Sample Chapter

INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker – Test Bank
 
Sample  Question         

Chapter 01

Test Bank: An Introduction to Biology

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. The simplest structure shared among all living organisms is the
    A. gut.
    B.  cell.
    C.  photosynthetic chloroplast.
    D.  community.
    E.  nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is likely NOT a common feature shared among all living organisms?
    A. All living organisms use energy.
    B.  All living organisms maintain organization.
    C.  All living organisms have evolved over the course of many generations.
    D.  All living organisms maintain some level of homeostasis.
    E.  All living organisms are composed of similar structures.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. All living organisms respond and adjust to their environments. The process through which this occurs is called
    A. photosynthesis.
    B.  metabolism.
    C.  adaptation.
    D.  growth and development.
    E.  genomics.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment in the face of a fluctuating external environment is called
    A. metabolism.
    B.  cellular respiration.
    C.  growth and development.
    D.  homeostasis.
    E.  functional proteomics and genomics.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Polypeptides (proteins) are composed of amino acids as ________ are composed of DNA.
    A. genes
    B.  RNA
    C.  proteomes
    D.  lipids
    E.  metabolites

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. We maintain a fairly constant body temperature despite exposures to different seasons or external temperatures. This is achieved through our capacity to
    A. adapt to changing environments.
    B.  regulate body temperature.
    C.  maintain homeostasis.
    D.  All of these choices are correct.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. All of the chemical reactions used to break down nutrients and build up components within the body are collectively known as
    A. anabolism.
    B.  catabolism.
    C.  metabolism.
    D.  proteolysis.
    E.  hydrolysis.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which level of organization includes all others?
    A. cell
    B.  tissue
    C.  organ
    D.  organism
    E.  population

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which level of organization is required for all others to form?
    A. cell
    B.  tissue
    C.  organ
    D.  organism
    E.  population

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. When cells associate with each other they form
    A. atoms.
    B.  molecules.
    C.  macromolecules.
    D.  tissues.
    E.  populations.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. When communities of organisms interact with their physical environment they form a(n)
    A. population.
    B.  organism.
    C.  community.
    D.  ecosystem.
    E.  macromolecular community.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely required for the digestion of a meal?
    A. molecules
    B.  cells
    C.  tissues
    D.  organs
    E.  populations

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which is the simplest of all levels of organization?
    A. atom
    B.  cell
    C.  organ
    D.  organism
    E.  population

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which level of organization reflects an individual composed of multiple organ systems?
    A. atom
    B.  cell
    C.  organ
    D.  organism
    E.  population

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following are components of molecules?
    A. atoms
    B.  cells
    C.  organs
    D.  organisms
    E.  populations

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Many people at a wedding ceremony represent which level of organization?
    A. cell
    B.  organ
    C.  organism
    D.  population
    E.  ecosystem

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. A flower on a plant represents which level of organization?
    A. atom
    B.  cell
    C.  organ
    D.  organism
    E.  population

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The phenomenon through which populations of organisms change over several generations is termed
    A. homeostasis.
    B.  growth and development.
    C.  reproduction.
    D.  biological evolution.
    E.  organization.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Changes in ________ represent the predominant cause for biological evolution.
    A. homeostasis
    B.  growth and development
    C.  reproduction
    D.  genetic makeup
    E.  energy

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. A variety of finch species within the Hawaiian Islands have acquired different types of beaks needed for utilizing specific food resources. The process by which these different species of finches came about is likely to have involved
    A. natural selection.
    B.  evolution.
    C.  an accumulation of harmful genetic mutations.
    D.  both natural selection and evolution.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of a genetic mutation?
    A. It always produces harmful effects.
    B.  It never affects protein structure or function.
    C.  It is not a mechanism through which biological evolution occurs.
    D.  It happens quite frequently in a population.
    E.  It generally produces a change in the DNA sequence of a gene.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. New species evolve from pre-existing species by the accumulation of
    A. metabolic events.
    B.  genetic mutations.
    C.  proteomes.
    D.  reproductive events.
    E.  developmental events.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Evolutionary change
    A. occurs through the modification of characteristics in a preexisting population.
    B.  may involve vertical descent with mutation.
    C.  may involve horizontal gene transfer.
    D.  All of these choices are correct.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. In the process of biological evolution, new species may evolve through exchange of genes from one species to another. This process is called
    A. proteome transfer.
    B.  horizontal gene transfer.
    C.  vertical evolution.
    D.  vertical descent with mutation.
    E.  genomic sciences.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The grouping or classification of species is termed
    A. eukaryotism.
    B.  prokaryotism.
    C.  genus.
    D.  kingdom.
    E.  taxonomy.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism?
    A. Kingdom
    B.  Phylum
    C.  Order
    D.  Family
    E.  Species

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. When grouping organisms, which classification is most general for a particular type of organism?
    A. Kingdom
    B.  Phylum
    C.  Order
    D.  Family
    E.  Species

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which Kingdom of organisms is most noted for its ability to carry out photosynthesis?
    A. Animilia
    B.  Protista
    C.  Fungi
    D.  Plantae
    E.  Bacteria

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 1.12
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Biologists use nomenclature or the binomial to provide each species with a unique scientific name. Our species is called Homo sapiens. The first word refers to which taxonomical grouping?
    A. Kingdom
    B.  Phylum
    C.  Order
    D.  Genus
    E.  Species

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. When considering nomenclature for scientific names, what is the difference between the two primates, Homo sapiens and Homo erectus?
    A. One is a primate but the other is not.
    B.  They are animals of a different kingdom.
    C.  They are animals of a different order.
    D.  They are animals of a different species.
    E.  They are animals of a different genus.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is generally more complex than the others?
    A. Archaea
    B.  Bacteria
    C.  Prokarya
    D.  Eukarya
    E.  microorganisms

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The complete genetic composition of an organism is called its
    A. proteome.
    B.  genome.
    C.  transcriptosome.
    D.  phenotype.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which is responsible for encoding the proteins found in a cell?
    A. genome
    B.  proteome
    C.  cytoskeleton
    D.  evolution
    E.  extracellular proteins

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. If a scientist were studying the interaction of different proteins in the regulation of insulin secretion from a pancreatic cell, he or she would be studying
    A. genomics.
    B.  proteomics.
    C.  cell biology.
    D.  both genomics and proteomics.
    E.  both proteomics and cell biology.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. An explanation for a biological process that is substantiated by a large body of evidence is called a
    A. hypothesis.
    B.  theory.
    C.  systems biology.
    D.  reductionism.
    E.  prediction.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Collecting data without a specific hypothesis in mind is called
    A. reductionism.
    B.  hypothesis testing.
    C.  discovery-based science.
    D.  theoretical.
    E.  All of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.03
Topic: General
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. All tissues are composed of cells.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The capacity to maintain a fairly constant body temperature is a homeostatic process.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. A community is composed of different populations of animals and plants.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. A defining characteristic that distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms is the lack of cell structure in one versus the other.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The modification of a limb that was used for walking in a pre-existing ancestor to one that is used as a wing for a species today is called proteomics.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. A bacterial infection such as pneumonia is most likely caused by organisms derived from the animal kingdom.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. All genetic mutations are harmful to an organism.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Vertical evolution, whereby living organisms evolve from a common ancestor (“tree of life”), is the only mechanism of evolution on Earth.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The effects of a genetic mutation are always limited to simply a change in DNA sequence with little consequence on the proteins expressed.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The proteome, rather than genome, is most directly responsible for the structure, function, and appearance of organisms.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Little scientific evidence is necessary when formulating a theory.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.03
Topic: General
 

  1. The maintenance of cell structure requires energy.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 1.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Discovery-based science and hypothesis testing are the two major scientific approaches that help us understand biology.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.03
Topic: General
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. This question refers to the 5-stage process of hypothesis testing. What is the appropriate order of the stages when generating and testing a hypothesis?
    (1) Experimentation is conducted to determine if the predictions are correct.
    (2) The hypothesis is accepted or rejected.
    (3) Observations are made regarding a natural phenomenon.
    (4) The observations lead to a hypothesis that tries to explain the phenomenon. A useful hypothesis is one that is testable because it makes specific predictions.
    (5) The data from the experiment is analyzed.
    A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    B.  3, 4, 5, 1, 2
    C.  1, 3, 4, 2, 5
    D.  3, 4, 1, 5, 2
    E.  3, 4, 2, 1, 5

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 1.03
Topic: General
 

Chapter 03

Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Which of the following is an important feature of carbon and that makes life possible?
    A. Carbon can form a maximum of 8 covalent bonds.
    B.  Carbon can form a maximum of 6 covalent bonds.
    C.  Carbon can form a maximum of 4 covalent bonds.
    D.  Carbon can form a maximum of 2 covalent bonds.
    E.  None of the choices are possible for carbon.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following are important features of carbon and the diversity of organic molecules?
    A. Carbon can form up to 4 covalent bonds with other elements.
    B.  Carbon bonds may occur in multiple different configurations such as linear, ringlike, and highly branched.
    C.  Carbon can form both polar and nonpolar covalent bonds with various elements.
    D.  Carbon bonds are stable at the range of temperatures associated with life.
    E.  All the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar?
    A. C2H5COOH
    B.  C2H6
    C.  R-NH2
    D.  C3H7OH
    E.  C5H10O5

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which element(s) is common to all organic molecules?
    A. oxygen
    B.  nitrogen
    C.  hydrogen
    D.  carbon
    E.  both nitrogen and carbon

