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Criminalistics An Introduction to Forensic Science 11th Edition By Saferstein – Test Bank 

 

Chapter 1

 

Introduction

 

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Forensic science is the application of science to:
  2. Crime scene reconstruction.
  3. Civil laws.
  4. Criminal laws.
  5. Both criminal and civil laws.

 

.

Page number: 04

 

 

  1. The fictional character of Sherlock Holmes was created by:
  2. Dalton.
  3. Doyle.
  4. Darwin.
  5. Denton.

 

 

Page number: 06

 

 

  1. Who is known as the “father of forensic toxicology”?
  2. Orfilia
  3. Locard
  4. Osborn
  5. Lattes

 

 

Page number: 06

 

 

  1. Who developed the system known as anthropometry?
  2. Bertillon
  3. Goddard
  4. Gross
  5. Galton

 

 

Page number: 06

 

 

  1. Who undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints as a method of personal identification?
  2. Gross
  3. Lattes
  4. Goddard
  5. Galton

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. Who devised a technique for determining the blood group of a dried bloodstain, which he applied to criminal investigations?
  2. Lattes
  3. Gross
  4. Locard
  5. Bertillon

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. Who established the comparison microscope as the indispensable tool of the modern firearms examiner?
  2. Goddard
  3. Lattes
  4. Gross
  5. Osborn

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. Who wrote the first treatise describing the application of science to the field of criminal investigation?
  2. Locard
  3. Osborn
  4. Lattes
  5. Gross

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. Who established the first workable crime laboratory?
  2. Galton
  3. Bertillon
  4. Locard
  5. Osborn

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. The exchange of evidence principle was theorized by:
  2. Gross.
  3. Locard.
  4. Galton.
  5. Osborn.

 

 

Page number: 09

 

 

  1. The oldest forensic laboratory in the United States is that of the:
  2. N.Y.C. Police Department.
  3. FBI.
  4. Los Angeles Police Department.
  5. Secret Service.

 

 

Page number: 09

 

 

  1. Which of the following can be rightfully cited as an explanation for the rapid growth of crime labs during the last 40 years?
  2. Supreme Court decisions in the 1960s
  3. Staggering increase in crime rates in the United States
  4. Advent of DNA profiling
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 10

 

 

  1. Which entity maintains the largest crime laboratory in the world?
  2. FBI
  3. Royal Canadian Mounted Police
  4. Scotland Yard
  5. ATF

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. Which would NOT be included in the work of the biology unit of a crime lab?
  2. Blood typing
  3. Comparison of hairs
  4. DNA profiling
  5. Fingerprint analysis

 

 

Page number: 13

 

 

  1. Which unit is responsible for the examination of body fluids and organs for the presence of drugs and poisons?
  2. Toxicology unit
  3. Physical science unit
  4. Evidence collection unit
  5. Biology unit

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. The concept of “general acceptance” of scientific evidence relates to the:
  2. First Amendment.
  3. Exclusionary rule.
  4. Frye standard.
  5. Miranda warnings.

 

 

Page number: 16

 

 

  1. In the case of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceutical, Inc., the U.S. Supreme Court advocated that a “gatekeeper” determine the admissibility and reliability of scientific evidence. This gatekeeper is the:
  2. Expert witness.
  3. Prosecutor.
  4. Jury.
  5. Trial judge.

 

 

Page number: 17

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true? An expert witness must be able to demonstrate:
  2. Skill in trade or profession of interest to the court.
  3. Significant experience in a relevant field.
  4. A formal degree in forensic science.
  5. Education in his/her area of expertise.

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. The final evaluator of forensic evidence is the:
  2. Police.
  3. Jury.
  4. Accused.
  5. Prosecutor.

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. What is the LEAST important consideration in the gathering of evidence at a crime scene?
  2. Adequate preservation of samples
  3. Competent collection of materials
  4. Guilt of the suspect(s)
  5. Proper recognition of the evidence

 

.

Page number: 20

 

 

  1. Bite marks would be LEAST likely to be found in cases involving:
  2. Murder.
  3. Child abuse.
  4. Arson.
  5. Sexual abuse.

 

 

Page number: 22

 

 

  1. Forensic odontology refers to the study of:
  2. Drugs.
  3. Pollen.
  4. Teeth.
  5. Bones.

 

 

Page number: 22

 

 

  1. Which of the following services are typically provided to law enforcement by crime laboratories?
  2. Pathology
  3. Criminalistics
  4. Odontology
  5. Psychology

 

 

Page number: 05

 

 

  1. The case of Coppolino v. State highlights issues dealing with:
  2. Search and seizure.
  3. The admissibility of the polygraph.
  4. The evidential value of confessions.
  5. The acceptability of new scientific tests.

 

 

Page number: 18

 

 

  1. The scientific method requires that scientific evidence be validated by:
  2. Formulating pertinent questions.
  3. Formulating hypotheticals.
  4. Performing experiments.
  5. All of the above

 

.

