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Test Bank For Business Driven Information Systems 4th Edition by Paige Baltzan

 

CHAPTER 1: Management Information Systems: Business Driven MIS

1. Companies today are successful when they combine the power of the information age with traditional business methods.

True    False

 

2. Competitive intelligence is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making.

True    False

 

3. The information age is the present time, during which infinite quantities of facts are widely available to anyone who can use a computer.

True    False

 

4. Technology provides countless business opportunities, but can also lead to pitfalls and traps for a business.

True    False

 

5. Top managers use social intelligence to define the future of the business, analyzing markets, industries and economies to determine the strategic direction the company must follow to remain unprofitable.

True    False

 

6. A variable is a business intelligence characteristic that stands for a value that cannot change over time.

True    False

 

7. A fact is the confirmation or validation of an event or object. In the past, people primarily learned facts from books.

True    False

 

8. Zappos is not a technology company; its primary business focus is to sell books.

True    False

 

9. Order date, amount sold, and customer number are all forms of data.

True    False

 

10. Choosing not to fire a sales representative who is underperforming knowing that person is experiencing family problems is a form of knowledge.

True    False

 

11. Information is data converted into a meaningful and useful context. The truth about information is that its value is only as good as the people who use it. People using the same information can make different decisions depending on how they interpret or analyze the information.

True    False

 

12. Knowledge workers are individuals valued for their ability to manage teams and implement critical human resource rules and regulations.

True    False

 

13. Using data and information to make decisions and solve problems is the key to finding success in business. These are also the core drivers of the information age and the building blocks of business systems.

True    False

 

14. Companies update business strategies continuously as internal and external environments change.

True    False

 

15. The finance department performs the function of selling goods or services.

True    False

 

16. The marketing department supports sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services.

True    False

 

17. The operations management department manages the process of converting or transforming resources into goods or services.

True    False

 

18. The accounting and finance departments primarily use monetary data.

True    False

 

19. The sales and marketing departments primarily use production data.

True    False

 

20. For an organization to succeed, every department or functional area must work independently to be most effective.

True    False

 

21. Successful companies today operate cross-functionally, integrating the operations of all departments.

True    False

 

22. An overview of systems thinking includes input, process, output, and finances.

True    False

 

23. MIS is a tool that is most valuable when it leverages the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively.

True    False

 

24. The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses.

True    False

 

25. The chief security officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks from hackers and viruses.

True    False

 

26. The chief technology officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability for MIS.

True    False

 

27. The chief privacy officer is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company.

True    False

 

28. The chief knowledge officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives.

True    False

 

29. The chief knowledge officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge.

True    False

 

30. Waiting tables, teaching, and cutting hair are all examples of services that people pay for to fulfill their needs.

True    False

 

31. Goods are material items or products that customer’s will buy to satisfy a want or need.

True    False

 

32. Cars, groceries, and clothing are all examples of goods.

True    False

 

33. Production is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

True    False

 

34. Productivity is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs.

True    False

 

35. Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in the process of making a hamburger.

True    False

 

36. Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in the process of making a hamburger.

True    False

 

37. Bread, cheese, and butter are included in the process of making a grilled cheese sandwich.

True    False

 

38. A grilled cheese sandwich is considered the final output of a making-a-sandwich process.

True    False

 

39. If a business could produce the same hamburger with less expensive inputs it would probably see a decrease in profits.

True    False

 

40. If a business could produce more hamburgers with the same inputs it would see a rise in productivity and possibly an increase in profits.

True    False

 

41. A leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives is a business strategy.

True    False

 

42. When a company is the first to market with a competitive advantage, it gains a particular benefit known as competitive intelligence.

True    False

 

43. To combat business challenges leaders communicate and execute business strategies from the Greek word stratus for army and ago for leading.

True    False

 

44. Businesses rarely need to update business strategies as the business environment remains relatively stable.

True    False

 

45. Attracting new customers, decreasing costs, and entering new markets are all examples of business strategies.

True    False

 

46. Decreasing customer loyalty, increasing costs, and decreasing sales are all examples of business strategies.

True    False

 

47. A first-mover advantage is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed.

True    False

 

48. FedEx created a first-mover advantage by developing its customer self-service software, which allows people to request parcel pickups, print mailing slips, and track parcels online.

True    False

 

49. Competitive advantages provide the same product or service either at a lower price or with additional value that can fetch premium prices.

True    False

 

50. Mark Peterson identified the Porter’s Five Forces Model which analyzes the competitive forces within a business environment.

True    False

 

51. Porter’s Five Forces Model outlines the process for a sales strategy.

True    False

 

52. With the Five Forces Model, companies should watch the forces in the market. If the forces are strong competition generally increases and if the forces are weak competition typically decreases.

True    False

 

53. There are many challenges to changing doctors, including transferring medical records and losing the patient-doctor relationship along with the doctor’s knowledge of the patient’s history. Changing doctors provides a great example of switching costs.

True    False

 

54. Supplier power is one of Porter’s five forces and it measures the suppliers’ ability to influence the prices they charge for supplies (including materials, labor, and services).

True    False

 

55. Polaroid had a unique competitive advantage for many years until it forgot to observe competitive intelligence. The firm went bankrupt when people began taking digital pictures. Polaroid provides a great example of Porter’s threat of new entrants.

True    False

 

56. Product differentiation occurs when a company develops unique differences in its products or services with the intent to influence demand.

True    False

 

57. Buyer power is the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item.

True    False

 

58. Rivalry among existing competitors refers to the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item.

True    False

 

59. The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of customers to purchase alternatives.

True    False

 

60. The threat of substitute products or services refers to the power of competitors to enter a new market.

True    False

 

61. Tiffany & Company competes in the marketplace by offering high-cost custom jewelry. Tiffany & Company is following a broad market and cost leadership strategy.

True    False

 

62. Porter has identified three generic business strategies including focused, broad cost leadership, and switching strategy.

True    False

 

63. According to Porter’s three generic strategies, Walmart is following a business strategy that focuses on ‘broad market and low cost’.

True    False

 

64. According to Porter it is recommended to adopt only one of the three generic strategies.

True    False

 

65. Buyer power is included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies.

True    False

 

66. Value chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service.

True    False

 

67. A standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task is called a supply chain component.

True    False

 

68. The value chain will group a company’s activities into two categories: primary value activities and support value activities.

True    False

 

69. A business process is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order.

True    False

 

70. A primary value activity is a standardized set of activities that accomplish a specific task, such as processing a customer’s order.

True    False

 

71. Inbound logistics and operations are part of the primary value activities.

True    False

 

72. Inbound logistics and operations are part of the support value activities.

True    False

 

73. Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the primary value activities.

True    False

 

74. Firm infrastructure and human resource management are part of the support value activities.

True    False

 

75. Which of the following is not considered a core driver of the information age?

A. Information.

 

B. Business Intelligence.

 

C. Competitive Intelligence.

 

D. Data.

 

76. Which of the following is not considered a core driver of the information age?

A. Information.

 

B. Business Intelligence.

 

C. Knowledge.

 

D. All of the above.

 

77. Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age?

A. Fact.

 

B. Goods.

 

C. Competitive Intelligence.

 

D. Data.

 

78. Which of the following is considered a core driver of the information age?

A. Information.

 

B. Business Intelligence.

 

C. Knowledge.

 

D. All of the above.

 

79. Why do students need to study information technology?

A. Information technology is everywhere in business

 

B. Information technology is rarely discussed in business

 

C. Information technology is rarely used in organizations

 

D. Information technology is found in only a few businesses

 

80. Why do students need to study information technology?

A. Information technology is everywhere in business

 

B. Information technology is frequently discussed in business

 

C. Information technology is frequently used in organizations

 

D. All of the above.

 

81. What is the confirmation or validation of an event or object?

A. Fact.

 

B. Data.

 

C. Information technology.

 

D. All of the above.

 

82. The age we live in has infinite quantities of facts that are widely available to anyone who can use a computer. What age is this statement referring to?

A. Data age.

 

B. Information age.

 

C. Business intelligence age.

 

D. All of the above.

 

83. Which of the following is not a technology company but used technology to revamp the business process of selling books?

A. Netflix.

 

B. Dell.

 

C. Zappos.

 

D. Amazon.

 

84. Which of the following is not a technology company but used technology to revamp the business process of renting videos?

A. Netflix.

 

B. Dell.

 

C. Zappos.

 

D. Amazon.

 

85. Which of the following is not a technology company but used technology to revamp the business process of selling shoes?

A. Netflix.

 

B. Dell.

 

C. Zappos.

 

D. Amazon.

 

86. What is data?

A. Raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object.

 

B. Data converted into a meaningful and useful context.

 

C. Information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making.

 

D. Skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, that creates a person’s intellectual resources.

 

87. What is information?

A. Raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object.

 

B. Data converted into a meaningful and useful context.

 

C. Information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making.

 

D. Skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence that creates a person’s intellectual resources.

 

88. What is business intelligence?

A. Raw facts that describe the characteristics of an event or object.

 

B. Data converted into a meaningful and useful context.

 

C. Information collected from multiple sources that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making.

 

D. Skills, experience, and expertise, coupled with information and intelligence, that creates a person’s intellectual resources.

 

89. Which of the following is considered information?

A. Quantity sold

 

B. Date sold

 

C. Best-selling item by month

 

D. All of the above

 

90. Which of the following is considered data?

A. Quantity sold

 

B. Best customer by month

 

C. Best selling item by month

 

D. Worst selling item by month

 

91. Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of a piece of data Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

A. Craig Newmark is customer number 15467.

 

B. Compare the costs of supplies including energy over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month.

 

C. Best-selling product by day.

 

D. Best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working.

 

92. Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of the type of information Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

A. Craig Newmark is customer number 15467.

 

B. Compare the costs of supplies including energy over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month.

 

C. Best-selling product by day.

 

D. Best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working.

 

93. Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of knowledge that Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

A. Craig Newmark is customer number 15467.

 

B. Compare the costs of supplies including energy over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month.

 

C. Best-selling product by day

 

D. Best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working.

 

94. Cheryl Steffan is the operations manager for Nature’s Bread Company, which specializes in providing natural products for health conscious individuals. Cheryl is responsible for compiling, analyzing, and evaluating daily sales numbers to determine the company’s profitability and forecast production for the next day. Which of the following is an example of knowledge that Cheryl would be using to successfully perform her job?

A. Craig Newmark is customer number 15467.

 

B. Compare the costs of supplies including energy over the last five years to determine the best-selling product by month.

 

C. Best-selling product by day

 

D. Best-selling product changes when Tony the best baker is working.

 

95. Data is useful for understanding individual sales, but to gain deeper insight into a business data needs to be turned into information. Which of the following offers an example of turning data into information?

A. Who are my best customers?

 

B. What is my best-selling product?

 

C. What is my worst-selling product?

 

D. All of the above

 

96. Which of the following provides an example of information?

A. Who is customer number 12345XX?

 

B. What is product number 12345XX?

 

C. What customer number is Bob Smith?

 

D. What is my worst-selling product?

 

97. Which of the following provides an example of data?

A. Who are my best customers?

 

B. What is my best-selling product?

 

C. What is my worst-selling product?

 

D. Who is customer number 12345XX?

 

98. Business intelligence is information collected from multiple sources. Which of the following provides an example of a source that would be included in business intelligence?

A. Suppliers.

 

B. Customers.

 

C. Competitors.

 

D. All of the above.

 

99. Knowledge includes the skills, experience, and expertise coupled with information and _________ that creates a person’s intellectual resources.

A. Resources.

 

B. Intelligence.

 

C. Expectations.

 

D. Enterprise information.

 

100. Which of the following is not a topic associated with the information age?

A. Collection of data.

 

B. Storage of data.

 

C. College statistics for data.

 

D. Use of data.

 

101. Which of the following represents the core drivers of the information age?

A. Data, Information, Business Intelligence, Knowledge.

 

B. Fact, Data, Intelligence, Experience.

 

C. Fact, Intelligence, Business Skills, Knowledge.

 

D. Data, Intelligence, Business Information, Knowledge.

 

102. Which of the following is not a core driver of the information age?

A. Information.

 

B. Knowledge.

 

C. Fact.

 

D. Data.

 

103. Which of the following represents the definition of a variable?

A. A data characteristic that is collected through competitive intelligence and cannot change over time.

 

B. A data characteristic that stands for a value that changes or varies over time.

 

C. A data characteristic that stands for a value that does not change or vary over time.

 

D. A data characteristic that is collected only through competitive intelligence and can change over time.

 

104. Today’s workers are referred to as _______________ and they use BI along with personal experience to make decisions based on both information and intuition, a valuable resource for any company.

A. Knowledge workers

 

B. Knowledge thinkers

 

C. Knowledge resources

 

D. All of the above

 

105. What is information collected from multiple sources such as suppliers, customers, competitors, partners, and industries that analyzes patterns, trends, and relationships for strategic decision making?

A. Supplier’s intelligence.

 

B. Social intelligence.

 

C. Employee intelligence.

 

D. Business intelligence.

 

106. Information is data converted into useful, meaningful context. What are data characteristics that change or vary over time?

A. Facts.

 

B. Variables.

 

C. Supplies.

 

D. Vulnerable.

 

107. Which of the below is the key term that defines the confirmation or validation of an event or object?

A. Buyer power.

 

B. Data.

 

C. Fact.

 

D. Entry barrier.

 

108. What is data converted into a meaningful and useful context called?

A. Competitive intelligence.

 

B. Information.

 

C. Buyer power.

 

D. First-mover advantage.

 

109. As companies move from data to knowledge, they will start to include more and more variables for analysis resulting in better, more precise support for_____________.

A. Decision making.

 

B. Problem solving.

 

C. Both A & B.

 

D. None of the above.

 

110. How are the majority of companies today typically organized?

A. By departments or functional areas.

 

B. By departments or financial areas.

 

C. By degree or financial areas.

 

D. All of the above.

 

111. How does the text recommend that a company operate if it wants to be successful in the information age?

A. Functionally independent between departments.

 

B. Interdependently between departments.

 

C. Together as one department with little or no independence.

 

D. Each department acting as its own individual business unit.

 

112. Most companies are typically organized by departments or functional areas. Which of the following is not a common department found in a company?

A. Accounting.

 

B. Payroll.

 

C. Marketing.

 

D. Human Resources.

 

113. Which of the following is typically performed by the sales or marketing department?

A. Manage enterprise-wide processes.

 

B. Maintain employment policies.

 

C. Manage cross-enterprise processes.

 

D. Maintain transactional data.

 

114. The sales department needs to rely on information from operations to understand _________.

A. Inventory.

 

B. Customer orders.

 

C. Demand forecasts.

 

D. All of the above.

 

115. Which of the following represents the department that maintains policies, plans, and procedures for the effective management of employees?

A. Human Resources.

 

B. Sales.

 

C. Employee Resources.

 

D. Employee Relations.

 

116. Greg works for Geneva Steel Corporation. Greg’s duties include managing the overall processes for the company and transforming the steel resources into goods. Which department would Greg most likely work in?

A. Accounting.

 

B. Operations.

 

C. Marketing.

 

D. CIO.

 

117. Information technology can enable departments to more efficiently and effectively perform their core _____________.

A. Facts.

 

B. Feedback mechanisms.

 

C. Business operations.

 

D. Media issues.

 

118. The department within a company that records, measures, and reports monetary transactions is called _______________.

A. Accounting.

 

B. Marketing.

 

C. Finance.

 

D. Operations Management.

 

119. The department within a company that performs the function of selling goods or services is called _______________:

A. Marketing.

 

B. Sales.

 

C. Finance.

 

D. Operations Management.

 

120. The department within a company that supports the sales by planning, pricing, and promoting goods or services is called ___________.

A. Sales.

 

B. Operations Management.

 

C. Accounting.

 

D. Marketing.

 

121. Which of the following represents the relationship between functional areas in a business?

A. Independent

 

B. Autonomous

 

C. Interdependent

 

D. Self-sufficient

 

122. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the accounting department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Technology data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

123. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the finance department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Technology data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

124. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the human resource department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Technology data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

125. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the sales department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Transactional data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

126. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the marketing department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Transactional data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

127. Which of the following represents the types of data commonly found in the operations management department?

A. Monetary data.

 

B. Transactional data.

 

C. Production data.

 

D. Employee data.

 

128. Which of the following statements is true?

A. IT equals business success.

 

B. IT equals business innovation.

 

C. IT represents business success and innovation.

 

D. IT enables business success and innovation.

 

129. What is the name of a company’s internal MIS department?

A. Management information systems (MIS)

 

B. Information systems (IS)

 

C. Information technology (IT)

 

D. All of the above

 

130. What are material items or products that customer’s will buy to satisfy a want or need?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

131. What are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

132. What is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

133. What is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

134. What are goods?

A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

 

D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

 

135. What are services?

A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

 

D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

 

136. What is production?

A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

 

D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

 

137. What is productivity?

A. Material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

B. Tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

 

C. The process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

 

D. The rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs

 

138. Cars, groceries, and clothing belong in which category?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

139. Teaching, waiting tables, and cutting hair belong in which category?

A. Goods

 

B. Services

 

C. Production

 

D. Productivity

 

140. Which of the following is considered a good?

A. Cars

 

B. Groceries

 

C. Clothing

 

D. All of the above

 

141. Which of the following is considered a service?

A. Teaching

 

B. Waiting tables

 

C. Cutting hair

 

D. All of the above

 

142. Which of the following is considered a good?

A. Cars

 

B. Teaching

 

C. Waiting tables

 

D. All of the above

 

143. Which of the following is considered a service?

A. Cars

 

B. Groceries

 

C. Cutting hair

 

D. All of the above

 

144. Which of the following is considered a good?

A. Milk and eggs

 

B. Managing a team

 

C. Selling groceries

 

D. All of the above

 

145. Which of the following is considered a service?

A. Selling groceries

 

B. Managing a team

 

C. Cutting hair

 

D. All of the above

 

146. Lettuce, tomatoes, patty, bun, and ketchup are included in which category of making a hamburger?

A. Input

 

B. Process

 

C. Output

 

D. All of the above

 

147. Cooking a patty and putting the ingredients together are included in which category of making a hamburger?

A. Input

 

B. Process

 

C. Output

 

D. All of the above

 

148. The actual hamburger is included in which category of making a hamburger?

A. Input

 

B. Process

 

C. Output

 

D. All of the above

 

149. Assume you are in the business of producing and selling hamburgers. If you could produce more hamburgers with the same input what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your hamburgers remains the same?

