1. A) mT
  2. B) mP
  3. C) cA
  4. D) stormy ones

 

3

 

 

 

64) Most of the precipitation for the region east of the Rocky Mountains comes from:

  1. A) evaporation from soils and vegetation.
  2. B) mA air masses.
  3. C) modified mP air masses.
  4. D) mT air masses.

 

3

 

 

 

65) The ________ is characterized by a strong jet stream pulling mT air from Hawaii towards California.

  1. A) Tropical Jet
  2. B) Pineapple Express
  3. C) Southeaster
  4. D) Santa Ana Wind

 

4

 

 

66) Which air mass causes occasional drought to the southern Great Plains of the United States?

  1. A) mP
  2. B) cP
  3. C) cT
  4. D) mT

 

5

 

 

 

67) Why are cT air masses of minor importance for the U.S.?

  1. A) No large source region is near the U.S.
  2. B) Prevailing winds steer them away.
  3. C) Mountains block their approach.
  4. D) Upper level subsidence limits their formation.

 

5

 

 

 

68) Air masses are identified by two-letter codes.

 

2

 

 

 

69) An air mass is an immense body of air characterized by homogeneous temperature and moisture content.

 

2

 

 

 

70) The boundary of an air mass is a region of especially active weather.

 

2

 

 

 

71) To qualify as an air mass, a large body of air must have the same temperature at the same altitude, even if the body of air is 1,000 kilometers wide.

 

2

 

 

 

72) In the middle latitudes, atmospheric disturbances occur at the boundary zones separating air masses.

 

2

 

 

73) The majority of the continental U.S. is not an air mass source region.

 

3

 

 

 

74) The moisture content of an air mass is unrelated to its temperature.

 

3

 

 

 

75) The physical properties of an air mass are independent of its place of origin.

 

3

 

 

 

76) A region dominated by cyclones is more likely to produce an air mass than a region dominated by anticyclones.

 

3

 

 

 

77) When an air mass is warmer than the surface over which it is moving, its lower layers are chilled.

 

4

 

 

 

78) Maritime Arctic air masses do not form very often.

 

4

 

 

 

79) Maritime air masses form over landmasses.

 

4

 

 

 

80) Maritime air masses have a higher water vapor content than continental air masses.

 

4

 

 

81) The symbol used when classifying Maritime Polar air masses is MP.

 

4

 

 

 

82) The lower-case letter m or c is used to designate the nature of the surface in the source region and hence the humidity characteristics of the air mass.

 

4

 

 

 

83) An air mass can not be modified when moving across country.

 

4

 

 

 

84) The properties of air masses change little, even if they travel thousands of kilometers.

 

4

 

 

 

85) As wintertime cP or cA air moves outward from its source region, it carries its warm wet weather to the United States.

 

5

 

 

 

86) cP and cA air masses are never experienced in the southern U.S.

 

5

 

 

 

87) When an air mass is warmer than the surface over which it moves, an inversion is likely.

 

5

 

 

 

88) An air mass with the designation k is likely to become more unstable.

 

5

 

 

89) Visibility is generally better in a w air-mass than in a k air-mass.

 

5

 

 

 

90) Continental polar air masses do not form in the summer in North America.

 

6

 

 

 

91) Orographic precipitation in the western U.S. is often associated with the Pacific mP air mass.

 

6

 

 

 

92) Siberian Express weather events are generally confined to Alaska and western Canada.

 

7

 

 

 

93) Lake-effect snow occurs only during the early spring.

 

8

 

 

 

94) Lake-effect snowfall is created as a direct result of air mass modification.

 

8

 

 

 

95) Maritime Polar air masses create heavy orographic precipitation on the windward side of western mountains in the winter.

 

9

 

 

 

96) Maritime polar (mP) air masses have their greatest influence in the eastern United States.

 

9

 

 

97) mP air masses over the northeastern United States produce stable, clear skies in the summer and heavy snowstorms in the winter.

 

1

 

 

 

98) The mT air masses from the Gulf-Caribbean-Atlantic source region greatly affect the weather of the United States east of the Rocky Mountains.

 

1

 

 

 

99) The stormy winter weather associated with an invasion of mP air from the Atlantic into an area east of the Appalachians and north of Cape Hatteras is known as a nor’easter.

 

2

 

 

 

100) Maritime tropical (mT) air masses are the most important source of moisture along the Pacific Coast.

 

3

 

 

 

101) The Pineapple Express is responsible for supplying most of the moisture on the east side of the Rocky Mountains.

 

4

 

 

 

102) cT air masses are stable.

 

5

 

 

 

103) cT air masses are hot and dry.

 

5

 

 

 

104) In winter, cT brings fog, drizzle, and occasional moderate precipitation to NW Mexico and the SW United States.

 

5

 

 

105) Continental tropical (cT) air masses are associated with summer drought conditions in the southern Great Plains.

 

5

 

 

 

106) Name two potential source regions of cT air masses.

 

 

 

107) The place where an air mass originates is known as the ________.

108) Name two source regions of mP air masses.

 

 

 

109) Name two source regions for Maritime Tropical air masses.

 

 

 

110) Why are the boundary zones of air masses of special concern?

 

 

 

111) Name the three air mass types most important for the continental U.S.

 

 

112) Name three processes by which an air mass can be modified.

 

 

113) What do the letters k and w signify when added to an air mass identifier?

 

 

114) What air-mass type tends to dominate the weather in the U.S. east of the Rocky Mountains during winter? During summer?

 

 

115) What is the air mass type and source region for “nor’easters”?

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 9   Weather Patterns

 

1) Another common term for the wave cyclone is:

  1. A) tropical cyclone.
  2. B) polar-front cyclone.
  3. C) intertropical convergence zone.
  4. D) midlatitude cyclone.

 

0

 

 

 

2) If a warm front is approaching, you can expect:

  1. A) falling temperatures.
  2. B) rising temperatures.
  3. C) clearing skies.
  4. D) calm winds.

 

 

 

3) The process best illustrated in the diagram of a front above is:

  1. A) convection.
  2. B) convergence.
  3. C) overrunning.
  4. D) occlusion.

 

4) On a weather map, a line with blue triangles on one side and red semicircles on the other represents:

  1. A) a cold front.
  2. B) a warm front.
  3. C) a stationary front.
  4. D) an occluded front.

 

1

 

 

 

5) On a weather map, ________ fronts are shown with blue triangular points along a blue line.

  1. A) cold
  2. B) stationary
  3. C) occluded
  4. D) warm

 

1

 

 

 

6) A warm front is said to exist when:

  1. A) advancing warm air overrides retreating cold air.
  2. B) moving cold air overrides warmer air.
  3. C) warm air pushes underneath cold air.
  4. D) warm and cold air meet.
  5. E) invading cold air pushes underneath warmer air.

 

1

 

 

 

7) The lifting of air and the resulting formation of clouds and rain is more gentle (gradual) for a:

  1. A) cold front.
  2. B) occluded front.
  3. C) warm front.
  4. D) divergence zone.
  5. E) mesocyclone.

 

1

 

 

 

8) Which of these is common to both cold and warm fronts?

  1. A) divergence of surface winds
  2. B) light to calm winds
  3. C) lifting of warm air over cold
  4. D) decreasing precipitation rates
  5. E) steady barometer readings

 

1

 

 

9) If you were 200 kilometers ahead of the surface position of a warm front, you would find the frontal surface at a height of ________ km overhead.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 1.5
  3. C) 2.5
  4. D) 2
  5. E) 0.5

 

1

 

 

 

10) The general term applied to warm air moving up over a colder air mass is:

  1. A) overrunning.
  2. B) warm front.
  3. C) cold front.
  4. D) orographic lifting.

 

 

11) The type of front shown in the diagram above is:

  1. A) a cold front.
  2. B) a warm front.
  3. C) a stationary front.
  4. D) an occluded front.

 

1

 

 

12) Refer to the diagram of a front shown above. If the warm air at the back is stable, what kind of cloud is most likely to form and produce precipitation in association with the front?

  1. A) nimbostratus
  2. B) cumulonimbus
  3. C) altocumulus
  4. D) cirrus

 

2

 

 

 

13) The glaze that sometimes forms in association with warm fronts occurs when:

  1. A) snow melts against a warm surface and later freezes.
  2. B) rain freezes as it falls through the air.
  3. C) rain strikes a very cold surface and freezes directly to it.
  4. D) rain falls during the day and freezes at night.

 

14) As a warm front approaches, which progression of clouds are you most likely to see?

  1. A) cirrus, cumulonimbus
  2. B) altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus, cumulonimbus
  3. C) cirrocumulus, cirrus, nimbostratus, stratus
  4. D) cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus

 

 

 

15) The type of front shown on the diagram above is:

  1. A) a cold front.
  2. B) a warm front.
  3. C) an occluded front.
  4. D) a stationary front.

 

3

 

 

16) Which of the following air masses is most likely to be the cold air in the diagram above?

  1. A) mT
  2. B) mP
  3. C) cP
  4. D) cT

 

17) The type of weather most frequently associated with the front shown on the diagram above is:

  1. A) clear skies.
  2. B) steady, gentle rainfall.
  3. C) blizzards.
  4. D) thunderstorms and other severe weather.

 

3

 

 

 

18) In the United States, the air mass most commonly found at the back of a cold front is:

  1. A) mT.
  2. B) cT.
  3. C) cP.
  4. D) mP.

 

3

 

 

 

19) The cloud type most frequently associated with a cold front is:

  1. A) cirrus.
  2. B) cumulonimbus.
  3. C) altocumulus.
  4. D) status.
  5. E) cirrocumulus.

 

3

 

 

 

20) The more violent nature of weather produced by a cold front can be attributed to which two factors?

  1. A) the gradual slope and fast forward motion of the front
  2. B) the steep slope and fast forward motion of the front
  3. C) the gradual slope and slow forward motion of the front
  4. D) the steep slope and slow forward motion of the front

 

21) Compared to warm fronts, cold fronts have:

  1. A) the same gradient and a faster advance rate.
  2. B) the same gradient and the same advance rate.
  3. C) a shallower gradient and a slower advance rate.
  4. D) a steeper gradient and a faster advance rate.
  5. E) a shallower gradient and the same advance rate.

 

3

 

 

 

22) The arrival of a cold front brings:

  1. A) mild weather.
  2. B) gentle rains.
  3. C) higher temperatures.
  4. D) cumulonimbus clouds.
  5. E) stationary winds.

 

3

 

 

 

23) Compared to other types of fronts, the weather associated with a cold front usually:

  1. A) covers more area.
  2. B) involves less precipitation.
  3. C) does not involve thunderstorms.
  4. D) is less violent but of longer duration.
  5. E) is more violent but of shorter duration.

 

3

 

 

 

24) A dryline causes uplift to occur because:

  1. A) the intruding air mass is colder and more humid than the lifted air mass.
  2. B) the lifted air mass is moister than the intruding air mass.
  3. C) the lifted air mass is dryer than the intruding air mass.
  4. D) the intruding air mass has the same low humidity as the lifted air mass.

 

 

25) The type of front represented in the diagram above is a:

  1. A) warm-type occluded front.
  2. B) cold-type occluded front.
  3. C) cold front.
  4. D) stationary front.

 

 

 

 

26) The type of front represented in the diagram above is a:

  1. A) warm-type occluded front
  2. B) cold-type occluded front
  3. C) warm front
  4. D) stationary front

 

27) Refer to the diagram above. Which phase of the midlatitude cyclone’s life cycle is associated with this type of front?

  1. A) The birth and early development phase
  2. B) The mature phase
  3. C) The anticyclonic phase
  4. D) The phase just prior to the dissipation of the storm

 

6

 

 

Refer to the diagram of a mature wave cyclone.

 

 

 

28) Of the stations listed below, which one most likely has the least rain and cloud cover?

  1. A) point A
  2. B) point H
  3. C) point B
  4. D) point I
  5. E) point G

 

6

 

 

 

29) Line A-D probably represents:

  1. A) a cold front.
  2. B) an occluded front.
  3. C) a warm front.
  4. D) a stationary front.

 

6

 

 

30) A low-flying aircraft heading from point J to point H would most likely experience which of the following changes in wind direction?

  1. A) NE to N to NW
  2. B) E to W to NE
  3. C) N to S to W
  4. D) SW to SE to NE
  5. E) SE to SW to NW

 

6

 

 

31) Which of the stations listed below should have the highest temperature?

  1. A) point E
  2. B) point J
  3. C) point H
  4. D) point F
  5. E) point A

 

6

 

 

 

32) Which of the following best represents the wind direction at point H?

  1. A) SE
  2. B) NW
  3. C) SW
  4. D) E
  5. E) NE

 

6

 

 

 

33) The lowest pressure would be found at which one of the following points?

  1. A) point E
  2. B) point B
  3. C) point J
  4. D) point A
  5. E) point D

 

34) Line A-B represents:

  1. A) a warm front.
  2. B) an occlusion.
  3. C) an isobar.
  4. D) a cold front.
  5. E) none of these

 

6

 

 

35) Thunderstorms can be generated when a cT air mass meets an mT air mass and creates a frontal boundary called a:

  1. A) cold front.
  2. B) warm front.
  3. C) dryline.
  4. D) humidity front.

 

7

 

 

 

36) Rain long foretold, long last; short notice, soon past. The FIRST FIVE words of this weather proverb:

  1. A) refer to a warm front.
  2. B) refer to an anticyclone.
  3. C) refer to the formation of cumulonimbus clouds.
  4. D) have no basis in fact.
  5. E) refer to a cold front.

 

7

 

 

 

37) Which air mass type is generally found on the poleward side of a midlatitude cyclone?

  1. A) mP
  2. B) mA
  3. C) cP
  4. D) cT
  5. E) mT

 

38) The life cycle of a midlatitude cyclone generally has ________ stages.

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) four
  4. D) six
  5. E) ten

 

8

 

 

39) The energy of a mid-latitude cyclone comes mainly from:

  1. A) ocean water.
  2. B) Earth’s interior.
  3. C) sinking cold air and rising warm air.
  4. D) greenhouse effect.
  5. E) clouds.

 

8

 

 

 

40) The approximate lifetime of a wave cyclone is:

  1. A) a month.
  2. B) 10 – 24 hours.
  3. C) 1 – 2 days.
  4. D) 10 – 14 days.
  5. E) a few days to a week.

 

8

 

 

 

41) The width or horizontal extent of a typical mid-latitude low pressure system would be:

  1. A) 50 – 100 km.
  2. B) 5 – 10 km.
  3. C) 1000 km.
  4. D) 10,000 km.
  5. E) 20,000 km.

 

8

 

 

 

42) The development of major winter storms in the midwest depends strongly on:

  1. A) rainfall amounts during the previous fall.
  2. B) wind speed aloft.
  3. C) wind speed near the surface.
  4. D) amount of snow already on the ground.
  5. E) air mass contrasts.

 

8

 

 

43) In 1918, J. Bjerknes published what came to be known as the polar front theory. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding this theory?

  1. A) It was shown to be applicable only to winter storms in the Southern Hemisphere.
  2. B) The main features of the theory remain an important part of present-day meteorological thought.
  3. C) Although it was useful at the time, it is no longer a useful model.
  4. D) The polar front theory was largely incorrect from the very beginning.

 

8

 

 

 

44) Which of the following lists the stages of the mid-latitude cyclone life cycle in the proper order?

  1. A) cyclogenesis, open-wave, occlusion, dissipation
  2. B) open-wave, occlusion, cyclogenesis, dissipation
  3. C) occlusion, dissipation, open-wave, cyclogenesis
  4. D) cyclogenesis, open-wave, dissipation, occlusion

 

9

 

 

 

45) Why does occlusion lead to the demise of a mid-latitude cyclone?

  1. A) The horizontal temperature gradient at the surface has been eliminated.
  2. B) The cold front stops progressing during occlusion.
  3. C) The cold cP air mass driving the cyclone has warmed intensely.
  4. D) Occlusion stops all precipitation from occurring within the cyclone.

 

9

 

 

 

46) Middle-latitude cyclones in the Northern Hemisphere:

  1. A) have cold fronts but not warm fronts.
  2. B) travel from east to west.
  3. C) are large high-pressure systems.
  4. D) rotate counterclockwise.

 

9

 

 

 

47) An area on the north side of the low-pressure center of a middle-latitude cyclone usually has this type of front for the longest period of time.

  1. A) occluded
  2. B) warm
  3. C) cold
  4. D) All three front types stay about the same amount of time.

 

1

 

 

48) A mature mid-latitude cyclone cloud pattern most closely resembles what when viewed from a satellite?

  1. A) an octopus
  2. B) a starfish
  3. C) a comma
  4. D) a circle

 

1

 

 

 

49) Why is the number and intensity of wave cyclones greatest during the late fall, winter and spring months?

  1. A) Temperature contrasts are greater.
  2. B) Temperatures are below freezing.
  3. C) Density of the air is greatest.
  4. D) Air is drier then.
  5. E) Meteorologists do not know.

 

1

 

 

 

50) An approaching wave cyclone would be indicated by a ________ barometer reading.

  1. A) slowly rising
  2. B) very low
  3. C) rapidly falling
  4. D) high
  5. E) variable, rising then falling

 

1

 

 

 

51) When the center of a mature wave cyclone passes to the south, you should expect:

  1. A) generally fair weather.
  2. B) to experience a veering wind shift.
  3. C) backing winds and foul weather.
  4. D) absolutely nothing.

 

2

 

 

52) After a cold front passes, which of these does NOT usually occur?

  1. A) wind direction shift
  2. B) marked temperature drop
  3. C) drop in relative humidity
  4. D) clearing skies
  5. E) falling barometer

 

2

 

 

 

53) The wind direction in a low pressure system is:

  1. A) from the east.
  2. B) from the northwest.
  3. C) from the north.
  4. D) from the south.
  5. E) dependent on your location relative to the storm center.

 

2

 

 

 

54) What is the cause-and-effect relationship between the pattern of upper-level winds and surface low- and high-pressure systems?

  1. A) Surface systems depend primarily on wind speeds at upper levels.
  2. B) Upper level wind patterns strongly control the origin and development of surface systems.
  3. C) Surface lows decrease upper level wind speeds, surface highs increase them.
  4. D) There is no strong or consistent relationship.
  5. E) Surface systems control the upper level wind patterns.

 

2

 

 

 

55) Outside of the Great Lakes region, rising barometric pressure and a wind from the northwest generally mean that:

  1. A) severe weather is approaching.
  2. B) rain will occur within the next 3 hours.
  3. C) skies will clear.
  4. D) a blizzard is approaching.

 

3

 

 

56) A wind shift in a counterclockwise direction, as from east to north, is termed ________ wind shift.

  1. A) frontal
  2. B) veering
  3. C) cyclonic
  4. D) backing

 

3

 

 

 

57) A wind shift in a clockwise direction, as from south to west, is termed ________ wind shift.

  1. A) backing
  2. B) frontal
  3. C) veering
  4. D) anticyclonic

 

3

 

 

 

58) Middle-latitude anticyclones in the Northern Hemisphere:

  1. A) rotate clockwise.
  2. B) travel from east to west.
  3. C) have cold fronts but not warm fronts.
  4. D) are large low-pressure systems.

 

4

 

 

 

59) A ridge aloft is generally associated with:

  1. A) cyclonic flow at the surface.
  2. B) anticyclonic flow at the surface.
  3. C) divergence of the jet stream.
  4. D) stormy weather.

 

4

 

 

 

60) A trough aloft is generally associated with:

  1. A) cyclonic flow at the surface.
  2. B) convergence of the jet steam.
  3. C) clear skies.
  4. D) anticyclonic flow at the surface.