Page number: 16

 

 

  1. The eleven sections of The American Academy of Forensic Science include all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. General.
  3. Arson/Explosives.
  4. Jurisprudence.
  5. Criminalistics.

 

 

Page number: 04

 

 

  1. The tendency of the public to believe that every crime scene will yield forensic evidence and their unrealistic expectations that a prosecutor’s case should always be bolstered and supported by forensic evidence is known as:
  2. Jurisprudence.
  3. Locard’s Principle.
  4. The Scientific Method.
  5. The CSI Effect.

 

 

Page number: 05

 

 

  1. What is the major problem facing the forensic DNA community?
  2. Contamination of DNA samples by evidence collectors
  3. Backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples
  4. Lack of recent advancements in DNA technology
  5. Existence of computerized DNA databases

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. Which unit applies principles and techniques of chemistry, physics, and geology to the identification and comparison of crime scene evidence?
  2. Forensic geology
  3. Physical science </P>
  4. Toxicology
  5. Biology

 

 

Page number: 12

 

 

  1. Which specialized area of forensic science examines the relationship between human behavior and legal proceedings?
  2. Forensic jury selection
  3. Jurisprudence
  4. Forensic psychiatry
  5. Forensic psychology

 

 

Page number: 21

 

 

  1. A crime scene which involved the collapse of a structure would be analyzed by specialists in the area of:
  2. Forensic computer and digital analysis.
  3. Forensic error analysis.
  4. Criminalistics.
  5. Forensic engineering.

 

 

Page number: 22

 

 

  1. What factor(s) do(es) the court usually take into consideration as sufficient grounds for qualification as an expert witness?
  2. Experience
  3. Training
  4. Education
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. Specially trained personnel called _____ are employed by some crime laboratories on 24-hour call to retrieve evidence and have all the proper tools and supplies for proper collection and packaging of evidence at their disposal.
  2. Evidence officers
  3. Crime scene investigators
  4. Evidence technicians
  5. Forensic pathologists

 

 

Page number: 20

 

 

  1. In <ITAL>Kumho Tire Co., Ltd.</ITAL> v. <ITAL>Carmichael</ITAL>, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the “gatekeeping” role of a trial judge:
  2. Was restricted to scientific testimony.
  3. Applied only to cases involving capital crimes.
  4. Was subject to appeal by a higher court.
  5. Applied to all expert testimony.

 

 

Page number: 17

 

 

  1. The judicial case that set forth the most current guidelines for determining the admissibility of scientific examinations in the federal courts is:
  2. Frye v. United States
  3. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals
  4. Coppolino v. State of Florida
  5. d. Mapp v. United States

 

 

Page number: 18

 

 

  1. The dramatization of forensic science on television has led to a phenomenon known as the:
  2. NCIS effect
  3. NYPD effect
  4. CSI effect
  5. LAPD effect

 

 

Page number: 05

 

 

  1. The necessity for the forensic scientist to appear in court comes from the U.S. Supreme Court case:
  2. Melendez-Diaz v. Massachusetts
  3. Crawford v. Washington
  4. c. Coppolino v. State
  5. Frye v. United States

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. The current system of crime laboratories in the United States can best be described as:
  2. Centralized.
  3. Regional.
  4. Decentralized.
  5. National.

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. The lay witness provides testimony that relies on:
  2. Scientific education.
  3. Personal opinions.
  4. Personal knowledge.
  5. Scientific experience.

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

 

Chapter 1 True-False

 

  1. One of the earliest crime laboratories was founded by Albert Osborn.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. The case of Frye v. United States deals with the legal issue of general acceptance of scientific principles.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 16

 

 

  1. A polygraph examination does not normally lie within the expertise of the forensic scientist.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. The effectiveness of an expert’s testimony does not usually depend on the educational background of the expert.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. Forensic science is the application of science to criminal laws only.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 04

 

 

  1. Locard’s exchange principle states that whenever two objects come into contact with one another, there is an exchange of materials between them.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 09

 

 

  1. In 1972 New York began creating an integrated network of state-operated forensic laboratories consisting of regional and satellite facilities.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 09

 

 

  1. The increase in U.S. crime rates since the 1960s did not have any effect on the growth of crime laboratories.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 10

 

 

  1. The federal government has no single law enforcement or investigative agency that has unlimited jurisdiction throughout the country.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. Differences in local laws have no effect on the variation of total services offered by crime labs in different communities.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 12

 

 

  1. The physical science unit would perform soil and mineral analysis.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 12

 

 

  1. The comparison of hairs and fibers would be performed in the biology unit.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 13

 

 

  1. Examining garments and other objects in order to detect firearms discharge residues would be performed in the biology unit.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 13

 

 

  1. Providing expert testimony is not one of the main functions of a forensic scientist.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. Frye v. United States established the “general acceptance” rule.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 16

 

 