A. Increase in productivity, decrease in profits

 

B. Increase in productivity, increase in profits

 

C. Decrease in productivity, decrease in profits

 

D. Decrease in productivity, increase in profits

 

150. Assume you are in the business of producing and selling t-shirts. If you could produce more t-shirts with the same input what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your t-shirts remains the same?

A. Increase in productivity, decrease in profits

 

B. Increase in productivity, increase in profits

 

C. Decrease in productivity, decrease in profits

 

D. Decrease in productivity, increase in profits

 

151. Assume you are in the business of producing and selling cars. If you could produce more cars with the same input what would happen to your productivity and profits assuming the price of your cars remains the same?

A. Increase in productivity, decrease in profits

 

B. Increase in productivity, increase in profits

 

C. Decrease in productivity, decrease in profits

 

D. Decrease in productivity, increase in profits

 

152. Which four elements are included in systems thinking?

A. Output, Process, Feedback, and Accounting.

 

B. Process, Output, Operations, and Accounting.

 

C. Input, Process, Output, and Feedback.

 

D. Input, Output, Sales, and Feedback.

 

153. MIS is a business function, like accounting or sales, which moves information about people, products, and processes across the company to facilitate decision making and problem solving. What does MIS stands for?

A. Management Information Strategy.

 

B. Management Intelligence System.

 

C. Management Information System.

 

D. Management Information Strategist.

 

154. Shelby Black runs a very successful hair salon in downtown Los Angeles. One of Shelby’s tasks is to input positive and negative customer reviews into her computer system. What type of information is Shelby gathering?

A. Feedback.

 

B. Processing.

 

C. Output management.

 

D. Sales processing.

 

155. Who is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

156. Who is responsible for ensuring the ethical and legal use of information within a company?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

157. Who is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the management information systems?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

158. Who is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

159. Who is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

160. Trina Hauger works for Johnson Electric as a corporate lawyer and part of her duties are to ensure the ethical and legal use of information within the company. Which of the following represents Trina’s role at Johnson Electric?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

D. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

161. The challenge that companies today sometimes have is that they are departmentalized and act independently of each other. One solution that can help a company work interdepartmentally includes ___________.

A. System processes.

 

B. Human resources.

 

C. Management information systems.

 

D. Resource information systems.

 

162. Susan Stewart is an executive at Equity Title where she is responsible for collecting, maintaining and distributing knowledge for the company. What is Susan’s role at Equity Title?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

C. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

D. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

 

163. What is the primary responsibility of the CTO?

A. Overseeing all uses of MIS.

 

B. Ensuring the security of business systems.

 

C. Ensuring speed, accuracy, and reliability for MIS.

 

D. Collecting and distributing company information.

 

164. What is a way of monitoring the entire system in a company, by viewing the multiple inputs being processed to produce outputs?

A. Feedback thinking.

 

B. Systems thinking.

 

C. Output management.

 

D. Operational thinking.

 

165. Jeremy Bridges is an executive for Green Web Designs, where his primary role is to ensure the security of business systems and develop strategies to protect the company from online viruses and hackers. What is Jeremy’s role within the company?

A. Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

 

B. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

 

C. Chief Procurement Officer (CPO).

 

D. Chief Technology Officer (CTO).

 

166. Feedback is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions. What would the original transmitter include?

A. Input, Transform, Output.

 

B. Input, Transform, Outnumber.

 

C. Output, Input, Performer.

 

D. Input, Process, Transform.

 

167. MIS is a business function. Which of the following does MIS perform to help aid the company in decision making and problem solving?

A. Moves information about people.

 

B. Moves processes across the company to improve systems.

 

C. Moves information about products.

 

D. All of the above.

 

168. A system is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose. Systems thinking is a way of monitoring ________________.

A. The entire system.

 

B. A division within the sales role.

 

C. The executive team.

 

D. The company’s competitors.

 

169. MIS can be an important enabler of business success and innovation. Which of the below statements is accurate when referring to MIS?

A. MIS equals business success and innovation.

 

B. MIS represents business success and innovation.

 

C. MIS is not a valuable tool that leverages talent.

 

D. MIS is a valuable tool that can leverage the talents of people who know how to use and manage it effectively.

 

170. Which role within a company is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategic aligns with business goals and objectives?

A. Chief Knowledge Officer (CKO).

 

B. Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

 

C. Chief Information Officer (CIO).

 

D. Chief Security Officer (CSO).

 

171. Which of the following provides an accurate definition of systems thinking?

A. A way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on each part.

 

B. A way of monitoring individual components including an input, the process, and an output, while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system.

 

C. A way of monitoring the entire system by viewing multiple inputs being processed or transformed to produce outputs while continuously gathering feedback on the entire system.

 

D. A way of monitoring singular parts of a system by viewing a single input that is processed or transformed to produce an entire system that is continuously monitored to gather feedback on each individual part.

 

172. If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system which of the following represents the inputs?

A. The dirty clothes, water, and detergent.

 

B. The clean clothes.

 

C. The wash and rinse cycle.

 

D. The light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped.

 

173. If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system which of the following represents the process?

A. The dirty clothes, water, and detergent.

 

B. The clean clothes.

 

C. The wash and rinse cycle.

 

D. The light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped.

 

174. If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system which of the following represents the feedback?

A. The dirty clothes, water, and detergent.

 

B. The clean clothes.

 

C. The wash and rinse cycle.

 

D. The light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped.

 

175. If you were thinking about a washing machine as a system which of the following represents the outputs?

A. The dirty clothes, water, and detergent.

 

B. The clean clothes.

 

C. The wash and rinse cycle.

 

D. The light indicating that the washer is off balance and has stopped.

 

176. If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the input?

A. The uncooked food.

 

B. The cooked food.

 

C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature.

 

D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

 

177. If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the output?

A. The uncooked food.

 

B. The cooked food.

 

C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature.

 

D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

 

178. If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the process?

A. The uncooked food.

 

B. The cooked food.

 

C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature.

 

D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

 

179. If you were thinking about an oven as a system which of the following represents the feedback?

A. The uncooked food.

 

B. The cooked food.

 

C. A light indicating that the oven has reached the preheated temperature.

 

D. The oven running at 350 degrees for 20 minutes.

 

180. If you were thinking about a home theater system which of the following represents the inputs?

A. The DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity.

 

B. Playing the movie including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV.

 

C. A message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played.

 

D. Spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward.

 

181. If you were thinking about a home theater system which of the following represents the outputs?

A. The DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity.

 

B. Playing the movie including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV.

 

C. A message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played.

 

D. Spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward.

 

182. If you were thinking about a home theater system which of the following represents the process?

A. The DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity.

 

B. Playing the movie including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV.

 

C. A message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played.

 

D. Spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward.

 

183. If you were thinking about a home theater system which of the following represents the feedback?

A. The DVD player, DVD movie, speakers, TV, and electricity.

 

B. Playing the movie including the audio through the speakers and the video on the TV.

 

C. A message stating that the disk is dirty and cannot be played.

 

D. Spinning the disk to play, pause, rewind, or fast forward.

 

184. Which of the following is not a typical way that a company would duplicate a competitive advantage?

A. Acquiring the new technology.

 

B. Copying the business operations.

 

C. Hiring away key employees.

 

D. Carrying large product inventories.

 

185. When a company is the first to market with a competitive advantage, this is called a first-mover advantage. All of the following companies were first-movers except ____________.

A. FedEx – the online self-service software.

 

B. Apple – iPad.

 

C. Apple – iPod.

 

D. Microsoft – Bing Search Engine.

 

186. A business strategy achieves a specific set of goals which include __________.

A. Developing new products or services, attracting new competition.

 

B. Increasing costs, attracting new competition.

 

C. Attracting new customers, developing new products or services.

 

D. All of the above.

 

187. Competitive intelligence is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including _________.

A. Competitors’ employees.

 

B. Competitors’ differentiated processes.

 

C. Competitors’ plans.

 

D. All of the above.

 

188. Which of the following is a tool a manager can use to analyze competitive intelligence and identify competitive advantages?

A. The three generic strategies.

 

B. The threat of substitute buyer power.

 

C. Differentiated costs.

 

D. Supplier loyalty.

 

189. Identifying competitive advantages can be difficult and explains why they are typically _______.

A. Temporary.

 

B. Satisfactory.

 

C. Terminated.

 

D. Unsuccessful.

 

190. Updating business strategies is a continuous undertaking as internal and external environments ________.

A. Become less competitive.

 

B. Remain stagnant.

 

C. Rapidly change.

 

D. Become more consistent.

 

191. Which of the following represents a reason why competitive advantages are typically temporary?

A. The competitor will hire away your key employees.

 

B. The competitor quickly seeks ways to duplicate your business operations.

 

C. The competitor will purchase new technology.

 

D. All of the above.

 

192. What is a competitive advantage?

A. A product that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from a competitor.

 

B. A feature of a product or service on which customers place a lesser value than they do on similar offerings from a supplier.

 

C. A service that an organization’s customers place a lesser value on than similar offerings from a supplier.

 

D. A feature of a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors.

 

193. All of the following are common tools used in industry to analyze and develop competitive advantages, except:

A. Five Forces Model

 

B. Three Generic Strategies

 

C. Competitive analysis model

 

D. Value chain analysis

 

194. Greg Provenzo owns and runs a Blockbuster video store. Greg is implementing a drive-thru rental process that is the same as you would find at a fast food restaurant. Customers can pick-up and drop-off their videos without leaving their cars. Greg’s new system has become so popular that Videos Plus, a competitor down the street, is attempting to recreate Greg’s video drive-thru rental process. Greg’s system is an example of a _________.

A. Supply chain power.

 

B. First-mover advantage.

 

C. Business processing strategy.

 

D. Business Intelligence.

 

195. The process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed is the definition of ___________.

A. Feedback.

 

B. Information.

 

C. Competitive intelligence.

 

D. Data.

 

196. Steve Jobs and Apple created a big advantage in the technology industry with the introduction of the iPod, iPhone, and iPad. What are these all examples of?

A. Competitive advantage

 

B. Competitive intelligence

 

C. First-mover advantage

 

D. All of the above

 

197. Paula Logston is the owner and operator of a high-end online custom clothing company. Paula has never heard of Porter’s Five Forces model and she wants to understand why she would perform an analysis using it. If you were tasked with explaining Porter’s Five Forces model to Paula what would be the primary reason she would want to use this type of analysis?

A. To help Paula choose a clothing business focus.

 

B. To help Paula evaluate the attractiveness of the clothing industry.

 

C. To help Paula evaluate and execute business goals.

 

D. All of the above.

 

198. A __________ advantage features a product or service on which customers place a greater value than they do on similar offerings from competitors.

A. Competitive advantage

 

B. Competitor advantage

 

C. Power advantage

 

D. First-mover advantage

 

199. The Victory Wireless store in Denver is currently offering a fabulous marketing strategy for potential new iPhone customers. Victory Wireless offers customers who purchase an iPhone with a 2-year subscription, a free Otter phone case, car charger, ear phones, and speakers. In terms of Porter’s Five Forces what is Victory Wireless attempting to achieve with this marketing strategy?

A. Increase buyer power.

 

B. Increase substitute products.

 

C. Decrease supplier power.

 

D. Decrease buyer power.

 

200. Gina Brooks works for Aquarium Retail Services selling high-end salt water fish and tank supplies. Aquarium Retail Services is the current market leader in Gina’s city. Gina has recently been approached by Deep Blue Incorporated with an opportunity to run its corporate nation-wide marketing and sales division. Gina decides to jump at the opportunity! Deep Blue is attempting to gain a competitive ________ by stealing its competitor’s key employees.

A. Power

 

B. Entry Barrier

 

C. Advantage

 

D. Loyalty

 

201. The banking industry has implemented several competitive advantages including ATM’s, online bill pay services, and electronic statements. Of course, these competitive advantages were quickly duplicated by any competitor that wanted to remain in the banking industry. These were all examples of ___________ competitive advantages.

A. Acquiring new technology products and services

 

B. Hiring new employees

 

C. Reducing expenses

 

D. Gaining invaluable feedback from customers

 

202. Michael Porter defined the Five Forces Model and the potential pressures that can hurt sales. Which of the following is not one of the potential pressures that can hurt sales?

A. Suppliers can drive down profits by charging more for supplies.

 

B. New market entrants can steal potential investment capital.

 

C. Substitute products can steal customers.

 

D. Competition can steal customers.

 

203. Which of the following is included in Porter’s Five Forces Model?

A. Loyalty expenses.

 

B. Supply chain management.

 

C. The power of competitors.

 

D. Systems thinking.

 

204. Kevin Campbell is an incoming freshman at your college. Kevin is frustrated by the cost of books, tuition, and expenses and he also needs to purchase a rather expensive laptop. In an effort to save money, Kevin beings a Facebook group finding other college students who need to purchase laptops. Soon, Kevin’s Facebook group has close to 100,000 students. Kevin decides to collectively approach different computer companies to see if his group qualifies for a special discount. What business strategy is Kevin using to purchase laptops?

A. Collecting business intelligence.

 

B. Decreasing entry barriers.

 

C. Purchasing a substitute product.

 

D. Increasing buyer power.

 

205. What are costs that make customers reluctant to switch to another product or service?

A. Support activities.

 

B. Switching costs.

 

C. Loyalty rewards.

 

D. Value chain activities.

 

206. Callie Crystal owns and operates one of the most successful local coffee shops in Denver, called The Edgewater Café. Each time a customer purchases their 100th cup of coffee at The Edgewater Café they receive a free pound of coffee of their choice. What is Callie attempting to create with her unique “Free Pound of Coffee” marketing program?

A. Reducing buyer power with a loyalty program.

 

B. Increasing buyer power with a loyalty program.

 

C. Decreasing supplier power with a differentiated product.

 

D. Creating a substitute product.

 

207. What includes all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product?

A. Support chain.

 

B. Supply chain.

 

C. System chain.

 

D. Supply choice.

 

208. Which of the below represents a company in a supply chain?

A. Customer and competitor.

 

B. Supplier and competitor.

 

C. Knowledge worker and supplier.

 

D. Supplier and customer.

 

209. In the center of Porter’s Five Forces model is competition. Which of the below represents the four outer boxes?

A. Buyer power, systems power, threat of false entrants, and threat of substitute products or services

 

B. Buyer power, systems power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services

 

C. Buyer power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of substitute products or services

 

D. Business power, supplier power, threat of new entrants, and threat of powerful services

 

210. Shawn McGill is on the executive board for ABC pharmaceuticals. The company produces the number one selling cancer fighting drug on the market. Due to its incredible success ABC pharmaceuticals has decided to increase the cost of the drug from $8 a pill to $15 a pill. Which force is ABC pharmaceutical using to increase its drug price?

A. Supplier power.

 

B. Buyer power.

 

C. Threat of false entrants.

 

D. Business power.

 

211. What is one of the most common ways a company can decrease supplier power?

A. Charge lower prices.

 

B. Charge higher prices.

 

C. Use MIS to find and create alternative products.

 

D. Companies cannot impact supplier power.

 

212. If a supplier has high power what can it do to influence its industry?

A. Charge higher prices.

 

B. Shift costs to industry participants.

 

C. Limit quality or services.

 

D. All of the above.

 

213. When buyer power is low, supplier power is typically ______.

A. Identical.

 

B. High.

 

C. Low.

 

D. Unstable.

 

214. How can a company reduce the threat of substitute products or services?

A. Market the product to less than ten customers.

 

B. Ignore competitive forces.

 

C. Offer additional value through wider product distribution.

 

D. Offer less value making the product far more generic and similar to the competition.

 

215. Which one of Porter’s Five Forces is high when it is easy for new competitors to enter a market and low when there are significant entry barriers to joining a market?

A. Threat of new entrants.

 

B. Threat of substitute products or services.

 

C. Threat of buyer power.

 

D. Supply chain competition.

 

216. John Cleaver is the CEO of Tech World, which is a retail store that sells computers, monitors, cameras, televisions and many other electronic products. John and his executive team are meeting to brainstorm new ideas on how to grow the business. One idea is to mimic a competitor’s product that is attempting to sell a new product in a different industry. After performing a Porter’s Five Forces analysis John determines that all of the forces are high in this new industry. What should John do?

A. Explode into the market with an overflow of the product.

 

B. Contemplate other products to introduce at the same time in this new market.

 

C. Compare the competitor’s prices and offer his product lower in this new market.

 

D. Not introduce the product because all five forces are strong and this would be a highly risky business strategy.

 

217. What is a feature of a product or service that customers have come to expect and entering competitors must offer the same if they want to survive?

A. Significant barrier.

 

B. Entry barrier.

 

C. Product differentiation.

 

D. Entry chain.

 

218. Which of the following represents a typical supply chain?

A. Company – Customers – Suppliers.

 

B. Company – Suppliers – Customers.

 

C. Suppliers – Company – Customers.

 

D. Suppliers – Customers – Company.

 

219. Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the below statements indicates that it would be easy for you as the new entrants to compete in this market?