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Two molecules with identical molecular formulas but that have different structures are called
    A. polymers.
    B.  isomers.
    C.  carboyhydrates.
    D.  hydrocarbons.
    E.  ring structures.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following has identical molecular formulas but different structures and characteristics?
    A. isomers
    B.  sterioisomers
    C.  enantiomers
    D.  isomers, but not sterioisomers
    E.  isomers, sterioisomers, and enantiomers

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 3.04
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Organic molecules with identical molecular formulas and that are structurally mirror images of each other are most specifically referred to as
    A. polymers.
    B.  mimics.
    C.  enantiomers.
    D.  hydrocarbon rings.
    E.  saturated fatty acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.04
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the molecules is polar and acts like a base?
    A. R-NH2
    B.  R-CO-R
    C.  R-OH
    D.  R-PO4
    E.  R-SH

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which functional group characterizes alcohols?
    A. NH2
    B.  COOH
    C.  PO4
    D.  SH
    E.  OH

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which functional group forms covalent bonds and contributes to tertiary structure of proteins?
    A. NH2
    B.  COOH
    C.  PO4
    D.  SH
    E.  OH

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Fuels such as gasoline are nonpolar and high in energy because they are largely composed of
    A. sulfates.
    B.  hydrocarbons.
    C.  carboxylic acids.
    D.  amines.
    E.  carbonyls.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following macromolecules are polymers?
    A. lipids
    B.  carboyhydrates
    C.  nucleic acids
    D.  proteins
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. All are true about a dehydration reaction EXCEPT which of the following?
    A. Results in removal of a water molecule.
    B.  Essential for the breakdown of complex molecules to simple ones.
    C.  Essential to the formation of polymers.
    D.  Essential for the formation of glycogen from glucose monomers.
    E.  Essential for the formation of triglycerides (fat) from glycerol and fatty acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Figure: 3.05
Section: 3.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Glycogen is to animal cells as ________ is to plant cells.
    A. lipid
    B.  cellulose
    C.  starch
    D.  protein
    E.  sugar

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. A monomer is to a polymer, as glucose is to
    A. lipids.
    B.  carboyhydrates.
    C.  nucleic acids.
    D.  proteins.
    E.  None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. A disaccharide, such as maltose, consists of two molecules of glucose linked by what type of bond?
    A. phosphodiester
    B.  glycosidic
    C.  steroid
    D.  peptide
    E.  None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.07
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Amongst all others, which is the largest macromolecule?
    A. monosaccharide
    B.  disaccharide
    C.  polysaccharide
    D.  glucose
    E.  sucrose

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of these is NOT a lipid?
    A. phospholipid
    B.  cholesterol
    C.  steroids
    D.  glycogen
    E.  wax and oils

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a property of fat or of fatty acids?
    A. They are soluble in water.
    B.  The source of variation in fat molecules is the fatty acid composition.
    C.  Fatty acids can vary in number and location of C-C double bonds.
    D.  Fatty acids may vary in length.
    E.  Fats can be liquid or solid at room temperature, depending on fatty acid composition.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which is TRUE about amphipathic molecules when placed in an aqueous solution?
    A. The interior portion is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains.
    B.  The outside portion is composed of hydrophilic head groups.
    C.  The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains.
    D.  The interior portion of the micelle is composed of hydrophilic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups.
    E.  The interior portion is composed of hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains and the outside portion of hydrophilic head groups.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 3.12
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. This class of macromolecules serves as important energy stores and is a major component of plasma membranes.
    A. lipids
    B.  carbohydrates
    C.  nucleic acids
    D.  proteins
    E.  ions

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Amphipathic molecules
    A. possess only hydrophilic properties.
    B.  possess only hydrophobic properties.
    C.  possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
    D.  possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties.
    E.  tend not to interact with other molecules.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the molecules below is NOT a subunit for building macromolecules?
    A. glucose
    B.  amino acids
    C.  steroid
    D.  fatty acid
    E.  nucleotides

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of these is rich in unsaturated fats?
    A. a fat that is solid at room temperature
    B.  butter
    C.  beef fat
    D.  bacon grease
    E.  olive oil

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. What is the main difference between a fat (triglyceride) and a phospholipid?
    A. A fat has 4 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 3.
    B.  A fat has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a phospholipid has 4.
    C.  A phospholipid has 2 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 3.
    D.  A phospholipid has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol, whereas a fat has 2.
    E.  None of the above are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.09
Figure: 3.12
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following macromolecules is composed of amino acids?
    A. lipids
    B.  carboyhydrates
    C.  nucleic acids
    D.  proteins
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. With regard to protein structure, which level determines all others?
    A. primary
    B.  secondary
    C.  tertiary
    D.  quaternary
    E.  hepternary

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. What level of protein structure, characterized by coils and folds, results from hydrogen bonding between carboxyl and amino groups of the polypeptide chain?
    A. primary
    B.  secondary
    C.  tertiary
    D.  quaternary
    E.  both secondary and quaternary

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 3.16
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Acetic acid gives vinegar its sour taste. Which functional group has acidic properties and would release hydrogen ions in an aqueous (water) solution?
    A. -OH
    B.  -NH2
    C.  -SH
    D.  -COOH
    E.  -CO

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which portion of an amino acid is unique among the different amino acids?
    A. carboxyl
    B.  amino
    C.  hydrocarbon
    D.  the side chain or R-group
    E.  peptide bonding

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 3.14
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which macromolecule has the highest diversity of functions?
    A. carbohydrates
    B.  proteins
    C.  nucleic acids
    D.  lipids
    E.  glycolipids

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The tertiary structure of a protein is dependent on
    A. the side chain composition of each amino acid within the protein.
    B.  hydrogen bonding between the carboxyl and amino groups within the polypeptide chain.
    C.  the interactions of multiple polypeptide chains that make up a functional protein.
    D.  the way in which the peptide bond forms.
    E.  the degree through which the dehydration reaction occurs.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Sickle cell anemia is a condition in which red blood cells of patients exhibit a characteristic “sickle” shape. This arises from a mutation or change in one of the amino acids found in hemoglobin. Knowing this, what level of protein structure is most directly affected by this single amino acid mutation?
    A. primary
    B.  secondary
    C.  tertiary
    D.  quaternary
    E.  None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which is true of the nucleotide base composition within the DNA double helix?
    A. G=A
    B.  T=C
    C.  T+A=C+G
    D.  T+G=A+C
    E.  A=U

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If a specimen contains 30% adenine in its DNA then how much cytosine will there be?
    A. 40%
    B.  30%
    C.  20%
    D.  10%
    E.  Cannot be determined.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following statements BEST summarizes structural differences between DNA and RNA?
    A. RNA is a protein, while DNA is a nucleic acid.
    B.  RNA is a polymer, but DNA is not.
    C.  DNA contains a different sugar than RNA.
    D.  RNA is a double helix, but DNA is not.
    E.  All the bases in DNA differ from those in RNA.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid.
    A. glucose
    B.  glycerol
    C.  nucleotide
    D.  fatty acid
    E.  cellulose

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which is true of the base pairing seen between two DNA strands?
    A. Adenine bonds with guanine.
    B.  Guanine bonds with thymine.
    C.  Thymine bonds with cytosine.
    D.  Cytosine bonds with guanine
    E.  Guanine bonds with thymine.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.24
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Friedrich Wöhler refuted the scientific concept of vitalism during the early 1800s by proving that organic molecules could be synthesized outside a living organism.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Since carbon and hydrogen share similar electronegativities they will form nonpolar molecules when combined.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Macromolecules such as lipids and carbohydrates are produced from simple subunits through condensation reactions.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The sole function of carbohydrates is to serve as energy stores.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If sucrose is composed of both glucose and fructose then sucrose must be a monosaccharide.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Lipids and carbohydrates have similar functions insofar as they can represent a form of energy store in animals.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Saturated fats are composed of fatty acids with several double bonded carbons.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.10
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. When a food label reads polyunsaturated fats, this refers to fatty acids composed of multiple double bonded carbons.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 3.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Proteins can have separate domains with distinct structures and function.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The primary structure of a protein ultimately determines its three-dimensional structure.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 3.17
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. All amino acids within a protein are either polar charged or polar uncharged.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 3.14
Section: 3.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. The four nucleotide bases found in DNA are identical to those in RNA.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 3.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

Chapter 11

Test Bank: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and Chromosome Structure

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Type S Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium is lethal and will kill its host. If heat inactivated the S strain becomes nonlethal. Type R Streptococcous pneumoniae is a nonvirulent strain of bacteria. What would occur if one were to inject both the R strain and heat-killed S strains into a host organism such as the mouse?
    A.The S strain would be transformed into the nonvirulent R strain and kill the host.
    B. The R strain would be transformed into the virulent S strain and kill the host.
    C. The S strain would be transformed into the nonvirulent R strain and not affect the host.
    D. The R strain would be transformed into the virulent S strain and not affect the host.
    E. Neither the S nor the R strain would change.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an organism’s genetic material?
    A.The genetic material must contain information necessary to construct a whole organism.
    B. The genetic material must be transmitted from parent to offspring.
    C. To transmit information the genetic material must be replicated.
    D. The genetic material must be dynamic, changing rapidly in response to changes in the environment.
    E. Genetic material must account for the known variation within each species and among different species.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which of the following would represent the “transformation principal” first proposed by Griffith through his studies on Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium?
    A.protein
    B. RNA
    C. DNA
    D. phage
    E. bateriophage