  1. An expert witness gives testimony on events or observations that arise from personal knowledge.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. A lay witness’s testimony cannot usually contain the personal opinions of the witness.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. Forensic anthropologists can use dental records such as X-rays, dental casts, and a photograph of a person’s smile to compare a set of dental remains and a suspected victim.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 22

 

 

  1. The physical science unit is responsible for examining burned or charred documents.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 13

 

 

  1. The toxicology unit determines the alcoholic consumption of individuals.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. Karl Landsteiner and Louis Lattes are associated with the area of blood typing.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. Dr. Walter C. McCrone made significant contributions to forensic science using the microscope.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 08

 

 

  1. The increase in crime rates in the U.S. has led to an increase in the number of crime laboratories.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 10

 

 

  1. All illicit drug seizures must be sent to a forensic laboratory for confirmatory analysis.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 10

 

 

  1. It is the responsibility of the forensic investigator to determine innocence or guilt.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 19

 

 

  1. The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives is a state-run agency.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. Forensic odontologists look at bones to identify victims.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 22

 

 

  1. The American Academy of Forensic Sciences is the largest forensic science organization in the world.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 04

 

 

  1. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes had a large influence on popularizing scientific crime-detection methods.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 06

 

 

  1. The United States has no national system of forensic laboratories.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. The firearms unit may also analyze tool marks.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 13

 

 

  1. is subject to bias.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. The current system of laboratories in the U.S. is decentralized.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. One major problem of the forensic DNA community is the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 11

 

 

  1. Regional laboratories have decreased the accessibility of many local law enforcement agencies to a crime laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 12

 

 

  1. A voiceprint transforms a visual graphic display into speech.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 14

 

 

  1. The five basic services a crime lab can provide are the physical science unit, the biology unit, the firearms unit, the document examination unit, and the photography unit.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 12-13

 

 

 

Chapter 1 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. The “father of forensic toxicology” is considered to be _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a methodology of classifying them for filing.

 

 

 

  1. _____ was the first to use a comparison microscope to analyze bullets to determine whether they were fired from the same gun.

 

 

  1. The fee-for-service concept has encouraged the creation of a number of _____ laboratories.

 

 

  1. The _____ unit performs DNA profiling of dried bloodstains and other body fluid.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ unit examines body fluids and organs to determine the presence or absence of drugs and poisons.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ unit dispatches specially trained personnel to the crime scene to collect and preserve that will later be processed at the crime laboratory.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ case assigned the trial judge the task of ensuring that an expert’s testimony rests on a reliable foundation and is relevant to the task at hand.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ witness evaluates evidence that the court lacks the expertise to do.

 

 

 

  1. A _____ witness must give testimony on events or observations that arise from personal knowledge.

 

 

 

  1. A forensic _____ can compare bite marks left on a victim to the tooth structure of suspects.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ unit helps prepare photographic exhibits for courtroom presentation.

 

 

 

  1. Forensic science is the application of science to the _____.

 

 

 

  1. Fingerprinting replaced ____ as a method of personal identification.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ analysis unit analyzes telephoned threats and audio-recorded messages.

 

 

 

  1. Collecting evidence from a cell phone is an example of Forensic _____ and Digital Analysis.

 

 

 

  1. The document examination unit studies the handwriting and _____ on questioned documents to ascertain authenticity and/or source.

 

 

  1. The forensic scientist should only be an advocate of _____.

 

 

 

  1. Extensive information about forensic science can be found on the _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ was the first to use a comparison microscope to analyze bullets to determine whether they were fired from the same gun.

 

 

 

Chapter 1 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Expert witness a. A systematic procedure that involved taking a series of body measurements as a means of distinguishing one individual from another
2. Locard’s Exchange Principle b. A process that uses strict guidelines to ensure careful and systematic collection, organization, and analysis of information
3. Scientific Method c. Lie detector
4. Forensic science d. An individual whom the court determines to possess a particular skill or knowledge in a trade or profession that is not expected of the average layperson and that will aid a court in determining the truth of a matter at trial
5. Anthropometry e. Visual graphic display of speech
6. Polygraph f. Application of science to the laws
7. Voiceprint g. Describes the services of a crime laboratory
8. Criminalistics h. When two objects come into contact with each other, a cross-transfer of materials occurs
9. CSI Effect i. specialized area in which the relationship between human behavior and legal proceedings is examined
10. Forensic psychiatry j. Public belief that every crime scene will yield forensic evidence

 

 

 

 

Chapter 1 Essay

 

  1. List the underlying reasons for the rapid growth of crime laboratories in the United States since the late 1960s.

 

 

 

  1. List the advantages of incorporating an evidence collection unit into the organizational structure of the crime laboratory.

 

 

 

  1. List the three basic functions of a forensic scientist.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the major outcomes of the trials Frye v. United States and Daubert v. Merrell Dow

Pharmaceuticals.

