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COGNITION Exploring the Science of the Mind 6th Edition by Daniel Reisberg – 
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Chapter 01: The Science of the Mind

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following topics is NOT commonly studied within cognitive psychology?
a. dreaming c. memory
b. decision making d. attention

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Cognitive processes are NOT necessary for which daily activity?
a. reading a newspaper c. talking on the phone
b. studying for a test d. breathing

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Alyssa wants to be a psychologist but is unsure which topic within psychology most interests her. Which of the following topics would be LEAST likely to lead her into cognitive psychology?
a. amnesia c. Lyme’s disease
b. language acquisition d. problem-solving strategies

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The phrase “Betsy wants to bring Jacob a present. She shook her piggy bank” is easily understood by most people because
a. our previous knowledge fills in the necessary details.
b. introspection allows us to understand how Betsy feels.
c. English is a simple language to understand.
d. the sentences are short.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to apply to patient H.M.?
a. “He cannot remember what he did earlier today, including events that took place just an hour ago.”
b. “He read this story last month, but he was still surprised by how the story turned out.”
c. “Even though he has encountered the nurse many times, he is still unable to recognize her.”
d. “He remembers emotional information, like the news of someone dying.”

 

 

 

 

 

  1. H.M. provides an illustration for which major theme of the chapter?
a. Introspection is not sufficient evidence in and of itself.
b. Cognition is interested in mental processes, as well as activities that depend on these processes.
c. Memory is not very important.
d. Damage to a small part of the brain can have a negligible effect on behavior.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Patients suffering from clinical amnesia are characterized by a disorder in their
a. memory.
b. ability to recognize patterns.
c. speech.
d. ability to comprehend language.

 

 

REF:               Amnesia and Memory Loss

 

 

  1. The phrase “fool me once, shame on you; fool me twice, shame on me” would not apply to H.M. Why?
a. H.M. was never fooled.
b. H.M. was incapable of learning.
c. H.M. was able to learn certain things, like if someone was lying to him.
d. H.M. values practical jokes.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The term “introspection” refers to the
a. process by which one individual seeks to infer the thoughts of another individual.
b. procedure of examining thought processing by monitoring the brain’s electrical activity.
c. process of each person looking within, to observe his or her own thoughts and ideas.
d. technique of studying thought by interpreting the symbols used in communication.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. A participant is asked to look within himself or herself and report on his or her own mental processes. This method is called
a. self-evaluation. c. introspection.
b. self-monitoring. d. mentalistic study.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Introspection CANNOT be used to study
a. topics that are strongly colored by emotion.
b. mental events that are unconscious.
c. processes that involve conceptual knowledge.
d. events that take a long time to unfold.

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about introspection is FALSE?
a. It is based on opinions, not facts.
b. It is subjective.
c. It provides strong evidence for hypothesis-testing.
d. It was an early form of evidence.

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Genie wonders why she can never remember the names of new acquaintances. In search of an answer, she analyzes her mental behaviors and feelings about meeting new people. Genie is engaged in which process?
a. subvocal rehearsal c. learning history analysis
b. introspection d. goal retrieval

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Introspection is considered the first step toward a science of cognitive psychology because
a. it was the first systematic attempt to observe and record the content of mental processes.
b. interpretation of our mental lives requires training.
c. conscious events are just as important as unconscious events.
d. it provided the first testable claims.

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT a concern about the use of introspection as a research tool?
a. A verbal report based on introspection may provide a distorted picture of mental processes that were nonverbal in nature.
b. Different participants use different terms to describe similar experiences.
c. At present, there is enormous uncertainty about the relationship between the activity in the brain and the ideas and thoughts available to introspection.
d. Participants’ motivation may influence what they choose to disclose.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements provides the most serious obstacle to the use of introspection as a source of scientific evidence?
a. When facts are provided by introspection, we have no way to assess the facts themselves, independent of the reporter’s particular perspective on them.
b. Introspection requires an alert, verbally expressive investigator; otherwise, the evidence provided by introspection will be of poor quality.
c. Introspection provides evidence about some mental events but cannot provide evidence about unconscious processes or ideas.
d. The process of reporting on one’s own mental events can take a lot of time and can slow down the processes under investigation.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Introspection

 

 

  1. In cognition, as in other sciences, we first develop ________ and then ________ them.
a. tests; prove c. hypotheses; prove
b. theories; test d. hypotheses; test

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Introspection

| 1.4

 

  1. A behaviorist, like John Watson, is LEAST likely to believe which of the following statements?
a. Our experiences influence our behaviors and our minds.
b. Children are a good source for data.
c. The mind is not amenable to scientific inquiry because it is not easily observed.
d. When it comes to collecting data, introspection is as valuable as behavior.

 

 

 

| 1.4

 

  1. Historically, the movement known as behaviorism was encouraged by scholars’ concerns regarding
a. psychotherapy.
b. an exaggerated focus on participants’ responses.
c. research based on introspection.
d. a focus on brain mechanisms and a corresponding inattention to mental states.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Behaviorists study organisms’
a. expectations. c. dreams.
b. desires and motivations. d. responses.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Behaviorists argued that ________ were most important in analyzing behavior.
a. expectations c. wishes
b. beliefs d. learning histories

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would a classical behaviorist be LEAST likely to study?
a. a participant’s response to a particular situation
b. a participant’s beliefs
c. changes in a participant’s behavior that follow changes in the environment
d. principles that apply equally to human behavior and to the behavior of other species

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Modern psychology turned away from behaviorism in its classic form because
a. human behavior is routinely determined by our understanding of stimuli.
b. humans are more similar to computers than to other species studied in the laboratory.
c. psychology rejected behaviorism’s emphasis on an organism’s subjective states.
d. an organism’s behavior can be changed by learning.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. If Sheila says, “Pass the salt, please,” you are likely to pass her the salt. You’ll probably respond in the same way if Sheila (a chemistry major) instead asks, “Could you please hand me the sodium chloride crystals?” This observation seems to indicate that our behavior is
a. primarily controlled by the physical characteristics of the stimuli we encounter.
b. shaped by the literal meanings of the stimuli we encounter.
c. determined by simple associations among the stimuli we encounter.
d. governed by what the stimuli we encounter mean to us.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The process of taking observable information and inferring a cause is known as
a. mentalistic inference. c. cause and effect.
b. the transcendental method. d. introspection.

 

 

REF:   The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. One important difference between classical behaviorism and cognitive psychology is that cognitive psychology
a. argues that unobservable mental states can be scientifically studied.
b. rejects the use of human participants.
c. insists on studying topics that can be directly and objectively observed.
d. emphasizes the evolutionary roots of human behavior.

 

 

REF:               The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. Cognitive psychology often relies on the transcendental method, in which
a. mental events are explained by referring to events in the central nervous system.
b. information from introspection transcends behavioral data.
c. researchers seek to infer the properties of unseen events on the basis of the observable effects of those events.
d. theories are tested via computer models.

 

 

REF:               The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. The philosopher Immanuel Kant based many of his arguments on transcendental inferences. A commonplace example of such an inference is a
a. physicist inferring what the attributes of the electron must be on the basis of visible effects that it causes.
b. computer scientist inferring what the attributes of a program must be on the basis of his or her long-range goals for the program’s functioning.
c. biologist inferring how an organism is likely to behave in the future on the basis of assessment of past behaviors.
d. behaviorist inferring how a behavior was learned on the basis of a deduction from well-established principles of learning.

 

 

REF:   The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. Cognitive psychologists try to make inferences about causes, based on the observed effects. In this way, cognitive psychologists are most like
a. crime scene investigators. c. chefs.
b. garbage collectors. d. construction workers.

 

 

REF:   The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. The “cognitive revolution” is named as such because:
a. the focus changed from behaviors to the processes underlying those behaviors.
b. the change was accompanied by violence.
c. the focus changed from animals to humans.
d. philosophers such as Kant were strongly opposed to the change.

 

 

REF:               The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. The multicomponent model of working memory shows that
a. cognitive theories must be accompanied by a model.
b. we can only test things we can physically see.
c. theories are built around testable predictions.
d. evidence from multiple sources often leads to confusion.

 

 

REF:   The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. Subvocalization is also known as
a. the reading buffer. c. the inner ear.
b. the inner voice. d. memory speech.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. The technical term for talking to oneself when rehearsing verbal material is
a. vocal memory. c. subvocalization.
b. schizophrenia. d. subconscious reading.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. Within the working-memory system, mental “assistants” are available to allow the storage of information soon to be needed but not currently in use. A crucial “scratch pad” is the
a. output buffer. c. response-planning system.
b. executive assistant. d. articulatory rehearsal loop.

 

 

REF:   Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. In using the articulatory rehearsal loop, the central executive temporarily relies on storage in
a. a phonological buffer. c. a subvocal bank.
b. episodic memory. d. a visual form in visual memory.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. Working memory acts to
a. store an unlimited amount of information.
b. store a limited amount of information for an unlimited amount of time.
c. keep relevant information active for a short period of time.
d. store irrelevant information so it does not influence long-term memory.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

 

 

  1. Span tests measure
a. the size of the phonological buffer.
b. working-memory capacity.
c. whether there is a central executive.
d. articulatory loop processing.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

 

 

  1. In an experimental procedure, participants hear a sequence of letters and then, a moment later, are required to repeat back the sequence. The longest sequence for which participants can easily do this is likely to contain approximately ________ letters.
a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 12

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

 

 

  1. You give your friend a series of lists of letters to remember. With each perfectly recalled list, you increase the list length by one or two items, until he begins to make errors. This sort of test examines
a. working-memory span. c. brain activity.
b. the limits of concurrent articulation. d. memory for abstract objects.

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

 

 

  1. Imagine a friend is giving you her new phone number. You have nothing with which to write the number down, so you try to remember it. Which cognitive process will you engage in to accomplish this task?
a. amnesia c. introspection
b. long-term memory d. working memory

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

| 1.8

 

  1. Consider the sentence, “Sam, tired from hours of reading and working on his term paper, fell into bed at last.” When you reach the sentence’s 13th word (“fell”), you need to remember how the sentence began; otherwise, you won’t know who fell into bed. The memory used for this task is called ________ memory.
a. episodic c. generic
b. working d. long-term

 

 

REF:   Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

| 1.8

 

  1. You want to order a pizza and need to pay with a credit card. You glance at your credit card number and then put the card back into your wallet. When it comes time to pay, you can only remember the first four numbers. Which of the following provides the best explanation as to why?
a. Working memory is limited to 15 items, and your card has 16 digits.
b. Your credit card number is mostly fours and twos and you get confused.
c. The pizza delivery guy keeps talking while you are rehearsing the digits.
d. Working-memory capacity is reduced because you have to hold the phone.

 

 

REF:   Working Memory: Some Initial Observations

| 1.8

 

  1. Someone who is born deaf is likely to encounter working memory errors if the sign for a given word
a. is too complicated.
b. is similar to another sign for another word.
c. has more than ten letters.
d. has been seen recently.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

| 1.8

 

  1. A participant hears the sequence “F, D, P, U, G, Q, R,” and then, a moment later, must repeat the sequence aloud. If errors occur in this procedure, they are likely to involve
a. sound-alike confusions, for example, “T ” instead of “D.”
b. look-alike confusions, for example, “O ” instead of “Q.”
c. confusions with near neighbors in the alphabet, for example, “G ” instead of “F.”
d. confusions because of strong associations, for example, “I ” instead of “Q ” because of the familiarity of “IQ.”

 

 

REF:   Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. Finish the analogy: boss is to worker as ________ is to phonological buffer.
a. scratch pad c. articulatory loop
b. central executive d. cognition

 

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. We know the articulatory rehearsal loop is separate from the other components of working memory because
a. the multicomponent model is true.
b. manipulations like concurrent articulation compromise the loop but do not affect the other components.
c. it is used for storage and the other components are not.
d. problem solving does not require the rehearsal loop.

 

 

REF:               Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. Theorists have proposed that working memory is best understood as a system involving multiple components. The activities of this system are controlled by a resource called the
a. buffer. c. central processor.
b. supervisor. d. central executive.

 

 

REF:               Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. The task of saying, “tah, tah, tah,” while taking a span test to assess working memory is known as
a. concurrent articulation. c. subvocalization.
b. working-memory speech. d. the phonological buffer.

 

 

REF:               Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. Participants in an experiment are shown a series of digits and then asked to repeat them back a moment later. While being shown the sequence, the participants are required to say, “tah, tah, tah,” out loud, over and over again. The evidence indicates that the recitation of “tah, tah, tah” will
a. have no effect on participants’ memory performance.
b. provide a rhythm that helps organize participants’ rehearsal of the digits, thereby improving their memory performance.
c. block participants from using their inner voices to rehearse the digits, thereby interfering with the memory task.
d. force participants to rely on the central executive rather than on a less powerful lower-level assistant, thereby improving memory performance.

 

 

REF:   Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. Participants are shown a series of complex shapes (that are not easily named) and asked to draw them from memory after they have been taken away. Which of the following statements about this exercise is true?
a. On average, participants can correctly draw ten of the shapes from memory.
b. Participants can use the process of subvocalization to help them remember the shapes.
c. Concurrent articulation decreases performance dramatically.
d. Saying, “tah, tah, tah,” out loud while doing this task should not affect performance.

 

 

REF:               Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. Bert has sustained damage to a part of his left temporal lobe, which is important for language production. Which of the following problems would we expect to see if Bert were given a WM test?
a. He would not be able to memorize visual shapes.
b. He would have difficulty rehearsing items with verbal labels.
c. His WM would be entirely nonexistent.
d. No WM problems would be observed.

 

 

REF:               Evidence for the Working-Memory System

| 1.8

 

  1. An elderly woman has suffered a stroke in her left temporal lobe and consequently can no longer name common nouns. This provides evidence that language is located in the left hemisphere for most people. What kind of evidence is this?
a. introspection c. neuroscience
b. unique population d. behavioral

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Which of the following kinds of evidence is LEAST likely to be used in cognitive psychology?
a. case studies of patients with brain damage
b. behavioral findings such as response times
c. brain activity in the form of fMRI
d. self-reported dreams

 

 

REF:               The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Even though the articulatory loop cannot be seen directly, we are confident it exists because
a. it is the only possible explanation.
b. without it, we could not remember phone numbers.
c. people with anarthria show deficits in the phonological buffer.
d. behavioral manipulations, like articulatory suppression, suggest it is a distinct component.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT central to research in neuropsychology?
a. the use of introspection
b. how brain dysfunctions affect performance
c. brain development
d. brain-imaging technology

 

 

REF:               The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Evidence from anarthric (speechless) patients suggests that
a. the muscles necessary for speech are also needed for subvocalization.
b. subvocalization does not use words.
c. the muscles needed for speech are not needed for subvocalization.
d. these patients are unable to subvocalize.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Recent developments in brain-imaging technology can help us in cognitive psychology. For example, we can now tell exactly which parts of the brain are especially engaged in working-memory rehearsal. These techniques are the central sources of data for
a. modeling. c. developmental imaging.
b. neuropsychology. d. cognitive neuroscience.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Evidence from neuroimaging studies suggests that subvocalization is most closely related to
a. speaking out loud, because the same muscles are used.
b. remembering a feeling.
c. visual imagery.
d. planning to speak, because some of the same brain regions are active, as in normal speech planning.

 

 

REF:               The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Cognitive psychology relies on evidence from multiple domains (behavioral, neuroscience, trauma, etc.) because
a. we cannot see the cognitive processes directly.
b. all evidence is good evidence.
c. converging evidence provides additional opportunities for predictions.
d. other sciences require evidence from many places.

 

 

REF:               The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Working memory provides one example of how
a. important memory is to cognition.
b. cognitive processes are essential to most daily tasks.
c. children develop memory.
d. we could not function without a multicomponent system.

 

 

REF:   Working Memory in a Broader Context

 

 

  1. It is important to gather evidence from several sources because
a. alternative explanations for any single piece of evidence could exist.
b. it is easier to explain a lot of data, relative to a little data.
c. a single study is likely to be decisive.
d. people often make mistakes.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. You’ve just ordered your lunch and are waiting for your food to be delivered when your friend Jill says “I don’t understand why you would need to take a whole class on cognitive psychology. It doesn’t seem that important to our everyday lives.” Describe to Jill all the ways she will rely on cognitive processing during this meal.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the case of H.M. What does his story tell us about the role that memory plays in our sense of self?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Amnesia and Memory Loss

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the introspection, behaviorist, and cognitive approaches to studying mental activities. Which approach do you find most compelling, and why?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Cognitive Revolution               | 1.4

 

 

  1. Mikey is four years old and has begun acting out. Every time he throws a tantrum, his mother rushes over to console him. In analyzing this behavior, what sort of factors would most interest a behaviorist? On what factors would a cognitive psychologist using the transcendental method focus? What conclusions will each psychologist reach?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

| The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. Despite the fact that we cannot see (with the naked eye) mental activity, cognitive psychologists are able to scientifically study these processes. Explain why this is possible by describing Kantian logic. Next, provide at least three measureable variables and explain why they could be reliably used as proxies for mental behavior.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Roots of the Cognitive Revolution

 

 

  1. Imagine you are trying to memorize a new phone number. How would Baddeley and Hitch explain the process by which this would occur?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal

 

 

  1. Dr. Mnemonic conducted a study in which neural activity was measured (with fMRI) while participants were presented with either digits or abstract images to memorize. He found that the left temporal lobe was active when the digits were presented, and the right parietal lobe was active for the abstract images. Interpret these results in terms of the multicomponent model. Does it support this model or refute it? Why?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Nature of the Working-Memory Evidence

 

 

  1. Describe how cognitive psychologists arrive at knowledge by answering the following questions about working memory (WM).
  2. Describe the multicomponent model of WM.
  3. What is anarthria? What are the implications of this disorder for the multicomponent model of WM?
  4. Describe one other source of knowledge, besides special populations, that can be used to evaluate the multicomponent model of WM.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Working Memory: A Proposal                  | 1.7

 

 

  1. Imagine you are briefly presented with, and asked to memorize, the following letters for an immediate recall test: Q, R, T, B, O, W, A. How would you go about remembering those items? (Make sure you use appropriate terminology.) Now, imagine that you are given the same memory task but asked to say the word “the” while the letters are being presented. How would this second condition influence your mental behavior? What effect would it have on your performance?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Evidence for the Working-Memory System

 

 

  1. Think of a real-world situation in which you would rely on working memory. Describe the situation and at least one real-world factor that would affect (positively or negatively) your working memory in that situation. Create your own example and do not use one that was discussed in the book or in class.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Working Memory in a Broader Context

 

 

Chapter 02: The Neural Basis for Cognition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of a person with Capgras syndrome?
a. She thinks that her mother has been replaced by a look-alike alien.
b. She cannot recognize that her father looks like her father.
c. She also has Alzheimer’s syndrome.
d. She has no warm sense of familiarity when she sees a close friend.

 

 

REF:   Explaining Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. Some researchers explain Capgras syndrome as
a. a simple failure of visual recognition.
b. the result of a disconnection between a cognitive appraisal and a sense of familiarity.
c. a subtype of schizophrenia.
d. a failure of long-term memory, because patients cannot remember what their own close family members look like.

 

 

REF:   The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. Neuroimaging techniques such as PET suggest a link between Capgras syndrome and abnormalities in all of the following brain regions EXCEPT the
a. prefrontal cortex. c. temporal lobe.
b. amygdala. d. fusiform face area.

 

 

REF:   The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. For most people, encountering a family member who looks a little bit different will elicit a response like “He must have gotten a haircut!” However, that same experience will elicit a response like ________ from someone with Capgras yndrome.
a. “He lost weight!” c. “He is an imposter!”
b. “He is mad at me.” d. “He looks like a hat!”

 

 

REF:   The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. Capgras syndrome suggests there are two parts to recognition. These parts are
a. factual and familiar. c. visual and factual.
b. factual and emotional. d. visual and auditory.

 

 

REF:   What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. Capgras syndrome provides an illustration of several important themes in Chapter 2. All of the following are true of Capgras EXCEPT
a. damage to a specific part of the brain is likely to produce specific symptoms.
b. the brain is interconnected so that many systems interact.
c. cognitive disorders often co-occur, such as Alzheimer’s syndrome and Capgras syndrome.
d. damage to the amygdala will result in an inability to recognize imposters.

 

 

REF:   What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

OBJ:   2.2

 

  1. Capgras syndrome contributes to our understanding of cognition in each of the following ways EXCEPT the role of
a. the temporal lobe in memory.
b. the amygdala in people without Capgras syndrome.
c. the frontal lobe in schizophrenia.
d. visual area V1.

 

 

REF:               What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

OBJ:   2.2

 

  1. Capgras syndrome and other cognitive disorders are useful because they
a. provide information about normal cognitive functioning.
b. suggest cognition is an interesting topic.
c. provide evidence that people with Capgras syndrome need medication.
d. show that all brain damage is irreversible.

 

 

REF:               What Do We Learn from Capgras Syndrome?

OBJ:   2.2

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Phineus Gage is FALSE?
a. He had Capgras syndrome.
b. A rod went through his face and head, removing part of his frontal lobe.
c. His personality changed after his trauma.
d. He was able to perform basic cognitive tasks (talking, remembering, etc.) after his trauma.

 

 

REF:   The Study of the Brain

OBJ:   2.2

 

  1. Damage to the brain can be caused in many ways, but in general the damage is referred to as a
a. stroke. c. syndrome.
b. lesion. d. problem.

 

 

REF:               Data from Neuropsychology

OBJ:   2.2

 

  1. Among its other functions, the amygdala seems to serve as a(n)
a. important relay station between the eye and occipital cortex.
b. storage location for information received from the skin.
c. “emotional evaluator” or threat detector.
d. “index” for locating memories in the brain.

 

 

REF:               The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Mike has damage to his hindbrain. He is likely to experience problems with which set of behaviors?
a. rhythm of breathing, level of alertness, and posture
b. complex thought and long-term memory
c. planned motor activity
d. perception and visual imagery

 

 

REF:               Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Lisa has recently suffered a brain injury. Her symptoms include deficits in coordination and interpretation of pain. Which structure is most likely damaged?
a. primary motor area c. forebrain
b. midbrain d. hindbrain

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. The cortex makes up the surface of what brain structure?
a. hindbrain c. thalamus
b. midbrain d. forebrain

 

 

REF:               Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Damage to the ________ is likely to cause problems with precise eye movements.
a. forebrain c. hindbrain
b. midbrain d. amygdala

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Which of the following is included in the limbic system?
a. thalamus c. cerebellum
b. amygdala d. hypothalamus

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Commissures, including the corpus callosum, are
a. blood vessels that carry blood to all areas of the brain.
b. brain areas associated with various types of sensory information.
c. pockets of oxygen found throughout the brain.
d. thick bundles of fibers that allow communication between the brain’s hemispheres.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.4

 

  1. Most of the brain’s structures are hidden deep inside the ________, which is the outer, visible layer.
a. cerebellum c. midbrain
b. cortex d. hindbrain

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.5

 

  1. Which of the following structures is NOT visible when viewing an image of an intact brain?
a. cerebellum c. primary motor cortex
b. cortex d. amygdala

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.5

 

  1. Which lobe or cortex is farthest from the cerebellum?
a. frontal c. occipital
b. parietal d. temporal

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.5

 

  1. Which of the following statements about association cortex is FALSE?
a. These areas of the brain are involved in higher-level sensory processing.
b. These areas contain specialized subregions.
c. There are association areas for both sensory and motor areas.
d. The visual association cortex is located in the subcortical parts of the brain.

 

 

REF:   The Cerebral Cortex

OBJ:   2.5

 

  1. Unlike fMRI, TMS can be used to make ________ statements.
a. causal c. scientific
b. important d. functional

 

 

REF:   The Power of Combining Techniques

OBJ:   2.5 | 2.7

 

  1. Lindsie participated in an fMRI experiment. The researchers found high activity levels in visual areas when she was looking at an image and high activity in those same areas when she was ________.
a. sleeping c. drawing the image.
b. imagining the image. d. speaking.

 

 

REF:   Localization of Function

OBJ:   2.5 | 2.7

 

  1. When an image is projected to the right visual field, the signal will be sent to the ________ hemisphere.
a. right c. visual
b. left d. cortical

 

 

REF:   Hindbrain, Midbrain, Forebrain

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. Kate has a split brain. Her doctor briefly presents the word “hammer” to only her left visual field and then asks her what she saw. Which set of responses is Kate most likely to give?
a. She will say she doesn’t know what word appeared but she will be able to identify the object with her right hand.
b. She will say she doesn’t know what word appeared but she will be able to identify the object with her left hand.
c. She will say she doesn’t know what word appeared and she will not be able to identify the object using either hand.
d. She will say “hammer.”

 

 

REF:               Lateralization

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. The corpus callosum serves what major function?
a. processing sensory information
b. long-term memory
c. communication between hemispheres
d. emotion

 

 

REF:   Lateralization

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. A patient might elect to have split-brain surgery, which involves
a. severing the corpus callosum.
b. removing the amygdala.
c. removing one hemisphere of the brain.
d. removing a section of the frontal lobe.

 

 

REF:   Lateralization

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. The corpus callosum is a large
a. muscle. c. commissure.
b. neuron. d. damaged area of the brain.

 

 

REF:   Lateralization

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. Split-brain patients benefit from the procedure in the form of fewer seizures. How has cognitive psychology benefited?
a. This procedure has led to the well-supported notion that someone can be “left-brained” or “right-brained.”
b. Research with these patients suggests that there is not significant localization of function in the brain.
c. Research with these patients suggests that someone cannot live without an intact corpus callosum, indicating its importance in survival and functioning.
d. The procedure indicates that you can cause damage to the brain with no adverse cognitive effects.

 

 

REF:   Lateralization

OBJ:   2.6

 

  1. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) uses a strong magnetic pulse to
a. record the amount of glucose a specific brain region used during a cognitive task.
b. measure the blood flow using blood oxygenation level dependent (BOLD) signals.
c. produce a temporary disruption to the brain area, and thus brain function, where it is applied.
d. create a detailed “map” of the different brain areas.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Researchers using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) find activity in the fusiform face area (FFA) when participants are viewing faces. This means that FFA
a. is responsible for recognizing faces.
b. is necessary to recognizing faces.
c. activity is correlated with recognizing faces.
d. has no role in recognizing faces.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and fMRI
a. are less useful than other types of neuroimaging for the study of brain function.
b. create a three-dimensional representation of the brain’s tissue.
c. are useful only for studying features on the outer surface of the brain.
d. make self-report data unnecessary.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. A number of techniques have been developed that allow us to examine the moment-by-moment activity levels of specifically defined brain areas. These techniques are called
a. fMRI c. chronometric techniques.
b. neuroimaging techniques. d. psychometric assessment.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. A CT or computerized axial tomography scan
a. can only be performed on a cadaver.
b. uses X-rays to study the living brain’s anatomy.
c. is primarily useful for measuring blood flow in the brain.
d. can detect the activity taking place in different brain areas in real time.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans show
a. minute details of brain anatomy.
b. what a participant is thinking at the moment the test is taken.
c. brain areas that are currently consuming a particularly high level of glucose.
d. whether a participant is learning something new or remembering prior learning.

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Patrick was in a car accident and hit his head on the dashboard. The emergency room doctors are concerned that he may have sustained a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following methods are they most likely to use to confirm or disprove their diagnosis?
a. TMS c. EEG
b. fMRI d. MRI

 

 

 

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. The electroencephalogram (EEG) provides an estimate of brain activity by measuring
a. glucose consumption.
b. blood flow.
c. neurotransmitter release.
d. electrical signals produced by neurons.

 

 

REF:   Data from Electrical Recording

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Researchers have used fMRI to investigate activation in the FFA and the parahippocampal place area (PPA). When participants are shown a picture of a face to one eye and a picture of a house to the other eye (producing binocular rivalry), we expect to see
a. no increase in activation in either the FFA or the PPA relative to a baseline.
b. equal activation in the FFA and the PPA.
c. only activation in the brain region linked to the picture in the dominant eye (e.g., if a picture of a face is presented to the dominant eye, then only the FFA will show increased activation).
d. an increase in activation in the FFA when the participant is consciously aware of the face and similarly increased activation in the PPA when the participant is consciously aware of the house.

 

 

REF:   The Power of Combining Techniques

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. Dr. Hout has fMRI evidence about the role of the FFA in visual processing. What should he do next?
a. acquire evidence from another method, like CT or TMS
b. assume that the role of the FFA is completely understood
c. nothing; one source of evidence is sufficient.
d. assume his results are flawed and do another fMRI study

 

 

REF:   The Power of Combining Techniques

OBJ:   2.7

 

  1. The primary motor projection area is located
a. in the cerebellum.
b. in the occipital cortex.
c. toward the rear of the frontal lobe.
d. in the midbrain.

 

 

REF:               Motor Areas             OBJ:   2.8

 

 

  1. If a researcher applies mild electric current to a specific area of an animal’s right hemisphere primary motor projection area, which of the following is likely to happen?
a. a specific movement of a body part on the right side of the animal
b. a specific movement of a body part on the left side of the animal
c. a chaotic movement of the entire animal
d. no movement at all

 

 

REF:   Motor Areas   OBJ:   2.8

 

 

  1. The auditory cortex follows the principle of contralateral control. Thus, the
a. right temporal lobe receives most of its input from the left ear.
b. right temporal lobe receives most of its input from the right ear.
c. right temporal lobe receives equal input from both ears.
d. information received by the right temporal lobe depends on whether the listener favors his or her right or left ear.

 

 

REF:               Sensory Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. The primary motor projection area forms a “map” of the body and the projections control movement to specific areas of the body. The amount of cortical tissue dedicated to different parts of the body correlates with
a. the size of the body part.
b. the distance of the body part from the brain.
c. the precision of movement for the body part.
d. The cortical area does not vary; it is the same for all body parts.

 

 

REF:   Sensory Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. Olivia has sustained damage to the prefrontal area. As a result, she is most likely to have
a. neglect syndrome.
b. a variety of problems, including problems planning and implementing strategies.
c. difficulties exclusively with memory.
d. primarily language problems.

 

 

REF:   Association Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. A patient with visual agnosia will probably show an inability to
a. remember a list of words heard 1 hour before.
b. detect brief flashes of light.
c. recall the color of familiar objects (e.g., that stop signs are red).
d. identify common objects in plain view.

 

 

REF:               Association Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. Ben and Quinn both have lesions in their left frontal lobes. Ben has trouble producing speech; Quinn has difficulties comprehending speech. Both Ben and Quinn are likely to receive a diagnosis of
a. neglect syndrome. c. agnosia.
b. apraxia. d. aphasia.

 

 

REF:   Association Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. Motor and sensory cortices combined make up what portion of the brain?
a. less than 10% c. just over 50%
b. roughly 25% d. nearly 85%

 

 

REF:   Association Areas

OBJ:   2.8

 

  1. Communication between neurons is ________, while communication within a neuron is ________.
a. electrical; chemical c. electric; neurotransmitter-based
b. chemical; electrical d. simple; difficult

 

 

REF:               Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. A neuron is
a. a group of cells specialized for a particular type of information storage.
b. one of the fibers connecting the eye to the visual cortex.
c. an individual cell within the nervous system.
d. a region within the brain dedicated to a single function.

 

 

REF:               Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of glial cells?
a. provide support for neurons
b. facilitate the development of the nervous system
c. release neurotransmitters
d. clean up waste

 

 

REF:   Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. Once a cell fires, the part of a neuron that transmits information to another location is the
a. dendrite. c. axon.
b. cell body. d. nucleus.

 

 

REF:   Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. The ________ contains the machinery necessary to keep the cell alive and functioning properly.
a. cell body c. axon
b. dendrite d. myelin

 

 

REF:               Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. Complete the analogy: Incoming is to outgoing as ________ is to ________.
a. dendrite; cell body c. axon; cell body
b. dendrite; axon d. cell body; axon

 

 

REF:   Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. Which of the following statements about neurons is FALSE?
a. Signals are processed by the cell body of a neuron.
b. A neuron can have many dendrites.
c. Neurons have one basic shape.
d. The axon of one neuron can communicate with the dendrite of another neuron.

 

 

REF:   Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9

 

  1. Neuron A communicates with neuron B. The ________ of neuron A forms a synapse with the ________  of neuron B.
a. cell body; soma c. axon terminal; dendrite
b. axon terminal; axon terminal d. soma; dendrite

 

 

REF:   Neurons and Glia

OBJ:   2.9 | 2.10

 

  1. A synapse is
a. a message sent from one neuron to another.
b. part of a neuron’s cell body.
c. made up of the end of one neuron’s axon, another neuron’s receiving membrane, and the gap between these two.
d. the name of the electric signal that occurs when a cell reaches its threshold.

 

 

REF:               The Synapse             OBJ:   2.9

 

 

  1. A neuron’s initial, internal response to an incoming signal can vary in size. The ultimate, external response of the cell, however, does not vary in size. If the signal is sent, it is always of the same magnitude. This effect is called the
a. whole-firing potential. c. uniform response law.
b. all-or-none law. d. threshold potential.

 

 

REF:               The Synapse             OBJ:   2.9

 

 

  1. Neuron X sends a signal that is picked up and processed by Neuron Y. This between-cell communication occurs via
a. chemical transmission between Neuron X and Neuron Y.
b. electrical stimulation of Neuron Y by Neuron X.
c. fibers that connect Neuron X and Neuron Y.
d. We don’t know how it happens.

 

 

REF:   The Synapse  OBJ:   2.10

 

 

  1. One of the disadvantages of synaptic communication is that it takes time for chemicals to pass from one side of the synapse to another. Which of the following is a benefit of synaptic transmission?
a. It allows our nervous system to compare multiple signals from many sources.
b. Chemicals in our food can be broken down to influence between-cell communication.
c. It is simple, because each neuron can only receive signals from a single neuron.
d. Chemicals are more reliable than electrical energy.

 

 

REF:   The Synapse  OBJ:   2.10

 

 

  1. At the synapse, a neurotransmitter is released by the ________ and could bind to the ________.
a. vesicle; presynaptic membrane
b. vesicle; receptor site
c. receptor; presynaptic membrane
d. receptor; vesicle

 

 

REF:   The Synapse  OBJ:   2.10

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe Capgras syndrome and one possible explanation (physiological or cognitive) for the disorder. What does this disorder tell us about the interactive nature of the brain?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Neural Basis for Capgras Syndrome

OBJ:   2.1

 

  1. As it pertains to the development and testing of theories, what are the benefits of studying neuropsychology and neuroscience for cognitive psychologists?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Power of Combining Techniques

OBJ:   2.2 | 2.7

 

  1. Is it fair to say that someone is “left-brained” or “right-brained”? Why or why not? Give examples to support your answer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Lateralization                                            OBJ:   2.3 | 2.4

 

 

  1. Explain the relevance of split-brain patients in psychology by answering the following questions.
  2. What area of the brain is lesioned in these patients? Why do these patients elect to have this surgery?
  3. How does behavior change after the surgery? How does it stay the same?
  4. What have we learned about the brain and behavior as a result of this procedure?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Lateralization                                  OBJ:   2.6

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the use of fMRI and TMS and describe their applications in psychology. What sort of information does each approach give us? Which technique can be used to make causal statements about the link between brain activity and behavior?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:               2.7

 

 

  1. Evaluate the use of fMRI as a way to gather information about activity in the brain. What are the advantages and shortcomings of this approach?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Association Areas               OBJ:               2.7

 

 

  1. Judy has sustained damage to her visual association area, but not her primary association area. Describe the behavioral changes you would expect to see, given this trauma. What behaviors or mental processes would not be affected?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Association Areas               OBJ:               2.8

 

 

  1. Describe the relationship between cortical area in primary somatosensory cortex and corresponding surface area of the body part. Name two parts of the body that have surprisingly large cortical representations and two that have small representations.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Association Areas               OBJ:               2.8

 

 

  1. Explain how a signal would be processed and sent through a neuron. Include in your answer a description of the relevant components in the cell.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Neurons and Glia                OBJ:               2.9

 

 

  1. Imagine that Neuron X communicates with Neuron Y. Describe the process by which Neuron X can send a message to Neuron Y. What possible effects will this signal have on the firing of Neuron Y?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Neurons and Glia                OBJ:               2.10

 

Chapter 03: Visual Perception

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. If visual information conflicts with other information, we usually
a. trust the visual input.
b. distrust the visual input, as our eyes can play tricks on us.
c. trust input from other senses, like auditory input.
d. become confused and give up.

 

 

REF:               The Visual System

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. The importance of vision for humans is reflected in the
a. close proximity of the eyes to the visual cortex.
b. inability of brain damage to disrupt the visual system.
c. lack of a “blind spot” in humans.
d. relative size of the visual cortex.

 

 

REF:   The Visual System

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. The ________ is the part of the eye involved in transducing light energy into neural energy.
a. lens c. pupil
b. cornea d. retina

 

 

REF:               The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of the fovea?
a. a cluster of cones in the center of the retina
b. the area of the retina found far out in the periphery
c. the region of the retina with the greatest acuity
d. the area of the retina on which we place a target image in order to see the target clearly

 

 

REF:   The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. Which of the following statements does NOT illustrate the difference between rods and cones?
a. Rods are sensitive to lower levels of light.
b. Only cones are able to discriminate color (hue).
c. There are three types of rods (for three different wavelengths of light) and only one type of cone.
d. Cones have greater acuity.

