Sample Chapter

 

INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Test Bank For Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology 5th Edition by Eisenberg

 

 

 

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

 

Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 5th Edition

 

Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is this type of process.
a. Idiopathic
b. Iatrogenic
c. Neoplasia
d. Community acquired

 

 

ANS:   B

The disease process caused by physicians and their treatment is iatrogenic.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. Basic reactions of the body to some form of injury is a:
a. Disease process
b. Pathology
c. Study of diseases
d. Idiopathic process

 

 

ANS:   A

A disease is the pattern of the body’s response to some form of injury.

 

REF:    p. 1

 

  1. What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown?
a. Idiopathic
b. Antietiologic
c. Iatrogenic
d. Nosocomial

 

 

ANS:   A

Idiopathic diseases are those with an unknown, or as of yet unidentified, cause.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells is called:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Aplasia

 

 

ANS:   C

Alterations in cell growth lead to the development of neoplasms (tumors).

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. The initial response of body tissues to local injury is:
a. Infection
b. Ischemia
c. Edema
d. Inflammation

 

 

ANS:   D

Inflammation is the initial response of body tissues to local injury.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. Heat and redness associated with inflammation is produced by:
a. Hyperemia
b. Scar tissue
c. Hyperplasia
d. Infarction

 

 

ANS:   A

This hyperemia produces the heat and redness associated with inflammation.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. In an injury, the destroyed tissue is replaced with:
a. Granulomatous inflammation
b. Granulation tissue
c. Phagocytes
d. Pyogens

 

 

ANS:   B

A fibrous scar replaces the area of destroyed tissue with granulation tissue. Granulation tissue refers to a combination of young, developing capillaries and actively proliferating fibroblasts, which produce connective tissue fibers (collagen) that replace the dead tissue.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. Of the five clinical signs of acute inflammation, the medical term for swelling is:
a. Edema
b. Tumor
c. Calor
d. Dolor

 

 

ANS:   B

The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. Some bacterial organisms that produce these substances that cause damage to the tissue and incite the inflammatory process are known as:
a. Toxoids
b. Pyogens
c. Toxins
d. Abscesses

 

 

ANS:   C

Some bacterial organisms (such as staphylococci and streptococci) produce toxins that damage the tissues and incite an inflammatory response.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. Chronic inflammation in a localized area, which often has a centralized necrosis is called:
a. An exudates
b. A granuloma
c. An abscess
d. Hyperplasia

 

 

ANS:   B

A granuloma is a localized area of chronic inflammation, often with central necrosis.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. In acute inflammation, the localized heat and redness are a result of the:
a. Migration of circulating white blood cells
b. Increased blood flow and vascular permeability
c. Regeneration of normal parenchymal cells
d. Enzymatic digestion of dead cells

 

 

ANS:   B

The localized heat and redness result from increased blood flow in the microcirculation at the site of injury.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. In pyogenic infections, the body responds by producing a thick, yellow fluid called:
a. Bacteria
b. Pus
c. Edema
d. A scar

 

 

ANS:   B

The presence of pyogenic bacteria leads to the production of a thick, yellow fluid called pus, which contains dead white blood cells, inflammatory exudates, and bacteria.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. All pyogens have the ability to enter the blood circulation causing:
a. Bacteremia
b. Phagocytosis
c. Septicemia
d. Keloid tissue

 

 

ANS:   A

All pyogens, wherever they become implanted, have the ability to invade blood vessels to produce bacteremia, with the potential involvement of other organs and tissues in the body.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. Connective tissue fibers replacing dead tissue, then contracting in the abdomen are known as:
a. Keloids
b. Suppurative inflammation
c. Fibrous adhesions
d. Hyperemia

 

 

ANS:   C

Eventually the strong connective tissue contracts to produce a fibrous scar. In the abdomen, such fibrous adhesions can narrow loops of intestine and result in an obstruction.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is called:
a. Bacteremia
b. Elephantiasis
c. Filariasis
d. Anasarca

 

 

ANS:   D

Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. Localized _____ is produced in an inflammatory reaction as a result of a fluid accumulation.
a. Filariasis
b. Edema
c. Elephantiasis
d. Fibrous adhesions

 

 

ANS:   B

Edema is the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body cavities. Localized edema results from an inflammatory reaction.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. An inflammation associated with pus formation is:
a. Bacteremia
b. Phagocytosis
c. Suppurative
d. Hyperemia

 

 

ANS:   C

Suppurative inflammation is associated with pus formation.

 

REF:    p. 4

 

  1. The protein-rich fluid associated with swelling in an inflammatory process is:
a. Exudate
b. Transudate
c. Pus
d. Permeable

 

 

ANS:   A

This inflammatory exudate in the tissues results in the swelling associated with inflammation. The protein-rich exudate of inflammation must be differentiated from a transudate, a low-protein fluid, such as that seen in the pulmonary edema that develops in congestive heart failure.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. The low-protein fluid associated with the inflammatory process as seen in pulmonary edema is called:
a. An abscess
b. Exudate
c. Transudate
d. Filariasis

 

 

ANS:   C

The protein-rich exudate of inflammation must be differentiated from a transudate, a low-protein fluid, such as that seen in the pulmonary edema that develops in congestive heart failure.

 

REF:    p. 3

 

  1. A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by vascular occlusion is a(n):
a. Gangrene
b. Infarct
c. Purpura
d. Ecchymosis

 

 

ANS:   B

An infarct is a localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ produced by occlusion of either its arterial supply or its venous drainage.

 

REF:    p. 5

 

  1. Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as:
a. Ischemia
b. Petechiae
c. Filariasis
d. Gangrene

 

 

ANS:   A

Ischemia refers to an interference with the blood supply to an organ or part of an organ, depriving the organ’s cells and tissues of oxygen and nutrients.

 

REF:    p. 5

 

  1. The progression of a loss of oxygen and nutrients resulting in tissue necrosis especially in the diabetic’s foot is called:
a. Infarction
b. Gangrene
c. Ischemia
d. Hemorrhage

 

 

ANS:   B

Severe arterial disease of the lower extremities may result in necrosis of several toes or a large segment of the foot, a condition called gangrene. A frequent symptom in diabetic patients is ischemia of the foot, which may progress to infarction and result in gangrene.