 

 

 

  1. What is the main difference between the testimony given by an expert witness and that given

by a lay witness?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the advantages of incorporating an evidence collection unit into the organizational

structure of the crime laboratory.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 1 Critical Thinking

                         

  1. Describe the evidence to be collected and the specialists or crime laboratory units that would be needed to properly analyze the following crime scene and answer the given questions.

 

On Monday, September 26, 2011, a small airplane believed to be transporting members of a Mexican drug cartel and a shipment of drugs and firearms of unknown type or size recorded a short “mayday” call at 8:05 A.M. before crashing into a farmhouse in Laredo, TX. Local police report that the abandoned farmhouse is frequented by homeless individuals, and there may have been several inside at the time of impact. Upon impact, the airplane’s nearly full gas tank caused a fire that incinerated those within the plane and those within the farmhouse.

The investigators need to deduce the following:

  1. How the airplane malfunctioned to cause the crash
  2. Who was on the airplane and in the farmhouse
  3. The contents of the airplane’s cargo

 

 

  1. For each of the early forensic science methods listed below, denote the more recent technology or discipline which has taken its place for use in forensic science inquiry.
  2. Identification via anthropometry
  3. Firearms bullet and cartridge analysis via unassisted vision
  4. Identification via bloodtyping
  5. Poison identification via stomach content analysis
  6. Collections and analysis of evidence via untrained police officers

 

 

 

  1. Explain the reasons why it is important to consider the relevance of scientific evidence before allowing it to be introduced into a criminal case.

 

 

Chapter 2

 

The Crime Scene

 

Chapter 2 Multiple Choice

 

  1. After providing or obtaining medical assistance for the injured and effecting an arrest of suspects (if possible), the first officer arriving at a crime scene should immediately:
  2. Search for evidence.
  3. Secure the scene.
  4. Make a rough sketch of the scene.
  5. Take notes.

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The first responding officer must make attempts at the crime scene to detain and question:
  2. Witnesses.
  3. Unauthorized personnel.
  4. Suspects.
  5. Both a and c

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. Police barricades, and the strategic positioning of guards, will prohibit access to the crime scene for:
  2. Civilians only.
  3. Civilians and media personnel.
  4. All law enforcement personnel.
  5. All unauthorized personnel.

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The conditions at a crime scene can be compromised by all of the following actions EXCEPT:
  2. Taking photographs at the crime scene
  3. Adjusting the temperature of the crime scene
  4. Eating food at the crime scene
  5. Turning a faucet on at the crime scene

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. The size and location of the crime scene, as well as the events that occurred there, will determine:
  2. The kind of evidence that will be missing.
  3. The kind of search pattern that is used to locate evidence.
  4. The amount of care that must be taken during the crime scene search.
  5. The time at which the crime scene is searched.

 

 

Page number: 38

 

 

  1. Which search pattern would be best suited for a crime scene where many investigators are available to search a large area?
  2. Spiral
  3. Grid
  4. Line
  5. Zone

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The purpose of the crime scene search is to locate:
  2. DNA-containing evidence.
  3. All .
  4. Fingerprint evidence.
  5. Bloodstain patterns.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The most basic methods of crime scene recording do NOT include:
  2. Note-taking.
  3. Photographs.
  4. Narrated videotapes.
  5. Infrared analysis.

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. If the crime scene includes a dead body, the photographer should:
  2. Determine the time of death.
  3. Attempt to identify the victim.
  4. Document all forensic personnel at crime scene.
  5. Depict injuries and weapons at scene.

 

 

Page number: 33

 

 

  1. A rough sketch need NOT include a:
  2. Sketch of the suspect(s).
  3. Compass heading designating north.
  4. Date, location, and time of the incident.
  5. Location of all recovered .

 

 

Page number: 35-36

 

 

  1. CAD programs enhance the ability to:
  2. Take complete notes.
  3. Develop photographs.
  4. Edit video tape.
  5. Produce a finished crime scene sketch.

 

 

Page number: 36

 

 

  1. Which statement about note-taking is NOT true?
  2. The individual who packaged and marked items of evidence should be recorded.
  3. Note-taking is done after all crime scene processing has been completed.
  4. Notes should include location of recovered.
  5. Disposition of items after collection must be included.

 

 

Page number: 32

 

 

  1. Which crime scene search pattern would absolutely require more than one investigator?
  2. Spiral
  3. Line
  4. Grid
  5. Zone

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. at a hit-and-run scene could include:
  2. Fiber and tissue.
  3. Glass fragments.
  4. Fabric impressions.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The crime scene notes must accurately record:
  2. The tasks assigned each investigator.
  3. Personnel arrivals and departures from the scene.
  4. Descriptions of evidence present at the crime scene.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 32

 

 

  1. The advantages of tape-recording crime scene notes on an audio tape include all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. The notes can be recorded at the crime laboratory instead of at the crime scene.
  3. The investigator’s hands are free to carry out other tasks while recording the notes.
  4. Audio tapes have the added security feature of preventing erasure or taping over if the security tab on the tape.
  5. The notes are recording as the observations are made.