A. The threat of new entrants force is high in the up-and-coming market.

 

B. The threat of new entrants force is low in the up-and-coming market.

 

C. The threat of new entrants force is impossible to define in the up-and-coming market.

 

D. All of the above depending on the time of year.

 

220. Imagine you are creating a new product to sell in an up-and-coming market. Which of the below statements indicates that it would be difficult for you to enter this new market?

A. The threat of new entrants force is high in the up-and-coming market.

 

B. The threat of new entrants force is low in the up-and-coming market.

 

C. The threat of new entrants force is high during the summer months in the up-and-coming market.

 

D. All of the above depending on the time of year.

 

221. Which of the following offers an example where Porter’s Five Forces are mostly strong and competition is high?

A. A dog walking business.

 

B. A ski resort.

 

C. A professional hockey team.

 

D. All of the above.

 

222. Which of the following offers an example where Porter’s Five Forces are mostly weak and competition is low?

A. An international hotel chain purchasing milk.

 

B. A coffee shop.

 

C. A single consumer purchasing milk.

 

D. A dog walking business.

 

223. Some industries’ competition is much more intense than others. Retail grocery stores such as Kroger, Safeway, and Albertson’s in the United States experience fierce competition and offer similar marketing campaigns to compete. What is this an example of in terms of Porter’s Five Forces?

A. Rivalry among new entrants.

 

B. Rivalry among existing competitors.

 

C. Threat of substitute products or services.

 

D. Buyer power.

 

224. Amazon.com uses a customer profiling system whenever a customer visits its website. Using this system, Amazon can offer products tailored to that particular customer’s profile and buying pattern. What is Amazon using to achieve this competitive advantage?

A. Rivalry.

 

B. Buyer power.

 

C. Product differentiation.

 

D. Substitute product.

 

225. Your boss, Ty Jacob, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the music industry?

A. Established record labels like EMI, Sony, Universal.

 

B. Walmart, Target, iTunes.

 

C. Game systems like Wii, social networks like Facebook.

 

D. Taylor Swift, Beyonce, The Beatles, The Stones.

 

226. Your boss, Ty Jacob, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the music industry?

A. Established record labels like EMI, Sony, Universal.

 

B. Walmart, Target, iTunes.

 

C. Independent record labels.

 

D. Game systems like Wii, social networks like Facebook.

 

227. Your boss, Ty Jacob, has asked you to analyze the music industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents the threat of substitute products or services in the music industry?

A. Established record labels like EMI, Sony, Universal.

 

B. Independent record labels.

 

C. Game systems like Wii, social networks like Facebook.

 

D. Taylor Swift, Beyonce, The Beatles, The Stones.

 

228. Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents supplier power in the soft drink industry?

A. Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases.

 

B. Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store.

 

C. Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet.

 

D. Vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee.

 

229. Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents buyer power in the soft drink industry?

A. Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases.

 

B. Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store.

 

C. Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet.

 

D. Vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee.

 

230. Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents a threat of a new entrant in the soft drink industry?

A. Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases.

 

B. Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store.

 

C. Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet.

 

D. Vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee.

 

231. Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents a substitute product in the soft drink industry?

A. Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases.

 

B. Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store.

 

C. Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet.

 

D. Vitamin water, fruit juice, coffee.

 

232. Your boss, Kerry Miller, has asked you to analyze the soft drink industry using Porter’s Five Forces model. Which of the following represents rivalry in the soft drink industry?

A. Pepsi requires stores that carry Pepsi products to commit to minimum orders of 1,000 cases.

 

B. Walmart negotiates a lower cost per bottle from Coke in exchange for premium shelf space in every Walmart store.

 

C. Zevia Natural Diet Soda begins selling directly over the Internet.

 

D. Coke and Pepsi submit bids to the owner of a football stadium for the exclusive sale of their products during games.

 

233. Porter identified three generic strategies that a business could follow after identifying a market it wanted to enter. Which of the following is not included as one of Porter’s three generic strategies?

A. Broad differentiation.

 

B. Supplier cost differentiation.

 

C. Focused strategy.

 

D. Broad cost leadership.

 

234. When analyzing Porter’s three generic strategies for entering a market, if you have a focused strategy what market should you target?

A. A niche market.

 

B. A broad market.

 

C. Neither niche or broad markets.

 

D. Both niche and broad markets.

 

235. Which of the following offers an example of a company operating in a narrow-focused market operating as the low-cost provider?

A. Walmart.

 

B. Tiffany & Co.

 

C. Neiman Marcus.

 

D. Payless Shoes.

 

236. Broad differentiation, broad cost leadership, and _________ create the three generic strategies identified by Porter.

A. Narrow market leadership

 

B. High cost versus low cost

 

C. Focused strategy

 

D. None of the above

 

237. Jennifer Bloom is writing a paper and she must determine which of Porter’s three generic strategies The Museum Company has implemented. Jennifer finds out that The Museum Company offers specialty products found only in museums around the world to affluent customers. What would Jennifer determine The Museum Company is using as its generic strategy?

A. Broad market, low cost.

 

B. Narrow market, high cost.

 

C. Broad market, high cost.

 

D. Narrow market, low cost.

 

238. According to Porter companies that wish to dominate broad markets should operate using a ________ strategy.

A. Cost leadership with a low cost

 

B. Differentiation with a low cost

 

C. Cost leadership with a high cost

 

D. All of the above

 

239. Which of the following demonstrates a company that has implemented a low cost, broad market strategy?

A. Neiman Marcus.

 

B. Payless Shoes.

 

C. The Sharper Image.

 

D. Walmart.

 

240. If a business is following a focused strategy then its competitive scope is ________.

A. Broad market.

 

B. Narrow market.

 

C. Broad range products.

 

D. Broad range of services.

 

241. When applying Porter’s three generic strategies, Tiffany & Co. has a competitive scope and cost strategy that is __________.

A. Broad market – high cost strategy.

 

B. Narrow market – low cost strategy.

 

C. Narrow market – high cost strategy.

 

D. Broad market – low cost strategy.

 

242. When analyzing the book store industry, some of today’s businesses compete with different business strategies and cost strategies. Which of the following is using a broad market competitive scope along with a low cost strategy?

A. Amazon.com.

 

B. Any local independent book store that specializes in antique books.

 

C. Barnes & Noble.

 

D. Borders books.

 

243. Which of the below is similar to focused strategy versus broad strategy?

A. Large market versus leadership.

 

B. Large market versus uniqueness.

 

C. Niche market versus large market.

 

D. Niche market versus generic.

 

244. Your boss, Tom Repicci, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a cost leadership strategy?

A. Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue.

 

B. British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic.

 

C. Sky Taxi – a rent by the hour personal plane service.

 

D. All of the above.

 

245. Your boss, Tom Repicci, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a differentiation strategy?

A. Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue.

 

B. British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic.

 

C. Sky Taxi – a rent by the hour personal plane service.

 

D. All of the above.

 

246. Your boss, Tom Repicci, has asked you to analyze the airline industry using Porter’s three generic strategies. Which of the following companies are using a focused strategy?

A. Southwest, Horizon, Frontier, JetBlue.

 

B. British Airways, Singapore Airlines, Virgin Atlantic.

 

C. Sky Taxi – a rent by the hour personal plane service.

 

D. All of the above.

 

247. When reviewing Porter’s value chain analysis, which of the below provides customer support after the sale of goods and services?

A. Inbound logistics.

 

B. Outbound logistics.

 

C. Operations.

 

D. Service.

 

248. Which of the below represents procurement as part of the support value activities in a value chain analysis?

A. Purchases inputs such as raw materials, resources, equipment and supplies.

 

B. Applies MIS to processes to add value.

 

C. Distributes goods and services to customers.

 

D. Promotes, prices, and sells products to customers.

 

249. What includes support value activities and primary value activities and is used to determine how to create the greatest possible value for customers?

A. Supplier power.

 

B. Operations management.

 

C. Porter’s Five Forces Model.

 

D. The Value Chain analysis.

 

250. What is a standardized set of activities that accomplishes a specific task?

A. Business strategy.

 

B. Business outcome.

 

C. Business process.

 

D. Knowledge process.

 

251. Which of the following analyzes a company’s business processes and is useful for determining how to create the greatest possible value for customers?

A. Product analysis.

 

B. Primary supplier power.

 

C. Value chain analysis.

 

D. Buyer chain analysis.

 

252. The goal of value chain analysis is to identify processes in which the firm can add value for the customer and create a competitive advantage for itself, with a ________ or ________________.

A. Focused strategy, product differentiation

 

B. Focused strategy, cost advantage

 

C. Cost advantage, primary value activities

 

D. Cost advantage, product differentiation

 

253. What are the two main categories in a value chain analysis?

A. Primary value activities & secondary value activities.

 

B. Primary value activities & support value activities.

 

C. Primary value activities & strengthening value activities.

 

D. None of the above.

 

254. Which of the following is not considered a category within the primary value activities in a value chain analysis?

A. Inbound logistics.

 

B. Firm infrastructure.

 

C. Operations.

 

D. Service.

 

255. Which of the following is not considered a category within the support value activities in a value chain analysis?

A. Technology development.

 

B. Outbound logistics.

 

C. Human resource management.

 

D. Firm infrastructure.

 

256. What is the support value activity that provides employees with training, hiring, and compensation?

A. Procurement.

 

B. Operations resource management.

 

C. Human resource management.

 

D. Firm infrastructure.

 

257. Sandy Fiero works as the Chief Knowledge Officer for Bend Lumbar Company. She has been given the responsibility to create a product or service that will bring an added value to its customers to increase the company’s revenue. Sandy determines that the best value she can add is by creating a service that offers free next day shipping on any order over $50. Where in the value chain is Sandy adding value?

A. The primary value activity outbound logistics.

 

B. The primary value activity inbound logistics.

 

C. The primary value activity marketing and sales.

 

D. The primary value activity operations.

 

258. When evaluating the value chain, all of the following are included in the primary value activities except:

A. Inbound activities.

 

B. Operations.

 

C. Service.

 

D. MIS development.

 

259. When evaluating the value chain, which of the following is included in the support value activities?

A. Inbound activities.

 

B. Marketing and sales.

 

C. Firm infrastructure.

 

D. Finance and sales.

 

260. Which of the following decisions does a firm need to make as soon as it has identified the activities from the value chain that are bringing the highest added value to their customers?

A. Target high value-adding activities to further enhance their value.

 

B. Target low value-adding activities to increase their value.

 

C. Perform some combination of the two.

 

D. All of the above.

 

261. MIS can add value to both primary activities and support activities in the value chain. Which of the following is not an example of a company adding value by the use of MIS in a primary activity?

A. Scottrade Corp. creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness rewards program, and other employee benefit items.

 

B. A system for the sales and marketing departments to track specific sales targets and follow up processes.

 

C. An easy electronic survey, similar to the survey monkey, to be sent to the customer right after a service was completed.

 

D. Royal Crest Dairy using their custom order and delivery system through an easily accessible Web portal for the customer to track delivery status.

 

262. MIS can add value to both primary and support activities within a business. Which of the following is not an example of a company adding value by the use of MIS in a support activity?

A. Netflix creating a business strategy for the video rental market that delivers videos via the mail.

 

B. The human resources department creates a tracking system to efficiently reward employees based on their performance.

 

C. Scottrade Corp. creating an online system for employees to track paychecks, benefits, wellness rewards program, and other employee benefit items.

 

D. The University of Forks creates a program to automatically order office supplies such as pens and pads of paper for its employees.

 

263. A ____________ is the confirmation or validation of an event or object.

________________________________________

 

264. The core drivers of the information age are data, knowledge, business intelligence and _____________.

________________________________________

 

265. Today’s workers are commonly referred to as _____________ workers who use business intelligence along with personal experience to make decisions.

________________________________________

 

266. The information __________ is when infinite quantities of fact are widely available to anyone who can use a computer.

________________________________________

 

267. Amazon is not a _____ company but it used technology to revamp the book selling business.

________________________________________

 

268. ___________ is not a technology company but it used technology to revamp the video rental business.

________________________________________

 

269. ___________ is not a technology company but it used technology to revamp the shoe business.

________________________________________

 

270. Listing products that are about to expire first on the menu or creating them as a daily special to move the product is considered a type of _________________.

________________________________________

 

271. Best-selling product by month compared to sports season and city team wins and losses is considered a type of business _________________.

________________________________________

 

272. Companies are organized by departments. The __________ department is responsible for maintaining records, measures, and reports monetary transactions.

________________________________________

 

273. The __________ management department in a company manages the process of converting or transforming of resources into goods or services.

________________________________________

 

274. The __________ department tracks strategic financial issues including money, banking, credit, investments, and assets.

________________________________________

 

275. The __________ resources department maintains policies, plans, and procedures for a company.

________________________________________

 

276. ____________ is information that returns to its original transmitter and modifies the transmitter’s actions.

________________________________________

 

277. A __________ is a collection of parts that link to achieve a common purpose.

________________________________________

 

278. A __________ strategy is a leadership plan that achieves a specific set of goals or objectives.

________________________________________

 

279. _________ are material items or products that customers will buy to satisfy a want or need.

________________________________________

 

280. __________ are tasks performed by people that customers will buy to satisfy a want r need.

________________________________________

 

281. ____________ is the process where a business takes raw materials and processes them or converts them into a finished product for its goods or services.

________________________________________

 

282. __________ is the rate at which goods and services are produced based upon total output given total inputs.

________________________________________

 

283. A car is an example of a _________.

________________________________________

 

284. A hair cut is an example of a _________.

________________________________________

 

285. The Chief Information Officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with _________ goals and objectives.

________________________________________

 

286. The Chief Security Officer is responsible for ensuring the __________ of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses.

________________________________________

 

287. The Chief ___________ Officer is responsible for collecting, maintaining, and distributing company knowledge.

________________________________________

 

288. The Chief ___________ Officer is responsible for ensuring the speed, accuracy, availability, and reliability of the MIS.

________________________________________

 

289. The Chief __________ Officer is responsible for overseeing all uses of MIS and ensuring that MIS strategically aligns with business goals and objectives.

________________________________________

 

290. The Chief _________ Officer is responsible for ensuring the security of business systems and developing strategies and safeguards against attacks by hackers and viruses.

________________________________________

 

291. Business strategies that match _______ company competencies to opportunities result in a competitive advantage.

________________________________________

 

292. Competitive __________ is the process of gathering information about the competitive environment, including competitors’ plans, activities, and products, to improve a company’s ability to succeed.

________________________________________

 

293. Apple utilized the first-mover ________ with its iPod product.

________________________________________

 

294. ________ costs is a common business strategy.

________________________________________

 

295. _________ new customers is a common business strategy.

________________________________________

 

296. _________ new markets is a common business strategy.

________________________________________

 

297. Michael Porter identified pressures that can hurt potential sales. Knowledgeable customers can force __________ prices by pitting rivals against each other.

________________________________________

 

298. The Porter’s Five Forces Model analyzes the competitive forces within the environment in which a company operates to assess the potential for __________ in an industry.

________________________________________

 

299. __________ power measures the ability of buyers to affect the price they must pay for an item.

________________________________________

 

300. The threat of substitute products or services is _____ when there are many alternatives to a product or service and low when there are few alternatives from which to choose.

________________________________________

 

301. The __________ chain consists of all parties involved, directly or indirectly, in obtaining raw materials or a product.

________________________________________

 

302. Rivalry among existing competitors is __________ when competition is fierce in a market and low when competitors are more complacent.

________________________________________

 

303. Porter has identified three _________ business strategies for entering a new market: 1) broad cost leadership, 2) broad differentiation, and 3) focused strategy.

________________________________________

 

304. Focused strategies concentrate on either cost leadership or ___________.

________________________________________

 

305. Porter suggests adopting only __________ of the three generic strategies.

________________________________________

 

306. A __________ chain analysis views a firm as a series of business processes that each adds value to the product or service.

________________________________________

 

307. __________ value activities found at the bottom of the value chain, these include business processes that acquire raw materials and manufacture, deliver, market, sell, and provide after-sales services.

________________________________________

 

308. ___________ value activities are found along the top of the value chain and include business processes, such as firm infrastructure, human resource management, technology development, and procurement that support the primary value activities.

________________________________________

 

309. Describe the information age and the differences between data, information, business intelligence, and knowledge.

 

 

 

 

310. Identify the different departments in a company and why they must work together to achieve success.

 

 

 

 

311. Explain systems thinking and how management information systems enable business communications.

 

 

 

 

312. Explain why competitive advantages are temporary.

 

 

 

 

313. Describe Porter’s Five Forces Model and explain each of the five forces.

 

 

 

 

314. Compare Porter’s three generic strategies.

 

 

 

 

315. Demonstrate how a company can add value by using Porter’s value chain analysis.

 

 

 

CHAPTER 3: Ebusiness: Electronic Business Value

1. Disruptive technology tends to provide us with better, faster, and cheaper products.

True    False

 

2. Disruptive and new technologies typically cut into the low-end of the marketplace and eventually evolve to displace high-end competitors and their reigning technologies.

True    False

 

3. Dell computer ranks highest on the list for expecting returns from new investments.

True    False

 

4. What is best for an organization’s current business could ruin it in the long term.

True    False

 

5. Ebusiness is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet.

True    False

 

6. Ebusiness is something that a business can just go out and buy.

True    False

 

7. Future managers and workers need to understand the benefits MIS and ebusiness can offer a company if it wants to take advantage of sustaining technologies.