 

 

REF:   The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. ________ are located primarily in the fovea, while ________ are located primarily in the periphery.
a. Cones; rods
b. Rods; cones
c. Short-wave cones; long-wave cones
d. Long-wave cones; short-wave cones

 

 

REF:               The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the retina is FALSE?
a. The photoreceptors communicate directly with the ganglion cells.
b. The axons of ganglion cells form the optic nerve.
c. You have a “blindspot” in the retina where there are no rods or cones.
d. Bipolar cells communicate with both photoreceptors and ganglion cells.

 

 

REF:   The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the visual stimulus, light, is FALSE?
a. Light is characterized in wavelengths that vary in frequency and amplitude.
b. Color (hue) is represented by the amplitude of the wavelength.
c. Our visual system is only able to detect a small proportion of all of the electromagnetic spectrum.
d. Red light is associated with longer waves, relative to blue light.

 

 

REF:               The Photoreceptors

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) acts as
a. a way station between the eye and the occipital cortex, located in the thalamus.
b. an important area in the amygdala, associated with long-term memory.
c. a relay station to the amygdala.
d. the location in the temporal cortex where auditory information is stored.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.1

 

  1. A researcher wishes to determine exactly when a particular neuron is firing. A technique well suited to this purpose is
a. neuropsychological testing. c. stereotaxis.
b. lesion studies. d. single-cell recording.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. Single-cell recordings measure the ________ of individual neurons.
a. shape c. release of neurotransmitters
b. pattern of firing d. synaptic connections

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. Through single-cell recordings, researchers have identified the ________ neurons in the visual system.
a. receptive fields of c. shape of
b. connections between d. problems with some

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. Because of its center-surround organization, a neuron that has its entire receptive field exposed to bright light will
a. fire rapidly.
b. stop firing entirely.
c. maintain the same rate of firing as if there was no light presented.
d. fire slowly until the light turns off, then begin firing rapidly.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2 | 3.3

 

  1. A researcher has identified the receptive field for a neuron and has determined that the receptive field has a center-surround organization. If the researcher were to shine light into the entire receptive field, including both the center and the surrounding areas, we would expect the neuron to
a. continue firing at its resting rate. c. decrease its firing rate.
b. increase its firing rate. d. cease firing.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. A researcher wishes to define the receptive field for a particular neuron in the visual cortex. To do this, the researcher will need to specify
a. the portion of the neuron that receives input from neighboring neurons.
b. an area within the visual field wherein the cell will fire if the target appears.
c. where the neuron is located within the visual cortex.
d. the brain area from which the neuron is receiving its input.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. Cells detecting the boundary of a surface are subject to less lateral inhibition than cells detecting the center of the same surface. This leads to an effect called
a. lateral enhancement. c. the boundary rule.
b. edge enhancement. d. the all-or-none law.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.3

 

  1. Cells A and B receive the same high levels of stimulation, but Cell A shows a lower level of activity relative to Cell B. A likely explanation for this fact is that Cell A
a. is defective.
b. is receiving input from the edge of a surface, while Cell B is receiving input from a portion of the surface away from the edge.
c. is being laterally inhibited by other nearby cells.
d. has a higher resting level than Cell B.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.3

 

  1. Lateral inhibition leads to which perceptual experience?
a. The middle of an object is emphasized.
b. The edge of an object is enhanced.
c. Edges of objects tend to fade into the background.
d. Colors appear brighter next to a textured background.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.3

 

  1. Ganglion cells A, B, and C are next to each other in the retina and inhibit each other laterally. If light is hitting the entire receptive fields of A and B, but only partially hitting the receptive field of C, what will happen?
a. A will be the most active cell.
b. B will be the most active cell.
c. C will be the most active cell.
d. All cells will be equally active.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.3

 

  1. Patients who have suffered damage to the occipital-parietal pathway (the “where” system) will have difficulties with which of the following tasks?
a. visually identifying a toothbrush on the counter in front of them
b. describing the function of the toothbrush without touching it
c. reaching in the correct direction to retrieve the toothbrush
d. knowing how to use the toothbrush once they have retrieved it

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. Parvo cells are similar to magno cells in what way?
a. size of the cell c. pattern of firing
b. size of the receptive field d. location in the visual system

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. The specialization evident in visual processing shows that
a. the visual system relies on parallel processing.
b. all of the various aspects of visual processing occur within the occipital cortex.
c. the visual system relies exclusively on serial processing.
d. all visual processing occurs in the right hemisphere.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. You are at the zoo watching a tiger sleep. It suddenly awakes and lurches in your direction. Spatial position would NOT provide information about the tiger’s
a. form. c. motion patterns.
b. color. d. dangerous nature.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. To perceive the visual world, we have to reunite various elements of a scene together so that these elements are perceived in an integrated fashion. Which of the following is NOT likely to be involved in this task?
a. attention
b. memory
c. spatial position
d. different groups of neurons firing in synchrony

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. Which of the following characteristics is NOT used to diagnose visual stimuli by neurons in the visual system?
a. the rate of firing of the neuron
b. the rhythm of the firing of the neuron
c. the chemicals released by the neuron
d. the shape of the neuron

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

  1. Visual agnosia is associated with damage to which of the following?
a. area V1
b. the “where” system, which carries information from the occipital cortex to the parietal cortex
c. the “what” system, which carries information from the occipital cortex to the temporal cortex
d. area MT

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5

 

  1. Julie has sustained damage to the “what” system in her brain. She will likely have difficulty with which of the following tasks?
a. remembering where she put her keys
b. identifying a chair
c. providing directions to the store
d. hitting a baseball with a bat

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5

 

  1. Some people have sustained brain damage and lost the ability to identify color. Other people sustained damage to a different area of the brain and lost the ability to detect motion. What does this indicate about our visual system?
a. Identifying color is more important than identifying motion.
b. Neither color nor motion detection is critical to survival, if it can be erased through brain damage.
c. We have specialized areas for processing different kinds of visual information.
d. The brain is unable to simultaneously process information in multiple ways.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5

 

  1. The primary visual cortex is located
a. immediately behind one’s eyeballs.
b. in the middle of the brain, near the thalamus.
c. at the part of the cortex that is farthest from the eyes.
d. in the parietal lobe.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5

 

  1. ________ cells in the LGN are specialized for spatial analysis and form detection, whereas ________ cells are specialized for the detection of motion and depth.
a. Magnocellular; parvocellular c. Parvocellular; p-cells
b. M-cells; magnocellular d. Parvocellular; magnocellular

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5

 

  1. Brad is able to read a clock, but is unable to see the arms of a clock move from position to position. He is suffering from
a. akinetopsia. c. visual neglect.
b. change blindness. d. prosopagnosia.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Someone with akinetopsia would have difficulty with all of the following EXCEPT
a. crossing the street. c. playing Pac-Man.
b. pouring a drink. d. recognizing faces.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Human brains have a distinct division-of-labor strategy. Each task is achieved as a result of multiple brain areas working together. But the work of the various parts of the brain must be compiled into a finished whole. The issue of how this reassembly works is referred to as the
a. binding problem. c. reassembly law.
b. Humpty Dumpty dilemma. d. ultimate puzzle.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.5 | 3.6

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT provide an example for parallel processing in the visual system?
a. Rods and cones function simultaneously in the retina.
b. There are magnocellular and parvocellular cells in the LGN.
c. You have two eyes that process different information, but work at the same time.
d. The “what” and “where” streams in the visual association cortex work together.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.6

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an advantage of parallel processing in the visual system?
a. It is fast.
b. Information is processed only once, making it efficient.
c. Multiple areas can process the information simultaneously.
d. Disparate systems can work together to negotiate an accurate interpretation.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.6

 

  1. The Necker cube is an example of an ambiguous figure. Which of the following statements regarding the cube is FALSE?
a. The information given in the drawing does not cause perception of the cube in one orientation over the other.
b. The lines on the page are neutral in regard to the shape’s configuration in depth.
c. The lines on the page contradict one another and so a cube can never be perceived.
d. There is more than one perceptual interpretation of the cube’s orientation.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.7

 

  1. The face/vase example illustrates what important principle of perceptual organization?
a. If the figure and the background are ambiguous, the image can be interpreted in multiple ways.
b. The mind interprets depth, even when none is depicted in the image.
c. Faces are easier to see than vases, because of the social aspect of human behavior.
d. The perceiver does not contribute information to an ambiguous image.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.7

 

  1. Which of the following statements most accurately represents the order of events involved in interpreting a visual stimulus?
a. First you perceive the components of the stimulus, then you interpret the stimulus.
b. First you interpret the stimulus, then you perceive the components.
c. You perceive the components and interpret the stimulus in a parallel fashion.
d. There is not sufficient data to know how this process occurs.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.7

 

  1. In order to summarize the Gestalt psychologists’ movement in a few words, one might say
a. “If you can’t see it happen, it isn’t worth studying.”
b. “The perceptual whole is different than the sum of its parts.”
c. “All that is important happens in the subconscious.”
d. “What you see is what you get.”

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.8

 

  1. Which of the following sentences best illustrates the effect that Gestalt principles have on perception?
a. “Go beyond the information given.”
b. “Seeing is believing.”
c. “Think outside the box.”
d. “Believing is seeing.”

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.8

 

  1. Which of the Gestalt principles states that we tend to perceive objects in groups?
a. similarity c. simplicity
b. proximity d. closure

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.8

 

  1. Jenna sees a picture of a black lab standing in front of its owner. The dog is blocking part of the owner’s leg, so that some of the leg is unavailable to Jenna. How is Jenna likely to perceive this image?
a. She will think the leg continues behind the body of the dog.
b. She will think the leg behind the dog’s body is missing.
c. She will assume that the dog is assisting a man with only one leg.
d. She will not make any assumptions about the image and rely only on the actual stimuli in the picture.

 

 

 

OBJ:   3.8

 

  1. The moon often looks very large when it is low in the sky, but looks smaller when it is high in the sky. Which of the following could account for this phenomenon?
a. The moon changes size when it moves through the sky.
b. The moon looks larger when it is closer to you, and it is closer when it is low in the sky.
c. The moon seems smaller when it is closer to the sun, which is very large.
d. When the moon is lower in the sky, other objects like buildings or trees provide a reference point for size comparisons.

 

 

OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. Molly went to the mall and parked her red car under a tree. When she returned to her car a few hours later, only half of the car was still in the shade. How will Molly perceive this situation?
a. Molly will perceive the car as two different shades, one dark red (in shade) and one brighter red (in sunlight).
b. Molly will perceive the car as a single color, despite the changes in lighting.
c. Molly will perceive the shaded portion of the car as farther away, relative to the part of the car in sunlight.
d. Molly will use the background color of the asphalt to determine that the car is not actually two different colors.

 

 

OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. Despite the fact that sensory stimuli can change from moment to moment, we perceive the details (color, shape, etc.) of an image to be stable because of
a. constancy. c. proximity.
b. memory. d. good continuation.

 

 

OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. Jose is walking toward Dan, who is standing still. As Dan watches Jose move toward him, a series of physical and perceptual events will occur. Which of the following is NOT one of those events?
a. The image of Jose will increase on Dan’s retina.
b. Dan will consciously make the effort to calculate Jose’s distance based on the size of the retinal image.
c. Dan will use the changing relationship between Jose and the background to make inferences about Jose’s movement.
d. Dan will use the changing relationship between Jose and the background to make inferences about Jose’s size.

 

 

OBJ:              3.9

 

 

  1. If a cat casts a 5 millimeter image on your retina when it is 10 feet away from you, that same cat will cast an image that is ________ millimeters when it is 20 feet away from you.
a. 5 c. 2.5
b. 10 d. 20

 

 

OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. Visual illusions often occur because
a. one’s perception of the components of the stimulus are flawed.
b. one’s interpretation of the stimulus is incorrect.
c. one’s cognitive processes change when seeing an illusion.
d. of obstructions in the image.

 

 

REF:   Illusions         OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements most accurately describes visual illusions?
a. The cognitive architecture that helps us in most cases causes illusions in other cases.
b. Illusions are mostly beneficial to perception.
c. Illusions will not occur if you know how to avoid them.
d. Illusions can occur for shape and size, but not for color or brightness.

 

 

REF:   Illusions         OBJ:   3.9

 

 

  1. One way that we can perceive depth is through our awareness of the adjustment our lens is making. This cue would be
a. a monocular depth cue. c. interposition.
b. a binocular depth cue. d. constancy.

 

 

REF:   The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. The blockage of one’s view by another object can provide information about depth perception. This is termed
a. interposition. c. good continuance.
b. similarity. d. binocular depth cue.

 

 

REF:   The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. A horse is blocking the front of a barn door, obstructing your view of the door. This configuration allows you to determine that the horse is closer to you than the barn door is. This is called
a. good continuation. c. interposition.
b. closure. d. linear perspective.

 

 

REF:   The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a monocular cue for depth perception?
a. interposition c. texture
b. linear perspective d. similarity

 

 

REF:   The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. Krista is sitting on a bench, watching the world go by. She notices the people who are near to her move across her retina more quickly than the cars in the distance move. This effect is called
a. optic flow. c. linear perspective.
b. motion parallax. d. continuation.

 

 

REF:   The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. As you move toward an object, the object gets larger on your retina. This is called
a. optic flow. c. similarity.
b. motion parallax. d. linear perspective.

 

 

REF:               The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. The cues to depth perception:
a. are random.
b. are based on principles of physics.
c. change based on one’s age.
d. are inconsistent across individuals.

 

 

REF:               The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. Shadowing can provide a cue for depth. For example, if a shadow appears on the bottom of a circle, the object appears convex. However, if the shadow appears on the top of the object, it appears concave. This happens because
a. we have a part of the visual cortex that is dedicated to the interpretation of shadows that are at the bottom of an object.
b. in the real world, light comes from above more often than from below.
c. we were taught in school how to interpret shadows.
d. we are born with the ability to discriminate depth through use of shadows.

 

 

REF:               The Perception of Depth

OBJ:   3.10

 

  1. It seems inefficient to need to rely on so many different cues for depth perception. Why, then, do we have so many disparate cues?
a. We use different cues in different situations.
b. We are born with the ability to use some cues, but others have to be learned.
c. Although we have many cues, they are all served by the same neural area, which is efficient.
d. Some of the cues are always more accurate than other cues.

 

 

REF:               The Role of Redundancy

OBJ:   3.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe the process by which visual information is processed in the brain. Begin by discussing how light is converted into neural energy. Then describe the pathway from the eye to the primary visual cortex. Finally, explain the sophisticated processing that occurs outside of the primary visual cortex.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Visual System                          OBJ:   3.1 | 3.4

 

 

  1. Describe the method and results of Hubel and Weisel’s seminal experiments on the mammalian visual system.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

OBJ:   3.2

 

  1. Explain the phenomena of “Mach bands” by describing the role of lateral inhibition in edge detection.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:              3.3

 

 

  1. Differentiate between the “what” and the “where” streams by describing the function and location of each stream.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:   3.4

 

 

  1. Explain the disorder known as akinetopsia. Make sure you reference the biological changes that cause the disorder and the behavioral changes that result.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

 

  1. It has been argued that the visual system relies on a “divide and conquer” strategy. What does this mean? Provide one example of the organization of the visual system that provides support for your conclusion.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

OBJ:   3.6

 

  1. Pick one of the ambiguous figures that was mentioned in the chapter. Describe the illusion and why it occurs. Make sure to differentiate between the role the stimulus plays and the role the interpreter plays in the illusion.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:   3.7

 

 

  1. Think of a real-world example wherein two people will interpret the same stimulus very differently. Describe the example and the factors that contribute to the different interpretations.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:               3.7

 

 

  1. Explain the Gestalt perspective of form perception by providing examples and descriptions of at least two Gestalt principles.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

OBJ:   3.8

 

 

  1. Describe three different cues we can use to perceive depth. What are the advantages and disadvantages to having so many different cues for depth?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

OBJ:   3.10

Chapter 04: Recognizing Objects

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. You are shown an odd-looking image and asked to identify it. According to our knowledge of object recognition, your first step would be gathering the raw data, and the second would be ________ data.
a. memorizing the c. interpreting the
b. ignoring the irrelevant d. suppressing the

 

 

REF:   Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. Imagine you are reading a puzzling email from a friend. You identify the words, but have a hard time “reading between the lines.” In this example, word identification involves ________ processing while “reading between the lines” involves ________ processing.
a. bottom-up; top-down c. bottom-up; bottom-up
b. top-down; bottom-up d. top-down; top-down

 

 

REF:   Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. “Bottom-up” (or “data-driven”) mechanisms are
a. the scientific process in which all claims must be rooted in well-established biological evidence.
b. mechanisms for which activity is primarily triggered and shaped by the incoming stimulus information.
c. mechanisms for which activity is influenced by thoughts provided by the individual.
d. the process by which researchers seek to develop new theories by paying close attention to the available data.

 

 

REF:               Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. What sort of processing is dependent on factors in the environment or in the stimulus?
a. top-down c. expectation-based
b. bottom-up d. knowledge-driven

 

 

REF:               Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. Imagine you are putting together a puzzle. The lid of the box comes with a picture of the completed puzzle, and you reference that while you are working. The picture on the lid is acting as a
a. top-down influence. c. expectation.
b. bottom-up influence. d. distraction.

 

 

REF:   Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. Laura suffered brain damage and now has difficulty identifying objects. Specifically, she can see components, but has a hard time putting them together. She is likely suffering from
a. prosopagnosia. c. associative agnosia.
b. apperceptive agnosia. d. memory loss.

 

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   4.1

 

 

  1. Bob suffered brain damage and now has difficulty recognizing objects. He was shown a clock and was asked to draw it, but drew only a square. However, when asked to draw a clock from memory, he was able to do it. Bob is likely suffering from
a. prosopagnosia. c. associative agnosia.
b. apperceptive agnosia. d. memory loss.

 

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   4.1

 

 

  1. Apperceptive agnosia and associative agnosia both involve difficulties with object recognition; however, they differ in that
a. apperceptive agnosia is associated with memory loss.
b. associative agnosia involves problems linking visual forms together.
c. associate agnosia involves difficulties linking visual information to previous knowledge.
d. someone is born with apperceptive agnosia, but associate agnosia is acquired through trauma.

 

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   4.1

 

 

  1. It is suggested that features have special status. Which of the following findings does NOT support this hypothesis?
a. Figures with single features are detected very easily in visual search tasks.
b. People with integrative agnosia can detect features but cannot combine them.
c. Feature recognition is separate and occurs before recognition of objects.
d. Perception of features changes based on the perceiver’s expectations, but perception of objects does not.

 

 

REF:               The Importance of Features

OBJ:   4.2

 

  1. Researchers have used transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) to disrupt portions of the healthy brain. When asking participants to search for a target, we expect TMS applied to the parietal lobe to
a. have no effect on participants who have not suffered parietal damage.
b. disrupt the search for both a target defined by a single feature (e.g., “Find the red shape”) and a target defined by a conjunction of features (e.g., “Find the shape that is red and round”).
c. disrupt the search for a target defined by a single feature (e.g., “Find the red shape”).
d. disrupt the search for a target defined by a conjunction of features (e.g., “Find the shape that is red and round”).

 

 

REF:               The Importance of Features

OBJ:   4.2

 

  1. A tachistoscope is a device used to
a. measure the rate at which a neuron is firing.
b. provide precise measurements of reaction times.
c. display stimuli briefly.
d. record the moment-by-moment activities of the brain.

 

 

REF:               Factors Influencing Recognition

OBJ:   4.3

 

  1. A participant reads a list of words in which the word “elephant” appears several times. Later, the participant tachistoscopically views another list of words. When the word “elephant” appears in the second list, the participant’s response rate is faster than for other words not found on the previous list. This effect is called
a. the word-superiority effect.
b. the redundancy claim.
c. working-memory availability.
d. repetition priming.

 

 

REF:               Factors Influencing Recognition

OBJ:   4.3

 

  1. In tachistoscopic studies, a poststimulus mask is usually employed to
a. disrupt sensory processing of the stimulus.
b. prevent verbalization.
c. help the participants maintain proper eye position.
d. discourage guessing about the stimulus.

 

 

REF:   Factors Influencing Recognition

OBJ:   4.3

 

  1. In a tachistoscopic procedure, a word is likely to be more difficult to recognize if it
a. has been encountered by the participant recently.
b. is used frequently in the language.
c. has an unusual spelling pattern.
d. has been primed by an earlier exposure.

 

 

REF:   Factors Influencing Recognition

OBJ:   4.3

 

  1. Participants are shown a visual stimulus for just 30 milliseconds (ms) and are then asked, “Was there an E or a K in the stimulus?” We would expect the best performance if the stimulus is
a. BARK. c. BWQK.
b. K. d. GALK.

 

 

REF:               The Word-Superiority Effect

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. The word-superiority effect refers to the fact that it is easier to recognize
a. short (three- or four-letter) words than long words.
b. a letter within the context of a word than it is to recognize a letter presented by itself.
c. a word presented in a phrase than it is to recognize a word presented by itself.
d. words that are frequently used under tachistoscopic conditions.

 

 

REF:   The Word-Superiority Effect

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. In tachistoscopic recognition, participants often make overregularization errors. These are errors in which participants
a. perceive a word as pertaining to their personal experiences even when the word is relatively neutral.
b. perceive a word as being related to the previous word when in fact it is not.
c. are shown a frequently used word but perceive it as an infrequently used word.
d. are shown a pattern such as MJLK but perceive it as MILK.

 

 

REF:               Degree of Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. In a tachistoscopic procedure, participants are shown the sequence NACL. Evidence indicates that
a. the distinctive letter pattern in the sequence will help participants recognize the sequence.
b. the familiarity of the sequence (i.e., the chemical formula for table salt) will help participants recognize the sequence.
c. participants are likely to misperceive the sequence, reading it as if it were a common letter pattern, such as NAIL.
d. participants will be unable to organize the letters, and therefore they will only perceive some of the sequence’s features, not the large-scale units.

 

 

REF:   Degree of Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. Participants are shown the letter-string TPUM for 30 ms and asked to identify what they saw. If they are going to answer incorrectly, which response are they most likely to give?
a. I did not see anything presented. c. TRUM
b. OPUM d. TMPU

 

 

REF:   Making Errors

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. When identifying nonword letter strings that are presented very briefly, participants tend to make specific kinds of errors. How would these errors be best described?
a. They are unable to identify any letters if the string is a nonword.
b. They identify many of the letters correctly but tend to incorrectly identify the vowels.
c. They tend to misidentify strange letter combinations as more common letter combinations.
d. They misidentify more-common letter combinations as less-common letter pairs.

 

 

REF:   Making Errors

OBJ:   4.4

 

  1. A feature net is a
a. network of cognitive “detectors” organized in hierarchical layers.
b. collective of features used to describe an object’s form.
c. netlike structure of brain cells designed to detect features.
d. conceptualization of how features are visually related to one another.

 

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. A response threshold is the
a. exposure duration for which a word must be displayed tachistoscopically for a particular participant to perceive it.
b. number of correct responses required in order for a participant to perform above average on a particular task.
c. amount of certainty or conviction a participant expresses when selecting a particular response.
d. activation level at which a response occurs.

 

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. Compared to detectors that have not fired recently, a detector that has fired recently is likely to
a. be at a higher position within the network of detectors.
b. have a higher response threshold.
c. have a higher activation level.
d. require more priming in order to fire.

 

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. Participants’ recognition thresholds are
a. lower for frequently seen words.
b. higher for recently seen words.
c. not affected by priming.
d. lower for highly unusual words.

 

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. The middle layer of a basic feature net contains ________ detectors.
a. feature c. syllable
b. letter d. word

 

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. A bigram detector fires in response to the
a. appropriate object weight.
b. appropriately shaped curve.
c. appropriately positioned corner.
d. appropriate letter pair.

 

 

REF:   The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. On one trial of an experiment, a participant is shown the sequence GWXT. On a different trial, the participant is shown the sequence PAFE. On the basis of prior research, we should expect that
a. PAFE will be easier to perceive than GWXT because detectors for PA and FE are likely to be well primed.
b. the letter sequences will be equally difficult to perceive because neither is a word.
c. participants will perceive more of the letters in GWXT because they are likely to confuse PAFE with PACE or SAFE.
d. the letter sequences will be equally difficult to perceive because both contain regular bigram patterns.

 

 

REF:   The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. English nonwords (e.g., “HICE”) are easier to perceive than strings of letters not resembling English words (e.g., “RSFK”) because
a. they are encountered more often.
b. bigram detectors for more-common letter combinations fire more readily.
c. they are more distinctive.
d. word detectors will respond to near words as well as true words.

 

 

REF:   The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. The bigram layer of a feature net is
a. rigid, so that once it is created it can never be modified.
b. something with which we are born.
c. the same for every language.
d. developed with experience

 

 

REF:   The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. A vertical line (like the “l” in “line”) could activate all of the following nodes in a feature net EXCEPT
a. O c. CK
b. K d. CLICK

 

 

REF:               The Feature Net and Well-Formedness

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. Participants in a tachistoscopic procedure are shown the sequence CQRN. Participants misperceive this string as CORN. In a feature-net account, which of the following statements probably does NOT contribute to this effect?
a. O is a more frequently used letter in English than is Q. Therefore, the O-detector is better primed.
b. CO is a more frequent letter pair in English than CQ. Therefore, the CO-detector is better primed.
c. A well-primed bigram detector will fire even if the letter detectors feeding into that bigram detector are firing weakly.
d. Feature nets are generally unable to identify nonwords.

 

 

REF:               Recovery from Confusion

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. We often encounter ambiguous letters when reading handwritten words but can still interpret them. For example, the same shape can be interpreted as an A in CAT but an H in THE. At what level of analysis does the feature net resolve this issue?
a. the bigram level c. the word level
b. the letter level d. overregularization

 

 

REF:   Ambiguous Inputs

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. One type of error that can result from feature nets is overregularization. Is overregularization a significant problem?
a. Yes; it leads to many errors.
b. Yes; not many errors occur, but they are really devastating.
c. No; these errors are infrequent and usually not problematic.
d. No; these errors occur often, but are small and easily corrected.

 

 

REF:   Recognition Errors

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. The bigram CO is more common in English than CQ, which makes identifying CORN more likely than identifying CQRN. According to feature nets, how is knowledge of bigram frequency stored?
a. It is locally represented in the feature net.
b. It is not explicitly stored anywhere.
c. It is built into a specific bigram-detection process.
d. It is stored in the hippocampus, a brain structure crucial for memory.

 

 

REF:               Distributed Knowledge

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. In a feature-net model, knowledge of spelling patterns
a. can influence the perception of whole words but not the perception of single letters or bigrams.
b. is distributed across the model, and therefore the knowledge is only detectable in the overall functioning of the network.
c. is locally represented, allowing the network to draw inferences about partially viewed stimuli.
d. is overshadowed by the parallel processing employed by the net.

 

 

REF:               Distributed Knowledge

OBJ:   4.5

 

  1. Which of the following statements about a feature-net model is FALSE?
a. It can be applied to recognition of print.
b. It can be applied to recognition of three-dimensional objects.
c. It can be applied to recognition of faces.
d. It is only one part of a recognition framework that also includes top-down influences.

 

 

REF:               Faces Are Special

OBJ:   4.5 | 4.8

 

  1. Recognition errors (like mistaking CQRN for CORN) lead us to what conclusion about feature nets?
a. Feature nets are an imperfect system, and thus unlikely to accurately represent our cognitive processing.
b. The interactive nature of feature nets usually allows us to identify stimuli, but can also lead to errors.
c. Feature nets are capable of explaining accurate performance, but not errors.
d. Feature nets are the only possible explanation for object recognition.

 

 

REF:               Efficiency versus Accuracy

OBJ:   4.6

 

  1. Mistakes in word reading occur under a feature-net model of recognition. This results because the feature net encourages ________ over ________.
a. accuracy; efficiency
b. efficiency; accuracy
c. laziness; hard work
d. bottom-up processing; top-down processing

 

 

REF:               Efficiency versus Accuracy

OBJ:   4.6

 

  1. The efficiency of a feature-net model occasionally leads to errors. We could avoid making word-recognition mistakes if we scrutinized each letter. Why is this a suboptimal strategy (and not the one we use)?
a. Reading would be very slow.
b. We do not have the attentional resources to scrutinize every letter.
c. The visual system would be overwhelmed.
d. Letters are easy to discriminate from one another.

 

 

REF:   Efficiency versus Accuracy

OBJ:   4.6

 

  1. Which of the following would be considered a benefit of a feature net?
a. slow, but cautious, processing
b. flexibility to deal with unclear inputs
c. Errors are impossible.
d. New information will not affect past organization of the net.

 

 

REF:   Efficiency versus Accuracy

OBJ:   4.6

 

  1. This chapter describes in detail one way a feature net can be designed, but other designs may turn out to be preferable. For example, McClelland and Rumelhart’s model makes use of all of the following statements EXCEPT
a. inhibitory connections among the detectors.
b. the elimination of feature detectors, relying instead on geon detectors.
c. connections allowing detectors at one level in the network to influence detectors at lower levels.
d. connections allowing detectors at one level in the network to influence other detectors at the same level.

 

 

REF:   The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. McClelland and Rumelhart’s model of word recognition suggests detectors on separate levels can interact in a bidirectional manner. Biological evidence ________ this notion because ________.
a. supports; visual processing is bidirectional
b. supports; there is parallel processing in the visual system
c. does not support; visual processing is an entirely bottom-up process
d. does not support; word recognition does not depend on visual processing

 

 

REF:               The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Some models of word recognition include detectors that ________ one another, so that activation of one detector decreases activation in another detector.
a. excite c. change
b. improve d. inhibit

 

 

REF:               The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Biederman’s recognition by components (RBC) model
a. does not rely on a hierarchy of detectors.
b. makes use of geon detectors, which in turn trigger detectors for geon assemblies.
c. asserts that priming takes place primarily at levels higher than the level of geon detectors.
d. can recognize three-dimensional objects provided they are seen from the appropriate viewing angle.

 

 

REF:               Recognition by Components

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. According to the RBC model, geons are NOT
a. simple shapes.
b. viewpoint independent.
c. always easy to identify.
d. capable of identification if they are partially obstructed.

 

 

REF:   Recognition by Components

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. The term “geons” is short for
a. geometric ions.
b. geometric objects.
c. geometric examples of objects in space.
d. It is not short for anything.

 

 

REF:   Recognition by Components

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Which of the following statements best describes viewpoint-dependent object recognition?
a. An object is memorized faster if it is upright.
b. One must match the current view of an object with a view of the object stored in memory, using the process of rotation.
c. An object will be recognized at the same speed regardless of its orientation.
d. Recognition of an object is dependent on how many geons are visible to the viewer.

 

 

REF:               Recognition via Multiple Views

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. We can often recognize an object even if some of the object’s parts are hidden from view. Evidence indicates that this recognition from partial viewing will be easiest if
a. we can see enough of the object to identify some of its geons.
b. we can see at least 20% of the object’s features.
c. the object’s features are unfamiliar to us, so there is no risk of false alarms.
d. the object does not have too many geons.

 

 

REF:   Recognition via Multiple Views

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Which of the following models for object recognition emphasizes the role that rotation plays in object recognition?
a. feature net c. recognition by components
b. McClelland and Rumelhart d. multiple views

 

 

REF:               Recognition via Multiple Views

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Evidence from single-cell recording experiments suggests that we might have a cell that responds to a picture of Jennifer Aniston. Which of the following statements about that experiment is true?
a. The study was done on monkeys, because it is unethical to do such a study on humans.
b. The cells only responded to close-up pictures of Jennifer Aniston.
c. Most cells only responded to the pictures of Jennifer Aniston with short hair, like she had on Friends.
d. Some cells responded to pictures of Jennifer Aniston, regardless of the viewpoint of the photo.

 

 

REF:   Recognition via Multiple Views

OBJ:   4.7 | 4.10

 

  1. The form of brain damage identified as prosopagnosia is primarily characterized by an inability to
a. recognize faces.
b. comprehend written text.
c. identify inverted stimuli even though perception of upright stimuli seems normal.
d. identify familiar voices.

 

 

REF:               Faces Are Special

OBJ:   4.8

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true about the recognition of inverted faces?
a. Recognition of inverted faces is harder than for upright faces.
b. Face processing is not affected by inverting the image.
c. Inverting a nonliving object, such as a house, produces a bigger deficit in recognition than inverting a face, as we are less familiar with houses.
d. Specialist neurons in the parietal cortex rapidly restore a face to its upright position for further processing.

 

 

REF:   Faces Are Special

OBJ:   4.8

 

  1. The fusiform face area (FFA) is known to be an area that is specifically responsive to faces. Which of the following statements is also true about the FFA?
a. It is primarily thought to be the area used to mentally rotate an inverted face into its upright position for further processing.
b. It only responds to famous faces (e.g., President Barack Obama).
c. It is also a crucial area in the processing of features within an object (e.g., edges and curves).
d. Tasks requiring other subtle distinctions within a category (e.g., identifying different birds or cars) also produce high levels of activation in this area.

 

 

REF:   Faces Are Special

OBJ:   4.8

 

  1. The recognition of faces
a. seems to rely on the detection of features and geons, indicating that the recognition by components model can be applied to face recognition.
b. resembles other forms of recognition in that our ability to recognize faces is relatively unimpaired by changes in viewing angle or orientation.
c. differs from other forms of recognition in that face recognition appears not to be influenced by expectation or knowledge effects.
d. is influenced by configurational factors, suggesting that a model based on feature detection will provide a poor explanation of face recognition.

 

 

REF:               Faces Are Special

OBJ:   4.8

 

  1. Which of the following neural areas is NOT likely to be activated when looking at a face?
a. fusiform face area c. prefrontal cortex
b. occipital face area d. superior temporal sulcus

 

 

REF:   Holistic Recognition

OBJ:   4.8

 

  1. Facial recognition depends on recognition of
a. the configuration of the parts.
b. the familiarity of the individual.
c. the lighting conditions.
d. the individual features of the face.

 

 

REF:               Holistic Recognition

OBJ:   4.8 | 4.10

 

  1. Facial recognition differs from recognition of other objects in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. facial recognition depends on holistic recognition.
b. the component parts of a face have no influence on perception.
c. the configuration of the component parts of a face is critical.
d. the component parts of a face are not considered individually.

 

 

REF:               Holistic Recognition

OBJ:   4.8 | 4.10

 

  1. The term “top-down processing” can be interchanged with the term “________ processing.”
a. concept-driven c. repetition-priming
b. stimulus-driven d. interactive

 

 

REF:               Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

OBJ:   4.9

 

  1. Top-down mechanisms suggest that
a. upright stimuli are processed faster than inverted stimuli.
b. faces are processed faster than other body parts or inanimate objects.
c. processing can be driven by knowledge and expectations.
d. incoming information about a stimulus activates feature detectors.

 

 

REF:               Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

OBJ:   4.9

 

  1. If instructed to identify the briefly presented word “PORK,” which of the following hints will provide the greatest benefit for identification?
a. The word will be presented in capital letters.
b. The word is something you can eat.
c. The word will be shown for 50 ms.
d. The word does not contain an I.

 

 

REF:   Top-Down Influences on Object Recognition

OBJ:   4.9

 

ESSAY

 

  1. You are driving in your car listening to the radio when a new song by your favorite artist comes on. Describe how top-down and bottom-up processing both contribute to your ability to identify (either correctly or incorrectly) the lyrics of the song.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Recognition: Some Early Considerations

OBJ:   4.1

 

  1. A researcher shows a group of participants letter strings for a brief period of time (50 ms) and asks them to identify the letters that they saw. Based on previous research, describe the pattern of performance that is expected by answering the following questions:
  2. Can participants do this task?
  3. If they make mistakes, what sort of mistakes do they make?
  4. What do these results tells us about object recognition?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Making Errors                                           OBJ:   4.3

 

 

  1. In what ways are facial and word recognition similar? In what ways are they different?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Faces Are Special               OBJ:               4.4 | 4.8

 

 

  1. Consider the word “HARP.” Using a classic feature net model, describe how you might recognize this word, even if it was only shown for a few milliseconds.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Design of a Feature Net                     OBJ:   4.5

 

 

  1. Describe the trade-off of efficiency versus accuracy in word recognition. Make sure to reference feature nets in your answer. Why is such a trade-off necessary?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Efficiency versus Accuracy                      OBJ:   4.6

 

 

  1. Explain how the McClelland and Rumelhart model could account for word-superiority effects.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The McClelland and Rumelhart Model

OBJ:   4.7

 

  1. Compare and contrast the models of object recognition (McClelland and Rumelhart, geons, and multiple views).

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Descendants of the Feature Net                OBJ:   4.7

 

 

  1. Argue for or against the notion that “face processing is a special case.” Support your perspective by referencing behavioral or neuropsychological evidence.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Faces Are Special               OBJ:               4.8

 

 

  1. Is object recognition viewpoint dependent? Argue for or against this notion by discussing the neuropsychological evidence to support your view.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Faces Are Special               OBJ:               4.8

 

 

  1. Describe how top-down influences affect object recognition by focusing on the relationship between letter and word recognition. Describe at least two examples that were mentioned in the book / lecture, and create one novel example of these top-down influences.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Benefits of Larger Contexts               OBJ:   4.9

 

Chapter 05: Paying Attention

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The task of shadowing involves
a. immediately repeating, word for word, the contents of a message.
b. drawing the mirror image of a simple sketch.
c. copying the movements of a target individual.
d. repeating back, from memory, a message heard some minutes earlier.