 

 

Page number: 32

 

 

  1. In digital photography, light is recorded as a specific charge on millions of tiny:
  2. Silver halide grains.
  3. Charge coupled devices.
  4. Semi-conductors.
  5. Pixels.

 

 

Page number: 33

 

 

  1. Digital crime scene photographs require special measures to assure their admissibility in court due to:
  2. Their poor quality.
  3. The inability to manipulate the images.
  4. The ability to manipulate the images.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 33

 

 

  1. Videotapes of the crime scene:
  2. Can be used in place of notes and photographs.
  3. Must be complemented by a hard copy of notes and separate still photographs.
  4. Are required in all jurisdictions.
  5. Are not admissible in court due to the poor image quality.

 

 

Page number: 35

 

 

  1. Crime scene sketches serve a unique purpose in permanently documenting the location of evidence:
  2. Processed at the crime scene.
  3. Containing drug evidence.
  4. Not documented in photographs.
  5. Collected and removed from the crime scene.

 

 

Page number: 35

 

 

  1. From the choices below, select the one correct collection procedure.
  2. Bloodstained garments should be packaged separately in paper bags.
  3. Items recovered from scene of a murder should be sent along with the body to the Medical Examiner.
  4. All items collected from the same grid area should be packaged together.
  5. The victim’s clothing should be obtained at the crime scene and vacuumed to obtain trace evidence.

 

 

Page number: 41/43

 

 

  1. Investigators should collect possible carriers of trace evidence which may include:
  2. Vacuum sweepings.
  3. Clothing.
  4. Fingernail scrapings.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. Changes to evidence, such as contamination, can be prevented by handling evidence with:
  2. Latex gloves.
  3. Dry, bare hands.
  4. Disposable forceps.
  5. a and c

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. Charred debris from an arson scene should be:
  2. Placed together with similar items in a paper bag.
  3. Placed in Ziploc® bags.
  4. Packaged in airtight glass jars.
  5. Aired out before packing in plastic wrap.

 

 

Page number: 42

 

 

  1. A victim’s fingernail scrapings would be correctly packaged in:
  2. A druggist fold.
  3. A plastic Ziploc® bag.
  4. Sealed, airtight containers.
  5. Both b and c

 

 

Page number: 42

 

 

  1. The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is almost always directly related to:
  2. The manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved.
  3. The number of people employed in the crime lab.
  4. The volume of the collected.
  5. Whether the crime is considered high-profile.

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. A properly maintained chain of custody is NOT the responsibility of the:
  2. Crime scene processor.
  3. Evidence clerk.
  4. Forensic technician.
  5. Trial judge.

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. Success in the recognition and collection of is determined primarily by the:
  2. Notoriety of the case.
  3. Time available to the evidence collectors.
  4. Skill of personnel processing the crime scene.
  5. Type of evidence involved.

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. The collection of standard reference samples at the crime scene is important because they:
  2. Permit comparisons to be made with the evidence.
  3. Are obtained only from suspects in cases of violent assault.
  4. Serve as a source of extra test material if required in the crime lab.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. The presence of blood and semen at crime scenes exposes investigators to:
  2. Hepatitis B.
  3. AIDS .
  4. Both a and b
  5. Neither a nor b

 

 

Page number: 47

 

 

  1. The removal of any evidence from a person or from the scene of a crime must be done in conformity with the privileges of which amendment to the Constitution?
  2. Sixth
  3. Fourth
  4. Fifth
  5. First

 

 

Page number: 48

 

 

  1. The police are NOT required to obtain a search warrant if they are:
  2. Unable to locate a judge to issue a warrant.
  3. Certain their suspect is guilty.
  4. In the process of a legal arrest.
  5. Investigating the murder of a fellow officer.

 

 

Page number: 48

 

 

  1. Which of the following is U.S. Supreme Court decision which dealt with the impropriety of the warrantless collection of at a homicide scene?
  2. Mapp v. U.S.
  3. Frye v. U.S.
  4. People v. Wilkens
  5. Mincey v. Arizona

 

 

Page number: 49

 

 

  1. Which type of evidence must be packaged separately from other evidence?
  2. Biological stain evidence
  3. DNA-containing evidence
  4. Arson evidence
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. Which of the following items is likely to contain DNA evidence?
  2. A self-adhesive mailing stamp
  3. A bed sheet
  4. A blue rug fiber
  5. A glass fragment

 

 

Page number: 44

 

 

  1. The evidence collector must take extraordinary care to avoid potential contamination by transferring DNA onto objects of evidential value by:
  2. Reusing shoe covers.
  3. Packaging items containing potential DNA evidence in airtight bags.
  4. Wearing a face mask.
  5. Using the same pair of forceps to collect all evidence at the crime scene.