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Who discovered that DNA was the genetic material or transforming factor that could convert nonvirulent R-type Streptococcus pneumoniae bacterium to the virulent S-type?
    A.Weismann and Nageli
    B. Griffith
    C. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
    D. Hershey and Chase
    E. Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. The protein of T2 bacteriophage is labeled with 35S and the DNA with 32P. Where would one detect most of the 32P if the T2 bacteriophage were allowed to infect the bacteria?
    A.on the phage coat surrounding the T2 bacteriophage
    B. on the membrane of the infected bacteria
    C. inside the T2 bacteriophage capsid
    D. inside the infected bacteria
    E. The 32P would be equally distributed within the T2 bacteriophage and infected bacteria.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which of the following scientist-discoveries is mismatched?
    A.Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin-DNA structure
    B. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty-DNA is the genetic material
    C. Meselson and Stahl-mechanism of DNA replication
    D. Griffith-chromosomes
    E. Hershey and Chase-DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophage

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following relationships about nucleotide composition in DNA is TRUE?
    A.C+G=A+T
    B. C+A=G+T
    C. C=A
    D. G=T
    E. C=T

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. ___________ are the building blocks of DNA.
    A. genes
    B.  double helices
    C.  amino acids
    D.  nucleotides
    E.  chromosomes

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which of the following is the highest (or most complex) level of structure for genetic material?
    A.nucleotide
    B. double helix
    C. DNA
    D. gene
    E. chromosome

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Beginning with the simplest level of structure, which order of organization of genetic material is CORRECT?
    A.DNA, nucleotide, gene, genome, chromosome
    B. nucleotide, DNA, gene, chromosome, genome
    C. DNA, nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome
    D. nucleotide, DNA, gene, genome, chromosome
    E. nucleotide, DNA, chromosome, gene, genome

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. The nucleotides within DNA are composed of a
    A.phosphate group, ribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
    B. sulfur group, ribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
    C. phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
    D. sulfur group, deoxyribose sugar, and nitrogenous base.
    E. phosphate group, hexose sugar, and nitrogenous base.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. All of the following nucleotide bases are pyrimidines EXCEPT
    A.adenine.
    B. thymine.
    C. cytosine.
    D. uracil.
    E. cytosine and thymine.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE when comparing RNA and DNA?
    A.Both are produced by phosphodiester linkages.
    B. Both are composed of phosphate groups.
    C. Both are composed of sugars.
    D. Both are composed of identical nucleotides.
    E. Both are composed of a phosphate group, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. One of the most critical pieces of evidence to the discovery of DNA structure was
    A.its composition of four different nucleotides.
    B. its mode of replication.
    C. an X-ray diffraction pattern suggesting a double helix shape.
    D. the backbone containing sugar-phosphate linkages.
    E. the covalent bonding between different nucleotides.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the structure or composition of DNA is FALSE?
    A.DNA is a double helix.
    B. Complementary base-pairing occurs between pyrimidine and purine bases.
    C. The amount of thymine closely approximates that of guanine within a particular organism.
    D. Each nucleotide within a DNA is separated by about 0.34 angstroms.
    E. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. What is the complement DNA strand to 5¢-ATTCGGTGA-3¢?
    A.5¢-TAAGCCACT-3¢
    B. 3¢-CGGATTGTC-5¢
    C. 5¢-CGGATTGTC-3¢
    D. 3¢-TAAGCCACT-5¢
    E. 3¢-ATTCGGTGA-5¢

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. A DNA specimen that contains 30% guanine has ________ thymine.
    A.15%
    B. 20%
    C. 30%
    D. 60%
    E. The amount of thymine cannot be determined.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which purine base forms 3 hydrogen bonds when binding its complementary nucleotide base?
    A.guanine
    B. cytosine
    C. thymine
    D. uracil
    E. adenine

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize DNA from an RNA template. What DNA sequence is produced from an RNA molecule with the sequence AUUGACGGU?
    A.UAACUGCCA
    B. TTTCTGCCT
    C. TAACTGCCA
    D. ATTCAGCCT
    E. TUUCTGCCU

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. In producing a strand of DNA the nucleotides combine to form what type of bond?
    A.hydrogen
    B. peptide
    C. phosphodiester
    D. purine
    E. ionic

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.03
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. The mechanism of DNA replication is
    A.conservative.
    B. intermediate.
    C. semiconservative.
    D. dispersive.
    E. complementary.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.03
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Bacteria are grown in 15N (heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N (light) medium and allowed to replicate for 1 generation. The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl2 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)?
    A.one heavy band
    B. one light band
    C. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band
    D. one heavy and one half-heavy band
    E. one heavy and one light band

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.03
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Bacteria are grown in 15N (heavy) medium and then transferred to 14N (light) medium and allowed to replicate for 2 generations. The DNA is subsequently isolated and centrifuged in a CsCl2 gradient to yield what type of gradient band(s)?
    A.one heavy band
    B. one light band
    C. one half-heavy (intermediate to heavy and light) band
    D. one heavy and one half-heavy band
    E. one light and one half-heavy band

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.03
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
    A.replication fork
    B. single-stranded binding proteins
    C. DNA ligase
    D. topoisomerase
    E. helicase

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. During DNA replication, all of the following proteins are important for separating the DNA strands and allowing movement of the replication fork EXCEPT
    A.DNA polymerase.
    B. helicase.
    C. topoisomerase.
    D. single-stranded binding proteins.
    E. both helicase and topoisomerase.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. How many replication forks are there at a replication origin?
    A.1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 5

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Unlike the leading strand, ______________ are made in replicating the lagging strand of DNA.
    A. primers
    B.  nucleases
    C.  Okazaki fragments
    D.  pyrophosphates
    E.  DNA polymerases

need space for the term “Okazaki fragment”to be a subject for the second half of the sentence.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following statements best describes DNA polymerase?
    A. It is an enzyme required to produce a primer needed for DNA replication.
    B.  It is an enzyme that catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 5¢ end of a growing DNA strand.
    C.  It is an enzyme that requires the presence of a small double-stranded nucleic acid primer to catalyze the addition of nucleotides to the 3¢ end of a growing DNA strand.
    D.  It is an enzyme required to glue pieces of DNA fragments together.
    E.  It is an enzyme that polymerizes to the DNA and keeps the replication fork open.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. This molecule catalyzes covalent bond formation between fragments of DNA.
    A. helicase
    B.  ligase
    C.  polymerase
    D.  primase
    E.  nuclease

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. All of the following are critical factors for DNA replication on the leading strand EXCEPT?
    A. primer
    B.  DNA ligase
    C.  DNA polymerase
    D.  DNA primase
    E.  deoxynucleoside triphosphates

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which molecule is responsible for separating double-stranded DNA into single strands?
    A. DNA primase
    B.  DNA helicase
    C.  topoisomerase
    D.  DNA ligase
    E.  single-stranded binding proteins

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. produces short sequences of RNA, which allows polymerase to synthesize a new strand of DNA.
    A. DNA primase
    B.  DNA helicase
    C.  DNA polymerase
    D.  DNA topoisomerase
    E.  DNA ligase

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. The function(s) of DNA polymerase includes which of the following?
    A. DNA synthesis
    B.  DNA proofreading
    C.  removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps
    D.  DNA synthesis and proofreading
    E.  DNA synthesis, DNA proofreading, and removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT?
    A. It begins at multiple origins of replication sites along eukaryotic chromosomes.
    B.  It proceeds with the addition of new nucleotides to the 3¢ end of a growing DNA strand.
    C.  It is powered by the hydrolysis of ATP.
    D.  Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.
    E.  It requires that each strand in the double helix be separated from the other.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following proteins-functions is mismatched?
    A. DNA polymerase-DNA synthesis
    B.  DNA polymerase-primer removal and replacement with DNA
    C.  DNA primase-production of RNA primer
    D.  topoisomerase-separates double-stranded DNA into single strands
    E.  single-stranded binding proteins-prevents single DNA strands from reforming into a double helix

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of DNA?
    A. The two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5¢ to 3¢ direction only.
    B.  It is substantially more efficient to make several shorter strands rather than one longer strand of DNA.
    C.  There lacks enough cellular DNA ligase for bonding Okazaki fragments together if they were produced from both parental strands.
    D.  By having one leading strand and one lagging strand the cell can limit the amount of DNA polymerase used for chromosomal replication.
    E.  It is faster to make several smaller fragments than one larger fragment.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. ________ attaches DNA sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
    A.Polymerase
    B. Ligase
    C. Telomerase
    D. Topoisomerase
    E. Primase

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Which of the following statements about telomeres is INCORRECT?
    A.Telomeres are produced by telomerase.
    B. Telomeres are found at the ends of DNA.
    C. Telomeres are short repeat sequences.
    D. Telomeres would predominate more in cells of older than younger individuals.
    E. Telomeres are crucial to the viability of a cell that replicates often.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. Where would one expect to find the most telomerase?
    A.male germ cells that give rise to gametes
    B. skin cells from a 60-year-old individual
    C. skin cells from a 2-year-old individual
    D. a nerve cell from a 60-year-old individual
    E. a nerve cell from a 2-year-old individual

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. During the DNA replication process, which of the following organisms would have the fewest origins of replication per cell?
    A.a rapidly dividing Streptococcus bacterium
    B. a yeast cell
    C. a human
    D. a young oak tree
    E. a fruit fly

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Studies by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of bacteria and those by Hershey and Chase with T2 bacteriophage determined that proteins are highly complex molecules that form the genetic material for bacteria and viruses.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. A strand of DNA is composed of nucleotide bases, sulfate groups, and sugars.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. When considering the complexity of genetic material, multiple genes are found within a chromosome.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.05
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. If there is 28% adenine, then there must be 28% cytosine for the DNA composition of a particular organism.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. DNA is a double helix structure whose strands are held together by hydrogen bonds with A to T and C to G base pairing.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. DNA helicase and topoisomerase are similar insofar as they promote the unwinding and uncoiling of DNA.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