 

REF:    p. 5

 

  1. A subcutaneous hematoma greater than 1 to 2 cm is called a(n):
a. Purpura
b. Ecchymosis
c. Petechia
d. Infarct

 

 

ANS:   B

A large (greater than 1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous hematoma, or bruise, is called an ecchymosis.

 

REF:    p. 6

 

  1. An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a(an):
a. Hematoma
b. Ecchymosis
c. Petechiae
d. Pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:   A

Blood may be trapped within body tissues resulting in an accumulation called a hematoma.

 

REF:    p. 5

 

  1. Bleeding into mucous membranes or serosal surfaces is referred to as:
a. Petechiae
b. Hemorrhage
c. Purpura
d. Ecchymosis

 

 

ANS:   A

Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae.

 

REF:    p. 5

 

  1. Volume of blood loss, the rate of blood loss, and the site of the blood loss will determine the:
a. Patient status
b. Clinical significance
c. Treatment required
d. All of the above

 

 

ANS:   D

The significance of hemorrhage depends on the volume of blood loss, the rate of loss, and the site of the hemorrhage. Sudden losses of up to 20% of the blood volume or slow losses of even larger amounts may have little clinical significance.

 

REF:    p. 6

 

  1. When a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ occurs, this results in:
a. Aplasia
b. Atrophy
c. Hypoplasia
d. Dysplasia

 

 

ANS:   B

Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue.

 

REF:    p. 6

 

  1. When cells fail to develop and as a result the organ is small, the organ is considered:
a. Hypoplastic
b. Dysplastic
c. Hyperplastic
d. Anaplastic

 

 

ANS:   A

Failure of normal development accounts for small size in hypoplasia and aplasia.

 

REF:    p. 6

 

  1. When increased function of an organ is required, the term _____ is used.
a. Neoplastic
b. Hypotrophy
c. Hyperplasia
d. Hypertrophy

 

 

ANS:   D

Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function.

 

REF:    p. 6

 

  1. The proliferation of granulation tissue to repair an injury is an example of:
a. Hypertrophy
b. Anaplasia
c. Hyperplasia
d. Dysplasia

 

 

ANS:   C

Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ. Proliferation of granulation tissue in the repair of injury is an example.

 

REF:    pp. 6-7

 

  1. The Latin word for “new growth” is:
a. Tumor
b. Seeding
c. Neoplasia
d. Ecchymosis

 

 

ANS:   C

Neoplasia, from the Latin word for new growth, refers to an abnormal proliferation of cells that are no longer controlled by the factors that govern the growth of normal cells.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. New growths that invade and destroy adjacent structures and have the ability to spread are considered:
a. Neoplastic
b. Benign
c. Cachexia
d. Malignant

 

 

ANS:   D

Malignant neoplasms invade and destroy adjacent structures and spread to distant sites (metastasize).

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. A polyp is a:
a. Projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane
b. Malignant epithelial neoplasm
c. Benign cartilaginous tumor
d. Cancer

 

 

ANS:   A

An epithelial tumor that grows as a projecting mass on the skin or from an inner mucous membrane (such as the gastrointestinal tract) is termed a papilloma or a polyp.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. A malignancy of glandular tissue, such as breast or liver, is referred to as a(n):
a. Adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Cystadenoma
d. Dysplasia

 

 

ANS:   B

Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. The term derived from the Latin term for “crab” is:
a. Benign
b. Oncology
c. Neoplasia
d. Cancer

 

 

ANS:   D

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning “crab.”

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. The study of neoplasms or tumors is called:
a. Pathology
b. Radiology
c. Oncology
d. Etiology

 

 

ANS:   C

Neoplasms are commonly referred to as tumors; indeed, the study of neoplasms is called oncology, derived from the Greek word oncos, meaning “tumor.”

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called::
a. Malignant
b. Benign
c. Cancerous
d. Dysplastic

 

 

ANS:   B

Benign tumors closely resemble their cells of origin in structure and function.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. When tumor cells flourish, causing the patient to become weak and emaciated, this condition is referred to as:
a. Cachexia
b. Petechiae
c. Anorexia
d. Anaplastic

 

 

ANS:   A

Neoplastic cells act as parasites, competing with normal cells and tissues for their metabolic needs. Thus tumor cells may flourish, and the patient becomes weak and emaciated, a condition termed cachexia.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. Benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in a glandlike pattern are:
a. Cystadenomas
b. Adenocarcinomas
c. Adenomas
d. Fibromas

 

 

ANS:   C

The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. Tumors that contain muscle cells are called:
a. Myelomas
b. Myomas
c. Papilloma
d. Hypertrophic

 

 

ANS:   B

Myomas are tumors consisting of muscle cells.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. Tumor cells of stratified squamous epithelium, which invade and destroy adjacent structures, make up:
a. Adenomas
b. Sarcomas
c. Cystadenomas
d. Squamous cell carcinomas

 

 

ANS:   D

Squamous cell carcinoma denotes a cancer in which the tumor cells resemble stratified squamous epithelium.

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. If a neoplastic growth proliferates without form, it is considered:
a. Anaplastic
b. Dysplastic
c. Aplastic
d. Hyperplastic

 

 

ANS:   A

A tumor growing in a bizarre pattern is termed undifferentiated or anaplastic (without form).

 

REF:    p. 7

 

  1. Symptoms suggestive of esophageal or stomach cancer are:
a. Anasarca and dysphagia
b. Anaplasia and anorexia
c. Aplasia and gangrene
d. Anorexia and dysphagia

 

 

ANS:   D

Difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia) or loss of appetite (anorexia), especially if accompanied by rapid weight loss, suggests a neoplasm in the esophagus or stomach.

 

REF:    p. 8

 

  1. Diffuse spread of malignant neoplasms by invasion into a natural body cavity is called:
a. Tumor grading
b. Staging
c. Seeding
d. Lymphatic spread

 

 

ANS:   C

Seeding (diffuse spread) of cancers occurs when neoplasms invade a natural body cavity.

 

REF:    p. 8

 

  1. The major metastatic route of carcinomas is:
a. Lymphatic spread
b. Undifferentiated spread
c. Hematopoietic spread
d. Hematogenous spread

 

 

ANS:   A

Lymphatic spread is the major metastatic route of carcinomas, especially those of the lung and breast.