 

 

REF:               Dichotic Listening

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. Tasks involving dichotic listening are tasks in which
a. two different visual stimuli are presented.
b. two different auditory messages are presented, one to each ear.
c. participants must identify subthreshold sounds.
d. participants must dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

 

 

REF:               Dichotic Listening

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. In dichotic listening tasks, most participants are able to
a. tell if the unattended channel contained a coherent message or just random words.
b. identify physical attributes of the message on the unattended channel.
c. concentrate effectively on the attended channel, so they end up detecting nothing on the unattended channel.
d. maintain their focus on the attended channel only with considerable difficulty and frequent slips.

 

 

REF:   Dichotic Listening

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. In dichotic listening experiments, some aspects of the unattended message seem to leak through and are heard despite the participant’s intention to ignore the message. Which of the following statements reflects what is LEAST likely to leak through in this fashion?
a. material that is easily distinguishable from the attended message in its semantic content
b. mention of the participant’s name
c. mention of a topic of personal importance to the participant
d. mention of a movie that the participant recently watched

 

 

REF:   Some Unattended Inputs Are Detected

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. A participant who has just participated in an experiment involving dichotic listening is LEAST likely to remember
a. whether input in the unattended channel was spoken by a male or a female.
b. whether the unattended channel contained nonspeech noises or speech.
c. how loud the signal of the attended channel was.
d. the meaning of the words presented on the unattended channel.

 

 

REF:   Some Unattended Inputs Are Detected

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. Jillian is participating in an experiment in which she was asked to shadow a message presented to the left ear while simultaneously ignoring a message presented to the right ear. Jillian is LEAST likely to detect which of the following changes in the signals?
a. The right ear’s message is initially presented in a high-pitched voice but is then spoken by a low-pitched voice.
b. The participant’s name is mentioned three times at various points within the right ear’s message.
c. Initially, the right ear’s message contains a male voice reading a coherent passage, but this is then replaced by the same voice reading a sequence of random words.
d. The right ear’s message is initially presented in a soft voice but is then spoken by a loud voice.

 

 

REF:               Some Unattended Inputs Are Detected

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. Attention is limited in many ways. Which of the following statements is FALSE about attentional limits?
a. Attention is limited spatially.
b. You can divide attention if the tasks are very similar.
c. Attention cannot be divided among similar stimuli.
d. Expectation can influence attention.

 

 

REF:               Where Are the Limits?

OBJ:   5.1

 

  1. Participants are instructed to fixate on a point on a computer screen and report on a “+” sign that appears off to one side. After several trials, the fixation point is replaced by a new shape, but the participants do not notice this change. This is a study of
a. inattentional blindness. c. attentional apathy.
b. neglect syndrome. d. shadowing.

 

 

REF:               Inattentional Blindness

OBJ:   5.2

 

  1. In a study of visual selection, participants were shown a video of people throwing and catching a ball. Some of the people were wearing white shirts and some were wearing black shirts. Participants were asked to attend only to the group of people wearing white shirts and count the number of times they threw the ball. In this study, participants
a. could not ignore the people wearing black.
b. reported the total number of times the ball changed hands regardless of whether it was thrown by a person wearing a white shirt or a person wearing a black shirt.
c. correctly reported the number of throws made by the people wearing black shirts 50% of the time.
d. easily completed the task, but in the process failed to notice some other peculiar events that occurred.

 

 

REF:   Inattentional Blindness

OBJ:   5.2

 

  1. Participants are shown a pair of similar pictures separated by a blank interval. The pictures are identical except for a single aspect (e.g., a man is wearing a hat in one scene but not in the other). In these kinds of tasks, participants often find it hard to detect the change. This phenomenon is known as change
a. identification. c. blindness.
b. perception. d. unawareness.

 

 

REF:               Change Blindness

OBJ:   5.2

 

  1. Participants are shown pictures of two alternating scenes that are separated by a brief blank interval. The scenes are identical except for one small detail. In this, case participants find it hard to detect the change. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
a. This effect occurs only when participants are unaware that there is a change in the scene.
b. A similar effect can also be found with movies and in actual live events (where participants fail to detect changes that have been made).
c. A similar effect can also be found with movies (where participants fail to detect changes that have been made) but not with actual live events.
d. Changes in the center of a scene often take longer to detect than changes in the periphery of a scene.

 

 

REF:   Change Blindness

OBJ:   5.2

 

  1. Change blindness demonstrates that
a. perception leads to attention.
b. attention cannot be divided.
c. changes in a scene are easily detected.
d. attention is not sufficient for perception.

 

 

REF:               Change Blindness

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. An example of the difference between perception and conscious perception is shown by Moore and Egeth (1997), who showed participants a display containing two horizontal lines and a series of surrounding dots. In one trial the lines and dots were arranged to produce the Müller-Lyer illusion (an illusion that causes two same-length lines to look different in length). In this experiment, most participants were
a. consciously aware of the Müller-Lyer pattern and perceived the two lines to be of the same length.
b. consciously aware of the Müller-Lyer pattern and perceived the two lines to be of different lengths.
c. not consciously aware of the Müller-Lyer pattern and perceived the two lines to be of different lengths.
d. not consciously aware of the Müller-Lyer pattern and perceived the two lines to be of the same length.

 

 

REF:   Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. Attention is necessary for
a. eye movements. c. conscious perception.
b. perception. d. working-memory capacity.

 

 

REF:   Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. Moore and Egeth (1997) asked participants to rate which of two lines was longer. Background dots were presented with the lines. On some trials, the dot pattern was a visual illusion, designed to manipulate the perceived length of the lines. Moore and Egeth found that
a. one can be influenced by events of which one is not conscious.
b. one cannot have perception without consciousness.
c. attention and perception are necessary for consciousness.
d. attention requires perception.

 

 

REF:   Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. A late selection view of attention suggests that
a. only the attended input is analyzed; the unattended input receives little analysis.
b. all inputs are fully processed; however, only the attended input reaches consciousness.
c. attention can switch back and forth between attended and unattended inputs.
d. analysis of an unattended input is greater than that of the attended input.

 

 

REF:               Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. Studies looking at electrical activity in the brain suggest that the processing steps for attended stimuli and unattended stimuli are
a. indistinguishable.
b. distinguishable for only 1 millisecond after stimuli presentation.
c. distinguishable around 80 milliseconds after stimuli presentation.
d. distinguishable, although the exact time at which these two inputs differ is unknown.

 

 

REF:               Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. Recordings from neurons in area V4 of the visual cortex are
a. equally responsive to both attended and unattended stimuli.
b. more responsive to the physical attributes of unattended stimuli than attended stimuli.
c. used primarily in expectation-based priming.
d. more responsive to attended inputs than unattended inputs.

 

 

REF:   Early versus Late Selection

OBJ:   5.3

 

  1. There is a cost to expectation-based priming, revealed by the fact that priming the wrong detector leads to slower responding. That is, getting prepared for one target seems to hinder performance for other targets. What does this finding reveal about selective attention?
a. Selective attention is a limited-capacity system.
b. Selective attention is an unlimited-capacity system.
c. Expectation-based priming is more effective than stimulus-based priming.
d. The cost of priming is inevitable.

 

 

REF:               Selective Priming

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. The different forms of priming can be distinguished in several ways. For example, the effects of ________  priming can be observed almost immediately after the relevant cue is provided; in contrast, the effects of ________ priming require a half second or so to appear after the relevant cue.
a. concept-driven; data-driven
b. stimulus-based; expectation-based
c. expectation-based; repetition
d. semantic; repetition

 

 

REF:   Two Types of Priming

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. In which of the following situations would we expect the fastest response time?
a. The stimulus being presented to the participant is identical in form to the stimulus used as the warning signal.
b. The stimulus being presented to the participant is markedly different from the stimulus used as the warning signal.
c. The stimulus being presented to the participant is the stimulus the participant was expecting.
d. The stimulus being presented to the participant is identical in form to the warning signal but is different from the stimulus the participant was expecting.

 

 

REF:               Two Types of Priming

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. In each trial of an experiment, participants see a warning signal and then, a half second later, see a pair of letters. The participants press one button if the letters are the same (e.g., W W  ) and a different button if the letters are different (e.g., P X  ). In 80% of the trials, the warning signal is identical to the letters that will be shown on that trial. The following are the warning signals and the test stimuli presented on Trial 97 of the procedure:

Group 1: warning signal = L; test pair = L L

Group 2: warning signal = U; test pair = L L

Group 3: warning signal = +; test pair = L L

In this setup we should expect the fastest responses from

a. Group 3 and the slowest responses from Group 2.
b. Group 1 and the slowest responses from Group 3.
c. Group 1 and the slowest responses from Group 2.
d. Group 1 and no difference between Groups 2 and 3.

 

 

REF:               Two Types of Priming

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. In a study of spatial attention, participants are shown a neutral cue, a high-validity prime (correctly predicting the location of the target 80% of the time), or a misleading cue to prime the location of an upcoming target. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Response times to a neutral cue are faster than response times to a priming cue.
b. Response times to a misleading cue are faster than response times to a neutral cue.
c. There is no difference in response times between a neutral cue and a misleading cue.
d. Response times to a neutral cue are faster than response times to a misleading cue.

 

 

REF:   Two Types of Priming

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. Priming based on specific expectations about the identity of the upcoming stimulus produces
a. no benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but slows processing if the expectations are incorrect.
b. a benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but slows processing if the expectations are incorrect.
c. a benefit for processing if the expectations are correct but has no effect on processing if the expectations are incorrect.
d. the same benefit as stimulus-based repetition priming.

 

 

REF:               Explaining the Costs and Benefits

OBJ:   5.4

 

  1. Posner, Snyder, and Davidson (1980) examined spatial attention using arrows as a prime. Most of the time the arrow pointed to the area where the stimulus would appear, but 20% of the time it did not. They compared reaction times (RTs) when the cue was valid, when it was invalid, and when a neutral cue was presented. Which of the following statements was NOT supported by their findings?
a. RTs were slower in the invalid condition than in the valid condition.
b. Spatial attention is limited in capacity.
c. We can attend to two different locations without a reduction in performance.
d. RTs were faster for responses to valid cues relative to neutral cues.

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies and Spatial Attention

OBJ:   5.5

 

  1. Some researchers have compared visual attention to a searchlight beam sweeping across the visual field. Which of the following claims about this beam is NOT currently supported by evidence?
a. It is possible to split the beam of visual attention, so that two nonadjacent positions are both within the beam.
b. Movements of attention can be separate from movements of the eye.
c. The beam of visual attention can be adjusted by the participant, so that it is sometimes wide and sometimes narrow.
d. Stimuli inside the beam of visual attention are primed, promoting their perception.

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.5

 

  1. Where does the “attentional spotlight” reside in the brain?
a. in the visual system/occipital lobe
b. in the executive control areas
c. in the memory areas
d. There is not a focused neural correlate for the “attentional spotlight.”

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.6

 

  1. Movements of attention are
a. always associated with movement of the eyes.
b. never associated with movement of the eyes.
c. dependent on eye movements.
d. functionally separate from eye movements.

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.6

 

  1. Which of the following systems is responsible for achieving and maintaining an alert state in the brain?
a. orienting c. executive
b. alerting d. vigilant

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.6

 

  1. The frontal lobe does NOT contain neural areas responsible for
a. orienting. c. executive control.
b. alerting. d. shape processing.

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.6

 

  1. Lexi has sustained damage to her frontal eye field. She might have difficulty with what aspect of attention?
a. alerting c. executive control
b. orienting d. spotlight strength

 

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight

OBJ:   5.6

 

  1. A patient has suffered brain damage and, as a result, now seems to ignore all information on the left side of her world. If shown words, she reads only the right half of the word; if asked to copy a picture, she copies only the right half. This patient seems to be suffering from
a. a hemispherectomy.
b. right hemiblindness.
c. unilateral neglect syndrome.
d. parietal syndrome.

 

 

REF:               Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. All of the following statements are true of patients with unilateral neglect syndrome EXCEPT
a. in general, they seem to ignore half of the world.
b. when their attention is directed toward a particular object, it often stays with that object.
c. if an object previously attended to is moved into the ignored half of the world, patients will start to ignore the object.
d. when asked to cross out all the letter E’s on a page, patients with damage to the right parietal lobe will cross out only the E’s on the right side of the page.

 

 

REF:   Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. The available data from patients with brain damage to circuits controlling attention indicate that
a. the brain mechanisms controlling attention are inseparable from the brain mechanisms directly involved in perception.
b. multiple brain mechanisms are responsible for the control of attention.
c. a single mechanism governs the ability to disengage attention from its current focus and the ability to lock into a new attention focus.
d. the mechanisms controlling attention differ from one individual to the next.

 

 

REF:   Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. The evidence from unilateral neglect patients and patients with normal attentional abilities suggests that
a. space-based attention is more important than object-based attention.
b. object-based attention is more important than space-based attention.
c. both space- and object-based attention are important in attention.
d. attention is a perfect cognitive system.

 

 

REF:   Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. Patients with unilateral neglect ignore one side of their visual field. This problem illustrates the importance of
a. object-based perception. c. memory for objects.
b. space-based perception. d. paying attention to objects.

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. If we overload attention by giving someone too much to do, we would expect to see what change in feature-binding abilities?
a. improved feature binding
b. errors in feature binding
c. no change in binding
d. Feature binding would no longer be possible.

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.8

 

  1. When engaged in a ________ search, set size does not matter. However, when engaged in a ________ search, set size has an impact on performance.
a. combination; feature c. feature; combination
b. top-down; feature d. feature; spatial

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.8

 

  1. Marcus is searching for a red square among an array of red and blue squares. Marcus is easily (and quickly) able to identify the red square because he is engaged in a ________ search.
a. feature c. primed
b. combination d. location-based

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.8

 

  1. Patty is asked to find a red square among a display that also contains blue squares and red circles. This task requires what kind of search process?
a. feature c. applied
b. combination d. spatial location

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.8

 

  1. If attention is like a spotlight, then feature search is a(n) ________ spotlight, while a search for a combination of features is a ________ spotlight.
a. focused; small c. broad; focused
b. focused; broad d. above-average; below-average

 

 

REF:   Feature Binding

OBJ:   5.8

 

  1. If a participant is asked to perform two activities at the same time, performance will be improved if
a. the two activities are highly dissimilar, drawing on different task-specific resources.
b. the two activities are highly similar, drawing on the same task-specific resources.
c. both activities require large amounts of task-general resources.
d. neither activity involves verbal processing.

 

 

REF:               The Specificity of Resources

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. Participants are asked to listen to a tape-recorded message and to shadow the message as they hear it. Which of the following tasks will be easiest to combine with this shadowing task?
a. viewing a series of printed words, followed by a test measuring memory for the words
b. simultaneously hearing a tape-recorded message, followed by a test measuring memory for the gist of the second message
c. simultaneously hearing a tape-recorded list of words, followed by a test measuring memory for the word list
d. viewing a series of pictures, followed by a test measuring memory for the pictures

 

 

REF:               The Specificity of Resources

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. The idea of a “cognitive budget” is used several times in this chapter. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the “cognitive budget”?
a. One can only perform multiple tasks if the sum of the tasks’ demands do not exceed the budget.
b. The budget can increase through practice.
c. Tasks may require fewer resources after practice.
d. The budget contains task-specific and task-general resources.

 

 

REF:   The Specificity of Resources

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. It has been hypothesized that some mental resources (e.g., the response selector) are unitary and therefore are not divisible. If two tasks both require one of these unitary resources, divided attention between these two tasks will
a. not be possible.
b. be possible only by means of sharing of the resource between the two tasks.
c. be possible only if one of the tasks requires more resources than the other.
d. be possible only if the two tasks make matched demands of the resource.

 

 

REF:               Identifying General Resources

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. The existence of task-general resources is indicated by the fact that
a. similar tasks will interfere with each other more than dissimilar tasks.
b. if a task has been heavily practiced, it is less likely to cause interference with other tasks.
c. some brain lesions disrupt all tasks requiring attention.
d. interference between two tasks can sometimes be observed even if the two tasks have no elements in common.

 

 

REF:               Identifying General Resources

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true of executive control?
a. It is used to keep current goals active.
b. It inhibits distracting thoughts.
c. It seems to rely on the prefrontal cortex
d. It underlies habitual responding but not goal-directed behaviors.

 

 

REF:               Executive Control

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. Executive control is likely engaged in all of the following situations EXCEPT when one
a. wants to avoid a habitual response.
b. is working on “auto-pilot.”
c. is startled.
d. wants to focus on a specific task and avoid distractions.

 

 

REF:               Executive Control

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. The language we use and manner of speaking changes across situations. Imagine that you need executive control to facilitate the words you select. In which of the following situations might you most need executive control?
a. when hanging out with friends
b. when speaking with your brother
c. when talking to a colleague at a work party
d. when presenting your work at a meeting with your boss

 

 

REF:   Executive Control

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. Attention is limited in several ways. Sometimes we can complete competing tasks at the same time, but sometimes we cannot because the tasks interfere with each other. Which combination of tasks is likely to cause the LEAST amount of interference?
a. tasks that require the same task-specific resources
b. tasks that require general resources
c. a task that requires general resources and one that requires task-specific resources
d. two tasks that require different task-specific resources

 

 

REF:   Where Are the Limits?

OBJ:   5.9

 

  1. Which situation is the most difficult (and most dangerous)?
a. a novice driver talking on a cell phone
b. an experienced driver driving home
c. an experienced driver talking on a cell phone
d. an experienced driver driving in a new city

 

 

REF:               Practice                    OBJ:   5.10

 

 

  1. An experienced driver can drive while holding a relatively complex conversation. This combination of activities is difficult, however, for a novice driver. Which of the following explanations most likely explains the difference?
a. The two activities are very different, so the task combination creates no problems with channel segregation.
b. Practicing a task leads to a decline in the resource demands for that task.
c. The two activities are very different, so they rely on different sets of task-specific resources.
d. Practicing the tasks improves confidence in the task.

 

 

REF:   Practice          OBJ:   5.10

 

 

  1. There are several reasons why practice can improve performance. Which of the following statements is NOT a good reason?
a. Practice means that the response selector is no longer needed.
b. Practice helps us to memorize a task’s procedures, leading to improvement in performance.
c. There are often many ways to approach a task; practice helps us determine the best way to complete a task.
d. Practice makes elements of a task become easier; this frees up resources to deal with other elements in the same task.

 

 

REF:   Practice          OBJ:   5.10

 

 

  1. Stroop interference demonstrates that
a. word reading is automatized.
b. the identification of a stimulus requires few resources.
c. practice with a color-naming task leads to automaticity.
d. automatic tasks do not exist.

 

 

REF:               Automaticity

OBJ:   5.10

 

  1. A participant is shown a series of stimuli and is asked to name the color of the ink in which the stimuli are printed. The eighth stimulus happens to be printed in green ink. We should expect a relatively slow response if the stimulus happens to be
a. a series of green X ’s.
b. the word “RED” printed in green.
c. the participant’s name printed in green.
d. the word “GREEN” printed in green.

 

 

REF:   Automaticity

OBJ:   5.10

 

  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE about automatic tasks?
a. They do not require many attentional resources.
b. They can be combined with other tasks.
c. They can act as mental reflexes.
d. Executive control cannot override automaticity.

 

 

REF:   Automaticity

OBJ:   5.10

 

  1. Attention is best characterized as a(n)
a. skill. c. capacity.
b. mechanism. d. achievement.

 

 

REF:   Where Are the Limits?

OBJ:   5.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe the dichotic listening procedure and two studies that have manipulated the basic paradigm. What does the body of dichotic listening evidence tell us about the nature of attention?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Dichotic Listening                          OBJ:   5.1

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast inattentional blindness and change blindness. Provide a real-life example of each process.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Inattentional Blindness | Change Blindness

OBJ:   5.2

 

  1. Describe the Posner and Snyder (1975) experiment. What does it tell us about the role that priming plays in attention? What are the costs and benefits of such priming?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Two Types of Priming                    OBJ:   5.3

 

 

  1. Explain how top-down and bottom-up processing contribute to the complicated effect that priming has on attention.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Two Types of Priming                    OBJ:   5.4

 

 

  1. Is attention space-based or object-based? Include evidence from patients with unilateral neglect in your answer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies and Spatial Attention

OBJ:   5.5

 

  1. Describe the cognitive processes and the neural correlates that are involved in attention. How might these processes or systems differ in someone with ADHD?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Attention as a Spotlight                   OBJ:   5.6

 

 

  1. Lucas suffered a blow to his right parietal lobe and now suffers from unilateral neglect. Answer the following questions about Lucas.
  2. In general, what behavioral tendencies will he exhibit?
  3. If Lucas is shaving his face in the morning, what odd outcome might we expect?
  4. If you ask Lucas to fixate on an object and then move that object to his left visual field, how will he respond?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Attending to Objects or Attending to Positions

OBJ:   5.7

 

  1. Imagine you are studying for an upcoming final exam. You can’t help but try and multitask while you are studying. Provide one example of a task that you probably could successfully do while studying and one you could not. Explain how the nature of the resource should contribute to your success or failure.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Divided Attention                           OBJ:   5.9

 

 

  1. Your friend says that she can drive and text on her cell phone at the same time because she has a lot of practice doing both things. Use your knowledge of attention to convince her (using the appropriate psychological terms and evidence) that she should not text and drive at the same time.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Divided Attention                           OBJ:   5.9 | 5.10

 

 

  1. You have undoubtedly heard the phrase “practice makes perfect.” Argue for or against this adage by discussing the role that attention plays in behavior, and how that could be modified (or not) via practice.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Practice          OBJ:   5.10

 

Chapter 06: The Acquisition of Memories and the Working-Memory System

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The operations through which we gain new knowledge, retain that knowledge, and later use that knowledge are often divided into three categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories?
a. retrieval c. deliberation
b. acquisition d. storage

 

 

REF:               The Route into Memory

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. Which of these is NOT true for an information-processing view of memory?
a. It involves a large number of discrete steps.
b. Each step within the model has its own characteristic and its own job to do.
c. All the steps of the model run in parallel.
d. The output of one step provides the input of the next step in the sequence.

 

 

REF:               The Route into Memory

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of working memory (sometimes called short-term memory)?
a. unlimited storage capacity
b. drawn on by a wide range of tasks
c. easily accessible
d. contents closely associated with the current focus of attention

 

 

REF:               Updating the Modal Model

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. One difference between working memory and long-term memory is that
a. the contents of working memory tend to be in the form of visual images, whereas the contents of long-term memory are often verbal and symbolic.
b. damage to the brain can disrupt working memory, but long-term memory seems not to be similarly vulnerable.
c. long-term memory has a limited capacity, whereas working memory does not.
d. the contents of working memory depend on the content of one’s current thinking, but the contents of long-term memory do not.

 

 

REF:   Updating the Modal Model

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. The modal model asserts that information processing involves at least two kinds of memory: working memory and long-term memory (LTM). Working memory
a. has the same capacity to hold items as LTM.
b. differs from LTM in how easily one can access the stored items.
c. uses the same rehearsal mechanisms as LTM.
d. has no discernible effect on functioning outside the laboratory.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. The modal model asserts that information processing involves at least two kinds of memory: working memory and long-term memory. Long-term memory is
a. theoretically unlimited in capacity.
b. the active component of working memory.
c. not susceptible to forgetting.
d. limited in duration.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.1

 

  1. According to the modal model of memory, words presented early in a list are easier to remember than words presented later because
a. they are still residing in working memory at the time of the test.
b. participants are particularly alert at the beginning of the list presentation.
c. the early words receive more of the participants’ attention than the later words.
d. the early words suffer from less interference than the later words.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.1 | 6.3

 

  1. What is the best analogy for long-term memory storage?
a. a work bench
b. a storage container, like a box
c. a busy librarian
d. a loading dock outside a warehouse

 

 

 

REF:   The Links among Acquisition, Retrieval, and Storage     OBJ:   6.1

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a modern change to the modal model of memory?
a. Sensory memory is not emphasized.
b. Short-term memory is now called working memory.
c. Working memory refers to a process more than a storage system.
d. Working memory and long-term memory are considered the same construct.

 

 

REF:               Updating the Modal Model

OBJ:   6.2

 

  1. The modal model has seen some revision in recent years, but a few key components remain. Which of the following is NO LONGER an accepted aspect of the modal model?
a. Working memory is used only for temporary storage of information.
b. Working memory and long-term memory are considered separate memory processes.
c. Working memory is fragile and easily disrupted.
d. Working memory is limited in capacity.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.2

 

  1. Working memory (WM) has been likened to a desk space that holds the current information for a short period of time. This analogy is problematic in what way?
a. The desk analogy is too static: WM is capable of more than simply short-term storage.
b. WM is more like a filing cabinet with a specific number of slots into which information can be put.
c. The size of WM varies across individuals, but a desk never changes size.
d. There is no problem with this analogy.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.2 | 6.5

 

  1. Free recall refers to
a. word association within a list of words.
b. recalling words from a list in any order.
c. recognizing words from a list.
d. memory that requires few attentional resources.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.3

 

  1. When asked to recall a list of 25 words, participants are likely to remember only some of them. The words they can recall are likely to include
a. approximately the last 12 words on the list.
b. the first few words on the list and also approximately the last 6 words on the list.
c. approximately the first 12 words on the list.
d. words drawn from positions scattered throughout the list.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.3

 

  1. Jose is asked to remember the order of a previously presented list of words. Compared to an immediate recall test, what effect would you expect a 20-second delay of white noise to have on memory performance?
a. It would have no effect on memory, compared to an immediate recall test.
b. It would decrease memory for early words and improve memory for words presented later in the list.
c. It would improve memory for early words.
d. It would improve memory for recently presented words.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.4

 

  1. In list-learning experiments, participants’ performance in the pre-recency portion of the curve will be improved by
a. employing more common, familiar words.
b. presenting the list of words more quickly.
c. employing a longer list of words.
d. distracting participants for a moment just after the list’s end.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.4

 

  1. A sudden, loud noise often has the impact of distracting participants long enough to clear the contents of working memory. Imagine that participants hear a list of the names of 20 different fruits, followed by an unexpected loud noise. The effect of the noise will be
a. a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered.
b. diminished performance for the entire list.
c. a diminished recency effect and a diminished primacy effect but no impact on how well the other words on the list are remembered.
d. a diminished recency effect but no impact on how well the other words in the list are remembered.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.4

 

  1. An experimenter reads a list of 30 words to a group of participants at the rate of one word per second. This is immediately followed by a free-recall test. A second group of participants hears the same 30 words presented at the faster rate of two words per second. We should expect that the group hearing the slower presentation will show improved memory performance for the
a. pre-recency portion of the list, but there will be no impact on the recency effect.
b. words at the end of the list and diminished performance for the pre-recency portion of the list.
c. entire list.
d. words at the list’s end, but there will be no improvement for the words earlier in the list.

 

 

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.4

 

  1. Early estimates of working-memory capacity relied on the digit-span task. The data indicate working memory capacity to be ________ items.
a. 10 to 14 c. around 20
b. 2 or 3 d. around 7

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. A participant who is asked to recall a series of numbers chooses to think about the numbers as though they were years (e.g., 1, 9, 9, 7 becomes “The year I turned 16”). The participant is organizing information into the memory unit known as a(n)
a. sentence. c. image.
b. chunk. d. package.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. When thinking of a list of digits in terms of racing times, one person is found to report up to 79 digits. This suggests that this person
a. has a larger working memory than most other participants.
b. is well practiced at memory retrieval.
c. can remember this information due to a unique chunking strategy.
d. does not show the primacy or recency effect.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT correlate with working-memory capacity?
a. reading ability
b. reasoning skills
c. following directions
d. making an eye movement toward a cue

 

 

REF:   The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. When recalling a list of letters (e.g., T, O, D, F, P, A, E, G ), participants may group the letters into syllables for future recall (e.g., TO, DIF  ). Which of these answers is a potential problem for this strategy?
a. The chunking process requires resources, and this makes rehearsal more difficult.
b. The process of converting letters into syllables uses resources that often interfere with memory recall.
c. Syllables are often nonsensical, and so they can disrupt the recall task.
d. The use of syllables extends the primacy and recency effects.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Working Memory

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. When using the digit-span task, the capacity of working memory is estimated to be
a. approximately one chunk.
b. approximately three chunks.
c. approximately seven chunks.
d. unlimited.

 

 

REF:               Digit Span                OBJ:   6.5

 

 

  1. The operation span of working memory measures the
a. number of letters that working memory can store.
b. number of sentences that working memory can store.
c. rate of transfer of information from working memory into long-term memory.
d. efficiency with which working memory operates when it is working.

 

 

REF:   Operation Span

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. Peter has a higher working memory capacity than Josh. Given previous correlational evidence, who would you expect performs better on intelligence tests?
a. Peter c. We cannot tell.
b. Josh d. They are equally intelligent.

 

 

REF:   Operation Span

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. Current theory suggests that the central executive may be
a. used to temporarily store information so that it can then be processed at a later time by the rehearsal loop.
b. another name for various cognitive resources.
c. merely another lower-level assistant.
d. a kind of guidebook for how to “run a program” in the brain.

 

 

REF:   A Closer Look at Working Memory

OBJ:   6.6

 

  1. The central executive is NOT
a. multipurpose. c. reliant on “helpers.”
b. task-specific. d. akin to executive control.

 

 

REF:               The Working-Memory System

OBJ:   6.6

 

  1. The helper that stores visual materials is called the
a. visuospatial buffer. c. visuocentral executive.
b. rehearsal loop. d. spatial image icon.

 

 

REF:               The Working-Memory System

OBJ:   6.6

 

  1. Within working memory, “helpers” like the visuospatial buffer and articulatory rehearsal loop
a. can take over some of the lower-level analyses ordinarily performed by the central executive.
b. can provide verbal, but not visual, analysis of the memory items.
c. provide short-term storage of items likely to be needed soon by the central executive.
d. preserve the items to be remembered in their initial sensory form (e.g., visual stimuli are preserved as visual images).

 

 

REF:   The Working-Memory System

OBJ:   6.6

 

  1. You are watching TV when a commercial advertising a new pizza place in town comes on. You decide you want pizza and try to memorize the phone number given in the commercial. Just as you are about to dial, your cell phone rings and you talk on the phone for a few minutes. What is most likely to happen after you finish your call?
a. You definitely remember the phone number for the pizza place, so you call and order.
b. Out of habit, you call your favorite pizza place (whose number you have memorized), forgetting you wanted to try the new place.
c. You think you remember the number and try calling, and you are correct.
d. You have forgotten the phone number and must rewind your DVR to retrieve it.

 

 

REF:               Two Types of Rehearsal

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Participants in an experiment were asked to keep track of the most recent word they had heard that started with a “G.” Therefore, participants should report “gravy” after hearing the sequence “girl, grump, hat, scissors, whistle, pen, radio, bed, foot, glass, lantern, gravy.” Later, participants are asked to report back all the “G ” words they heard. Then we would expect
a. good recollection of all the words because participants were able to concentrate their attention on the task and rehearsed only one word at a time.
b. poor recollection of all the “G ” words because the situation invites maintenance rather than elaborative rehearsal.
c. good recollection of “grump,” since this word was in the participants’ thoughts for a long time (while they were waiting for “glass”).
d. poor recollection of the early words in the list but good recollection of the words in the middle of the list.

 

 

REF:               Two Types of Rehearsal

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. The strategy of maintenance rehearsal involves
a. the repetition of the items to be remembered and the simultaneous consideration of the items’ meaning.
b. a focus on the associations between the items to be remembered and other thoughts and ideas.
c. paying attention to the order of items, independent of their meaning.
d. the repetition of the items to be remembered, with little attention paid to what the items mean.

 

 

REF:   Two Types of Rehearsal

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. For most recall tests, the transfer of items into long-term storage is best facilitated by ________ rehearsal.
a. maintenance c. recency
b. elaborative d. primacy

 

 

REF:               Two Types of Rehearsal

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Week after week, Solomon watched his favorite TV show. He never planned to memorize the characters’ names and he never took any steps to memorize them. Nonetheless, he soon knew them all. This sort of learning is called
a. elaborative. c. accidental.
b. intentional. d. incidental.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Which of the following exemplifies the memory effects of repeated exposure without intention to remember?
a. Irv is unable to describe the appearance of his wristwatch even though he has owned it for years and looks at it many times each day.
b. Mary is unable to recall the name of her first-grade teacher.
c. Tony is unable to remember his high school algebra even though he did well in his algebra courses.
d. Samantha has managed, with some effort, to learn the names of all of her classmates.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Based on the composite depth of processing data presented in this book, how does the intention to memorize influence how well we learn?
a. It influences learning only with shallow processing.
b. It influences learning only with deep processing.
c. The intention to memorize adds nothing to our ability to learn.
d. It improves our ability to learn, regardless of the depth of processing.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Which of the following groups is most likely to remember the material it is studying?
a. Group 1 intends to memorize a series of words and, while studying, repeats the words mechanically over and over again.
b. Group 2 intends to memorize a series of words and, while studying, pays attention to the exact appearance of the words.
c. Group 3 has no intention of memorizing the words and searches the list for spelling errors.
d. Group 4 has no intention of memorizing the words and attempts to determine how the words are related to one another.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8

 

  1. The intention to learn new material
a. leads participants to focus on the meaning of the material to be learned.
b. requires participants to repeat the material over and over again.
c. leads participants to employ maintenance rehearsal.
d. leads participants to approach the material in the fashion they think best for memorization.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8

 

  1. As a general rule, the intention to learn
a. usually leads to worse learning than incidental learning.
b. has a direct effect on learning.
c. leads all people to adopt the same memory strategies.
d. has an indirect effect on learning.

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8

 

  1. A student wishes to memorize an essay so that he will be able to recall the essay’s content later on. Which of the following is likely to be LEAST helpful to him?
a. making certain that he understands the argument contained within the essay
b. thinking about why the essay is organized in the way that it is
c. reading the essay aloud over and over again
d. trying to construct a paraphrase of the essay’s content

 

 

REF:   Understanding and Memorizing

OBJ:   6.7

 

  1. Reading your notes, or the textbook, over and over again is NOT recommended as a study strategy because
a. it is an elaborate way to learn information.
b. it encourages deep processing.
c. it is a passive form of learning.
d. you should also be using a highlighter to identify important material.

 

 

REF:   Cognitive Psychology and Education

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8

 

  1. Data indicate that, all things being equal, recall performance will be best if materials are encoded with ________ processing.
a. shallow c. deep
b. intermediate d. sensory

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.8

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of a question that leads to deep processing?
a. What is the meaning of the word “tantalizing”?
b. Are there more vowels or more consonants in the word “brain”?
c. Can you think of a word that rhymes with “elephant”?
d. How many syllables are there in the word “convenient”?

 

 

 

REF:   Incidental Learning, Intentional Learning, and Depth of Processing

OBJ:   6.8

 

  1. Deep processing may lead to improved memory performance because it facilitates retrieval. How exactly does this happen?
a. Deep processing forms many connections between the current item and previous knowledge.
b. Deep processing causes items to be kept in working memory.
c. Deep processing encourages the use of mnemonics.
d. Deep processing forms fewer retrieval paths, making the correct path easier to access.

 

 

REF:               The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

OBJ:   6.8 | 6.9

 

  1. A participant is trying to memorize the word “parade.” To help herself, she thinks about the word within a complicated sentence: “From their third-floor apartment, they had a great view of all the bands, the cowboys, and the floats in the Thanksgiving parade.” This learning strategy will produce
a. fine memory performance, but similar performance could be achieved with simpler sentences as long as they require the participant to think about the meaning of the word.
b. poor memory performance because the complicated sentence draws attention away from the target word.
c. excellent memory performance because the sentence involves a great deal of maintenance rehearsal.
d. excellent memory performance because the strategy requires attention to meaning and provides many memory connections.

 

 

REF:   The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

OBJ:   6.8 | 6.9

 

  1. Which of the following most accurately represents the probability an item will be retained (most likely > least likely)?
a. deep > shallow > maintenance > deep elaborate
b. deep elaborate > deep > shallow > maintenance
c. maintenance > shallow > deep > deep elaborate
d. deep > deep elaborate > shallow > maintenance

 

 

REF:               Elaborate Encoding Promotes Retrieval

OBJ:   6.8

 

  1. Imagine you are shown the word “DOG” and asked one of the following questions about that word. According to the principles of elaborative encoding, which of the following questions is going to lead to the best memory performance?
a. Does it fit into the sentence, “The ________ wags his tail”?
b. Does it contain an “A”?
c. Does it fit into the following sentence: “The speeding car swung around the corner, music blaring, and screeched to a halt before seeing the ________”?
d. Does it rhyme with “LOG”?

 

 

REF:   Elaborate Encoding Promotes Retrieval

OBJ:   6.8

 

  1. A physician has just read an article about a recently invented drug. Which of the following is LEAST important in determining whether the physician will remember the article later on?
a. The physician read the article carefully to determine whether it was persuasive.
b. The physician realized how suggestions within the article could be integrated with other things she already knew.
c. The physician expected to need the information later on and therefore employed a maintenance memorization strategy that she believed had helped her memorize material in the past.
d. The physician quickly saw that the new drug might have multiple uses, so she thought about several circumstances in which she might use it.

 

 

REF:               Understanding and Memorizing

OBJ:   6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

 

  1. It is difficult to predict what an individual will remember for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
a. individuals will engage in a variety of mnemonic techniques, some more successful than others.
b. memory acquisition depends on previous knowledge, and everyone has different knowledge.
c. encoding strategies should be adjusted to match testing strategies, but individuals do not always know what the testing strategy will be.
d. it is difficult to test memory.