 

4

 

 

61) When speed divergence occurs in the upper atmosphere, what effect does it have on cyclogenesis?

  1. A) It can either inhibit or enhance cyclogenesis, depending on the surface air temperature.
  2. B) It inhibits cyclogenesis by preventing cyclonic flow.
  3. C) It greatly enhances cyclogenesis by increasing convergence on the surface below.
  4. D) It has no impact whatsoever on the formation of mid-latitude cyclones.

 

4

 

 

 

62) Which of these best describes the reason most high pressure systems bring clear skies?

  1. A) high temperatures aloft
  2. B) sinking air aloft
  3. C) rising air aloft
  4. D) cold air near the surface
  5. E) low temperatures aloft

 

4

 

 

 

63) A midlatitude cyclone forms in western Canada, and very rapidly moves through the Dakotas and passes over the Great Lakes region, bringing very cold temperatures with it. This storm would probably be called a(an):

  1. A) Alberta Clipper.
  2. B) Panhandle Hook.
  3. C) Nor’easter.
  4. D) Siberian Express.

 

5

 

 

 

64) What kind of storm was the subject of the 1991 movie The Perfect Storm?

  1. A) a Panhandle Hook
  2. B) a Siberian Express
  3. C) a Nor’easter
  4. D) a hurricane

 

6

 

 

 

65) A blocking high is caused by:

  1. A) an occluded front.
  2. B) divergence in the upper atmosphere.
  3. C) a cutoff low.
  4. D) a persistent anticyclone.

 

7

 

 

66) The weather most typically associated with a blocking high is:

  1. A) a “backlog” of storms behind the high that leads to intense flooding.
  2. B) drought for the entire country.
  3. C) snow.
  4. D) severe thunderstorms and tornado outbreaks.

 

7

 

 

 

67) The region between the warm front and cold front of a wave cyclone is the warm sector.

 

1

 

 

 

68) Frontal systems cause clouds by adding moisture to the air.

 

1

 

 

 

69) The first sign of an approaching warm front is the appearance of altostratus clouds.

 

1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Evaluate

 

 

70) Freezing rain and/or sleet occur most often with a cold front.

 

2

 

 

 

71) When a warm front passes, temperature rises and the wind usually shifts.

 

2

 

 

 

72) Cold fronts generally travel faster than warm fronts.

 

3

 

 

 

73) Thunderstorms are most common along a cold front.

 

3

 

 

74) Cold fronts are steeper than warm fronts.

 

3

 

 

 

75) Warm-type occluded fronts are the most common type of occluded front to form east of the Rockies.

 

5

 

 

 

76) Humid air is less dense than dry air.

 

5

 

 

 

77) Middle-latitude cyclones typically develop along segments of the polar front.

 

8

 

 

 

78) The term cyclogenesis refers to the decay of a cyclone.

 

8

 

 

 

79) Occluded fronts characterize the beginning stages of a middle latitude cyclone.

 

9

 

 

 

80) Middle-latitude cyclones quickly die out once all the warm air has been lifted aloft.

 

9

 

 

81) Downstream from a ridge aloft, the wind direction is northwest.

 

2

 

 

82) Straight west-to-east winds aloft cause maximum cyclone development.

 

2

 

 

 

83) Generally, a change in wind direction from southwest to northwest means bad weather will come soon.

 

3

 

 

 

84) Cyclonic winds are always counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere.

 

4

 

 

 

85) Surface low-pressure systems usually develop in conjunction with a ridge aloft.

 

4

 

 

 

86) Ridges and troughs are features of the upper level wind pattern.

 

4

 

 

 

87) The winds in an anticyclone generally all blow from the east.

 

4

 

 

 

88) Surface winds for an anticyclone are convergent.

 

4

 

 

89) Much less study has been devoted to anticyclones as compared to cyclones.

 

4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Evaluate

 

90) When surface cyclones form, they almost invariably occur just ahead of an upper air ridge.

 

4

 

 

 

91) Speed divergence helps maintain surface lows.

 

4

 

 

 

92) Cyclones usually form alone, although sometimes they are associated with anticyclones.

 

4

 

 

 

93) Most cyclones and anticyclones are generated by upper-level air flow.

 

4

 

 

 

94) Typically, upper-level air flow is slower over anticyclones than over cyclones.

 

4

 

 

 

95) Cyclones pass over Oregon more often in winter than in summer.

 

5

 

 

 

96) Cyclogenesis frequently occurs in Colorado.

 

5

 

 

 

97) Cyclones usually move fastest in summer.

 

6

 

 

 

98) Cyclogenesis refers to the birth of a cyclone.

 

3

 

 

99) What cloud type is often seen as the first sign of an approaching warm front?

irrus

1

 

 

 

100) Severe weather, including tornadoes, is most often associated with a ________ front.

old

3

 

 

 

101) Why is the weather associated with a cold front usually of short duration?

 

 

 

102) What type of occluded front is most common along the Pacific Coast?

 

 

103) Describe the favored locations for surface cyclones and anticyclones with respect to the upper-level ridges and troughs.

104) What feature of the upper-level wind pattern must exist for the origin and development of a surface low?

 

 

 

Each of the statements refers to the approach or to the passage of a front. If the statement refers to the approach of a typical cold front, use the letter A for your answer. If the statement refers to the approach or passage of a typical warm front, use the letter B. If the statement applies to both, answer with letter C.

 

105) Severe thunderstorm/tornado

 

1

 

 

106) Cirrostratus clouds followed by altostratus

 

1

 

 

 

107) Pressure falls when front approaches

 

1

 

 

 

108) Winds shift from southwest to northwest.

 

1

 

 

 

109) Warm air is lifted over cold air.

 

1

 

 

 

110) Long lasting, steady rainfall

 

1

 

 

 

111) An “invading” cP air mass

 

1

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 10   Thunderstorms and Tornadoes

 

1) The term cyclone is BEST defined as:

  1. A) a hurricane.
  2. B) a violent tornado.
  3. C) any circulation around a low-pressure center.
  4. D) a storm that develops over an ocean.

 

0

 

 

 

2) The circulation in the immediate vicinity of a thunderstorm is:

  1. A) anticyclonic.
  2. B) variable and gusty.
  3. C) cyclonic.
  4. D) calm.

 

0

 

 

 

3) Thunderstorms can be associated with these weather activities:

  1. A) cyclones.
  2. B) hurricanes.
  3. C) tornadoes.
  4. D) cyclones, hurricanes, and tornadoes.

 

0

 

 

 

4) A tornado is a small, very intense example of the:

  1. A) Coriolis effect.
  2. B) anticyclone.
  3. C) jet stream.
  4. D) geostrophic wind.
  5. E) cyclone.

 

5) Tornadoes and midlatitude cyclones are similar in that:

  1. A) both are areas of low pressure.
  2. B) both are most common and well-developed in the winter season.
  3. C) both have conspicuous surface fronts.
  4. D) both form in the trade-wind belt.

 

0

 

 

 

6) About how many thunderstorms take place on Earth every day?

  1. A) 300
  2. B) 1300
  3. C) 5000
  4. D) 45,000

 

1

 

 

 

7) Which of the following U.S. states experiences the most thunderstorms each year?

  1. A) Florida
  2. B) Texas
  3. C) Colorado
  4. D) Oklahoma

 

1

 

 

 

8) Thunderstorms form when ________, humid air rises in a(n) ________ environment.

  1. A) warm; stable
  2. B) cold; unstable
  3. C) warm; unstable
  4. D) cold; stable

 

9) Thunderstorms and large cumulus clouds are characteristic of:

  1. A) all polar air masses.
  2. B) isothermal lapse rates.
  3. C) all warm fronts.
  4. D) unstable air.
  5. E) stable air.

 

1

 

 

10) In which of the following places are thunderstorms most common?

  1. A) central Nevada
  2. B) central Florida
  3. C) northern Wisconsin
  4. D) west of Hudson Bay (Canada)
  5. E) The occurrence of thunderstorms at all of these places should be about the same.

 

1

 

 

 

11) The greatest proportion of thunderstorms occurs in the:

  1. A) middle latitudes.
  2. B) subtropics.
  3. C) polar regions.
  4. D) subarctic regions.
  5. E) tropics.

 

1

 

 

 

12) Generally there are three stages involved in the development of thunderstorms. They are:

  1. A) cumulus stage, mature stage, and dissipating stage.
  2. B) cumulus stage, mature stage, and deconstructing stage.
  3. C) cumulus stage, adolescent stage, and dissipating stage.
  4. D) cumulus stage, dissipating stage, and deconstructing stage.

 

13) Why is strong heating of the ground by the Sun associated with thunderstorms?

  1. A) reduces the relative humidity
  2. B) reduces the dew point
  3. C) increases the wind speed
  4. D) increases the pressure gradient
  5. E) leads to greater instability

 

2

 

 

 

14) Why are thunderstorms most likely to occur in the afternoon and early evening?

  1. A) Atmosphere is most unstable at that time.
  2. B) Upper-level winds are too fast at night and in morning.
  3. C) Water-vapor contents are too low at night.
  4. D) It takes all day for them to mature.
  5. E) Lower atmosphere is too unstable in the morning.

 

2

 

 

15) At what time of day is an air-mass thunderstorm more likely to develop?

  1. A) midafternoon
  2. B) midnight
  3. C) midmorning
  4. D) pre-dawn

 

2

 

 

 

16) Which of the following is likely during the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

  1. A) lightning
  2. B) light winds
  3. C) light precipitation
  4. D) no precipitation

 

3

 

 

 

17) What is entrainment?

  1. A) the process of cool, dry air being pulled into a thunderstorm by the downdraft
  2. B) warm, moist air fed into a thunderstorm by the updraft
  3. C) rotation from the parent cloud transferring into a tornado
  4. D) a line of thunderstorms, one feeding into the next

 

3

 

 

 

18) What causes the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm?

  1. A) converging surface winds
  2. B) loss of radiant energy from cloud top
  3. C) release of latent heat within the cloud
  4. D) converging winds aloft
  5. E) spreading downdraft cuts off air inflow

 

3

 

 

 

19) Why is very humid air near the surface a necessary ingredient for severe thunderstorms?

  1. A) High humidity strengthens the cold front.
  2. B) High humidity makes the air more dense.
  3. C) High humidity makes the rising air cool more rapidly.
  4. D) Lapse rates are larger in humid air.
  5. E) More latent heat is then available as energy for the storm.

 

3

 

 

20) An air mass thunderstorm is most intense during the ________ stage.

  1. A) multicell
  2. B) cumulus
  3. C) dissipating
  4. D) mature

 

3

 

 

 

21) An air mass thunderstorm rarely lives long enough to create very severe weather because:

  1. A) the downdrafts quickly become strong enough to stop the updraft and influx of moisture to the storm.
  2. B) the atmosphere is generally fairly stable when these storms develop.
  3. C) there is rarely enough moisture available to keep the storm alive for longer than 30 minutes.
  4. D) wind shear causes the storm’s updraft to become tilted.

 

3

 

 

 

22) Downdrafts and updrafts found side by side relate to the ________ in the development of a thunderstorm.

  1. A) dissipating stage
  2. B) mature stage
  3. C) cumulus stage

 

3

 

 

 

23) Updrafts dominance relate to the ________ in the development of a thunderstorm.

  1. A) cumulus stage
  2. B) dissipating stage
  3. C) mature stage

 

3

 

 

 

24) In the development of a thunderstorm, sharp and cool gusts beginning at the surface are characteristic in the ________.

  1. A) cumulus stage
  2. B) dissipating stage
  3. C) mature stage

 

3

 

 

25) Downdrafts totally dominate the ________ in the development of a thunderstorm.

  1. A) dissipating stage
  2. B) mature stage
  3. C) cumulus stage

 

3

 

 

26) This type of cloud brings thunderstorms.

  1. A) cumulus
  2. B) altostratus
  3. C) nimbostratus
  4. D) stratocumulus
  5. E) cumulonimbus

 

3

 

 

 

27) About what percent of thunderstorms in the United States become severe?

  1. A) 10%
  2. B) 20%
  3. C) 25%
  4. D) 50%

 

4

 

 

 

28) Thunderstorm tops most likely occur:

  1. A) in the lower troposphere.
  2. B) in the middle stratosphere.
  3. C) in the mesosphere.
  4. D) near the tropopause.

 

4

 

 

 

29) An overshooting top means that:

  1. A) a thunderstorm will definitely produce a tornado
  2. B) the thunderstorm has very strong updrafts causing the cloud to grow into the stratosphere
  3. C) the thunderstorm is dissipating.
  4. D) lightning strikes will be especially intense.

 

4

 

 

 

Refer to the diagram of a thunderstorm above to answer the following questions.

 

30) Where would you expect to find precipitation occurring in this thunderstorm?

  1. A) Letter A
  2. B) Letter B
  3. C) Letter D
  4. D) Letter E

 

4

 

 

 

31) The feature identified by Letter F is:

  1. A) a mammatus cloud
  2. B) a feature marking the downdraft
  3. C) an overshooting top
  4. D) a roll cloud

 

32) The feature identified by Letter F is most likely:

  1. A) the beginning of a new thunderstorm cell
  2. B) the sign of an intense downdraft
  3. C) in the mesosphere
  4. D) in the stratosphere

 

4

 

 

 

33) The feature identified by Letter D is:

  1. A) the gust front
  2. B) a cold front
  3. C) the storm’s anvil
  4. D) experiencing very calm conditions

 

4

 

 

 

34) Where in the thunderstorm would you be most likely to find mammatus clouds?

  1. A) Letter C
  2. B) Letter D
  3. C) Letter E
  4. D) Letter F

 

8

 

 

 

35) Which feature of the thunderstorm is created by the gust front?

  1. A) Letter A
  2. B) Letter D
  3. C) Letter C
  4. D) Letter F

 

36) Some of the most dangerous weather is produced by a type of thunderstorm called a(n):

  1. A) gust front.
  2. B) updraft.
  3. C) roll cloud.
  4. D) supercell.

 

5

 

 

37) The gust front occurs:

  1. A) during the development of thunderstorm clouds.
  2. B) near the anvil part of a thunderstorm cloud.
  3. C) at the leading edge of a thunderstorm downdraft.
  4. D) on the lee shore of the Great Lakes.

 

5

 

 

 

38) A roll cloud forms in association with which other common thunderstorm feature?

  1. A) the precipitation
  2. B) the anvil
  3. C) the updraft
  4. D) the gust front

 

5

 

 

 

39) The leading edge of a gust front is frequently associated with:

  1. A) heavy precipitation.
  2. B) the development of a new cumulonimbus cloud.
  3. C) tornadoes.
  4. D) hail.

 

5

 

 

 

40) What does the term mesocyclone refer to in reference to a tornado?

  1. A) the rotation of the updraft in the parent thunderstorm
  2. B) a high-altitude tornado
  3. C) a false-alarm tornado warning
  4. D) a very large tornado

 

6

 

 

 

41) ________ are relatively narrow, elongated bands of thunderstorms that develop in the warm sector of a middle-latitude cyclone, usually in advance of a cold front.

  1. A) Roll clouds
  2. B) Mesocyclones
  3. C) Squall lines
  4. D) Supercells

 

6

 

 

42) A squall line is most likely to develop where?

  1. A) in the middle of a cP air mass
  2. B) along a warm front
  3. C) along a cold front
  4. D) along a dryline in the warm sector of a mid-latitude cyclone

 

6

 

 

 

43) Over the last 30 years, which of these has caused the FEWEST weather related deaths on average in the U.S.?

  1. A) lightning
  2. B) hurricanes
  3. C) tornadoes
  4. D) floods

 

7

 

 

 

44) The greatest number of deaths associated with thunderstorms result from:

  1. A) flash flooding.
  2. B) lightning.
  3. C) hail.
  4. D) tornadoes.

 

7

 

 

 

45) Hurricanes and thunderstorms can sometimes cause local floods that are short-lived but high volume. These are called:

  1. A) rapid floods
  2. B) flash floods
  3. C) 100-year floods
  4. D) surge floods

 

7

 

 

 

46) A dryline generally forms between which two air masses?

  1. A) mP and mT
  2. B) cP and cT
  3. C) cT and mT
  4. D) cP and mT

 

8

 

 

47) Drylines are capable of producing thunderstorms because:

  1. A) the dry air mass forces the moist air mass to rise.
  2. B) the moist air mass lifts the dry air mass.
  3. C) there is an abrupt change in temperature across the dryline.
  4. D) the dry air mass is unstable and rising.

 

8

 

 

 

48) In the United States, a mesoscale convective complex is most likely to develop in:

  1. A) the Great Plains.
  2. B) the Pacific Northwest.
  3. C) New England.
  4. D) the Gulf of Mexico.

 

9

 

 

 

49) It is impossible to warn people of every lightning flash because:

  1. A) it strikes so frequently and in so many places.
  2. B) it kills few people compared to the other types of severe weather, so it isn’t studied as much.
  3. C) scientists don’t understand exactly how it forms.
  4. D) people are only struck by lightning a few times each decade, so most don’t listen to warnings.

 

9

 

 

 

50) Extreme evaporative cooling can sometimes produce explosions of straight-line winds called:

  1. A) gust fronts.
  2. B) downbursts.
  3. C) tornadoes.
  4. D) air bombs.

 

0

 

 

 

51) Which type of lightning is least likely?

  1. A) within the same cloud
  2. B) cloud-to-Earth
  3. C) cloud-to-cloud

 

52) The terms leader, flash, and stroke are used when describing:

  1. A) squall line formation.
  2. B) the stages of a thunderstorm.
  3. C) the passage of a hurricane.
  4. D) lightning.
  5. E) a tornado.

 

2

 

 

 

53) Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of the phases involved in a lightning stroke?

  1. A) Step leaders, return stroke, separation of charges, flow of negative charge into ground, dart leader
  2. B) Charge separation, step leaders, return stroke, flow of negative charge into ground, dart leader
  3. C) Dart leader, charge separation, flow of negative charge into ground, step leaders, return stroke
  4. D) Charge separation, dart leader, step leaders, flow of negative charge into ground, return stroke

 

2

 

 

 

54) “Heat lightning”:

  1. A) is actually a display of the northern lights.
  2. B) is also called “ball lightning.”
  3. C) is brighter than ordinary lightning.
  4. D) occurs more than 20 kilometers from the person observing it.

 

4

 

 

 

55) If you see lightning and then hear the associated thunder 10 seconds later, the lightning flash was about ________ mile(s) away.

  1. A) three
  2. B) four
  3. C) one
  4. D) five
  5. E) two

 

56) Which of the following should have the steepest pressure gradient?

  1. A) middle-latitude cyclone
  2. B) hurricane
  3. C) tornado
  4. D) typhoon

 

5

 

 

 

57) Because of the tremendous pressure gradient associated with a strong tornado, maximum winds approach ________ miles per hour.

  1. A) 100
  2. B) 300
  3. C) 600
  4. D) 1000

 

5

 

 

 

58) Multiple-vortex tornadoes help explain:

  1. A) why one building is destroyed and the one next to it is untouched.
  2. B) why tornadoes are so short lived.
  3. C) why some tornadoes never touch the ground.
  4. D) what EF rank a tornado should have.

 

5

 

 

 

59) Which of the following statements is not true of tornadoes?

  1. A) generally move from the southwest toward the northeast
  2. B) usually occur along the warm front of a midlatitude cyclone
  3. C) most common in the Midwest and Great Plains
  4. D) associated with cumulonimbus clouds
  5. E) occur most frequently in the spring of the year

 

60) Which of the numbers listed below best represents the percentage of thunderstorms that produce tornadoes?

  1. A) about 10 percent
  2. B) slightly more than 50 percent
  3. C) nearly 25 percent
  4. D) less than 1 percent

 

6

 

 

61) Why do most tornadoes in the central U.S. occur during the spring months?