 

REF:    p. 8

 

  1. Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as:
a. Staging
b. Grading
c. Seeding
d. Metastatic

 

 

ANS:   B

The grading of a malignant tumor assesses aggressiveness, or degree of malignancy.

 

REF:    p. 9

 

  1. To determine the most appropriate therapy, the disease process must be:
a. Seeded
b. Staged
c. Graded
d. Phased

 

 

ANS:   B

Staging refers to the extensiveness of a tumor at its primary site and the presence or absence of metastases to lymph nodes and distant organs, such as the liver, lungs, and skeleton. The staging of a tumor aids in determining the most appropriate therapy.

 

REF:    p. 9

 

  1. Using a combination of cytotoxic substances to kill neoplastic cells is called:
a. Radiation therapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Hormonal therapy
d. Seeding

 

 

ANS:   B

Chemotherapy uses one or a combination of cytotoxic substances that kill neoplastic cells, but these drugs may injure many normal cells and result in significant complications.

 

REF:    p. 9

 

  1. The most common hereditary abnormality is:
a. Chromosomal aberration
b. Enzyme deficiency
c. Glycogen and lipid storage disease
d. Sex-linked disorders

 

 

ANS:   B

The most common hereditary abnormality is an enzyme deficiency.

 

REF:    p. 9

 

  1. Exposure to radiation, chemicals, or viruses may result in alterations in the DNA called:
a. Mutations
b. Reduced penetrance
c. Variable expressivity
d. Aberrations

 

 

ANS:   A

Mutations are alterations in the DNA structure that may become permanent hereditary changes if they affect the gonadal cells. Mutations may result from radiation, chemicals, or viruses.

 

REF:    p. 10

 

  1. A gene always producing an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous is named a(an) _____ gene.
a. Recessive
b. Dominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal dominant

 

 

ANS:   B

Dominant genes always produce an effect regardless of whether the person is homozygous or heterozygous.

 

REF:    p. 10

 

  1. When a vaccine or toxoid is used to counteract an antigen, it is considered:
a. Passive immunity
b. Active immunity
c. Community-acquired immunity
d. Iatrogenic

 

 

ANS:   B

In active immunity, a person forms antibodies to counteract an antigen in the form of a vaccine or a toxoid.

 

REF:    p. 11

 

  1. The body has the ability to combat antigens by forming _____ in the lymphoid tissue.
a. Antibodies
b. Toxins
c. Immunoglobulins
d. A and C

 

 

ANS:   D

The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies or immunoglobulins to counteract them.

 

REF:    p. 11

 

  1. Hypotension and vascular collapse with urticaria, bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema are characteristics of:
a. Anaphylactic reactions
b. Cytotoxic reactions
c. Histamine release
d. Delayed reactions

 

 

ANS:   A

Generalized, or systemic, anaphylactic reactions are characterized by hypotension and vascular collapse (shock) with urticaria (hives), bronchiolar spasm, and laryngeal edema.

 

REF:    p. 11

 

  1. Profound and sustained impairment of cellular immunity resulting in recurrent or sequential opportunistic infections is characteristic of:
a. Anaphylactic reactions
b. Histamine release
c. AIDS
d. Cytotoxic reactions

 

 

ANS:   C

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which most commonly affects young homosexual men and intravenous drug abusers, is characterized by a profound and sustained impairment of cellular immunity that results in recurrent or sequential opportunistic infections.

 

REF:    p. 12

 

  1. The retrovirus known to contribute to AIDS is:
a. Hepatitis
b. Human immunodeficiency virus
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Kaposi sarcoma

 

 

ANS:   B

AIDS is attributable to infection with retroviruses known as human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV).

 

REF:    p. 12

 

  1. A hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate spreading to the lung periphery is the early radiographic finding of:
a. AIDS
b. Kaposi syndrome
c. Hepatitis
d. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   D

The typical early radiographic finding of P. carinii pneumonia is a hazy, perihilar, granular infiltrate that spreads to the periphery and appears preponderantly interstitial.

 

REF:    p. 12

 

  1. The modality of choice to demonstrate the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system is:
a. CT
b. Nuclear medicine
c. Ultrasound
d. MRI

 

 

ANS:   D

MRI best demonstrates the multiple manifestations of AIDS in the central nervous system.

 

REF:    p. 12

 

  1. All of the following are protective personnel equipment (PPE), except:
a. Gown
b. Gloves
c. Mask
d. Sharps container

 

 

ANS:   D

A sharps container is not used for personnel protection against the transmission of diseases.

 

REF:    p. 13

 

  1. All of the following are additive diseases in terms of x-ray attenuation, except:
a. Pneumonia
b. Osteolytic metastasis
c. Callus
d. Ascites

 

 

ANS:   B

Osteolytic metastasis is a destructive disease.

 

REF:    p. 2

 

MATCHING

 

Match each of the following terms with the correct answer. Each question has only one correct answer.

a. Rubor
b. Calor
c. Dolor
d. Tumor

 

 

  1. Heat

 

  1. Pain

 

  1. Redness

 

  1. Swelling

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: The five clinical signs of acute inflammation are rubor (redness), calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and loss of function.

 

Match the following terms related to edema.

a. A parasitic worm causing a lymphatic obstruction
b. Accumulation of fluid in a serous cavity
c. Extravascular fluid collection surrounding the heart
d. Localized edema resulting from a lymphatic obstruction
e. Pronounced swelling in subcutaneous tissue throughout the body

 

 

  1. Anasarca

 

  1. Elephantiasis

 

  1. Filariasis

 

  1. Pericardial effusion

 

  1. Peritoneal ascites

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 4

NOT:   Rationale: Generalized edema occurs with pronounced swelling of subcutaneous tissues throughout the body (anasarca).In filariasis, a parasitic worm causes lymphatic obstruction, and the resulting localized edema is termed elephantiasis. Extravascular fluid can also accumulate in serous cavities to produce pleural and pericardial effusions and peritoneal ascites.