 

 

REF:   The Study of Memory Acquisition

OBJ:   6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

 

  1. Which of these is LEAST important for memory acquisition?
a. memory connections c. organization
b. shallow processing d. understanding

 

 

REF:               The Study of Memory Acquisition

OBJ:   6.8 | 6.10

 

  1. A helpful analogy for the encoding and retrieval process in long-term memory is
a. cataloguing. c. collating.
b. stacking. d. rummaging.

 

 

REF:               The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

OBJ:   6.9

 

  1. If a participant is asked to remember a previously experienced event, the relevant memory must be accessed via
a. deep processing. c. a retrieval path.
b. elaborative processing. d. the memory index.

 

 

REF:               The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

OBJ:   6.9

 

  1. In general, any technique designed to improve memory is referred to as
a. a mnemonic strategy. c. the method of repetition.
b. the method of loci. d. memory rehearsal.

 

 

REF:               Mnemonics              OBJ:   6.10

 

 

  1. In a peg-word system, participants help themselves memorize a group of items by
a. forming an elaborate sentence about each of the items to be remembered.
b. associating each item with some part of an already memorized framework, or skeleton.
c. naming the items to themselves over and over again.
d. placing each item in its appropriate semantic category.

 

 

REF:               Mnemonics              OBJ:   6.10

 

 

  1. Although mnemonics can be helpful for remembering a small number of specific items (like a grocery list), they do have some drawbacks. One such problem is that
a. using a mnemonic involves a trade-off of attention so that less attention is available for making the many memory connections that can help one understand the material.
b. mnemonics only work when remembering up to seven items.
c. mnemonics are particularly difficult to remember when specific information is being tested.
d. the recall of all items by mnemonics is slow.

 

 

REF:   Mnemonics    OBJ:   6.10

 

 

  1. Is memory for complex scenes similar to memory for words?
a. Yes; they both require mnemonics for successful retention.
b. Yes; organization facilitates memory for both types of stimuli.
c. No; complex scenes require different memory strategies than simple words.
d. No; they are dependent on different parts of the brain.

 

 

REF:   Understanding and Memorizing

OBJ:   6.10

 

  1. The memorizer plays an important role in memory acquisition. Which of the following is LEAST likely to have an effect on long-term memory?
a. prior knowledge of the memorizer
b. the situation in which the memorizer learned the material
c. the rehearsal strategy the memorizer used
d. the IQ of the memorizer

 

 

REF:               The Contribution of the Memorizer

OBJ:   6.10

 

  1. Several researchers have compared brain activity during the learning process for words that were later remembered or forgotten. Which of the following is NOT consistent with their findings?
a. Increased activity in the hippocampus was associated with better retention.
b. Increased activity in the prefrontal cortex was associated with better retention.
c. Exposure to an item is enough for retention.
d. Learning is an active process.

 

 

REF:   The Need for Active Encoding

OBJ:   6.11

 

  1. According to fMRI evidence, which of the following areas is/are critical to the successful encoding of words?
a. amygdala
b. medial temporal lobe
c. prefrontal cortex
d. medial temporal lobe and prefrontal cortex

 

 

REF:   The Need for Active Encoding

OBJ:   6.11

 

  1. Researchers have used fMRI to evaluate the neural areas that are correlated with successful memory creation. They measured brain activity during encoding, gave participants a memory test, and then
a. erased their memories.
b. measured neural activity for items that were elaborated.
c. compared active neural areas across men and women.
d. measured neural activity during retrieval.

 

 

REF:   The Need for Active Encoding

OBJ:   6.11

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Imagine you are staring at a photograph of a man’s face and trying to memorize it for later. Using the modal model, describe how the visual information will be processed and eventually stored in memory.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Updating the Modal Model OBJ:               6.1 | 6.2

 

 

  1. Why is the term “working memory” now preferred over “short-term memory”?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Function of Working Memory OBJ:   6.2

 

 

  1. Describe the serial position curve and its relevance to the modal memory model. Include in your answer a description of the procedure, traditional findings, and the manipulations that contribute to its significance.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.3 | 6.4

 

  1. Differentiate between the free recall procedure and the operation span task. Relate the differences in procedure to the memory systems each test measures.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Working Memory and Long-Term Memory: One Memory or Two?

OBJ:   6.5

 

  1. Describe and then evaluate Baddeley’s working-memory model. Name two cognitive phenomena that are well explained by the model and one that is not.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Working-Memory System        OBJ:   6.6

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast maintenance and elaborative rehearsal by considering their effects on the creation of memory connections.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Two Types of Rehearsal     OBJ:               6.7

 

 

  1. Are flashcards an effective way to memorize information? Why or why not?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Entering Long-Term Storage: The Need for Engagement

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8 | 6.9

 

  1. Your friend is having a hard time in biology and would like some tips on studying for the class. What advice would you give your friend? Include at least three suggestions based on the information you have learned in this chapter.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Role of Meaning and Memory Connections

OBJ:   6.7 | 6.8 | 6.9 | 6.10

 

  1. Describe how previous knowledge or ideas of the memorizer can impact memory and how this can sometimes lead us to make memory errors.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Contribution of the Memorizer

OBJ:   6.10

 

  1. Bill is given a list of words to memorize for a later test. While he is encoding the words, his brain activity is measured using fMRI. Describe the patterns of activity you would expect to see in Bill’s brain for words he later remembers and those he later forgets.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Need for Active Encoding                 OBJ:   6.11

 

Chapter 07: Interconnections between Acquisition and Retrieval

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When you are trying to access something in long-term memory, you use a
a. parallel search. c. random search strategy.
b. retrieval path. d. serial, exhaustive search.

 

 

REF:               Learning as Preparation for Retrieval

OBJ:   7.1

 

  1. If a memory is like a city you want to travel to and the retrieval paths you use to find the memory are like highways that lead to that city, which is the best strategy for memorizing?
a. build one really big highway, so you are more likely to find the answer later
b. build many highways that travel in many directions, so you have multiple ways to remember it later
c. build toll roads (premium highways) so you can get to the memories as fast as possible with little traffic
d. invest very little in building highways because you never know which highway will be the best road in the future

 

 

REF:               Optimal Learning

OBJ:   7.1

 

  1. Establishing a memory connection
a. allows you to access Memory X from Memory Y if they are connected but will not help you access Memory Z if it is not connected to Memory X or Y.
b. primes all memory connections so that all memories are quicker to retrieve.
c. can occur only for emotional memories.
d. is better for emotional memories than for other types of memories.

 

 

REF:               Learning as Preparation for Retrieval

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. A researcher hypothesizes that high doses of caffeine can produce context-dependent learning. To confirm this hypothesis, the researcher would need to show that
a. participants learn more effectively if they drink several cups of coffee before studying the material to be learned.
b. participants’ recall performance is improved if they are tested soon after drinking several cups of coffee.
c. participants who drink a lot of coffee are, in general, likely to do better on memory tests.
d. if participants study the material while drinking a great deal of coffee, they will remember the material better if they drink a great deal of coffee while taking the memory test.

 

 

REF:   Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. In an experiment, participants learned materials in Room A and were tested in Room B. If they were asked to think about Room A just before taking the test, participants
a. performed as well as they would have done had there been no room change.
b. performed worse on the test due to dual-task memory disruption.
c. performed the same as those participants who were not asked to think about Room A.
d. performed better than participants who were tested in Room B and were not asked to think about Room A, but worse than participants tested in Room A.

 

 

REF:   Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Evidence for context-dependent learning has been found in all of the following situations EXCEPT
a. underwater and out of water for scuba divers learning words.
b. odors present or absent during learning.
c. reading an article in a noisy or quiet environment.
d. a class lecture in a very cold or hot room.

 

 

REF:               Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Which of the following observations is most likely an illustration of context-dependent learning?
a. “I haven’t been to Athens in years, but I still remember all the great times I had there!”
b. “Mike has told me his phone number over and over again, but somehow I can’t get it into my head.”
c. “Last month I went to my 20th high school reunion. I saw people I hadn’t thought about for years, but the moment I saw them, I was reminded of the things we’d done together 20 years earlier.”
d. “I spent hours studying in the library last night preparing for my history midterm. And it really paid off; I did a great job on the exam.”

 

 

REF:   Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Because of the effects of context-dependent learning, students might find it wise to
a. use mnemonic devices as a study aid.
b. study only when they are entirely sober.
c. focus on their instructor’s intended meaning rather than the exact words.
d. prepare for their examinations under conditions similar to the test conditions.

 

 

REF:               Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2 | 7.10

 

  1. Context has an effect on memory
a. because it interferes with the retrieval paths.
b. only if the information is recalled in the same physical environment where it was learned.
c. because it influences how the person thinks of the material to be remembered.
d. but not on the way a person perceives a memory.

 

 

REF:               Context-Dependent Learning

OBJ:   7.2 | 7.10

 

  1. A participant is asked, “In the list of words I showed you earlier, was there a word that rhymed with ‘lake’?” The participant is likely to be well prepared for this sort of memory test if he or she
a. used maintenance rehearsal when trying to memorize the words.
b. paid attention to the sounds of the words when trying to memorize them.
c. paid attention to the appearance of the words when trying to memorize them.
d. relied on perceptual fluency when studying the words.

 

 

REF:   Encoding Specificity

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Participants are asked to memorize a list of words. In addition to the words themselves, participants will remember some aspects of the context in which the words appeared. This tendency to remember a stimulus within its context is referred to as
a. background learning. c. implicit memory.
b. multiple encoding. d. encoding specificity.

 

 

REF:               Encoding Specificity

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Which of the following statements seems to be the best illustration of encoding specificity?
a. Susan is terrible at learning general arguments, although she is excellent at learning more specific claims.
b. Susan has learned the principles covered in her psychology class, but she has difficulty remembering the principles in the context of her day-to-day life.
c. Susan easily learns material that is meaningful but cannot learn material that is abstract.
d. Susan quickly masters new material if she knows some related information, but she has trouble learning new material if the domain is new to her.

 

 

REF:   Encoding Specificity

OBJ:   7.2

 

  1. Theories of spreading activation assume that activating one node will lead to
a. “downstream” nodes also being activated.
b. all connected nodes being activated.
c. a subset of connected nodes being activated.
d. unconnected nodes being suppressed.

 

 

REF:               Spreading Activation

OBJ:   7.3

 

  1. What is the level at which a node in a spreading activation model will fire?
a. subthreshold level c. response threshold
b. superthreshold d. activation level

 

 

REF:               Spreading Activation

OBJ:   7.3

 

  1. Spreading activation models behave much like which biological system?
a. neural networks
b. the parallel processing components of the visual system
c. the cells of the retina
d. the corpus callosum, connecting the two hemispheres

 

 

REF:   Spreading Activation

OBJ:   7.3

 

  1. Two groups of participants were asked to learn a series of word pairs and were then given a memory test. Both groups were told to remember the second word in each pair and use the first word as an aid to remember the targets. For Group A, the first word was semantically associated with the target word (e.g., dark–light). For Group B, the first word rhymed with the target word (e.g., sight–light). Each group was given hints during the memory test. These hints could be related to meaning (e.g., “Was there a word associated with ‘dark’?”) or sound (e.g., “Was there a word associated with ‘sight’?”). Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Overall, participants in Group A recalled more words than those in Group B.
b. Participants in Group A performed better when given a meaning hint than when given a sound hint.
c. Participants in Group B performed better when given a sound hint than when given a meaning hint.
d. Participants in Group B performed better when given a meaning hint than when given a sound hint.

 

 

REF:               Retrieval Cues

OBJ:   7.4

 

  1. “Context reinstatement” refers to
a. improved memory if the materials to be remembered were thought about in a novel context.
b. improved memory if we re-create the context that was in place during learning.
c. improved memory if the mnemonics used have a similar context to the materials to be remembered.
d. impaired memory performance if participants recall the context where the material was learned.

 

 

REF:               Context Reinstatement

OBJ:   7.4

 

  1. Participants are asked to memorize a list of words. The eighth word on the list is “inches,” the ninth word is “meters,” and the tenth word is “feet.” In which of the following situations would the participants be most likely to remember the previous exposure to “feet”?
a. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is “yards,” and the fifth is “feet.”
b. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is “heat,” and the fifth is “feet.”
c. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is “hands,” and the fifth is “feet.”
d. In the memory test, the fourth word tested is “fight,” and the fifth is “feet.”

 

 

REF:               Semantic Priming

OBJ:   7.4

 

  1. A participant is asked to memorize a series of word pairs, including the pair “heavy–light.” The participant is asked later if any of the following words had been included in the list memorized earlier: “lamp,” “candle,” “spark,” and “light.” The participant denies having seen any of these words recently. This is probably because
a. the learning context does not provide adequate support for perceptual encoding.
b. the learning context does relatively little to encourage deep processing.
c. what was memorized was the idea of “light” as a description of weight, not “light” as illumination.
d. the learning context led the participant to think in terms of opposites, while the test context led the participant to think in terms of semantic associates.

 

 

REF:   Semantic Priming

OBJ:   7.4

 

  1. Steve is shown a list of words, which includes “baby.” He is then asked to list all the words he can remember from the list, but he does not include “baby.” Steve is later asked to identify words and nonwords, and “baby” is presented along with other items. Which of the following patterns is most likely to reflect Steve’s performance on this identification task?
a. Steve will say “baby” is a nonword.
b. Steve will respond more quickly to “baby” than he would to other words.
c. Steve will respond more slowly to “baby” relative to nonwords.
d. Steve’s response time will be about the same to “baby” as to all other items on the test.

 

 

REF:   Semantic Priming

OBJ:   7.4

 

  1. An investigator asks, “Can you remember what happened last Tuesday at noon while you were sitting in the back room of Jane’s Restaurant?” This is an example of a question relying on
a. recognition. c. procedural memory.
b. implicit memory. d. recall.

 

 

REF:               Different Forms of Memory Testing

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. Which of the following statements is an example of a recognition test?
a. “Which one of these individuals is the person you saw at the party?”
b. “Describe how you spent New Year’s Eve in 1994.”
c. “What is the formula needed for computing the area of a circle?”
d. “What political event does this song remind you of ?”

 

 

REF:               Different Forms of Memory Testing

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. Familiarity (as opposed to source memory)
a. is essential for adequate performance on a recall test.
b. is established by “relational” or “elaborative” rehearsal.
c. is promoted by deep processing.
d. provides one of the important sources for recognition.

 

 

REF:   Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. Herbert says, “I can’t figure out where I’ve seen that person before, but I know that I have seen her before!” Herbert
a. has an episodic memory for the face but no generic memory for the face.
b. has a sense of familiarity but no source memory.
c. would perform well on a recall test but not on a recognition test.
d. seems to have formed interim associations when he last encountered the face.

 

 

REF:   Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. The fMRI results using a “remember/know” testing procedure suggest that
a. “remember” responses are associated with activity in the rhinal cortex at learning.
b. “know” responses are associated with activity in the hippocampus during learning.
c. “remember” responses are associated with activity in the hippocampal region during learning.
d. “know” responses are associated with anterior parahippocampus activity at learning.

 

 

REF:               Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. In the “remember/know” paradigm, “know” responses are NOT
a. given when the participant knows he or she saw the stimulus before, because he or she can recall details about the context in which it was encountered.
b. given when a participant thinks the stimulus was previously encountered, but he or she cannot remember any contextual details.
c. associated with activity in the parahippocampal area.
d. associated with familiarity.

 

 

REF:               Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. In the brain, familiarity is associated with activity of the ________, while recall is associated with activity of the ________.
a. hippocampus; amygdala c. rhinal cortex; hippocampus
b. hippocampus; rhinal cortex d. frontal lobe; parietal lobe

 

 

REF:   Familiarity and Source Memory

OBJ:   7.5

 

  1. Lexical decision tasks require participants to
a. remember previously shown items.
b. quickly respond “old” or “new” to pictures of items.
c. provide the meaning of target words.
d. make “word” or “nonword” decisions when presented with letter strings.

 

 

REF:               Semantic Priming

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. When a person experiences familiarity but no accompanying source memory, the effect can be far-reaching but is unlikely to include
a. the person believing that a familiar statement is true, even though he or she cannot remember where he or she heard it.
b. the person inaccurately accusing someone of a crime, merely because that person seems familiar.
c. the person’s preferences changing in favor of the familiar information.
d. explicit recollection of a person’s name or profession.

 

 

REF:   Implicit Memory

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Which of the following tasks is LEAST appropriate as a means of testing implicit memory?
a. lexical decision
b. word-stem completion
c. direct memory testing
d. repetition priming in tachistoscopic recognition

 

 

REF:               Memory without Awareness

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Group 1 is shown a series of words (“down,” “right,” and “sad”) and is then asked to read the words aloud. Group 2 is shown a series of words (“up,” “left,” and “happy”) and is then asked to say aloud their antonyms (opposites). If we later test participants’ memories for the words, we will expect better performance for Group 1 if the test involves
a. identification of the words.
b. recall of the words.
c. cued recall of the words.
d. a standard recognition test for the words.

 

 

REF:               Memory without Awareness

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Abigail saw the stimulus “all________” and was asked to think of a word that began with these letters. This task is called
a. a lexical decision. c. semantic priming.
b. word-stem completion. d. explicit memory.

 

 

REF:               Memory without Awareness

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT likely to be an influence of implicit memory?
a. Participants know they have encountered the stimulus recently but cannot recall the details of the encounter.
b. Participants have a preference for a familiar stimulus in comparison to other, new stimuli.
c. Participants think a false, made-up phrase that they have heard recently is true.
d. Participants remember the circumstances in which they first encountered a stimulus.

 

 

REF:               Memory without Awareness

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE for explicit memory?
a. Explicit memory is typically revealed as a priming effect.
b. Explicit memory is usually assessed by direct, rather than indirect, testing.
c. Explicit memory is usually revealed by specifically urging someone to remember the past.
d. Explicit memory is often tested by recall testing or by a standard recognition test.

 

 

REF:   Memory without Awareness

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Which of the following methods is NOT considered evidence of an implicit memory?
a. declaring that George Washington was the first president of the United States
b. successfully riding a bike
c. believing something is true because you have previously heard it
d. classical conditioning

 

 

REF:               The Hierarchy of Memory Types

OBJ:   7.6

 

  1. Like patients with Korsakoff ’s syndrome, H.M. has difficulty with
a. implicit memory tasks. c. familiarity.
b. unconscious memory. d. recall.

 

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   7.6 | 7.9

 

 

  1. In a lexical decision task, a researcher finds no effect of priming. Which of the following statements is a plausible explanation for this?
a. The researcher neglected to tell the participants that some of the test words had been recently encountered.
b. Some of the test words were high in frequency, but others were quite low in frequency.
c. When the priming words were first presented, participants failed to pay attention to the meaning of the words.
d. Participants initially heard the words via a tape-recorded list but were tested under conditions where the list was visually presented.

 

 

REF:               Semantic Priming

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. Which of the following is most like an example of the influence of implicit memory?
a. Alexander was taking a true–false test. He didn’t know the answer to Question 12, so he skipped it.
b. Bill could not remember the answer for the question, but he did his best to reconstruct what the answer might be.
c. Not only did Dave remember the answer, he also remembered where the answer appeared on the textbook page.
d. Marcus was taking a multiple-choice test. He was having a hard time with Question 17, but Option D for that question seemed familiar, so he decided that D must be the correct answer.

 

 

REF:   False Fame     OBJ:   7.7

 

 

  1. Because of the influence of implicit memory, participants judge
a. unfamiliar sentences to be more believable.
b. familiar sentences to be more believable.
c. familiar sentences to be more believable, but only if they heard the sentence from a trustworthy source.
d. unfamiliar sentences to be more believable, but only if they have forgotten the source of the familiar sentences.

 

 

REF:   Implicit Memory and the “Illusion of Truth”

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. Participants listen to a series of sentences played against a background of noise. Some of the sentences are identical to sentences heard earlier (without the noise), but other sentences heard in the noise are new. In this setting, participants will perceive
a. the unfamiliar sentences heard as louder than the familiar sentences.
b. the unfamiliar sentences as being clearer than the familiar sentences.
c. the noise as being less loud when it accompanies the familiar sentences.
d. no difference between the unfamiliar and the familiar sentences.

 

 

REF:               Attributing Implicit Memory to the Wrong Source

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. Cindy and Linda are both eyewitnesses to a bank robbery. At the police station, they each select Mike from a police lineup and say, “He’s the thief!” It turns out, though, that Mike has been a customer at the store at which Cindy works while Linda has never before seen Mike. With this background
a. Cindy’s identification is more valuable to the police because she has an advantage of familiarity and context.
b. both identifications are likely to be accurate because face recognition draws on specialized mechanisms that work effectively with both familiar and unfamiliar faces.
c. Cindy’s identification is more valuable to the police because her recognition of Mike will be more fluent than Linda’s, thanks to the previous encounters.
d. Linda’s identification is more valuable to the police because Cindy may have been misled by the fact that Mike seemed familiar because of her other encounters with him.

 

 

REF:               Attributing Implicit Memory to the Wrong Source

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. Which of the following statements about processing fluency is NOT accurate?
a. Processing fluency is associated with improved source memory.
b. Exposure to an item can cause it to be processed more fluently in the future.
c. Fluency can lead people to correctly identify an object as familiar.
d. Fluency can lead people to incorrectly identify an object as familiar.

 

 

REF:               Theoretical Treatments of Implicit Memory

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. If you perceive a stimulus and then later perceive the same stimulus again, you are likely to perceive the stimulus more quickly and more easily the second time. This benefit can be described as a(n)
a. context-dependent memory. c. increase in processing fluency.
b. explicit memory. d. recognition memory.

 

 

REF:               Processing Fluency

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. Participants are asked to read a series of unrelated words out loud. According to the implicit memory hypothesis described in the text, this experience will help the participants
a. if they later try to perceive words synonymous with the words contained on the list.
b. the next time they try to perceive these same words.
c. the next time they try to remember the concepts associated with the words on the list.
d. if they try to recall a series of words related to the words on the list.

 

 

REF:   Processing Fluency

OBJ:   7.7

 

  1. You are reading The Onion (a satirical news magazine) and see a headline that states “FDA Approves Napalm as Medication,” which you find interesting. Later on you are talking to several friends. One suggests that napalm is very dangerous and the other says it is not all that bad. You have a feeling that you read something about napalm lately and decide to chime in. Given what you know about familiarity, how would you likely respond to your friend’s debate?
a. You would say, “Napalm is definitely dangerous.”
b. You would be more likely to agree with the friend who says napalm is dangerous.
c. You are more likely to think your pro-napalm friend is correct but are unsure as to why you agree with him.
d. You would say, “I read an article in The Onion that says napalm is going to be used for medication. It was a hilarious spoof.”

 

 

REF:               Implicit Memory and the “Illusion of Truth”

OBJ:   7.7 | 7.8

 

  1. In many circumstances, participants correctly recognize that a stimulus is familiar but they are mistaken in their beliefs about where and when they encountered the stimulus. This error is referred  to as
a. source confusion. c. amnesia.
b. origin error. d. false identification.

 

 

REF:               Attributing Implicit Memory to the Wrong Source

OBJ:   7.7 | 7.8

 

  1. A friend of yours has recently grown a beard. When you encounter him, you realize at once that something about his face has changed but you are not certain what has changed. We can conclude from this that
a. you detected the decrease in fluency in your recognition of your friend’s face.
b. your memory of your friend’s face is influenced by context-dependent learning.
c. you are displaying an instance of source amnesia.
d. you are being influenced by the fact that there are fewer men with beards than men without beards.

 

 

REF:               Processing Fluency

OBJ:   7.7 | 7.8

 

  1. What would be the most accurate way to describe familiarity?
a. a feeling triggered by a stimulus
b. a conclusion one draws about a stimulus
c. an effortful and erroneous process
d. a retrieval strategy

 

 

REF:               The Nature of Familiarity

OBJ:   7.8

 

  1. The famous patient H.M. was unable to remember events he experienced after his brain surgery. The surgery apparently produced
a. repression. c. retrograde amnesia.
b. anterograde amnesia. d. infantile amnesia.

 

 

REF:               Amnesia                   OBJ:   7.9

 

 

  1. Mark suffered a blow to the head many weeks ago, causing retrograde amnesia. Which of the following incidences is Mark LEAST likely to remember?
a. facts that he learned in the month after his injury, including the layout of the hospital in which he received care
b. any explicit memory for an event that took place just after his injury
c. specific episodes in the 2 weeks following his injury
d. events that took place just prior to his injury

 

 

REF:               Amnesia                   OBJ:   7.9

 

 

  1. Theodore has suffered from Korsakoff’s amnesia for the last decade. Theodore is LEAST likely to do which of the following actions?
a. accurately recall events from early childhood
b. hold a coherent conversation lasting many minutes
c. recall events that occurred last month
d. recognize people he met 18 years ago

 

 

REF:   Amnesia        OBJ:   7.9

 

 

  1. H.M. had much of his hippocampus removed to alleviate seizures. An unfortunate side effect was impaired explicit memory, even though later testing revealed his implicit memory was spared. In order to establish a double dissociation, which of the following patients would need to be found?
a. a patient with intact implicit memory and intact explicit memory
b. a patient with an intact hippocampus and explicit memory deficits
c. a patient with intact explicit memory and impaired implicit memory
d. a patient with explicit memory intact and a damaged hippocampus

 

 

 

REF:   Disrupted Episodic Memory, but Spared Semantic Memory

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. Double dissociations in memory are important because they
a. provide strong evidence for separate memory systems.
b. remain unchallenged by contemporary standards.
c. provided early evidence of the extent of H.M.’s amnesia.
d. suggest that damage to any area of the brain will impact all memory functioning.

 

 

 

REF:   Disrupted Episodic Memory, but Spared Semantic Memory

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. Amnesia can provide insight into the role of memory in our everyday lives. For example, if H.M. was having a conversation with a friend and noticed the friend looking off in the distance and smiling, he was most likely to
a. attribute the smile to the funny joke he made a few minutes ago.
b. not know why his friend was smiling.
c. smile back because H.M. had learned to smile when others smiled.
d. forget the conversation immediately, because his attention had been turned to his friend’s smile.

 

 

REF:   Anterograde Amnesia

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true about the role the hippocampus plays in memory?
a. Hippocampus damage is associated with retrograde amnesia.
b. The hippocampus is important only for old memories from months and years back.
c. The hippocampus plays an important role in memory consolidation.
d. Korsakoff patients have little to no damage in hippocampal areas.

 

 

REF:               Anterograde Amnesia

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. Current evidence indicates that patients suffering from Korsakoff’s amnesia
a. show greater disruption in implicit memory than in explicit memory.
b. suffer from disruption in both implicit and explicit memory.
c. show intact implicit memory with perceptual cues but disrupted implicit memory with conceptual cues.
d. have preserved implicit memory despite severe disruption in explicit memory.

 

 

 

REF:   Anterograde Amnesia: What Kind of Memory Is Disrupted?

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. In a classic demonstration, Claparède showed that
a. the behavior of a Korsakoff ’s amnesia patient can be changed by a recent event even though the patient shows no signs of remembering that event.
b. Korsakoff ’s amnesiacs show more severe retrograde amnesia than anterograde amnesia.
c. Korsakoff ’s amnesiacs show an extraordinary ability to recall their plans for the future even though they cannot remember their own pasts.
d. the behavior of a Korsakoff ’s amnesia patient is less well organized than clinicians have theorized.

 

 

 

REF:   Anterograde Amnesia: What Kind of Memory Is Disrupted?

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. If you organized a game of Trivial Pursuit® with a group of Korsakoff patients, which of the following actions is LEAST likely to occur?
a. The patients do very poorly at the beginning.
b. The patients get better if questions are recycled.
c. The patients make up excuses about the source of their knowledge.
d. The patients do well on current events.

 

 

 

REF:   Anterograde Amnesia: What Kind of Memory Is Disrupted?

OBJ:   7.9

 

  1. H.M. had part of his hippocampus removed, which left him with
a. anterograde amnesia.
b. retrograde amnesia.
c. both retro and anterograde amnesia.
d. language disabilities.

 

 

REF:               What If…                  OBJ:   7.9

 

 

  1. Jerry, a lawyer, has read about a case (Jones v. Arizona) that he thinks will help one of his clients. Jerry wants to make sure that he remembers to discuss the case with his client and that he brings up the case in his opening statement in court. His best approach is likely to be to
a. repeat to himself, over and over again, “Don’t forget Jones v. Arizona.”
b. use a mnemonic device, like the peg-word system, and hope that his client and the judge do not think him odd for saying “One is a bun . . .” in court.
c. build multiple retrieval paths between the new case and the situations in which he wishes to use it.
d. put the case book containing Jones v. Arizona on his desk with all of the other books and hope he finds it when his client arrives and when he writes his opening statement.

 

 

REF:   Optimal Learning

OBJ:   7.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Considering the influence of encoding specificity and context dependence on learning and memory, provide three tips for students (or yourself!) who are studying for an upcoming exam.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Learning as Preparation for Retrieval

OBJ:   7.1 | 7.10

 

  1. Your friend asks you what you ate for breakfast yesterday morning. Describe how you might search and retrieve that information by considering a spreading activation network of long-term memories.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Spreading Activation                                 OBJ:   7.3

 

 

  1. If given a lexical decision task, would you respond faster to the pair “iPod: Music” or “Dog: Rug”? Explain your answer by including

1) a description of the lexical decision procedure.

2) an explanation of semantic priming.

3) a reference to the spreading activation network.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Semantic Priming                            OBJ:   7.4

 

 

  1. Describe the “remember/know” paradigm by answering the following questions:
  2. What is the primary task in this paradigm?
  3. On what mnemonic process does “remembering” depend? What about “knowing”?
  4. What does this paradigm tell us about the nature of memory?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Familiarity and Source Memory                OBJ:   7.5

 

 

  1. Describe the case of H.M. Describe two memory tests that H.M. would not be able to complete and two tasks that he might successfully complete. Based on your knowledge of memory and neuroscience, explain why he would show this pattern of results.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   7.5 | 7.6 | 7.9

 

  1. Compare and contrast implicit and explicit memory. Include in your discussion a description of the various testing methods that are used to assess each type of memory.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Implicit Memory                 OBJ:               7.6

 

 

  1. Imagine that you are hired at a public relations firm to spread the message that Sour Patch Kids ® are a healthy alternative to vegetables. Using your knowledge of the principles of familiarity, how might you go about convincing people that this is true?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Implicit Memory                             OBJ:   7.7

 

 

  1. Imagine you are on a jury and subjected to conflicting eyewitness testimonies. One individual, Paul, says, “The defendant told me he took the money.” The defendant claims that he is innocent, that Paul is misremembering, and that, in fact, their mutual friend Jake is the one who took the money. Given your knowledge of source memory, describe how this mix-up could occur. As a juror, what would you do in this case?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Implicit Memory | Amnesia            OBJ:   7.7

 

 

  1. Explain the steps that lead to a judgment of familiarity. How might you manipulate those steps to create an illusion of familiarity?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Nature of Familiarity               OBJ:   7.7

 

 

  1. Argue in favor of or against the statement “Familiarity might be best classified as a conclusion you draw, rather than a feeling.” Back up your thesis by including relevant empirical evidence.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Nature of Familiarity               OBJ:   7.8

Chapter 08: Remembering Complex Events

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following facts about memories for the Amsterdam plane crash is FALSE?
a. When asked, “Did you see the videotape of the plane crash?” most participants said, “yes,” even though there was no film.
b. When asked about details of the incident, such as, “Was the plane on fire before the crash or after it crashed into the building?” participants responded, “I don’t remember seeing a tape of the crash.”
c. When asked questions about the details of the crash, participants often provided details.
d. When asked, “Did the plane crash down vertically on the building or fly into it horizontally?” participants were confident in their answers.

 

 

REF:   Memory Errors: Some Initial Examples

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. In a study by Brewer and Treyens (1981), participants waited in an experimenter’s office for the experiment to begin. After they left the room, they learned that the study was about their memory of that office. This study demonstrated that
a. college students do not know what a professor’s office typically contains.
b. people make assumptions using prior knowledge about what an academic office typically contains.
c. college students’ memories are much worse than the memories of other groups in society.
d. people tend to notice only those items in the environment that most fit with their expectations.

 

 

REF:   Memory Errors: Some Initial Examples

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Memory errors and distortions have been documented
a. only for memory of the exact phrasing of prose material.
b. only for memory of unfamiliar material.
c. in the recall of complex events.
d. only with material that has been reported to participants, not with material that participants have experienced directly.

 

 

REF:   Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Which of the following is a potential problem for memory retrieval in relation to memory connections?
a. If a memory is connected to too many other memories, it can become overused, so it “shuts down” and is forgotten.
b. Establishing a memory connection can often be a lengthy and costly procedure, so memory connections are rare.
c. If two memories become linked, bits of information from one memory can be remembered as part of a different memory.
d. Memory connections can be established only for traumatic memories.

 

 

REF:               Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Connections among our various memories do all of the following EXCEPT
a. help us to resist source confusion.
b. serve as retrieval paths.
c. interweave our various memories, inviting intrusion errors.
d. link related memories.

 

 

REF:   Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Will has been to the zoo many times, usually with his family but also once on a school field trip. When Will tries to remember the field trip, his recollection is
a. likely to include elements imported from memories of other zoo trips.
b. unlikely to be influenced by schematic knowledge.
c. likely to be highly accurate in its details.
d. unlikely to include much perceptual information.

 

 

REF:               Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. This chapter argues that the way the details of complex episodes are held together actually leads to errors. Which component of the connections leads to both the successes and errors of memory?
a. the length of the memory connections
b. the density of the memory connections
c. the strength of the memory connections
d. the size of the most important memory connection

 

 

REF:   Memory Errors: A Hypothesis

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Intrusion errors in memory are errors
a. in which other knowledge intrudes into the remembered event.
b. due to the acquisition stage of memory being interrupted (or intruded on).
c. in memory due to brain damage, usually as a result of a blow to the head.
d. in memory due to an impairment in the retrieval process.

 

 

REF:               Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. An important theme emerging from memory research is that memory connections
a. are crucial for recognition but are less important for recall.
b. can improve our memory accuracy.
c. make memories easier to locate but can lead to intrusion errors.
d. play a role in implicit memory but not in generic memory.

 

 

REF:   Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. In an experiment, Group A is asked to read a passage. Members in Group B are asked to read the  same passage but are given a prologue that helps their understanding of the passage. When given a recall test
a. Group A recalled less of the passage and made more intrusion errors than Group B.
b. Group B recalled more of the passage but made more intrusion errors than Group A.
c. Group A could not recall any of the passage, as the members did not understand its context.
d. Group A recalled less of the passage but made the same number of intrusion errors as Group B.

 

 

REF:               Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Liz is trying to remember what she read in a text chapter, but she inadvertently mixes into her recall her own assumptions about the material covered in the chapter. This is an example of
a. omission errors. c. intrusion errors.
b. recognition failures. d. misses.

 

 

REF:               Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Memory schemas, or schemata, serve as representations of our ________ knowledge.
a. innate c. semantic
b. specific d. episodic

 

 

REF:   Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Which of the following claims regarding schema-based knowledge is FALSE?
a. Gaps in our memory can often be filled by relying on schema-based knowledge.
b. Schema-based knowledge often ends up regularizing our recollection of the past.
c. Schema-based knowledge relies on remembering specific information within a memory (e.g., although shelves normally contain books, I remember that those shelves contain only boxes).
d. Schema-based knowledge can help guide attention and understanding, so it can help reconstruct parts of a memory that we cannot remember.

 

 

REF:               Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Repeated exposure to a person or situation will cause memory for specific instances to fade, making it difficult to recall details of any one episode. This can be problematic, but it can also be seen as a good thing. In what way does this process benefit us?
a. It keeps only the most important information we need.
b. It leads to the creation of general knowledge.
c. It keeps our autobiographical memory organized.
d. It provides no benefit.

 

 

REF:               Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Bartlett presented stories from Native American folklore to British participants to read and later asked them to recall details of the story. His findings reveal which important idea about memory?
a. Memory errors are often derived from attempts to understand.
b. Memory errors can result from the suggestions of others.
c. The length of connections determines how well a story will be remembered.
d. Memory is generally good, even for complex stories.

 

 

REF:               Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. A broader understanding of a situation or story
a. always improves memory by providing context.
b. always hurts memory by confusing new events with old information.
c. can improve or hurt memory.
d. does little to affect the quality or quantity of memory.

 

 

REF:               Understanding Both Helps and Hurts Memory

OBJ:   8.2

 

  1. When presented with a list of words along a theme (e.g., “bed,” “rest,” “slumber,” “dream,” “tired”), participants often (mis)recall the theme word as part of the list (e.g., “sleep”). This procedure is commonly referred to as the ________ procedure.
a. Disclusion-Recall-Memory
b. Decreased-Remembering-Magniture
c. Deese-Roediger-McDermott
d. Daily-Reconstructing-Mnemonics

 

 

REF:               The DRM Procedure

OBJ:   8.2

 

  1. If given a list of the words “white,” “winter,” “cold,” and “flake,” which word will people be most likely to erroneously report on a later memory test?
a. December c. fall
b. bright d. snow

 

 

REF:               The DRM Procedure

OBJ:   8.2

 

  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included within a kitchen schema?
a. Kitchens almost always contain a refrigerator.
b. Kitchens sometimes contain a coffeemaker.
c. A kitchen usually contains a sink.
d. My mother’s kitchen contains a microwave oven.