 

 

Page number: 44

 

 

  1. The best way to guarantee that the evidence will withstand inquiries about what happened to it from the time of its finding to its presentation in court is to:
  2. Properly record the crime scene.
  3. Properly mark evidence for identification.
  4. Properly complete evidence submission forms.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. When biological samples of unknown origin are discovered at a crime scene, investigators:
  2. Should assume no pathogens are present and treat the samples as such.
  3. Should allow only trained hazardous material teams to handle the evidence.
  4. Should assume pathogens are present and treat the sample as such.
  5. Should package them in plastic bags.

 

 

Page number: 47

 

 

  1. Special circumstances at a crime scene may require the use of the following for evidence collection, EXCEPT:
  2. Particle masks.
  3. Biohazard packages.
  4. Coveralls.
  5. All of the above may be required.

 

 

Page number: 48

 

 

  1. “The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizure…” is provided for in the United States by the:
  2. Frye standard.
  3. Fourth Amendment.
  4. Declaration of Independence.
  5. Second Amendment.

 

 

Page number: 48

 

 

  1. Warrantless searches are permitted under law in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
  2. The existence of emergency circumstances.
  3. The injury or death of a police officer or law enforcement employee.
  4. The consent of the parties involved.
  5. The need to prevent the immediate loss of evidence.

 

 

Page number: 48

 

 

  1. The manner of collecting and preserving at a crime scene is determined by:
  2. The circumstances of the crime.
  3. The importance of the case.
  4. The number of evidence collectors present at the crime scene.
  5. The nature of the evidence.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. may be obtained from:
  2. The crime scene.
  3. The victim.
  4. The suspect.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. All of the following items may be placed in an airtight container EXCEPT:
  2. Charred debris recovered from a fire.
  3. Blood-stained clothing.
  4. Glass.
  5. Hairs and fibers.

 

 

Page number: 42-43

 

 

  1. The evidence collector is NOT concerned with:
  2. Maintaining the chain of custody.
  3. Utilizing the proper packaging material for evidence.
  4. Labeling evidence.
  5. Determining the natural variations that exist in .

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. The conditions at a crime scene can be compromised by all of the following actions EXCEPT:
  2. Taking photographs at the crime scene.
  3. Eating food at the crime scene.
  4. Turning on a faucet on the crime scene.
  5. Smoking at the crime scene.

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. The initial survey of the crime scene carried out by the lead investigator is called:
  2. The spiral search.
  3. The initial survey.
  4. The walk-through.
  5. The crime scene search.

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. Which crime scene search pattern does NOT require more than one investigator?
  2. Wheel
  3. Line
  4. Grid
  5. Zone

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. What is a disadvantage to the spiral search pattern?
  2. Evidence could be missed.
  3. It requires several investigators.
  4. It does not work for outdoors scenes.
  5. It is dependent on the boundaries of the scene.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The center of the crime scene, which is always included within the crime scene’s boundary, is:
  2. The area where the first responder entered the scene.
  3. The area where the witnesses were located.
  4. The area where the command center will be located.
  5. The area where the crime occurred.

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. Evidence commonly located during a vehicle search includes all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Questioned documents.
  3. Fibers.
  4. Paint evidence.
  5. Broken glass.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. To formulate a successful strategy for recovering relevant at crime scenes, the investigator must ultimately rely on:
  2. Reference material.
  3. Experience.
  4. Training.
  5. The lead investigator.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The search pattern in which one or two investigators start at the boundary at one end of the scene and walk straight across to the other side is:
  2. Line.
  3. Grid.
  4. Quadrant.
  5. Wheel.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The search pattern that employs two people performing line searches that originate from adjacent corners is:
  2. Line.
  3. Grid.
  4. Spiral.
  5. Wheel.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. Which search pattern employs several people moving from the boundary straight toward the center of the scene (inward) or from the center straight to the boundary (outward)?
  2. Quadrant
  3. Grid
  4. Spiral
  5. Wheel

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. It is permissible for officers at the scene to:
  2. Eat.
  3. Drink.
  4. Smoke.
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. Which search pattern is most reliant on the boundaries established?
  2. Line
  3. Spiral
  4. Wheel
  5. Quadrant

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. Officers should attempt to locate tool marks at the point of entry during the investigation of a:
  2. Homicide.
  3. Burglary.
  4. Hit and run.
  5. Assault.

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The location of an item of evidence on a crime scene sketch is shown by its distance from points of reference that:
  2. Are fixed or immovable.
  3. Are within ten feet of the item.
  4. Are located outside the boundaries of the crime scene.
  5. Can be transported to the crime laboratory.

 

 

Page number: 36

 

 

  1. At an arson scene, the collection of a substrate control would require the arson investigator to:
  2. Collect a sample from the center of a potential accelerant stain.
  3. Collect samples of surface material from areas far away from the fire’s origin.
  4. Collect a piece of the surface material near the fire’s origin that he or she believes was <ITAL>not</ITAL> exposed to the accelerant.
  5. Collect a sample of the vapors at the fire origin.