 

Match the following terms related to hemorrhage.

a. An accumulation of blood in the tissue
b. Large (greater than 1 to 2 cm) subcutaneous bruise
c. Larger areas of bleeding into the skin
d. Minimal bleeding in the skin or mucous membrane
e. Rupture of a blood vessel

 

 

  1. Ecchymosis

 

  1. Hematoma

 

  1. Hemorrhage

 

  1. Petechiae

 

  1. Purpura

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are termed purpura.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 5

NOT:   Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are termed purpura.

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    p. 5

NOT:   Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are termed purpura.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 5

NOT:   Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are termed purpura.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: The term hemorrhage implies rupture of a blood vessel. Blood may be trapped within body tissues, resulting in an accumulation termed a hematoma. Minimal hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces are called petechiae; slightly larger hemorrhages are termed purpura.

 

Match the following terms related to alterations in cell growth.

a. Failure of normal development causing smaller cells
b. Increased size of the cells
c. Loss of uniformity of individual cells
d. Number of cells in the tissue increases
e. Reduction in number or size of cells

 

 

  1. Atrophy

 

  1. Dysplasia

 

  1. Hyperplasia

 

  1. Hypertrophy

 

  1. Hypoplasia

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss in the uniformity of individual cells.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss in the uniformity of individual cells.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss in the uniformity of individual cells.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss in the uniformity of individual cells.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 6

NOT:   Rationale: Atrophy refers to a reduction in the size or number of cells in an organ or tissue, hypoplasia and aplasia, in which failure of normal development accounts for small size. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function. Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, whereas dysplasia is a loss in the uniformity of individual cells.

 

Match the following terms related to the neoplastic process.

a. A malignant tumor arising from connective tissue
b. Benign tumor consisting of fibrous tissue
c. Cartilaginous tumor that is benign
d. Composed of blood vessels
e. Forming benign large cystic masses
f. Glandular cell malignancy
g. Malignancy of epithelial cell origin
h. Soft, fatty tissue tumor
i. Tumor that grows in a glandlike pattern

 

 

  1. Adenocarcinoma

 

  1. Adenoma

 

  1. Angioma

 

  1. Carcinoma

 

  1. Chondroma

 

  1. Cystadenoma

 

  1. Fibroma

 

  1. Lipoma

 

  1. Sarcoma

 

  1. ANS:   F                      REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   I                      REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   G                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   H                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 7

NOT:   Rationale: Benign tumors of fibrous tissue are termed fibromas; benign cartilaginous tumors are chondromas. The term adenoma is applied to benign epithelial neoplasms that grow in glandlike patterns. Benign tumors that form large cystic masses are called cystadenomas. Lipomas consist of soft, fatty tissue, and angiomas are tumors composed of blood vessels. Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cell origin are called carcinomas, from the Greek word karbinos, meaning crab. Adenocarcinoma refers to malignancies of glandular tissues, such as the breast, liver, and pancreas, and of the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract. Sarcomas are highly malignant tumors arising from connective tissues, such as bone, muscle, and cartilage.

 

Match the following terms related to immunity.

a. Binds with foreign substance to make harmless
b. Body makes harmless
c. Chemically altered poisonous material
d. Form in lymphoid tissue
e. Low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or virus
f. Recognition of foreign substance

 

 

  1. Antibody

 

  1. Antigen

 

  1. Immune

 

  1. Immunoglobulin

 

  1. Toxoid

 

  1. Vaccine

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

  1. ANS:   F                      REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

  1. ANS:   E                     REF:    p. 11

NOT:   Rationale: The immune reaction of the body provides a powerful defense against invading organisms by allowing it to recognize foreign substances (antigens), such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins, and to produce antibodies to counteract them. The antibody binds together with the antigen to make the antigen harmless. Once antibodies have been produced, a person becomes immune to the antigen. Antibodies, or immunoglobulins, form in lymphoid tissue. A vaccine consists of a low dose of dead or deactivated bacteria or viruses. A toxoid is a chemically altered toxin, the poisonous material produced by a pathogenic organism.

 

Eisenberg: Comprehensive Radiographic Pathology, 5th Edition

 

Chapter 3: Respiratory System

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. External respiration takes place within the:
a. Bronchi
b. Bronchioles
c. Alveoli
d. Trachea

 

 

ANS:   C

The vital gas exchange within the lung (called external respiration) takes place within the alveoli.

 

REF:    p. 37

 

  1. The lower respiratory system consists of:
a. Oropharynx, bronchi, and bronchioles
b. Trachea, nasopharynx, and alveoli
c. Trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles
d. Larynx, trachea, and bronchi

 

 

ANS:   C

The lower respiratory system is the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles, which is composed of tubular structures responsible for conducting air from the upper respiratory structures.

 

REF:    p. 36

 

  1. The thin-walled sac where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged with the blood in the pulmonary circulatory system is a(n):
a. Bronchiole
b. Alveolus
c. Tertiary bronchus
d. Alveolar duct

 

 

ANS:   B

The vital gas exchange within the lung (called external respiration) takes place within the alveoli, extremely thin-walled sacs surrounded by blood capillaries, which represent the true parenchyma of the lung. Oxygen in the inhaled air diffuses from the alveoli into the blood capillaries.

 

REF:    p. 37

 

  1. The trachea is:
a. A noncollapsible tubular structure of C-shaped cartilage
b. A boxlike structure consisting of nine pieces of cartilage
c. Connected to the nasopharynx superiorly
d. A noncollapsible tubular structure of oval-shaped cartilage

 

 

ANS:   A

The lower respiratory system, which consists of the trachea, is composed of tubular structures supported by C-shaped cartilage.

 

REF:    p. 36

 

  1. The blood supply to nourish and support lung tissue is the:
a. Low-pressure system
b. Pulmonary circulation
c. Bronchial circulation
d. Low-resistance system

 

 

ANS:   C

The bronchial circulation, which is a part of the high-pressure systemic circulation, supplies oxygenated blood to nourish (or support) the lung tissue itself.

 

REF:    p. 37

 

  1. The serous membrane lining that adheres to the chest wall is the:
a. Parietal viscera
b. Visceral pleura
c. Parietal pleura
d. Serous fibrous pleura

 

 

ANS:   C

The parietal pleura is a membrane which lines the inner chest wall.