 

 

REF:   Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.2

 

  1. Which of the following would be considered the most significant “cost” of memory errors?
a. inaccurate eyewitness testimony
b. misremembering where you placed your keys
c. forgetting the name of your boss’s wife
d. forgetting the word “lexicon” on a psychology exam

 

 

REF:               The Cost of Memory Errors

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Participants viewed a series of slides depicting an automobile accident. Immediately afterward, half of the participants were asked, “How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?” The other participants were asked, “How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?” One week later, all participants were asked more questions about the slides, including whether they had seen any broken glass in the slides. A comparison of the two groups of participants is likely to show that
a. participants who were asked the “smashed” question gave higher estimates of speed and were more likely to remember seeing broken glass.
b. the groups gave similar estimates of speed, but the “smashed” group was more likely to remember seeing broken glass.
c. participants who were asked the “smashed” question gave higher estimates of speed, but the groups gave similar responses to the “broken glass” question.
d. the minor contrast in how the groups were questioned had no effect on participants’ memories.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Misleading questions asked after participants have witnessed an event influence their
a. immediate reports of the event, as well as their recall of the event if they try to remember it sometime later.
b. immediate reports of the event but have little impact on longer-term retention.
c. longer-term retention of the event, but not their reports of the event immediately after witnessing it.
d. reports of an event only if the questions plant false ideas that are compatible with the participants’ perceptions.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. What are the necessary circumstances to produce false memories in research participants?
a. It is not possible to produce completely false memories in participants under any circumstances.
b. It would require trauma too severe to be ethically allowable.
c. It would require highly suggestible participants and repeated leading questions.
d. It would require a few brief interviews.

 

 

REF:               Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. The misinformation effect refers to the fact that false information, presented after a participant has encoded an event, can intrude into the participant’s subsequent recall of the event. This “planting” of memories
a. seems restricted to small memory errors.
b. is only possible if done by an authority figure.
c. seems possible for remembered actions but not remembered objects.
d. can occur outside of the laboratory.

 

 

REF:               Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. The creation of false memories in someone is possible
a. only for small details; the gist is remembered accurately.
b. only for events that took place long ago; recent events are remembered accurately.
c. only for neutral or unimportant events; memories that are emotional are accurate.
d. even for the creation of large-scale, entirely false events.

 

 

REF:               Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Michael and Maria both witnessed an auto accident. Maria remembers watching the car race past a stop sign, but she hears Michael report to the police that the car raced past a yield sign. Based on the results of similar studies, Maria is likely to recall that she saw
a. a stop sign, with her memory strengthened by the experience of hearing Michael’s flawed report.
b. a yield sign, incorporating Michael’s report into her own recollection.
c. a yield sign, but she will have low confidence in this recollection.
d. no sign at all.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Someone versed in memory research could plant false memories in his or her friends or family. Imagine you want to perform such an (unethical) act. Which technique is LEAST likely to be effective in planting the false memories?
a. repeating the false suggestion several times
b. electrical shock
c. using a plausible false event
d. asking the individual to imagine the event

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. By using leading questions and misinformation, researchers have been able to
a. shape how a real event is remembered, but they have been unable to lead participants into remembering an event that never took place.
b. shape how participants remember the sequence of actions in the event, but they have been unable to change how participants remember the details of an event.
c. shape how participants remember the people who participated in an event, but they have been unable to influence how participants remember the objects present as an event unfolded.
d. alter virtually any aspect of participants’ memories and have even been able to create memories for entire events that never took place.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Which of the following claims about memory accuracy is FALSE?
a. Participants’ confidence in their false memories is often just as great as their confidence in their accurate recollections.
b. Children may be even more vulnerable to the “planting” of false memories than adults.
c. When a participant’s response is based on a false memory, the response is likely to be given just as quickly as it would be if based on an accurate memory.
d. Participants are sometimes mistaken in their recollection of an event’s minor details, but do not create an entirely new false memory.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. The misinformation effect is an example of
a. selective amnesia. c. source confusion.
b. retrieval failure. d. memory decay.

 

 

REF:               Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Whitney witnesses a car accident and then discusses it with Ryan, a passenger in one of the cars. Ryan wants her to misremember a few critical details. Whitney is UNLIKELY to adopt Ryan’s false memories if
a. Ryan subtly inserts the false information into a narrative.
b. Ryan provides images that corroborate his false information.
c. Ryan tells Whitney: “You are 100% wrong. This is what happened.”
d. Whitney is an adult and Ryan is a child.

 

 

REF:   Planting False Memories

OBJ:   8.3

 

  1. Which of the following statements about memory accuracy is FALSE?
a. Memory errors do occur, but most of our memories are relatively accurate.
b. Memory errors are more common with “remember” responses, relative to “know” responses.
c. Memory errors are more common with slower responses.
d. Memory errors are more common with “know” responses, relative to “remember” responses.

 

 

REF:   Avoiding Memory Errors

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. We cannot prevent memory errors, but can they be detected?
a. Yes, they can be detected by using confidence as an indirect measure of accuracy.
b. Yes, they can be detected by using physiological measures of emotion.
c. No, they cannot be detected, but confidence is strongly correlated with accuracy.
d. Currently there is no reliable detector.

 

 

REF:   Memory Confidence

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. An expert is asked to comment on the confidence-accuracy relationship of an eyewitness’s report. The expert will state that
a. the higher the witness’s confidence, the more likely it is that the memory is accurate.
b. the lower the witness’s confidence, the more likely it is that the memory is accurate.
c. extremely high confidence is a good indicator of an accurate memory, but more  levels of confidence are uninformative.
d. confidence levels are a poor indicator of the accuracy of recall.

 

 

REF:               Memory Confidence

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. An eyewitness to a crime is quite confident that his memory of the crime is correct. In evaluating the eyewitness’s testimony, the jury should note that
a. eyewitness memories are incorrect as often as they are correct.
b. memory confidence is a poor indicator of memory accuracy.
c. memory confidence is a reliable indicator that memory for the generalities of an event is correct, although memory for detail is unrelated to confidence.
d. eyewitnesses tend to assert that they are confident only when their memories are reasonably accurate overall.

 

 

REF:               Memory Confidence

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. Researchers were interested in how “remember” and “know” judgments are related to memory accuracy. What did they find?
a. A feeling of “remembering” is more likely with correct memories than false memories.
b. A feeling of “knowing” is more likely with correct memories than false memories.
c. A “remembering” response is more likely to be false than a “knowing” response.
d. “Knowing” responses are very rarely accurate.

 

 

REF:               Memory Confidence

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. Barbara and Michael are presented words to remember for later. During the testing session, they are asked to respond “old” or “new” to a series of items. Barbara’s answers can be judged to be more accurate than Michael’s if
a. her responses are more confident than Michael’s.
b. her responses are faster than Michael’s.
c. she does not have a source memory for the word.
d. she responds “know” more often than “remember.”

 

 

REF:               Memory Confidence

OBJ:   8.4

 

  1. Merlin learned a magic spell (to scare away a dragon) on January 10. He then used that spell on January 18. The 8-day period between these dates is called the
a. retention interval. c. interference period.
b. retrieval path. d. memory span.

 

 

REF:               The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. Which of the following does NOT name a hypothesis concerning why we forget?
a. decay c. interference
b. hypermnesia d. retrieval failure

 

 

REF:   The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. A great deal of forgetting may reflect an (perhaps temporary) inability to locate the target information in storage. This sort of forgetting is called
a. repression. c. interference.
b. retrieval failure. d. state dependency.

 

 

REF:               The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. Which of the following refers to the hypothesis that memories fade or erode with the passage of time?
a. interference c. repression
b. decay d. retention interval

 

 

REF:               The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. Evidence suggests that decay
a. accounts for the vast majority of forgetting.
b. probably explains far less forgetting than interference or retrieval failure.
c. in combination with repression explains virtually all of forgetting.
d. occurs for all memories.

 

 

REF:               The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. Baddeley and Hitch asked rugby players to remember all of the rugby games they had played over the course of a single season. According to their data, which is the most important factor in determining whether the players will remember a particular game?
a. how many other games they have been in since the target game
b. how much time has passed since the target game
c. whether they were satisfied with their performance in the target game
d. whether the game took place during the week or on a weekend

 

 

REF:   The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. Lexi is describing a movie she recently saw. When it comes time to name the actors, she draws a blank and utters, “Ugh, I know his name. He has been in a bunch of stuff lately. Why can’t I think of it?” Lexi is experiencing
a. a brain hiccup. c. tip-of-the-tongue phenomena.
b. interference. d. retrograde amnesia.

 

 

REF:   The Causes of Forgetting

OBJ:   8.5

 

  1. The effect that time has on forgetting is not monotonic. Forgetting is ________ over the first few minutes and hours and then ________ over subsequent decades.
a. slow; fast c. slow; very slow
b. fast; very fast d. fast; slow

 

 

 

REF:   The Causes of Forgetting | Long, Long-Term Remembering

OBJ:   8.5 | 8.9

 

  1. One way to mitigate the effect that time has on memory would be to
a. never age.
b. learn the material very well initially .
c. avoid any conflicting information in the intervening time.
d. avoid thinking about the information in the intervening time.

 

 

REF:   Long, Long-Term Remembering

OBJ:   8.5 | 8.9

 

  1. Dmitri witnessed a bank robbery but now seems unable to remember what he saw. To improve Dmitri’s recall, a friend hypnotizes him and asks him, while he is hypnotized, to recall the crime. Research indicates that if questioned while under hypnosis Dmitri will
a. give a more elaborate account (but not more accurate) of the crime than he has on other occasions.
b. give a more accurate (but not more complete) account of the crime than he has on other occasions.
c. be less vulnerable to the effect of leading questions.
d. suffer from less retrieval failure.

 

 

REF:   Undoing Forgetting

OBJ:   8.6

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of memory?
a. Generally, memory is accurate and can be trusted.
b. Gaps in memory, such as drawing a blank, can occur.
c. Amnesia can be cured by probing the brain with electrodes.
d. Memory errors can be created by outside sources as well as ourselves.

 

 

REF:               Undoing Forgetting

OBJ:   8.6

 

  1. Information that is perceived as relevant to the self is better remembered. This is referred to as the
a. ego directive.
b. autobiographical perspective advantage.
c. self-reference effect.
d. self-importance law.

 

 

REF:               Memory and the Self

OBJ:   8.7

 

  1. Our “self-schema” is NOT likely to include
a. knowledge of how we spend our Tuesday nights.
b. ideas about our political beliefs when young.
c. accurate memories about poor grades.
d. our usual behaviors.

 

 

REF:   Memory and the Self

OBJ:   8.7

 

  1. In the process of memory consolidation, memories are
a. put into the “back of the mind” for self-protection.
b. intentionally blurred with other memories.
c. second-guessed in favor of memory schemata already in place.
d. biologically “cemented into place.”

 

 

REF:               Memory and Emotion

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Emotion has multiple effects on the encoding and retrieval of memories. Which of the following is most likely to occur during the recall of everyday emotional events?
a. amnesia
b. repression
c. decreased accuracy in recall
d. accurate recall of the event’s gist (i.e., the emotional event’s center), but relatively poor recall of the event’s background details (“periphery”)

 

 

REF:   Memory and Emotion

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Flashbulb memories are extremely detailed, vivid memories usually associated with highly emotional events. The accuracy of these memories seems
a. best predicted by the consequentiality of the event to participants’ lives.
b. unrelated to any factors researchers have probed so far.
c. remarkably high, identifying these memories as a special class of episodic recall.
d. strongly associated with participants’ confidence levels, differentiating flashbulb memories from other forms of memories.

 

 

REF:   Flashbulb Memories

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Some researchers have suggested that highly painful memories can be repressed. This theory
a. is widely considered by most researchers to be correct.
b. is known to be correct due to much undisputed evidence.
c. is controversial and the evidence is ambiguous at best.
d. has been disproven and is no longer considered valid by any researcher.

 

 

REF:   Traumatic Memories

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Often, people forget information about traumatic events. Repression is one controversial explanation, but other, less controversial explanations also exist. Which of the following is NOT a potential explanation for memory loss during a traumatic event?
a. sleep deprivation
b. head injury
c. extreme stress
d. attentional disruption during encoding

 

 

REF:   Traumatic Memories

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Repression refers to the
a. conscious removal of memories.
b. unconscious removal of memories.
c. finding that memory is often incorrect.
d. planting of false memories by hypnotists.

 

 

REF:               Traumatic Memories

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. You should be skeptical of “recovered” memories that were repressed because
a. many painful events are well remembered.
b. retrieval failure may explain “recovered memories.”
c. if the memory was important enough to be repressed, it would be a flashbulb memory and be robust to decay.
d. some recovered memories turn out to be false memories suggested by therapists.

 

 

REF:               Traumatic Memories

OBJ:   8.8

 

  1. Research on very-long-term remembering indicates that
a. memories fade more and more as the years go by.
b. memories of childhood are retained throughout the lifespan; later memories, however, are vulnerable to forgetting.
c. if you learn material well enough to retain it for 3 or 4 years, the odds are good that you will continue to remember the material for many more years.
d. if you learn material before age 13 or 14, you are unlikely to remember the material in later years; material learned at older ages is retained for longer periods.

 

 

REF:   Long, Long-Term Remembering

OBJ:   8.9

 

  1. Julie can remember what she wore, what she did, and what the weather was like on any day from 1999. She likely has
a. retrograde amnesia. c. hyperthymesia.
b. anterograde amnesia. d. hypernesia.

 

 

REF:   What If…       OBJ:   8.9

 

 

  1. The memory that contains the full recollection of our lives is referred to as ________ memory.
a. self-recollection c. emotional perspective
b. autobiographical d. personal experience

 

 

REF:               Autobiographical Memory

OBJ:   8.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe how schematic knowledge can influence memory. Include in your answer an explanation of how schematic knowledge can be both helpful and damaging to memory.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Memory Errors: A Hypothesis | Schematic Knowledge

OBJ:   8.1

 

  1. Create your own set of stimuli (at least eight items) that could be used in the DRM procedure to cause false memories. Explain the procedure and your predictions.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The DRM Procedure                       OBJ:   8.2

 

 

  1. Imagine you are asked to testify at a grand jury, by the defense, as an expert on eyewitness memory. The defendant is charged with armed robbery and the prosecution has presented a witness who says that shortly after the crime was committed, she saw the defendant running down the street with a bag in his hands. What would you tell the jury about the accuracy of eyewitness memory in your testimony?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Memory Errors: A Hypothesis        OBJ:   8.3

 

 

  1. Mark and Leslie both witnessed a car crash, but their stories do not match. Mark is 10 years old, was in close physical proximity to the accident, and is very confident in his description of the accident. Leslie is 45, was talking on her phone when the accident happened, and is less sure of herself when answering questions. Leslie also mentions that she has seen several car accidents at this intersection and that it is very dangerous. Based on the evidence presented in the chapter, who should be trusted? Include the pros and cons of trusting each witness.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Avoiding Memory Errors                OBJ:   8.3 | 8.4 | 8.8

 

 

  1. Does the passage of time or interference have a larger impact on forgetting? Support your answer by providing empirical evidence, or by considering the challenges of answering such a question.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Causes of Forgetting                OBJ:   8.5

 

 

  1. Explain how the passage of time influences memory, both at shorter durations (hours, days) and longer durations (years, decades).

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Long, Long-Term Remembering               OBJ:   8.5 | 8.9

 

 

  1. Under hypnosis, Beth provided a detailed account of an emotional event she witnessed. Should the details of her memory be trusted? Why or why not?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Undoing Forgetting                         OBJ:   8.6 | 8.8

 

 

  1. Are autobiographical memories very different from other types of memories? Include empirical evidence to support your position.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               How General Are the Principles of Memory?

OBJ:   8.7 | 8.10

 

  1. After reading a news article about a woman who recovered repressed memories of childhood abuse, your friend starts to think she too may have been abused as a child. Given your knowledge of auto- biographical memory, emotions, traumatic memories, and memory errors, what would you tell her?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Autobiographical Memory              OBJ:   8.8

 

 

  1. Are flashbulb memories different from other kinds of memories? Include in your answer a comparison of how flashbulb memories feel versus the actual data surrounding these memories.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Flashbulb Memories                       OBJ:   8.8

 

 

Chapter 09: Concepts and Generic Knowledge

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. It seems unlikely that our conceptual knowledge is represented by mental definitions because
a. each person has his or her own idea about how concepts should be defined.
b. many of our abstract concepts (e.g., justice, love, God) are difficult to define.
c. it is easy to find exceptions to any proposed definition.
d. most of our concepts are difficult to express in words.

 

 

REF:   Understanding Concepts

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. Categorization models based on family resemblance rely on
a. the definition of each category.
b. feature overlap among the members of a category.
c. the necessary conditions for membership in a category.
d. the sufficient conditions for membership in a category.

 

 

REF:   Family Resemblance

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. When we say, “There is a family resemblance among all the members of the Martinez family,” we mean that
a. there is at least one feature shared by all the members of the family.
b. there is at least one identifying trait such that if you have that trait, you are certain to be a member of the family.
c. any pair of family members will have certain traits in common even though there may be no traits shared by all of the family members.
d. there are several features that all members of the family have in common.

 

 

REF:   Family Resemblance

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. It has been suggested that a rigid definition for a category is not possible and that resemblance (much like a family resemblance) may be more appropriate. Why is this the case?
a. Categorization is very often a matter of degree, not an all-or-none process.
b. Categories constantly add new members.
c. Similarity is often subjective.
d. A rigid definition is unlikely to be accepted by everyone.

 

 

REF:               Prototypes and Typicality Effects

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. According to prototype theory, the mental representation for each concept
a. represents an average or ideal for the category’s members.
b. specifies the necessary and sufficient conditions for category membership.
c. is located on the boundary of the category.
d. lists the perceptual features that are found only in that category.

 

 

REF:               Prototypes and Typicality Effects

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. According to prototype theory, the prototype selected for comparison will NOT be the
a. ideal for a category.
b. average of various category members.
c. same for every person.
d. central tendency (middle) of all category members.

 

 

REF:   Prototypes and Typicality Effects

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. The claim that mental categories have graded membership is the claim that
a. one cannot specify precisely whether a test case is in the category.
b. some category members are better suited than others as category members.
c. a participant’s belief about a category’s membership shifts as the participant learns more about the category.
d. many category members approach the ideal for that category.

 

 

REF:   Prototypes and Graded Membership

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. Participants are asked to make up sentences about the category “birds.” Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true about this task?
a. Among other tasks, this task provides evidence for the use of prototypes in categories.
b. Participants often have a wide range of birds in mind when generating these sentences.
c. Future participants will judge modified sentences where the name of a nonprototypical bird is substituted for the word “bird” as ridiculous.
d. The sensibility of a sentence is usually unchanged if the name of a prototypical bird is substituted for the word “bird.”

 

 

REF:               Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. There is a pattern of converging evidence with respect to prototype theory. This means that
a. different individuals agree in their identification of typical category members.
b. the same category members turn out to be privileged in a wide range of experimental tasks.
c. more recent studies have allowed a more precise specification of which category members are typical.
d. as children grow up, they gain a more specific notion of what it is that identifies each category.

 

 

REF:   Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. In Trial 18 of a sentence-verification task, participants see the sentence, “A robin is a bird.” In      Trial 42 they see, “A penguin is a bird.” According to prototype theory, we should expect faster      responses to
a. “robin” because participants more readily see the resemblance between “robin” and the bird prototype.
b. “penguin” because penguins are a unique bird and thus easily identified.
c. “robin” because of response priming.
d. “penguin” because penguins are higher in typicality.

 

 

REF:   Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. If asked to name as many birds as they can, participants are most likely to name
a. larger birds (e.g., hawk, owl).
b. distinctive birds (e.g., vulture, penguin).
c. birds associated with other familiar concepts (e.g., turkey, bald eagle).
d. birds resembling the prototype (e.g., robin, sparrow).

 

 

REF:               Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. Participants are asked which birds they think are “particularly birdy” and which birds are “not very birdy.” We should expect that the birds judged as “birdiest” are birds
a. rarely mentioned in a production task.
b. appearing infrequently in the participants’ environment.
c. identified quickly in a picture-identification task.
d. not likely to be identified as typical.

 

 

REF:               Testing the Prototype Notion

OBJ:   9.1

 

  1. The term “basic-level category” refers to the
a. level of categorization regarded by most participants as indisputable.
b. most general level of categorization of which participants can think.
c. most specific level of categorization of which participants can think.
d. most natural level of categorization, which is neither too specific nor too general.

 

 

REF:               Basic-Level Categories

OBJ:   9.2

 

  1. Basic-level categories have all of the following traits EXCEPT
a. if asked simply to describe an object, participants are likely to use the basic-level term.
b. basic-level categories are usually represented in the language by a single word.
c. basic-level descriptions are more difficult to remember than more general descriptions.
d. basic-level terms are acquired by children at a younger age than either more specific or more general terms.

 

 

REF:   Basic-Level Categories

OBJ:   9.2

 

  1. You are asked to “Name all of the professions that you can think of.” According to Rosch’s evidence, you are most likely to respond,
a. first grade teacher, second grade teacher, third grade teacher . . .
b. first grade teacher, neonatal nurse, psychology professor . . .
c. employee, employer, part-time employee . . .
d. teacher, lawyer, doctor, firefighter . . .

 

 

REF:   Basic-Level Categories

OBJ:   9.2

 

  1. According to exemplar-based theories of mental categories, participants identify an object by comparing it to a
a. prototype.
b. single remembered instance of the category.
c. definition.
d. mental image.

 

 

REF:               Analogies from Remembered Exemplars

OBJ:   9.3

 

  1. An important difference between categorization via exemplars and categorization via prototypes is that according to exemplar theory
a. the standard used in a particular category can vary from one occasion to the next.
b. one categorizes objects by comparing them to a mentally represented standard.
c. categorization depends on a judgment of resemblance.
d. categories are represented in the mind by a single relatively concrete illustration of the category.

 

 

REF:               Analogies from Remembered Exemplars

OBJ:   9.3

 

  1. Reuben is visiting the aquarium and has just seen an octopus for the very first time. Reuben is therefore likely to have
a. a definition for the concept of octopus.
b. only exemplar-based knowledge for the concept of octopus.
c. a prototype for the octopus concept.
d. a prototype for the octopus concept and some exemplar-based knowledge.

 

 

REF:   Analogies from Remembered Exemplars

OBJ:   9.3

 

  1. According to exemplar theory, typicality effects
a. are difficult to explain.
b. reflect the fact that typical category members are probably frequent in our environment and are therefore frequently represented in memory.
c. are produced by the fact that the exemplars in memory for each category tend to resemble each other.
d. should be observed with categories having homogeneous membership but not with more variable categories.

 

 

 

REF:   Explaining Typicality Data with an Exemplar Model      OBJ:   9.3

 

 

  1. Exemplar and prototype theories are similar in the following ways EXCEPT that
a. both theories require the triggering of a memory.
b. both theories require previous memories to be averaged, or combined.
c. both theories require a judgment of resemblance.
d. conclusions for both processes are based on resemblance.

 

 

REF:   A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

OBJ:   9.3 | 9.4

 

  1. Researchers have claimed that as one gains more and more experience with a category, the mental representation for that category is likely to shift from
a. a prototype to exemplar-based knowledge.
b. exemplar-based knowledge to a definition.
c. a definition to a prototype.
d. exemplar-based knowledge to a prototype.

 

 

REF:               A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

OBJ:   9.3 | 9.4

 

  1. Judgments about which category members are typical
a. are easily shifted by changes in context or changes in perspective.
b. shift as one learns more about the category but then become quite stable.
c. differ sharply across cultures.
d. are impressively constant across individuals and situations.

 

 

REF:               A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

OBJ:   9.4

 

  1. It is possible for a test case to be thought of as typical of a category, despite not being a member of that category. Which of the following examples is consistent with this idea?
a. Whales are more typical of fish than sea lampreys.
b. A squashed lemon that has been painted purple is more typical of fruit than an apple.
c. A poodle is more typical of a dog than a golden retriever.
d. Abraham Lincoln is a typical American president.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.4

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT implied by the textbook’s discussion of mutilated lemons and perfect counterfeits?
a. An object can be in a category even if it has no resemblance to the category’s prototype.
b. An object can be excluded from a category even if it has a strong resemblance to the category’s prototype.
c. The history of an object is sometimes crucial in determining its category membership.
d. Participants are unable to separate their judgments about category membership from their judgments about typicality.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.4

 

 

  1. Matt is 8 years old and loves learning about animals. If asked, “Are skunks and raccoons similar?” Matt would most likely say that
a. no matter how you changed a skunk’s behavior or appearance, it would still be a skunk and not a raccoon.
b. it is behavior that matters for category identity, so if a skunk learned to act like a raccoon, it would count as a genuine raccoon.
c. it is appearance that matters for category identity, so if a skunk were altered to look like a raccoon, it would count as a genuine raccoon.
d. it is the combination of behavior and appearance that matters for category identity, so both attributes would have to be changed to turn one organism into another.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.4 | 9.6

 

 

  1. Imagine you are shown an object and asked to categorize it as belonging to Category A or Category B. Which of the following describes the process for categorizing a new object?
a. perceive object; trigger memory; categorize item; judge resemblance
b. perceive object; compare object to memories; judge resemblance; categorize item
c. perceive object; judge resemblance; search memory; make decision
d. search memory; perceive object; judge resemblance; categorize item

 

 

REF:   A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

OBJ:   9.5

 

  1. In one procedure, participants were asked to judge which was a “better” even number, 4 or 18. The participants
a. were unable to perform this absurd task.
b. offered judgments that show that well-defined categories do not show the graded-membership pattern.
c. regarded all of the even numbers as being “equivalently even.”
d. made the judgment in a fashion that implied a graded-membership pattern for the category “even number.”

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.5

 

 

  1. Participants know that penguins are not typical birds, but they are certain that penguins are birds. This indicates that judgments about category membership
a. depend on a judgment of typicality.
b. are not settled entirely by an assessment of typicality.
c. rely on comparing the example to a prototype.
d. do not conform to the requirements of a definition.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.5

 

 

  1. In making judgments about category membership, participants
a. base their judgments entirely on a stimulus’s typicality.
b. will not judge a stimulus to be in the category unless the stimulus resembles the category prototype.
c. are often able to make a distinction between typicality and actual category membership.
d. generally base their judgments on factors other than typicality.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.5

 

 

  1. A lemon that has been painted red, white, and blue and then run over by a car is still likely to be categorized as a lemon. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of why this might be?
a. If it grew on a lemon tree, it will be considered a lemon.
b. The essential properties for being a lemon are still there.
c. Cause-and-effect relationships influence how we think about what an object is and how it is categorized.
d. Superficial things like color do not play a role in categorization.

 

 

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization OBJ:   9.5 | 9.6

 

 

  1. A mutilated lemon will still be categorized as a lemon, while a counterfeit $20 bill will not be categorized as money. What does this say about categorization?
a. Psychologists will never understand categorization.
b. Category membership cannot be based on resemblance alone.
c. Category membership is based on previously encountered examples.
d. Prototype theory is the most accurate theory of categorization.

 

 

REF:   The Complexity of Similarity

OBJ:   9.5

 

  1. The text points out that plums and lawn mowers share many traits. This suggests that
a. there is a strong resemblance between plums and lawn mowers.
b. resemblance is not influenced by shared traits.
c. in judging resemblance, we must determine which traits matter and which do not.
d. distinctive traits, and not shared traits, determine resemblance judgments.

 

 

REF:   The Complexity of Similarity

OBJ:   9.5

 

  1. Categorization is plainly influenced by judgments about resemblance, but it is also influenced by factors other than resemblance. Which of the following is NOT part of the evidence indicating the importance of these other factors?
a. People sometimes judge an object to be in a category despite the fact that it has virtually no resemblance to other objects in that category.
b. Resemblance plays a key role in the use of prototypes but plays no role in the well-documented use of exemplars.
c. Resemblance is typically determined by relatively superficial perceptual features, but sometimes categorization depends on deeper essential properties of the category.
d. In order to make judgments according to resemblance, we must be guided by other beliefs about which properties matter; otherwise, our judgments of resemblance may be guided by irrelevant attributes of the object.

 

 

REF:               The Complexity of Similarity

OBJ:   9.5

 

  1. Explanatory theories differ from an exemplar theory in that the explanatory emphasizes
a. the importance of specific events.
b. the most frequently occurring event.
c. a holistic approach to categorization.
d. the importance of a first impression.

 

 

REF:   Explanatory Theories

OBJ:   9.5

 

  1. In a hierarchical network of “animals,” the property “eats” would be stored
a. at the highest level. c. at each level, for each animal.
b. at the lowest level. d. nowhere.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.5

 

 

  1. The use of theories plays an important role in our conceptual knowledge. Which of these is FALSE about the theories involved in conceptual knowledge?
a. They provide a knowledge base on which we can rely when thinking about an object, event, or category.
b. They play a large part in determining how easily and quickly we learn new concepts.
c. They are often as precise and accurate as most scientific theories.
d. They often allow us to understand any new facts that we encounter about an object or category.

 

 

REF:   Explanatory Theories

OBJ:   9.6

 

  1. Two clinicians are asked to diagnose a patient who shows symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression. The first clinician believes that depression is an important cause of OCD and so does not diagnose the patient with OCD. The second clinician believes that depression is a by-product of OCD but not a root cause. Therefore, she diagnoses the patient as having OCD. This example illustrates that
a. our beliefs and background knowledge influence how we categorize things.
b. clinicians are often mistaken in their diagnoses.
c. theories are often fallible and so should not be depended on in many situations.
d. theories are not involved when placing a test case into a particular category.

 

 

REF:   Explanatory Theories

OBJ:   9.6

 

  1. Previous knowledge facilitates categorization in each of the following ways EXCEPT that it
a. allows rapid learning of a new category.
b. allows previous examples to be compared to the current situation.
c. makes developing theories about a category easy.
d. ensures categorization will be accurate.

 

 

REF:               Explanatory Theories

OBJ:   9.6

 

  1. Categorization is of great importance to cognitive tasks. Which of the following is LEAST likely to benefit from the ability to categorize?
a. learning new information
b. expanding current knowledge
c. generalizing to new situations
d. improving IQ

 

 

REF:               Inferences Based on Theories

OBJ:   9.6

 

  1. One study found that if participants were told a new fact about robins, they would also believe that the new fact was true of ducks. However, if told a new fact about ducks, participants would not extrapolate this information to robins. This suggests that
a. participants treat each category member independently (on a case-by-case basis) when applying new beliefs.
b. participants are willing to apply inferences from a typical case within a category to the whole category but will not apply inferences from an atypical case to the whole category.
c. new knowledge about a member of a category is unstable, leading to a change in a person’s belief system only on rare occasions.
d. beliefs within a theory are less likely to affect typical category members than atypical ones.

 

 

REF:   Inferences Based on Theories

OBJ:   9.6

 

  1. The fMRI evidence suggests that the brain areas that are activated for inanimate objects will
a. be identical to the active areas for animate objects.
b. be different from the active areas for animate objects.
c. be localized to one hemisphere, while animate objects will be in the same region in the other hemisphere.
d. occasionally match the area for animate objects,  depending on the nature of the inanimate object.

 

 

REF:   Different Profiles for Different Concepts

OBJ:   9.7

 

  1. The neuropsychological evidence (fMRI, patients with trauma) suggests that
a. exemplars are stored in a different part of the brain than prototypes.
b. different patterns of activity are seen when thinking about dogs versus cats.
c. we can narrow down a specific “grandmother” cell in the brain that contains all one’s knowledge of one’s grandmother.
d. categories of objects seem to be stored in similar neural areas (e.g., living things versus nonliving things).

 

 

REF:   Different Profiles for Different Concepts

OBJ:   9.7

 

  1. Maxine has sustained brain damage to her left temporal lobe, which influences her ability to categorize efficiently. Which of the following is most likely to describe the problems that Maxine  will face?
a. She will not be able to categorize objects ever again.
b. She will lose the ability to discriminate some categories but others will remain unaffected.
c. She will be able to name objects but not be able to describe what the function of the object is.
d. She will be able to name fruits but not be able to name vegetables.

 

 

REF:   Different Profiles for Different Concepts

OBJ:   9.7

 

  1. Collins and Quillian (1969) suggest that information is organized
a. vertically. c. hierarchically.
b. horizontally. d. in a circle.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.8

 

 

  1. Which of the following benefits does a hierarchical network provide?
a. Information can be searched for equally quickly across all levels of the network.
b. It is efficient because information is stored only once.
c. Information is stored repeatedly to ensure accuracy.
d. Information is organized according to use, so that more common representations can be accessed more quickly.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.8

 

 

  1. When compared to the statement “A canary is an animal,” the reaction time for “A cat is an animal” will be
a. faster.
b. slower.
c. equal.
d. unknown; there is not enough information to make a decision.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.8

 

 

  1. In order to differentiate between concepts like “Sam has a dog” and “Sam is a dog,” information is stored
a. with propositions. c. in different parts of the brain.
b. with prepositions. d. in a linear fashion.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.9

 

 

  1. A proposition is defined as
a. a node in a knowledge network.
b. the smallest unit of knowledge that can be true or false.
c. the smallest unit of knowledge that is stored.
d. the organizational structure of semantic knowledge in memory.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.9

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a proposition?
a. Julie is female. c. Julie bikes.
b. Julie bubblegum. d. Julie barks.

 

 

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge   OBJ:   9.9

 

 

  1. The term “connection weights” refers to the
a. number of nodes.
b. size of connections between nodes.
c. strength of connections between nodes.
d. number of connections between nodes.

 

 

REF:               Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. Given the tenets of a parallel distributed processing (PDP) model, the term “spreading activation” would refer to the fact that
a. activation of one concept will lead other, connected concepts to be activated.
b. thinking refers to a constant state of knowledge.
c. thinking is a static system.
d. nodes become weakened over time.

 

 

REF:               Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. According to a PDP model, how is the fact “Neil Armstrong was an astronaut” represented in the mind?
a. Neurons that represent Neil Armstrong and astronaut are connected via a synaptic junction.
b. Nodes representing Neil Armstrong and astronaut are in close proximity to one another.
c. A pattern of connections among many nodes represent Neil Armstrong and astronaut separately, and through learning, these patterns begin to co-occur.
d. A single node representing Neil Armstrong is connected via a proposition to the word “astronaut.”

 

 

REF:   Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. In your Sensation and Perception course you learn that cones are responsible for color vision. According to a PDP account, your learning occurs when the two concepts (cones and color vision) become
a. initially connected. c. weaker.
b. stronger. d. close in proximity.

 

 

REF:               Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. Imagine that you mistakenly believe that Marie Antoinette was the queen of Austria. You learn later that she was the queen of France. How will this adjustment in knowledge be represented in a PDP model?
a. The connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria will immediately be broken, and a new connection with France will be created immediately.
b. The connection between Austria and France will be broken.
c. The connection between Marie Antoinette and France will become stronger, overriding the connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria.
d. The connection between Marie Antoinette and Austria will become weaker, while the connection between Marie Antoinette and France will become stronger.

 

 

REF:   Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. In a PDP model, learning can happen in all of the following ways EXCEPT
a. strengthening of connections between concepts that are activated simultaneously.
b. weakening of connections between concepts that are activated at different times.
c. random, synchronous firing of nodes leads to a weakening of a connection.
d. error signals are sent backward through the system, to adjust connection weights.

 

 

REF:               Learning as the Setting of Connection Weights

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. Proposition networks assume knowledge is ________; however, it is more likely that knowledge is actually ________.
a. localized; distributed
b. localized; unable to be identified
c. distributed; localized
d. distributed; constantly changing

 

 

REF:               Distributed Processing

OBJ:   9.10

 

  1. Conceptual knowledge is impressive and likely contains
a. prototypes. c. beliefs.
b. exemplars. d. all of the above.

 

 

REF:               Concepts: Putting the Pieces Together

OBJ:   9.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Compare and contrast the prototype and exemplar theories of categorization. How do they differ? How are they similar? Which one most accurately describes how categorization works?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   A Combination of Exemplars and Prototypes

OBJ:   9.1 | 9.3

 

  1. Describe the procedures of the sentence verification task and the production task. Would you expect to see any similarities across the results of these two tasks?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Testing the Prototype Notion                     OBJ:   9.2

 

 

  1. Are basic-level categories the same as prototypes? Why or why not?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Basic-Level Categories       OBJ:               9.2

 

 

  1. Generally, typicality can be used to determine category membership; however, there are exceptions to this rule. Provide an example of an object that is very typical of a category but does not belong to the category. Using the concepts described in the book, explain why it is perceived as belonging to the group and then explain why it would not be categorized as a group member.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Difficulties with Categorizing via Resemblance

OBJ:   9.4

 

  1. Describe how one’s thinking about categories changes across one’s lifetime by comparing categorization in children and adults. In what ways does categorization change as we age?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Differences between Typicality and Categorization

OBJ:   9.4 | 9.5

 

  1. Reisberg notes that our beliefs influence our categories, and our categories influence our beliefs. Explain what he means by this by providing an example that supports each assertion.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Inferences Based on Theories                   OBJ:   9.6

 

 

  1. Describe the physiological evidence surrounding categories from studies using fMRI and patients with brain damage. What does this evidence tell us about the nature of categorization in the mind and brain?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Concepts as Theories                                OBJ:               9.7

 

 

  1. Describe the rationale, procedure, and results of Collins and Quillian’s (1969) seminal study. Why was this study important?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Traveling through the Network to Retrieve Knowledge

OBJ:   9.8

 

  1. Describe the basic organization of a knowledge network, and provide specific examples of the organization by considering the concept “chicken.” Make sure you include the appropriate propositions in your description.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Propositional Networks                  OBJ:   9.8 | 9.9

 

 

  1. Assuming a PDP framework, describe the process by which the concept “Mike Tyson is a boxer” would be updated to “Mike Tyson is an actor.”