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. Success in the recognition and collection of is determined primarily by the:
  2. Notoriety of the case.
  3. Time available to the evidence collectors.
  4. Skill of personnel processing the crime scene.
  5. Type of evidence involved.

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

 

Chapter 2 True-False

 

  1. The obligation to maintain the integrity of evidence belongs to the first police officer at the scene only.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The relative evidential value of laboratory test results is almost always dependent on the way the evidence is collected and presented for examination.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 43

 

 

  1. Blood-stained clothing should not be placed in an airtight container.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 43

 

 

  1. The evidence collector is concerned with determining the natural variations that exist in .
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. The line and spiral search pattern methods can be performed effectively by one person.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 40

 

 

  1. The first critical step in crime scene investigation is securing and isolating the crime scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. A rough sketch does not need to accurately depict the dimensions of the crime scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 35

 

 

  1. The areas searched by crime scene investigators must include all probable points of entry and exit used by the criminal.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The main objective in collecting and packaging is to prevent any change in the evidence between the time it is removed from the crime scene and the time it is received by the crime laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. It is not necessary to package evidence in separate containers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. Ordinary mailing envelopes should not be used as evidence containers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 42

 

 

  1. Bloodstained materials should be packaged in wrapping paper, manila envelopes, or paper bags.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 43

 

 

  1. The chain of custody does not usually play a vital role in a court of law.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 45

 

 

  1. A substrate control allows the criminalist to connect evidence found at the scene of a crime to the suspect and/or victim.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. It is important to include a brief description of the case history on an evidence submission form.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. A substrate control ensures that the surface on which a sample has been deposited does not interfere with the interpretation of laboratory tests.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 46

 

 

  1. A warrantless search is never justified.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 48-49

 

 

  1. The need to prevent the immediate loss or destruction of evidence is justification for a warrantless search.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 48-49

 

 

  1. The victim’s clothing and fingernail scrapings are common items of evidence that are sent to the forensic laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. The manner of collecting and preserving at a crime scene is determined by the nature of the evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 41-42

 

 

  1. Failure to protect a crime scene properly may result in the destruction or altering of evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 31

 

 

  1. The first priority of the first officer responding to a crime scene is securing the crime scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. Unauthorized personnel include friends and family of the victim.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The officer charged with protecting the scene has the authority to exclude fellow officers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. When possible, it is advisable to have two people supervising and coordinating the collection of evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 38

 

 

  1. The first responding officer should not make attempts at the crime scene to detain and question unauthorized personnel.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. It is permitted for officers at the scene to alter temperature conditions by adjusting windows, doors, or the heat or air-conditioning.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 32

 

 

  1. The investigators should follow a direct path to the center of the scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 30

 

 

  1. The main disadvantage of digital photography for recording crime scenes is that digital photographs can be easily manipulated by using computer software.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 33

 

 

  1. Sketching allows the investigator to combine notes and photography.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 35

 

 

  1. Evidence may be moved only after investigators have documented its location and appearance in notes, sketches, and photographs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 32

 

 

  1. The investigator should not remove trace evidence from items at the crime scene, but instead he or she should send the entire object to the laboratory for processing. <P>I
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. If evidence is adhering to an object in a precarious manner, the investigator should remove the evidence and package the item.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 42

 

 

  1. Mobile crime laboratories are designed to carry out the functions of a chemical laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 41

 

 

  1. Evidence cannot be shipped through the mail.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper techniques for packaging common types of .

Page number: 46

 

 

 

Chapter 2 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ evidence is any object that can establish that a crime has been committed or can link a crime and its victim or a crime and its perpetrator.

 

 

 

  1. The three methods of crime scene recording are photography, sketches, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. The most important prerequisite for photographing a crime scene is for the scene to be in an _____ condition.

 

 

 

  1. A _____ sketch is a draft representation of all essential information and measurements at a crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. The integrity of evidence is best maintained when the item is kept in its _____ condition as found at the crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. _____ materials should not be stored in airtight containers as this process could encourage the growth of mold.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ control consists of uncontaminated surface material close to an area where has been deposited.

 

 

 

  1. The spread of AIDS and _____ have sensitized the law enforcement community to the potential health hazards that can exist at crime scenes.

 

 

 

  1. Three basic types of protective clothing recommended for investigators are _____ gloves, shoe covers, and liquid-repellent coveralls.

 

 

 

  1. The existence of emergency circumstances may justify a(n) _____ search.

 

 

 

  1. Crime scene _____ must include a detailed written description of the scene with the location of items of recovered.

 

 

 

  1. Medical workers should approach the body by a(n) _____ route to minimize the possibility of disturbing evidence.

 

 

 

  1. An accurate _____ of everyone who enters or leaves the scene should be kept.

 

 

 

  1. In the case of homicide, the investigator’s search will be centered on the _____ and any type of evidence left as a result of contact between the victim and the assailant.