 

REF:    p. 37

 

  1. For what purpose is a chest radiograph obtained after endotracheal tube insertion?
a. To check for pneumonia
b. To insure proper placement/position
c. To check for puncture of the trachea
d. All of these are reasons to obtain a chest radiograph after endotracheal tube insertion.

 

 

ANS:   B

A chest radiograph should always be obtained immediately after endotracheal intubation to ensure proper positioning because clinical evaluation (bilateral breath sounds, symmetric thoracic expansion, and palpation of the tube in the sternal notch) does not allow detection of the majority of malpositioned tubes.

 

REF:    p. 38

 

  1. What result can occur when an endotracheal tube is positioned too high?
a. pneumothorax
b. pneumomediastinum
c. left lung atelectasis
d. aspiration pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   D

An endotracheal tube positioned excessively high or in the esophagus causes the inspired air to enter the stomach, causing severe gastric dilatation and a high likelihood of regurgitation of gastric contents and aspiration pneumonia.

 

REF:    p. 38

 

  1. What is a common result of an endotracheal tube that is positioned too low and into the right main stem bronchus?
a. pneumothorax
b. pneumomediastinum
c. left lung atelectasis
d. right main stem bronchus puncture

 

 

ANS:   C

An endotracheal tube positioned too low usually extends into the right mainstem bronchus, where it eventually leads to atelectasis of the left lung.

 

REF:    p. 38

 

  1. What image is obtained to verify the correct placement of a central venous catheter?
a. Chest radiograph
b. KUB
c. Soft tissue neck
d. All of these

 

 

ANS:   A

Because up to one third of CVP catheters are initially inserted incorrectly, the position of the catheter should be confirmed by a chest radiograph.

 

REF:    p. 38

 

  1. Which of the following complications may occur as a result of central venous catheter insertion or misplacment?

(1) pneumothorax

(2) air embolism

(3) puncture of the subclavian artery

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

ANS:   D

The anatomy of the subclavian region may lead to complications when a central catheter is introduced via the subclavian vein. Because the pleura covering the apex of the lung lie just deep to the subclavian vein, a pneumothorax may develop. This may be difficult to detect clinically, and thus a chest radiograph (if possible with the patient in an upright position and in expiration) should be obtained whenever insertion of a subclavian catheter has been attempted. Another complication is perivascular CVP catheter placement, which may result in ectopic infusion of fluid into the mediastinum or pleural space. This diagnosis should be suggested if there is rapid development of mediastinal widening or pleural effusion after CVP catheter insertion. Other complications include inadvertent puncture of the subclavian artery, air embolism, and injury to the phrenic nerve.

 

REF:    p. 39

 

  1. Which type of internal device is used for chemotherapy and long-term venous access?
a. Endotracheal tube
b. Swan-Ganz catheter
c. Central venous catheter
d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

 

 

ANS:   D

The peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) has become the long-term venous access device used for home therapy and chemotherapy patients.

 

REF:    p. 39

 

  1. Which type of internal device is used for measurements of cardiac output and pulmonary capillary wedge and central venous pressures?
a. Endotracheal tube
b. Swan-Ganz catheter
c. Central venous catheter
d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

 

 

ANS:   B

The flow-directed Swan-Ganz catheter consists of a central channel for measuring pulmonary capillary wedge (PCW) pressure and a second, smaller channel connected to an inflatable balloon at the catheter tip. Cardiac output and CVP can also be measured by use of this catheter.

 

REF:    pp. 39-40

 

  1. The hereditary disease process characterized by the excretion of viscous mucus blocking the air passages is:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Pneumonia
d. Pleurisy

 

 

ANS:   A

Cystic fibrosis (mucoviscidosis) is a hereditary disease characterized by the secretion of excessively viscous mucus. Thick mucus secreted by mucosa in the trachea and bronchi blocks the air passages.

 

REF:    p. 40

 

  1. The newborn who experiences underaeration of the lungs resulting from a lack of surfactant has:
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Hyaline membrane disease
c. Croup
d. Pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   B

Hyaline membrane disease, also known as idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), is one of the most common causes of respiratory distress in the newborn. Underaeration of the lungs in hyaline membrane disease results from a lack of surfactant.

 

REF:    p. 42

 

  1. Croup is a(n):
a. Viral infection of the subglottic region of the trachea
b. Infection involving the pleural lining of the lung
c. Bronchial spasm narrowing the bronchi
d. Trapping of air in the alveolar sacs

 

 

ANS:   A

Croup is primarily a viral infection of young children that produces inflammatory obstructive swelling localized to the subglottic portion of the trachea.

 

REF:    p. 43

 

  1. Swelling of the epiglottic tissue commonly caused by the flu is:
a. Croup
b. Epiglottitis
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   B

Acute infections of the epiglottis, most commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae in children, causes thickening of epiglottic tissue.

 

REF:    p. 43

 

  1. An inflammatory exudate caused by pneumococcus causing the affected lung to appear solid is called:
a. Alveolar pneumonia
b. Viral pneumonia
c. Bronchopneumonia
d. Interstitial pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   A

Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque.

 

REF:    p. 44

 

  1. Viral and fungal infections causing a thickened interstitium appearing on CT as a “honeycomb lung” is:
a. Aspiration pneumonia
b. Coccidioidomycosis
c. Pleurisy
d. Interstitial pneumonia

 

 

ANS:   D

Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. The thickened interstitium may appear as multiple small nodular densities. Left untreated, interstitial pneumonia may cause honeycomb lung, which is demonstrated by computed tomography (CT).

 

REF:    p. 45

 

  1. The lung disease that is a highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate is:
a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Anthrax
d. Epiglottitis

 

 

ANS:   C

Anthrax is considered a highly volatile microbe because of its ease of transmission and high fatality rate.

 

REF:    p. 46

 

  1. A lung abscess is a(n):
a. Necrotic area containing purulent material
b. Encapsulated area containing water
c. Fungus settled in the lung parenchyma
d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:   A

A lung abscess is a necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma containing purulent (puslike) material.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

  1. Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coat permitting existence outside the host for long periods cause:
a. Bacterial pneumonia
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Bronchopneumonia

 

 

ANS:   C

Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a rod-shaped bacterium with a protective waxy coat that permits it to live outside the body for a long time.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

  1. Sharply circumscribed encapsulation of the tuberculosis bacilli is known as a(n):
a. Anthrax
b. Lung abscess
c. Necrosis
d. Tuberculoma

 

 

ANS:   D

A tuberculoma is a sharply circumscribed parenchymal nodule, often containing viable tuberculosis bacilli.