 

  1. 35Sulfur (35S) would be a better isotope than 32phosphate (32P) to track DNA synthesis.
    FALSE

 

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.01
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. If the sequence for one strand of DNA is 3¢-TCGATT-5¢ then its complementary strand would have a sequence of 3¢-AGCTAA-5¢.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 11.02
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. Okazaki fragments are sequences of DNA most often found on the lagging strand of DNA during DNA replication.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

  1. The progressive shortening of telomeres in DNA correlates with cell senescence.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 11.04
Topic: Genetic
 

Chapter 21

Test Bank: Genomes, Proteomes, and Bioinformatics

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Researchers are interested in the genomes of prokaryotic species for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
    A.bacteria cause many diseases that affect people, plants, and animals.
    B. bacteria reveal modes of infection.
    C. bacteria are more highly advanced than humans.
    D. the origin of the first eukaryotic cell probably involved a union between an archaeal and a bacterial cell.
    E. All of the choices are reasons for studying genomes of prokaryotic species.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. How many genes are generally found for every million bases of DNA?
    A.10
    B. 100
    C. 1,000
    D. 10,000
    E. 100,000

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes is FALSE?
    A.Prokaryotic genomes are less complex than eukaryotic genomes.
    B. Prokaryotic genomes have centromeres, whereas eukaryotic genomes do not.
    C. Eukaryotic genomes have telomeres, whereas prokaryotic genomes do not.
    D. Prokaryotic genomes have one origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic genomes have multiple origins of replication.
    E. Chromosomes of prokaryotes have little repetitive DNA compared with chromosomes of eukaryotes.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding plasmids?
    A.Plasmids are small, usually a few thousand to ten thousand base pairs.
    B. Plasmids are linear.
    C. Plasmids are contained within the bacterial chromosome.
    D. Plasmids are rarely found in prokaryotes.
    E. Plasmids dominate in eukaryotes.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. DNA can be found in all of the following cellular locations EXCEPT the
    A.mitochondria.
    B. chloroplast.
    C. nucleus.
    D. golgi apparatus.
    E. plant cell.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Which of the following parameters correlates with an increase in the amount of cellular DNA?
    A.decrease in cell size
    B. increase in cell complexity
    C. increase in cell size
    D. decrease in body complexity
    E. increase in cell complexity and cell size

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Functionally important gene sequences such as those encoding ribosomal RNA are
    A.highly repetitive sequences.
    B. minimally repetitive sequences.
    C. moderately repetitive sequences.
    D. transposable sequences.
    E. highly mutated sequences.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE of highly repetitive sequences?
    A.They play a vital role in transcription.
    B. They play a vital role in translation.
    C. They can be found millions of times throughout the genome.
    D. They always benefit the organism.
    E. They tend to occur at low frequencies.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. A researcher has mapped the entire genome of an insect. When scanning the sequences she notices highly repetitive sequences, which contain tandem arrays of short sequences. She is most likely looking at which region of the chromosome?
    A.centromere
    B. telomere
    C. chromatid
    D. spindle fiber
    E. centriole

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Application
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of transposase?
    A.Transposase recognizes inverted repeats.
    B. Transposase cleaves at both ends of the transposable element.
    C. Transposase carries the transposable element to a new site on the DNA.
    D. Transposase cleaves the target DNA at staggered sites.
    E. Transposase ligates nucleic acid fragments during DNA replication.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Which of the following is required for the movement of a retroelement?
    A.DNA polymerase
    B. reverse transcriptase
    C. integrase
    D. reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase
    E. reverse transcriptase and integrase

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Which of the following most adequately describes how the Alu element may have proliferated to constitute 10% of the human genome?
    A.Multiple retroelements code the same gene.
    B. Retroelements increase with every generation.
    C. A single retroelement can be copied into many RNA transcripts.
    D. Retroelements increase with each cell division.
    E. Retroelements show self-proliferation.

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Small segments of DNA that move from one part of the genome to another part are called
    A.retroelements.
    B. transposons.
    C. transposase.
    D. translation.
    E. transpositions.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. According to the selfish DNA hypothesis, which symbiotic relationship most closely resembles that of transposable elements that move within the organism’s genome without offering benefits to the organism?
    A.mutualism
    B. commensalisms
    C. parasitism
    D. competition
    E. neutralism

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Application
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Some biologists argue that transposable elements provide benefits to a given species. Which of the following is NOT a possible benefit of transposable elements?
    A.Transposable elements often carry an antibiotic-resistance gene.
    B. Transposable elements confer genetic variability.
    C. Transposable elements provide the organism with a survival advantage.
    D. Transposable elements insert themselves into the middle of functionally important genes.
    E. All of the choices are beneficial.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Small chromosomal duplications provide raw material for the addition of genes into a species’ genome. These duplications create two or more copies of the same gene, where one or both of the genes can subsequently mutate. These genes are referred to as
    A.sister chromatids.
    B. homologous chromosomes.
    C. homologous genes.
    D. transposable elements.
    E. duplicated chromosomes.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Homologous chromosomes pair with each other during meiosis, but are misaligned. Which of the following is a possible outcome if crossing over occurs?
    A.One daughter chromosome contains a gene duplication.
    B. One daughter chromosome contains a gene deletion.
    C. Two daughter chromosomes each contain a gene duplication.
    D. Two daughter chromosomes are normal.
    E. One daughter chromosome contains a gene duplication, one daughter chromosome contains a gene deletion, and two daughter chromosomes are normal.

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Which of the following elements can foster the process of crossing over?
    A.RNA polymerase
    B. promoter elements
    C. enhancer elements
    D. transposable elements
    E. topoisomerase

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. 14 homologous genes encoding globins (hemoglobin, myoglobin) in the human genome were originally derived from a single ancestor that duplicated 500–600 million years ago. Which term most adequately describes the relationship between these genes?
    A.sister chromatids
    B. gene family
    C. gene cluster
    D. moderately repetitive sequences
    E. highly repetitive sequences

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. Which of the following could explain how 14 genes for globins, each specialized in their function (i.e., hemoglobin, myoglobin), arose in the genome?
    A.misaligned crossover
    B. gene deletion
    C. gene mutation
    D. misaligned crossover and gene mutation
    E. misaligned crossover and gene deletion

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. Which of the following protein-functional categories is mismatched?
    A.hexokinase-metabolic enzyme
    B. tubulin-structural protein
    C. insulin-motor protein
    D. hemoglobin-transport protein
    E. antibodies-protective protein

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which of the following cell types would have the highest concentration of motor proteins?
    A.liver cell
    B. mammary cell
    C. hormone-secreting cell
    D. muscle cell
    E. nerve cell

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Application
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which of the following cell types would have the highest concentration of metabolic enzymes?
    A.nerve cell
    B. mammary cell
    C. lung cell
    D. liver cell
    E. cartilage cell

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Application
Topic: Proteomes
 

 

  1. Which of the following protein categories facilitates the movement of ions and molecules across membranes?
    A.regulatory proteins
    B. protective proteins
    C. transport proteins
    D. cell-signaling proteins
    E. motor proteins

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which of the following statements best summarizes the relationship between the relative size of a species’ genome and its proteome?
    A.genome = proteome
    B. genome > proteome
    C. genome < proteome
    D. genome = proteome in eukaryotes; genome > proteome in prokaryotes
    E. genome > proteome in eukaryotes; genome = proteome in prokaryotes

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which of the following is a permanent post-translational covalent modification?
    A.attachment of a sugar
    B. disulfide bond formation
    C. proteolytic processing
    D. attachment of a lipid
    E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Proteomes
 

 

  1. Which of the following is a reversible post-translational covalent modification?
    A.phosphorylation
    B. acetylation
    C. disulfide bond formation
    D. phosphorylation and acetylation
    E. acetylation and disulfide bond formation

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which nucleic acid is subject to alternative splicing?
    A.DNA
    B. rRNA
    C. pre-mRNA
    D. mRNA
    E. tRNA

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Which of the following can be accomplished by researchers who use advanced programming in the field of computational molecular biology?
    A.Determine if a sequence contains a mutation that could cause disease.
    B. Identify promoters, regulatory sites, and splice sites.
    C. Compare genetic sequences between species to determine homology.
    D. Determine the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide encoded by a gene.
    E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

 

  1. A researcher is interested in comparing the DNA sequence for the gene encoding myosin between a cheetah (mammal) and a red snapper (fish). Which database would be most helpful to her?
    A.GenBank
    B. Swiss protein database
    C. Protein Information Resource
    D. Protein Data Bank
    E. Swiss protein and Protein Information Resource databases

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Genome databases have been created for all of the following model organisms except for which one?
    A.fruit fly
    B. mice
    C. humans
    D. bacteria
    E. alligator

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Which pair of organisms would have the most homologous b-globin genes?
    A.dolphin and bumble bee
    B. catfish and crocodile
    C. snake and mouse
    D. frog and cheetah
    E. human and chimpanzee

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE when comparing the myosin gene between a rat and a mouse?
    A.The nucleotide sequences are identical.
    B. The genes encode for different proteins.
    C. Each species has accumulated random mutations, but the sequences are similar.
    D. Both species are so far apart that there is no homology between the two sequences.
    E. The genes encoding myosin closely resemble those encoding actins.

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Which of the following can help researchers determine if two genes are homologous to each other?
    A.Punnet square
    B. simple dot matrix
    C. quadratic equation
    D. polypeptide structure
    E. geometric analysis

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Homologous genes in different species are called
    A.analogs.
    B. paralogs.
    C. orthologs.
    D. dialogs.
    E. monologs.