True    False

 

8. A disruptive technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers.

True    False

 

9. A sustaining technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive.

True    False

 

10. A sustaining technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers.

True    False

 

11. A disruptive technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive.

True    False

 

12. The Innovator’s Dilemma, a book by Clayton Christensen, discusses how established companies can take advantage of disruptive technologies without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders.

True    False

 

13. The Internet provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML.

True    False

 

14. The WWW provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML.

True    False

 

15. The Internet is a massive network that connects computers all over the world and allows them to communicate with one another.

True    False

 

16. Hypertext markup language (HTML) links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link.

True    False

 

17. The WWW, such as Internet Explorer or Mozilla’s Firefox, allow users to access the WWW.

True    False

 

18. Hypertext transport protocol (HTTP) is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators.

True    False

 

19. A universal resource locator (URL) is the address of a file or resource on the web such as www.apple.com.

True    False

 

20. A universal resource locator (URL) identifies a URL address and in the previous example apple.com is the domain name.

True    False

 

21. URLs use domain names to identify particular websites.

True    False

 

22. Domain name hosting (web hosting) is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity.

True    False

 

23. A URL is a program that runs within another application such as a website.

True    False

 

24. Ecommerce is the buying and selling of goods and services over the Internet. Ecommerce refers only to online transactions.

True    False

 

25. Ecommerce includes ebusiness along with all activities related to internal and external business operations such as servicing customer accounts, collaborating with partners, and exchanging real-time information. During Web 1.0, entrepreneurs began creating the first forms of ecommerce.

True    False

 

26. A paradigm shift occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave.

True    False

 

27. A few examples of ebusiness advantages can include opening new markets, reducing costs, and expanding global reach.

True    False

 

28. Intermediaries occur when a customer sells directly to another customer online cutting out the intermediary.

True    False

 

29. Interactivity measures advertising effectiveness by counting visitor interactions with the target ad, including time spent viewing the ad, number of pages viewed, and number of repeat visits to the advertisement.

True    False

 

30. Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information.

True    False

 

31. Information richness measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world.

True    False

 

32. Mass customization is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications. For example, customers can order M&M’s in special colors or with customized sayings such as “Marry Me.”
Feedback Mass customization is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications. For example, customers can order M&M’s in special colors or with customized sayings such as “Marry Me.”True    False

 

33. Mass customization occurs when a company knows enough about a customer’s likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers more likely to appeal to that person, say by tailoring its website to individuals or groups based on profile information, demographics, or prior transactions.

True    False

 

34. Cybermediation refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness, including comparison-shopping sites such as Kelkoo and bank account aggregation services such as Citibank.

True    False

 

35. In Reintermediation steps are removed from the value chain as new players find ways to add value to the business process.

True    False

 

36. Information reach refers to the number of people a business can communicate with, on a global basis.

True    False

 

37. An ebusiness model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues.

True    False

 

38. Content providers are companies that generate revenue by providing digital content such as news, music, photos, or videos and examples include Netflix and iTunes.

True    False

 

39. Transaction brokers process online sales transactions.

True    False

 

40. Business-to-consumer applies to any business that sells its products or services directly to consumers online.

True    False

 

41. A click-and-motor business operates on the Internet only without a physical store.

True    False

 

42. The majority of eBay’s customers are using a business-to-business (B2B) ebusiness model.

True    False

 

43. A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues.

True    False

 

44. A business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet.

True    False

 

45. Dot-com was the original term for a company operating on the Internet.

True    False

 

46. A search engine is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google.

True    False

 

47. Search engine ranking evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results.

True    False

 

48. Search engine optimization (SEO) combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines resulting in higher search engine ranking.

True    False

 

49. Pay-per-call generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website.

True    False

 

50. Pay-per-click generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call.

True    False

 

51. Pay-per-conversion generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer.

True    False

 

52. Taxonomy is the set of ideas about how all information in a given context should be organized.

True    False

 

53. A Webinar is a form of Web conferencing, which blends videoconferencing with document sharing and allows the user to deliver a presentation over the Web to a group of geographically dispersed participants.

True    False

 

54. Many businesses are using instant messaging as a way to answer and resolve questions or problems quickly.

True    False

 

55. An Internet service provider (ISP) is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

True    False

 

56. Real-time communication occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives it.

True    False

 

57. Instant messaging (IMing) is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people.

True    False

 

58. Instant messaging converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player.

True    False

 

59. A videoconference allows people at two or more locations to interact via two-way video and audio transmissions simultaneously as well as share documents, data, computer displays, and whiteboards. Point-to-point videoconferences connect two people, and multipoint conferences connect more than two people at multiple locations.

True    False

 

60. Managing consumer trust is not a challenge for ebusinesses participants as the Internet has numerous security technologies in place to completely protect consumers and their online transactions.

True    False

 

61. The Internet marketplace is free of most forms of traditional sales tax.

True    False

 

62. The Internet uses such strong security technologies that ensuring consumer protection is not a challenge for ebusinesses.

True    False

 

63. Web 2.0 is the next generation of Internet that uses a more mature, distinctive communications platform characterized by new qualities such as collaboration, sharing, and free.

True    False

 

64. Source code is software made available free for any third party to review and modify.

True    False

 

65. The most common form of collective intelligence found outside the organization is crowdsourcing, or the wisdom of the crowd.

True    False

 

66. An open system consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system.

True    False

 

67. An open system contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software.

True    False

 

68. Open source refers to any software whose source code is made available free (not on a fee or licensing basis as in ebusiness) for any third party to review and modify.

True    False

 

69. User-contributed content (or user-generated content) is created and updated by many users for many users.

True    False

 

70. User-contributed content is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information.

True    False

 

71. Open systems tap into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers.

True    False

 

72. Knowledge can be a real competitive advantage for an organization. The most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization is knowledge management (KM), which involves capturing, classifying, evaluating, retrieving, and sharing information assets in a way that provides context for effective decisions and actions.

True    False

 

73. The primary objective of knowledge management is to be sure that a company’s knowledge of facts, sources of information, and solutions are readily available to all employees whenever it is needed.

True    False

 

74. A knowledge management system (KMS) supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization. KMS can distribute an organization’s knowledge base by interconnecting people and digitally gathering their expertise.

True    False

 

75. Tacit knowledge consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of MIS. Examples of explicit knowledge are assets such as patents, trademarks, business plans, marketing research, and customer lists.

True    False

 

76. Explicit knowledge is the knowledge contained in people’s heads. The challenge inherent in tacit knowledge is figuring out how to recognize, generate, share, and manage knowledge that resides in people’s heads.

True    False

 

77. Social media refers to websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, YouTube, and Digg.

True    False

 

78. Social tagging is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tags or keyword-based classification system.

True    False

 

79. A social network is an application that connects people by matching profile information. Providing individuals with the ability to network is by far one of the greatest advantages of Business 2.0.

True    False

 

80. Social networking is the practice of expanding your business and/or social contacts by constructing a personal network.

True    False

 

81. Social media maps group contacts (personal and professional) identifying who knows each other and who works together. In a company it can provide a vision of how employees work together.

True    False

 

82. Tags are specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy.

True    False

 

83. Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search.

True    False

 

84. A social bookmark is a locally stored URL or the address of a file or Internet page saved as a shortcut.

True    False

 

85. Social bookmarking allows users to share, organize, search, and manage bookmarks.

True    False

 

86. The three Business 2.0 communication and collaboration tools a business can use to harness the power of people include blogs, wikis, and mashups.

True    False

 

87. A wiki is a Hawaiian word for quick and is a type of a collaborative Web page that allows users to add, remove, and change content.

True    False

 

88. RSS allows a website to constantly feed information and news to consumers instead of having the consumer search for it.

True    False

 

89. Microblogging is the practice of sending brief posts (140 to 200 characters) to a personal blog, either publicly or to a private group of subscribers who can read the posts as IMs or as text messages.

True    False

 

90. The network effect describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increases.

True    False

 

91. A mashup is a website or web application that uses content from more than one source to create a completely new product or service. The term is typically used in the context of music; putting Jay-Z lyrics over a Radiohead song makes something old new. The web version of a mashup allows users to mix map data, photos, video, news feeds, blog entries, and so on to create content with a new purpose.

True    False

 

92. Content used in mashups is typically sourced from an RSS, which is a set of routines, protocols, and tools for building software applications.

True    False

 

93. Open source and sharing are both advantages and disadvantages of Business 2.0.

True    False

 

94. Copyright laws protect collaborative websites like blogs and wikis allowing users to reuse material freely and easily.

True    False

 

95. Tim Berners-Lee was one of the founders of the Internet.

True    False

 

96. Egovernment involves the use of strategies and technologies to transform government by improving the delivery of services and enhancing the quality of interaction between the citizen-consumer within all branches of government.

True    False

 

97. Web 3.0 refers to static text-based information websites.

True    False

 

98. Mobile banking and mobile sales are both a part of the emerging mbusiness.

True    False

 

99. Which of the following terms implies that organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction?

A. Collective intelligence

 

B. Digital Darwinism

 

C. Joint venture

 

D. Sole proprietorship

 

100. Which of the following produces an improved product customers are eager to buy, such as a faster car or larger hard drive?

A. Sustaining technology

 

B. Disruptive technology

 

C. Reputation system

 

D. Personalization

 

101. Which of the follow represents a form of disruptive technology?

A. Enter the marketplace at the low end

 

B. A new way of doing things that initially doesn’t meet the needs of existing customers

 

C. Tend to open new markets and destroy old ones

 

D. All of the above are included

 

102. Which of the following is challenge of sustaining technology?

A. Provides a cheaper product for current customers

 

B. Provides a product that does not meet existing customer’s future needs

 

C. Provides a better product for current customers

 

D. Provides a faster product for current customers

 

103. Which of the following is not included in the top five companies that are expecting future growth to be generated from new investments?

A. Johnson & Johnson

 

B. Sears

 

C. Dell

 

D. None of the above

 

104. The Innovator’s Dilemma suggests that established companies can take advantage of ___________ without hindering existing relationships with customers, partners, and stakeholders.

A. Sustaining technology

 

B. Existing investments

 

C. Collective intelligence

 

D. Disruptive technology

 

105. Which of the following began as an essential emergency military communications system operated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DARPA)?

A. Internet

 

B. Ecommerce

 

C. Ebusiness

 

D. WWW

 

106. Which of the following terms could you use synonymously when referring to the Web?

A. Network, Paradigm shift

 

B. URL, Domain Name

 

C. HTML, Internet

 

D. Web browser, Blog

 

107. At a local marketing firm, Steve is the lead Web developer and is responsible for working with customers on their Web designs, development, and graphics. Which of the following would be a critical skill Steve must have to be able to perform his job?

A. Understanding that he must create a unique domain name for each client

 

B. Being able to work with HTML

 

C. Understanding of the World Wide Web and how hyperlinks work

 

D. All of the above

 

108. Which of the following is not a reason for the explosive growth of the WWW?

A. Basic Web pages are easy to create and extremely flexible

 

B. The microcomputer revolution made it possible for an average person to own a computer

 

C. Digital Darwinism

 

D. The speed, convenience, and low cost of email

 

109. Which term describes the WWW during its first few years of operation between 1991 and 2003?

A. Web 1.0

 

B. Eshop

 

C. Open source

 

D. All of the above

 

110. What is the difference between ecommerce and ebusiness?

A. Ecommerce includes Internet network effects; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations

 

B. Ecommerce is buying and selling of goods or services online; ebusiness includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations

 

C. Ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations; ebusiness includes all of the knowledge of management systems

 

D. Ebusiness is buying and selling of goods or services online; ecommerce includes ecommerce and all activities related to internal and external business operations

 

111. What is the Internet protocol Web browsers use to request and display Web pages using universal resource locators?

A. Hypertext markup language (HTML)

 

B. URL

 

C. Hypertext transport protocol (HTTP)

 

D. DARPA

 

112. What allows user to access the WWW?

A. Web conferencing

 

B. Web browser

 

C. Web 2.0

 

D. Web business

 

113. Which of the following is a type of Web browser?

A. Microsoft Word and Excel

 

B. Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox

 

C. Facebook and MySpace

 

D. All of the above

 

114. What caused Polaroid to go bankrupt?

A. It failed to have innovative technology and a captive customer base

 

B. One-hour film processing and digital cameras stole its market share

 

C. People who want instant access to their pictures also want a third party involved

 

D. Internet websites such as Flickr and Facebook stole its market share

 

115. Many social media sites today allow you to customize your Web address, for example www.facebook.com/Womenwithdrive. What is an alternate name for a Web address such as www.apple.com?

A. Digital bookmark

 

B. Internet bookmark

 

C. Universal resource locator

 

D. Web browser

 

116. Many industries have been forced to change due to technology advances. Which of the below industries has felt the lowest amount of economic impact from ebusiness?

A. Auto industry

 

B. Retail industry

 

C. Travel industry

 

D. Waste or recycling industry

 

117. Universities were among some of the first users of the Internet. What was the Internet first called?

A. HTML

 

B. ARPANET

 

C. OPT

 

D. WWO

 

118. What is the address of a file or resource on the web such as www.apple.com?

A. Hypertext markup language

 

B. Web browser

 

C. Hypertext transport protocol

 

D. Universal resource locator

 

119. What links documents, allowing users to move from one to another simply by clicking on a hot spot or link?

A. Hypertext markup language

 

B. Web browser

 

C. Hypertext transport protocol

 

D. Universal resource locator

 

120. What allows users to access the WWW?

A. Hypertext markup language

 

B. Web browser

 

C. Hypertext transport protocol

 

D. Universal resource locator

 

121. What is the Internet protocol web browsers use to request and display web pages using universal resource locators?

A. Hypertext markup language

 

B. Web browser

 

C. Hypertext transport protocol

 

D. Universal resource locator

 

122. What identifies a URL address and in the previous example apple.com is the domain name. URLs use domain names to identify particular websites?

A. Domain name

 

B. Domain name hosting

 

C. Applet

 

D. Paradigm shift

 

123. What is a service that allows the owner of a domain name to maintain a simple website and provide email capacity?

A. Domain name

 

B. Domain name hosting

 

C. Applet

 

D. Paradigm shift

 

124. What is a program that runs within another application such as a website?

A. Domain name

 

B. Domain name hosting

 

C. Applet

 

D. Paradigm shift

 

125. What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave?

A. Domain name

 

B. Domain name hosting

 

C. Applet

 

D. Paradigm shift

 

126. What does digital Darwinism imply?

A. Organizations that can adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction

 

B. Organizations that cannot adapt to the new demands placed on them for surviving in the information age are doomed to extinction

 

C. Organizations that can adapt to new information systems are doomed to extinction

 

D. Organizations that cannot adapt to new information systems are doomed to exile

 

127. Which of the following is an example of a disruptive technology?

A. Oracle’s database software

 

B. Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio)

 

C. Intel’s low-end microprocessor

 

D. All of the above

 

128. Which of the following is an example of a sustaining technology?

A. Porsche’s faster car

 

B. Intel’s low-end microprocessor

 

C. Sony’s transistor-based consumer electronics (transistor radio)

 

D. All of the above

 

129. Which company is expecting to gain the majority of its returns on existing investments?

A. Dell Computer

 

B. Johnson & Johnson

 

C. Procter & Gamble

 

D. Phillips Petroleum

 

130. Which company is expecting to gain the majority of its returns on new investments?

A. General Motors

 

B. Sears Roebuck

 

C. Dell Computer

 

D. Phillips Petroleum

 

131. Which of the following is a reason for the growth of the World Wide Web?

A. The microcomputer revolution

 

B. Advancements in networking hardware

 

C. Web pages being easy to create and flexible

 

D. All of the above

 

132. What is information richness?

A. A global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols

 

B. Refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information

 

C. Refers to the number of people a business can communicate with, on a global basis

 

D. Occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

 

133. What is information reach?

A. A global public network of computer networks that pass information from one to another using common computer protocols

 

B. Refers to the depth and breadth of information transferred between customers and businesses

 

C. Measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world

 

D. Occurs when those with access to technology have great advantages over those without access to technology

 

134. Which of the following is not one of the Internet’s impacts on information?

A. Easy to compile

 

B. Improved content

 

C. Digital divide

 

D. Increased richness

 

135. What are agents, software, or businesses that provide a trading infrastructure to bring buyers and sellers together?

A. Intermediaries

 

B. Disintermediation

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Cybermediation

 

136. What occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online and cuts out the middle man?

A. Intermediaries

 

B. Disintermediation

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Cybermediation

 

137. What occurs when steps are added to the value chain as new players find ways to add value to the business process?

A. Intermediaries

 

B. Disintermediation

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Cybermediation

 

138. What refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness, including comparison-shopping sites such as Froogle and bank account aggregation services such as Citibank?

A. Intermediaries

 

B. Disintermediation

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Cybermediation

 

139. Both individuals and organizations have embraced ebusiness to do which of the following?

A. Enhance productivity

 

B. Maximize convenience

 

C. Improve communication

 

D. All of the above

 

140. What is the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video?

A. Information richness

 

B. Information age

 

C. Information reach

 

D. Information browser

 

141. What measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world?

A. Information richness

 

B. Information age

 

C. Information reach

 

D. Information browser

 

142. Which of the below would not be considered an advantage of ebusiness?

A. Expanding global reach

 

B. Opening new markets

 

C. Reducing costs

 

D. Reducing information reach

 

143. What is the ability of an organization to tailor its products or services to the customers’ specifications?

A. Personalization

 

B. Long tail

 

C. Mass customization

 

D. Information reach

 

144. Which of the below would not be considered a company operating in the long tail of a typical sales curve?

A. Walmart

 

B. Netflix

 

C. iTunes

 

D. Zappos

 

145. M&M’s offers people the opportunity to order the candy in special colors or with customized sayings. How would you classify M&M’s ebusiness strategy?