 

REF:    p. 49

 

  1. Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis are examples of:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pulmonary mycoses
c. Lung abscesses
d. Pneumoconiosis

 

 

ANS:   B

The term pulmonary mycosis means fungal infection of the lung. The two most common systemic fungal infections found in North America are histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. Chronic histoplasmosis has a radiographic appearance similar to:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:   C

Chronic histoplasmosis and advanced chronic coccidioidomycosis closely simulate the radiographic appearance of reinfection tuberculosis.

 

REF:    p. 51

 

  1. The disease that attacks the lower respiratory system causing necrosis of the respiratory epithelium of the bronchi and bronchioles leading to bronchiolitis is called:
a. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
b. Pulmonary mycosis
c. Anthrax
d. Pneumoconiosis

 

 

ANS:   A

RSV attacks the lower respiratory tract and causes necrosis of the respiratory epithelium of the bronchi and bronchioles, which leads to bronchiolitis.

 

REF:    p. 51

 

  1. The Coronavirus of unknown origin that causes upper and lower respiratory infections that begin with a nonproductive cough is:
a. Respiratory syncytial virus
b. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
c. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
d. Idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome

 

 

ANS:   B

SARS-Coronavirus of unknown origin, may survive in the environment many days. Person-to-person or droplet contact causes upper and lower respiratory infections that begin with a nonproductive cough.

 

REF:    p. 52

 

  1. The general term used to describe obstruction of the airways leading to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases is:
a. Pulmonary mycosis
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Pneumoconiosis
d. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

 

 

ANS:   B

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult.

 

REF:    p. 53

 

  1. A crippling and debilitating condition resulting from trapped air causing a loss of elasticity in the alveoli is callled:
a. Bronchitis
b. Asthma
c. Emphysema
d. Pneumoconiosis

 

 

ANS:   C

Emphysema is a crippling and debilitating condition in which obstructive and destructive changes occur in small airways. Continuous bronchial narrowing and loss of elasticity, exacerbated by cigarette smoking, make it very difficult for the patient to exhale the stale air The resulting air trapping and overinflation of the lung lead to alveolar distention and eventually to the rupture of alveolar septa.

 

REF:    p. 53

 

  1. The hallmark of pulmonary overinflation in cases of emphysema is:
a. Flattened diaphragms
b. Widened mediastinum
c. Calcification of the hilar region
d. Pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:   A

The hallmark of pulmonary overinflation is flattening of the domes of the diaphragm.

 

REF:    p. 54

 

  1. Common allergens causing a widespread narrowing of the airways are:
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Bronchitis
c. Pneumonia
d. Asthma

 

 

ANS:   D

Asthma is a very common disease in which widespread narrowing of the airways develops because of an increased responsiveness of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli (allergens).

 

REF:    p. 55

 

  1. Inhaled foreign substances retained permanently in the acini causing irreversible damage is:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Bronchitis
d. Pulmonary mycosis

 

 

ANS:   B

Inhaled foreign substances retained permanently in the acini cause irreversible damage in cases of environmental exposure in cases of pneumoconiosis.

 

REF:    p. 58

 

  1. Prolonged exposure to quartz dust found in the earth’s crust causes:
a. Pneumoconiosis
b. Anthracosis
c. Silicosis
d. Asbestosis

 

 

ANS:   C

Quartz dust is the most frequent cause of inhalation silicosis.

 

REF:    p. 58

 

  1. Asbestos fibers cause major fibrosis resulting in:
a. Pleural effusion
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Black lung
d. Pleural plaques

 

 

ANS:   D

The radiographic hallmark of asbestosis is involvement of the pleura. Initially, pleural thickening appears as linear plaques of opacification, which are most often along the lower chest wall and diaphragm. Calcification of the pleural plaques is virtually pathognomonic of asbestosis.

 

REF:    p. 59

 

  1. Squamous carcinoma typically arises from the _____ causing gradual narrowing of the bronchial lumen.
a. Major central bronchi
b. Glandular structures
c. Pleural lining
d. Lung parenchyma

 

 

ANS:   A

Squamous carcinoma typically arises in the major central bronchi and causes gradual narrowing of the bronchial lumen

 

REF:    p. 62

 

  1. The most common malignant lung neoplasm arising from the mucosa of the bronchial tree is:
a. Squamous carcinoma
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Bronchiolar carcinoma

 

 

ANS:   B

Primary carcinoma of the lung arises from the mucosa of the bronchial tree. The most common primary malignant lung neoplasm is bronchogenic carcinoma.

 

REF:    p. 62

 

  1. Coccidioidomycosis is:
a. Caused by fungal exposure
b. An example of pulmonary mycosis
c. Caused by viral exposure
d. A and B

 

 

ANS:   D

Coccidioidomycosis is caused by a fungus, Coccidioides immitis, which is found in the desert soil of the southwestern United States.

 

REF:    p. 50

 

  1. Silicosis is a type of:
a. Pulmonary mycosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Pneumoconiosis
d. COPD

 

 

ANS:   C

The most common of the pneumoconioses is silicosis.

 

REF:    p. 58

 

  1. Inflammation caused by bacillus (mycobacterium) resulting in lesions (or cavities) that may calcify and are usually found in the apices is known as:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Pneumonia
d. Cystic fibrosis

 

 

ANS:   A

In the lung, tuberculous scars are commonly found in the posterior apical segments. They often contain calcium.

 

REF:    p. 47

 

  1. Pulmonary metastatic disease most commonly originates from a carcinoma in the:
a. Brain
b. Prostate
c. Breast
d. Spine

 

 

ANS:   C

Pulmonary metastases may develop from hematogenous or lymphatic spread, most commonly from musculoskeletal sarcomas, myeloma, and carcinomas of the breast, urogenital tract, thyroid, and colon.