  1. A) Air-mass contrasts are greatest.
  2. B) Divergence of air aloft is greatest.
  3. C) Solar energy is a maximum.
  4. D) Surface air is most humid.
  5. E) Upper-air temperatures are warmest.

 

7

 

 

 

62) Tornadoes are most frequent during the:

  1. A) month of September.
  2. B) January-March period.
  3. C) April-June period.
  4. D) October-December period.
  5. E) July-August period.

 

7

 

 

 

63) Of the following states, which is struck by the largest number of tornadoes?

  1. A) North Carolina
  2. B) Ohio
  3. C) Oklahoma
  4. D) New Mexico
  5. E) North Dakota

 

64) The diameter of a typical tornado funnel cloud would be:

  1. A) 50 – 100 meters.
  2. B) 150 – 600 meters.
  3. C) 1000 – 2500 meters.
  4. D) 3000 meters

 

9

 

 

 

65) Tornadoes most often move toward what direction?

  1. A) southeast
  2. B) west
  3. C) northeast
  4. D) southwest
  5. E) northwest

 

9

 

 

66) Why do most tornadoes tend to travel in the same general direction?

  1. A) Because of their clockwise rotation.
  2. B) They generally occur in a zone of southwest winds.
  3. C) They have an intense pressure gradient force.
  4. D) Tornadoes often occur to the east of the center of a midlatitude cyclone.

 

9

 

 

 

67) The Enhanced -Fujita Intensity Scale (EF-scale) is applied to:

  1. A) tornadoes.
  2. B) typhoons.
  3. C) lightning.
  4. D) thunderstorms.

 

68) The Enhanced Fujita scale is based on:

  1. A) the level of damage caused by a tornado.
  2. B) the measured wind speeds inside a tornado.
  3. C) the pressure gradient across the diameter of a tornado.
  4. D) the frequency of lightning strikes concurrent with the tornado.

 

1

 

 

 

69) Conventional radar measures:

  1. A) raindrop motion.
  2. B) raindrop size.
  3. C) raindrop and snowflake motion.
  4. D) rainfall intensity.
  5. E) cloud droplet numbers.

 

4

 

 

 

70) Doppler radars:

  1. A) detect lightning strokes.
  2. B) have much greater range than conventional radars.
  3. C) detect condensation nuclei.
  4. D) show the motion of air in clear areas.
  5. E) show the motion of precipitation particles.

 

4

 

 

71) Which association is incorrect?

  1. A) tornado watch — a tornado has been sighted on the ground
  2. B) downdraft — precipitation
  3. C) anvil – front of the thunderstorm
  4. D) mesocyclone — region of tornado formation

 

4

 

 

 

72) The vast majority of cyclones are hurricanes and tornadoes.

 

0

 

 

 

73) The term “cyclone” simply refers to the circulation around any low-pressure center, no matter how large or intense it is.

 

0

 

 

 

74) Thunderstorms are not always associated with cyclonic activity.

 

1

 

 

 

75) During the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm, the downdraft is weaker than the updraft.

 

2

 

 

 

76) Entrainment refers to the tendency of thunderstorms to form in a line-like pattern or sequence.

 

3

 

 

 

77) Most precipitation from thunderstorms originates through the collision-coalescence process.

 

3

 

 

 

78) Mountainous regions, such as the Rockies in the West and the Appalachians in the East, experience a greater number of air-mass thunderstorms than do the Plains states.

 

4

 

 

79) The airflow pattern aloft is not usually related to severe thunderstorm development.

 

4

 

 

 

80) Large hail is generally associated only with severe thunderstorms.

 

4

 

 

 

81) The anvil top of a thunderstorm often marks the beginning of the stratosphere.

 

5

 

 

 

82) Temperature inversions (stable layers) in air layers above the ground can contribute to thunderstorm development.

 

6

 

 

 

83) On average, tornadoes kill more people every year in the United States than any other severe weather phenomenon.

 

7

 

 

 

84) Squall lines are easily recognized because of their unique nimbostratus clouds.

 

8

 

 

 

85) Divergence in the upper-level jet stream hinders the formation of severe thunderstorms.

 

8

 

 

 

86) A squall line with severe thunderstorms can also form along a boundary called a dryline, a narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change in moisture.

 

8

 

 

87) It is generally considered safe to talk on the phone during a lightning storm, as long as it is a corded telephone.

 

9

 

 

 

88) An airplane flown by an untrained pilot is likely to crash if it flies through a downburst.

 

0

 

 

 

89) Lightning only occurs under the central part of a thunderstorm cloud.

 

1

 

 

 

90) Lightning always occurs between a cloud and the ground.

 

2

 

 

 

91) Cloud-to-ground lightning results in a flow of electrons from the ground to the cloud.

 

3

 

 

 

92) Thunder generates lightning.

 

4

 

 

 

93) A long lightning flash at some distance from the observer produces the thunder we hear as a rumble.

 

4

 

 

 

94) The primary force causing the fast winds of a tornado is electrical.

 

5

 

 

95) A developing tornado is called a funnel cloud until it makes contact with the surface.

 

6

 

 

 

96) When tornadoes develop it is usually in association with air-mass thunderstorms.

 

6

 

 

 

97) If a severe thunderstorm produces large hail, it will not produce a tornado.

 

6

 

 

 

98) A mesocyclone often precedes tornado development.

 

6

 

 

 

99) The central United States sees more tornadoes than any other region in the world.

 

7

 

 

 

100) A thunderstorm’s direction of movement over the ground is determined by the gust front.

 

9

 

 

 

101) Destruction caused by a tornado is primarily due to the large pressure drop as the funnel passes over.

 

0

 

 

102) Weak tornadoes (EF0-EF1) are responsible for the majority of tornado deaths because they are far more common than stronger tornadoes (EF2 and above).

 

2

 

 

103) About 50 percent of North American tornadoes are classified as violent (EF4-EF5).

 

2

 

 

 

104) Radar detects a thunderstorm by measuring the electrical discharges within the cloud.

 

4

 

 

 

105) A tornado warning is issued by the National Weather Service when conditions are favorable for tornado development.

 

4

 

 

 

106) Doppler radar can detect motion directly.

 

4

 

 

 

107) A tornado watch is issued by the National Weather Service after a tornado has been sighted in an area.

 

4

 

 

 

108) Doppler radar can now provide adequate warning of impending tornadoes at least 95 percent of the time.

 

6

 

 

 

109) What are the three stages in the development of a thunderstorm?

 

 

 

110) What is the primary source of heat that keeps a thunderstorm cloud buoyant so that it can grow so tall?

 

111) Why is a convergent pattern of surface winds associated with thunderstorm formation?

.

4

 

 

 

112) A ________ is the outflowing cool air of a downdraft that acts as a “mini-cold front.”

 

 

 

113) Name the two air-mass types most likely to be involved when severe thunderstorms occur.

 

 

 

114) How are both positively and negatively charged particles able to form in the same thunderstorm cloud?

 

 

 

115) Why is so-called ‘heat lightning’ not associated with thunder?

116) What makes the narrow, rotating air column or vortex of a tornado visible?

 

 

 

117) The strongest tornados are ranked ________ on the Enhanced Fujita Intensity Scale.

 

 

 

118) Which was the most devastating (and deadly) tornado disaster in U.S. history?

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 11   Hurricanes

 

1) When occurring in the Atlantic Ocean they are known as hurricanes. What are they known as when occurring in the western Pacific?

  1. A) typhoons
  2. B) tropical breezes
  3. C) tsunamis
  4. D) cyclones

 

3

 

 

 

2) The ________ has the greatest number of storms, averaging 20 per year.

  1. A) North Atlantic
  2. B) South Atlantic
  3. C) North Pacific
  4. D) South Pacific

 

4

 

 

 

3) What is the difference between a typhoon and a hurricane?

  1. A) A hurricane is a true tropical cyclone, but a typhoon is not.
  2. B) A hurricane is stronger than a typhoon.
  3. C) They represent different phases in the development of a tropical storm.
  4. D) They occur in different ocean basins.

 

4

 

 

 

4) What are hurricanes known as in the Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea?

  1. A) tropical breezes
  2. B) typhoons
  3. C) cyclones
  4. D) tsunamis

 

5) What general circulation wind belt is the place of origin for hurricanes?

  1. A) westerlies
  2. B) trade winds
  3. C) doldrums
  4. D) horse latitudes

 

4

 

 

 

6) Compared to the North Atlantic, hurricanes form in the South Atlantic:

  1. A) much less frequently.
  2. B) more frequently.
  3. C) with about the same frequency and intensity.
  4. D) with about the same frequency, but with much less intensity.

 

4

 

 

 

7) What is the approximate diameter of a mature hurricane?

  1. A) 50 -100 km
  2. B) 50 km or less
  3. C) about 1000 km
  4. D) about 600 km
  5. E) more than 1000 km

 

4

 

 

 

8) Why do hurricanes initially form only in the tropics?

  1. A) Warm water temperatures are found there.
  2. B) Stronger pressure gradients are found there.
  3. C) Coriolis is weaker there.
  4. D) Subsiding air currents are found there.

 

9) What causes the winds of a hurricane to be so fast?

  1. A) coupling with the jet stream
  2. B) stronger Coriolis force
  3. C) very strong pressure gradient force
  4. D) tidal effects
  5. E) weaker Coriolis force

 

4

 

 

10) Why don’t hurricanes develop on or near the Equator?

  1. A) The Coriolis effect is too weak to create rotation.
  2. B) The ITCZ inhibits the growth of the hurricane’s thunderstorms.
  3. C) The water is too warm to allow for the storm’s development.
  4. D) The question is false; hurricanes develop on the Equator all the time!

 

4

 

 

 

11) Hurricanes form

  1. A) between 35 degrees and 50 degrees latitude.
  2. B) between 20 degrees and 35 degrees latitude.
  3. C) at the equator.
  4. D) at various latitudes depending upon local conditions.
  5. E) between 5 degrees and 20 degrees latitude.

 

4

 

 

 

12) A hurricane must have sustained wind speeds of at least:

  1. A) 64 miles per hour.
  2. B) 94 miles per hour.
  3. C) 84 miles per hour.
  4. D) 74 miles per hour.

 

13) To officially be a hurricane, the disturbance must have rotary circulation and have wind speeds of at least ________ kilometers per hour.

  1. A) 70
  2. B) 119
  3. C) 195
  4. D) 92
  5. E) 161

 

4

 

 

 

14) The doughnut-shaped wall of intense convective activity surrounding the center of the storm is called the:

  1. A) eye.
  2. B) eye ring.
  3. C) eye wall.
  4. D) core.

 

5

 

 

15) Why do surface wind speeds increase toward the center of a hurricane?

  1. A) reduced friction
  2. B) stronger Coriolis effect
  3. C) conservation of angular momentum
  4. D) warmer water

 

5

 

 

 

16) What type of clouds is most common in a hurricane?

  1. A) cumulonimbus
  2. B) cirrus
  3. C) nimbostratus
  4. D) stratus

 

17) The eye wall of a hurricane:

  1. A) has the greatest wind speeds.
  2. B) lies at the hurricane’s outer edge.
  3. C) has the lightest precipitation.
  4. D) has the highest barometric pressure.

 

5

 

 

 

18) The very center of a hurricane is called the:

  1. A) eye.
  2. B) eye ring.
  3. C) eye wall.
  4. D) core.

 

6

 

 

 

19) Hurricanes develop most often in the late summer when ocean waters have reached what temperature?

  1. A) 50 °F
  2. B) 80°F
  3. C) 60°F
  4. D) 70°F
  5. E) 100°F

 

6

 

 

20) The outflow at the top of a hurricane prolongs the storm’s lifespan because:

  1. A) it provides an outlet for excess moisture that might otherwise “rain out” the storm.
  2. B) it causes winds to converge at the top of the storm.
  3. C) it prevents surface convergence from “filling in” the low-pressure center of the storm.
  4. D) it helps to bring in cold air to strengthen the hurricane’s eye.

 

6

 

 

 

21) Why is the eye region of a hurricane largely free of precipitation and heavy clouds?

  1. A) rising air motion
  2. B) pressure gradient is weaker
  3. C) cooler temperatures
  4. D) sinking air motion

 

6

 

 

 

22) The eye of a hurricane:

  1. A) is a figment of man’s imagination.
  2. B) has the most intense rainfall.
  3. C) is the portion with the highest wind speeds.
  4. D) is warmer than the rest of the storm.

 

6

 

 

 

23) During which of the time spans listed below should hurricane formation in the North Atlantic be at a peak?

  1. A) January-February
  2. B) November-December
  3. C) April-May
  4. D) August-September

 

6

 

 

 

24) What cold area do tropical disturbances have to survive through to then be rejuvenated by heat and moisture of the warmer water of the mid-Atlantic?

  1. A) the Canary current
  2. B) the African current
  3. C) the upper Atlantic current
  4. D) Humboldt current

 

25) When a cyclone’s strongest winds do not exceed 37 miles per hour it is called a:

  1. A) tropical depression.
  2. B) tropical storm.
  3. C) tornado.
  4. D) hurricane.
  5. E) dust devil.

 

7

 

 

 

26) What circumstance may inhibit further development of a hurricane by diminishing air’s ability to rise?

  1. A) strong upper-level winds
  2. B) trade wind inversion
  3. C) convergence at the surface
  4. D) unstable air

 

7

 

 

 

27) Why do hurricanes in the Atlantic move toward the west during their early stages?

  1. A) Prevailing winds are from the east.
  2. B) steering influence of ocean currents
  3. C) They move away from areas of high salinity.
  4. D) Warmer water temperatures guide them.
  5. E) Coriolis effect guides them.

 

7

 

 

 

28) An easterly wave contributes to hurricane development by:

  1. A) creating surface convergence.
  2. B) feeding warm waves of water into the vicinity of the hurricane.
  3. C) steering disturbances over the Canaries current.
  4. D) causing disturbances from the Bahamas to move to the east, over warmer waters.

 

29) What determines when a tropical depression or storm is given hurricane status?

  1. A) water temperature
  2. B) wind speed
  3. C) diameter
  4. D) central pressure

 

7

 

 

30) Which one of the following is most intense?

  1. A) tropical storm
  2. B) tropical depression
  3. C) tropical disturbance
  4. D) tropical water

 

7

 

 

 

31) What is the proper order of storm intensity in terms of increasing wind speed?

  1. A) tropical storm, hurricane, tropical depression
  2. B) tropical depression, hurricane, tropical storm
  3. C) tropical storm, tropical depression, hurricane
  4. D) hurricane, tropical depression, tropical storm
  5. E) tropical depression, tropical storm, hurricane

 

7

 

 

 

32) Which of the following can diminish the intensity of a hurricane?

  1. A) moving over land
  2. B) significant increase in large-scale air flow aloft
  3. C) moving over warmer water with more moisture above it
  4. D) frequent lightning

 

33) What system is used to name hurricanes if the established list of names is exhausted in a given year?

  1. A) Latitude/longitude
  2. B) The Greek alphabet
  3. C) U.S. Presidents
  4. D) Roman numerals

 

8

 

 

 

34) The United States deadliest hurricane happened in 1900 in Galveston, Texas. Approximately how many deaths did the hurricane cause?

  1. A) 1000
  2. B) 2000
  3. C) 4000
  4. D) 8000

 

9

 

 

35) When a hurricane moves onto land, it declines in intensity. Which of the factors listed below contribute to this loss of punch?

  1. A) friction
  2. B) lack of warm, moist air
  3. C) heating from below by the land surface
  4. D) both friction and the lack of warm, moist air

 

9

 

 

 

36) The deadliest natural disaster of any kind to ever occur in the United States was:

  1. A) Hurricane Katrina.
  2. B) The eruption of Mt. St. Helen’s.
  3. C) The Great Storm of 1900.
  4. D) The 1906 San Francisco earthquake.

 

37) Which “famous” hurricane was the costliest in United States history?

  1. A) Hurricane Floyd
  2. B) Hurricane Hugo
  3. C) Hurricane Diane
  4. D) Hurricane Katrina

 

0

 

 

 

38) What category of the scale of hurricane intensity is the strongest?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 20
  5. E) 3

 

0

 

 

 

39) Hurricane Ike made landfall in Texas in September of 2008, and went on to become the third costliest hurricane in U.S. history. At its peak, it had sustained winds of 233 kmh (145 mph). What category was Ike on the Saffir-Simpson scale at its peak?

  1. A) Category 2
  2. B) Category 3
  3. C) Category 4
  4. D) Category 5

 

0

 

 

40) Although damages caused by a hurricane depend on several factors, which is the most significant?

  1. A) size and population density of the affected area
  2. B) near-shore bottom configuration
  3. C) strength of the storm
  4. D) number of tornadoes

 

41) The greatest number of hurricane-related deaths may be attributed to:

  1. A) strong winds.
  2. B) inland freshwater flooding.
  3. C) lightning.
  4. D) storm surge.
  5. E) tornadoes.

 

 

 

 

42) The ________ scale is used to establish categories of hurricane intensity.

  1. A) Stormfury
  2. B) Fujita
  3. C) Saffir-Simpson
  4. D) Johnson-Hildebrandt

 

43) As a strong hurricane moves ashore, which of the following causes the most devastating damage in the coastal zone?

  1. A) storm surge
  2. B) strong winds
  3. C) torrential rains
  4. D) lightning

 

0

 

 

44) Until Hurricane Katrina occurred, the costliest hurricane in U.S. history was Hurricane ________.

  1. A) Iniki
  2. B) Opal
  3. C) Hugo
  4. D) Andrew
  5. E) Fran

 

0

 

 

 

45) Which scale number(s) of hurricanes do only minimal or moderate damage?

  1. A) 4 and 5
  2. B) 3 only
  3. C) 2 and 3
  4. D) 4 only
  5. E) 1 and 2

 

0

 

 

 

46) Refer to the chart of wind speed and pressure observed during Cyclone Monty, which made landfall in Australia in 2004. When did the eye pass over the observing station?

  1. A) Between 6:00 p.m. and midnight on March 1.
  2. B) Just after midnight on March 2.
  3. C) Between 2:00 a.m. and 6:00 a.m. on March 2
  4. D) 6:00 a.m. on March 2.

 

47) Which of the following has historically proven most susceptible to large losses of life (>100,000) from storm surge in the twentieth century?

  1. A) Bangladesh
  2. B) Galveston, Texas
  3. C) Myanmar
  4. D) Both A and C
  5. E) A large loss of life has not occurred in the 20th century.

 

 

 

48) Carefully consider the photography of a hurricane in the South Atlantic shown above. Where would you expect to find the fastest winds?

  1. A) Letter A
  2. B) Letter B
  3. C) Letter C
  4. D) Letter D (central eye)

 

49) If you are in a tall building near the coast during a hurricane, where is the best place to be?

  1. A) in the basement
  2. B) on the highest floor possible
  3. C) below the tenth floor but above the first few floors
  4. D) in the stairwell

 

2

 

 

 

50) The rain associated with a hurricane:

  1. A) can often bring benefits that outweigh the losses.
  2. B) always leads to torrential flooding, no matter where the hurricane makes landfall.
  3. C) is never associated with deaths in a hurricane.
  4. D) is only threatening in the immediate area where the hurricane makes landfall.

 

2

 

 

 

51) Cyclone Nargis made landfall in:

  1. A) Bangladesh.
  2. B) Myanmar.
  3. C) Australia.
  4. D) Japan.

 

3

 

 

 

52) A GPS dropwindsonde is used for:

  1. A) measuring wind directions in the outflow of a hurricane.
  2. B) measuring wind speeds throughout every level of a hurricane.
  3. C) locating and measuring the diameter of the hurricane’s eye at the surface.
  4. D) forecasting precipitation associated with the hurricane’s eye wall.