A. Information richness

 

B. Mass customization

 

C. Personalization

 

D. Interactivity

 

146. Amazon creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer that revisits its website. How would you classify Amazon’s ebusiness strategy?

A. Information richness

 

B. Mass customization

 

C. Personalization

 

D. Interactivity

 

147. Netflix creates a unique recommendation listing for each customer that revisits its website. How would you classify Netflix’s ebusiness strategy?

A. Information richness

 

B. Mass customization

 

C. Personalization

 

D. Interactivity

 

148. Nike offers people the opportunity to visit its website to create running shoes in the style and color they choose. How would you classify Nike’s ebusiness strategy?

A. Information richness

 

B. Mass customization

 

C. Personalization

 

D. Interactivity

 

149. What uses the Internet to reassemble buyers, sellers, and other partners in a traditional supply chain in new ways?

A. Content providers

 

B. Intermediaries

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Cybermediation

 

150. When evaluating the business value of disintermediation the more ____________ that are cut from the distribution chain, the lower the product price.

A. Technology

 

B. Customers

 

C. Data stream

 

D. Intermediaries

 

151. What is a type of mediation that refers to the creation of new kinds of intermediaries that simply could not have existed before the advent of ebusiness?

A. Cybermediation

 

B. Interactivity

 

C. Reintermediation

 

D. Disintermediation

 

152. A company can reduce its costs using ebusiness to change its business processes. Which of the following represents an example of a company reducing its costs through ebusiness?

A. Creating an online travel reservation

 

B. Ordering a product online

 

C. Purchasing a book online and picking it up in the store

 

D. Researching products to find the lowest price and visiting the store to purchase the item

 

153. Which of the below statements is correct?

A. Just putting up a website can create tremendous ebusiness value

 

B. Just putting up a website can create tremendous business buzz

 

C. Just putting up a website can limit product availability

 

D. Just putting up a website does not create an ebusiness

 

154. What is the exact pattern of a consumer’s navigation through a site?

A. Web browsing

 

B. Hypertext

 

C. Clickstream data

 

D. Web data

 

155. What is the best way to measure a company’s ebusiness success?

A. Effective MIS metrics

 

B. Interactivity

 

C. Clickstream data

 

D. All of the above

 

156. Which of the following is an ebusiness marketing technique?

A. Cookies

 

B. Pop-up ad

 

C. Banner ad

 

D. All of the above

 

157. Which type of ebusiness marketing technique induces websites or users to pass on a marketing message to other websites or users, creating exponential growth in the message’s visibility and effect?

A. Cookies

 

B. Click-through

 

C. Viral marketing

 

D. Pop-up ad

 

158. Bonnie Flat is a real estate agent who specializes in the luxury home market in the Seattle, WA area. Bonnie is highly-technical and uses many types of online marketing techniques to increase business. One of most successful online marketing techniques is to place a box along the top of real estate websites and luxury custom furniture websites. What type of marketing technique is Bonnie using?

A. A cookie

 

B. A banner ad

 

C. A pop-up ad

 

D. A click-through ad

 

159. What is the business strategy that lets a company shorten the order process and add value with reduced costs or a more responsive and efficient service, and occurs when a business sells directly to the customer online?

A. Disintermediation

 

B. Intermediaries

 

C. Cybermediation

 

D. None of the above

 

160. What measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world?

A. Information

 

B. Mass communication

 

C. Information reach

 

D. Cybertronics

 

161. Which of the following is an example of a clickstream data metric?

A. Dates and times of visits

 

B. Number of customers with shopping carts

 

C. The number of page views

 

D. All of the above

 

162. What is the difference between a business model and an ebusiness model?

A. A business model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; an ebusiness model does all of the same except on the Internet

 

B. A business model and an ebusiness model are identical

 

C. A business model and an ebusiness model are complete opposites

 

D. An ebusiness model details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenue; a business model does all the same except on the internet

 

163. What are the four main types of ebusiness models?

A. Business-to-borrower, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-to-consumer

 

B. Business-to-business, business-to-consumer, consumer-to-business, and consumer-to-consumer

 

C. Business-to-business, business collaboration, collective business, and consumer-to-consumer

 

D. Ebusiness-to-ebusiness, ebusiness-to-ebusiness, econsumer-to-ebusiness, and econsumer-to-econsumer

 

164. What is the difference between a B2C and a C2B?

A. B2C focuses on companies as customers and C2B focuses on consumers as customers

 

B. B2C focuses on collaboration and C2B focuses on consumers

 

C. B2C focuses on business to consumers and C2B focuses on consumers to business

 

D. B2C focuses on consumers as customers and C2B focuses on companies as customers

 

165. What is the ebusiness model which applies to customers offering goods and services to each other over the Internet?

A. C2C

 

B. C2B

 

C. B2B

 

D. B2C

 

166. What is the ebusiness model that represents 80% of all online businesses and are typically more complex requiring greater security needs?

A. Consumer-to-consumer

 

B. Business-to-consumer

 

C. Consumer-to-business

 

D. Business-to-business

 

167. Which of the following represents businesses buying from and selling to each other over the Internet?

A. B2B

 

B. B2C

 

C. C2B

 

D. C2C

 

168. Carfax is an example of a company who sells its products or services directly to its consumer’s online. Which ebusiness model is Carfax using?

A. C2B

 

B. C2C

 

C. B2C

 

D. B2B

 

169. What is another name for an eshop?

A. C2C

 

B. Estore or etailer

 

C. Ecustomer

 

D. Econsumer

 

170. Which category below represents the three common forms of business operations: brick-and-mortar, click-and-mortar, and pure play?

A. C2B

 

B. C2C

 

C. B2C

 

D. All of the above

 

171. John and Jenny have been saving for two years to take their six children on a vacation to Disneyworld. They are surprised to find out that airline tickets are far more expensive than they had anticipated. They decide to try to find cheaper tickets on Priceline where they are allowed to set their own price they are willing to pay for the airline tickets. What form of ebusiness model are John and Jenny using?

A. CBC

 

B. B2B

 

C. C2B

 

D. C2C

 

172. What type of revenue generation model is Google using when it generates revenue by allowing advertisers to bid on common search terms?

A. Awesome

 

B. Analytics

 

C. Applications

 

D. Adwords

 

173. What is a business that operates in a physical store without an Internet presence?

A. Brick-and-mortar business

 

B. Click-and-mortar business

 

C. Virtual business

 

D. Pure-play business

 

174. What is a pure-play business?

A. A business that operates only on the Internet without a physical store

 

B. A business that sells products only in a physical store

 

C. A business that sells services only in a physical store

 

D. All of the above

 

175. What are the three primary models that a B2C can use to operate?

A. Click-and-brick, click-and-mortar, pure-play

 

B. Brick-and-mortar, click-and-mortar, virtual

 

C. Brick-and-mortar, click-and-consumer, virtual-and-consumer

 

D. Brick-and-click, brick-and-mortar, brick-and-virtual

 

176. Which type of ebusiness model is Amazon using?

A. Pure-play

 

B. Brick-and-mortar

 

C. Click-and-mortar

 

D. Content provider

 

177. Which type of ebusiness model is Barnes & Noble using?

A. Pure-play

 

B. Brick-and-mortar

 

C. Click-and-mortar

 

D. Virtual

 

178. Which type of ebusiness model best describes Apple?

A. Pure-play

 

B. Brick-and-mortar

 

C. Click-and-mortar

 

D. Virtual

 

179. What is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet?

A. Ebusiness

 

B. Ebusiness model

 

C. Ecommerce

 

D. Ecommerce model

 

180. What occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave?

A. Ecommerce model

 

B. Eshop sale

 

C. Paradigm shift

 

D. Web 1.0

 

181. Which of the following represents a brick-and-mortar business?

A. The Gap

 

B. Amazon

 

C. Google

 

D. T.J.Maxx

 

182. All of the following are forms of ebusiness except ______________.

A. Subscription fee

 

B. Content provider

 

C. Infomediaries

 

D. Online marketplace

 

183. Which of the below is not a valid form of an ebusiness revenue model?

A. Value-added services fees

 

B. Subscription fees

 

C. Advertising fees

 

D. Service provider

 

184. For the past 20 years, Perry has been an owner of several Coldwell Banker Real Estate franchises. To increase business Perry spends a great deal of money marketing and advertising his businesses online. Perry decides he would like to move beyond just marketing and create an actual ebusiness that acts like a search engine but only focuses on the real estate industry. The main revenue source for this Perry’s ebusiness will be a charge of $50 a month for each property that is listed on the website. What is the primary revenue model for Perry’s new business?

A. License fees

 

B. Advertising fees

 

C. Subscription fees

 

D. All of the above

 

185. What was the original term for a company operating on the Internet?

A. Dot-com

 

B. Search engine

 

C. Search engine ranking

 

D. Search engine optimization

 

186. What is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google?

A. Dot-com

 

B. Search engine

 

C. Search engine ranking

 

D. Search engine optimization

 

187. What evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results?

A. Dot-com

 

B. Search engine

 

C. Search engine ranking

 

D. Search engine optimization

 

188. What combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines resulting in higher search engine ranking?

A. Dot-com

 

B. Search engine

 

C. Search engine ranking

 

D. Search engine optimization

 

189. What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website?

A. Pay-per-click

 

B. Pay-per-call

 

C. Pay-per-conversion

 

D. All of the above

 

190. What generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call?

A. Pay-per-click

 

B. Pay-per-call

 

C. Pay-per-conversion

 

D. All of the above

 

191. What generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer?

A. Pay-per-click

 

B. Pay-per-call

 

C. Pay-per-conversion

 

D. All of the above

 

192. Websites can generate revenue by using which of the following?

A. Pay-per-click

 

B. Pay-per-call

 

C. Pay-per-conversion

 

D. All of the above

 

193. Which of the following represents the connecting and communicating tools supporting and driving ebusiness?

A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing

 

B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers

 

C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B

 

D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

 

194. Which of the following represents the primary forms of ebusiness?

A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing

 

B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers

 

C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B

 

D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

 

195. Which of the following represents the primary ebusiness revenue models?

A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing

 

B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers

 

C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B

 

D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

 

196. Which of the following represents the categories for ebusiness models?

A. Email, instant messaging, podcasting, content management systems, and video and Web conferencing

 

B. Content providers, infomediaries, online marketplaces, portals, service providers, transaction brokers

 

C. B2B, B2C, C2C, C2B

 

D. Advertising fees, license fees, subscription fees, transaction fees, value-added services fees

 

197. What is an ISP?

A. Instant service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

 

B. Internet service provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

 

C. Internet sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee.

 

D. Instant sales provider is a company that provides access to the Internet for a monthly fee

 

198. Which of the below is not an ISP?

A. Comcast

 

B. Facebook

 

C. AOL

 

D. Earthlink

 

199. What occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives the information?

A. Collective intelligence system

 

B. Collaboration system

 

C. Real-time communication

 

D. Knowledge management system

 

200. What is the primary business advantage of using email?

A. Increasing the speed of order entry

 

B. Providing the ability to inform and communicate with many people simultaneously, immediately, and with ease

 

C. Providing the ability to have friends all over the globe

 

D. Increasing the number of computers required in an office

 

201. What is another term for instant messaging?

A. IMing

 

B. HTML

 

C. Podcasting

 

D. Webing

 

202. What is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people?

A. URL

 

B. IMing

 

C. Tacit knowledge

 

D. Elicit knowledge

 

203. What are some of the immediate results businesses found from using instant messaging?

A. Quickly identify which employees are at their computers

 

B. Easily hold simultaneous IM sessions with multiple people

 

C. Resolve questions or problems immediately

 

D. All of the above

 

204. What converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player?

A. Podcasting

 

B. Videoconferencing

 

C. Photo sharing

 

D. Email

 

205. As a trainer for Exempla Healthcare, Tina is faced with many challenges to properly training her new hires. There are over 40 different locations where Exempla employees work across the Chicago metro area. Tina decides to implement some valuable ebusiness tools to help reduce traveling costs, increase speed, and provide flexibility for completing training sessions with all the new hires. Tina primarily uses PowerPoints and videos during her training modules. What is the most effective ebusiness tool for Tina to implement and accomplish all of her training goals?

A. IMing

 

B. Webinar

 

C. Blog

 

D. Email

 

206. Companies use __________ as marketing communication channels discussing everything from corporate strategies to detailed product overviews.

A. IMing

 

B. Web browsing

 

C. Email

 

D. Podcasting

 

207. Illuminate Live is a lecture program used in schools and is considered a _________ tool.

A. Instant messaging

 

B. Explicit knowledge

 

C. Web conferencing

 

D. Egovernment

 

208. What is a well-planned strategy that ensures the search and navigation functions are easy to use and user-friendly on a website?

A. Blog

 

B. Taxonomy

 

C. Email

 

D. Podcast

 

209. What is the set of ideas about how all information in a given context should be organized?

A. Information architecture

 

B. Collective intelligence

 

C. Content management system

 

D. Ebusiness model

 

210. Which of the below is not considered an advantage of a content management system?

A. Content management systems store website content

 

B. Content management systems increase order entry speed

 

C. Content management systems manage website creation

 

D. Content management systems allow editing and publication of information

 

211. Which ebusiness tool increases the speed of business by allowing the transfer of documents with the same speed as the telephone?

A. Knowledge management system

 

B. Podcasting

 

C. Email

 

D. Ebusiness

 

212. What is the ebusiness tool that can increase marketing reach and build customer loyalty through audio broadcasting?

A. IMing

 

B. Email

 

C. Taxonomy

 

D. Podcasting

 

213. Which ebusiness tool plays a crucial role in getting site visitors to view more than just the home page by providing clear navigation choices?

A. URL

 

B. CMS

 

C. Open system

 

D. Open source

 

214. Which of the following is a challenge facing an ebusiness?

A. Improving information content

 

B. Increasing convenience

 

C. Decreasing costs

 

D. Increasing liabilities

 

215. What are the four challenges facing ebusinesses outlined in the text?

A. Identifying limited market segments, managing consumer trust, ensuring consumer protection, and improving information content

 

B. Decreased costs, increased convenience, identifying limited market segments, and adhering to taxation rules

 

C. Identifying limited market segments, managing consumer trust, ensuring consumer protection, and adhering to taxation rules

 

D. Differs depending on the industry where the business operates

 

216. Managing consumer trust is a challenge for ebusinesses. Which of the following is a good way to build trust when working with customers over the Internet?

A. Be accessible to communicate in-person

 

B. Be available to communicate in-person

 

C. Use customer testimonials that link to your client website

 

D. All of the above

 

217. Internet marketers must develop ___________ to build strong relationships with customers to ensure loyalty.

A. Consumer trust

 

B. Consumer testimonials

 

C. Consumer segmentation

 

D. Market segmentation

 

218. Ben Schultz decides to purchase an iPad on eBay. After the transaction completes and the money is withdrawn from Ben’s PayPal account the iPad never shows up and the email address of the seller bounces. What issue has Ben encountered?

A. The physical separation of buyer and seller

 

B. Adhering to taxation rules

 

C. Identifying limited market segments

 

D. All of the above

 

219. Susan teaches many individuals and business professionals how, why, and the benefits and challenges to using social media. Of the four ebusiness challenges which of the following is the most crucial challenge to consider before engaging in social media?

A. Adhering to taxation rules

 

B. Ensuring consumer protection

 

C. Identifying limited market segments

 

D. Managing consumer relationships

 

220. Many believe that U.S. tax policy should provide a level playing field for traditional retail businesses, mail order companies, and online merchants. What form of ebusiness challenge is this statement referring to?

A. Adhering to taxation rules

 

B. Ensuring consumer protection

 

C. Identifying limited market segments

 

D. Managing consumer relationships

 

221. Which of the below statements is accurate when considering the ebusiness challenge of adhering to taxation rules?

A. All online companies must pay sales tax

 

B. Online companies do not have to pay any sales tax

 

C. Some online companies have to charge sales tax

 

D. Online companies that sell physical products have to pay sales tax and online companies that provide intangible services do not

 

222. Which of the below is not a characteristic of Business 2.0?

A. Encourages user participation

 

B. Technical skills are required

 

C. Eliminates entry barriers to publishing on the Web

 

D. Provides an exciting and vibrant virtual environment

 

223. What are the four most common Business 2.0 characteristics?

A. Content sharing, user-contributed content, collaboration competition elimination, Web browser organization

 

B. Content sharing through open source, specialty-contributed content only, collaboration inside the community, specialized collaboration

 

C. Content sharing through open source, user-contributed content, collaboration inside the organization, collaboration outside the organization

 

D. Consumer sharing through open systems, company-contributed content, collaboration inside the organization, collaboration throughout the organization

 

224. What is the system that consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system?

A. Management system

 

B. Reputation system

 

C. Knowledge system

 

D. Open system

 

225. Which of the below is not a characteristic associated with Mozilla Firefox?

A. Mozilla Firefox holds over 20% of the Web browser market

 

B. Mozilla Firefox offers a free email service called Thunderbird

 

C. Mozilla Firefox is a prime example of open source software

 

D. Mozilla Firefox is a prime example of a reputation system

 

226. What is Mozilla Firefox?

A. A competitor to Microsoft Word

 

B. A competitor to Microsoft Excel

 

C. A competitor to Adobe Photoshop

 

D. A competitor to Internet Explorer

 

227. What is software whose source code is available free for any third party to review and modify?

A. Free source

 

B. Open source

 

C. Code source

 

D. Network source

 

228. Erik is the president and owner of Watch Out, a local website development company that helps clients create and build unique websites. Many of his daily tasks are heavily technical in nature and require a high level of computer programming and Internet knowledge. Which of the below would Erik primarily use when performing his daily tasks?