 

REF:    p. 66

 

  1. Stomach, thyroid, and pancreas carcinomas metastasize to the lung by:
a. Hematogenous spread
b. Lymphangitic spread
c. Direct connection
d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:   B

Lymphangitic metastatic spread throughout the lungs is most commonly a complication of carcinoma of the breast, stomach, thyroid, pancreas, larynx, cervix, or prostate.

 

REF:    p. 66

 

  1. Thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremity and are trapped in the lung circulation are:
a. Alveolar emboli
b. Pulmonary emboli
c. Bronchial emboli
d. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula

 

 

ANS:   B

More than 95% of pulmonary emboli arise from thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremities because of venous stasis.

 

REF:    p. 66

 

  1. To best demonstrate pulmonary emboli, the noninvasive modality of choice is:
a. High-resolution CT
b. Nuclear medicine lung scan
c. Doppler ultrasound
d. PET lung scan

 

 

ANS:   A

High-resolution CT has now replaced lung scanning in many institutions as the preferred imaging modality for detecting and excluding pulmonary emboli.

 

REF:    p. 70

 

  1. A condition of diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume is:
a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. Atelectasis
c. Pleural effusion
d. Septic embolism

 

 

ANS:   B

Atelectasis refers to a condition in which there is diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume.

 

REF:    p. 72

 

  1. Air in the cavity surrounding the lung is known as:
a. Pleural effusion
b. Atelectasis
c. Pneumothorax
d. Hemothorax

 

 

ANS:   C

Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural cavity.

 

REF:    p. 76

 

  1. The earliest sign of this disease process is blunting of the normal sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage, causing a:
a. Pneumothorax
b. Pleurisy
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:   D

The earliest radiographic finding in pleural effusion is blunting of the normally sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage (the costophrenic angle).

 

REF:    p. 77

 

  1. Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n):
a. Pleural effusion
b. Empyema
c. Lung abscess
d. Atelectasis

 

 

ANS:   B

Empyema refers to the presence of infected liquid or frank pus in the pleural space.

 

REF:    p. 78

 

  1. Thymoma is a lesion in the _____ mediastinum.
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Superior

 

 

ANS:   A

Thymoma is a lesion of the anterior mediastinum.

 

REF:    p. 79

 

  1. The posterior mediastinum is the location of:
a. Lymph node disorders
b. Aneurysms of the descending aorta
c. Bronchogenic cysts
d. Teratomas

 

 

ANS:   B

The posterior mediastinum is the location of aneurysms of the descending aorta.

 

REF:    p. 80

 

  1. A rare congenital abnormality in which one diaphragm is poorly developed and too weak to permit abdominal contents upward movement is:
a. Diaphragmatic paralysis
b. Obesity
c. Ascites
d. Eventration

 

 

ANS:   D

Eventration of the diaphragm, a rare congenital abnormality in which one hemidiaphragm (very rarely both) is poorly developed and too weak to permit the upward movement of abdominal contents into the thoracic cage.

 

REF:    p. 82

 

MATCHING

 

Match the following terms related to types of pneumonia.

a. Esophageal or gastric contents in the lung causes pneumonia
b. Pneumococcal infection causing affected lung to appear solid
c. Staphylococcal infection originating in the bronchi or bronchial mucosa
d. Viral or fungal infection preponderantly in the alveoli

 

 

  1. Alveolar pneumonia

 

  1. Aspiration pneumonia

 

  1. Bronchopneumonia

 

  1. Interstitial pneumonia

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 44

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 45

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 44

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 45

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

Match the following terms related to acronyms related to lung diseases.

a. Bronchial epithelial necrosis leading to bronchitis
b. Coronavirus causing upper and lower respiratory infections
c. Life-threatening respiratory issues related to a variety of medical and surgical disorders
d. One of the most common causes of respiratory distress in newborn

 

 

  1. ARDS

 

  1. IRDS

 

  1. RSV

 

  1. SARS

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 73

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 42

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 51

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 52

NOT:   Rationale: Alveolar, or air-space, pneumonia, exemplified by pneumococcal pneumonia, is produced by an organism that causes an inflammatory exudate that replaces air in the alveoli so that the affected part of the lung no longer contains air, but rather appears solid, or radiopaque. The aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung can lead to the development of aspiration pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia, typified by staphylococcal infection, is primarily an inflammation that originates in the bronchi or the bronchiolar mucosa and spreads to adjacent alveoli. Interstitial pneumonia is most commonly produced by viral and mycoplasmal infections. In this type of pneumonia, the inflammatory process involves preponderantly the walls and lining of the alveoli.

 

Match the following terms related to lung pathologic conditions.

a. Air into the tissue
b. Exposure to particulates in the occupational setting
c. Lung disease caused by a fungal infection
d. Obstructive airway condition causing ineffective gas exchange

 

 

  1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

 

  1. Emphysema

 

  1. Pneumoconiosis

 

  1. Pulmonary mycosis

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 53

NOT:   Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult. Emphysema is air within the tissue that may appear spontaneously, or it may result from chest trauma, from perforation of the esophagus or tracheobronchial tree, or from the spread of air along fascial planes in the neck, peritoneal cavity, or retroperitoneal space. Prolonged occupational exposure to certain irritating particulates can cause severe pulmonary disease and a spectrum of radiographic findings in pneumoconiosis. The term pulmonary mycosis means fungal infection of the lung.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 53

NOT:   Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult. Emphysema is air within the tissue that may appear spontaneously, or it may result from chest trauma, from perforation of the esophagus or tracheobronchial tree, or from the spread of air along fascial planes in the neck, peritoneal cavity, or retroperitoneal space. Prolonged occupational exposure to certain irritating particulates can cause severe pulmonary disease and a spectrum of radiographic findings in pneumoconiosis. The term pulmonary mycosis means fungal infection of the lung.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 58

NOT:   Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult. Emphysema is air within the tissue that may appear spontaneously, or it may result from chest trauma, from perforation of the esophagus or tracheobronchial tree, or from the spread of air along fascial planes in the neck, peritoneal cavity, or retroperitoneal space. Prolonged occupational exposure to certain irritating particulates can cause severe pulmonary disease and a spectrum of radiographic findings in pneumoconiosis. The term pulmonary mycosis means fungal infection of the lung.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 50

NOT:   Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult. Emphysema is air within the tissue that may appear spontaneously, or it may result from chest trauma, from perforation of the esophagus or tracheobronchial tree, or from the spread of air along fascial planes in the neck, peritoneal cavity, or retroperitoneal space. Prolonged occupational exposure to certain irritating particulates can cause severe pulmonary disease and a spectrum of radiographic findings in pneumoconiosis. The term pulmonary mycosis means fungal infection of the lung.