 

53) Surface wind speeds inside a hurricane are estimated by:

  1. A) doubling the wind speeds measured on the outer perimeter of the storm.
  2. B) analyzing wave patterns visible in satellite imagery.
  3. C) calculating 90% of the wind speeds measured in the upper portions of the storm.
  4. D) measuring them with instruments on hurricane hunter aircraft.

 

4

 

 

54) What is the single greatest advancement in tools used for observing tropical cyclones?

  1. A) aircraft reconnaissance
  2. B) data buoys
  3. C) radar
  4. D) meteorological satellites

 

5

 

 

 

55) Since detection and tracking of hurricanes is now quite accurate, why does damage from these storms continue to increase?

  1. A) continued development of coastal areas
  2. B) poor forecasts of landfall area
  3. C) changes in tidal patterns
  4. D) hurricane intensity is greater

 

5

 

 

 

56) The initial detection and monitoring of tropical storms that may become hurricanes is accomplished by:

  1. A) ocean ships.
  2. B) ocean buoys.
  3. C) satellites.
  4. D) coastal observers.
  5. E) aircraft.

 

57) The most important tool for detecting and monitoring hurricanes is:

  1. A) radar.
  2. B) data buoys.
  3. C) submarine reconnaissance.
  4. D) aircraft reconnaissance.
  5. E) satellites.

 

5

 

 

58) Which of the following best describes the hurricane data provided by aircraft reconnaissance?

  1. A) They can create a complete three dimensional profile of the storm.
  2. B) They provide detailed data while a hurricane is still very far away from the coast.
  3. C) They provide sample snapshots of only small parts of the storm.
  4. D) They provide accurate data about the wind speeds at the very bottom of the storm, near the surface.

 

6

 

 

 

59) A major limitation of Doppler radar for hurricane monitoring is its ability to “see”:

  1. A) over distances beyond 200 miles.
  2. B) tornadic rotation.
  3. C) areas of particularly intense rainfall.
  4. D) direction of wind motion.

 

9

 

 

 

60) An announcement aimed at specific coastal areas that a hurricane poses a possible threat generally within 36 hours is called a:

  1. A) hurricane warning.
  2. B) tornado warning.
  3. C) tornado watch.
  4. D) hurricane watch.

 

61) Doppler radar is of limited use in creating hurricane storm warnings because:

  1. A) hurricanes must be within 320 km of the coast for Doppler radar to “see” them.
  2. B) Doppler radar cannot penetrate into the center of a mature hurricane.
  3. C) Doppler radar is not very accurate at measuring rainfall intensity associated with the hurricane.
  4. D) Doppler radars are not commonly used in coastal areas.

 

0

 

 

 

62) One problem with issuing a hurricane warning is:

  1. A) few people pay attention to warnings.
  2. B) hurricane forecasts require large areas that will be unaffected to be included in the warning.
  3. C) it is difficult to issue warnings with enough lead time for people to evacuate.
  4. D) no standardized system for issuing warnings exists on a federal level in the United States.

 

1

 

 

63) Tornadoes are cyclonic while hurricanes are anticyclonic.

 

3

 

 

 

64) In the western Pacific, hurricanes are called typhoons.

 

3

 

 

 

65) The term hurricane is derived from Huracan, a Carib god of evil.

 

4

 

Nat. Geog. Stand:  6: Culture Influences People’s Perception

 

66) The Coriolis force does not play a role in hurricane circulations.

 

4

 

 

 

67) The largest number of hurricanes form right along the equator.

 

4

 

 

 

68) Hurricanes can form over tropical land masses as well as over tropical oceans.

 

4

 

 

 

69) Hurricanes do not form within about 5 degrees latitude of the equator.

 

4

 

 

 

70) More hurricanes form in the South Atlantic and the eastern South Pacific than in any other regions.

 

4

 

 

71) Hurricanes in the Indian Ocean are called cyclones.

 

4

 

 

 

72) Each year between 100 and 200 tropical storms develop around the world.

 

4

 

 

 

73) Hurricane wind speeds are fastest near the center of the eye.

 

5

 

 

 

74) The tallest and most vigorous part of the hurricane is the eye wall region.

 

5

 

 

75) Hurricanes are so severe because there is no airflow outward from their upper levels.

 

5

 

 

 

76) Hurricanes that affect the United States occur most frequently during the same months as tornadoes are most prevalent.

 

6

 

 

 

77) Wind speeds at the eye of a hurricane are relatively calm.

 

6

 

 

 

78) A hurricane’s most important source of energy is solar radiation on its cloud tops.

 

6

 

 

79) A tropical storm is given a name that it will keep if it becomes a hurricane.

 

7

 

 

 

80) One of the most important factors for a hurricane’s rapid demise is the cut off of the storm’s source of warm moist air.

 

8

 

 

 

81) Hurricanes can sustain their maximum wind speed for quite awhile after making landfall.

 

9

 

 

 

82) Storms that fall into category 5 are very common.

 

0

 

 

 

83) Hurricane storm surges are not affected by the normal tidal surges in an area.

 

0

 

 

 

84) The cost of the damage of one hurricane can exceed $1 billion.

 

0

 

 

 

85) The most severe hurricane is a category 1 on the Saffir-Simpson scale.

 

0

 

 

 

86) As a hurricane advances toward the coast in the Northern Hemisphere, storm surge is always most intense on the left side of the eye where winds are blowing away from the shore.

 

1

 

 

87) Hurricane force winds affect a much larger area than storm surge.

 

2

 

 

 

88) Unlike in tornadoes, mobile homes are not vulnerable in hurricanes.

 

2

 

 

 

89) Tornadoes rarely occur in conjunction with hurricanes.

 

2

 

 

90) Hurricanes are responsible for more property damage than tornadoes.

 

2

 

 

 

91) A hurricane has slower wind speeds than a tornado but inflicts more total damage.

 

3

 

 

 

92) Most North Atlantic hurricanes eventually swing northward.

 

5

 

 

 

93) Aircraft cannot fly directly into a hurricane, so they have to collect data from well above the storm.

 

6

 

 

 

94) VORTRAC uses Doppler radar data in conjunction with knowledge of hurricane structure to improve our estimates of what’s happening inside a storm as it approaches the coast.

 

0

 

 

95) Overwarning is difficult to avoid in hurricane forecasting.

 

0

 

 

 

96) Track forecasts are not as important as wind speed forecasts in a hurricane.

 

1

 

 

 

97) What are the peak months for hurricane activity in the North Atlantic?

 

 

98) Name two retired names of hurricanes.

 

 

99) Name 3 factors that cause the reduction of hurricane intensity after it makes landfall.

 

 

 

100) List three categories of hurricane damage.

 

 

 

101) The ________ scale is used to rank the relative intensity of hurricanes.

 

 

 

102) List three tools used to study and observe hurricanes.

 

 

103) When is a hurricane warning issued?

104) A ________ is issued when sustained winds of 119 kilometers per hour or higher are

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 12   Weather Analysis and Forecasting

 

1) In the United States, the governmental agency responsible for gathering and disseminating weather-related information is the:

  1. A) American Meteorological Service.
  2. B) National Atmosphere Association.
  3. C) National Weather Service.
  4. D) American Weather Association.

 

7

 

 

 

2) The process of predicting the future state of the atmosphere is called:

  1. A) weather analysis.
  2. B) weather predicting.
  3. C) weather forecasting.
  4. D) hindcasting.

 

7

 

 

 

3) The forecasts for local and regional weather are produced by:

  1. A) Weather Forecast Offices.
  2. B) National Cyclone Center.
  3. C) State Weather Forecast Offices.
  4. D) National Centers for Environmental Prediction.

 

8

 

 

 

4) The job of collecting, compiling and displaying weather data is done by:

  1. A) a weather prognostic.
  2. B) a weather forecaster.
  3. C) a weather reporter.
  4. D) a weather analyst.

 

5) Weather analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. A) plotting numerical data.
  2. B) collecting data.
  3. C) compiling data.
  4. D) transmitting data.
  5. E) prediction of future weather data.

 

8

 

 

 

6) Your local weather forecast is most likely provided by the (a):

  1. A) National Severe Storm Forecast Center.
  2. B) National Meteorological Center.
  3. C) Weather Forecast Office.
  4. D) National Hurricane Center.

 

8

 

 

 

7) The acronym NOAA stands for:

  1. A) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration.
  2. B) National Observatory for Atmospheric Assessment.
  3. C) Nightly Observation of Atmospheric Attributes.
  4. D) Numerical Observation Assessment Association.

 

8

 

 

 

8) The Storm Prediction Center in Norman, Oklahoma, maintains a constant vigil for:

  1. A) snow storms.
  2. B) hurricanes and tropical storms.
  3. C) floods and flash floods.
  4. D) thunderstorms and tornadoes.

 

8

9) The primary purpose of a radiosonde is:

  1. A) to acquire data about conditions in the upper atmosphere.
  2. B) to report data about surface conditions at an automated weather station.
  3. C) to compile data from thousands of automated weather stations into one file.
  4. D) to calculate numerical predictions of weather.

 

9

 

 

10) If you need to measure wind speed and direction at a height of 10 km above the surface, the type of radar you would use is called:

  1. A) Doppler radar.
  2. B) a wind profiler.
  3. C) sonic radar.
  4. D) a tropospheric assessor.

 

0

 

 

 

11) Synoptic weather maps display weather data that:

  1. A) show multiple levels of the atmosphere on the same chart.
  2. B) were measured at the same time.
  3. C) were measured at the same place.
  4. D) were measured by a satellite.
  5. E) were calculated by a mathematical model.

 

0

 

 

 

12) The word synoptic literally means:

  1. A) coincident in time.
  2. B) related to weather.
  3. C) of the same place.
  4. D) bird-eyed.

 

13) Why are most weather data displayed in the form of a map or chart?

  1. A) More data can be recorded on a map.
  2. B) Maps are easier to remember.
  3. C) Maps display the data in their proper place, relative to other data, and allow the identification of patterns.
  4. D) Maps are easier to construct than tables.

 

0

 

 

 

14) Which of the following data is not plotted on a weather chart?

  1. A) dew-point temperature
  2. B) sky cover
  3. C) cloud height
  4. D) solar radiation
  5. E) temperature

 

1

 

 

15) Which of the following weather data is not always plotted in the same location with respect to the weather station?

  1. A) cloud type
  2. B) past weather
  3. C) barometric pressure
  4. D) pressure tendency
  5. E) wind direction

 

1

 

 

 

16) Synoptic charts have isobars plotted at ________ millibar intervals.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 10
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 1
  5. E) 12

 

1

 

 

 

 

17) What is the current air temperature represented on the station model shown above?

  1. A) 75°F
  2. B) 75°C
  3. C) 69°F
  4. D) -20°C
  5. E) 105°F

 

1

 

 

 

18) What is the current wind direction represented on the station model shown above?

  1. A) SE
  2. B) NW
  3. C) NE
  4. D) SW

 

1

 

 

19) The current sea level air pressure represented on the station model shown above is:

  1. A) 1010.5 mb
  2. B) 910.5 mb
  3. C) 1020.0 mb
  4. D) 969.0 mb

 

20) What is the dew point represented on the station model shown above?

  1. A) -20°C
  2. B) 75°F
  3. C) 69°F
  4. D) 69°C

 

1

 

 

 

21) Which of the following rely on the fact that gases of the atmosphere obey a number of known physical principles to predict the future state of the atmosphere?

  1. A) numerical weather prediction
  2. B) statistical methods
  3. C) trend forecasting
  4. D) persistence forecasting

 

2

 

 

 

22) On a surface-level synoptic weather chart, a front is often identified by zones that exhibit:

  1. A) a strong jet stream.
  2. B) clear skies.
  3. C) gradual changes in pressure.
  4. D) abrupt changes in temperature, humidity, and wind direction.

 

2

 

 

 

23) The development of large, fast computers has allowed this method of weather prediction to become useful.

  1. A) nowcasting
  2. B) numerical
  3. C) persistence
  4. D) analog

 

24) A prognostic chart:

  1. A) is used to pinpoint the current location of fronts.
  2. B) is used to explain the causes of thunderstorms as they are happening.
  3. C) evaluates past weather conditions to predict future ones.
  4. D) displays numerical forecasts for future conditions in precipitation, wind speed, and upper air flow.

 

3

 

 

 

25) One commonly used way to improve a numerical model forecast is to:

  1. A) reformulate the model after every forecast to correct errors.
  2. B) statistically assess errors that the model makes repeatedly and adjust the forecast accordingly.
  3. C) eliminate portions of the model that aren’t contributing to the forecast.
  4. D) simplify the model’s assumptions.

 

3

 

 

 

26) An ensemble forecast is produced by:

  1. A) running one model several times with slightly different initial conditions.
  2. B) combining the results from several different numerical models into one forecast.
  3. C) slightly altering the underlying assumptions of a numerical model each time it is run.
  4. D) collecting the professional opinions of a group of meteorologists.

 

3

 

 

 

27) ________ predict(s) that future weather will be the same as the present weather conditions.

  1. A) The analog method
  2. B) Persistence forecasts
  3. C) Trend forecasting
  4. D) Nowcasting

 

28) Successful short term forecasts (a few hours) can often be made using this method of prediction.

  1. A) analog forecasting
  2. B) climatological forecasting
  3. C) upper-wave forecasting
  4. D) probability forecasting
  5. E) persistence forecasting

 

4

 

 

29) The current conditions in your location are sunny with a temperature of 85°F. Based on these observations, you forecast that in a few hours, it will be sunny with a temperature in the mid 80s. What kind of forecast have you issued?

  1. A) a numerical forecast
  2. B) a persistence forecast
  3. C) a statistical forecast
  4. D) an analog forecast

 

4

 

 

 

30) A farmer is trying to determine which kind of seed he should plant. He consults a(n) ________ in order to determine the length of his growing season and average rainfall in order to make the best choice.

  1. A) analog forecast
  2. B) persistence forecast
  3. C) climatological forecast
  4. D) numerical forecast

 

5

 

 

 

31) You’d like to plan a Christmas day flight to visit family. You have several months lead time. How might you determine the probability of snowfall occurring and potentially interfering with your travel plans?

  1. A) Consult a climatological forecast.
  2. B) Watch the Weather Channel to hear the latest numerical forecast.
  3. C) Refer to the analog forecast published by the NWS.
  4. D) Roll the dice – no one can forecast that.

 

5

 

 

 

32) In numerical weather prediction, what is the hydrostatic equation used to describe?

  1. A) changes in atmospheric density
  2. B) vertical motion in the atmosphere
  3. C) the impacts of changing temperature
  4. D) horizontal advection

 

6

 

 

33) What is a typical time-step for a numerical weather model?

  1. A) 30 seconds
  2. B) 5 minutes
  3. C) 30 minutes
  4. D) 1 hour

 

6

 

 

 

34) Which technique is used that attempts to match current conditions with similar well established patterns from the past?

  1. A) persistence forecasting
  2. B) trend forecasting
  3. C) isotachs method
  4. D) analog method

 

7

 

 

 

35) ________ assume(s) that the weather occurring upstream will persist and move on to affect the area in its path.

  1. A) Trend forecasting
  2. B) Nowcasting
  3. C) The analog method
  4. D) Persistence forecasts

 

7

 

 

 

36) Why is the pattern of upper-level winds an important part of the forecasting process?

  1. A) Rainfall at the surface corresponds to westerly flow aloft.
  2. B) It strongly influences the development of surface storms.
  3. C) Surface pressure controls the wind aloft.
  4. D) Jet streams aloft always lead to storms.

 

7

 

 

 

37) Upper-air maps are commonly drawn for all the following pressures, except:

  1. A) 500 millibars.
  2. B) 700 millibars.
  3. C) 200 millibars.
  4. D) 850 millibars.
  5. E) 1000 millibars.

 

7

 

 

38) Nowcasting:

  1. A) is not very useful for predicting thunderstorms and tornadoes.
  2. B) makes extensive use of radar and geostationary satellites.
  3. C) makes little use of numerical data.
  4. D) is primarily used for making long-range forecasts for large regions.

 

7

 

 

 

39) The winds at the ________ level are the steering mechanism for air mass thunderstorms.

  1. A) 850-mb
  2. B) 700-mb
  3. C) 500-mb
  4. D) 300-mb

 

40) One of the primary uses for a 500-mb map is:

  1. A) to estimate surface air temperature.
  2. B) to predict surface wind speeds.
  3. C) to determine the speed and direction of motion for a mid-latitude cyclone.
  4. D) to monitor the position of the polar jet stream.

 

9

 

 

 

41) Airflow aloft is often illustrated with ________, lines of equal wind speed.

  1. A) isotachs
  2. B) isobars
  3. C) isovels
  4. D) isometers

 

9

 

 

 

42) Which of the following upper air maps is most useful for observing the details of the polar jet stream?

  1. A) 1000-mb map
  2. B) 850-mb map
  3. C) 500-mb map
  4. D) 300-mb map

 

9

 

 

43) When the upper-air exhibits a general ________ flow, cyclonic systems tend to move through quickly, creating rapidly changing weather conditions.

  1. A) West to South
  2. B) North to South
  3. C) North to East
  4. D) West to East

 

44) When upper-air flow produces large-amplitude troughs and a general ________ flow, cold air moves southward and cyclonic activity dominates the weather.

  1. A) West to South
  2. B) North to South
  3. C) West to East
  4. D) North to East

 

1

 

 

 

45) A wave pattern in the upper-level winds at middle latitudes provides for:

  1. A) colder temperatures at all latitudes.
  2. B) warm air moving south.
  3. C) cold air moving south.
  4. D) decreased snowfall.

 

1

 

 

 

46) The path that cyclonic storms follow (storm track) is usually farther to the south during:

  1. A) nighttime.
  2. B) autumn.
  3. C) summer.
  4. D) winter.

 

1

 

 

 

47) Long range forecasts (monthly or seasonal) include predictions of:

  1. A) pressure.
  2. B) wind.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) precipitation.
  5. E) temperature and precipitation.

 

48) ________ weather forecasting is an area that relies heavily on statistical averages obtained from past weather events (climatic data).

  1. A) Numerical
  2. B) Ensemble
  3. C) Persistence
  4. D) Long range

 

3

 

 

 

49) In determining the occurrence of precipitation, the NWS forecasts are correct more than ________ percent of the time.

  1. A) 10
  2. B) 30
  3. C) 50
  4. D) 80

 

4

 

 

 

50) The accuracy of day-to-day weather forecasts for periods beyond ________ day(s) is relatively unreliable.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 7

 

5

 

 

 

51) These satellites circle the earth in a north-to-south direction, and obtain images of the entire Earth twice a day by drifting about 15 degrees westward over the earth’s surface during each orbit.

  1. A) Automated Surface Observing Systems
  2. B) Polar satellites
  3. C) Geostationary satellites
  4. D) Doppler satellites

 

52) Meteorology entered the space age on April 1, ________, when the first weather satellite was launched into space.

  1. A) 1920
  2. B) 1960
  3. C) 1945
  4. D) 1980

 

6

 

 

 

53) These satellites were placed in orbit over the equator and remain fixed over a point on Earth because they keep pace with the earth’s rate of rotation.

  1. A) Automated Surface Observing Systems
  2. B) Polar Satellites
  3. C) Geostationary satellites
  4. D) Doppler Satellites

 

7

 

 

 

54) Why are some satellites described as being stationary?

  1. A) Their orbital motion matches the earth’s rotation.
  2. B) They orbit over the earth’s poles.
  3. C) They have no orbital motion.
  4. D) They can only observe stationary weather systems.
  5. E) Their altitude never changes.