A. Source code

 

B. Brick-and-mortar

 

C. Information reach

 

D. Explicit knowledge

 

229. Ebusiness was characterized by few companies or users posting content for the masses. What characterizes Business 2.0?

A. A select few posting content for high level executives only

 

B. The masses posting content for a select few

 

C. The masses posting content for the masses

 

D. A select few posting specific content for the masses

 

230. What is Web content that is created and updated by many users for many users?

A. Cybermediation contributed content

 

B. User-contributed content

 

C. Executive generated content

 

D. Customer generated content

 

231. eBay buyers voluntarily comment to other users and sellers on the quality of service, promptness of shipping, and their general satisfaction with the product. This is one of the most popular examples of user-generated content and is called ____________.

A. Reputation system

 

B. Knowledge system

 

C. Explicit system

 

D. User-generated sales cycle

 

232. What is the most common form of collective intelligence found inside the organization?

A. Crowdsourcing

 

B. Tacit management

 

C. Knowledge management

 

D. Tagging

 

233. What is the difference between asynchronous and synchronous communication?

A. Asynchronous is real-time communication; synchronous is one-way technology

 

B. Asynchronous is communication that does not occur at the same time; synchronous communication occurs at the same time

 

C. Asynchronous communication includes instant messaging; synchronous communication includes email

 

D. Asynchronous communication is fast and instant; synchronous communication is collected at a single point in time

 

234. Which of the below is not a characteristic of Business 2.0?

A. Knowledge management

 

B. Collaboration system

 

C. Web browser

 

D. Explicit knowledge

 

235. Which of the following is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information?

A. Collaboration system

 

B. Collective system

 

C. Competitive system

 

D. Real simple syndication system

 

236. Lisa loves her job as an executive recruiter for a large hospital located in Dallas, Texas. Part of Lisa’s job requires her to gather industry information, collaborate with partners, compare competitors, and tap into the knowledge of prospective employees, partners, and customers. Which of the below would Lisa use to perform her job?

A. Interactivity metrics

 

B. Source code

 

C. Network effect

 

D. Collective intelligence

 

237. Which system supports the capturing, organization, and dissemination of knowledge throughout an organization?

A. Cybermediation system

 

B. Knowledge management system

 

C. Source code system

 

D. Social media system

 

238. Which of the below focuses on user-generated content?

A. YouTube

 

B. Wikipedia

 

C. Netflix

 

D. All of the above

 

239. What are the two categories that include intellectual and knowledge-based assets?

A. Explicit knowledge; tacit knowledge

 

B. Efficient knowledge; tacit knowledge

 

C. Intelligent knowledge; explicit knowledge

 

D. Open knowledge; closed knowledge

 

240. What is the type of knowledge that is contained in people’s heads?

A. Explicit knowledge

 

B. Virtual knowledge

 

C. Tacit knowledge

 

D. Pure knowledge

 

241. What is the type of knowledge that consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of a MIS department?

A. Tacit knowledge

 

B. Explicit knowledge

 

C. Pure knowledge

 

D. Virtual knowledge

 

242. Which of the following is not an example of explicit knowledge?

A. Patent

 

B. Trademark

 

C. Employee opinion

 

D. Marketing research

 

243. What do Netflix and Amazon use to drive their recommendation tools?

A. Web 1.0 content

 

B. Open source content

 

C. Virtual content

 

D. User-generated content

 

244. What are websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and YouTube?

A. Synchronous communication

 

B. Social media

 

C. Social networking

 

D. Asynchronous communication

 

245. What is the practice of expanding your business and social contacts by constructing a personal network?

A. Network effects

 

B. Tagging

 

C. Social taxonomy

 

D. Social networking

 

246. What is a locally stored URL, or the address of a file or Internet page saved as a shortcut?

A. Website bookmark

 

B. Social tag

 

C. Folksonomy

 

D. Taxonomy

 

247. Which of the below represents an example of why an employer would use social media?

A. To find potential job candidates via LinkedIn

 

B. To review potential job candidates by viewing their Facebook page

 

C. To attract new job candidates via YouTube

 

D. All of the above

 

248. What are the two basic functions that social networking sites provide?

A. The ability to create and publish your own software

 

B. The ability to create and maintain a profile that is your online identity and create connections between other people within the network

 

C. The ability to capture and create URLs and RSSs

 

D. The ability to create URLs and edit RSS software

 

249. Which of the below is not an example of a social bookmarking website?

A. Facebook

 

B. StumbleUpon

 

C. Del.icio.us

 

D. All of the above

 

250. What is an SNA?

A. Strong network applications

 

B. Social needs analysis

 

C. Social networking analysis

 

D. Steady network areas

 

251. What maps group contacts identifying who knows each other and who works together?

A. Social network effects

 

B. Mashup networking analysis

 

C. Web network effects

 

D. Social networking analysis

 

252. Many social media websites use _________ or specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy.

A. Conferencing

 

B. Tags

 

C. Long tails

 

D. Categories

 

253. Social tagging describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to ______________.

A. Organize it for future navigation

 

B. Organize it for future filtering

 

C. Organize it for future search

 

D. All of the above

 

254. Cell phone manufacturers often refer to their products as mobile devices. Which of the below would not be included in the folksonomy for a cell phone?

A. Cell

 

B. iPhone

 

C. Blackberry

 

D. Technology platform

 

255. What is the term that is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tag or keyword-based classification system?

A. Podcasting

 

B. Network effects

 

C. Folksonomy

 

D. Social bookmarking

 

256. How do the majority of potential customers find business websites?

A. By applying analytics

 

B. Through search terms that match the content

 

C. Through viral advertisements

 

D. Through magazines and newspapers

 

257. How would a company like Flickr use social tagging on its website?

A. By applying keywords that do not match user content

 

B. By building a tagging game for customers to participate in

 

C. By allowing users to upload images and tag the images with their own keywords

 

D. By selecting the keywords to associate with each image a customer uploads

 

258. Using the collective power of a community to identify and classify content significantly _________ content categorization costs.

A. Eliminates

 

B. Raises

 

C. Lowers

 

D. Balances

 

259. A social bookmarking site is dedicated to providing all of the following except ________.

A. To reconnect with colleagues for business progress

 

B. To share favorites

 

C. To store & categorize favorite sites

 

D. To annotate

 

260. Which social media site works by allowing content to find the users, instead of the users having to search for the content?

A. MySpace

 

B. Facebook

 

C. Google

 

D. StumbleUpon

 

261. What is the primary way that social networks work?

A. Connecting people by matching profile information

 

B. Charging users each time they use the service

 

C. Providing a security system for communication online

 

D. Helping grow website traffic by viral advertisements

 

262. What is one simplification that has occurred with Business 2.0?

A. By helping online users create anonymity

 

B. By limiting the sharing capabilities of devices

 

C. By improving access to information

 

D. By communicating via email

 

263. Which of the following identifies Business 2.0 communication and collaboration tools?

A. Microblogs, Tweets, RSS

 

B. API, RSS, tacit knowledge

 

C. Blogs, wikis, mashup

 

D. Tags, Web logs, RSS

 

264. What is an online journal that allows users to post their own opinions, comments, graphics, and video?

A. Web masters

 

B. Folksonomy

 

C. Disintermediation

 

D. A Blog or Web log

 

265. Why are Fortune 500 companies engaging in blogging?

A. To order supplies

 

B. To review favorite Internet providers

 

C. To gather feedback and share ideas

 

D. To pay employees

 

266. Twitter is an example of a __________.

A. Social bookmarking website

 

B. Social tagging website

 

C. Microblogging website

 

D. Blogging website

 

267. What is the practice of sending brief posts 140-200 characters to a personal blog either publicly or to a private group of subscribers?

A. Ebusiness model

 

B. Tagging

 

C. Blogging

 

D. Microblog

 

268. Unlike traditional HTML, which of the following lets writers communicate and readers respond on a regular basis through a simple online journal?

A. Instant messaging

 

B. HTTP

 

C. Blog

 

D. Email

 

269. What is the difference between a wiki and a blog?

A. A wiki is free and a blog has a subscription fee

 

B. A wiki user can alter the original content of an article, where a blog user can only add information as a comment

 

C. A wiki is original content, where a blog is used sources

 

D. All of the above

 

270. What does RSS stand for?

A. Reorganized Site Syndicator

 

B. Really Simple Sites

 

C. Rented Site Syndication

 

D. Real Simple Syndication

 

271. Many websites use _______ to constantly feed news to consumers instead of having the consumer search for the news.

A. Mashup

 

B. Source Code

 

C. RSS

 

D. SNA

 

272. Large wikis, such as Wikipedia, can protect the quality and accuracy of their information by assigning users roles such as __________.

A. Reader

 

B. Subject matter expert

 

C. Editor

 

D. All of the above

 

273. What describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increase?

A. Network effect

 

B. RSS

 

C. Mashup editor

 

D. Mcommerce

 

274. Which of the following is one of the largest wikis on the Web and one of the 10 most popular Web destinations?

A. Google

 

B. eBay

 

C. Wikipedia

 

D. Yahoo

 

275. Some of the benefits for a company to operate an internal wiki are that they are great tools for all of the following except:

A. Collecting and disseminating knowledge

 

B. Building software applications

 

C. Sharing information between functional business areas

 

D. Distribute to employees or partners across geographical distances

 

276. What is a website or Web application that uses content from more than one source to create a completely new product or service?

A. Social tagging

 

B. Mashup blog

 

C. Social media

 

D. Mashup

 

277. An API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools for ______________.

A. Building software applications

 

B. Providing a visual interface for a web mashup

 

C. Describing how products in a network work

 

D. Writing and editing HTML

 

278. What does API stand for?

A. Asynchronous Programming Information

 

B. Application Programming Interface

 

C. Application Provider for the Internet

 

D. Asynchronous Protocol Interaction

 

279. What is the role of a mashup editor?

A. WYSIWYG’s

 

B. Often it allows the user to drag and drop data points into a Web application

 

C. To provide a visual interface to build up a mashup

 

D. All of the above

 

280. Which of the following are challenges of Business 2.0?

A. Information vandalism

 

B. Technology dependence

 

C. Violations of copyright and plagiarism

 

D. All of the above

 

281. What is a potential problem or impact of technology dependence?

A. Outages hold potentially great havoc for people, business, and educational institutions that rely heavily on technology

 

B. Many have a need to be continuously connected for every activity that potentially eliminates crucial in-person social skills and could stunt psychological growth

 

C. How do people or businesses function if the connection is down?

 

D. All of the above

 

282. Which of the following demonstrates potential issues with Business 2.0 and information vandalism?

A. Open source allows anyone to be able to edit, damage, or destroy content

 

B. Copyright protection

 

C. Decreases in employee productivity

 

D. Decreases in process productivity

 

283. One of the most famous examples of wiki vandalism occurred when a false biography entry read which of the following:

A. Michael Jackson and Madonna were siblings

 

B. JFK and Robert Kennedy were the same person

 

C. John Seigenthaler Sr. was assistant to Attorney General Robert F. Kennedy in the early 1960’s and was involved in Kennedy’s assassination as well as JFK’s

 

D. Madonna and Britney Spears are sisters

 

284. Which of the following best describes Web 1.0?

A. Static text-based information websites

 

B. Static electricity and connectivity

 

C. Social media

 

D. Technology intelligence

 

285. Which of the following best describes Web 2.0?

A. Static websites

 

B. Intelligent websites

 

C. Social media and user-generated Web content

 

D. Hypertext markup language

 

286. Which of the following best describes Web 3.0?

A. User-generated online business

 

B. Based on the ‘intelligent’ Web where applications use natural language processing

 

C. Collaboration and social media

 

D. All of the above

 

287. Which statement below is inaccurate?

A. Web 2.0 is a simple static website without any interaction with its users

 

B. Web 2.0 brings people closer together with information using machines

 

C. Web 3.0 brings machines closer together using information

 

D. Web 3.0 is a rich ‘intelligent’ understanding and relationships among concept and topics

 

288. What is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand?

A. Social tagging

 

B. Sustaining Web

 

C. Social Web

 

D. Semantic Web

 

289. Which statement below is incorrect?

A. The semantic Web captures, organizes, and disseminates knowledge (i.e., know-how) throughout an organization

 

B. The semantic Web describes the relationships between things

 

C. The semantic Web describes the properties of things

 

D. The semantic Web is not about links between Web pages

 

290. Which of the following is not a topic or feature that is included in Web 3.0?

A. A worldwide database

 

B. Intelligent applications

 

C. Social networking

 

D. Integration of legacy devices

 

291. What statement below describes Web 3.0’s feature that ensure the ‘integration of legacy devices’?

A. The ability to use current devices such as iPhone and laptops as credit cards or ticket

 

B. The design of websites and other software so they can be easily integrated and work together

 

C. The ability for software to be distributed and accessed from anywhere

 

D. The design of software to be easily integrated and work together

 

292. Many industries have taken an active role in online business including the government. Which of the following is the term that describes the use of strategies and technologies to transform government by improving the delivery of services and enhancing the quality of interaction between the citizen-consumer within all the branches of government?

A. Ecommerce

 

B. Information richness

 

C. Egovernment

 

D. Tacit knowledge

 

293. The website that was the primary catalyst for growing electronic government, and is the official U.S. gateway to all government information?

A. Government.gov

 

B. TheUnitedStatesofAmerica.org

 

C. TheWhiteHouse.com

 

D. FirstGov.gov

 

294. Which of the following is the example of consumer-to-government (C2G) highlighted in the figure extended ebusiness models?

A. eGov.com

 

B. conisint.com

 

C. Google.org

 

D. export.gov

 

295. What is the ability to purchase goods and services through a wireless Internet-enabled device?

A. Ecommerce

 

B. Mobile business

 

C. Meconomics

 

D. Ebusiness model

 

296. How would you categorize mobile entertainment, mobile sales, mobile ticketing, and mobile banking?

A. Mobile business

 

B. Mbusiness

 

C. Mcommerce

 

D. All of the above

 

297. Several companies were outlined in the book to launch new businesses by capitalizing on disruptive technology. One example is _______________, who launched the revolutionary products such as the iPod and the iPhone.

________________________________________

 

298. A __________ technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing customers.

________________________________________

 

299. Computers connected through the __________ can send and receive information including text, graphics, voice, video, and software.

________________________________________

 

300. The World Wide Web provides access to ____________ information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called HTML.

________________________________________

 

301. A ____________ shift occurs when a new radical form of business enters the market that reshapes the way companies and organizations behave.

________________________________________

 

302. An __________ is a program that runs within another application such as a website.

________________________________________

 

303. Web _________ is a term to refer to the World Wide Web during its first few years of operation between 1991 and 2003.

________________________________________

 

304. A disruptive technology is a new way of doing things that initially does not meet the needs of existing ________________.

________________________________________

 

305. A(n) ___________ technology produces an improved product customers are eager to buy.

________________________________________

 

306. According to Christensen, companies may have placed too great an emphasis on satisfying customer’s ______ needs, while forgetting to adopt new disruptive technology that will meet customer’s future needs.

________________________________________

 

307. The Innovator’s ___________ is a book by Clayton M. Christensen.

________________________________________

 

308. The WWW provides access to Internet information through documents including text, graphics, audio, and video files that use a special formatting language called ________ markup language.

________________________________________

 

309. Information __________ refers to the depth and breadth of details contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information.

________________________________________

 

310. Information __________ measures the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world.

________________________________________

 

311. Through ____________ data companies can observe the exact pattern of a consumer’s navigation through a site.

________________________________________

 

312. A __________ is an online marketing technique where a small file deposited on a hard drive by a website containing information about customers and their browsing activities.

________________________________________

 

313. Information richness refers to the depth and breadth of ___________ contained in a piece of textual, graphic, audio, or video information.

________________________________________

 

314. Information reach ___________ the number of people a firm can communicate with all over the world.

________________________________________

 

315. _____________ occurs when a company knows enough about a customer’s likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers more likely to appeal to that person, say by tailoring its website to individuals or groups based on profile information, demographics, or prior transactions.

________________________________________

 

316. The __________ tail refers to the tail of a typical sales curve.

________________________________________

 

317. _________ are agents, software, or businesses that provide a trading infrastructure to bring buyers and sellers together.

________________________________________

 

318. __________ measures advertising effectiveness by counting visitor interactions with the target ad, including time spent viewing the ad, number of pages viewed, and number of repeat visits to the advertisement.

________________________________________

 

319. An online version of a retail store where customers can shop at any hour is called a(n) _________.

________________________________________

 

320. Business-to-Business applies to businesses buying from and selling to each other over the ______________.

________________________________________

 

321. _________-com was the original term for a company operating on the Internet.

________________________________________

 

322. A(n) _________________ model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues.

________________________________________

 

323. A(n) ___________ model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet.

________________________________________

 

324. A search __________ is website software that finds other pages based on keyword matching similar to Google.

________________________________________

 

325. Search engine __________ evaluates variables that search engines use to determine where a URL appears on the list of search results.

________________________________________

 

326. Search engine __________ combines art along with science to determine how to make URLs more attractive to search engines resulting in higher search engine ranking.

________________________________________

 

327. Pay-per-_________ generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link to a retailer’s website.

________________________________________

 

328. Pay-per-___________ generates revenue each time a user clicks on a link that takes the user directly to an online agent waiting for a call.