 

Match the following terms related to pneumoconioses.

a. Inhalation of high concentrations of coal dust
b. Long thin fibers producing major fibrosis of the lung found in building materials
c. Most common pneumoconiosis results from inhalation of silica dioxides

 

 

  1. Anthracosis

 

  1. Asbestosis

 

  1. Silicosis

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 58

NOT:   Rationale: Coal miners, especially those working with anthracite (hard coal), have increased susceptibility to developing anthracosis by inhaling high concentrations of coal dust. Asbestosis may develop in improperly protected workers engaged in manufacturing asbestos products, in handling building materials, or in working with insulation composed of asbestos. Asbestos particles occur as long, thin fibers that cause little dust, but produce major fibrosis in the lung. Silicosis is the most common and best-known work-related lung disease. The inhalation of high concentrations of silicon dioxide (crystalline silica) primarily affects workers engaged in mining, foundry work, and sandblasting.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 59

NOT:   Rationale: Coal miners, especially those working with anthracite (hard coal), have increased susceptibility to developing anthracosis by inhaling high concentrations of coal dust. Asbestosis may develop in improperly protected workers engaged in manufacturing asbestos products, in handling building materials, or in working with insulation composed of asbestos. Asbestos particles occur as long, thin fibers that cause little dust, but produce major fibrosis in the lung. Silicosis is the most common and best-known work-related lung disease. The inhalation of high concentrations of silicon dioxide (crystalline silica) primarily affects workers engaged in mining, foundry work, and sandblasting.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 60

NOT:   Rationale: Coal miners, especially those working with anthracite (hard coal), have increased susceptibility to developing anthracosis by inhaling high concentrations of coal dust. Asbestosis may develop in improperly protected workers engaged in manufacturing asbestos products, in handling building materials, or in working with insulation composed of asbestos. Asbestos particles occur as long, thin fibers that cause little dust, but produce major fibrosis in the lung. Silicosis is the most common and best-known work-related lung disease. The inhalation of high concentrations of silicon dioxide (crystalline silica) primarily affects workers engaged in mining, foundry work, and sandblasting.

 

Match the following terms related to pulmonary neoplasms.

a. Arises from the mucosa of the bronchi
b. Bulky enlargement of the hilar nodes
c. Central dense or popcorn calcification
d. Originate in the glandular structures of the bronchi

 

 

  1. Bronchial adenoma

 

  1. Bronchogenic carcinoma

 

  1. Granuloma

 

  1. Small cell carcinoma

 

  1. ANS:   D                     REF:    p. 62

NOT:   Rationale: Bronchial adenomas are neoplasms of low-grade malignancy that constitute about 1% of all bronchial neoplasms arising in the glandular structures. Bronchogenic carcinoma is a primary carcinoma of the lung that arises from the mucosa of the bronchial tree. In granulomas CT may best differentiate the smooth, sharp margins of this benign tumor. Small cell (oat cell) carcinomas characteristically cause bulky enlargement of hilar lymph nodes, often bilaterally, and are responsible for the remaining 20% of primary pulmonary malignancies.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 62

NOT:   Rationale: Bronchial adenomas are neoplasms of low-grade malignancy that constitute about 1% of all bronchial neoplasms arising in the glandular structures. Bronchogenic carcinoma is a primary carcinoma of the lung that arises from the mucosa of the bronchial tree. In granulomas CT may best differentiate the smooth, sharp margins of this benign tumor. Small cell (oat cell) carcinomas characteristically cause bulky enlargement of hilar lymph nodes, often bilaterally, and are responsible for the remaining 20% of primary pulmonary malignancies.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 61

NOT:   Rationale: Bronchial adenomas are neoplasms of low-grade malignancy that constitute about 1% of all bronchial neoplasms arising in the glandular structures. Bronchogenic carcinoma is a primary carcinoma of the lung that arises from the mucosa of the bronchial tree. In granulomas CT may best differentiate the smooth, sharp margins of this benign tumor. Small cell (oat cell) carcinomas characteristically cause bulky enlargement of hilar lymph nodes, often bilaterally, and are responsible for the remaining 20% of primary pulmonary malignancies.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 63

NOT:   Rationale: Bronchial adenomas are neoplasms of low-grade malignancy that constitute about 1% of all bronchial neoplasms arising in the glandular structures. Bronchogenic carcinoma is a primary carcinoma of the lung that arises from the mucosa of the bronchial tree. In granulomas CT may best differentiate the smooth, sharp margins of this benign tumor. Small cell (oat cell) carcinomas characteristically cause bulky enlargement of hilar lymph nodes, often bilaterally, and are responsible for the remaining 20% of primary pulmonary malignancies.

 

Match the disorder to the proper mediastinal location (You may use each answer more than once).

a. Anterior mediastinum
b. Middle mediastinum
c. Posterior mediastinum

 

 

  1. Aneurysms

 

  1. Bronchogenic cysts

 

  1. Lipoma

 

  1. Lymph node disorders

 

  1. Neurogenic cysts

 

  1. Pericardial cysts

 

  1. Thymoma

 

  1. Thyroid mass

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 80

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    pp. 79-80

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 79

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 79

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   C                     REF:    p. 80

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   B                     REF:    p. 80

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 79

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.

 

  1. ANS:   A                     REF:    p. 79

NOT:   Rationale: Major lesions of the anterior mediastinum include thymomas, teratomas, thyroid masses, lipomas, and lymphomas. The middle mediastinum involves lymph node disorders (e.g., lymphoma, metastatic carcinoma, granulomatous processes), bronchogenic cysts, vascular anomalies, and various masses situated in the anterior costophrenic angle (e.g., pericardial cysts, foramen of Morgagni hernia). The posterior mediastinum is the site of neurogenic tumors, neurogenic cysts, aneurysms of the descending aorta, and extramedullary hematopoiesis.