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

 

  1. Which of the following is required if a researcher wants to analyze genes in different species for their homologies?
    A.relatively short DNA sequences
    B. relatively short RNA sequences
    C. relatively long DNA sequences
    D. relatively short polypeptide sequences
    E. relative differences in a species’ metabolomics

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. A researcher runs a BLAST program comparing turkey phenylalanine hydroxylase, which functions in the metabolism of phenylalanine, with known database sequences. Which of the following should provide the closest match?
    A.green pufferfish
    B. zebrafish
    C. chicken
    D. orangutan
    E. fruit fly

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Which of the following must be provided to the BLAST program for identifying homologous sequences within the database?
    A.nucleotide sequence
    B. amino acid sequence
    C. protein molecular weight
    D. protein molecular weight or nucleotide sequence
    E. nucleotide sequence or amino acid sequence

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Prokaryotic genomes often contain a circular chromosome with hundreds of thousands of genes and highly repetitive DNA.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. In humans, the genome is made up of 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
    TRUE

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. On rare occasions, transposable elements contain a central region that encodes transposase, an enzyme that facilitates the actual transposition.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

  1. At the time that transposable elements were discovered by Barbara McClintock, many of her colleagues agreed with her discovery.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Genome Sizes and Composition
 

 

  1. If a researcher determines that 25% of a liver cell’s total genome encodes genes for metabolic enzymes, then he/she should assume that metabolic enzymes make up 25% of the total protein composition of the cell.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. Liver and muscle cells have different sets of genes.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: High
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. A single pre-mRNA can be alternatively spliced into more than one type of mRNA.
    TRUE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. If an acetyl group is added post-translationally to a protein, it can be subsequently removed.
    TRUE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Proteomes
 

  1. A simple dot matrix is the best method to identify homologous sequences from a known sequence.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

 

  1. If a gene’s sequence is compared among several different vertebrates and they are found to be 95% homologous, one can assume that the genes are derived from the same ancestral gene.
    TRUE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Comprehension
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. Sequences that are alike will produce a horizontal line in a dot matrix analysis.
    FALSE

 

Difficulty Level: Moderate
Question Type: Application
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

  1. The current genome databases are biased towards species that are important from a research, medical, or agricultural perspective.
    TRUE

 

Difficulty Level: Low
Question Type: Knowledge
Topic: Bioinformatics
 

Chapter 31

Test Bank: Fungi

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. The largest organism ever to have existed in the world is (was) a:
    A.whale
    B. dinosaur
    C. sequoia tree
    D. fungus
    E. mammoth

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following attributes is NOT shared by animals and fungi?
    A.derived from protists
    B. heterotrophic
    C. absorptive nutrition
    D. secrete digestive enzymes
    E. have cell walls

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.02
Topic:Animals
 

  1. The cell walls of fungi are composed of:
    A.chitin
    B. cellulose
    C. dentine
    D. peptides
    E. glycerol

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which statement most aptly describes the body of a fungus?
    A.Tiny threadlike septa collectively make up the mycelium.
    B. Tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the septa.
    C. Tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the hypha.
    D. Tiny threadlike hyphae collectively make up the mycelium.
    E. Tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the dikaryote.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. A function of rhizomorphs is:
    A.secretion of enzymes
    B. transport of water and minerals
    C. transport of complex carbohydrates
    D. production of spores
    E. formation of dikaryotes

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. A growing hypha experiences which of the following?
    A.transport by vesicles of enzymes from the Golgi apparatus to the hyphal tip
    B. uptake of water by osmosis
    C. extension of the hyphal tip
    D. transport by vesicles of cell-wall materials
    E. all of the other choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. The septum in a fungus is:
    A.the seventh cellular division
    B. the seventh nucleus in a dikaryote cell
    C. the seventh cell from the tip of the hypha
    D. the demarcation between the mycelium and the fruiting body
    E. cross walls separating the hyphae into cells

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section: 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

  1. A dikaryotic cell:
    A.has only one haploid nucleus
    B. has only one diploid nucleus
    C. has two diploid nuclei
    D. has two haploid nuclei
    E. has one haploid nucleus and one diploid nucleus

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following statements best describes the condition of fungal spores?
    A.Sexual and asexual spores are both haploid.
    B. Sexual and asexual spores are both diploid.
    C. Sexual spores are haploid and asexual spores are diploid.
    D. Sexual spores are diploid and asexual spores are haploid.
    E. Haploid asexual spores fuse to form diploid sexual spores.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. The distinction between karyogamy and plasmogamy is:
    A.Karyogamy is the fusion of nuclei and plasmogamy is the fusion of the cytoplasm.
    B. Karyogamy is the fusion of cytoplasm and plasmogamy is the fusion of nuclei.
    C. Karyogamy is the fusion of dikaryotic cells and plasmogamy is the fusion of gametes.
    D. Karyogamy is the fusion of hyphae and plasmogamy is the fusion of mycelia.
    E. Karyogamy is the fusion of nuclei and plasmogamy is the attack of blood plasma by fungal pathogens.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a dikaryon and a heterokaryon?
    A.There is no difference, the two are identical.
    B. A dikaryotic cell has two nuclei and a heterokaryon has three or more nuclei.
    C. A dikaryotic cell is diploid and a heterokaryon is haploid.
    D. A dikaryotic cell is involved in sexual reproduction and a heterokaryon is involved in asexual reproduction.
    E. A dikaryotic cell is haploid and a heterokaryon is diploid.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Fungal spores are dispersed by:
    A.wind
    B. pigs
    C. raindrops
    D. flies
    E. all of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Ergot is:
    A.a fungal disease of rye crops and other grasses
    B. a carcinogen produced by fungi
    C. a predatory fungus that traps nematodes
    D. the cause of bread mold
    E. a colorful poisonous mushroom

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Athlete’s foot is caused by:
    A.Candida albicans
    B. Aspergillus fumigatus
    C. Amanita muscaria
    D. Claviceps purpurea
    E. none of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following functions is NOT carried out by decomposer fungi?
    A.break down leaf litter
    B. decay wood
    C. decompose dead animals
    D. recycle essential nutrients
    E. break down pathogenic bacteria

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Some fungi are called rusts because:
    A.they give a reddish cast to soils in which they grow
    B. they have reddish spores that emerge from the leaves of infected plants
    C. the enzymes they produce for breaking down wood also causes iron to rust
    D. they produce rust-colored mushrooms as fruiting bodies
    E. none of the other choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The fungus Pneumocystis carinii is of significance to AIDS patients because:
    A.It is transmitted sexually and is the cause of AIDS.
    B. It attacks T-cells in the same way as does AIDS and thereby increases the severity of the disease.
    C. It attacks the AIDS pathogen and thereby reduces the severity of the disease.
    D. It infects individuals whose immune system has been weakened by AIDS and causes pneumonia.
    E. none of the other choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following taxa is NOT known to contain species that cultivate fungi for food?
    A.leaf-cutting ants
    B. humans
    C. termites
    D. beetles
    E. nematodes

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that fungal mycorrhizae bestow upon plants?
    A.The fungus supplies water to the plant.
    B. The fungus supplies mineral nutrients to the plant.
    C. The fungus binds the soil and prevents erosion.
    D. The fungus protects the plant against pathogens and toxins.
    E. The fungus supplies organic food to the plant.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The difference between fungal endomycorrhizae and fungal endophytes is:
    A.Endomycorrhizae live inside fungi and endophytes live inside plants.
    B. Endomycorrhizae form arbuscules that facilitate exchanges of water and food between the fungus and plant root cells, whereas endophytes invade plant cells and provide the plant with protective antibiotics and toxins.
    C. Endomycorrhizae are beneficial to its host plant but endophytes harm the host plant.
    D. Endomycorrhizae form arbuscules on plant roots that produce toxins killing parasitic nematodes, whereas endophytes assist in the transport of water through the plant.
    E. none of the other choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following describe a growth form of lichens?
    A.crustose
    B. fruticose
    C. foliose
    D. all of the choices provided
    E. none of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage or beneficial material that fungi provide for their photosynthetic symbiont?
    A.carbon dioxide
    B. water and minerals
    C. chemicals deterring grazers and pathogens
    D. protection from excess light
    E. oxygen

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Some lichens can reach ages of at least:
    A.2 years
    B. 10 years
    C. 100 years
    D. 450 years
    E. 4,500 years

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of lichens for humans?
    A.Lichens can be used to monitor levels of chemical pollutants in the air.
    B. Lichens can be used to monitor radiation levels.
    C. Lichens begin soil formation by breaking down parent rock.
    D. Lichens fix nitrogen.
    E. all of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Soredia are:
    A.sexual reproductive bodies of lichens
    B. asexual spores of mushrooms
    C. mycelia of crustose lichens
    D. identical with conidia
    E. clumps of hyphae and algae that disperse lichens

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Phanerochaete chrysosporium:
    A. is a wood-decay fungus that is used to bleach paper and decompose dioxin
    B. is a lichen that serves as food for reindeer
    C. is the cause of lung disease
    D. is an hallucinogenic mushroom
    E. is a rust that causes oak trees to shed their leaves prematurely

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a phylum of fungi?
    A. Chytridiomycota
    B.  Zygomycota
    C.  Ascomycota
    D.  Basiodiomycota
    E.  Saccharomycota

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. The only fungi to produce cells with flagella are:
    A.chytrids
    B. choanflagellates
    C. yeasts
    D. conidia
    E. bread molds