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Knowledge Network                OBJ:   9.10

 

Chapter 10: Language

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. If you put your fingers on your throat and produce a “z” sound, you will feel vibration. This vibration means the “z” sound is
a. a fricative.
b. nasal.
c. dependent on airflow from the nasal cavity.
d. voiced.

 

 

REF:               The Production of Speech

OBJ:   10.1

 

  1. In some speech sounds, the flow of air out of the lungs is entirely interrupted for a moment; for other sounds, the flow of air is restricted but air continues to flow. This feature of sound production is referred to as
a. place of articulation. c. voicing.
b. manner of production. d. speech locus.

 

 

REF:   The Production of Speech

OBJ:   10.1

 

  1. To produce some sounds, the flow of air out of the lungs is interrupted by the lips; for other sounds, the flow is disrupted by the placement of the tongue and teeth. This feature of sound production is referred to as
a. place of articulation. c. voicing.
b. manner of production. d. speech locus.

 

 

REF:   The Production of Speech

OBJ:   10.1

 

  1. Phonemes that differ only in one production feature sound similar to each other, while phonemes that differ in several production features sound distinct. This suggests all of the following EXCEPT that
a. the features of speech production correspond to what listeners hear when listening to speech.
b. production and perception are linked.
c. errors are more likely when production features are more similar.
d. listeners should be able to detect speech sounds simply by isolating individual sounds.

 

 

REF:               The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.1

 

  1. The process of “slicing” the stream of speech into successive syllables or words is called
a. sound segregation. c. categorical perception.
b. speech segmentation. d. articulation.

 

 

REF:               The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.1

 

  1. The study of the sounds used in language is usually referred to as
a. phonology. c. morphology.
b. semantics. d. acoustics.

 

 

REF:               Phonology                OBJ:   10.2

 

 

  1. The plural for the word “pill” is pronounced with a “z” sound (it is pronounced “pillz”), but the plural for “pit” is pronounced with an “s” sound (“pits”). This contrast is governed by a rule of
a. syntax. c. phonology.
b. semantics. d. pragmatics.

 

 

REF:               The Production of Speech

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. In ordinary speech production, the boundaries between syllables or between words are usually
a. marked by momentary pauses.
b. marked by slight loudness changes.
c. marked by slight changes in pitch.
d. not marked, so they must be determined by the perceiver.

 

 

REF:   The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. You are flipping through channels when you come upon a French-speaking station. You do not speak French and you are amazed at how quickly it is spoken. Which of the following factors is most important to your perception?
a. You are not able to segment the speech sounds into phonemes, making it sound faster.
b. You are not able to produce the speech, therefore you cannot perceive it correctly.
c. You do not know the appropriate pronunciation or syntax rules in French.
d. French phonemes overlap more than English phonemes, making it sound faster.

 

 

REF:   The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. Speech in a foreign language sounds very fast to a listener who is not familiar with the language. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately explain this fact?
a. Coarticulation makes speech seem slower in our own language, but not in a foreign language.
b. Unfamiliar listeners lack the skill necessary to segment the speech stream.
c. All speech is really an uninterrupted flow of sound.
d. Top-down knowledge facilitates perception and understanding of speech in a native language, but not in a foreign language.

 

 

REF:   The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. “Coarticulation” refers to the fact that in producing speech
a. the movement of the tongue and lips must be carefully coordinated with the output of air from the lungs.
b. phonemes overlap, both in their production and in their sound pattern.
c. a single position of the tongue is used for several different speech sounds.
d. the tongue must be moved into its appropriate position simultaneously with the positioning of the teeth and lips.

 

 

REF:               The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. The perception of speech is made easier by all of the following EXCEPT that
a. there is impressively little variation from one speaker to the next.
b. the content of the speech we hear is often predictable on the basis of knowledge external to language.
c. the content of the speech we hear is often predictable because of the rules guiding which sounds go together.
d. most of the speech we hear employs a relatively small number of words, used over and over again.

 

 

REF:   Aids to Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. Marcus is talking on the phone to his mother when a garbage truck drives by. As a result, he is unable to hear what his mom is saying for a few seconds. Which of the following is LEAST likely to help him figure out what his mother said?
a. previous knowledge of his mother’s opinions and beliefs
b. his memory for the beginning of the sentence she was speaking when cut off
c. the context of the conversation
d. the fact that our minds fill in missing words, which is called the phonemic restoration effect

 

 

REF:               Aids to Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. Often extraneous noise interferes with our ability to hear all speech sounds. If a brief burst of noise prevents a phoneme from being heard (e.g., “His *ame is Barry”), what is most likely to occur?
a. The listener will not understand the sentence.
b. The listener will be able to understand the sentence and will not realize that the burst of noise occurred.
c. The listener will be able to understand the sentence and will realize that a burst of noise occurred but will not know where the burst occurred.
d. The listener will be able to understand the sentence, will realize that a burst of noise occurred, and will know exactly which phoneme was missing.

 

 

REF:   Aids to Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. The term “categorical perception” refers to the fact that we are
a. better at hearing some categories of sounds than we are at hearing other categories.
b. skillful both in identifying categories of sounds and in categorizing the physical characteristics of those sounds.
c. better at hearing the difference between sounds from different categories than we are at distinguishing sounds from the same category.
d. highly sensitive to variations within a category but less sensitive to the contrast between categories.

 

 

REF:   Categorical Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. A researcher creates a series of synthetic speech sounds gradually ranging, in uniformly small steps, from a “ta” sound at one extreme to a “da” sound at the other extreme. Participants are asked to identify each of these sounds. The researcher should expect to find that
a. as the sounds gradually shift from “ta” to “da,” participants’ pattern of responding gradually shifts from “ta” to “da.”
b. participants identify sounds close to “ta” as “ta” and identify sounds close to “da” as “da,” but they are unable to identify the sounds midway between the two.
c. participants’ identification of the sounds midway between a standard “ta” and a standard “da” are heavily influenced by the identity of the sound they heard just previously.
d. participants’ perceptions of the sounds show an abrupt transition, with all of the sounds closer to “ta” clearly identified as “ta” and all of the sounds closer to “da” clearly identified as “da.”

 

 

REF:   Categorical Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. The term “voice-onset time” refers to the
a. age at which infants begin to produce vocal sounds.
b. time that elapses between successive syllables in ordinary speech.
c. average length of the pause between two people’s utterances in a conversation.
d. amount of time that elapses between the moment air begins to flow at the start of speech sound and the moment at which voicing begins.

 

 

REF:               Categorical Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. Which of these is NOT true of the principles of language?
a. A huge number of morphemes, words, and sentences can be created from only a few small units of language.
b. The various combinations of units within a language are governed by certain principles (e.g., “gst” is not a usual combination in the English language).
c. If a combination of consonants is forbidden in one particular language (e.g., “tl” at the beginning of a word in the English language), then it is also forbidden in every other language.
d. In order to speak a language, people must know the principles that govern the phonological combinations, as well as the vocabulary and grammar.

 

 

REF:   Combining Phonemes

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. In the word “cats” the “s” is
a. a morpheme.
b. a phoneme.
c. a morpheme and a phoneme.
d. neither a morpheme nor a phoneme.

 

 

REF:   The Organization of Language

OBJ:   10.3

 

  1. The smallest units of language that carry meaning are called
a. morphemes. c. phonetic elements.
b. phonemes. d. words.

 

 

REF:               The Organization of Language

OBJ:   10.3

 

  1. The number of phonemes used by the English language is approximately
a. 8. c. 150.
b. 40. d. several thousand.

 

 

REF:   The Organization of Language

OBJ:   10.3

 

  1. For fluent speakers of a language, rules of the language such as how to create new words are often
a. deliberately followed by speakers of a language.
b. developed through imitation.
c. unconscious yet are reliably followed by speakers of the language.
d. generally ignored.

 

 

REF:               Building New Words

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. The claim that “language is generative” is the claim that
a. it is always possible to generate new sounds to add to the language.
b. the units of language can be combined and recombined to create vast numbers of new linguistic entities.
c. language can be used to generate new knowledge and new discoveries.
d. scholars have been able to invent an unlimited number of new words, allowing them to express any concept they wish.

 

 

REF:   Building New Words

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. Bob does very well on all of his English papers and is praised for his skilled writing. However, when he is around his friends he says things like “ain’t” and “like” often, though his sentences are still grammatical. When writing he is following ________, while when speaking he is following ________.
a. prescriptive rules; prohibitive rules
b. syntax; descriptive rules
c. prescriptive rules; descriptive rules
d. prescriptive rules; linguistic universals

 

 

REF:   Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. Rules that describe the proper way to speak, or the way language is supposed to be, are called
a. rules of discourse. c. prescriptive rules.
b. pragmatic rules. d. syntax rules.

 

 

REF:               Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. Descriptive rules
a. make “proper” or “good” judgments about language.
b. are much like prescriptive rules.
c. are mostly used by new speakers who do not yet understand slang or common expressions.
d. describe how English is structured.

 

 

REF:   Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE about the pattern of linguistic performance?
a. Performance often contains errors that the speaker knows how to correct.
b. Performance provides a direct assessment of the extent of one’s linguistic knowledge.
c. Performance is influenced by slips, or mistakes, in language.
d. Performance often omits language patterns that the speaker is able to use but chooses not to use.

 

 

REF:   Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. The rules governing the sequence of words in forming phrases and sentences are rules of
a. syntax. c. phonology.
b. semantics. d. pragmatics.

 

 

REF:               Syntax                      OBJ:   10.5

 

 

  1. Sentences such as “Colorless green ideas sleep furiously” indicate that
a. not all sentences need to have a verb phrase.
b. it is possible for a sentence to have an irregular phrase structure.
c. the semantic content of a sentence governs its syntactic form.
d. a sentence can be grammatical even if it is meaningless.

 

 

REF:   Syntax           OBJ:   10.5

 

 

  1. A phrase-structure rule is a rule governing
a. whether a proposition is expressed as a declarative sentence or as a question.
b. whether a proposition is true or false.
c. what the constituents must be for any syntactic element of a sentence.
d. what contents can be expressed by a sentence.

 

 

REF:   Phrase Structure

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. The phrase-structure rule summarizes the fact that
a. whenever a sentence is uttered, it must be followed by a noun phrase and a verb phrase.
b. the subject of a sentence must specify both a noun phrase and a verb phrase.
c. a sentence can consist of either a noun phrase or a verb phrase.
d. a sentence consists of a noun phrase followed by a verb phrase.

 

 

REF:   Phrase Structure

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Which of the following claims about phrase-structure rules is FALSE?
a. The rules govern the pattern of branching that is possible in a phrase-structure tree.
b. The rules determine whether the sentence is true or false.
c. Word sequences that break the rules are likely to be judged as ungrammatical.
d. The rules identify natural groupings of words within a sentence.

 

 

REF:   Phrase Structure

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Which of the following provides an example of phrase-structure ambiguity?
a. I saw the bear with my binoculars. (Who had the binoculars?)
b. He paid a lot for the ball. (Was it a round toy or a formal party?)
c. She loves a good whine. (This can be heard as “a good wine.”)
d. We saw it. (The reference of “it” is unspecified.)

 

 

REF:               The Function of Phrase Structure

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. The fact that languages across the world show the same pattern of regularities leads researchers to believe that
a. the pattern of learning across cultures is similar.
b. our vocal muscles determine our language development.
c. we have an innate biological heritage stipulating the structure of human language.
d. the word order of subject–verb–object occurs in all languages.

 

 

REF:               The Function of Phrase Structure

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. To parse a sentence, one needs to
a. figure out the sentence’s meaning.
b. determine whether the sentence is true or false.
c. determine the syntactic role of each word in the sentence.
d. determine the implications of the sentence.

 

 

REF:               Sentence Parsing

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a principle that guides sentence parsing?
a. Decisions about the parsing of individual words are not made until the entire sentence has been heard.
b. In general, we assume that the sentences we hear will be in the active, not passive, voice.
c. Parsing makes use of the small function words (e.g., “that” and “which”) to identify the sentence’s phrase structure.
d. The semantics of the sentence are used as an aid in determining the source of the action and the recipient.

 

 

REF:   Sentence Parsing

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Which of the following would be considered a garden-path sentence?
a. This is it.
b. Dogs need cats are silly.
c. The woman was terribly happy, but she knew it couldn’t last for long, because for as long as she could possibly remember everything in her life had ended badly.
d. Fat people eat accumulates.

 

 

REF:               Garden Paths

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Garden-path sentences illustrate that
a. reading is difficult.
b. interpreting a sentence as each word arrives may lead to errors.
c. meaning changes depending on the situation.
d. we should wait until the end of a sentence to interpret the meaning.

 

 

REF:               Garden Paths

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. In one study of sentence parsing, electroencephalogram (EEG) was used to record electrical activity when participants heard sentences that were either correct, had a semantic anomaly, or had a statement that contained false information. The evidence from that study suggests that
a. electrical activity is the same, regardless of the content of the sentence.
b. our previous knowledge of the world influences how we parse sentences.
c. errors in syntax are worse than errors of semantics.
d. incorrect statements are associated with lower levels of brain activity than correct statements.

 

 

REF:   Syntax as a Guide to Parsing

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. Parsing is LEAST likely to be influenced by
a. semantics.
b. statistical probabilities in the language.
c. context.
d. the number of words in a sentence.

 

 

REF:   Background Knowledge as a Guide to Parsing

OBJ:   10.5

 

  1. In some cases factors outside the language (e.g., the setting in which a sentence occurs) can help us understand garden-path sentences. These factors are referred to as
a. syntactic organization. c. wording.
b. noun phrasing. d. extralinguistic context.

 

 

REF:               The Extralinguistic Context

OBJ:   10.6

 

  1. In speaking, the pattern of pauses and the rise and fall of pitch are technically referred to as
a. prosody. c. stress patterns.
b. musicality. d. expressiveness.

 

 

REF:               The Use of Language: What Is Left Unsaid

OBJ:   10.6

 

  1. Knowing about how language is ordinarily used is technically called
a. pronominalization. c. pragmatics.
b. conversational implications. d. psycholinguistics.

 

 

REF:               The Use of Language: What Is Left Unsaid

OBJ:   10.6

 

  1. Barbara is 6 years old and has normal intelligence and muscle control, but she has a hard time understanding and producing language. She likely has
a. Broca’s aphasia. c. Wernicke’s aphasia.
b. anomia. d. specific language impairment.

 

 

REF:   The Biological Roots of Language

OBJ:   10.7

 

  1. Nonfluent aphasia, in which a patient has good language comprehension but disrupted speech production, is typically associated with damage to
a. the corpus callosum. c. Wernicke’s area.
b. Broca’s area. d. the sensorimotor area.

 

 

REF:   Aphasias        OBJ:   10.7

 

 

  1. Mike suffered damage to the left frontal lobe of his brain and now has a difficult time speaking or writing. Mike most likely has
a. Wernicke’s aphasia. c. Broca’s aphasia.
b. fluent aphasia. d. anomia.

 

 

REF:   Aphasias        OBJ:   10.7

 

 

  1. Stephen and Stephanie both have problems with speech. Stephen’s disorder is characterized with speech such as, “Um . . . the . . . ahhh . . . I want . . . green . . . it’s green. . . .” Stephanie’s disorder is characterized with speech such as, “It is easy because . . . boys are looking but they look . . . see the cat is with the boys and machines and purple.” Stephen is most likely suffering from ________ while Stephanie is suffering from ________.
a. Wernicke’s aphasia; Broca’s aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia; specific language impairment
c. Broca’s aphasia; Wernicke’s aphasia
d. specific language impairment; Broca’s aphasia

 

 

REF:               Aphasias                  OBJ:   10.7

 

 

  1. Research has shown that genetic factors contribute to language acquisition. For example, some people have an inherited syndrome known as specific language impairment. These people typically
a. have underdeveloped muscles needed for speech production.
b. have damage to Wernicke’s area.
c. are less likely to learn and use the rules of linguistics.
d. also show an impairment in intelligence.

 

 

REF:   The Biology of Language Learning

OBJ:   10.8

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT consistent with the idea that children learn language even if their communication with adults is not linguistic?
a. Children born deaf without the opportunity to learn sign language invent their own gestural language.
b. Humans begin the language-learning process with a head start.
c. Children have the brain structures in place at birth to facilitate language learning.
d. Children learn languages more quickly than adults.

 

 

REF:               The Biology of Language Learning

OBJ:   10.8

 

  1. The text argues that children’s overregularization errors are caused by a(n)
a. immature brain.
b. overreliance on a linguistic rule that precedes a mature understanding of when rules apply.
c. loss of previous understanding of irregular forms of words.
d. lack of (even unconscious) understanding of linguistic rules.

 

 

REF:   The Processes of Language Learning

OBJ:   10.8

 

  1. Linguistic rules seem to be the source of children’s overregularization errors. This sort of error is visible, for example, whenever a child
a. uses a regular sequence of words to express an idea even though a different sequence would be more effective.
b. sees a squirrel and says, “There’s a cat!”
c. says, “I goed,” or, “He runned.”
d. fails to distinguish between similar speech sounds.

 

 

REF:   The Processes of Language Learning

OBJ:   10.8

 

  1. Unlike other forms of animal communication, human communication includes
a. sounds that are linked to ideas. c. someone to listen.
b. syntax. d. gestures.

 

 

REF:   Animal Language

OBJ:   10.9

 

  1. The evidence about animal language suggests that
a. animals do not communicate.
b. no animals, besides humans, can learn language.
c. some animals can use language at a very basic level (akin to a three- or four-year-old).
d. with enough training, some animals can acquire language skills similar to a human adult.

 

 

REF:   Animal Language

OBJ:   10.9

 

  1. Although we may contain the necessary neural substrates for language, humans will NOT develop language skill unless they
a. have another human with whom to communicate.
b. attend school.
c. reach the critical age of five.
d. are exposed to music.

 

 

REF:   Animal Language

OBJ:   10.9

 

  1. In the 1950s, the anthropologist Benjamin Whorf argued that our language determines the possible range of our thoughts. In subsequent decades, Whorf’s theories
a. have been repeatedly supported, with examples coming from many different content areas.
b. have been supported by the discovery that different cultures describe spatial arrangements in different ways and seem unable to learn new ways to describe these arrangements.
c. have found little specific support, with the implication that language may guide our thoughts and memories but does not influence what it is possible for us to think.
d. seem correct for some domains (e.g., color perception) but not for other domains (e.g., thinking about spatial relations).

 

 

REF:   Language and Thought

OBJ:   10.10

 

  1. Participant M speaks a language with a variety of color words, while Participant Q speaks a language that only differentiates between light and dark. Who is more likely to have more specific color discrimination?
a. Participant M
b. Participant Q
c. They will have equal color perception.
d. We cannot tell based on this evidence.

 

 

REF:   Linguistic Relativity

OBJ:   10.10

 

  1. The notion that language influences thought, called linguistic relativity, is controversial because
a. there is debate about the role that memory plays in linguistic relativity.
b. much of the supportive evidence can be explained via attention mechanisms.
c. the evidence supporting it is probably forged.
d. it is nearly impossible to test accurately.

 

 

REF:   Linguistic Relativity

OBJ:   10.10

 

  1. Lindsie, a three-year-old, is being taught English and Spanish at the same time. Which of the following facts about Lindsie’s language acquisition is true?
a. Lindsie will learn one language more quickly than the other language.
b. Lindsie will likely become confused and mix up the languages.
c. Lindsie will learn both languages as quickly and easily as she would if she was learning just one language.
d. Lindsie will not be able to learn two languages simultaneously.

 

 

REF:   Bilingualism   OBJ:   10.11

 

 

  1. There is some evidence that being bilingual has other cognitive advantages. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?
a. improved executive control
b. better at avoiding distraction
c. improved ability to switch between tasks
d. improved long-term memory for everyday events

 

 

REF:   Bilingualism   OBJ:   10.11

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Do chimpanzees have the biological ability to produce language the way that humans do? Consider both the cerebral and anatomical requirements in your answer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Biological Roots of Language            OBJ:   10.1 | 10.9

 

 

  1. It was noted that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between speech production and speech perception, which should make perceiving speech very difficult. Describe the factors that contribute to this problem, and then describe the factors that can facilitate our ability to perceive speech.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.2

 

  1. You are enjoying lunch with a friend on a patio one fine spring afternoon. Right in the middle of her sentence, a loud motorcycle speeds by, preventing you from hearing a key word. However, you don’t notice the obstruction. Explain how this happens, from a speech perception perspective.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Aids to Speech Perception  OBJ:               10.2

 

 

  1. You take a trip to Mexico with your friend for spring break. You do not speak any Spanish, but your friend has taken one semester. While out one night, you comment that everyone in Mexico speaks so quickly, but your friend disagrees. Considering the fact that you both hear the same individuals talking, why do you perceive the speech so differently? What factors contribute to your friend’s perception and to your perception?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Complexity of Speech Perception

OBJ:   10.3 | 10.11

 

  1. It is likely that you speak very differently to your grandmother than you do to your friends. Define the rules that govern your language choices, and describe how the situation influences which rules you use.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Prescriptive Rules, Descriptive Rules

OBJ:   10.4

 

  1. Explain why a sentence like “The man who hunts ducks out on the weekends” is likely to be initially misinterpreted by many readers.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Garden Paths                                             OBJ:   10.5

 

 

  1. Describe the various ways that top-down processing contributes to speech perception. How can this occasionally lead us astray?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Sentence Parsing                 OBJ:               10.6

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the linguistic functions of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. Include in your discussion the physiological correlates of the areas and the subsequent behavioral changes that are associated with damage to the areas.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Biological Roots of Language            OBJ:   10.7

 

 

  1. Describe the factors that contribute to language learning in children. What factors facilitate language learning? What factors or tendencies can lead to problems?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Biological Roots of Language            OBJ:   10.8

 

 

  1. A friend of yours is thinking of enrolling his four-year-old in a bilingual preschool, wherein the children are taught in English and in Mandarin. Would you support this move, and why? Make sure you include empirical evidence in your answer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

 

 

Chapter 11: Visual Knowledge

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A psychologist asks her experimental participants to describe their experiences in using mental imagery. The psychologist is collecting
a. sentence-verification results.
b. self-report data.
c. chronometric evidence.
d. converging evidence.

 

 

REF:               Introspections about Images

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. When participants are asked to report on their imagery experience, we discover that
a. imagery is employed less often than researchers have proposed.
b. many individuals prefer not to use mental imagery.
c. participants differ widely in how they describe the experience.
d. visual imagery is a skill shared by all people.

 

 

REF:   Introspections about Images

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. Chronometric studies
a. are time-measuring techniques used to record how long it takes to fulfill a mental process.
b. have been relatively uninformative for the study of complex mental events.
c. have documented the descriptive (language-like) properties of mental imagery.
d. require an understanding of the brain events underlying a particular mental function.

 

 

REF:               Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. Participants are given a task that requires them to zoom in on a mental image in order to inspect a detail. Evidence indicates that
a. the greater the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required.
b. the shorter the distance to be zoomed, the more time is required.
c. zooming in on an image is a virtually instantaneous process.
d. there is no regular relationship between the amount of zoom and the time required.

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. One group of participants is instructed to imagine a cat and the participants are then asked several yes/no questions about their image. A second group of participants is instructed simply to think about cats, with no mention of imagery, and the participants are then asked the same yes/no questions. We expect that participants responding on the basis of the image will respond more quickly to which of the following questions?
a. Does the cat have a head?
b. Does the cat have whiskers?
c. Is the cat a mammal?
d. Does the cat have claws?

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. Studies of image scanning indicate that
a. participants’ scanning rate is slow for short distances but is faster for greater distances.
b. there is a linear function linking scanning distances and scanning times.
c. the fastest scanning times tend to be obtained with  scanning distances.
d. participants are able to scan across their images virtually instantaneously.

 

 

REF:               Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. Matt is shown two complex three-dimensional images (A and B) and asked to determine if the images are identical. The images are aligned in different planes, so answering the question requires mentally rotating one of the images. Which of the following statements about Matt’s task is true?
a. The larger the required the rotation, the faster responding will be.
b. The smaller the required rotation, the slower responding will be.
c. The time it takes will be the same, regardless of the required rotation.
d. There is a systematic correlation between the required rotation and reaction time.

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.1

 

  1. If participants are asked to imagine an object, such as a dog, information that will be prominent if the mental image
a. tends to concern aspects that are strongly associated with, or distinctive for, the imaged object.
b. matches the pattern of information prominent in a description of the imaged object.
c. corresponds well with the information that is prominent in an actual picture.
d. is similar to the information prominent in other forms of mental representation.

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.2

 

  1. Which of the following claims is true for a depiction of a cat but NOT for a description of a cat?
a. Properties strongly associated with the cat (e.g., whiskers) will be particularly prominent.
b. The distinctive features of the cat (e.g., claws) will be particularly prominent.
c. Aspects of the cat that are obvious (e.g., the fact that the cat has a body) are likely not to be prominent.
d. The cat’s head will probably be prominent, but the cat’s claws are likely not to be.

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.2

 

  1. A researcher asks a participant to memorize a city map. On the map, the library and the school are 2 inches apart; the school and the hospital are 4 inches apart. The researcher now instructs the participant to form an image of the map and to scan from the library to the school. The researcher then asks the participant to scan from the school to the hospital. It is most likely true that the scanning time from the school to the hospital is ________ the scanning time between the library and the school.
a. half c. the same as
b. triple d. double

 

 

REF:   Chronometric Studies of Imagery

OBJ:   11.2

 

  1. Studies of mental rotation indicate that
a. participants are able to imagine the rotation of a two-dimensional display but are unable to imagine rotation in depth.
b. the greater the degree of rotation required, the more time is needed to complete the rotation.
c. participants seem able to compare objects in mental imagery without bothering to imagine these objects rotated into alignment.
d. imagined rotation in depth is appreciably faster than imagined rotation in two dimensions.

 

 

REF:   Mental Rotation

OBJ:   11.2

 

  1. In some studies, participants have been asked to visualize a particular stimulus (e.g., the letter A). If the same stimulus is then presented at low contrast, visualization
a. has no effect on the perception of the stimulus.
b. primes perception, but no more than when participants were asked to visualize a different letter (e.g., the letter B).
c. disrupts perception of the stimulus.
d. serves to prime perception of the stimulus.

 

 

REF:   Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.3

 

  1. Segal and Fusella asked their participants to visualize one stimulus while attempting to detect a different, rather faint, signal. The data indicate that the activity of visualization
a. disrupted the detection of a visual signal but had much less impact on the detection of an auditory signal.
b. served to prime the visual system and the auditory system, promoting the detection of both signals.
c. served as a general distracter, thereby disrupting the detection of either a visual or an auditory signal.
d. had no impact on the detection of the signal.

 

 

REF:               Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.3

 

  1. Bobby wants to be a “good participant,” so he tries to perform in a way that will impress the experimenter. Bobby is sensitive to the
a. demand character. c. internal validity.
b. external validity. d. experimental demands.

 

 

REF:   The Concern about Demand Character

OBJ:   11.4

 

  1. In some cases, participants (often unknowingly) change their responses to what they think that the experimenter is looking for. Here participants are said to be sensitive to the ________ of the experiment.
a. demand character c. implicit hypothesis
b. imagined response d. mental weightings

 

 

REF:               The Concern about Demand Character

OBJ:   11.4

 

  1. Studies of moment-by-moment brain activity indicate that
a. the activity of visualization produces widespread activation of the brain, particularly in the left hemisphere.
b. the brain regions needed for visualization are distinct from the brain regions needed for actual vision.
c. when participants are visualizing, activity levels are high in brain regions also crucial for visual perception.
d. different people employ different brain areas to support their visualizing.

 

 

REF:               Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. Damage to brain areas needed for vision
a. usually has little impact on visualizing.
b. generally has opposite effects on visualizing and on vision.
c. is likely to destroy altogether the patient’s ability to visualize.
d. often has disruptive effects for visualizing similar to the disruption observed for visual perception.

 

 

REF:               Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. The technique of transcranial magnetic stimulation employs strong magnetic pulses at a particular site on the scalp. When it is used on the scalp near Area V1, the effect is
a. to give the participant rich and detailed hallucinations.
b. a temporary disruption of vision but not visual imagery.
c. a permanent disruption of visual imagery, and therefore use of the technique is unethical.
d. a temporary disruption of vision and visual imagery.

 

 

REF:   Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. Bradley has visual neglect. He is asked to imagine he is looking at the front of his home and to describe everything that he can see. His response will be
a. very detailed for the entire scene.
b. very detailed for the left side of the scene.
c. detailed for the right half of the scene.
d. based on his schema of a house, not his own house.

 

 

REF:               Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. Evidence from fMRI studies indicates that people show similar patterns of activity in the brain when viewing objects as they do when ________ the objects.
a. visualizing c. interacting with
b. talking about d. avoiding thinking about

 

 

REF:               Visual Imagery and the Brain

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. The ________ face area of the visual cortex is highly active for faces, while the ________ place area is highly active for places.
a. fusiform; fusiform c. parahippocampal; fusiform
b. fusiform; parahippocampal d. ventral; dorsal

 

 

REF:               Visual Imagery and the Brain

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. ________ imagery is associated with how things look, while ________ imagery is associated with an abstract form or arrangement.
a. Spatial; visual c. Spatial; eidetic
b. Visual; spatial d. Sensory; perceptual

 

 

REF:               Spatial Images and Visual Images

OBJ:   11.6

 

  1. Participants are asked to perform an imagery task while simultaneously keeping track of a visual target (a light that varies in brightness). The visual task will
a. disrupt the imagery task.
b. have no effect on the imagery task.
c. disrupt the imagery task if it requires visual imagery but not if the task can be done with spatial imagery.
d. cause the images to be less vivid but will have no other effects.

 

 

REF:   Spatial Images and Visual Images

OBJ:   11.6

 

  1. Mona has been blind since birth. Which of the following is most likely true about her visual abilities?
a. Her imagery abilities, like her other senses, are superior to those of sighted individuals.
b. Her performance on imagery tasks is similar to the performance of sighted individuals.
c. She will be unable to perform most tasks requiring mental imagery.
d. She will be unable to perform mental imagery tasks, unlike participants who lost their sight gradually over time.

 

 

REF:   Spatial Images and Visual Images

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Brian is a person with brain damage who has lost the ability to do most visual tasks, including tasks requiring him to think about an object’s color. On the basis of other evidence, it is likely that Brian
a. may still be able to perform normally on spatial tasks.
b. will also be unable to do auditory tasks, including tasks requiring him to think about pitch.
c. will also be unable to do image scanning.
d. will also be unable to perform mental rotation tasks.

 

 

REF:   Spatial Images and Visual Images

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Participants’ self-reports about their imagery vividness
a. are correlated with their performances on visual tasks but not with their performances on spatial tasks.
b. are generally uncorrelated with their performances on imagery tasks.
c. seem to represent only the manner in which participants describe their imagery and do not represent actual differences in the imagery experience.
d. are correlated with the ease with which participants can do mental rotation tasks.

 

 

REF:               Individual Differences

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Studies of individual differences in mental imagery ability indicate that
a. women tend to be poorer in visual skills than men.
b. individuals seem not to differ with regard to their imagery skills.
c. “good” imagers do well on all imagery tasks, while “less good” imagers have a consistent disadvantage in every imagery task.
d. each individual has his or her own profile of imagery skills that he or she can do well and skills that he or she does poorly.

 

 

REF:   Individual Differences

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Truly photographic memory is called
a. long-term memory. c. perfect perception.
b. perfect pitch. d. eidetic imagery.

 

 

REF:   Eidetic Imagery

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Hank is an eidetic imager. This means that after viewing an image for a very short amount of time, he will
a. be able to describe the image pretty well.
b. draw the image in amazing detail, as if it were a photograph.
c. use mnemonic techniques to describe the gist of the image.
d. not be able to remember the image at all.

 

 

REF:   Eidetic Imagery

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. If you are asked to imagine a three-dimensional cube, like a Necker cube, that is ambiguous with respect to depth, your mental image will be
a. based on one configuration or the other.
b. able to be viewed from several angles, just as the picture would be.
c. indeterminate with regard to depth.
d. static and incapable of being altered.

 

 

REF:   Images Are Not Pictures

OBJ:   11.7

 

  1. Information about an image is stored as a “package” made up of both the perceptual frame of reference and
a. information on the relative size of the image.
b. the depiction of the image.
c. information as to whether the item is ambiguous.
d. verbal labels of the image.

 

 

REF:               Images Are Not Pictures

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. The text considers various arguments concerning pictures and percepts. According to the text, pictures are
a. depictions and percepts are descriptions.
b. descriptions and percepts are depictions.
c. ambiguous and percepts are organized and thus unambiguous.
d. organized and thus unambiguous and percepts are ambiguous.

 

 

REF:   Images Are Not Pictures

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. Evidence indicates that
a. discoveries flow easily from mental imagery provided that the discoveries are compatible with both the image’s depiction and its reference frame.
b. mental imagery rarely serves as a source for creative discovery.
c. participants are not able to find new forms in their own mental images.
d. participants have an easier time making discoveries from their own mental images if the discoveries require a shift in the image’s reference frame.

 

 

REF:               Images Are Not Pictures

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. When imagining an object, it is often difficult to reimagine that object as something else. For example, an ambiguous picture could be interpreted as a duck or a rabbit, but when imagining it, people will see only the duck or the rabbit, not both. Hints such as, “Try thinking about the form from the right,” can help people to see both aspects of the image. Why would this hint help?
a. This hint alters the image’s reference frame.
b. This hint encourages rotating the object.
c. This hint facilitates understanding of the object.
d. This hint acts like a new retrieval pathway for the object.

 

 

REF:               Images Are Not Pictures

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. Researchers have argued that visual images are created by
a. activating large-scale “templates” in long-term memory.
b. following “recipes” for the image construction, with the recipes drawn from image files in long-term memory.
c. activating the relevant neurons on the retina.
d. activating nodes within long-term memory that happen to be associated with sensory information.

 

 

REF:               Image Information in Long-Term Memory

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. “Image file” refers to
a. the information that can be derived from a close inspection of a mental image.
b. the portion of long-term storage that contains all of one’s knowledge about visual appearances.
c. the memory representation of a basic element of visual appearance, such as the representation for “red” or “circular.”
d. descriptive information in long-term memory used as the basis for creating an active image.

 

 

REF:   Image Information in Long-Term Memory

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. The text argues that image files in long-term memory
a. are distinctive because special processes (like scanning or zooming) operate on them.
b. hold large-scale “templates” indicating how the imaged form looks.
c. contain the instructions needed to create a mental image.
d. usually contain a picture-like representation of an image.

 

 

REF:   Image Information in Long-Term Memory

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. When asked to determine which city is farther south, Seattle or Montreal, people are likely to mistakenly say “Seattle.” This is probably because
a. people depend on their “gut feelings” when they don’t know an answer.
b. some spatial information is stored in memory in a propositional form rather than an image form.
c. people are great at reading visual images and can discover surprising facts in them.
d. people are miserably bad at reading visual images, and so images are no help in this type of problem.

 

 

REF:               Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. In a memory experiment, participants were shown a form that could be interpreted in more than one way. Half the participants were told, “Here is a picture of the sun.” The other participants were told, “Here is a picture of a ship’s steering wheel.” Sometime later, participants were asked to draw the exact form they had seen earlier. The data indicate that
a. participants’ visual memories were distinct from their verbal memories, so participants were uninfluenced by the labels.
b. participants’ drawings were biased in a fashion that reflected the labels that they had been given earlier.
c. the labels had called attention to the ambiguity of the figures, leading to improved memory accuracy.
d. participants were able to remember only the labels, not the drawings.

 

 

REF:   Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. Homer, Lisa, and Moe are asked to remember pairs of words. Homer tries to accomplish this task by rehearsing the words over and over again. Lisa decides to create a narrative combining the words together. Finally, Moe decides to imagine the objects interacting in some way. Who is likely to remember the items best?
a. Homer
b. Lisa
c. Moe
d. They will remember them equally well.

 

 

REF:   Imagery Helps Memory

OBJ:   11.8

 

  1. In this chapter, it was suggested that putting your thoughts into imagery can literally shape the flow and sequence of your ideas. What piece of evidence leads to this claim?
a. Images are stored in an organized fashion.
b. Creating an image in your mind causes some objects to be more prominent and other objects less prominent.
c. Visual and spatial imagery are separate.
d. Images are not pictures.

 

 

REF:               Images and Pictures: An Interim Summary

OBJ:   11.9

 

  1. It has been suggested that nodes in long-term memory can represent complete pictures, but this claim is no longer accepted. Which of the following pieces of evidence related to this claim is FALSE?
a. Images can be quite sketchy or very elaborate.
b. Images containing more parts take longer to create.
c. Images are stored in a piecemeal fashion.
d. Images containing more detail take less time to create.

 

 

REF:   Image Information in Long-Term Memory

OBJ:   11.9

 

  1. In memorizing new material, it is consistently helpful if one imagines the items
a. interacting with each other in some way.
b. in a typical situation.
c. close to each other but separated so that each is easily visible.
d. one by one so that the items do not blur together.