 

7

 

 

 

55) These types of images are views of the earth the way an astronaut would see our planet from space.

  1. A) infrared images
  2. B) visible images
  3. C) Moon images
  4. D) water vapor images

 

56) Infrared images provide a way to determine which clouds are more likely to produce what?

  1. A) humidity
  2. B) drought
  3. C) precipitation
  4. D) wind

 

8

 

 

57) How can a satellite “see” water vapor in the atmosphere?

  1. A) The satellite is capable of sensing the wavelength of radiation typically emitted by water vapor.
  2. B) It can’t see vapor — it can only identify places where vapor is condensing.
  3. C) It estimates vapor based on the temperature of the atmosphere.
  4. D) It measures solar radiation reflecting off of the water vapor.

 

9

 

 

 

58) According to the Federal Emergency Management Agency, 20 percent of all declared emergencies are weather related.

 

7

 

 

 

59) Weather forecasters have the primary responsibility for making synoptic charts.

 

8

 

 

 

60) Only 50 nations are involved in the World Meteorological Organization.

 

9

 

 

 

61) Sharing of weather data among nations around the world is very limited.

 

9

 

 

62) Satellites have made ground-based weather stations almost obsolete.

 

9

 

 

 

63) One of the major problems of global weather forecasting is the lack of cooperation between major world powers.

 

9

 

 

64) The measured data written on a synoptic chart is data that was all measured at the same time.

 

0

 

 

 

65) Oceans are less likely than land masses to be monitored for weather conditions.

 

0

 

 

 

66) Until the late 1950s, synoptic weather forecasting with hand-drawn charts was the primary basis for making weather predictions.

 

1

 

 

 

67) Isotherms are lines representing equal values of solar radiation.

 

1

 

 

 

68) Synoptic weather forecasting was developed before numerical weather prediction.

 

1

 

 

 

69) Wind arrows generally back (turn counterclockwise) across a frontal zone.

 

2

 

 

 

70) Clouds and precipitation patterns are often clues to the position of a front.

 

2

 

 

 

71) Observing and forecasting small, short lived weather events (such as a thunderstorm) is strongly dependent on radar.

 

4

 

 

72) Statistical methods are most commonly used to predict one aspect of the weather.

 

5

 

 

 

73) Despite advances in computer technology, numerical weather prediction has advanced little since 1960.

 

6

 

 

 

74) Nowcasting is heavily dependent on weather radar and geostationary satellites.

 

7

 

 

 

75) Smaller north-south temperature contrasts are associated with slower jet stream flow.

 

1

 

 

 

76) Larger north-south temperature contrasts occur in summer.

 

1

 

 

 

77) The polar jet stream migrates southward in winter and northward in summer.

 

1

 

 

 

78) The jet stream experiences stronger flow in the winter than summer.

 

1

 

 

 

79) Pacific storms move toward Alaska more during the cold months than the warm months.

 

1

 

 

80) Ocean surface-temperature patterns may influence temperature and precipitation patterns around the globe.

 

3

 

 

 

81) Long-range forecasts estimate temperature and precipitation only.

 

3

 

 

 

82) In order to demonstrate true skill, a forecast must do a better job than a climate-based prediction.

 

4

 

 

 

83) Forecast accuracy is broken down into the three categories: Short-range, medium-range, and climatic-range.

 

5

 

 

 

84) The TIROS 1 was the first weather satellite launched into space.

 

6

 

 

 

85) All satellites have the disadvantage that their orbits place them very far (over 20,000 miles) above the earth.

 

6

 

 

 

86) Geostationary satellites are usually centered over one pole.

 

7

 

 

 

87) Infrared images are obtained from radiation emitted from objects.

 

8

 

 

88) Satellites can only provide photographs; no measurements of properties such as temperature are possible.

 

8

 

 

 

89) Infrared imagery, like visible imagery, can only detect the presence of clouds during the day.

 

9

 

 

 

90) This type of weather forecasting uses physical models of the atmosphere: ________.

 

 

91) List three characteristics that are used to identify the location of a front on a synoptic weather chart.

 

 

 

92) The gas laws are applied in this method of weather prediction: ________.

 

 

93) In this process a search is made for analogous past weather records: ________.

 

 

 

94) Long-range forecasting employs this method: ________.

 

 

 

95) What type of image allows meteorologists to distinguish between thick cold clouds and thin warm clouds?

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 13   Air Pollution

 

1) Which of the following is a natural source of pollutants NOT accentuated by humans?

  1. A) pollens
  2. B) dust
  3. C) bacteria
  4. D) fire
  5. E) viruses

 

7

 

 

 

2) More than 4000 premature deaths occur in the U.S. every year due to:

  1. A) exposure to nuclear radiation.
  2. B) exposure to acid rain.
  3. C) inhalation of particulate matter.
  4. D) elevated ozone concentrations.

 

7

 

 

 

3) A reduction in visibility due to the absorption and scattering of light by air pollution is called:

  1. A) haze.
  2. B) smog.
  3. C) photochemical fog.
  4. D) particulate ocular reduction.

 

8

 

 

 

4) In his 1880 speech, what idea did Robert Ingersoll promote?

  1. A) Limiting air pollution emitted from factories of the time.
  2. B) Industrial smoke was a sign of prosperity and was thus highly desirable.
  3. C) People should not be permitted to burn coal to heat their homes.
  4. D) Industrial manufacturing should be confined to specific districts to reduce air pollution.

 

5) This category of air pollutants is emitted directly from identifiable sources and pollutes the air immediately upon being emitted.

  1. A) quaternary pollutants
  2. B) tertiary pollutants
  3. C) primary pollutants
  4. D) secondary pollutants

 

9

 

 

 

6) This source of primary pollutants is the greatest contributor to air pollution.

  1. A) solid waste disposal
  2. B) transportation
  3. C) industrial processes
  4. D) stationary source fuel combustion

 

9

 

 

 

7) This is the general term used for a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air.

  1. A) particulate matter
  2. B) volatile organic compounds
  3. C) acid precipitation
  4. D) smog

 

9

 

 

 

8) ________ are usually the most obvious form of air pollution because they reduce visibility and leave deposits of dirt on the surfaces with which they come in contact.

  1. A) Volatile organics
  2. B) Particulates
  3. C) Sulfur oxides
  4. D) Nitrogen oxides

 

9) Which one of the source categories listed below is responsible for the most pollution?

  1. A) solid waste disposal
  2. B) transportation
  3. C) industrial processes
  4. D) electric utilities

 

9

 

 

10) Particulate matter is categorized according to:

  1. A) its size.
  2. B) its source.
  3. C) its chemical components.
  4. D) its toxicity.

 

9

 

 

 

11) The most tragic air pollution episode occurred in London in 1952. More than ________ people died as a result of the five-day ordeal.

  1. A) 100
  2. B) 400
  3. C) 2000
  4. D) 4000

 

0

 

 

 

12) All of the following contributed to the severity of London’s Great Smog of 1952 EXCEPT:

  1. A) unusually cold weather
  2. B) a passing cyclonic storm
  3. C) widespread coal burning
  4. D) a persistent temperature inversion

 

0

 

 

13) Important sources of ________ include power plants, smelters, petroleum refineries, and pulp and paper mills.

  1. A) sulfur dioxide
  2. B) particulate matter
  3. C) nitrogen oxides
  4. D) hydrocarbons

 

1

 

 

 

14) Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?

  1. A) volatile organics
  2. B) particulate matter
  3. C) carbon monoxide
  4. D) sulfuric acid

 

1

 

 

15) ________ encompass a wide array of solid, liquid, and gaseous substances that are composed exclusively of hydrogen and carbon.

  1. A) Lead
  2. B) Nitrogen oxides
  3. C) Carbon monoxides
  4. D) Volatile organic compounds

 

2

 

 

 

16) This is the most abundant primary pollutant.

  1. A) lead
  2. B) sulfur dioxide
  3. C) carbon monoxide
  4. D) nitrogen oxide

 

2

 

 

 

17) The single greatest air pollutant by weight is:

  1. A) carbon monoxide.
  2. B) nitrogen oxides.
  3. C) volatile organics.
  4. D) particulate matter.

 

2

 

 

 

18) The greatest reduction in solar radiation receipt in polluted cities will occur:

  1. A) during the spring in low-latitude cities.
  2. B) during the winter in high-latitude cities.
  3. C) during the summer in middle-latitude cities.
  4. D) equally in cities at every latitude.

 

2

 

 

 

19) Volatile organic compounds:

  1. A) can occur naturally.
  2. B) are created primarily by the burning of coal.
  3. C) consist of carbon, nitrogen and oxygen.
  4. D) pose the greatest danger of all the primary pollutants.

 

2

 

 

20) Smog is an example of a ________ pollutant.

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) quaternary
  4. D) tertiary

 

21) Exposure to this primary pollutant is associated with damage to the nervous systems of young children.

  1. A) nitrogen oxide
  2. B) sulfur dioxide
  3. C) lead
  4. D) carbon monoxide

 

3

 

 

 

22) Airborne lead

  1. A) can cause damage to many organs.
  2. B) is now banned world-wide as a gasoline additive.
  3. C) has risen dramatically in amount in the United States.

 

3

 

 

 

23) Many reactions that produce secondary pollutants are triggered by ________ and are called photochemical reactions.

  1. A) strong sunlight
  2. B) clouds
  3. C) wind
  4. D) pressure

 

4

 

 

 

24) Although ________ forms naturally in the stratosphere, when produced near the surface it is considered a pollutant with many negative effects.

  1. A) smog
  2. B) ozone
  3. C) nitric acid
  4. D) sulfur dioxide

 

25) Which one of the following is NOT a primary pollutant?

  1. A) carbon monoxide
  2. B) ozone
  3. C) nitrogen dioxide
  4. D) sulfur dioxide

 

4

 

 

 

26) Which one of the following is a major component of photochemical smog?

  1. A) ozone
  2. B) lead
  3. C) sulfur dioxide
  4. D) soot

 

4

 

 

 

27) A “London-type” smog is characterized by:

  1. A) the combination of smoke and fog on very humid days.
  2. B) the photochemical production of pollutants.
  3. C) high concentrations of fine particulate matter on sunny days.
  4. D) low humidity and high levels of industrial pollution.

 

4

 

 

 

28) During what part of the day should ozone levels in an urban environment be highest?

  1. A) mid-afternoon
  2. B) early morning (6 A.M.)
  3. C) late morning (11 A.M.)
  4. D) night (midnight)

 

29) What triggers a photochemical reaction?

  1. A) high humidity
  2. B) turbulent winds
  3. C) sunlight
  4. D) ice particles

 

4

 

 

30) Ozone:

  1. A) is a minor component of smog.
  2. B) increases crop yields.
  3. C) forms at a faster rate at night than in the day.
  4. D) is a result of photochemical reactions at the surface.

 

4

 

 

 

31) In the 1970s, the federal Clean Air Act made major strides in reducing air pollution and created this.

  1. A) the Sierra Club
  2. B) the Energy Protection Agency
  3. C) the Environmental Protection Agency
  4. D) the Air Pollution Protection Agency

 

5

 

 

 

32) ________ pollutant levels cause gradual deterioration of a variety of physiological functions over a span of years.

  1. A) Chronic
  2. B) Major
  3. C) Critical
  4. D) Acute

 

33) These six pollutants are known as the criteria pollutants and are covered by the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.

  1. A) particulates, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, lead, and ozone
  2. B) particulates, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, lead, VOC’s and smog
  3. C) particulates, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, lead, and VOC’s

 

5

 

 

 

34) The factor involved with air pollution that is most subject to control by man is:

  1. A) stability.
  2. B) wind speed.
  3. C) sources.
  4. D) lapse rates.
  5. E) turbulence.

 

5

 

 

35) Until regulation of air pollution began in the 1950s, the greatest influence on emissions of air pollutants was/were:

  1. A) economic conditions.
  2. B) population growth.
  3. C) macroscale atmospheric changes.
  4. D) both economic conditions and population growth.

 

5

 

 

 

36) Of the primary air pollutants monitored by the EPA, which one is found above recommended levels in more U.S. counties than any other?

  1. A) ozone
  2. B) particulate matter
  3. C) carbon monoxide
  4. D) sulfur dioxide

 

5

 

 

 

37) The standardized indicator used to report daily air quality to the public is called the:

  1. A) Air Pollution Indicator.
  2. B) Criteria Pollutant Summary.
  3. C) Pollution Snapshot.
  4. D) Air Quality Index.

 

6

 

 

 

38) Meteorological conditions are important in air pollution episodes since they

  1. A) control the emission of pollutants.
  2. B) determine the location of sources.
  3. C) determine the amount of dilution.
  4. D) are important sources of pollutants.

 

7

 

 

 

39) The capacity of the atmosphere to disperse and dilute pollutant materials is

  1. A) highly variable and based on the weather.
  2. B) predictable and consistent from day to day.
  3. C) the same in all locations.
  4. D) large and unchanging.

 

7

 

 

40) The dispersion of pollutant material into the atmosphere depends on the wind and the ________ of the air layer.

  1. A) visibility
  2. B) temperature
  3. C) depth
  4. D) pressure
  5. E) stability

 

41) Which of these is LEAST important in determining the level of air pollution from a particular source?

  1. A) stability of the air layer
  2. B) relative humidity at ground level
  3. C) height of stack used
  4. D) amount of turbulent mixing
  5. E) prevailing wind speed and direction

 

7

 

 

 

42) The spreading or dilution of pollutants into the atmosphere is best when winds are:

  1. A) less than 10 km/hr.
  2. B) strong and turbulent.
  3. C) steady.
  4. D) calm.
  5. E) neutral.

 

7

 

 

 

43) Dilution or mixing of air pollutants into the surrounding air is best when:

  1. A) air is very cold.
  2. B) winds are calm to light.
  3. C) relative humidity is high.
  4. D) air is unstable.
  5. E) inversions are present.

 

8

 

 

44) Temperature inversions are associated with:

  1. A) effective dispersal of pollutants.
  2. B) unstable atmospheric conditions.
  3. C) periods of good visibility.
  4. D) a restricted mixing depth.

 

45) The vertical height reached by convective currents in the atmosphere is called:

  1. A) the convective inversion.
  2. B) the mixing depth.
  3. C) vertical transport potential.
  4. D) a temperature inversion.

 

8

 

 

 

46) Inversions represent a hazardous meteorological condition with respect to air pollution because they always bring:

  1. A) turbulent motion.
  2. B) strong winds.
  3. C) reduced oxygen content.
  4. D) a near total lack of mixing.
  5. E) cold temperatures.

 

9

 

 

 

47) Smoke released from a stack into a very stable air mass would tend to:

  1. A) mix both upward and downward.
  2. B) diffuse rapidly in all directions.
  3. C) go almost straight up.
  4. D) spread out horizontally but not mix up or down.
  5. E) mix rapidly downward.

 

9

 

 

 

48) Air pollution is likely to be most severe:

  1. A) when the atmosphere is turbulent.
  2. B) in the spring.
  3. C) near the center of a cyclone.
  4. D) near the center of an anticyclone.
  5. E) along squall lines.

 

49) Assume you live in an urban setting and an inversion is present. Which of these best describes the visibility in your area if the inversion remains for 2 or 3 days?

  1. A) Visibility improves greatly.
  2. B) Visibility gets steadily worse.
  3. C) improves slightly
  4. D) little or no change

 

9

 

 

 

50) The term dry deposition refers to:

  1. A) all pollution created through combustion of fossil fuels.
  2. B) pollutants left behind by evaporating rainfall.
  3. C) pollutants that fall to the ground as part of dust or smoke.
  4. D) pollution that is incorporated into snowflakes through the Bergeron process.

 

0

 

 

 

51) The primary purpose of a smokestack is to:

  1. A) burn off inversion layers.
  2. B) change the lapse rate.
  3. C) reduce the concentration of pollutants at ground level.
  4. D) promote adiabatic cooling of the smoke.

 

1

 

 

 

52) How much more acidic is a substance with a pH of 5 than a substance with a pH of 6?

  1. A) 10 times
  2. B) 30 times
  3. C) 5 times
  4. D) 2 times

 

53) Part of the reason that precipitation is more acidic in the northeastern United States is:

  1. A) local pollution is compounded by pollution drifting in from upwind population centers.
  2. B) many factories are using shorter chimney stacks.
  3. C) the local vegetation influences the acidity of rainwater forming in the region.
  4. D) water vapor contributed by the Great Lakes is naturally more acidic.

 

1

 

 

54) A number of lakes in North America no longer have fish in them. One reason for this is:

  1. A) the hole in the ozone layer has allowed too much UV to penetrate the water.
  2. B) carbon monoxide dissolves in the water and makes it toxic.
  3. C) acid rain falling directly onto fish kills them instantly.
  4. D) acid rain has made the water more acidic, causing it dissolve toxic aluminum from the soil.

 

3

 

 

 

55) Forest fires triggered by lightning are one of many natural sources of air pollution.

 

7

 

 

 

56) Air is never perfectly clean.

 

7

 

 

 

57) There are no natural sources of air pollution.

 

7

 

 

 

58) Until the Industrial Revolution, humans had no significant impact on air pollution.

 

59) Air pollution has only become an important urban problem in the last 75 years.

 

7

 

 

 

60) The single largest source of air pollutants is highway vehicles.

 

9

 

 

 

61) Pollutants emitted directly from identifiable sources are termed primary pollutants.

 

9

 

 

62) During the Great Smog of 1952, visibility at Heathrow Airport remained above 0.5 mile despite the high levels of air pollution.

 

0

 

 

 

63) As many as 12,000 people may have died as a direct or delayed result of the Great Smog of 1952..

 

0

 

 

 

64) Sulfur dioxide does not produce any secondary pollutants.

 

1

 

 

 

65) Volatile organic compounds, a primary pollutant, are also called hydrocarbons.

 

2

 

 

 

66) The largest single air pollutant (in terms of the quantity emitted each year) is carbon monoxide.

 

2

 

 

 

67) The term “smog” originally referred to a mixture of smoke and fog.

 

3

 

 

 

68) Between 1990 and 2009, emissions of the five major primary pollutants rose significantly.

 

3

 

 

 

69) Photochemical reactions can lead to the formation of secondary pollutants.

 

4

 

 

70) Clear sunny days are part of the cause of the air pollution known as smog.

 

4

 

 

 

71) The ozone in smog is unrelated to the ozone in the stratosphere.

 

4

 

 

 

72) Air pollution declined significantly during the 1930s.

 

5

 

 

 

73) The Environmental Protection Agency was created in the mid-1980s.

 

5

 

 

74) Air pollution problems seldom occur when winds are weak or calm.

 

7

 

 

 

75) When air pollution episodes occur they generally result from a dramatic increase in the output of pollutants.

 

7

 

 

 

76) Small mixing depths are associated with stable air.

 

8

 

 

 

77) Generally, the greater the mixing depth, the better the air quality.

 

8

 

 

78) The formation of inversions is unrelated to the terrain of the earth’s surface.

 

9

 

 

 

79) Inversions form most readily on sunny days.

 

9

 

 

 

80) Clear nighttime skies lead to reduced concentrations of pollutants.

 

9

 

 

 

81) Air pollution events are usually associated with low pressure systems.

 

9

 

 

82) Inversions aloft are often developed in association with sinking air that characterizes slow-moving centers of high pressure.

 

9

 

 

 

83) Air pollution problems are most acute when winds are strong and gusty.

 

9

 

 

 

84) The largest single source of materials causing acid rain is residential heating furnaces.

 

0

 

 

 

85) Acid rain can be classified as a type of wet deposition.