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The Glomeromycota are called AM fungi because:
    A.They shed their spores only in the morning.
    B. They produce fruiting bodies at night that only last through the following morning.
    C. They produce arbuscular mycorrhizae in the cells of plant roots.
    D. They decompose animal manure.
    E. They grow only on the chaff of ant middens.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis is a chytrid fungus that:
    A.forms dendritic patterns of wood decay
    B. is a major pollutant in sewage wastewater
    C. readily captures cyanobacteria to form a lichen
    D. causes declines in frog populations
    E. is a major cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. In the life cycle of a bread mold, the stage in which diploid nuclei occur is:
    A.the gametangium
    B. the aseptate hypha
    C. the asexual spores
    D. the sporangium
    E. the zygosporangium

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. An ascocarp is:
    A.a species of carp from the Asco River in Peru that is host to parasitic glomeromycotan fungi
    B. the fruiting body of a sac fungus
    C. an asexual spore of a sac fungus
    D. an asexual spore of a lichen
    E. the fruiting body of wood-decay fungi

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following kinds of fungi is NOT an ascomycete?
    A.cup fungi
    B. yeasts
    C. morels
    D. truffles
    E. bread mold

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an ascomycete?
    A.apple scab
    B. wheat rust
    C. powdery mildew
    D. chestnut blight
    E. Dutch elm disease

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Which of the following kinds of fungi is NOT a basidiomycete?
    A.mushroom
    B. shelf fungus
    C. smuts
    D. morels
    E. puffballs

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. A clamp connection is:
    A.a ring of hyphae produced by some fungi that is used to snare nematodes
    B. a bypass formed during cell division in basidiomycetes that aids distribution on nuclei
    C. the connection of a basidiospore to the basidium
    D. the sticky substance that holds shelf fungi onto trees
    E. the hyphae that hold crustose lichens onto rocks

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which of the following best describes the sexual life cycle of bread mold?
    A.(1) Multinucleate gametangi are produced and compatible strains undergo plasmogeny, and form (2) a heterokaryotic zygosporangium. (3) Karyogamy of the haploid nuclei takes place to form many diploid nuclei and the zygosporangium develops into a thick-walled zygospore. (4) Meiosis occurs and produces many haploid spores, that (5) are dispersed in air and germinate when finding a suitable environment.
    B. (1) Multinucleate gametangi are produced and compatible strains undergo karyogamy and plasmogamy, and form (2) a heterokaryotic zygosporangium. (3) Meiosis of the diploid nuclei takes place to form many haploid nuclei and the zygosporangium develops into a thick-walled zygospore. (4) Fusion of haploid nuclei occurs and produces spores, that (5) are dispersed in air and germinate when finding a suitable environment.
    C. (1) Uninucleate gametangi are produced and compatible strains undergo plasmogeny and form (2) a dikaryotic zygosporangium. (3) Karyogamy forms a diploid nucleus and the zygosporangium develops into a thick-walled zygospore. (4) Meiosis of diploic nuclei occurs and produces four haploid spores, that (5) are dispersed in air and germinate when finding a suitable environment.
    D. (1) Multinucleate zygosporangia develop thick walls and undergo plasmogamy with compatible strains (2) to form a heterokaryotic gametangium. (3) Karyogamy of the haploid nuclei takes place to form many diploid nuclei and they develop into thick-walled spores. (4) These undergo plasmogamy and produce diploid spores, that (5) are dispersed in air and germinate when finding a suitable environment.
    E. (1) Multinucleate gametangi with diploid nuclei are produced and compatible strains undergo meiosis (2) to produce a heterokaryotic zygosporangium with haploid nuclei. (3) Karyogamy of these nuclei takes place to form diploid nuclei that have a dark, thick wall. (4) These develop into spores, that (5) are dispersed in air and germinate when finding a suitable environment.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The sporangia (asci) of ascomycetes each ultimately produces:
    A.eight diploid spores
    B. four genetically identical haploid spores
    C. four haploid spores, each genetically different
    D. eight identical haploid spores
    E. eight haploid spores, of which there are two each of four different genetic types

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. An individual basidium ultimately produces:
    A.eight diploid spores
    B. four genetically identical haploid spores
    C. four haploid spores, each genetically different
    D. eight identical haploid spores
    E. eight haploid spores, of which there are two each of four different genetic types

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The hyphae of basidiomycetes:
    A.can contain one diploid nucleus
    B. can contain one haploid nucleus
    C. can be dikaryotic
    D. can be heterokaryotic
    E. can be any of the choices provided except “one diploid nucleus”

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.01
Topic: Plants
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Fungi differ from plants and animals by having the spindle remaining enclosed within the nuclear envelope during nuclear division.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. All materials passing from one hyphal cell to another must diffuse across the septal wall.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Reproduction by asexual spores in fungi allows dispersal to a new location but doesn’t facilitate invasion of new KINDS of habitats.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Conidia are sexual spores produced by mushrooms.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Wildlife benefit from endophytes because the endophytes cause more luxuriant plant growth.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 31.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Lichens are monophyletic.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.02
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. In a lichen, the fungus and the symbiotic algae are highly coevolved.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level:Analyze
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Many kinds of ascomycetes and basidiomycetes have lost the ability to reproduce sexually.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Some chytrids parasitize protists.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 31.03
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Some yeasts have “stripped-down” genomes as small as 200 protein-coding genes.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section:31.04
Topic: Plants
 

Chapter 48

Test Bank: Respiratory Systems

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. The proportion of the air we breathe accounted for by oxygen is approximately ___%.
    A.21
    B. 1
    C. 5
    D. 50
    E. 78

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The proportion of the total air pressure that is exerted by an individual gas in a gas mixture is referred to as the ______ of that gas.
    A.partial pressure
    B. incomplete pressure
    C. total pressure
    D. gas-specific gravity
    E. barometry

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The atmospheric pressure on top of Mt. Everest is only about 238 mmHg, so the approximate partial pressure of oxygen there is
    A.2.4 mmHg.
    B. 50 mmHg.
    C. 186 mmHg.
    D. 238 mmHg.
    E. 476 mmHg.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.02
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Respiratory surfaces in all vertebrates have
    A.moist epithelia.
    B. large surface areas.
    C. thin epithelia.
    D. a very high degree of vascularization.
    E. All of the answers for this question are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a reason respiration in water is challenging?
    A.Water is very dense relative to air.
    B. Water holds relatively little oxygen compared to air.
    C. Water moving over thin respiratory epithelial surfaces can create osmotic challenges.
    D. Dessication of respiratory surfaces is a significant problem.
    E. All the choices except “dessication of respiratory surfaces” are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure:48.03
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. All of the following respiratory surfaces are associated with capillary beds EXCEPT the
    A.gills of fishes.
    B. alveoli of the lungs.
    C. tracheae of insects.
    D. skin of earthworms.
    E. All of the answers for this question are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.06
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The exchange surfaces of fish gills are arranged as rows of
    A.lamellae.
    B. trachea.
    C. alveoli.
    D. parabronchi.
    E. spiracles.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.06
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The main phenomenon that increases the efficiency of gas exchange in fish gills is the
    A.countercurrent exchange mechanism.
    B. co-current exchange mechanism.
    C. high degree of oxygen saturation of water.
    D. back-and-forth movement of water that maximizes oxygen uptake.
    E. very high blood pressure found in the circulatory system of fishes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 48.06
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which one of the following statements about gills operating in water is FALSE?
    A.Water can support delicate gill structures.
    B. Most fish actively pump water over their gills.
    C. Keeping membranes moist is not a problem.
    D. Water carries more oxygen than air and this requires gills be more efficient than lungs.
    E. Gills have evolved many times and take different forms in aquatic animals.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.06
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The openings to the ___________ system (respiratory system) in insects are termed _________.
    A.spiracle, tracheae
    B. tracheal, bronchi
    C. spiracle, alveoli
    D. tracheal, spiracles
    E. tracheal, stomata

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure:48.07
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following respiratory systems is not dependent on the animal’s circulatory system to function efficiently?
    A.vertebrate lungs
    B. fish gills
    C. tracheal systems in insects
    D. the skin of earthworms
    E. All of the systems noted here are closely associated with the circulatory system.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure:48.07
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following vertebrates relies on a positive pressure filling mechanism to move air into their lungs?
    A.human
    B. eagle
    C. bullfrog
    D. crocodile
    E. mouse

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure:48.03
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following sequences accurately describes the series of structures through which air passes through on the way into the mammalian lung?
    A.pharynx ® larynx ® trachea ® bronchi ® bronchioles ® alveoli
    B. larynx ® pharynx ® trachea ® bronchi ® bronchioles ® alveoli
    C. pharynx ® trachea ® larynx ® bronchi ® bronchioles ®alveoli
    D. bronchi ® bronchioles ® pharynx ® larynx ® trachea ® alveoli
    E. alveoli ® bronchioles ® bronchi ® trachea ® larynx ® pharynx

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. The actual sites of gas exchange in the mammalian lung are termed
    A.alveoli.
    B. lamellae.
    C. parabronchi.
    D. bronchi.
    E. epiglotti.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

 

  1. In the alveoli
    A.oxygen diffuses into the blood while carbon dioxide diffuses out of the blood.
    B. oxygen diffuses out of the blood while carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood.
    C. both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse out of the blood.
    D. both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse into the blood.
    E. no exchange with the blood occurs.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

  1. What would be the most direct result of an individual having an inability to produce surfactant in their alveoli?
    A.The alveoli would physically collapse.
    B. The alveoli would be much more likely to harbor infections.
    C. The alveoli would fill with fluid due to an ion transport defect.
    D. Oxygen exchange with the blood would be impaired due to a thickening of the epithelium.
    E. Carbon dioxide exchange with the blood would be impaired due to an inhibition of carbonic anhydrase.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The lungs of mammals are encased in what is specifically referred to as the
    A.pleural sac.
    B. pericardial cavity.
    C. alveolar cavity.
    D. bronchial space.
    E. pharyngeal cavity.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The force necessary to fill the lungs in a mammal is provided by the
    A.diaphragm.
    B. intercostal muscles.
    C. buccal muscles.
    D. diaphragm and buccal muscles.
    E. diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Boyle’s law of gas behavior predicts that as the volume of the lungs _____, the pressure of gases within the lungs must ______.
    A.increase, decrease
    B. increase, increase
    C. decrease, decrease
    D. increase, not change
    E. decrease, not change