 

 

REF:               Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

OBJ:   11.9

 

  1. According to Paivio, a word like “chair” is ________ than a word like “faith.”
a. easier to memorize
b. more difficult to memorize
c. more easily confused with another word
d. easier to identify

 

 

REF:               Imagery Helps Memory

OBJ:   11.9

 

  1. Words that easily evoke imagery, like “ball,” are ________ relative to words like “hope.”
a. more easily remembered c. remembered equally as well
b. less easily remembered d. unlikely to be remembered

 

 

REF:   Imagery Helps Memory

OBJ:   11.9

 

  1. In memorizing new material, the pattern of “dual coding” refers to
a. the strategy of encoding the material from two separate visual perspectives.
b. the process of encoding the material on two separate occasions.
c. steps that lead to both a verbal memory and a visual memory.
d. the formation of a mental image in which the target item is in two separate relationships with its surrounding context.

 

 

REF:   Dual Coding  OBJ:   11.9

 

 

  1. Paivio and others have proposed that some types of knowledge are encoded in image-based representations and that other types of knowledge are stored in verbal form. In addition, they claim that
a. both forms of representation are more efficiently accessed with words as the memory cues.
b. the knowledge expressed in image-based representations cannot be expressed in verbal form.
c. information about semantic associations is more easily represented in the image-based format.
d. image-based knowledge is more efficiently accessed with a picture as the memory cue.

 

 

REF:               Dual Coding             OBJ:   11.9

 

 

  1. Visual information may be stored in memory via a verbal description of the previously viewed object. Memory can be improved when an appropriate label of description is available. This is consistent with which of the following themes about memory?
a. Memory is relatively robust to decay.
b. Memory benefits from understanding.
c. Memory varies across individuals.
d. Retrieval is key to successful memory.

 

 

REF:               Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Lisa and Katie are both using imagery mnemonics to try to remember the words “dog” and “Ferris wheel.” Lisa imagines a dog riding a Ferris wheel, while Katie remembers a person at a theme park walking her dog. Lisa’s strategy will
a. provide no benefit over Katie’s strategy.
b. improve her memory for both words because the mnemonic is bizarre.
c. hinder her ability to remember compared to Katie’s, because Lisa’s mnemonic makes no sense.
d. improve her ability to remember “Ferris wheel” but not “dog.”

 

 

REF:   Verbal Coding of Visual Materials

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Gertrude is shown a picture of a backyard and later asked to replicate the image by drawing it. When compared to the original, her drawing has a “zoomed out” perspective. This tendency is called
a. wide-angle memory. c. eidetic imagery.
b. larger context. d. boundary extension.

 

 

REF:               Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Memory for pictures
a. tends to be poor, and participants have difficulty remembering series of pictures that contain more than a dozen presentations.
b. shows an influence of schematic knowledge, just like memories of other sorts.
c. is not influenced by rehearsal.
d. is accurate even for elements of the picture that were not closely attended during the initial encoding.

 

 

REF:               Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. In one study on picture memory, researchers showed participants pictures of typical scenes, such as a bedroom. In each typical scene there were some unexpected objects (e.g., a washing machine). During the test, participants were shown the same scene with a few changes. Results from this study indicate that
a. participants rarely notice any changes in the scene.
b. only changes to the largest objects (the bed) were noticed.
c. changes to the unexpected objects were often noticed.
d. changes to the typical objects were usually noticed.

 

 

REF:   Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Which of following statements is FALSE about memory for pictures?
a. Picture memory benefits from rehearsal.
b. Picture memory is affected by schematic knowledge.
c. Picture memory can be affected by intrusion errors.
d. Picture memory does not show the primacy or recency effect.

 

 

REF:   Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. The concept of boundary extension illustrates that
a. people understand a picture by means of a perceptual schema.
b. schemas influence memory for images, but not as much as they influence memory for verbal information.
c. people remember pictures in a “zoomed-in” manner.
d. semantic knowledge has no influence on memory for images.

 

 

REF:   Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Which of the following phrases would best describe the notion of boundary extension?
a. “Think outside the box.”
b. “Think about the big picture.”
c. “Don’t believe everything you see.”
d. “Seeing is believing.”

 

 

REF:   Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Boundary extension suggests that, if given a picture of a classroom with a chalkboard, desks, and students, people are likely to
a. remember it as less of a close-up than it actually was, adding bookshelves on the side of the room.
b. include objects that were not part of the original scene, such as a teacher.
c. remember the salient objects, such as desks, but neglect the background, such as the chalkboard.
d. remember it with great accuracy.

 

 

REF:               Memory for Pictures

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. With respect to the storage of images, how are images different from other mental representations?
a. They are different in working memory, but not in long-term memory.
b. They are not different.
c. They are not susceptible to encoding specificity effects.
d. Memory for images is more complete relative to memory for other representations.

 

 

REF:   The Diversity of Knowledge

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Mentally zooming in and out of an image requires
a. working memory.
b. long-term memory.
c. working memory for zooming and long-term memory for representation of the image.
d. sensory memory for zooming and working memory for keeping the memory trace active.

 

 

REF:   The Diversity of Knowledge

OBJ:   11.10

 

  1. Taken together, the evidence about memory for images suggests that
a. representations in working memory are different than those in long-term memory.
b. we cannot store visual imagery in long-term memory.
c. schemas influence images in working memory more than long-term memory.
d. we can experience familiarity for imagery, but not source memory.

 

 

REF:               The Diversity of Knowledge

OBJ:   11.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. It is difficult to examine mental imagery because mental images cannot be tested directly. Describe the various experimental techniques that psychologists have used to study imagery. Include a brief description of the task and the basic findings.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Chronometric Studies of Imagery             OBJ:   11.1 | 11.2

 

 

  1. Describe the method and results from one chronometric study of visual imagery. Next, argue for or against the idea that demand characteristics could lead to that pattern of behavior and results.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Concern about Demand Character

OBJ:   11.1 | 11.4

 

  1. How do imagery and perception influence and interact with one another? Under what circumstances will they work together to facilitate processing and memory? Under what circumstances will they interfere with one another and potentially hinder processing? What does this tell us about the nature of imagery?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.3

 

  1. Compare and contrast imagery and perception. In what ways are they similar? How do they differ?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Interactions between Imagery and Perception

OBJ:   11.3

 

  1. David suffers from unilateral neglect. Name the area of the brain that is likely affected, and then describe visual and mental imagery abnormalities that he likely experiences.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Visual Imagery and Brain Disruption

OBJ:   11.5

 

  1. Differentiate between visual imagery and spatial imagery by considering the experiences of a blind man or woman. Use a mental rotation task as the basis for your evaluation.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Spatial Images and Visual Images   OBJ:   11.6

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the concepts of “photographic memory” and eidetic imagery.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Individual Differences                   OBJ:   11.7

 

 

  1. How could one improve his or her visual memory? List the techniques that can be used and describe which approaches are most effective. What does this suggest about the nature of imagery within memory, generally?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Long-Term Visual Memory            OBJ:   11.7 | 11.9

 

 

  1. Long-term memory contains images that can include verbal labels or visual representations. Compare and contrast the effects that these two sources of information have on memory by answering the following questions:
  2. What sort of memory errors would you expect when verbal labels are stored?

Visual representations?

  1. Why would it be beneficial to have both forms of information in LTM?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Long-Term Visual Memory                       OBJ:   11.8 | 11.9

 

 

  1. Describe how memory for pictures is similar to other kinds of long-term memories, and then describe how it is different.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Imagery Helps Memory      OBJ:               11.10

 

Chapter 12: Judgment and Reasoning

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a frequency judgment?
a. “You’ve only worn that shirt once since I gave it to you!”
b. “I am certain that he is bluffing.”
c. “There certainly are a lot of pizzerias in this neighborhood.”
d. “The number of truly caring physicians is getting smaller and smaller.”

 

 

REF:               Attribute Substitution

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Tony is trying to decide which flavor of gelato his wife would like best. She has never had gelato before, so Tony bases his decision on her favorite kind of ice cream. Tony is using a(n) ________ to make his decision.
a. frequency estimate c. base rate
b. attribute substitution d. availability heuristic

 

 

REF:   Attribute Substitution

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Human judgment is bound to be subjective and contain at least a few errors because
a. decisions are often based on memories and memory is sensitive to manipulations and errors.
b. the human mind is incapable of storing everything it needs to make rational judgments all the time.
c. we learn how to make judgments from other humans, thus it is inherently flawed.
d. the process of evolution favored those individuals who were right most of the time and only occasionally made mistakes.

 

 

REF:               Attribute Substitution

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Heuristics are strategies that
a. sometimes risk error in order to gain efficiency.
b. are underused, despite their advantages.
c. protect us from overestimating the frequency of real-life events.
d. ensure step-by-step procedures for finding correct conclusions.

 

 

REF:               The Availability Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. The availability heuristic is a strategy in which
a. category frequencies tend to be overestimated.
b. people base their estimates of frequency on how easily they can think of examples of the relevant category.
c. people judge frequency by referring to their sense of familiarity with the category.
d. category frequencies are estimated on the basis of schematic knowledge.

 

 

REF:   The Availability Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. “I can easily think of the names of several dishonest politicians, so I’m certain there are a lot of dishonest politicians!” This is an example of a judgment relying on
a. illusory covariation. c. anchoring.
b. representativeness. d. the availability heuristic.

 

 

REF:   The Availability Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Many of us overestimate our own popularity. This could be because we surround ourselves with people who like us, rather than with people who do not. Therefore, it is easier for us to think of the names of people who like us than it is to think of the names of our enemies. This overestimation of popularity seems to derive from using
a. anchoring. c. the atmosphere pattern.
b. base rates. d. the availability heuristic.

 

 

REF:   The Availability Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. The availability heuristic
a. is a time-consuming strategy, so it is employed by participants only when a judgment requires special care.
b. leads us to overestimate frequency if category members are particularly difficult to remember.
c. leads us to underestimate frequency because there are usually more category members beyond the ones we recall.
d. often, but not always, leads to correct estimates because availability in memory is often correlated with frequency in the world.

 

 

REF:   The Availability Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. In several studies, participants have been asked to estimate the frequency of occurrence for various causes of death. The evidence suggests that participants’ frequency estimates are  strongly influenced by
a. whether the cause of death was related to natural forces (e.g., lightning, tornado).
b. how often the cause of death is discussed in the news media.
c. whether the cause of death is associated with prolonged suffering.
d. how well the cause of death fits with participants’ schematic knowledge.

 

 

REF:   The Wide Range of Availability Effects

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. In one experiment, participants were asked to list either 6 or 12 instances in their lives when they were assertive. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the participants who were asked to list only 6 instances?
a. Overall, they rated themselves as less assertive.
b. They had an easier time fulfilling the task.
c. They were given an easier task than the 12-instance participants.
d. They relied on the availability heuristic when making their decision.

 

 

REF:   The Wide Range of Availability Effects

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. When we encounter a highly unusual event, we are particularly likely to notice and consider the event. As a consequence
a. we are likely to think about how distinctive the event really is, leading us to underestimate the likelihood of this type of event.
b. we are likely to think about the event as being in its own special category, so the event will have little impact on our estimates of frequency.
c. the event will be easy to recall, leading us to overestimate the likelihood of this type of event.
d. the event will be difficult to recall, leading us to underestimate the likelihood of this type of event.

 

 

REF:   The Wide Range of Availability Effects

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. In using the representativeness heuristic, participants
a. extrapolate from a sample of evidence if the category is homogeneous but not if the category is heterogeneous.
b. are sensitive to the sample size and draw conclusions more readily from a large sample.
c. seem to assume that all instances of the category resemble the prototype for that category.
d. are unable to discriminate actual patterns of covariation.

 

 

REF:               The Representativeness Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of the gambler’s fallacy?
a. “I know the chances of winning the lottery are small, but someone has to win it and I could be the one!”
b. “I’ve gotten a low number the last eight times I’ve rolled the dice, so a high number is coming up soon!”
c. “There’s an equal chance for any team to win the league’s championship.”
d. “The best strategy at the horse races is to bet in the same way as the crowd is betting.”

 

 

REF:   The Representativeness Heuristic

OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. An employer interviews a job candidate for 15 minutes. On the basis of this interview, the employer decides that the candidate will perform well in the job, so he hires her. This is a case of a
a. sound decision because the employer is making use of available information.
b. sound decision because the employer is employing base rates.
c. potential error because the employer is assuming that a small sample of information (the interview) is representative of a broader pattern (job performance).
d. potential error because the employer is relying on schema-based reasoning rather than deduction.

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.1

 

 

  1. Megan cannot sleep at night because she is terribly worried about being robbed, which is highly unlikely. As her friend, you want to help her by describing judgment errors and why she should not lose any more sleep. Which concept is NOT contributing to her irrational fear?
a. base rates for getting robbed
b. the availability heuristic for people getting robbed
c. memory bias for extreme events
d. underestimating sample size for the number of robbers in the world

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.2

 

 

  1. Participants are told, “Hospital A has an average of 45 births per day; Hospital B has an average of only 15 births per day.” The participants are then asked, “Which hospital is more likely to have a day in which at least 60% of the babies born are female?” In answering the question, participants
a. seem insensitive to the fact that departures from the average case are more likely with a small sample.
b. seem insensitive to the fact that departures from the average case are more likely with a larger sample.
c. correctly realize that departures from the average case are not dependent on hospital size.
d. answer in a fashion governed by the law of small numbers.

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.2

 

 

  1. In one study, participants were shown a film about a family on welfare and then asked for their opinions about welfare. Prior to viewing the film, half of the participants were told that the film showed a highly unusual case. The other participants were told that the film showed a quite typical case. After viewing the film, participants were asked their opinions about welfare. On the basis of other evidence, we would expect to find that
a. both groups of participants were influenced equally by the film.
b. neither group of participants was influenced by the film.
c. participants who were told that the case was unusual were less influenced by the film than those who viewed the typical case.
d. participants who were told that the case was unusual were not influenced by the film.

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.2

 

 

  1. Before reading about a depressed individual, participants are told that the case is not at all typical. This instruction will
a. prevent participants from using the representativeness heuristic.
b. encourage participants to use the representativeness heuristic.
c. not affect participants’ spontaneous use of the representativeness heuristic.
d. influence participants’ willingness to draw conclusions from a single case.

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.2

 

 

  1. Reasoning from “man who” arguments is usually inappropriate because generalizing from a single case is justified only
a. for heterogeneous categories.
b. when the sample size is adequate.
c. when the base rates are unknown.
d. for truly homogeneous categories.

 

 

 

REF:   Reasoning from a Single Case to the Entire Population   OBJ:   12.2

 

 

  1. The term “covariation” refers to
a. the relationship between the frequency of objects in the world and their availability in memory.
b. the pattern of evidence leading participants to the gambler’s fallacy.
c. a cause-and-effect relationship between two variables.
d. the tendency in a pattern of data for observations of one sort to be linked to observations of another sort.

 

 

REF:               Detecting Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. Which of the following is true if we consider the phrase, “Prejudice decreases as education increases”?
a. Prejudice positively covaries with education.
b. Participants are able to infer correctly whether this is a weak or strong relationship.
c. Prejudice negatively covaries with education.
d. We can accurately determine the personalities of people who are likely to show prejudice.

 

 

REF:               Detecting Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. The term “illusory covariation” refers to an error in which participants
a. perceive an event as occurring far more often than it actually does.
b. perceive two variables as being somehow linked to each other when in fact they are not.
c. draw a conclusion on the basis of a biased or small sample of evidence.
d. refuse to change their minds even though the available evidence clearly challenges their beliefs.

 

 

REF:               Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. Illusory covariations can be documented in
a. novices, but only when the cases being judged are of low importance for the participants.
b. well-trained professionals, but only when the professionals are making judgments outside of their areas of expertise.
c. novices but not in experts.
d. individuals who have years of training in the domain being judged.

 

 

REF:               Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. Research into whether personality traits can be diagnosed by descriptions of ink blots has shown that
a. novices sometimes detect illusory covariations but experts do not.
b. both novices and experts are successful in finding true covariations.
c. novices are often better than experts at detecting true covariations, as they are less likely to be affected by confirmation bias.
d. the pattern of observations that both experts and novices see is often not real but rather based on illusory covariations.

 

 

REF:   Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. When asked to judge covariation, participants
a. seem to lack the knowledge and skills needed for the task.
b. perform more accurately if they can supplement the data with their prior experience and knowledge.
c. can provide reasonably accurate estimates if they have no prior beliefs about the data.
d. do best if irrelevant data are easily available to them.

 

 

REF:   Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. If Tabitha believes that detective shows are more dramatic than hospital shows, then confirmation bias would make her more likely to do all of the following EXCEPT
a. notice a detective show that is dramatic.
b. overlook a hospital show that is dramatic.
c. have memory schemata that include more examples of dramatic detective shows than dramatic hospital shows.
d. have memory schemata that include more examples of dramatic hospital shows than dramatic detective shows.

 

 

REF:   Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. The text suggests that illusory covariations arise from the fact that participants
a. base their covariation estimates only on a small sample of the data that are available to them.
b. are generally dogmatic and make their judgments with little regard for the data.
c. do not know how to compute covariation, so they use an estimation strategy that is little better than guessing.
d. do not know how to make these judgments, so performance improves once participants gain some expertise.

 

 

REF:               Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.3

 

  1. A base rate is defined as information
a. that helps us to identify which specific candidates have a target property.
b. about the broad likelihood of a particular type of event.
c. indicating the internal variability of a set or category.
d. that can be used to diagnose an individual category member.

 

 

REF:               Base Rates                OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Studies indicate that participants
a. always neglect base-rate information.
b. overutilize base-rate information even if other compelling information is presented.
c. make sensible use of base-rate information if no other information is available.
d. tend to integrate base-rate information with diagnostic information.

 

 

REF:   Base Rates     OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Descriptive information that indicates that you are likely to be a member of a category (or fit the stereotype) is referred to as
a. the base rate. c. stereotype bias.
b. diagnostic information. d. confirmation bias.

 

 

REF:               Base Rates                OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Participants tend NOT to use base-rate information if they are also given
a. diagnostic information.
b. the prior probabilities.
c. statistical information.
d. information about the random device used to select the test case.

 

 

REF:               Base Rates                OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Lucia reported to her father that she saw a hummingbird in their backyard. Her father, however, knows that hummingbirds are extremely rare in that part of the country. In this situation
a. the diagnostic information confirms the base rate.
b. the diagnostic information points toward one conclusion but the base rate points toward a different conclusion.
c. the base rate is known but no diagnostic information is available.
d. there are two pieces of diagnostic information but no base-rate information.

 

 

REF:   Base Rates     OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Someone who is insensitive to base rates is likely to have all of the following problems EXCEPT
a. a hard time estimating covariation.
b. inaccuracy at determining cause-and-effect relationship.
c. overreliance on the representative heuristic.
d. underuse of diagnostic information.

 

 

REF:               Base Rates                OBJ:   12.3

 

 

  1. Dual-process models state that people
a. have two ways of thinking: one is a fast and automatic process, whereas the other is slower but more accurate.
b. have two ways of thinking, one involved in heuristics and the other involved in anchoring.
c. have two ways of thinking, one involved in availability heuristics and the other involved in representative heuristics.
d. always take both the base rate and the diagnostic information into consideration when thinking about a situation.

 

 

REF:               Dual-Process Models

OBJ:   12.4

 

  1. Presumably, people would choose to use ________ when making judgments that are not particularly important and ________ for more crucial decisions, but evidence on the dual process system suggests this is NOT the case.
a. Type 1; Type 2 c. heuristics; Type 1
b. Type 2; Type 1 d. heuristics; Type 2

 

 

REF:   Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

OBJ:   12.4

 

  1. Data format seems to play an important role in decision making because
a. the correct format is more likely to trigger the necessary memory retrieval path.
b. certain formats, like frequencies, are more likely to trigger System 1
c. certain formats, like frequencies, are more likely to trigger System 2.
d. proportions are easiest to understand.

 

 

REF:               Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

OBJ:   12.4

 

  1. When thinking about the likelihood of events, humans are better able to make judgments based on information presented as ________ than as ________.
a. percentages; fractions c. frequencies; probabilities
b. abstract ideas; concrete examples d. probabilities; frequencies

 

 

REF:   Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

OBJ:   12.4

 

  1. Which of the following is correct regarding dual-process models?
a. Both Type 1 and Type 2 in the model provide a quick and efficient way of making a judgment.
b. When we know that a judgment is important, we put more emphasis on Type 2 to ensure an accurate outcome.
c. Type 2 is more likely to be used if people are given training or cued by the situation.
d. Type 2 is more likely to be used in situations where people are distracted or tired.

 

 

REF:   Ways of Thinking: Type 1, Type 2

OBJ:   12.4

 

  1. The law of large numbers implies that larger samples of data are less likely to show accidental patterns; therefore, larger samples are generally more informative. In making judgments about evidence, participants
a. seem to understand and respect this law.
b. ignore this law even though they do follow other principles of statistics.
c. follow this law only if they have been trained in statistics.
d. ignore this law in some situations but respect it in other situations.

 

 

REF:   Codable Data

OBJ:   12.5

 

  1. Nisbett has argued that participants do understand the basic principles of statistics but often fail to use their knowledge. Which of the following situations does NOT contain one of the triggers that leads to the use of statistical knowledge?
a. The role of chance or accident is prominent in the problem under scrutiny.
b. The participant is scrutinizing a problem that is of great personal importance, so he or she is highly motivated to reason carefully and well.
c. The problem under scrutiny makes clear that the available evidence is a sample of data drawn from a larger set of potential observations.
d. The problem being considered involves a situation for which the participant has background beliefs emphasizing the role of luck or chance.

 

 

REF:               Codable Data

OBJ:   12.5

 

  1. Imagine an experiment wherein participants were told of a previously unknown tribe living on a Pacific island. Only one member of this tribe had been observed so far, and he was found to be obese. When asked how likely it was that all members of the tribe were obese, participants were unwilling to extrapolate this information. This shows that participants
a. were using the representative heuristic.
b. had prior beliefs about these islanders.
c. are sometimes sensitive to the sample size and can take this into account when making a judgment.
d. are unwilling to make a judgment, as they are wary of making an error.

 

 

REF:   Education      OBJ:   12.5

 

 

  1. Background knowledge can lead to mistakes, but it can also provide a benefit if
a. the person is aware of heuristics.
b. the knowledge is about how the parts of the problem are related.
c. the person is very confident in his or her knowledge.
d. it contains descriptive information.

 

 

REF:   Education      OBJ:   12.5

 

 

  1. You are asked to rate how likely it is that a student, Steve, will pass an upcoming exam. You are told that, in the past, the “pass” rate for this exam is 30%. Which of the following statements about your rating is most likely to be true? You will
a. use base rates in your decision.
b. ignore the base-rate information.
c. imply a cause-and-effect relationship between the pass rate and the student being judged.
d. say the chance of the student passing is 0.8%.

 

 

REF:               Education                 OBJ:   12.5

 

 

  1. Training in statistics
a. can help us make use of quick, efficient heuristics rather than slower, more effortful thinking.
b. improves participants’ abilities to make judgments so that judgment errors will be less likely.
c. improves participants’ abilities to make judgments but only when they are trained in an abstract way.
d. provides many benefits but seems not to teach students how to make more accurate judgments.

 

 

REF:   Education      OBJ:   12.5

 

 

  1. Studies indicate that training in statistics
a. has little impact on how participants make judgments outside of the statistics class.
b. improves participants’ understanding of statistical principles but does not teach them how to apply the principles to actual cases.
c. helps participants make more accurate judgments, but only if they were explicitly encouraged to apply their statistical knowledge.
d. improves participants’ performance in a variety of judgment problems.

 

 

REF:   Education      OBJ:   12.5

 

 

  1. People tend to be more alert and responsive to evidence that supports their preexisting notions and beliefs than to evidence that challenges them. This effect is called
a. confirmation bias. c. base-rate error.
b. stereotypy. d. the covariation law.

 

 

REF:               Illusions of Covariation

OBJ:   12.6

 

  1. An inductive judgment is one in which a person
a. tries to make predictions about upcoming events on the basis of evidence already available.
b. tries to make a cause-and-effect judgment about an observed state of affairs.
c. begins with a general statement and asks what other specific claims follow from this.
d. begins with specific facts or observations and seeks to draw a general conclusion from them.

 

 

REF:               Confirmation and Disconfirmation

OBJ:   12.6

 

  1. Solomon remembers how Jacob acted last weekend and the weekend before that. On the basis of this, Solomon is trying to figure out whether there is a pattern to Jacob’s actions. Solomon is working on a problem of
a. deduction. c. confirmation.
b. induction. d. derivation.

 

 

REF:               Confirmation and Disconfirmation

OBJ:   12.6

 

  1. Marissa believes that clowns are evil. She meets two men who are very nice and then learns that they are clowns. Despite this, she does not adjust her belief and continues to think clowns are evil. This is called
a. confirmation bias. c. inductive reasoning.
b. deductive reasoning. d. belief perseverance.

 

 

REF:               Belief Perseverance

OBJ:   12.6

 

  1. You are reading a political blog and come across the following sentiment: “Politicians are liars. John Doe is a politician. Therefore, John Doe is a liar.” You are most likely to judge this as logical if you
a. dislike politicians. c. are a Republican.
b. really like politicians. d. are a Democrat.

 

 

REF:   Reasoning about Syllogisms

OBJ:   12.6

 

  1. “All rectangles have four sides. All squares have four sides. Therefore all rectangles are squares.” This incorrect statement is an example of
a. belief bias. c. belief perseverance.
b. categorical syllogism. d. deductive inference.

 

 

REF:   Reasoning about Syllogisms

OBJ:   12.7

 

  1. Identify the premises in the following syllogism: All Dalmatians are dogs. Some Dalmatians have tails. Therefore, some dogs have tails.
a. “All Dalmatians are dogs.”
b. “All Dalmatians have tails.”
c. “Some dogs have tails.”
d. “Some dogs are Dalmations”

 

 

REF:   Logic             OBJ:   12.7

 

 

  1. Which of the statements below would complete the following syllogism in a way to make it valid?: All busy people are stressed out. All professors are busy.
a. Therefore, all professors are stressed out.
b. Therefore, all busy people are professors.
c. Therefore, all stressed-out people are professors.
d. Therefore, you should not become a professor.

 

 

REF:   Logic             OBJ:   12.7

 

 

  1. The four-card task provides an example of how
a. good we are at reasoning about syllogisms.
b. good we are at reasoning about conditional statements.
c. poor we are at reasoning about conditional statements.
d. poorly we perform on inductive tasks.

 

 

REF:               The Four-Card Task

OBJ:   12.8

 

  1. Evidence from the four-card task suggests all of the following EXCEPT that
a. generally people are poor at solving this task.
b. changing the problem into something with a more real-world validity improves performance on this task.
c. as with inductive reasoning, performance on deductive tasks varies based on the form of the problem.
d. problem solving about conditional statements is difficult to improve.

 

 

REF:               The Four-Card Task

OBJ:   12.8

 

  1. The expected value of an option is dependent on the
a. sum of the probability of an outcome and the utility of the outcome.
b. product of the probability of an outcome and the utility of the outcome.
c. difference between the probability of an outcome and the utility of the outcome.
d. difference between the pros and cons of an outcome.

 

 

REF:               Costs and Benefits

OBJ:   12.9

 

  1. According to the work of Tversky and Kahneman (1987), people are ________ when dealing with potential losses, but are ________ when dealing with potential gains.
a. risk seeking; risk averse
b. risk averse; risk seeking
c. risk seeking; risk seeking
d. worried; excited

 

 

REF:   Framing of Outcomes

OBJ:   12.9

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the effects of emotion on decision making is FALSE?
a. People want to minimize regret.
b. Physiological changes can direct decision making.
c. People assume the worst and are thus overly cautious.
d. People tend to be bad at forecasting future emotions, and this influences current decision making.

 

 

REF:   Emotion         OBJ:   12.10

 

 

  1. Jill has a gut feeling about which college she should attend. In Damasio’s words, she is relying on ________ to make her decision.
a. somatic markers c. utility
b. rational judgments d. risk aversion

 

 

REF:   Emotion         OBJ:   12.10

 

 

  1. Patrick has sustained damage to his orbitofrontal cortex, but his twin brother, Ben, has not. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about these two brothers?
a. Patrick will take more risks than Ben.
b. Ben will take more risks than Patrick.
c. Both will take risks equally.
d. Ben will take fewer risks, but they will be more extreme than Patrick’s risks.

 

 

REF:   Emotion         OBJ:   12.10

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Your friend, Alex, swears that he hits every red light, which makes him late for class. You know that it is incredibly unlikely that he actually hits every red light. Assume that Alex isn’t intentionally lying to you and consider the factors that might lead him to truly believe that he is unlucky when it comes to red lights.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Judgment       OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Describe the availability and representativeness heuristics, and provide real-life examples of each heuristic leading to an error. Explain why we would rely on these heuristics, if errors can (and do) occur.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Judgment                  OBJ:   12.1

 

  1. Your friend, Leslie, is interested in buying a new car. A consumer magazine says that Car X is the best buy for her budget and needs. However, Leslie’s brother bought Car X and hated it. To whom should Leslie listen in this situation? Why might she not?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               The Representativeness Heuristic              OBJ:   12.1

 

 

  1. Brenda is terribly afraid of flying because she is certain the plane will crash. You know that the chances of a plane crash are exceedingly small and try to explain this to her. Given your knowledge of judgment and reasoning, describe the factors (i.e., judgment errors) that are contributing to her fear and give any tips that could help her overcome her fear.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Judgment | Base Rates                    OBJ:   12.2 | 12.3

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast Type 1 and Type 2 reasoning. Include in your discussion the benefits and drawbacks to each system, the instances in which each system would be used, and how changing the data format can lead to changes in use.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Dual-Process Models                                OBJ:   12.4

 

 

  1. Molly is a Democrat, and she is certain that Republicans are evil and ruining the country. Discuss how tendencies like confirmation bias and belief perseverance contribute to her beliefs and her evaluation of new evidence.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Confirmation and Disconfirmation OBJ:   12.5 | 12.6

 

 

  1. People often make logical errors. Create a real-world example that illustrates the error in this categorical syllogism: All X are Y. All A are X. Therefore, all A are X.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Logic              OBJ:   12.7

 

  1. Describe the four-card task. In your description, include the following components:
  2. the basic task.
  3. the type of logical argument that governs the task.
  4. the typical performance rates and how those can be improved by changing components of the task.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Logic              OBJ:   12.8

 

  1. Consider the Asian disease problem. Describe the various ways the problem can be framed and how people typically respond in each situation. Finally, consider the factors that influence the variability in responses.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Framing of Outcomes                               OBJ:               12.9

 

 

  1. Describe one situation in which your friend, Marcus, might show evidence of monetary risk aversion and another example in which he would show monetary risk seeking.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Framing of Outcomes                               OBJ:   12.9

 

 

  1. Describe the ways that emotion can influence decision making. What tips would you give to a friend (or to yourself) to improve decision making under emotional duress?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Emotion                   OBJ:   12.10

 

Chapter 13: Problem Solving and Intelligence

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A problem’s “initial state” refers to the
a. participant’s circumstances before he or she has understood the problem.
b. actual statement of the problem.
c. knowledge and resources one possesses at the outset of the problem.
d. first goal one must move toward in solving the problem.

 

 

REF:               Problem Solving as Search

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. All of the states one can reach in solving a problem together make up the
a. operators. c. problem definition.
b. pathways. d. problem space.

 

 

REF:               Problem Solving as Search

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. One plan for solving a problem would be to consider every possible option, searching for the best solution. This broad plan is
a. usually the best way to proceed for solving complicated problems.
b. more effective with ill-defined problems.
c. usually ruled out by the sheer number of possible states within the problem space.
d. often the only plan available.

 

 

REF:   Problem Solving as Search

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. A problem-solving heuristic is
a. guaranteed to find a problem solution, if one exists.
b. a strategy that guides a search through the problem space.
c. likely to be less effective than a strategy such as hill climbing or means-end analysis.
d. needed for unfamiliar problems but not for familiar problems.

 

 

REF:               Problem Solving as Search

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a heuristic used in problem solving?
a. framing
b. hill climbing
c. means-end analysis
d. working backward from the goal state

 

 

REF:   General Problem-Solving Heuristics

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Participants’ use of hill climbing is evident in that
a. participants solve problems more quickly if they can divide the problem into smaller subproblems.
b. problem solving often gets stalled if a problem requires all participants to move briefly away from the goal state in order (ultimately) to reach the goal.
c. participants are disrupted in their problem solving if they are asked to think out loud as they proceed.
d. participants are often confused unless the problem’s path constraints are clearly specified.

 

 

REF:   General Problem-Solving Heuristics

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Which problem-solving heuristic is most likely to involve a question such as, “What do I have available to get from my current state to my goal state?”
a. working backward c. hill climbing
b. means-end analysis d. problem-solving set

 

 

REF:   General Problem-Solving Heuristics

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a benefit received from using a means-end analysis to solve a problem?
a. It highlights the differences between the current state and the goal state.
b. It often leads a person to break a problem into subproblems.
c. It provides guidelines for what a person should do to solve the problem.
d. It encourages the person to move away from the goal initially, so as to get to the goal faster.

 

 

REF:   General Problem-Solving Heuristics

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding mental images or pictures in problem solving?
a. Maintaining a mental image can be effortful and so may reduce the amount of resources available to solve a problem.
b. Mental images are more useful than pictures if a problem’s solution involves movement within the image or picture.
c. Pictures are usually more helpful than mental images when searching for new discoveries or different interpretations.
d. Images are difficult to resize and so do not help if the problem’s solution involves the rescaling of an image or picture.

 

 

REF:   Pictures and Diagrams

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by visualizing a problem via a mental image?
a. The image depicts the problem in a concrete way, and this often makes the problem easier to remember.
b. The image often makes it easy to discern how the elements of the problem are related to one another.
c. One can easily make new discoveries about the imaged form, including discoveries that involve an entirely new understanding of the form.
d. It is usually easy to rearrange the elements of an image to explore other configurations.

 

 

REF:               Pictures and Diagrams

OBJ:   13.1

 

  1. If you are trying to help a friend use analogies in problem solving, which piece of advice should you NOT give?
a. Attend to the deep structure of the problem.
b. Try to see the mapping between problems you already know and test problems.
c. Memorize as many problems as you can.
d. Search your memory for content related to the deep structure of the problem, not surface details.

 

 

REF:   Problem Solving via Analogy

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Herbert solved the “tumor” problem by using an analogy with the “general and fortress” problem. In doing this, he realized that “tumor” corresponds to “fortress,” “radiation” corresponds to “attacking army,” and so on. The process of determining these correspondences is called
a. translating. c. mapping.
b. analogizing. d. parsing.

 

 

REF:               Problem Solving via Analogy

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a procedure that makes analogy use more likely?
a. Participants are given two analogous problems, rather than just one, before the test problem.
b. Participants are given financial bonuses for each one of the test problems they are able to solve.
c. Participants are given several training problems and asked to compare the problems to one another.
d. Participants are encouraged to work at understanding the solutions of the training problems so that they can explain the solutions later on.

 

 

REF:   Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. In many studies, participants fail to use analogies as an aid to problem solving. Of the following, which is the most plausible explanation of this fact?
a. Participants do not understand the value of analogies, so they do not bother searching for them.
b. Participants search their memories based on the surface structure of the problem and thus fail to think of many useful analogies.
c. Participants pay too much attention to the deep structure of a problem, and so they fail to see the features that lead to analogy.
d. Participants seem unable to use analogies even when explicitly instructed to do so.

 

 

REF:   Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. In order to teach students to be better problem solvers, we should do all of the following EXCEPT
a. teach some of the general-purpose heuristics, such as means-end analysis or working backward.
b. teach students that it is better to memorize related problems rather than understand them.
c. provide students with experience in the relevant domains so that they will have a basis from which to draw analogies.
d. encourage students to approach their training with attention to deep structure rather than to surface details.

 

 

REF:   Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. In general, a training procedure will promote subsequent analogy use if the procedure
a. helps participants to remember the exact formulation of the training problems.
b. makes the value of analogy use clear to participants.
c. encourages participants to pay attention to the training problem’s deep structure.
d. teaches the participants general principles about how analogies function.

 

 

REF:   Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Two groups of participants are given sets of training problems to solve. One group of participants is told to try to understand the structure of the problem, while the other group is asked to try to memorize the problem. They are later given test problems. Based on previous evidence, what results would you expect to see at testing?
a. The “memorize” group will be faster when solving the problems.
b. The “memorize” group will solve more problems.
c. The “structure” group will solve more problems.
d. The groups will solve the same number of problems.

 

 

REF:   Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Experts have several advantages in problem solving. Which of the following is NOT an advantage mentioned in this textbook?
a. advanced degrees
b. at least 10 years of experience
c. years of deliberate practice
d. more efficient ways of accessing their knowledge

 

 

REF:               Expert Problem Solvers

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Expert problem solvers
a. focus on the surface of a problem rather than on its deep structure.
b. use analogies less often than do novices.
c. tend to categorize problems in terms of their deep structure.
d. do not need to rely on mapping in their use of analogies.