 

0

 

 

86) A substance with a pH of 4 is more acidic than a substance with a pH of 3.

 

1

 

 

 

87) Building tall smokestacks may improve local air quality.

 

1

 

 

 

88) Building tall smokestacks may contribute to some air pollution problems.

 

1

 

 

 

89) Rain is naturally somewhat acidic.

 

1

 

 

90) Acid aerosol particles and acid rain have no known direct effect upon human health.

 

2

 

 

 

91) This is a colorless, corrosive gas that originates from burning coal and oil: ________.

 

 

 

92) These are also known as hydrocarbons: ________.

 

 

 

93) This gas has a distinctive reddish-brown color: ________.

 

 

94) The most prominent sources of this colorless, odorless, poisonous gas are motor vehicles: ________.

 

 

 

95) ________ determines the extent to which vertical motions will mix the pollution with cleaner air above surface layers.

 

 

 

96) Inversions aloft are associated with ________ air that characterizes centers of ________ air pressure.

97) Why do you think the winter season contributes to greater air pollution in northern U.S. cities?

 

 

 

98) How does the solar radiation present on a clear day contribute to air pollution? Assume sources of pollutants are present.

 

 

 

99) List two ways in which the wind acts to reduce air pollution.

 

 

 

100) How does the solar radiation on a clear sunny day act to reduce air pollution?

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 14   The Changing Climate

 

1) The climate system consists of the:

  1. A) cryosphere.
  2. B) atmosphere.
  3. C) hydrosphere.
  4. D) just the cryosphere and atmosphere.
  5. E) the cryosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and solid Earth.

 

9

 

 

 

2) The cryosphere consists of

  1. A) ice and snow.
  2. B) rock and soil.
  3. C) plants and animals.
  4. D) air.
  5. E) Antarctica and New Zealand.

 

9

 

 

 

3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the climate system?

  1. A) hydrosphere
  2. B) lithosphere
  3. C) biosphere
  4. D) atmosphere
  5. E) climosphere

 

9

 

 

 

4) Proxy data:

  1. A) provide climate data representing times when instruments were not available to measure them.
  2. B) are difficult to find because they occur only in very limited areas.
  3. C) come quality-controlled instrument records.
  4. D) can only extend the temperature record back an additional 500 years.

 

0

 

 

5) What is the primary goal of a paleoclimatologist?

  1. A) to prove that climate change caused the dinosaur mass extinction
  2. B) to reconstruct past climates
  3. C) to study the impacts of volcanic eruptions on climate
  4. D) to find explanations for current global climate change

 

0

 

 

 

6) Past climate data measured with instruments extends back about

  1. A) 30 yrs.
  2. B) 200 yrs.
  3. C) 100 yrs.
  4. D) 500 yrs.

 

0

 

 

 

7) Oxygen isotope measurements are made from an analysis of:

  1. A) ocean water samples.
  2. B) cores from old trees.
  3. C) ice sheets.
  4. D) packrat middens.

 

1

 

 

 

8) Oxygen isotope analysis measures the:

  1. A) oxygen content of sediment.
  2. B) rate of oxygen depletion.
  3. C) amount of radioactivity due to oxygen.
  4. D) total oxygen present.
  5. E) proportion of 2 different types of oxygen atoms.

 

1

 

 

 

9) Sea floor sediments provide useful climate data because they contain:

  1. A) evidence of plate tectonics.
  2. B) remains of living organisms.
  3. C) material from Earth’s mantle.
  4. D) meteorite debris.

 

1

 

 

10) Oxygen-isotope analysis:

  1. A) has been shown to be of little or no use in the study of past climatic changes.
  2. B) makes use of the fact that as temperatures decreases, the amount of 18O found in precipitation increases.
  3. C) relies on the fact that 16O evaporates from the ocean more readily than 18
  4. D) is very simple.

 

1

 

 

 

11) Oxygen-isotope analysis is used on all of the following sources of proxy data EXCEPT:

  1. A) tree rings.
  2. B) coral reefs.
  3. C) glacial ice.
  4. D) sea floor sediments.

 

1

 

 

 

12) Newly formed glacial ice has ________ 18O during warm eras and ________ 18O during cold eras.

  1. A) more; less
  2. B) less; more
  3. C) stable; variable
  4. D) variable; stable

 

2

 

 

 

13) What property of glacial ice helps climatologists to reconstruct the CO2 concentrations of the atmosphere during the past?

  1. A) The ratio of oxygen isotopes in the ice.
  2. B) The contents of the air bubbles trapped in the ice.
  3. C) The amount of volcanic ash frozen in the ice.
  4. D) The amount of 16O in the water.

 

2

 

 

14) You find an old tree stump in a forest and would like to use it for tree-ring analysis, but you don’t know when the tree was cut down. The best way to establish dates for the analysis is to:

  1. A) compare patterns in the tree rings to ring chronologies sampled from nearby trees on known dates.
  2. B) submit the tree stump to carbon-14 dating analysis.
  3. C) estimate the age of the tree stump based on the level of decay it has experienced.
  4. D) assign small rings to years of known droughts.

 

3

 

 

 

15) The part of a plant that is best preserved and can most easily be used for climate reconstruction is:

  1. A) the leaf vein.
  2. B) the pollen.
  3. C) the root structure.
  4. D) the flower.

 

3

 

 

 

16) Corals can provide proxy data through the ________ that they extract from seawater while growing.

  1. A) methane
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) aluminum
  4. D) calcium carbonate

 

4

 

 

 

17) The length of time that a volcanic eruption impacts the climate is largely determined by:

  1. A) the amount of water evaporated.
  2. B) how much ash is emitted.
  3. C) whether the ash or gas reaches the stratosphere.
  4. D) how much gas is emitted.
  5. E) the explosive force of the eruption.

 

5

 

 

18) Volcanic eruptions can act as agents for climate change since they:

  1. A) increase the numbers of cyclones.
  2. B) increase the amount of evaporation.
  3. C) cause small changes in the earth’s tilt.
  4. D) reduce the solar energy at Earth’s surface.
  5. E) release large amounts of heat.

 

5

 

 

 

19) The most likely explanation for evidence of glacial activity in places such as Africa and Australia is:

  1. A) global warming.
  2. B) ozone depletion.
  3. C) volcanic activity.
  4. D) oxygen isotope changes.
  5. E) plate tectonics.

 

5

 

 

 

20) Plate tectonics (continental drift):

  1. A) may help us better understand the cause of the Ice Age.
  2. B) is probably responsible for some climatic changes that occur on a time scale of thousands of years.
  3. C) may be a key factor in explaining the cooling trend since the 1940s.

 

5

 

 

 

21) The large plates that make up the outer portion of the earth move approximately a few ________ per year.

  1. A) micrometers
  2. B) millimeters
  3. C) centimeters
  4. D) kilometers
  5. E) meters

 

5

 

 

22) When did the supercontinent Pangaea exist?

  1. A) 1 billion years ago
  2. B) 4.2 billion years ago
  3. C) 300 million years ago
  4. D) 100,000 years ago

 

5

 

 

 

23) If a volcanic eruption produces a climate impact that lasts for a year or longer, the most likely culprit is:

  1. A) ash suspended in the atmosphere.
  2. B) the state of the climate at the time of the eruption.
  3. C) aerosols produced by sulfur dioxide emitted from the volcano.
  4. D) a high volume of debris ejected during the eruption.

 

6

 

 

 

24) The volcano that caused “the year without a summer” was:

  1. A) Fuji.
  2. B) Mt. St. Helens.
  3. C) Tambora.
  4. D) Krakatoa.
  5. E) Mt. Pinatubo.

 

6

 

 

 

25) Compared to climate changes due to plate tectonics and astronomical causes, the changes due to volcanic eruptions are:

  1. A) very short.
  2. B) much larger.
  3. C) longer.
  4. D) of equal duration.

 

7

 

 

 

26) The person who first developed and strongly advocated the astronomical theory was:

  1. A) Thomas Schmidlin.
  2. B) Randall Cerveny.
  3. C) Stanley Changnon.
  4. D) Edward Tarbuck.
  5. E) Milutin Milankovitch.

 

7

 

 

27) What was the name of the volcano that erupted in 1991 in the Phillipines?

  1. A) Tambora
  2. B) Pinatubo
  3. C) El Chichon
  4. D) Mt. St. Helens

 

7

 

 

 

28) Variations in the shape of the earth’s orbit:

  1. A) have a cycle of about three million years.
  2. B) have a cycle of about 100,000 years.
  3. C) will eventually lead to the earth having a perfectly circular orbit.
  4. D) are related to changes in sunspot activity on the surface of the Sun.

 

29) At what star does the North Pole point at the opposite extreme from its current position?

  1. A) Polaris
  2. B) Alpha Centuri
  3. C) Milky Way
  4. D) Vega

 

8

 

 

 

30) What is the current axial tilt of the earth?

  1. A) 23.5 degrees
  2. B) 21.5 degrees
  3. C) 24 degrees
  4. D) 45 degrees

 

8

 

 

 

31) Astronomical causes of climate change occur with cycles of:

  1. A) 1 – 5 million yrs.
  2. B) 20,000 yrs.
  3. C) 450,000 yrs.
  4. D) 100 million yrs.
  5. E) 26,000 – 100,000 yrs.

 

8

 

 

32) The eccentricity portion of Milankovitch’s astronomical theory refers to:

  1. A) changes in the tilt of Earth’s axis.
  2. B) the unpredictability of Earth’s weather.
  3. C) changes in the rate of Earth’s rotation.
  4. D) variations in the energy emitted by the Sun.
  5. E) changes in the shape of Earth’s orbit.

 

33) Which of the following is NOT associated with the astronomical theory of climate change?

  1. A) precession
  2. B) eccentricity
  3. C) obliquity
  4. D) lunar phases

 

8

 

 

 

34) Which one of the following statements is not related to the astronomical theory of climatic change?

  1. A) variations in the shape of the earth’s orbit
  2. B) changes in the angle that the earth’s axis makes with the plane of the ecliptic
  3. C) wobbling of the earth’s axis
  4. D) variations in solar output
  5. E) distance variations between the earth and the Sun

 

8

 

 

 

35) The Milankovitch cycles cannot entirely explain recent global warming trends because:

  1. A) they operate on a very long time scale and cannot address shorter term cycles.
  2. B) they were disproved in the 1980s.
  3. C) they address cycles in precipitation only.
  4. D) no data have been found to support their influence on Earth’s climate.

 

8

 

 

 

36) Which association is NOT correct?

  1. A) obliquity — 41,000 years
  2. B) eccentricity — 100,000 years
  3. C) precession — 13,000 years

 

37) If the tilt of the earth’s axis changes, how does this affect the temperature change across the seasons?

  1. A) no consistent relation exists
  2. B) more tilt, smaller seasonal change
  3. C) less tilt, smaller seasonal change
  4. D) less tilt, larger seasonal change

 

8

 

 

 

38) Requirements for an ice age on Earth include:

  1. A) smaller obliquity angle.
  2. B) a weaker Sun.
  3. C) larger obliquity angle.
  4. D) continents located at high latitudes.
  5. E) continents located at low latitudes.

 

9

 

 

 

39) We have not yet established the impact of solar variability on the Earth’s climate system because:

  1. A) we have no way of measuring solar variability directly.
  2. B) satellites have not yet been around long enough to provide a data set of adequate length.
  3. C) most scientists now agree that solar output is constant and does not vary.
  4. D) it is not a legitimate enough theory to gain much attention from the scientific community.

 

9

 

 

 

40) Sunspot activity tends to follow a cycle of roughly:

  1. A) 500 years.
  2. B) 100 years.
  3. C) 30 years.
  4. D) 11 years.
  5. E) 26,000 years.

 

41) Measured variations in the Sun’s emission of radiation and observed changes in the earth’s climate:

  1. A) have not been clearly linked.
  2. B) happen on an 11-year cycle.
  3. C) happen on a 22-year cycle.
  4. D) are well understood.

 

0

 

 

 

42) Extensive tree ring research indicates that the 22-year sunspot cycle may be related to:

  1. A) warm periods in northern Europe.
  2. B) rainy episodes in North Africa.
  3. C) drought in the western United States.
  4. D) El Niño.

 

0

 

 

 

43) In what way were humans influencing climate prior to the Industrial Revolution?

  1. A) gathering wood for individual cooking fires
  2. B) releasing CO2 by burning large quantities of coal
  3. C) hunting and gathering excessively
  4. D) alteration of ground cover for grazing and agriculture

 

1

 

 

 

44) Which of these is the most important cause of the increase in atmospheric CO2?

  1. A) decaying vegetation
  2. B) burning of coal and petroleum
  3. C) wetlands and swamps
  4. D) cattle
  5. E) deforestation

 

45) The atmosphere’s CO2 content is rising. Which one of the following is a significant contributor to this increase?

  1. A) refrigerant leakage
  2. B) rice paddies
  3. C) deforestation
  4. D) aerosol spray cans

 

2

 

 

46) The combustion of coal and oil is a major source of which greenhouse gas?

  1. A) ozone
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) CFCs
  4. D) methane

 

2

 

 

 

47) Which of the following is a possible consequence of a greenhouse warming?

  1. A) sea-level rise
  2. B) increase in sea ice
  3. C) a decrease in global mean precipitation
  4. D) lower frequency of hurricanes

 

2

 

 

 

48) Which regions on Earth have displayed the greatest temperature anomalies in 2010 (based on the 1951-1980 average)?

  1. A) the oceans
  2. B) the subtropics
  3. C) the high latitudes
  4. D) All regions have warmed equally.

 

3

 

 

 

49) Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

  1. A) carbon
  2. B) carbon monoxide
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) nitrous oxide

 

4

 

 

 

50) Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

  1. A) methane
  2. B) CFCs
  3. C) water vapor
  4. D) argon
  5. E) carbon dioxide

 

4

 

 

51) Which of the following gases may be contributing to a greenhouse warming?

  1. A) hydrogen
  2. B) methane
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) carbon monoxide

 

4

 

 

 

52) Methane is naturally produced by bacteria in ________ environments.

  1. A) anaerobic
  2. B) high pressure
  3. C) very cold
  4. D) isotopic

 

5

 

 

 

53) The term anaerobic means:

  1. A) highly acidic.
  2. B) without air (or oxygen).
  3. C) without motion.
  4. D) under extreme pressure.

 

5

 

 

 

54) A major part of the greenhouse effect is that it involves the absorption of the earth’s outgoing radiation by atmospheric gases. What component is most important in this absorption?

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) nitrogen
  3. C) carbon dioxide
  4. D) water vapor

 

6

 

 

 

55) Warming temperatures melt ice cover, exposing a darker surface that absorbs more solar radiation. In response, the air warms even further. This is an example of:

  1. A) a stable-feedback mechanism.
  2. B) a negative feedback mechanism.
  3. C) a positive feedback mechanism.
  4. D) a variable-feedback mechanism.

 

6

 

 

56) It is likely that an increase in global temperature would result in an increase in cloud cover. Which of the following statements BEST describes the total impact of additional clouds on the Earth system?

  1. A) Clouds provide an exclusively negative-feedback response to warming.
  2. B) Clouds provide an exclusively positive-feedback response to warming.
  3. C) Clouds provide both positive-feedback and negative-feedback responses to warming.
  4. D) Clouds provide neither positive-feedback nor negative feedback responses to warming.

 

6

 

 

 

57) The acronym GCM stands for:

  1. A) general circulation model.
  2. B) global climate model.
  3. C) greater circulation mode.
  4. D) general climatological map.

 

7

 

 

 

58) Why are the climate forecasts of GCMs not to be fully trusted?

  1. A) The physics involved are still not fully understood.
  2. B) Underlying assumptions influence the outcome and may not be totally accurate.
  3. C) Researchers often tweak the outcome to match political agendas.
  4. D) They are still not capable of simulating anything but air temperature.

 

7

 

Nat. Geog. Stand:  18: Apply Geography to Interpret Present and Plan for Future

 

59) Sulfur dioxide aerosols:

  1. A) lower cloud albedo.
  2. B) are rarely emitted during volcanic eruptions.
  3. C) can serve as condensation nuclei.
  4. D) do not exist in reality.

 

8

 

 

 

60) Studies have shown that the sea level:

  1. A) has lowered about 10 centimeters over the last 100 years.
  2. B) should drop over the next 100 years.
  3. C) should not change significantly over the next 100 years.
  4. D) has risen at least 10 centimeters over the last 100 years.
  5. E) has not changed measurably over the last 100 years.

 

61) Which of the following is NOT a project effect of global warming for the coming century?

  1. A) a decrease in the areas affected by drought
  2. B) increased risk of landslides and mudslides
  3. C) increased risk of avalanches
  4. D) increase in intense hurricane activity

 

9

 

 

 

62) In addition to sea level rise, oceans respond to increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by:

  1. A) contracting in volume.
  2. B) increasing salinity.
  3. C) becoming increasingly acidic.
  4. D) becoming more alkaline.

 

03

 

 

 

63) During periods when glaciers are extensive, the concentration of 18O in seawater increases.

 

1

 

 

 

64) Studies of ocean-floor sediments are of little use when studying long-term climate change.

 

1

 

 

 

65) When glaciers are growing larger, the concentration of the heavier oxygen isotope in sea water increases.

 

1

 

 

 

66) According to glacial ice records, the Earth was significantly cooler between 10,000 and 40,000 years ago than it is today.

 

2

 

 

 

67) Studies of past climates have shown that climate has varied only on time scales of tens of thousands to millions of years.

 

4

 

 

68) The continents have been in the exact same locations since the earth began.

 

5

 

 

 

69) El Chichon appears to have had a greater impact on atmospheric temperatures than did Mount St. Helens.

 

6

 

 

 

70) Recent studies indicate that the impact on climate of a great explosive volcanic eruption can last for decades.

 

7

 

 

 

71) The best way to estimate the cooling effect of a volcanic eruption is by estimating the volume of material ejected.

 

7

 

 

 

72) The tilt of the earth’s axis varies between 22.1 and 28.5 degrees.

 

8

 

 

 

73) Long-term climate change evidence is in reasonable agreement with predictions from the astronomical theory.

 

74) Recent studies based on the analysis of sea-floor sediments tend to support the astronomical theory.

 

8

 

 

 

75) There is insufficient data to determine with a strong degree of certainty that solar variability affects climate.

 

9

 

 

76) Carbon dioxide is released to the atmosphere as vegetation decays.

 

2

 

 

 

77) Carbon dioxide gas is a strong absorber of solar radiation.

 

2

 

 

 

78) Since the late 1800s, the mean global temperature has risen by about 0.6°C.

 

3

 

 

 

79) The smallest temperature increases due to global warming are expected in the middle latitudes.

 

3

 

 

 

80) It is believed that the temperature rise caused by increased atmospheric carbon dioxide will be greater in the tropics than in the polar regions.

 

81) Recent years have been some of the warmest years measured.

 

3

 

 

 

82) Global warming could lead to a shorter growing season at high latitudes

 

3

 

 

 

83) CO2 concentrations today are not any higher than they have been during past high points over the last 400,000 years.

 

3

 

 

84) Most experts agree that the process of global warming can be reversed within a few years if there is sufficient global cooperation.

 

4

 

 

 

85) The combined influence of CFCs, methane and nitrous oxide as greenhouse gases is insignificant.

 

4

 

 

 

86) Although the carbon dioxide content of our atmosphere has been rising, the outlook is that, in the very near future, the carbon dioxide content will stabilize (stop increasing) and perhaps even decline.

 

4

 

 

 

87) Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas that has displayed increasing concentrations over the last century.

 

4

 

 

88) Global warming may cause changes in Earth’s albedo.

 

6

 

 

 

89) Increased cloudiness as a result of warmer temperatures would be an example of a negative feedback process.