________________________________________

 

329. Pay-per-_______ generates revenue each time a website visitor is converted to a customer.

________________________________________

 

330. An ebusiness model is a ________ that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues on the Internet.

________________________________________

 

331. Business-to-consumer applies to any __________ that sells its products or services directly to consumers online.

________________________________________

 

332. Consumer-to-consumer applies to sites primarily offering goods and services to assist ____________ interacting with each other over the Internet.

________________________________________

 

333. Consumer-to-business applies to any _________ who sells a product or service to a business on the Internet.

________________________________________

 

334. _____ and-mortar business operates in a physical store without an Internet presence.

________________________________________

 

335. Google is an example of a _________-play business.

________________________________________

 

336. Barnes & Noble is an example of a _________-and-mortar business.

________________________________________

 

337. T. J. Maxx is an example of a _________-and-mortar business.

________________________________________

 

338. __________ single-handedly increased the speed of business through the exchange of digital messages over the Internet.

________________________________________

 

339. The blending of videoconferencing with document sharing is the ebusiness tool called Web conferencing or a __________.

________________________________________

 

340. A(n) Internet service ______________ is a company that provides access to the Internet.

________________________________________

 

341. Instant ____________ is a service that enables instant or real-time communication between people.

________________________________________

 

342. Real-time ______________ occurs when a system updates information at the same rate it receives it.

________________________________________

 

343. _______________ converts an audio broadcast to a digital music player.

________________________________________

 

344. _______________ is the scientific classification of organisms into groups based on similarities.

________________________________________

 

345. The main challenge to ebusiness is the lack of growth in some sectors due to product or service __________.

________________________________________

 

346. One of the main challenges that ___________ face is ensuring consumer protection, guarding them against unsolicited goods and invasion of privacy.

________________________________________

 

347. The Internet marketplace remains mostly free of traditional forms of sales tax, partially because ecommerce law is vaguely defined making adhering to ___________ rules and laws a challenge of ebusiness.

________________________________________

 

348. One of the most popular forms of user-generated content is a __________ system where buyers post feedback on sellers.

________________________________________

 

349. The primary objective of __________ management is to be sure that a company’s knowledge of facts, sources of information and solutions are readily available to all employees whenever it is needed.

________________________________________

 

350. Traditional ebusiness communications were limited to face-to-face conversations and one-way technologies that used _______________ communications or communication such as email in which the message and the response do not occur at the same time.

________________________________________

 

351. A(n) _________ system consists of nonproprietary hardware and software based on publicly known standards that allows third parties to create add-on products to plug into or interoperate with the system.

________________________________________

 

352. Source _______ contains instructions written by a programmer specifying the actions to be performed by computer software.

________________________________________

 

353. ________ source refers to any software whose source code is made available free for any third party to review and modify.

________________________________________

 

354. ________ intelligence is collaborating and tapping into the core knowledge of all employees, partners, and customers.

________________________________________

 

355. ______________ system is a set of tools that supports the work of teams or groups by facilitating the sharing and flow of information.

________________________________________

 

356. _____________ knowledge consists of anything that can be documented, archived, and codified, often with the help of MIS.

________________________________________

 

357. __________ knowledge is the knowledge contained in people’s heads.

________________________________________

 

358. Social __________ describes the collaborative activity of marking shared online content with keywords or tags as a way to organize it for future navigation, filtering, or search.

________________________________________

 

359. A website dedicated to social ____________, provides users with a place to store, categorize, annotate, and share favorites.

________________________________________

 

360. Social ___________ is an application that connects people by matching profile information.

________________________________________

 

361. Social ____________ refers to websites that rely on user participation and user-contributed content, such as Facebook.

________________________________________

 

362. __________ are specific keywords or phrases incorporated into website content for means of classification or taxonomy.

________________________________________

 

363. _______________ is similar to taxonomy except that crowdsourcing determines the tags or keyword-based classification system.

________________________________________

 

364. A _____________ is a type of collaborative web page that allows users to add, remove, and change content, which can be easily organized and reorganized as required.

________________________________________

 

365. ____________ editors are WYSIWYG.

________________________________________

 

366. The __________ effect describes how products in a network increase in value to users as the number of users increases.

________________________________________

 

367. An example of a __________ is putting Jay-Z lyrics over a Radiohead song makes something old new.

________________________________________

 

368. A Web _________ is another term for an online journal that allows users to post their own comments, graphics, and video.

________________________________________

 

369. Twitter is one of the largest and most powerful _______________ websites.

________________________________________

 

370. John has a big issue with turning off his cell phone as he is continuously connected to his friends and family via IMing. It has gotten so bad that John refuses to go to a movie because he cannot possibly live for two hours without being connected. John is suffering from technology __________, a clear challenge of Business 2.0.

________________________________________

 

371. You are in charge of creating and updating your company’s Wikipedia page. You logon to find that someone has placed inappropriate photos and blatant lies about your products on the corporate Wikipedia page. Your company has been a victim of wiki _________, another major challenge of the Business 2.0 environment.

________________________________________

 

372. You have just been promoted at work and you are now responsible for all marketing communication through the different Internet channels. You logon to your corporate blog and find that there are many direct paragraphs from competitor websites and product manufacturing magazines. The first issue you will need to address as you redesign the corporate blog is to ensure you are avoiding copyright violations and __________.

________________________________________

 

373. The Web version that is defining the next generation of online business is Web________, or the “intelligent” Web application.

________________________________________

 

374. The ______________ Web is a component of Web 3.0 that describes things in a way that computers can understand.

________________________________________

 

375. Mobile business is just now emerging and is also referred to as mcommerce or ____________.

________________________________________

 

376. Compare disruptive and sustaining technologies, and explain how the Internet and WWW caused business disruption.

 

 

 

 

377. Describe Web 1.0 along with ebusiness and its associated advantages.

 

 

 

 

378. Compare the four categories of ebusiness models.

 

 

 

 

379. Describe the six ebusiness tools for connecting and communicating.

 

 

 

 

380. Identify the four challenges associated with ebusiness.

 

 

 

 

381. Explain Web 2.0, and identify its four characteristics.

 

 

 

 

382. Explain how Business 2.0 is helping communities network and collaborate.

 

 

 

 

383. Describe the three Business 2.0 tools for collaborating.

 

 

 

 

384. Explain the three challenges associated with Business 2.0.

 

 

 

 

385. Describe Web 3.0 and the next generation of online business.

 

 

 

CHAPTER 9: Systems Development and Project Management: Corporate

1. In the analysis phase the firm analyzes its end-user business requirements and refines project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system.

True    False

 

2. Business requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort.

True    False

 

3. Business requirements include the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system.

True    False

 

4. Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements.

True    False

 

5. Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs.

True    False

 

6. The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance.

True    False

 

7. The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals.

True    False

 

8. Conversion occurs when a person or event is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes.

True    False

 

9. Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted.

True    False

 

10. Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project.

True    False

 

11. Projects are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for successful project completion.

True    False

 

12. A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company.

True    False

 

13. Sign-off is the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements.

True    False

 

14. The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.

True    False

 

15. The testing phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system.

True    False

 

16. Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools.

True    False

 

17. Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools to provide automated support for the development of the system.

True    False

 

18. Control objects for information and related technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors.

True    False

 

19. Object-oriented languages provide a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website.

True    False

 

20. Scripting languages group data and corresponding processes into objects.

True    False

 

21. Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are programming languages that look similar to human languages. For example, a typical 4GL command might state, “FIND ALL RECORDS WHERE NAME IS “SMITH”. ”

True    False

 

22. The development phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase.

True    False

 

23. Bugs are defects in the code of an information system.

True    False

 

24. Test conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it.

True    False

 

25. Detailed user documentation is created that highlights how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems.

True    False

 

26. Training is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom.

True    False

 

27. Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace.

True    False

 

28. Workshop training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor.

True    False

 

29. Help desk are a group of people who respond to users questions.

True    False

 

30. Development Testing assess if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users.

True    False

 

31. Alpha testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free.

True    False

 

32. Development testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly.

True    False

 

33. Integration testing verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together.

True    False

 

34. User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements.

True    False

 

35. User acceptance testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system.

True    False

 

36. Unit testing uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verifies that the new system functions correctly.

True    False

 

37. Plunge implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system.

True    False

 

38. Pilot implementation is a small group of people use the new system until it is verified that it works correctly then the remaining users migrate.

True    False

 

39. Pilot implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly.

True    False

 

40. Corrective maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues.

True    False

 

41. Corrective maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure.

True    False

 

42. Internal reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization. Internal reports typically support day-to-day operations monitoring that supports managerial decision making.

True    False

 

43. Detailed internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data.

True    False

 

44. Exception reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal.

True    False

 

45. Summary internal reports highlight situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard.

True    False

 

46. Information system control reports ensure the reliability of information, consisting of policies and their physical implementation, access restrictions, or recordkeeping of actions and transactions.

True    False

 

47. Information systems audit reports assess a company’s information system to determine necessary changes and to help ensure the information systems’ availability, confidentiality, and integrity.

True    False

 

48. Post-implementation reports are formal reports or audits of a project after it is up-and-running.

True    False

 

49. Preventative maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure.

True    False

 

50. Preventing liabilities is a business-related consequence of failed software.

True    False

 

51. The implementation phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforming them into the actual system.

True    False

 

52. The traditional waterfall methodology is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance.

True    False

 

53. A prototype is a smaller-scale representation or working model of the users’ requirements or a proposed design for an information system.

True    False

 

54. Project milestones are any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.

True    False

 

55. Project deliverables represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.

True    False

 

56. Discovery prototyping builds a small-scale representation or working model of the system to ensure it meets the user and business requirements.

True    False

 

57. Rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four “gates.”

True    False

 

58. Scrum methodology, uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of “sprints,” or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal.

True    False

 

59. A communication plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations.

True    False

 

60. The executive sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project.

True    False

 

61. Project constraints are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration.

True    False

 

62. Project assumptions are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies.

True    False

 

63. A project objective is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.

True    False

 

64. The Project Management Office (PMO) is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects.

True    False

 

65. Project assumptions represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.

True    False

 

66. Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success.

True    False

 

67. The project requirements document defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts.

True    False

 

68. Project scope statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project.

True    False

 

69. The project managers are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

True    False

 

70. Responsibility matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role.

True    False

 

71. Status report periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance.

True    False

 

72. A kill switch is a trigger that enables a project manager to close the project before completion.

True    False

 

73. A Gantt chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between them.

True    False

 

74. A dependency is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone.

True    False

 

75. Gantt charts define dependency between project tasks before those tasks are scheduled.

True    False

 

76. The critical path estimates the shortest path through the project ensuring all critical tasks are completed from start to finish.

True    False

 

77. A Pert chart is a simple bar chart that lists project tasks vertically against the project’s time frame, listed horizontally.

True    False

 

78. In the past, outsourcing was often used tactically, as a quick-fix, short-term solution to a particular need or problem which did not form part of an overall business strategy.

True    False

 

79. Outsourcing is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems.

True    False

 

80. In-sourcing is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.

True    False

 

81. Offshore outsourcing is using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems.

True    False

 

82. Human resources is the most common outsourced function.

True    False

 

83. Which phase does the firm analyzes its end-user business requirements and refines project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system?

A. Analysis phase

 

B. Design phase

 

C. Development phase

 

D. Testing phase

 

84. What are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort?

A. COBIT

 

B. Conversion

 

C. Business requirements

 

D. Sign-off

 

85. What is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system?

A. COBIT

 

B. Conversion

 

C. Business requirements

 

D. Sign-off

 

86. What modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements?

A. Software customization

 

B. Conversion

 

C. Business requirements

 

D. Sign-off

 

87. Which software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization’s needs?

A. SDLC

 

B. Software customization

 

C. Off-the-shelf application

 

D. Application software

 

88. What is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance?

A. SDLC

 

B. Software customization

 

C. Off-the-shelf application

 

D. Sign-off

 

89. Which phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals?

A. Testing phase

 

B. Analysis phase

 

C. Maintenance phase

 

D. Planning phase

 

90. What is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes?

A. Change controller

 

B. Change over

 

C. Change management

 

D. Change agent

 

91. What is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted?

A. Brainstorming

 

B. Change agent

 

C. Test conditions

 

D. Bugs

 

92. What is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project?

A. Requirements documentation

 

B. Requirements management

 

C. Requirements definition document

 

D. All of the above

 

93. Which document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company?

A. Requirements documentation

 

B. Requirements management

 

C. Requirements definition document

 

D. All of the above

 

94. What contains the users’ actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements?

A. Requirements documentation

 

B. Requirements management

 

C. Requirements definition document

 

D. Sign-off

 

95. Which phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system?

A. Testing phase

 

B. Analysis phase

 

C. Development phase

 

D. Planning phase

 

96. What is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools?

A. Software

 

B. Software testing

 

C. Software engineering

 

D. Software managing

 

97. What do software engineers use as tools to provide automated support for the development of the system?

A. Software

 

B. IEEE

 

C. COBIT

 

D. CASE

 

98. What is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors?

A. COBIT

 

B. CASE

 

C. IEEE

 

D. All of the above

 

99. What is a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website?

A. Scripting language

 

B. Object-oriented language

 

C. Fourth-generation language

 

D. All of the above

 

100. What language groups data and corresponding processes into objects?

A. Scripting language

 

B. Object-oriented language

 

C. Fourth-generation language

 

D. All of the above

 

101. What languages are programming languages that look similar to human languages?

A. Scripting language

 

B. Object-oriented language

 

C. Fourth-generation language

 

D. All of the above

 

102. Which phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase?

A. Testing phase

 

B. Analysis phase

 

C. Development phase

 

D. Planning phase

 

103. What are defects in the code of an information system?

A. Testing

 

B. Bugs

 

C. Insects

 

D. All of the above

 

104. What detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it?

A. Testing phase

 

B. Testing documentation

 

C. Test conditions

 

D. All of the above

 

105. What is created that highlights how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems?

A. Detailed user documentation

 

B. Requirements definition document

 

C. Scope document

 

D. All of the above

 

106. What is also provided for the system users and can be online or in a classroom?

A. Training

 

B. Testing

 

C. Implementation phase

 

D. Testing phase

 

107. What runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace?

A. Online training

 

B. Workshop training

 

C. Help desk

 

D. Corrective maintenance

 

108. What is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor?

A. Online training

 

B. Workshop training

 

C. Help desk

 

D. Corrective maintenance

 

109. What is a group of people who respond to users questions?

A. Online training

 

B. Workshop training

 

C. Help desk

 

D. Corrective maintenance

 

110. What assess if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users?

A. Alpha testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. System testing

 

111. What occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free?

A. Alpha testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. System testing

 

112. What verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly?

A. Alpha testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. System testing

 

113. What verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together?

A. Alpha testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. System testing

 

114. What determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements?

A. Alpha testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. User acceptance testing

 

115. What tests individual units or pieces of code for a system?

A. Unit testing

 

B. Development testing

 

C. Integration testing

 

D. User acceptance testing

 

116. Which implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verifies that the new system functions correctly?

A. Parallel implementation

 

B. Plunge implementation

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

117. Which implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system?

A. Parallel implementation

 

B. Plunge implementation

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

118. Which implementation is a small group of people use the new system until it is verified that it works correctly then the remaining users migrate?

A. Parallel implementation

 

B. Plunge implementation

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

119. Which implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly?

A. Parallel implementation

 

B. Plunge implementation

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

120. What makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues?

A. Corrective maintenance

 

B. Preventative maintenance

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

121. What makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure?

A. Corrective maintenance

 

B. Preventative maintenance

 

C. Pilot implementation

 

D. Phased implementation

 

122. Which reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization?

A. Internal reports

 

B. Detailed internal reports

 

C. Summary internal reports

 

D. Exception reports

 

123. Which internal reports present information with little or no filtering or restrictions of the data?

A. Internal reports

 

B. Detailed internal reports

 

C. Summary internal reports

 

D. Exception reports

 

124. Which internal reports organize and categorize data for managerial perusal?

A. Internal reports

 

B. Detailed internal reports

 

C. Summary internal reports

 

D. Exception reports

 

125. Which reports provide an internal report that highlights situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard?

A. Internal reports

 

B. Detailed internal reports

 

C. Summary internal reports

 

D. Exception reports

 

126. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of successful software?

A. Increased revenues

 

B. Damage to brand reputation

 

C. Increased liabilities

 

D. Increased expenses

 

127. Which of the following is a business-related consequence of failing software?

A. Decreased productivity

 

B. Damage to brand reputation

 

C. Increased liabilities

 

D. All of the above

 

128. What is the systems development life cycle?

A. Involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals

 

B. Involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system

 

C. Involves describing the desired features and operations of the system

 

D. The overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance

 

129. What is the overall process for developing information systems from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance?