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.08
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The volume of air normally breathed in and out of the lungs in a single breath at rest is referred to as the _____ volume.
    A.tidal
    B. total
    C. reserve
    D. inspiratory reserve
    E. expiratory reserve

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because
    A.the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
    B. pressure in the alveoli increases.
    C. the diaphragm contracts and pushes upward on the chest cavity.
    D. smooth muscle lining the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles contracts and causes their volume to increase.
    E. pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.09
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. During inspiration (a.k.a. inhalation) of air into the lung of a mammal
    A.the chest cavity has a positive pressure.
    B. the diaphragm moves upward.
    C. the diaphragm contracts.
    D. the rib cage moves down.
    E. the intercostal muscles relax.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following groups of vertebrates exhibits a “flow through” respiratory system?
    A.mammals
    B. birds
    C. amphibians
    D. fishes
    E. birds and fishes

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The physiologist J. Soum surgically sealed off an air sac of a pigeon and injected carbon monoxide into it. What did he observe and conclude from this experiment?
    A.The bird died demonstrating the toxicity of this gas.
    B. The bird was fine, demonstrating this gas is not actually toxic.
    C. The bird died, indicating diffusion of gases across the air sac into the blood.
    D. The bird showed no ill effects, indicating diffusion of gases from the air sac into the blood.
    E. The bird showed no ill effects, indicating gases do not diffuse from the air sac into the blood.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Birds have
    A.a backcurrent lung.
    B. an air sac lung.
    C. a parabronchial lung.
    D. a negative pressure lung.
    E. a tracheal lung.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.11
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. When Dr. Schmidt-Nielsen and his colleagues followed a “pulse” of 100% inhaled oxygen through the respiratory system of an ostrich, the oxygen pulse went to the
    A.posterior air sacs to the lung and then to the anterior air sacs before being exhaled.
    B. anterior air sacs to the lung and then to the posterior air sacs before being exhaled.
    C. lung and then to the anterior air sacs and finally the posterior air sacs before being exhaled.
    D. lung and then to the posterior air sacs and finally the anterior air sacs before being exhaled.
    E. lung and then back out with exhalation—the air sacs were not involved.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 48.13
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The respiratory centers that control ventilation of the lungs in mammals are located in the
    A.brainstem.
    B. hypothalamus.
    C. cerebral cortex.
    D. bronchi.
    E. neck.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 48.14
Topic: General
 

  1. The sensors in the brainstem breathing control centers respond primarily to the concentration of
    A.oxygen.
    B. carbon dioxide.
    C. bicarbonate ions.
    D. hemoglobin.
    E. hydrogen ions.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.04
Topic: General
 

  1. Breathing is usually regulated by
    A.erythropoietin levels in the blood.
    B. the concentration of red blood cells.
    C. hemoglobin levels in the blood.
    D. CO2 concentration and pH sensors.
    E. the lungs and larynx.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.04
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood of humans is transported
    A.as dissolved CO2 in plasma.
    B. as bicarbonate ion in plasma.
    C. attached to hemoglobin in red blood cells.
    D. attached to hemoglobin in plasma.
    E. as carbonic acid.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 48.15
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. Select the formula below that correctly represents the behavior of CO2 in the blood.
    A.CO2 + H2O « H2CO3 + CO
    B. CO2 + H+ « HCO3+ « H2O + H2CO3
    C. CO2 + HCO3 « H+ + H2O + H2CO3
    D. CO2 + H2O « H2CO3 « HCO3 + H+
    E. CO2 + H2CO3 + O2 « H2O + CO2 + H2CO3

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 48.15
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. Imagine that you have two people using breathing gear under water. Diver 1 is using an old style “rebreather” that removes carbon dioxide before the mixture is “rebreathed” and therefore decreases overall carbon dioxide concentrations in the blood. Diver 2 is using regular SCUBA gear and is breathing air with the normal amount of carbon dioxide that does not lower blood levels of carbon dioxide. Which diver would have a higher blood pH and which would feel more an “urge to breathe”?
    A.Diver 1 would have higher blood pH and would feel the “urge to breathe” sooner.
    B. Diver 2 would have higher blood pH and feel the “urge to breathe” sooner.
    C. Diver 1 would have higher blood pH, while Diver 2 would feel the “urge to breathe” sooner.
    D. Diver 2 would have higher blood pH, while Diver 1 would feel the “urge to breathe” sooner.
    E. There would be no difference in blood pH or breathing between the two divers.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.06
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The respiratory pigment you would find in a blue crab or octopus is
    A.hemocyanin.
    B. hemoglobin.
    C. hemophilin.
    D. ferritin.
    E. calmodulin.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 48.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The metal atom bound to the heme group of hemoglobin is
    A.iron.
    B. copper.
    C. manganese.
    D. zinc.
    E. sodium.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of hemoglobin?
    A.It is a large protein with four subunits.
    B. It is packaged into red blood cells.
    C. It binds four O2 molecules cooperatively.
    D. O2 is bound to heme group containing iron atom.
    E. It contains an oxygen binding group that includes a copper atom.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.15
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Of the following mammals, you would expect the _____ to have hemoglobin with the lowest affinity for oxygen.
    A.mouse
    B. wolf
    C. human
    D. horse
    E. elephant

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 48.15
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is _______ by lowered blood pH and this ______ oxygen delivery to tissues.
    A.increased, increases
    B. increased, decreases
    C. decreased, increases
    D. decreased, decreases
    E. not affected, does not affect

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. Being heterozygous for the hemoglobin gene variant that causes the disease sickle-cell anemia can be advantageous in what situation?
    A.in areas where malaria is endemic
    B. when iron intake is too low in the diet
    C. in elite athletes because it slightly decreases oxygen affinity
    D. when a person has anemia caused by other factors
    E. when a person is at high altitude

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The hormone that helps us respond to low oxygen levels by promoting an increase in red blood cell counts is
    A.erythropoietin.
    B. hemopoeitin.
    C. renin-angiotensin.
    D. adrenocorticotropin.
    E. estradiol.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.05
Topic: General
 

  1. Diving mammals like whales and seals experience frequent periods when they are not able to breathe air. Which of the following is a muscle adaptation they show to this challenge?
    A.increased myoglobin concentrations
    B. increased capillary densities
    C. increased amounts of sarcoplasmic reticulum
    D. increased expression of acetylcholine receptors
    E. All of the choices for this question are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.06
Topic: General
 

  1. Smoking is a major contributor to which of the following diseases?
    A.lung cancer
    B. cardiovascular disease
    C. emphysema
    D. esophageal cancer
    E. All of the answers for this question are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.07
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Which of the following diseases affecting respiratory function is caused by an infectious organism?
    A.lung cancer
    B. emphysema
    C. asthma
    D. cystic fibrosis
    E. pneumonia

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.07
Topic: General
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Temperature influences the solubility of gases in water.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

  1. All gases are equally soluble in water.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Fishes exhibit a method of ventilating their gills termed “tidal ventilation.”
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.04
Section: 48.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Mammals fill their lungs using a negative pressure mechanism.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.10
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. The lungs of a bird expand as it inhales and contract as it exhales.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.11
Section: 48.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. When Schmidt-Nielsen and his colleagues followed a “pulse” of air through the respiratory system of an ostrich, it took two full cycles of inhalation and exhalation for this pulse to pass through and be exhaled.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 48.13
Section: 48.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Chemoreceptors for oxygen normally play the most important role in regulating breathing rate.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 48.04
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Smaller mammals typically have higher ventilation rates than large mammals.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 48.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is a straight line.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 48.16
Section: 48.06
Topic: General
 

  1. Asthma attacks result from contraction of the muscles surrounding the bronchioles.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 48.07
Topic: General
 

Chapter 58

Test Bank: Community Ecology

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Community ecology is best defined as the study of
    A. plant distributions in a given region.
    B.  mutual benefits between organisms at all scales in a region.
    C.  the relationship between abiotic and biotic factors.
    D.  how groups of species interact and form functional communities.
    E.  global scale influences of major disturbances such as volcanos.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The individualistic model of a community as an assemblage coexisting primarily of species similar in their physiological requirements was proposed by
    A. Frederic Clements.
    B.  Charles Darwin.
    C.  Henry Allan Gleason.
    D.  David Tilman.
    E.  Joseph Connell.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. What is the general trend globally for increasing species richness?
    A. Increasing from east to west across continental land masses.
    B.  Increasing from polar areas towards the tropics.
    C.  Increasing from tropical seas into temperate forests.
    D.  Increasing from the tropics towards polar areas.
    E.  Increasing from clay soil types into organic soils.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.03
Section: 58.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Lake Baikal in Siberia is an ancient lake with a very diverse fauna. This diversity is consistent with the
    A. time hypothesis.
    B.  individualistic model.
    C.  organismic model.
    D.  principle of species individuality.
    E.  effects of decreasing latitude and decreasing temperatures.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The idea that most ecological communities merge into one another gradually is part of the
    A. equilibrium model.
    B.  species-area effect.
    C.  time hypothesis.
    D.  organismic model.
    E.  principle of species individuality.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. If you (incorrectly) proposed that tundra, the world’s largest land biome, contains high species richness, your proposal would be consistent with the
    A. area hypothesis.
    B.  time hypothesis.
    C.  productivity hypothesis.
    D.  MTE.
    E.  MDE.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.04
Section: 58.02
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The species richness of trees can be predicted by
    A. the time hypothesis.
    B.  species-area effect.
    C.  patterns of smaller insects.
    D.  the evapotranspiration rate.
    E.  the species-area effect.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.04
Section: 58.02
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. The productivity and area hypotheses together suggest that a large, tropical continent would likely have __________ species richness.
    A. low
    B.  mature
    C.  poor
    D.  cyclical
    E.  high