 

 

REF:   Expert Problem Solvers

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. People often compare experts to novices. Which of the following claims about this comparison is FALSE?
a. Experts tend to be more-skilled problem solvers in general, so they have an advantage even with unfamiliar problems.
b. Experts have a much larger knowledge base, including a large set of exemplars on which they can draw.
c. Experts are more familiar with the higher-order patterns common in the area of expertise.
d. Expert knowledge is more heavily cross-referenced and is therefore more easily accessible.

 

 

REF:   Expert Problem Solvers

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Compared to novices, chess experts are more likely to have
a. better memory for the positions of pieces on a chess board if the pieces are arranged in a fashion that respects the rules of chess.
b. better memory for the positions of pieces on a chess board, no matter how the pieces are arranged.
c. better visual memory in general.
d. no memory advantage.

 

 

REF:               Setting Subgoals

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Experts seem able to break a problem into meaningful chunks. This strategy provides all of the following advantages EXCEPT for
a. making it easier to remember the various elements of the problem.
b. highlighting the organization of the problem’s elements, making it easier to see the problem’s structure.
c. helping in the identification of subproblems and therefore in the creation of subgoals.
d. drawing the expert’s attention to the problem’s microstructure.

 

 

REF:   Setting Subgoals

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Experts have an advantage in problem solving and remembering certain information (like the position of chess pieces) for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they
a. think of units that can be used to set subgoals.
b. create higher-order units that have a purpose.
c. avoid getting bogged down in the details by organizing the information.
d. break down chunks to create subgoals.

 

 

REF:   Setting Subgoals

OBJ:   13.2

 

  1. Analogies are
a. often misleading, since an analogy depends on a problem’s surface structure.
b. relatively ineffective for solving problems, unless the problem is a familiar one.
c. an effective way to promote understanding and problem solving.
d. relevant only for a narrow set of problems.

 

 

REF:   Problem Solving via Analogy

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. Studies of analogy use indicate that participants
a. use analogies spontaneously in a wide range of problems.
b. use analogies only if they are experts in the domain of the problem.
c. are more likely to use analogies if there is a superficial resemblance between the problem being solved and the problem serving as the base for the analogy.
d. are more likely to use analogies in solving spatial problems than they are in solving verbal problems.

 

 

REF:   Problem Solving via Analogy

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. Dell is trying to solve the “hobbits and orcs” problem, so she must determine how to move the creatures across a river. Dell is most likely to be helped if she has had earlier experience with
a. a problem with a similar deep structure that also involved hobbits and orcs.
b. a formally identical problem involving jealous husbands and their wives.
c. other problems involving transportation across obstacles.
d. problems illustrating the techniques for dealing with river currents.

 

 

REF:               Strategies to Make Analogy Use More Likely

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. One way to turn an ill-defined question into a well-defined question is to
a. add extra constraints or assumptions to the problem so that it has more structure.
b. make the question less specific.
c. make the question rhetorical.
d. remove any clear or concrete goal state from the problem.

 

 

REF:               Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. An ill-defined problem is one in which
a. there is more than one path available that will lead to the goal.
b. the problem does not have clearly defined subgoals.
c. neither analogies nor heuristics will lead to a problem solution.
d. the goal is not clearly characterized or the operations for reaching that goal are not clearly stated.

 

 

REF:               Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. Which of the following problems is ill-defined?
a. Sarah is trying to think of a way to impress her boss.
b. Susan is trying to decide which route to take to the soccer game.
c. Sheila cannot decide whether to go to a movie this evening or study in the library.
d. Samantha is having trouble choosing which courses to take next semester.

 

 

REF:               Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. The tendency to be rigid in how one thinks about an object’s function is called
a. mental stickiness. c. functional narrowness.
b. functional fixedness. d. narrow focus.

 

 

REF:               Functional Fixedness

OBJ:   13.4

 

  1. It was starting to rain and Marcus did not have an umbrella or a hat. To keep dry, he held his psychology textbook over his head. In this case, Marcus
a. is showing the influence of Einstellung.
b. has solved the problem by using functional fixedness.
c. has managed to overcome functional fixedness.
d. has failed the hobbits and orcs problem.

 

 

REF:   Functional Fixedness

OBJ:   13.4

 

  1. In solving a problem, participants seem to develop a certain attitude or perspective, and they then approach all subsequent problems with the same perspective. This rigidity in approach is often called
a. transfer. c. mental inhibition.
b. Einstellung. d. Zeitgeist.

 

 

REF:               Einstellung               OBJ:   13.4

 

 

  1. Participants approach a problem with certain assumptions about how the problem should be handled and the sorts of strategies that are likely to be productive. These assumptions are referred to as
a. functional fixedness. c. a problem frame.
b. well-definedness. d. a problem-solving set.

 

 

REF:               Einstellung               OBJ:   13.4

 

 

  1. A group of participants has just completed a series of problems involving water jars. In each problem, the participants needed to fill the largest jar, pour from it once into the middle-sized jar, and then pour from the largest jar twice into the smallest jar. The participants are now given a new problem, which cannot be solved via this procedure. We would expect that the participants will
a. quickly solve the new problem because they have had practice with a series of very similar problems.
b. have difficulty with the new problem because they are now locked into the procedure they used successfully.
c. behave just as participants who have no experience with water jar problems; that is, there will be no effect of the prior training.
d. try their already practiced procedure and, once they realize this procedure does not help them, they will show no effect of the prior training.

 

 

REF:   Einstellung     OBJ:   13.4

 

 

  1. A problem-solving set
a. is generally a deterrent to problem solving, so one should seek to approach a problem without a set.
b. is an obstacle for novice problem solvers but not for experts.
c. is crucial for well-defined problems but cannot help with ill-defined problems.
d. often helps because the set leads us to ignore a number of options that obviously will not lead to the goal.

 

 

REF:               “Thinking Outside the Box”

OBJ:   13.4

 

  1. Eric is trying to solve a problem but must put the problem down for a lunch meeting. At the meeting, he suddenly thinks of a potential solution. Which of the following is NOT consistent with Eric’s revelation?
a. Lunch provided an incubation period.
b. Lunch provided Eric time to forget his previous strategies.
c. Lunch provided Eric time to think of new tactics that were outside of his original problem-solving set.
d. Eric was suffering from something like the “tip-of-the-tongue” phenomenon, and an event at lunch cued the correct answer, which he knew all along.

 

 

REF:               “Thinking Outside the Box”

OBJ:   13.4 | 13.6

 

  1. Bob works in marketing and wants to be creative at his work. Which of these is LEAST likely to be a prerequisite for his creativity?
a. having knowledge about his domain in marketing
b. being strongly motivated by external rewards rather than taking pleasure in his work
c. being able to ignore criticism and tolerate ambiguous findings
d. being willing to take risks and not follow the crowd

 

 

REF:               Case Studies of Creativity

OBJ:   13.5

 

  1. According to the text, current research indicates that creative problem solving
a. draws on mental processes that are distinct from the processes relevant to more ordinary problem solving.
b. depends on divergent thinking.
c. draws on heuristics and analogies in the same way as does ordinary problem solving.
d. requires unconscious work that goes on after one has consciously put the problem to the side.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of Creativity

OBJ:   13.5

 

  1. Which of the following statements about creative people is most correct?
a. Creative people are fundamentally different from other people.
b. Creative people have a cognitive architecture that is unlike the architecture for less creative people.
c. Creative people typically rely on the same strategies and processes as less creative people.
d. Creativity is typically associated with superior visual memory.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of Creativity

OBJ:   13.5

 

  1. The environment seems to influence all of the following EXCEPT
a. creativity. c. the use of heuristics.
b. IQ scores. d. fluid intelligence.

 

 

REF:   The Nature of Creativity

OBJ:   13.5 | 13.10

 

  1. Many years ago, Wallas argued that creative thought proceeds through four stages. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages?
a. illumination c. preparation
b. articulation d. incubation

 

 

REF:   Case Studies of Creativity

OBJ:   13.6

 

  1. According to Wallas’s theory of creativity, the initial period in which a problem solver gathers information is known as
a. verification. c. preparation.
b. incubation. d. initialization.

 

 

REF:               Case Studies of Creativity

OBJ:   13.6

 

  1. As Vanessa worked on the problem, she reported out loud, “No, that option doesn’t seem to work. No, that doesn’t work either.” Then Vanessa abruptly shouted, “I think I’ve got it!” These reports seem to capture the phenomenon called
a. illumination. c. preparation.
b. incubation. d. representation.

 

 

REF:               Case Studies of Creativity

OBJ:   13.6

 

  1. Researchers have tried to study the moment of illumination in the laboratory. The evidence indicates that
a. this experience cannot be observed reliably in laboratory conditions.
b. there is no systematic relationship between reports of illumination and actual progress in problem solving.
c. when participants report an illumination, they are at least as likely to be moving toward a dead end as they are to be moving toward the problem’s solution.
d. when participants report an illumination, they have, in fact, made a discovery that will allow them to solve the problem.

 

 

REF:               The Moment of Illumination

OBJ:   13.6

 

  1. Smith and Blankenship gave participants problems to solve and provided clues. One group was forced to take a break after only 60 seconds of working on the problem. After a 30-second break, they were given another 30 seconds to try to solve the problem. Compared to the group that did not get the break, the incubation group
a. performed worse on the problem-solving task.
b. remembered more of the clues.
c. remembered fewer clues.
d. solved the problems faster.

 

 

REF:   Incubation     OBJ:   13.6

 

 

  1. A group of participants is interrupted while working on a problem. The participants then spend some time on an unrelated task and, finally, return to the initial problem. Studies of this sort show that the
a. participants will benefit from the interruption and are more likely to solve the problem when they return to it.
b. participants will be disrupted by the interruption and are less likely to solve the problem when they return to it.
c. participants will not be affected by the interruption.
d. data are mixed, with some studies showing a benefit from the interruption but with many studies showing no effect.

 

 

REF:   Incubation     OBJ:   13.6

 

 

  1. In some procedures, participants are helped by an interruption during their attempts at solving a problem. In explaining this effect, which of the following hypotheses seems LEAST plausible in light of the available evidence?
a. The interruption provides an opportunity for participants to gather further information about the problem.
b. The interruption provides an opportunity for frustration or fatigue to dissipate.
c. The interruption allows participants to forget their earlier approaches to the problem, thus enabling a fresh start.
d. The interruption allows an opportunity for unconscious problem solving to occur.

 

 

REF:   Incubation     OBJ:   13.6

 

 

  1. Mark scored very well on a verbal intelligence test. How is he likely to score on a visuospatial test of intelligence?
a. He will score below average on the visuospatial test.
b. He will score above average on the visuospatial test.
c. One cannot assume how he will score because there is no correlation between general and specialized intelligence.
d. He will score similarly if he takes the test today, but his score will be very different if he takes the test in a few months.

 

 

REF:   General versus Specialized Intelligence

OBJ:   13.7

 

  1. ________ intelligence refers to a general flexibility of thought, while ________ intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills.
a. General; specific c. Fluid; crystallized
b. Crystallized; fluid d. General; learned

 

 

REF:   Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

OBJ:   13.7

 

  1. Melissa is a 35-year-old woman. Over the next few decades, her ________ intelligence will likely increase, while her ________ intelligence will likely decrease.
a. crystallized; memory
b. crystallized; fluid
c. fluid; crystallized
d. reasoning ability; vocabulary

 

 

REF:   Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence

OBJ:   13.7

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be a reason to use Ravens Progressive Matrices instead of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale to measure the intelligence of an individual?
a. The participant is not a native English speaker.
b. The participant was not raised in the United States of America.
c. The participant has a verbal disability.
d. The participant has never taken an intelligence test before.

 

 

REF:   Defining and Measuring Intelligence

OBJ:   13.9

 

  1. Dr. Smarts is giving a test to a few students in his class. The test is very simple: he presents two objects and asks the students to reply as quickly as possible if they match (yes or no). Student 1 replies faster than Student 2. What does this indicate about the students’ intelligence levels?
a. Student 2 is more intelligent than Student 1.
b. Student 1 is more intelligent than Student 2.
c. Both students are likely to have above average intelligence.
d. Reaction time on this task is not correlated with intelligence.

 

 

REF:   The Building Blocks of Intelligence

OBJ:   13.9

 

  1. Which of the following statements does NOT support the notion that the environment influences intelligence?
a. IQs are more similar among brothers who are close in age than brothers who are very different in age.
b. IQs are more similar among monozygotic  twins than among dizygotic  twins.
c. IQs are lower overall among children who come from impoverished environments.
d. Changing the environment can lead to an improvement in IQ score.

 

 

REF:               The Roots of Intelligence

OBJ:   13.10

 

  1. Blair is female and Alex is male. Which of the following statements about their IQs is most likely to be true?
a. Blair has a much higher IQ than Alex.
b. Alex has a much higher IQ than Blair.
c. Blair and Alex are likely to have similar IQs; however, Blair will likely score higher on verbal tests of intelligence.
d. Blair and Alex are likely to have similar IQs; however, Blair will likely score higher on visuospatial tests of intelligence.

 

 

REF:   Comparisons between Groups

OBJ:   13.10

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an explanation that is supported by evidence for the IQ discrepancies between blacks and whites?
a. Genetic factors cause whites to be more intelligent than blacks.
b. Economic factors lead to higher IQ scores among whites than blacks.
c. Stereotype threat causes black students to score lower on intelligence tests.
d. IQ scores among blacks can be improved by reducing stereotype threat.

 

 

REF:               Comparisons between Groups

OBJ:   13.10

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe two of the strategies for problem solving that were included in the chapter. Next, evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of each approach.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               General Problem-Solving Methods            OBJ:   13.1

 

 

  1. Your friends sets a New Year’s resolution to “be happier.” Although this is a great goal, it could be hard to achieve. Using the appropriate terminology, explain what kind of problem this is, and how she should go about solving it.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Ill-Defined and Well-Defined Problems

OBJ:   13.3

 

  1. How does Einstellung contribute to problem solving? How can it facilitate problem solving? How may it hinder problem solving?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Einstellung               OBJ:   13.4

 

  1. Describe the stages of creativity. Include experimental evidence that supports the incubation and illumination stages of this process.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Creativity                 OBJ:   13.6

 

  1. Differentiate between the fluid and crystallized types of intelligence. How does intelligence change across the lifetime? What factors influence each type of intelligence?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence            OBJ:   13.7

 

 

  1. Explain the methodological concerns with measuring intelligence. What should you do to ensure that a given measure of intelligence is appropriate and accurate?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Defining and Measuring Intelligence

OBJ:   13.8

 

  1. How are experts different from novices, when it comes to solving problems? How might expertise help with problem solving, and how might it hurt?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Expert Problem Solvers      OBJ:               13.8

 

 

  1. Consider the examples of autistic savants that were described at the beginning of the chapter. Given what you know now, how would you characterize their intellectual abilities? Make sure you use the appropriate terminology in your answer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               What If…                  OBJ:   13.9

 

  1. Describe the genetic and environmental factors that influence intelligence. Is one factor more important than the other? Why?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Roots of Intelligence               OBJ:   13.10

 

 

  1. Bob and John are monozygotic twins. Jackson and Lucas are dizygotic twins. Describe how these two sets of twins vary in terms of genetics, development, and, finally, intelligence.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Roots of Intelligence               OBJ:   13.10

 

 

Chapter 14: Conscious Thought, Unconscious Thought

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A great deal of behind-the-scenes activity is necessary to make possible intellectual achievements like thinking and remembering. This behind-the-scenes activity is referred to by psychologists as
a. nuts-and-bolts work. c. subconscious production.
b. the cognitive unconscious. d. running the program.

 

 

REF:               The Cognitive Unconscious

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. In the late 1800s, the young science of psychology
a. considered consciousness to be a central concern of the science.
b. argued that consciousness could not be studied scientifically.
c. studied consciousness by focusing on the biological roots of conscious thought.
d. largely ignored the topic of consciousness.

 

 

REF:               Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of the principle, “We are aware of products but not of processes”?
a. Jeff knew that the stimulus seemed familiar, but he did not know why.
b. Jesse believed that the stimulus was “cake,” but he could not tell whether he had seen the stimulus or just inferred it.
c. Jeremy suddenly found himself thinking about marriage, and he could not figure out what had brought this idea into his thoughts.
d. Jacob wanted to do well on the spelling test, but he did not know the best way to study the words.

 

 

REF:               Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Several authors have proposed that we are generally aware of the ________ of our own thoughts even though we are usually unaware of the ________ of thought.
a. product; processes
b. decision-making processes; products
c. implicit mechanisms; explicit mechanisms
d. inferences; strategies

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Much of our current understanding of consciousness derives from
a. subjective reports, although these had been deemed unscientific in the past.
b. studies of what can be done in the absence of consciousness.
c. chronometric studies.
d. an increased sophistication in our ability to analyze introspective reports.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Our unconscious thinking about an event
a. tends to be simple and direct, leading us, for example, to think of the event as familiar or preferable.
b. can often be quite complex, involving several steps of reasoning and inference.
c. can influence us in small ways but seems not to have larger-scale impact.
d. is most influential with novel events; with familiar events, we react in a more reflective fashion.

 

 

REF:               Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Is it possible to study unconsciousness?
a. No; any tests would be based on subjective introspections.
b. No; unconscious activity does not exist.
c. Yes; by asking what activities can be done without consciousness.
d. It has not been studied successfully yet, but will be in time.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. Which of these is NOT an example of causal attribution in unconscious thinking?
a. Jenny believes she remembers the color of her last birthday cake.
b. Louise finds a name familiar so she believes it belongs to a famous person.
c. Abby remembers the face of a man so she believes the man was part of a robbery.
d. In an experiment, Jane is willing to experience a higher intensity of electric shock, as she believes any adverse reactions are the side effects of a pill that she took prior to the experiment.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Processes, Conscious Products

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. In one study, participants in Group 1 were given a pill and told, “This pill will make you a bit jumpy, will make your palms sweat, and may give you butterflies in your stomach.” Participants in Group 2 were given the same pill, but they were told, “This pill may make you a little sleepy.” In both cases, the pill was a placebo. All participants were then exposed to electric shocks and were asked to rate how painful each shock had seemed. Given other evidence, we would expect that
a. there would be no difference between the two groups.
b. the participants would not differ in how they rated the shocks, but participants in Group 2 would end up having more positive feelings about the experiment.
c. the participants in Group 2 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 1.
d. the participants in Group 1 would rate the shocks as less painful than the participants in Group 2.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Reasoning

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Feedback can lead participants to be more confident of their memories, even if they are wrong. What explanation is NOT appropriate to explain this fact?
a. People are more confident when they are told they are right.
b. Memories are strengthened when people are told they are right.
c. Doubt is erased when people are told they are right.
d. The change in confidence is an unconscious attribution.

 

 

REF:               Unconscious Reasoning

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Positive feedback influences confidence in memory, possibly because of an unconscious line of thinking, like
a. “I can set aside my doubts about my memory, because I got it right!”
b. “I know I didn’t see him, but I seemed to get it right, so I guess I’ll go with it!”
c. “They could be lying to me. I probably did not get it right.”
d. “I have a perfect memory!”

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Reasoning

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Which of these is most likely to be true about the process of introspection?
a. Introspection acts as a special window, allowing people to report correctly why they acted the way they did.
b. People often show little confidence about their reasoning when they introspect, although their reasoning is mostly correct.
c. People can often use their confidence ratings to detect whether their introspections are likely to be correct.
d. Introspection often produces mistaken beliefs that arise from plausible after-the-fact inferences.

 

 

REF:   Mistaken Introspections

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. When asked to introspect about their reasons for making a particular choice, participants
a. sometimes offer an explanation with great confidence even though the explanation names factors that they know to be irrelevant and leaves out factors that they know to be crucial.
b. can usually specify their reasons and accurately report on the processes used for selecting the reasons.
c. often have no idea about their reasons, but if they are able to report their reasons, they are likely to be correct.
d. report their reasons in general terms but do so with little confidence.

 

 

REF:   Mistaken Introspections

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Which of the following is FALSE about introspective reports?
a. They are sometimes correct.
b. They can be the result of after-the-fact reconstructions.
c. They often feel like inferences.
d. They are occasionally wrong.

 

 

REF:               Mistaken Introspections

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Sometimes we reason carefully and deliberately through an argument, scrutinizing each step. In a case of this sort
a. all of our thoughts will be entirely conscious even if we are unconscious of our thoughts in other situations.
b. the processes of our thoughts, but not the products, will be consciously available.
c. our sequence of thoughts depends on an unconscious support structure that guides how we interpret the elements of each thought.
d. there are no unconscious processes involved.

 

 

REF:   Mistaken Introspections

OBJ:   14.2

 

  1. Our thoughts seem to be embedded in a context that is usually not noticed yet serves to define and guide the thoughts. Which of the following is NOT an example of this sort of context?
a. Discovery based on mental imagery is influenced by the perceptual reference frame for the image.
b. Decisions are guided by how the decision is framed.
c. The meaning of the terms involved in our thoughts is clarified by the surrounding context of thought.
d. Perception of a word or object is strongly shaped by the other words and objects that surround the target.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. Even in cases where we think we are fully conscious of our thoughts or “inner dialogue,” there are unconscious factors influencing us, such as set. Which of the following is NOT true of sets?
a. They can keep us focused.
b. They are unnoticed assumptions.
c. They can be an obstacle to problem solving.
d. They are always a good thing.

 

 

REF:   Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. Patients who have experienced damage to the striate cortex sometimes show a phenomenon known as blind sight. In this case, most patients
a. can consciously see where an object is but cannot identify it.
b. can consciously report the identity of an object but not where it is located.
c. are blind yet incorrectly report that they can see the identity and location of an object.
d. often guess correctly in response to what they have seen or where an object is located even though they report that they cannot see it.

 

 

REF:               Amnesia and Blind Sight

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. Erin, who has Korsakoff’s amnesia, is asked to perform in a memory experiment. Erin is likely to
a. be capable of learning but do poorly in explicit tests of memory.
b. recall explicitly events that she has witnessed but not things that she has done.
c. perform well on tests requiring conscious recollection even though her performance is poor if memory is tested indirectly.
d. be unable to recall material learned in the past even though she explicitly recognizes the material when she encounters it.

 

 

REF:               Amnesia and Blind Sight

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. The phrase “memory without awareness” is another way of describing a pattern in which
a. explicit memory tests indicate that participants remember an event, but implicit memory tests indicate that they do not remember.
b. implicit memory tests indicate that participants remember an event, but explicit memory tests indicate that they do not remember.
c. recognition tests indicate that participants remember an event, but recall tests indicate that they do not remember.
d. direct memory testing indicates that participants remember an event, but indirect testing indicates that they do not remember.

 

 

REF:   Amnesia and Blind Sight

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. A patient with blind sight is likely to show all of the following traits EXCEPT if asked to
a. walk across the room, he or she does so easily.
b. reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach in the appropriate direction.
c. reach toward an object, he or she tends to reach with the appropriate hand position (e.g., with the hand open wide if the target is large).
d. guess the identity of a visual stimulus, his or her guesses are consistently correct.

 

 

REF:   Amnesia and Blind Sight

OBJ:   14.3

 

  1. Patients with amnesia show evidence of experience but do not have the subjective experience of consciousness. In other words, they are missing
a. qualia. c. intuition.
b. access. d. evidence.

 

 

REF:               Qualia                      OBJ:   14.3 | 14.9

 

 

  1. Alex is a blind-sight patient. He does not reach out for objects, but he avoids them when walking. He has ________ consciousness but not ________ consciousness.
a. access; phenomenal c. qualia; phenomenal
b. phenomenal; access d. overt; covert

 

 

REF:               Qualia                      OBJ:   14.3 | 14.9

 

 

  1. Blind-sight patients seem able to make many visual discriminations and, when pressed, to locate objects in their visual environment. Yet these same patients cannot walk across a room without bumping into something. The text suggests that blind-sight patients
a. are able to make discriminations only when the stimuli are particularly clear.
b. can make discriminations only in controlled laboratory conditions.
c. do not feel they have a reason or justification for using the information that is apparently available to them.
d. tend to rely on routine rather than use the information that is apparently available to them.

 

 

REF:   Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:   14.3 | 14.10

 

  1. Lisa rides the train to work and always gets off at Stop A. One Saturday she has to go into town, and she rides the same train she takes to work. She is supposed to get off at Stop F, but she starts talking to her mother on the phone and then gets off at Stop A. What does this tell us about unconscious processing?
a. Unconscious processing is impossible.
b. If not consciously attending to what we are doing, we will rely on habit.
c. Unconscious processing only causes problems.
d. People tend to make the same mistakes over and over again.

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. The term “action slip” refers to
a. an unintended action as the result of clumsy behavior.
b. mistakenly relying on a habitual response when a novel response was needed.
c. accidents that occur when a patient has blind sight.
d. the use of a conscious response rather than an unconscious one, even if it is more time-consuming.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Which of these tasks is LEAST likely to be resolved with the use of unconscious processes?
a. a task that can be guided by habits
b. a task that involves an already established routine
c. a task that elicits strong stimulus-based actions
d. a task that has been previously well practiced but needs to be changed for a particular occasion

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Which of these is the best example of an action slip?
a. Darren was distracted and so took his usual route home from work instead of turning left at the traffic light to go to his friend’s house, as he had intended.
b. David mistakenly pushed over a vase of flowers when he was reaching for his keys.
c. Daniel did not check the address of his dentist, as he mistakenly believed he remembered it correctly.
d. Derek reread the paragraph to make sure that he fully understood its content, even though he did not learn anything new from this second reading.

 

 

REF:   The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Why is the unconscious called “irresistible”?
a. Our unconscious is inflexible, making it difficult to adjust or overrule routines.
b. It is a sexy topic for psychologists to study.
c. Freud coined the phrase, and it is still in use today.
d. There are no limits to what the unconscious can achieve.

 

 

REF:               The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by relying on routine?
a. Mental tasks run more quickly.
b. We can focus attention on other aspects of a task, thus improving performance.
c. We can expend less effort in deciding how to execute a task.
d. We can consider each decision with greater care.

 

 

REF:               The Role for Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage gained by practicing a task?
a. Only one routine needs to be launched instead of several steps in order to complete a task.
b. Each step in the task no longer needs to be monitored to decide when to start the next step.
c. The task can be completed without the need to pay attention, so that attention can be allocated elsewhere.
d. Practice allows the mechanics behind the task to enter conscious awareness.

 

 

REF:   The Role for Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. In which of the following situations would reliance on routine benefit performance? When one is performing a(n)
a. task that is highly complex and involves the coordination of many elements.
b. unfamiliar task.
c. task that requires frequent choices and adjustments.
d. task for which a routine is available but the current circumstances are ones in which it would be best to avoid the habitual routine.

 

 

REF:   The Role for Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. The fact that we are unaware of most of our mental processing is a good thing for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that
a. the inferred processes that we are consciously aware of accurately reflect the unconscious processes that occur behind the scenes.
b. awareness of all of our processing would send us into information overload.
c. in many cases, information about our underlying mental processes would be distracting rather than helpful.
d. most tasks would be greatly slowed if we had to sort through all of the underlying processing information.

 

 

REF:   The Role for Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Anita has been driving a car with a stick shift for five years. What effect does her years of practice have on consciousness?
a. Practice reduces the need for executive control over shifting gears.
b. Practice has led her to be able to ignore shifting gears and focus entirely on other tasks while driving.
c. Practice has made her a worse driver because now she does not pay attention to the road.
d. Practice has given her a false sense of skill.

 

 

REF:               The Role for Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. ________ refers to one’s ability to monitor or control his or her own mental processes.
a. Metacognition c. Cognitive effort
b. Metabolism d. Mental control

 

 

REF:               Metacognition

OBJ:   14.5

 

  1. Billy thinks he understands the information from the textbook very well; however, he fails the quiz on that same material. Billy’s error results from a failure of
a. self-esteem. c. false memories.
b. metacognition. d. a problem-solving set.

 

 

REF:               Metacognition

OBJ:   14.5

 

  1. Metacognition is one example of
a. memory. c. unconscious processing.
b. executive control. d. reflexive responding.

 

 

REF:               Metacognition

OBJ:   14.5

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT necessary for successful metamemory?
a. executive control c. conscious reflection
b. self-monitoring d. habitual responding

 

 

REF:               Metacognition

OBJ:   14.5

 

  1. Biologically, attention seems to
a. sustain activity within a neural system but not to link the activity between different neural systems.
b. link the activities of different neural systems but not to help sustain the activity within a neural system.
c. sustain activity within a neural system as well as link the activities between different neural systems.
d. bind together neural systems that do not fire in synchrony.

 

 

REF:   The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. Which neural area is most critical for consciousness?
a. frontal lobe
b. brainstem
c. hindbrain
d. There is no single area that is responsible for consciousness.

 

 

REF:               The Many Brain Areas Needed for Consciousness

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. The anterior cingulate cortex plays a crucial role in
a. regulating attention.
b. regulating prefrontal cortex activity.
c. binding representations together from different brain areas.
d. detecting conflict among brain systems.

 

 

REF:               The Function of the Neuronal Workspace

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. Which area of the brain is thought to be critical for resolving conflicts among disparate goals?
a. occipital lobe c. anterior cingulated cortex
b. basal ganglia d. frontal lobe

 

 

REF:               The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. Matt has sustained damage to his anterior cingulated cortex. What sort of disruptions in behavior would we expect to see as a result of this damage?
a. difficulty with language, making problem solving difficult
b. an inability to pay attention to anything in his environment for more than a few seconds
c. difficulty overriding default responses with goal-directed behaviors
d. a form of amnesia

 

 

REF:   The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. The term “neural correlates of consciousness” refers most accurately to the
a. changes in the brain that occur when we become conscious of a stimulus.
b. subjective experience of how it feels to become conscious of a stimulus.
c. area of the brain that is damaged when a person experiences blind sight.
d. electrical activity in the brain that occurs when we are unconscious.

 

 

REF:   The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

OBJ:   14.7

 

  1. In order to detect that a red shape was moving, it is likely that
a. the neural system detecting motion and the neural system detecting the color red were both firing in synchrony.
b. only the neural system detecting the color red was firing, as color is visually more important than motion.
c. only the neural system detecting motion was firing, as motion is visually more important than color.
d. the neural system detecting motion and the neural system detecting the color red were both firing but at an asynchronous rate.

 

 

REF:               The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

OBJ:   14.7

 

  1. In the neuronal workspace hypothesis, workspace neurons
a. carry the content (or information) of consciousness.
b. dictate the rate at which neurons fire.
c. glue together bits of information from different neural systems to create a unified experience.
d. detect neural systems that are firing in synchrony with each other in order to amplify the output of the strongest of these systems and suppress the output of the others.

 

 

REF:   The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

OBJ:   14.7

 

  1. The neuronal workspace helps us with all of the following EXCEPT that it
a. allows us to think of a stimulus or idea long after the trigger for it has been removed.
b. breaks down a unitary experience into its separate components so that we are explicitly aware of the process behind redness and the process behind roundness every time we see an apple.
c. allows us to detect conflicts if two stimuli are leading toward different and incompatible responses or if the elicited response from a stimulus is incompatible with our goals.
d. allows us to compare neural systems in order to produce new combinations of ideas or novel behaviors.

 

 

REF:               The Cognitive Neuroscience of Consciousness

OBJ:   14.7

 

  1. What does the neuronal workspace suggest about brain activity when sleeping?
a. The brain is less active during sleep.
b. The activities of the various brain areas slow down during sleep.
c. During sleep, the brain’s activities are not coordinated.
d. Sleeping is just like being awake.

 

 

REF:   The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.8

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the role of the neuronal workspace in executive control is FALSE?
a. The workspace links other active areas of the brain, allowing for the “executive” to make decisions about current processing.
b. The workspace allows the executive to detect conflict that may arise from competing demands or goals.
c. It allows one to create new ideas and rise above habit.
d. It prevents activity from occurring in multiple areas of the brain, to avoid confusion.

 

 

REF:               The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.8

 

  1. One possible difference between a “sleeping brain” and an “awake brain” relates to the neuronal workspace. Which of the following statements most accurately represents this relationship?
a. When one is awake, the neuronal workspace allows areas of the brain to communicate with each other, which gives rise to consciousness.
b. The workspace prevents conflicting information from being processed during sleep, but not when one is awake.
c. Changes in brain activity are monitored by the neuronal workspace when one is asleep, but not when one is awake.
d. When one is asleep, the neuronal workspace allows areas of the brain to communicate with each other, which leads to dreaming.

 

 

REF:   The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.8

 

  1. What sort of question might a neuroscientist ask about qualia?
a. How does qualia influence mental processing?
b. How does qualia influence stimulus-response learning?
c. How does qualia impact behavior?
d. How does brain tissue give rise to a state like qualia?

 

 

REF:               Qualia                      OBJ:   14.9

 

 

  1. Which of the following is UNLIKELY to be the result of fluency effects?
a. confidence estimates c. qualia
b. familiarity estimates d. stereotype threat

 

 

REF:   Processing Fluency

OBJ:   14.9

 

  1. It is argued that people do not experience fluency as fluency. What explanation does the text give to describe this experience?
a. People think, “That was easy to process because I’ve experienced it before.”
b. People think, “That wasn’t as easy as some other tasks have been—maybe it is because it is a new task.”
c. People think, “Processing that was easy, so this must be important.”
d. People think, “This is familiar . . .,” and then develop an explanation as to why.

 

 

REF:               Processing Fluency

OBJ:   14.9

 

  1. The text argues that you will take action based on a memory
a. only if you are satisfied that the thought you are having is in fact an actual memory.
b. as soon as you recall the gist of the remembered information.
c. independently of how you assess the memory.
d. only if the content of the memory is consistent with your other beliefs.

 

 

REF:               Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:   14.10

 

  1. Which of the following claims about consciousness and memory is FALSE?
a. It is the nature and quality of our conscious experience that persuades us to take information seriously.
b. Outside of laboratory circumstances, we are unlikely to be influenced by the workings of implicit memory.
c. When our conscious experience is rich and detailed, this persuades us that the presented information is more than a fantasy or chance association.
d. When our conscious experience is impoverished, we tend not to take action based on the information gained from that experience.

 

 

REF:   Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:   14.10

 

  1. Is it possible that perceptual information has to be conscious before a person will put that information to use?
a. Yes, as in blind-sight patients who think they cannot see.
b. Yes, as in blind-sight patients who think they have no implicit memory.
c. No; patients with amnesia are likely to guess, even if not prompted.
d. No; the unconscious will always override the conscious.

 

 

REF:               Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:   14.10

 

  1. Participants in many experiments show clear evidence of implicit memory but fail on comparable tests of explicit memory. Yet the participants could, in principle, rely on their implicit memories to guide their guessing in the explicit test. If they did, they would perform well on the explicit tests. The text indicates that participants fail to do this because
a. implicit memories are memories of a sort that cannot be applied to a procedure with direct memory testing.
b. implicit memories are not detectable by the participant.
c. participants seem to treat their implicit memories as though they were unreliable chance associations, so they do not trust them to be actual memories.
d. participants seem to rely on implicit memories for perceptually based tasks but not for tasks that are more conceptual.

 

 

REF:               Consciousness as Justification for Action

OBJ:   14.10

 

  1. Although the text suggests that we know what consciousness is for, most researchers agree that defining consciousness is difficult. Which of these is LEAST likely to be a part of what

consciousness is?

a. subjective feelings, such as what apples taste like or what the color green looks like
b. automatic responses to strong cues in the environment
c. the ability to report and use mental experiences
d. the awareness of self, such as individual memories

 

 

REF:               Consciousness: What Is Left Unsaid

OBJ:   14.10

 

  1. The mind-body problem refers to the fact that
a. the body directs the mind.
b. the mind directs the body.
c. the mind is a different entity from the brain.
d. conscious experience is separate from the physical experience.

 

 

REF:               Consciousness: What Is Left Unsaid

OBJ:    14.10

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe the unconscious support structure that influences cognition and our cognitive products.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:               Unconscious Guides to Conscious Thinking

OBJ:   14.1

 

  1. What does consciousness tell us about the nature of introspection? Can we be trusted to know about the mental processes in which we engage? Why or why not? Provide examples to justify your position.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Mistaken Introspections                  OBJ:   14.2

 

 

  1. Explain why the experiences of patients with amnesia or blind sight are so critical to our understanding of consciousness. Make sure to include in your answer a discussion of the disorders, the paradoxical abilities that the patients exhibit, and what this says about consciousness in the rest of us.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Amnesia and Blind Sight                OBJ:   14.3

 

 

  1. Describe the benefits and dangers of unconscious processing. How does it facilitate cognitive processing in everyday life? How can it lead to errors?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Consciousness and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Are unconscious processes akin to “mental reflexes”? Support your answer with empirical evidence.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Limits of Unconscious Performance

OBJ:   14.4

 

  1. Your friend Mark thinks he is ready for his big test. Describe metacognition to Mark. What factors are likely to be accurate metacognitive markers? What could be misleading?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Metacognition                                           OBJ:               14.5

 

 

  1. How is consciousness represented in the brain? Describe the critical areas and how they interact to lead to conscious awareness.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Many Brain Areas Needed for Consciousness

OBJ:   14.6

 

  1. Explain the concept of a “neuronal workspace” as it relates to consciousness. Include in your description the appropriate neural correlates.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Neuronal Workspace               OBJ:   14.7

 

 

  1. Explain how the neuronal workspace would account for changes in consciousness associated with sleep.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   The Neuronal Workspace and Executive Control

OBJ:   14.8

 

  1. What does the phenomena of processing fluency suggest about the nature of consciousness and our own intuitions about our cognitive processing?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

REF:   Processing Fluency                         OBJ:   14.9