 

6

 

 

 

90) Positive feedback processes are self limiting.

 

6

 

 

91) One possible result of the addition of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere is an increase in cloud cover which, in turn, could partly offset a global temperature increase.

 

6

 

 

 

92) A positive-feedback mechanism tends to produce results that are opposite of the initial change and tend to offset it.

 

6

 

 

 

93) Global warming is not expected to involve changes in rainfall.

 

9

 

 

 

94) Stronger and more numerous hurricanes have been predicted as a possible result of global warming.

 

95) Global warming will cause significant increases in sea level due to the thermal expansion of the ocean’s waters.

 

9

 

 

 

96) List four kinds of evidence that can provide data about past climates.

 

 

 

97) Why is the idea of plate tectonics only considered for climate changes that occur over very long periods?

 

 

 

98) ________ was the volcano that erupted in 1815 and is credited with causing “the year without a summer”.

 

99) Who is credited with developing the modern theory that variations in the earth’s orbit influence climate change?

 

 

 

100) The ________ the tilt of the earth, the smaller the temperature difference between summer and winter.

 

 

 

101) List two ways in which humans likely caused climate changes before the time of the industrial revolution.

 

 

 

102) List four greenhouse gases.

 

 

 

103) Describe two examples of how the warmer temperatures due to increased CO2 in the atmosphere may lead to positive feedback effects.

 

 

 

104) Global warming is obviously associated with temperature increases. List two additional effects that global warming may have upon Earth’s climate.

 

 

 

105) What influence does the reduction in water evaporation noted in the question above have upon temperatures in a city?

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 15   World Climates

 

1) The Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle are examples of locations determined by:

  1. A) measuring systems.
  2. B) astronomy.
  3. C) the Köppen classification system.
  4. D) climate.

 

09

 

 

 

2) The primary factor which determines whether a place will have a dry climate is:

  1. A) its elevation.
  2. B) how much evaporation occurs.
  3. C) whether evaporation exceeds precipitation.
  4. D) its distance to a large water body.

 

09

 

 

 

3) Which pair of elements is the most important in a climatic description?

  1. A) wind and pressure
  2. B) cloud cover and humidity
  3. C) temperature and precipitation
  4. D) precipitation and pressure
  5. E) pressure and temperature

 

09

 

 

 

4) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding classification?

  1. A) The very first climatic classification was devised by Wladimir Köppen.
  2. B) A major goal is order and simplicity.
  3. C) Climatology and biology are the only disciplines that use classification.
  4. D) Boundaries, like those on a map of world climates, should be regarded as fixed.

 

5) The Köppen climate classification system has boundaries defined according to:

  1. A) vegetation patterns.
  2. B) rainfall patterns.
  3. C) solar radiation receipt.
  4. D) average annual cloud cover.

 

09

 

 

 

6) Four of the five major climatic groups listed below have temperature characteristics as their basis. Which one of them does not?

  1. A) A climates
  2. B) B climates
  3. C) C climates
  4. D) D climates
  5. E) E climates

 

09

 

 

 

7) The first known attempt at classifying climates was made by:

  1. A) Galileo.
  2. B) ancient Romans.
  3. C) ancient Greeks.
  4. D) Islamic scholars.
  5. E) the Chinese.

 

09

 

 

 

8) The Köppen classification uses all of the following criteria to classify climates EXCEPT:

  1. A) mean monthly temperature.
  2. B) mean annual precipitation.
  3. C) mean monthly humidity.
  4. D) mean monthly precipitation.
  5. E) All four criteria are required.

 

9) Climates with an average temperature during the coldest month between -3°C and 18°C are part of the ________ climates according to the Köppen climate system.

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D

 

10

 

 

 

10) The latitude of a place is important for its climate since latitude determines:

  1. A) Sun radiation receipt.
  2. B) elevation.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) distance from the Sun.

 

11

 

 

 

11) In general, climate boundaries:

  1. A) cannot be determined with adequate cloud cover data.
  2. B) are difficult to determine.
  3. C) do not shift from year to year.
  4. D) are broad transition zones and not sharp lines.

 

11

 

 

 

12) A perusal of a world climate map shows that similar climates are located:

  1. A) at similar longitudes.
  2. B) at similar elevations.
  3. C) at similar latitudes.
  4. D) on similar continents.

 

13) The most important determinant of temperature overall is:

  1. A) latitude.
  2. B) distribution of land and water.
  3. C) prevailing winds.
  4. D) position of mountains and highlands.
  5. E) ocean currents.

 

12

 

 

 

    (A)                             (B)

14) Of the two climate diagrams shown above, the one that most likely represents a Southern Hemisphere location is:

  1. A) Diagram A only.
  2. B) Diagram B only.
  3. C) both Diagram A and Diagram B
  4. D) neither Diagram A nor Diagram B.

 

15) Regarding the latitude of the two locations represented on the climate diagrams above, what can be said?

  1. A) The location of Diagram A is probably at a lower latitude than the location of Diagram B.
  2. B) The location of Diagram A is probably at a higher latitude than the location of Diagram B.
  3. C) The two locations are probably at a similar latitude.
  4. D) There is not enough information to speculate about the latitude of these locations.

 

13

 

 

 

16) Other than elevation, what can we say for certain that these two locations have in common?

  1. A) They both have dry summers.
  2. B) They both have wet summers.
  3. C) They are both coastal communities.
  4. D) They are both located on inland continents.

 

13

 

 

17) Mountain ranges play an important role in determining climates because of their influence upon:

  1. A) air density.
  2. B) air pressure.
  3. C) solar heating.
  4. D) land and water contrasts.
  5. E) rainfall distribution.

 

13

 

 

 

18) Which of these is closely linked to the location of the major pressure and wind systems?

  1. A) ocean currents
  2. B) location of mountains and highlands
  3. C) evaporation sources
  4. D) rainfall patterns

 

19) The locations of the major pressure and wind systems on the earth:

  1. A) move as they follow the vertical rays of the Sun.
  2. B) are fixed by the poles and equator.
  3. C) are denoted by parallels of latitude.
  4. D) do not change with the seasons.
  5. E) are fixed by astronomy.

 

14

 

 

 

20) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the tropical rain forest?

  1. A) It does not have the same vegetation pattern as a jungle.
  2. B) Plant foliage is relatively sparse on the forest floor.
  3. C) The trees of the tropical rain forest are broadleaf evergreens.
  4. D) It is dominated by just a few different species of trees.

 

14

 

 

 

21) The tropical rain forest is characterized by:

  1. A) deciduous trees.
  2. B) a great diversity of plant species.
  3. C) wet winters and dry summers.
  4. D) the dominance of conifers.
  5. E) a complete lack of sunshine.

 

14

 

 

22) Rainfall would be most reliable (that is, the amount received each year would vary the least) in which of the following climates?

  1. A) Af
  2. B) BS
  3. C) BW
  4. D) Aw

 

23) In a typical Af or Am climate, the minimal seasonal temperature variations are primarily a result of:

  1. A) changes in solar radiation.
  2. B) changes in evaporational cooling rates.
  3. C) changes in vegetation cover.
  4. D) changes in cloud cover.

 

16

 

 

 

24) The high temperatures and precipitation in a tropical rain forest create soils that are:

  1. A) heavily chemically weathered and leached of most nutrients.
  2. B) very fertile and rich in organic matter.
  3. C) capable of supporting years of agricultural demand without irrigation.
  4. D) highly variable in mineral content.

 

17

 

 

 

25) The term laterite refers to:

  1. A) rich tropical soils that sustain multiple types of agriculture.
  2. B) heavily leached tropical soils that become extremely hard when dried.
  3. C) laterally banded minerals found in tropical soils.
  4. D) minerals left behind in soil when rainwater evaporates.

 

17

 

 

 

26) In the wet tropics:

  1. A) the annual temperature range usually exceeds daily temperature ranges.
  2. B) daily and annual temperature ranges are nearly identical.
  3. C) the warmest month is always June or July.
  4. D) daily temperature ranges usually exceed the annual temperature range.

 

17

 

 

27) The vegetation associated with the Aw climate is termed:

  1. A) jungle.
  2. B) savanna.
  3. C) taiga.
  4. D) boreal.

 

18

 

 

 

28) Most places having an Aw climate experience:

  1. A) a winter maximum of precipitation.
  2. B) a summer maximum of precipitation.
  3. C) precipitation distributed evenly throughout the year.
  4. D) it is not possible to generalize about seasonal distribution of rainfall in Aw climates.

 

19

 

 

 

29) In the Aw climates of India and southeast Asia, the alternating wet and dry seasons are caused by:

  1. A) the process of desertification.
  2. B) the shifting location of the subpolar low pressure system.
  3. C) seasonal changes in ocean current patterns.
  4. D) the monsoon.

 

20

 

 

 

30) What is the most important factor controlling the seasonal distribution of precipitation in the Aw (Tropical Wet and Dry) realm?

  1. A) proximity to maritime tropical air masses
  2. B) movement of cyclonic storms
  3. C) migration of the ITCZ
  4. D) the location of mountain ranges
  5. E) the location of ocean currents

 

20

 

 

 

31) Approximately what percentage of the earth’s land surface is desert and steppe?

  1. A) 40 percent
  2. B) 50 percent
  3. C) 20 percent
  4. D) 30 percent
  5. E) 10 percent

 

21

 

 

32) This climate type covers the largest amount of the earth’s land.

  1. A) humid subtropical climate
  2. B) wet tropics
  3. C) dry climate
  4. D) subarctic climate
  5. E) humid continental

 

21

 

 

 

33) The principal cause of desertification is:

  1. A) inappropriate land use such as agricultural clearing and overgrazing.
  2. B) warming global temperatures due to the burning of fossil fuels.
  3. C) extended droughts in untouched rain forest climates.
  4. D) air pollution as rural areas become urbanized.

 

22

 

 

 

34) Deserts such as the Sahara exist because of:

  1. A) the influence of the subtropical highs.
  2. B) extreme continentality.
  3. C) the rain shadow effect of mountains.
  4. D) the desiccating influence of the trade winds.
  5. E) sand.

 

22

 

 

 

35) Two stations (A and B) are classified as BSh (tropical steppe). Both stations are marginal, that is, with just a slight increase in annual rainfall, both places would be classified as humid. Station A is located poleward of a tropical desert while Station B is situated equatorward of the same desert. Which station has the highest rainfall total?

  1. A) Station A
  2. B) Station B
  3. C) The available information is insufficient to make an educated judgment.
  4. D) Both stations should receive about the same amount of rain.

 

23

 

 

36) Subtropical deserts have scanty, erratic precipitation because:

  1. A) storm tracks are especially difficult to predict in this region.
  2. B) there is no humidity to accompany the rising air at these latitudes.
  3. C) they are too far poleward to get rain from the ITCZ and too far equatorward to get rain from cyclonic storms.
  4. D) they are under persistent low pressure.

 

23

 

 

 

37) The climate impacts caused by the shrinking of the Aral Sea are a result of:

  1. A) water supplies to the sea being diverted for agricultural purposes.
  2. B) increased evaporation due to global warming.
  3. C) extended drought in the region brought on by changes in the sunspot cycle.
  4. D) large urban areas polluting the waters of the sea.

 

24

 

 

 

38) The absolute maximum temperature for a given location is determined by:

  1. A) the numerical prediction for the highest possible temperature possible at that location.
  2. B) the highest temperature ever recorded anywhere within that climate type around the world.
  3. C) the statistical prediction of high temperatures expected under the global warming scenario.
  4. D) the highest temperature ever recorded at that station.

 

25

 

 

 

39) How does the average daily high temperature compare to the absolute maximum temperature at a typical subtropical desert location?

  1. A) The average daily high is consistently well below the absolute maximum.
  2. B) The average daily high frequently exceeds the absolute maximum.
  3. C) The average daily high is consistently close to the absolute maximum.
  4. D) There is no consistent relationship between the two.

 

25

 

 

 

40) Which of the following is a characteristic of west coast subtropical deserts?

  1. A) Wintertime snowfall
  2. B) Cool temperatures with low clouds and fog
  3. C) Exceptionally sunny and cloud-free conditions
  4. D) Some of the highest temperatures recorded anywhere in the world

 

26

 

 

41) All of the following are factors in the exceptional dryness of the Atacama Desert EXCEPT:

  1. A) A location deep in the interior of the continent, where moisture cannot reach.
  2. B) A location under a semi-permanent cell of high pressure.
  3. C) The influence of the cold Peru Current, which stabilizes the air.
  4. D) A rain shadow effect caused by the Andes Mountains.

 

26

 

 

 

42) Middle latitude deserts (BWk) and steppes (BSk):

  1. A) are usually located deep in the interior of a continent.
  2. B) are more common in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.
  3. C) are dominated by the subtropical highs.
  4. D) are due to ocean currents.

 

27

 

 

 

43) For a continental area to experience a marine type climate, it must be located

  1. A) at low latitude.
  2. B) on the east side of a continent.
  3. C) at low altitude.
  4. D) at high latitude.
  5. E) on a windward coast.

 

29

 

 

 

44) On which of these continents is the marine west coast climate most extensive?

  1. A) Europe
  2. B) Africa
  3. C) Australia
  4. D) South America
  5. E) North America

 

29

 

 

 

45) The humid subtropical climate:

  1. A) is, in winter, similar to the wet tropics.
  2. B) does not affect the United States.
  3. C) sees significant rainfall throughout the year.
  4. D) has relatively cool summers.
  5. E) is found along the California coast.

 

29

 

 

46) The dry-summer subtropical climate is also called the ________ climate.

  1. A) monsoon
  2. B) Mediterranean
  3. C) taiga
  4. D) savanna
  5. E) nice

 

31

 

 

 

47) What is the only humid climate that has a strong winter precipitation maximum?

  1. A) humid subtropical climate (Cfa)
  2. B) Mediterranean climate (Csa and Csb)
  3. C) humid continental climate (Dfa, Dfb, Dwa, Dwb)
  4. D) tropical wet and dry climate (Aw)
  5. E) tundra climate (ET)

 

31

 

 

 

48) In the humid continental climate, shifts in wind directions sometimes cause rapid and large temperature changes. During what season would this be most pronounced?

  1. A) winter
  2. B) summer
  3. C) This phenomenon is equally characteristic of both summer and winter.

 

33

 

 

 

49) All of the cities described below are in North America and are classified as humid continental climates. Which of the three cities would have the highest annual temperature range?

  1. A) city A, a leeward coastal city at 40 degrees north latitude
  2. B) city C, a city in the interior of the continent at 50 degrees north latitude
  3. C) city B, a city in the interior of the continent at 40 degrees north latitude

 

33

 

 

 

50) All of the cities described below are in North America and are classified as humid continental climates. Which city has the highest total rainfall?

  1. A) city C, a city in the interior of the continent at 50 degrees north latitude
  2. B) city A, a leeward coastal city at 40 degrees north latitude
  3. C) city B, a city in the interior of the continent at 40 degrees north latitude

 

34

 

 

51) All of the cities described below are in North America and are classified as humid continental climates. Which city is intermediate among the three cities in terms of total annual precipitation?

  1. A) city B, a city in the interior of the continent at 40 degrees north latitude
  2. B) city C, a city in the interior of the continent at 50 degrees north latitude
  3. C) city A, a leeward coastal city at 40 degrees north latitude

 

34

 

 

 

52) All of the cities described below are in North America and are classified as humid continental climates. Which city has the smallest variation in rainfall from month to month throughout the year?

  1. A) city B, a city in the interior of the continent at 40 degrees north latitude
  2. B) city A, a leeward coastal city at 40 degrees north latitude
  3. C) city C, a city in the interior of the continent at 50 degrees north latitude

 

34

 

 

 

53) The ________ is also called taiga.

  1. A) subarctic climate
  2. B) tundra climate
  3. C) ice cap climate
  4. D) humid subtropical climate
  5. E) Siberia region

 

34

 

 

 

54) Although the subarctic and tundra climates generally have small precipitation totals, they are considered humid. The reason for this is:

  1. A) these regions have great reserves of underground water that can be used for irrigation.
  2. B) most of the precipitation falls in the winter.
  3. C) permafrost does not let the water escape.
  4. D) since there are no trees present, little or no water is lost because of transpiration.
  5. E) low temperatures mean only a small loss to evaporation.

 

35

 

 

55) Places having ________ typically experience the highest annual temperature range of any climatic type.

  1. A) ice cap climate
  2. B) tundra climate
  3. C) subarctic climate
  4. D) humid subtropical climate
  5. E) temperate climate

 

35

 

 

 

56) The 10°C summer isotherm marks the equatorward limit of the:

  1. A) humid subtropical climate.
  2. B) subarctic climate.
  3. C) ice cap climate.
  4. D) tundra climate.
  5. E) polar ice caps.

 

35

 

 

 

57) Polar climates:

  1. A) lose much solar radiation heat to reflection and ice melting.
  2. B) are found only near the north pole.
  3. C) produce taiga forests.
  4. D) have a small annual temperature range.

 

35

 

 

 

58) ET climates are:

  1. A) covered entirely by coniferous trees.
  2. B) covered entirely by deciduous trees.
  3. C) characterized by permafrost.
  4. D) not found in the Southern hemisphere.

 

36

 

 

 

59) The ________ supports some plant life but no trees.

  1. A) ice cap climate
  2. B) tundra climate
  3. C) humid subtropical climate
  4. D) subarctic climate
  5. E) boreal climate

 

36

 

 

60) The ________ climate has no monthly mean above freezing.

  1. A) ice cap (EF)
  2. B) tundra (ET)
  3. C) subarctic (Dfd)
  4. D) all of the above

 

37

 

 

 

61) ________ climates display a large variation over small areas.

  1. A) Subarctic
  2. B) Tundra
  3. C) Highland
  4. D) Mediterranean

 

38

 

 

 

62) Drought is ________ while aridity is ________.

  1. A) persistent; seasonal
  2. B) temporary; permanent
  3. C) predictable; variable
  4. D) normal; unusual

 

39

 

 

 

63) A climate is classified as “dry” if it receives less than 30 centimeters of rain annually, on average.

 

09

 

 

 

64) The primary control of solar radiation at a place is altitude.

 

11

 

 

 

65) Climatic boundaries, such as those shown on a world map of climate regions, fluctuate very little from year to year and should be regarded as fixed.

 

11

 

 

66) Tropical climates are not found within the continental United States.

 

11

 

 

 

67) London and Vancouver are both found in marine west coasts climates.

 

11

 

 

 

68) At the same latitude, a continental climate is usually more extreme than a marine climate.

 

12

 

 

 

69) Mountains often have rainy climates on their windward slopes and dry climates on their leeward slopes.

 

13

 

 

 

70) The seasonal migration of the equatorial low is not extensive enough to impact precipitation regimes.

 

14

 

 

 

71) The tropical rain forest consists primarily of jungle.

 

16

 

 

 

72) Climate zones near the equator have larger temperature changes from day to night than from month to month.

 

16

 

 

 

73) Laterite soils are widely praised by farmers for their ability to grow a wide variety of crops at high yields.

 

17

 

 

74) You would expect most of the rainfall in the wet tropics (Af and Am) in midmorning.

 

18

 

 

 

75) For many tropical wet and dry (Aw) stations in the Northern Hemisphere, April and May are often warmer than June and July.

 

19

 

 

 

76) Most rainfall in the tropics is frontal in origin.

 

20

 

 

 

77) More of the world’s land area is covered by the wet tropical (Af and Am) climates than any other climate type.

 

21

 

 

 

78) It is not always possible to determine whether a climate is humid or dry by knowing only the precipitation total.

 

22

 

 

 

79) Dry climates are always at low latitudes (within 10° of equator).