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.05
Section: 58.02
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The intermediate-disturbance hypothesis predicts that the most species rich communities would contain
    A. both r– and K-selected species.
    B.  high rates of evapotranspiration.
    C.  predominantly K-selected species.
    D.  intermediate biomass.
    E.  None of the answers is correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.06
Section: 58.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Metagenomics offers a DNA-based method to understand
    A. the history of species diversity.
    B.  the time hypothesis.
    C.  microbial diversity.
    D.  the organismic model of Clements.
    E.  the Shannon Diversity Index.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.07
Section: 58.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is true about temporal variation in community biomass?
    A. It is a characteristic of high species richness.
    B.  It increases with increases in species richness.
    C.  It decreases with increases in species richness.
    D.  It is predicted by the intermediate disturbance hypothesis.
    E.  It is predicted by Clements’ organismic model of community function.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.08
Section: 58.04
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. When species diversity is calculated, what is being measured?
    A. Species number.
    B.  The evapotranspiration rate.
    C.  Both species number and relative abundance.
    D.  The resistance of a community to disturbance.
    E.  The process of inhibition.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.03
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. What is an area of the Earth’s surface currently undergoing primary succession?
    A. Volcanoes in Hawaii.
    B.  Behind retreating glaciers in Canada and Alaska.
    C.  Volcanoes in Iceland.
    D.  The area around Mount St. Helens in Oregon.
    E.  All of the answers are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.10
Section: 58.05
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Clements argued that the final stage of succession was always
    A.a climax community.
    B. a cohort.
    C. a sere.
    D. a secondary sere.
    E. a cohort and a sere.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.09
Section: 58.05
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. In the wake of the retreat of a glacier, leaving bare rock and sand, the action of the first colonizing species in this environment to make the area suitable for other species is called
    A. secondary succession.
    B.  climax succession.
    C.  seral accumulation.
    D.  facilitation.
    E.  optimal succession.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.10
Section: 58.05
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. Which of these patterns would the intermediate disturbance hypothesis NOT explain?
    A. rapid growth and diversification in a recently glaciated area
    B.  low diversity where disturbance is rare
    C.  low diversity where disturbance is extremely frequent
    D.  high diversity in areas with frequent disturbance
    E.  high diversity in areas with frequent disturbance and low diversity where disturbance is rare

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.06
Section: 58.02
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. Much of the coast of the Indonesian island of Sumatra was devastated by the 2004 tsunami. The recovery of forests in that area is an example of
    A. secondary succession.
    B.  facilitation.
    C.  the diversity-stability hypothesis.
    D.  primary succession.
    E.  island biogeography.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.09
Section: 58.05
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. Species richness of birds in the continental United States is highest
    A. where temperatures are highest.
    B.  in northern California.
    C.  in Florida.
    D.  in Texas.
    E.  in the center.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.03
Section: 58.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Shannon diversity (Hs)
    A. goes up with increases in the number of species sampled and is higher when individuals are more equitably distributed among species.
    B.  is higher when individuals are more equitably distributed among species.
    C.  is independent of abundance.
    D.  increases in areas undergoing secondary succession.
    E.  is higher when individuals are more equitably distributed among species and is independent of abundance.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Diversity indices such as the Shannon diversity index are very valuable to
    A. agricultural economists who study crop production.
    B.  the evapotranspiration rate.
    C.  the formation of climax communities.
    D.  conservation biologists who study rare species.
    E.  metagenomics.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.03
Topic: Ecology
 

 

  1. Each phase of succession is called a
    A. series.
    B.  stage.
    C.  chronometer.
    D.  sere.
    E.  facilitation.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.11
Section: 58.05
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. In Frederic Clements’ view, succession proceeds to an end point called a(n)
    A. S1.
    B.  S2.
    C.  pioneer community.
    D.  climax community.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.09
Section: 58.05
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The moraines left when glaciers retreat are poor soils characterized by
    A. cairns that function as bird nests.
    B.  low nitrogen content and little organic matter.
    C.  ice year-round.
    D.  secondary succession.
    E.  high levels of nitrogen, phosphate and carbon.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.11
Section: 58.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. What is considered to be the primary method of succession in the marine intertidal zone?
    A. facilitation.
    B.  submission.
    C.  logistic growth.
    D.  facilitated growth.
    E.  inhibition.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.12
Section: 58.05
Topic: Animals
 

  1. In MacArthur and Wilson’s island biogeography model, species richness is a balance between
    A. arrival and extinction.
    B.  inhibition and facilitation.
    C.  arrival and speciation.
    D.  tolerance and inhibition.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.06
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. In island biogeography, larger islands support ______ species than smaller islands.
    A. more
    B.  fewer
    C.  larger
    D.  stranger
    E.  smaller

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.06
Topic: Plants
 

 

  1. Which of these types of islands is predicted to have the least species?
    A. small island near mainland
    B.  large island near mainland
    C.  large island far from mainland
    D.  small island far from mainland
    E.  small island near mainland or large island near mainland

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.06
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. Extinction rates on islands are predicted, based on island biogeography, to be lowest
    A. on small islands.
    B.  on large islands.
    C.  near islands.
    D.  far islands.
    E.  on large islands and far islands.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.06
Topic: Plants
 

  1. The source pool for an island can be
    A. the mainland.
    B.  another island.
    C.  secondary succession.
    D.  the mainland or another island.
    E.  density transition.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.16
Section: 58.06
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. How are species-area relationships traditionally plotted?
    A. on a log-log plot.
    B.  on a bar graph.
    C.  based on a source pool.
    D.  using a Shannon diversity index.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.15
Section: 58.06
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. Species turnover on islands has been observed to be low. What does this suggest about process in the equilibrium model of island biogeography?
    A. Facilitation is of minor importance to this model.
    B.  Secondary succession rarely succeeds.
    C.  Succession on most islands is a fairly orderly process.
    D.  The intermediate disturbance hypothesis can explain colonization rates.
    E.  Immigration of new species often can not keep up with extinction.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.06
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. Simberloff and Wilson carried out a famous experiment to study the recolonization by arthropods of small mangrove by islands after the islands were fumigated. One of their findings was
    A. several species of birds were facilitators of recolonization.
    B.  species turnover was high following recolonization.
    C.  recolonization was identical on all of the islands regardless of size.
    D.  species richness changes little following recolonization.
    E.  high diversity relative to the mainland.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.17
Section: 58.06
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. The number of bird species on islands near Papua New Guinea __________ as one gets farther from Papua New Guinea.
    A.increases
    B. decreases
    C. is unknown
    D. shows an inconsistent pattern
    E. None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.16
Section: 58.06
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. Support for the succession mechanism of tolerance is found in research on plant communities that shows
    A. the island biogeographic theory is generally supported.
    B.  turnover is not what would be predicted by other theories.
    C.  climax communities never form as predicted by Clements.
    D.  succession is determined largely by species that exist in the ground as seeds or old roots.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.13
Section: 58.05
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. Alders are trees with symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria in their roots. This enables alders to be a key part of _________ in recently glaciated areas in Alaska.
    A. intermediate disturbance
    B.  competition
    C.  primary succession
    D.  inhibition
    E.  secondary succession

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.11
Section: 58.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. The principle of species individuality suggests that in response to climate change, species should migrate
    A. as individual species.
    B.  as individual ecosystems.
    C.  through a process of primary succession.
    D.  in response to a steady level of disturbance.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.02
Section: 58.01
Topic: Ecology
 

  1. Who developed the individualistic model?
    A. Daniel Simberloff
    B.  Frederic Clements
    C.  Henry Allan Gleason
    D.  Joseph Connell
    E.  E. O. Wilson

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Plants
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. In the organismic model, communities are superorganisms.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. A forest community consists of not only the trees and shrubs, but also the animals and microorganisms.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.01
Section: 58.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. If one species in a community is very common this will increase measures species diversity.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The time hypothesis suggests communities diversify with age.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 58.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. South Texas has the highest bird species richness in the continental United States.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.03
Section: 58.01
Topic: Diversity
 

 

  1. The island biogeography model of Robert MacArthur and E.O. Wilson attempts to predict an equilibrium number of species on an island based on the immigration of new species and the extinction of resident species.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.14
Section: 58.02
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Tree species richness in the United States is highest in the southeast.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 58.05
Section: 58.02
Topic: Diversity
 

  1. In the Shannon diversity index, communities with more species evenness will tend to have a higher H.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 58.03
Topic: Plants
 

  1. Joseph Connell proposed that at low rates of disturbance, a community will become dominated by K-selected species.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.06
Section: 58.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The diversity-stability hypothesis supports the idea that pest outbreaks are less likely on cultivated land.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.08
Section: 58.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. MacArthur and Wilson’s island biogeography would predict that there would be more species in North America than in Greenland.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.15
Section: 58.06
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The productivity hypothesis would predict that there would be more species in North America than in the Amazon.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 58.05
Section: 58.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. A metagenomic library is a typical tool of analyzing the flowering plants in a forest community.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 58.07
Section: 58.03
Topic: Genetics