A. Systems development life cycle

 

B. Project management

 

C. Systems management

 

D. Project development life cycle

 

130. Which of the following represents the phases in the SDLC?

A. Plan, analysis, design, test, maintain, develop, implement

 

B. Analysis, plan, design, test, develop, maintain, implement

 

C. Plan, analysis, design, develop, test, implement, maintain

 

D. Analysis, plan, develop, design, test, implement, maintain

 

131. What is the analysis phase in the SDLC?

A. Involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals

 

B. Involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system

 

C. Involves describing the desired features and operations of the system

 

D. Involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system

 

132. Which phase of the SDLC gathers business requirements?

A. Plan

 

B. Analysis

 

C. Test

 

D. Design

 

133. What is a business requirement?

A. The nonspecific business requests the system must meet to be successful

 

B. The specific business requests the system must meet to be successful

 

C. The nonspecific methodology the system must meet to be successful

 

D. The specific methodology the system must meet to be successful

 

134. What is the design phase in the SDLC?

A. Involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals

 

B. Involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system

 

C. Involves describing the desired features and operations of the system

 

D. Involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system

 

135. What is the implementation phase in the SDLC?

A. Involves establishing a high-level plan of the intended project and determining project goals

 

B. Involves analyzing end-user business requirements and refining project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system

 

C. Involves describing the desired features and operations of the system

 

D. Involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system

 

136. What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people apply to technical and management challenges?

A. SDLC

 

B. Methodology

 

C. Waterfall

 

D. Agile

 

137. Which of the following is an issue related to the waterfall methodology?

A. Flaws in accurately defining and articulating the business problem

 

B. Managing costs, resources, and time constraints

 

C. Assumes users can specify all business requirements in advance

 

D. All of the above

 

138. What consists of a series of tiny projects?

A. Waterfall methodology

 

B. Iterative development

 

C. Agile methodology

 

D. All of the above

 

139. Which methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirements?

A. RAD methodology

 

B. Agile methodology

 

C. Waterfall methodology

 

D. Extreme programming

 

140. Which of the following describes agile?

A. Fast and efficient

 

B. Small and nimble

 

C. Lower cost

 

D. All of the above

 

141. Which of the following is not a primary form of agile methodology?

A. RAD

 

B. SDLC

 

C. RUP

 

D. SCRUM

 

142. What is an activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance?

A. RAD methodology

 

B. Agile methodology

 

C. Waterfall methodology

 

D. Extreme programming

 

143. What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process?

A. RAD methodology

 

B. Agile methodology

 

C. Waterfall methodology

 

D. Extreme programming

 

144. What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete?

A. RAD methodology

 

B. Agile methodology

 

C. Waterfall methodology

 

D. Extreme programming

 

145. What is the success rate for a project using the waterfall methodology?

A. 1 in 10

 

B. 2 in 10

 

C. 4 in 10

 

D. 8 in 10

 

146. Which of the following is a fundamental of the RAD methodology?

A. Focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system

 

B. Actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases

 

C. Accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative construction approach

 

D. All of the above

 

147. Which methodology provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four gates?

A. SCRUM

 

B. XP

 

C. RAD

 

D. RUP

 

148. Which of the following is not one of the four gates in the RUP methodology?

A. Inception

 

B. Collaboration

 

C. Construction

 

D. Transition

 

149. Which gate in the RUP methodology expands on the agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to provide an architecture to support and build it?

A. Inception

 

B. Elaboration

 

C. Construction

 

D. Transition

 

150. Which gate in the RUP methodology includes building and developing the project?

A. Inception

 

B. Elaboration

 

C. Construction

 

D. Transition

 

151. Which methodology is owned by IBM?

A. SCRUM

 

B. XP

 

C. RAD

 

D. RUP

 

152. Which methodology uses small teams to produce small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal?

A. SCRUM

 

B. XP

 

C. RUP

 

D. RAD

 

153. Which methodology ends each day or begins with a stand-up meeting to monitor and control the development effort?

A. Scrum

 

B. XP

 

C. RUP

 

D. RAD

 

154. How many days is a typical sprint in the Scrum methodology?

A. 2 days

 

B. 10 days

 

C. 30 days

 

D. 90 days

 

155. What are the three primary variables (or triple constraints) in any project?

A. Time, cost, expense

 

B. Time, expense, requirements

 

C. Time, cost, scope

 

D. Time, cost, quality

 

156. What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail?

A. Change in business goals during the project

 

B. Lack of support from business management

 

C. Poor planning or poor project management

 

D. Change in technology during the project

 

157. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project?

A. Delivered on time

 

B. Delivered within budget

 

C. Meets the business’s requirements

 

D. All of the above

 

158. What is a project?

A. A temporary activity undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

 

B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project

 

C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

 

D. Represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

 

159. What are project deliverables?

A. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service

 

B. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project

 

C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

 

D. Represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

 

160. What is a project manager?

A. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project

 

B. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

 

C. Represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

 

D. An individual who is an expert in project planning and management

 

161. Which of the following does a project manager perform?

A. Defines and develops the project plan

 

B. Tracks the plan to ensure all key project milestones are completed on time

 

C. Expert in project planning and management

 

D. All of the above

 

162. What is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects?

A. Project deliverables

 

B. Project Scope

 

C. Project management office

 

D. Project milestones

 

163. The PMI develops procedures and concepts necessary to support the profession of project management. Which of the following is not one of the three areas it focuses on?

A. The distinguishing characteristics of a practicing professional (ethics)

 

B. The content and structure of the profession’s body of knowledge (standards)

 

C. Change in business goals during project planning (management)

 

D. Recognition of professional attainment (accreditation)

 

164. Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?

A. Project manager

 

B. Project stakeholders

 

C. Executive sponsor

 

D. All of the above

 

165. Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project?

A. Project manager

 

B. Project stakeholders

 

C. Executive sponsor

 

D. All of the above

 

166. What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations?

A. Communication plan

 

B. Executive sponsor

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

167. Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project?

A. Project manager

 

B. Executive sponsor

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

168. What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration?

A. Project plan

 

B. Project constraints

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

169. What are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies?

A. Project objectives

 

B. Project constraints

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

170. What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project?

A. Project milestones

 

B. Project objectives

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

171. What represents key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed?

A. Project milestones

 

B. Project objectives

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

172. What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success?

A. Project milestones

 

B. Project objectives

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

173. What defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts?

A. Project milestones

 

B. Project objectives

 

C. Project requirements document

 

D. Project deliverable

 

174. What statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project?

A. Project milestones

 

B. Project objectives

 

C. Project scope

 

D. Project deliverable

 

175. Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?

A. Project stakeholders

 

B. Project managers

 

C. Project planners

 

D. Project testers

 

176. What defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role?

A. Communication plan

 

B. Responsibility matrix

 

C. Project assumptions

 

D. Project deliverable

 

177. What are project constraints?

A. Specific factors that can limit options

 

B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration

 

C. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

 

D. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

 

178. What are project assumptions?

A. Specific factors that can limit options

 

B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration

 

C. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

 

D. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

 

179. What is a project charter?

A. Specific factors that can limit options

 

B. Factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration

 

C. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

 

D. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

 

180. An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the “what” part of this question focus on?

A. Justification of the project

 

B. Definition of the project

 

C. Expected results of the project

 

D. All of the above

 

181. An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the “how” part of this question focus on?

A. Justification of the project

 

B. Definition of the project

 

C. Analysis of project risks

 

D. Expected results of the project

 

182. Which of the following is not a technique for choosing strategic projects?

A. Categorize projects

 

B. Perform a financial analysis

 

C. Focus on organizational goals

 

D. Develop a project plan

 

183. What is project scope?

A. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

 

B. Products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project

 

C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

 

D. Defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

 

184. What are project objectives?

A. Quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success

 

B. Products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project

 

C. Any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project

 

D. Defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

 

185. What do SMART criteria for successful objective creation include?

A. Specific, metrics, agreed upon, real, time valued

 

B. Specific, measurable, agreed upon, realistic, time framed

 

C. Specific, measurable, accurate, real, time valued

 

D. Specific, metrics, agreed upon, realistic, time framed

 

186. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-defined project plan?

A. Prepared by the project manager

 

B. Easy to read

 

C. Appropriate to the project’s size

 

D. Communicated to all key participants

 

187. What is the most important part of the project plan?

A. Gantt chart

 

B. Specification

 

C. Communication

 

D. None of the above

 

188. What is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks?

A. Gantt chart

 

B. PERT chart

 

C. Dependency

 

D. All of the above

 

189. What is the logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone?

A. Resource

 

B. Task

 

C. Dependency

 

D. Activity

 

190. What is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar?

A. Gantt chart

 

B. PERT chart

 

C. Dependency

 

D. All of the above

 

191. What type of chart typically displays the critical path?

A. Gantt chart

 

B. PERT chart

 

C. All of the above

 

D. None of the above

 

192. What is the critical path?

A. The path from resource to task that passes through all critical components of a project plan

 

B. The path between tasks to the projects finish that passes through all critical components of a project plan

 

C. The path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the shortest amount of time

 

D. The path from start to finish that passes through all the tasks that are critical to completing the project in the longest amount of time

 

193. In a Gantt chart tasks are listed __________ and the project’s time frame is listed ____________.

A. Vertically, horizontally

 

B. Horizontally, vertically

 

C. Vertically, Vertically

 

D. Horizontally, horizontally

 

194. Which of the following includes a common reason why change occurs?

A. A misunderstanding of the initial scope

 

B. Shifts in planned technology that force unexpected and significant changes to the business

 

C. An omission in defining initial scope

 

D. All of the above

 

195. Which of the following is not a guideline for effectively dealing with change management?

A. Institute change management policies

 

B. Seek change

 

C. Anticipate change

 

D. Stop change

 

196. What is the outsourcing option that includes the most remote location and indirect customer control?

A. Onshore outsourcing

 

B. Nearshore outsourcing

 

C. Offshore outsourcing

 

D. None of the above

 

197. What is the outsourcing option that includes the closest location and direct customer control?

A. Onshore outsourcing

 

B. Nearshore outsourcing

 

C. Offshore outsourcing

 

D. None of the above

 

198. All of the following are challenges of outsourcing, except:

A. Contract length

 

B. Competitive edge

 

C. Confidentiality

 

D. Reduced frustration and expense related to hiring and retaining employees in an exceptionally tight job market

 

199. Which of the following is an outsourcing challenge caused by contract length?

A. Difficulties in getting out of a contract

 

B. Problems in foreseeing future issues

 

C. Problems in reforming an internal IT department

 

D. All of the above

 

200. What is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems?

A. In-sourcing

 

B. Outsourcing

 

C. Business process outsourcing

 

D. Offshore outsourcing

 

201. What is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house?

A. In-sourcing

 

B. Outsourcing

 

C. Business process outsourcing

 

D. Offshore outsourcing

 

202. What is it called when a company uses organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems?

A. In-sourcing

 

B. Outsourcing

 

C. Business process outsourcing

 

D. Offshore outsourcing

 

203. Which of the following is a benefit an organization can receive from outsourcing?

A. Financial savings

 

B. Increase technical abilities

 

C. Market agility

 

D. All of the above

 

204. Which of the following is the primary reason why companies outsource?

A. Tap outside sources of expertise

 

B. Concentrate resources on core business

 

C. Reduce headcount and related expenses

 

D. Better manage the costs of internal processes

 

205. Which of the following is the least common reason why companies outsource?

A. Tap outside sources of expertise

 

B. Concentrate resources on core business

 

C. Reduce headcount and related expenses

 

D. Better manage the costs of internal processes

 

206. What is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements?

A. Project management

 

B. Project management software

 

C. Scope

 

D. None of the above

 

207. In the __________ phase the firm analyzes its end-user business requirements and refines project goals into defined functions and operations of the intended system.

________________________________________

 

208. ___________ requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort.

________________________________________

 

209. ________________ is the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system.

________________________________________

 

210. Software ______________ modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements.

________________________________________

 

211. The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for __________ information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance.

________________________________________

 

212. The __________ phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals.

________________________________________

 

213. A ____________ agent is a person or event that is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes.

________________________________________

 

214. _____________ is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted.

________________________________________

 

215. _________________ management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project.

________________________________________

 

216. ______________ are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for successful project completion.

________________________________________

 

217. A __________________ definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company.

________________________________________

 

218. The ______________ phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.

________________________________________

 

219. The ________________ phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system.

________________________________________

 

220. Software ______________ is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools.

________________________________________

 

221. _____________ engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools to provide automated support for the development of the system.

________________________________________

 

222. __________ objects for information and related technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors.

________________________________________

 

223. A ______________ language is a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website.

________________________________________

 

224. The ____________ phase brings all the project pieces together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business requirements defined in the analysis phase.

________________________________________

 

225. _____________ are defects in the code of an information system.

________________________________________

 

226. ___________ conditions detail the steps the system must perform along with the expected result of each step in the implementation phase the organization places the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with it.

________________________________________

 

227. Detailed ____________ documentation is created that highlights how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or problems.

________________________________________

 

228. _____________ training runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time at their own pace.

________________________________________

 

229. _____________ training is held in a classroom environment and led by an instructor.

________________________________________

 

230. ___________ desk are a group of people who respond to users questions.

________________________________________

 

231. _____________ testing assess if the entire system meets the design requirements of the users.

________________________________________

 

232. ________________ testing occurs when programmers test the system to ensure it is bug-free.

________________________________________

 

233. __________________ testing verifies that separate systems can work together passing data back and forth correctly.

________________________________________

 

234. System ___________ verifies that the units or pieces of code function correctly when integrated together.

________________________________________

 

235. ____________ acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the system satisfies the user and business requirements.

________________________________________

 

236. __________ testing tests individual units or pieces of code for a system.

________________________________________

 

237. ______________ implementation uses both the legacy system and new system until all users verifies that the new system functions correctly.

________________________________________

 

238. ______________ implementation discards the legacy system completely and immediately migrates all users to the new system.

________________________________________

 

239. _____________ implementation is a small group of people use the new system until it is verified that it works correctly then the remaining users migrate.

________________________________________

 

240. _____________ implementation installs the new system in phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it works correctly.

________________________________________

 

241. ____________ maintenance makes system changes to repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues.

________________________________________

 

242. _____________ maintenance makes system changes to reduce the chance of future system failure.

________________________________________

 

243. _____________ reports present data that is distributed inside the organization and is intended for employees within an organization.

________________________________________

 

244. ______________ reporting is an internal report that highlights situations occurring outside of the normal operating range for a condition or standard.

________________________________________

 

245. Information systems __________ reports assess a company’s information system to determine necessary changes and to help ensure the information systems’ availability, confidentiality, and integrity.

________________________________________

 

246. ____________ revenues are a business-related consequence of successful software.

________________________________________

 

247. The _________ phase involves placing the system into production so users can begin to perform actual business operations with the system.

________________________________________

 

248. The ___________ phase involves performing changes, corrections, additions, and upgrades to ensure the system continues to meet the business goals.

________________________________________

 

249. Planning, ___________, design, development, testing, implementation, and maintenance are the seven phases in the SDLC.

________________________________________

 

250. The ___________ methodology is a sequential, activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through implementation and maintenance.

________________________________________

 

251. The rapid application development methodology emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working __________ of a system to accelerate the systems development process.

________________________________________

 

252. The _________ methodology aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components developed by an iterative process with a design point that uses the bare minimum requirement.

________________________________________

 

253. _____________ development consists of a series of tiny projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile methodologies.

________________________________________

 

254. _____________ application development (RAD) methodology (also called rapid prototyping) emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system, to accelerate the systems development process.

________________________________________

 

255. ____________ programming (XP) methodology , like other agile methods, breaks a project into four phases, and developers cannot continue to the next phase until the previous phase is complete.

________________________________________

 

256. Rational _________ process (RUP) methodology, owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the development of software into four “gates.”

________________________________________

 

257. _____________ methodology, uses small teams to produce small pieces of software using a series of “sprints,” or 30-day intervals, to achieve an appointed goal.

________________________________________

 

258. _________ management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.

________________________________________

 

259. Time, cost, and ___________ are the three primary variables in any project.

________________________________________

 

260. A(n) ____________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

________________________________________

 

261. Project ______________ are any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.

________________________________________

 

262. Project ____________ represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed.

________________________________________

 

263. Project _________ defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.

________________________________________

 

264. Project __________ are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success.

________________________________________

 

265. A(n) _______________ plan defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations.

________________________________________

 

266. The ______________ sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project.

________________________________________

 

267. Project ________________ are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration.

________________________________________

 

268. Project ______________ are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies.

________________________________________

 

269. A project _____________ is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project.

________________________________________

 

270. Project ______________ are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success.

________________________________________

 

271. The project ______________ document defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts.

________________________________________

 

272. Project _____________ statement links the project to the organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project.

________________________________________

 

273. Project __________________ are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

________________________________________

 

274. ______________ matrix defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role.

________________________________________

 

275. _____________ report periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance.

________________________________________

 

276. The R in the SMART criteria for successful objective creation stands for _________.

________________________________________

 

277. A project ____________ is a formal, approved document that manages and controls project execution.

________________________________________

 

278. A(n) _____ chart is a graphical network model that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks.

________________________________________

 

279. A(n) __________ chart is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks against a calendar.

________________________________________

 

280. A(n) _________ is a logical relationship that exists between the project tasks, or between a project task and a milestone.

________________________________________

 

281. A change control board is responsible for approving or ____________ all change requests.

________________________________________

 

282. ____________ is a common approach using the professional expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the organization’s information technology systems.

________________________________________

 

283. _________ is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.

________________________________________

 

284. ___________ outsourcing is using organizations from developing countries to write code and develop systems.

________________________________________

 

285. ___________ outsourcing refers to contracting an outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country.

________________________________________

 

286. Explain the business benefits associated with successful software development.

 

 

 

 

287. Describe the seven phases of the systems development life cycle.

 

 

 

 

288. Summarize the different software development methodologies.

 

 

 

 

289. Explain project management and the role the triple constraints play when managing a project.

 

 

 

 

290. Describe the project stakeholder’s and executive sponsor’s roles in choosing strategic projects.

 

 

 

 

291. Describe the two primary diagrams most frequently used in project planning.

 

 

 

 

292. Identify the three primary areas a project manager must focus on managing to ensure success.

 

 

 

 

293. Explain the three different types of outsourcing along with their benefits and challenges.