 

22

 

 

 

80) In reference to the dry (B) climates, there are usually more years when rainfall totals are above the average than below the average.

 

22

 

 

 

81) Desert locations cool off rapidly at night due to the high specific heat of sand.

 

23

 

 

82) The Aral Sea volume has shrunk by 90% because its waters have been claimed for irrigation.

 

24

 

 

 

83) All dry climates are hot deserts.

 

26

 

 

 

84) In summer the Mediterranean climate is strongly influenced by the dry subtropical high.

 

31

 

 

 

85) The Cs climates are only found near the Mediterranean Sea.

 

31

 

 

 

86) Since the humid continental climate is a land-controlled climate, it is never found bordering the ocean.

 

33

 

 

 

87) There are absolutely no “continental” climates located in Southern hemisphere.

 

33

 

 

 

88) The vegetation associated with the subarctic climate closely resembles the vegetation associated with the tundra climate.

 

34

 

 

 

89) We would normally expect more snow to fall each winter in the subarctic climate than in the humid continental climate.

 

35

 

 

90) About 9% of the earth’s land area is in the category of ice cap climate.

 

38

 

 

 

91) Ice cap climate locations tend to maintain themselves because they have high albedos.

 

38

 

 

 

92) The ice cap climate (EF) is largely confined to the Northern Hemisphere.

 

38

 

 

 

93) Katabatic winds are caused by gravity.

 

38

 

 

 

94) Highland climates are found on all continents.

 

38

 

 

 

95) The Highland climate classification is necessary because of the dramatic variation introduced by rapid changes in elevation.

 

38

 

 

 

96) The best known system for determining world climate patterns is the ________.

 

 

 

97) For Köppen, the ________ best demonstrated the totality of a climate.

 

 

98) Give a brief definition of the term climate.

99) Name four countries where the Mediterranean climate is found.

 

 

 

100) List four of the major controls that determine the climate of a place.

 

 

 

101) Some ecologists think the creation of savanna was not due to climate. What alternative explanation do they give?

 

 

102) Semiarid climates are also called ________ climates.

 

 

 

103) The name applied to the northern coniferous forest and to the climate that encompasses that forest is ________.

 

 

 

104) Permanently frozen subsoil characteristic of the tundra is termed ________.

 

 

The Atmosphere: An Introduction to Meteorology, 12e (Lutgens/Tarbuck/Tasa)

Chapter 16   Optical Phenomena of the Atmosphere

 

1) Reflection, refraction and diffraction all cause light to change its:

  1. A) direction.
  2. B) frequency.
  3. C) intensity.
  4. D) color.

 

49-450, 460

 

 

 

2) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of ________.

  1. A) refraction
  2. B) reflection
  3. C) interference
  4. D) dispersion
  5. E) diffraction

 

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3) Before sunlight interacts with the atmosphere, it is this color.

  1. A) violet
  2. B) white
  3. C) blue
  4. D) yellow
  5. E) red

 

49

 

 

 

4) ________ light allows you to see yourself in a mirror.

  1. A) Reflected
  2. B) Refracted
  3. C) Iridescent
  4. D) Infrared

 

5) The law of ________ states that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

  1. A) refraction
  2. B) reflection
  3. C) interference
  4. D) light

 

49

 

 

 

6) When light encounters a rough surface, the rays will strike the surface at ________ angle(s), which tends to ________ the light rays.

  1. A) one; limit
  2. B) different; limit
  3. C) one; scatter
  4. D) different; scatter

 

49

 

 

 

7) ________ occurs when light that is traveling through a transparent material reaches the opposite surface and is reflected back into the transparent material.

  1. A) External refraction
  2. B) External reflection
  3. C) Internal refraction
  4. D) Internal reflection

 

49

 

 

 

8) The phenomenon that results from the speed of light changing as it passes into different substances is:

  1. A) internal reflection.
  2. B) interference.
  3. C) refraction.
  4. D) reflection.
  5. E) diffraction.

 

50

 

 

9) When light is refracted, the degree of bending is determined in part by:

  1. A) the total change in velocity as the light passes from one medium to the next.
  2. B) the distance the light has traveled from its source.
  3. C) the temperature of the refracting medium.
  4. D) the length of time the light takes to travel through the refracting medium.

 

50

 

 

10) Light bends because of a change in the ________.

  1. A) weight
  2. B) amplitude
  3. C) temperature
  4. D) velocity

 

50

 

 

 

11) The speed of light in space (between the Sun and Earth) is

  1. A) fastest for blue light.
  2. B) fastest for ultraviolet light.
  3. C) fastest for violet light.
  4. D) fastest for red light.
  5. E) same for all colors.

 

50

 

 

 

12) If light enters a transparent medium at a right angle (perpendicular), what change occurs to the light?

  1. A) It is reflected rather than entering the medium.
  2. B) Both its direction and velocity are altered.
  3. C) Only its direction is changed.
  4. D) Only its velocity is changed.

 

51

 

 

 

13) The property of light that causes your arm to look bent when it is submerged in water is called:

  1. A) reflection.
  2. B) refraction.
  3. C) dispersion.
  4. D) interference.
  5. E) diffraction.

 

51

 

 

 

14) When light passes from water into air, it bends:

  1. A) away from the perpendicular.
  2. B) towards the perpendicular.
  3. C) at a 45° angle to the surface of the water.
  4. D) more slowly.

 

51

 

 

15) Earth’s atmosphere is able to gradually refract light rays:

  1. A) because of the changing density of air as you get closer to the surface.
  2. B) only when it is very dry.
  3. C) only when the sun is very high in the sky.
  4. D) because of air pollution that is present.

 

51

 

 

 

16) Which of these atmospheric properties is most important concerning whether mirages will be seen?

  1. A) visibility
  2. B) barometric pressure
  3. C) humidity
  4. D) temperature change with height
  5. E) wind speed

 

52

 

 

 

17) Mirages are caused by:

  1. A) reflection of sunlight.
  2. B) variations in air density.
  3. C) diffraction of sunlight.
  4. D) scattering of sunlight.

 

52

 

 

 

18) The “wet area” or water surface mirage as seen on a highway occurs when:

  1. A) an inversion is present.
  2. B) humidity is high.
  3. C) air pressure is high.
  4. D) temperature lapse rate is large.
  5. E) air density is low.

 

52

 

 

 

19) A layer of very warm, low density air near the surface causes light to:

  1. A) bend in a curve that follows the curvature of the Earth’s surface.
  2. B) bend in a curve opposite that of the Earth.
  3. C) reflect at a higher angle off of the surface.
  4. D) separate into its various color components.

 

52

 

 

20) The desert vision of palm trees reflected in water is usually not reality but an example of:

  1. A) an inferior mirage.
  2. B) looming.
  3. C) a superior mirage.
  4. D) a lunar glory.

 

21) Mirages result from which of these optical processes?

  1. A) diffraction
  2. B) dispersion
  3. C) reflection
  4. D) refraction
  5. E) interference

 

52

 

 

 

22) Mirages:

  1. A) are caused by the reflection of light.
  2. B) appear most often in air with a small temperature gradient.
  3. C) only occur in the desert.
  4. D) are known as superior mirages when an object appears higher than it really is.

 

52

 

 

 

23) Superior mirages appear ________ the observed object, and inferior mirages appear ________.

  1. A) above; below
  2. B) below; above
  3. C) larger than; smaller
  4. D) smaller than; larger

 

52

 

 

 

24) A mirage will appear to be looming when:

  1. A) air is very unstable.
  2. B) there is a strong temperature inversion.
  3. C) there is a strong negative lapse rate.
  4. D) it appear smaller than the actual object.

 

25) A looming mirage appears to be:

  1. A) closer than the actual object.
  2. B) below the actual object.
  3. C) larger than the actual object.
  4. D) suspended above the actual object.

 

52

 

 

 

26) In terms of the process of formation, which one of the following optical phenomena is unlike the other three?

  1. A) sun dog
  2. B) halo
  3. C) mirage
  4. D) solar pillar

 

52, 458

 

 

 

27) ________ occurs when cold air near the surface bends light in the same direction as the Earth’s curvature, causing the object to appear suspended above the horizon.

  1. A) Fata Morgana
  2. B) Towering
  3. C) Looming
  4. D) Aurora borealis

 

52

 

 

 

28) A mirage that changes the apparent size of an object is called:

  1. A) magnification.
  2. B) towering.
  3. C) looming.
  4. D) dispersion.

 

29) If you see large towers or mountains that seem to appear out of thin air, you are probably witnessing:

  1. A) Fata Morgana
  2. B) Looming
  3. C) Inferior mirage
  4. D) Glory

 

53

 

 

30) The highway ahead of you appears “wet” on days when:

  1. A) light is refracted through the windshields of other cars.
  2. B) water vapor in the atmosphere reflects incoming light.
  3. C) light passes through colder air aloft into very warm air near the surface.
  4. D) light is refracted by very cold air near the surface.

 

53

 

 

 

31) A green flash appears when:

  1. A) the sun is just rising or setting.
  2. B) there is a rainstorm in progress.
  3. C) light is refracted around the edges of clouds.
  4. D) there is a temperature inversion present.

 

54

 

 

 

32) Secondary rainbows result from:

  1. A) temperature inversions.
  2. B) more cloud drops being present.
  3. C) drops being very small.
  4. D) multiple reflections inside the raindrops.

 

33) When sunlight interacts with a raindrop to produce a rainbow, how many refractive events occur for each drop?

  1. A) 42
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 2
  4. D) zero

 

55

 

 

 

34) Which of these are the primary optical phenomena causing a rainbow?

  1. A) diffraction, reflection
  2. B) dispersion, interference
  3. C) reflection, interference
  4. D) refraction, reflection
  5. E) reflection, diffraction

 

55

 

 

35) Why do rainbows have a curved shape?

  1. A) Water molecules are circular.
  2. B) The earth is circular.
  3. C) The optical process is circularly symmetrical around the path of the sunlight.
  4. D) The Sun is a spherical body.

 

55

 

 

 

36) The speed of light in water is:

  1. A) fastest for violet light.
  2. B) fastest for ultraviolet light.
  3. C) same for all colors.
  4. D) fastest for red light.
  5. E) fastest for blue light.

 

55

 

37) Rainbows are always seen with the Sun:

  1. A) behind you.
  2. B) ahead of you.
  3. C) to your right.
  4. D) to your left.
  5. E) 42 degrees above the horizon.

 

55

 

 

 

38) Which of these is most important for splitting the Sun’s light into its separate colors?

  1. A) interference
  2. B) internal reflection
  3. C) diffraction
  4. D) reflection
  5. E) refraction

 

55

 

 

39) The ________ is seen most often in morning and late afternoon when the Sun is near the horizon.

  1. A) sun dog
  2. B) halo
  3. C) rainbow
  4. D) glory
  5. E) A, B and C

 

55, 457, 458

 

 

 

40) Which of the following colors is never found in the interior of a rainbow?

  1. A) blue
  2. B) orange
  3. C) red
  4. D) green

 

55

 

 

 

41) A secondary rainbow:

  1. A) is above the primary rainbow.
  2. B) has a broader band of colors.
  3. C) is brighter than the primary rainbow.
  4. D) is formed from ice, not water.
  5. E) is typically seen in the early afternoon, not in the morning.

 

55

 

 

 

42) In order to see a rainbow, an observer must ________ the Sun and ________ the rain.

  1. A) have his back to; have his back to
  2. B) face; face
  3. C) face; have his back to
  4. D) have his back to; face

 

55

 

 

 

43) Red light travels the ________ and is therefore bent the ________.

  1. A) fastest; least
  2. B) slowest; most
  3. C) slowest; least
  4. D) fastest; most

 

55

 

 

44) Violet-colored light travels at the ________ rate and is therefore refracted the ________.

  1. A) slowest; most
  2. B) fastest; least
  3. C) fastest; most
  4. D) slowest; least

 

55

 

 

 

45) The separation of colors by refraction is called:

  1. A) glory.
  2. B) dispersion.
  3. C) towering.
  4. D) looming.

 

55

 

 

 

46) A rainbow in the morning signifies weather approaching because:

  1. A) weather moves from west to east, and you must be between the rising sun and the rain to see the rainbow.
  2. B) a rainbow only occurs when air is very unstable.
  3. C) a rainbow forms during the mature phase of a thunderstorm.
  4. D) you must have the sun between you and the storm to see a rainbow.

 

56

 

 

 

47) The interpretation of a halo around the Moon as a sign of impending rain (or snow) stems from:

  1. A) the geometry of the Moon’s size and distance.
  2. B) a false weather proverb.
  3. C) the association of cirrus clouds with cyclonic storms.
  4. D) halos being present only when clouds are thick.

 

57

 

 

 

48) The ________ is produced by refraction caused by ice crystals.

  1. A) rainbow
  2. B) halo
  3. C) corona
  4. D) glory

 

57

 

 

49) The ________ forms in association with the Moon as well as the Sun.

  1. A) rainbow
  2. B) sun dog
  3. C) glory
  4. D) halo

 

57

 

 

 

50) Halos:

  1. A) are usually red.
  2. B) come in four sizes.
  3. C) are formed by six-sided crystals.
  4. D) are actually invisible.

 

57

 

 

 

51) A 46° halo results instead of a 22° halo when:

  1. A) light passes through the side of an ice crystal but exits through the base or the top.
  2. B) light passes through the side of an ice crystal and exits through the opposite side.
  3. C) light is refracted by liquid water droplets rather than frozen ice crystals.
  4. D) light reflects off of the side of ice crystals rather than passing through them.

 

57

 

 

 

52) The ________ usually appears in conjunction with a halo.

  1. A) glory
  2. B) rainbow
  3. C) corona
  4. D) sun dog

 

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53) Sun dogs create the appearance of:

  1. A) a ring around the sun.
  2. B) two “mock suns” on the outer rim of a halo.
  3. C) a rainbow around the observer’s shadow.
  4. D) shimmering water on the horizon.

 

58

 

 

54) Why don’t halos display the colors of a rainbow?

  1. A) The shape and size of ice crystals are not uniform.
  2. B) Refraction does not occur with a halo.
  3. C) Reflection does not occur with a halo.
  4. D) Ice crystals are not transparent.

 

58

 

 

 

55) Halos result from ice crystals with a ________ orientation, while sun dogs are created by ice crystals with a ________ orientation.

  1. A) horizontal; circular
  2. B) circular; horizontal
  3. C) random; vertical
  4. D) vertical; random

 

58

 

 

 

56) Usually seen near sunrise or sunset in association with falling ice crystals, ________ are vertical shafts of light that appear to extend upward from the Sun..

  1. A) sun pillars
  2. B) sun dogs
  3. C) Fata Morgana
  4. D) perihelion

 

59

 

 

 

57) Which optical process is most important in causing the corona?

  1. A) refraction
  2. B) absorption
  3. C) dispersion
  4. D) reflection
  5. E) diffraction

 

60

 

 

 

58) The ________ is not often seen by earthbound observers.

  1. A) halo
  2. B) sun dog
  3. C) corona
  4. D) glory
  5. E) rainbow

 

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59) If you want to see the glory from the surface of the Earth, which conditions must be met?

  1. A) You must be above a bank of fog or clouds with the sun at your back.
  2. B) You must be near a body of water when the sun is low on the horizon.
  3. C) You must be viewing a halo when the sun is rising.
  4. D) It is impossible to see the glory from the ground; you must be on an airplane.

 

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60) Diffraction occurs when light:

  1. A) strikes ice crystals at a 90° angle.
  2. B) reflects more than twice inside a water droplet.
  3. C) passes through both liquid droplets and ice crystals.
  4. D) passes close to water droplets.

 

60

 

 

 

61) A ________ is one of the few optical phenomena more frequently observed with the moon than the sun.

  1. A) halo
  2. B) corona
  3. C) green flash
  4. D) pillar

 

61

 

 

 

62) Clouds that refract sunlight or moonlight and take on bright violet, green, and pink colors are called:

  1. A) iridescent clouds.
  2. B) the glory.
  3. C) coronal clouds.
  4. D) sprites.

 

61

 

 

 

63) Incident light striking a rough surface is diffused.

 

49

 

 

64) It is the interaction of white sunlight with our atmosphere that creates the numerous optical phenomena that take place in the sky.

 

49

 

 

 

65) The angle of incidence always equals the angle of reflection.

 

49

 

 

 

66) Internal reflection is an important factor in the formation of optical phenomena.

 

49

 

 

 

67) The bending of light by reflection is responsible for such common optical illusions as the apparent displacement of the position of the stars, the Moon, and the Sun.

 

50

 

 

 

68) In the near vacuum of outer space, light typically travels in a straight line at uniform speed.

 

50

 

 

 

69) Light will gradually bend due changes in velocity and density.

 

51

 

 

 

70) We are able to perceive light as bending.

 

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71) Refraction only occurs when light crosses a boundary between different substances.

 

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72) Refraction of light bends it towards the perpendicular of the slower medium.

 

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73) Reflection always involves the passage of a light ray from one substance into another.

 

51

 

 

 

74) The curving of light by air is greater when the light source is near the zenith.

 

51

 

 

75) A mirage is an optical effect caused by refraction when light passes from air with one density into air with a different density, causing the object to appear displaced from its true position.

 

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76) We see the Sun for a few minutes after it has set below the horizon.

 

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77) When the air near the ground is substantially warmer than the air aloft, the light rays bend with a curvature that is the same as the Earth’s.

 

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78) A superior image is seen above its true position.

 

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79) Your mind’s interpretation that light travels only in straight lines is an important part of explaining mirages.

 

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80) A mirage is a real image and can be photographed.

 

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81) Fata Morgana is a type of halo that is frequently observed in mountainous areas.

 

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82) In any direction at an angle of 42 degrees from the path of the Sun’s rays, droplets will be directing the color blue toward the observer, thus forming a semicircle of color across the sky.

 

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83) When a rainbow is seen in the morning, the Sun is located to the west of the observer and the raindrops are located in the east.

 

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84) The secondary rainbow is located outside the primary bow.

 

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85) When two people view a rainbow, they both are observing the same bow.

 

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86) Violet light is refracted more than red light when it passes from air into water.

 

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87) Weather proverbs such as “Rainbow in the morning…” can be based on sound scientific facts.

 

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88) If you see a rainbow in the afternoon, it means the bad weather has already passed.

 

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89) Four basic types of ice crystals contribute to the formation of halos: plates, columns, bullets, and capped columns.

 

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90) Refraction is not a part of the optical process of forming halos.

 

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91) Although mostly seen by pilots, the glory’s name comes from its appearance when viewed by an observer located on the ground.

 

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92) Because the glory forms opposite the Sun’s position, the observer’s shadow will always be found within the glory.

 

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93) The cloud drops responsible for the glory are smaller than those responsible for the rainbow.

 

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94) The color sequence of a corona is exactly opposite that of a halo.

 

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95) Iridescent clouds form most often with cumulonimbus clouds.

 

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96) When a mirage appears below the true location of the observed object, it is called a(n) ________ mirage.

 

 

 

 

97) Why are mirages generally associated with either very hot surface temperatures or very cold surface temperatures?

 

 

 

98) A type of mirage in which towering castles appear out of thin air is called a(n) ________.

 

 

 

99) Usually ________ color bands can be observed in a rainbow.

 

 

 

100) You will not be able to see a rainbow if the Sun is greater than ________° above the horizon.

 

 

 

101) What well-known person is credited with explaining how the colors of the rainbow are produced using a prism?

102) Why are halos and sun dogs associated with cirrus clouds and rainbows with cumulus clouds?

 

 

 

103) This type of cloud is most often present when halos form.

 

 

104) These vertical shafts of light are created by slowly falling crystals of ice.