 

 

 

  1. Police _____ and the strategic positioning of guards will prohibit unauthorized access to the crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ sketch is constructed with care and concern for aesthetic appearance and must be drawn to scale.

 

 

 

  1. When a vehicle is involved in a crime, investigators should pay particular attention to signs of a(n) _____ of evidence between the car and the victim.

 

 

 

  1. All items of evidence should be placed in _____ containers to prevent damage through contact and cross-contamination.

 

 

 

  1. _____ can occur by introducing foreign DNA through coughing or sneezing onto evidence during the collection procedure.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ of DNA can occur when items of evidence are incorrectly placed in contact with each other during packaging.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 2 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. a. A draft representation of all essential information and measurements at a crime scene
2. Grid search b. A search method employed by several people moving from the boundary straight toward the center of the scene (inward) or from the center straight to the boundary (outward)
3. Line/strip search c. A swab of the inner portion of the cheek
4. Rough sketch d. Any object that can establish that a crime has or has not been committed or can link a crime and its victim or its perpetrator
5. Quadrant/zone search e. The initial survey of the crime scene carried out by the lead investigator where he or she will gain an overview of the scene in order to formulate a plan for processing the scene
6. Finished sketch f.  whose origin is known, such as blood or hair from a suspect, that can be compared to crime scene evidence
7. Spiral search g. A search method in which the investigator moves in an inward spiral from the boundary to the center of the scene or in an outward spiral from the center to the boundary of a scene
8. Walk-through h. A search method used by one or two investigators by walking in straight lines across the crime scene
9. Wheel/ray search i. A search method in which the crime scene is divided into smaller sections and team members are assigned to search each section. Each of these sections can be subdivided into smaller sections for smaller teams to search thoroughly.
10. Chain of custody j. A precise rendering of the crime scene, usually drawn to scale
11. Standard/reference sample k. Uncontaminated surface material close to an area where  has been deposited
12. Buccal swab l. Search method that employs two people performing line searches that originate from adjacent corners and form perpendicular lines
13. Substrate control m. A list of all people who came into possession of an item of evidence

 

 

 

Chapter 2 Essay

 

  1. List and describe the roles of the evidence collector at a crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. In cooperation with the medical examiner or coroner, what type of evidence is to be retrieved from a deceased victim for examination in the crime laboratory?

 

 

 

  1. Why is it important to include a brief description of the case history on an evidence submission form?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the basic functions of a command center. What kind of equipment must a command center contain?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the steps the crime scene investigation team takes during its final survey of the crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. List two possible consequences of failure to protect a crime scene properly.

 

 

 

Chapter 2 Critical Thinking

  1. State which crime scene search pattern(s) would be best utilized for the following crime scene areas.
  2. One investigator must search a small classroom at a community college.
  3. Five investigators must search a large cornfield.
  4. Two investigators must search a walled-in little league baseball field.
  5. One investigator must search a small muddy backyard, specifically looking for footprint evidence.

 

 

  1. Discuss what information, specifically about timing, is provided by the state of the following searched crime scenes.

 

  1. A young woman is found dead near the front door of her home. She had not reported to work at 8 am. The morning newspaper is on the kitchen table next to a clean, empty plate. The decedent is found wearing pajamas and messy hair. Burned toast is found in the toaster.
  2. A backpack and empty lunchbox belonging to a missing child is found on a couch in a mobile home owned by a 47-year-old single man with no family in the area. The backpack contains blank homework assigned to the child that day in school. The search reveals action movie posters, three video game systems, twenty-five video games, and drawers filled with candy bars.

 

 

  1. What measurement technique(s) should be used to depict the location of evidence in sketches of the following scenes?
  2. A well-lined football field
  3. A single room in a cabin in the woods
  4. A vehicle accident in the middle of an intersection

 

 

  1. What issues could arise if an investigator did not fulfill his or her obligation to handle, collect, and package crime scene evidence in a way that prevents changing or contaminating these items?

 

 

 

  1. What evidence may be found in vacuum sweepings or fingernail scrapings that could assist in linking the victim, suspect, and any crime scenes?

 

 

  1. What is the proper way to package charred debris from the scene of a suspicious fire? Why is such packaging recommended?

 

 

 

  1. What types of protective clothing and equipment should an investigator wear when handling potentially infectious material? Which method of infection does each protect against?

 

 

 

  1. If no crime scene analysis is carried out with the death investigation, what types of evidence may never be located and recovered?

 

 

 

 

Chapter 3

 

 

 

 

Chapter 3 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to a determination of common origin (single source). Which type of evidence CANNOT yield such results?
  2. Random striations on tools
  3. Fingerprints
  4. Wear patterns on tires
  5. Single-layer paints

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. The likelihood of finding class is ______ the likelihood of finding with individual characteristics.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. is considered to have _____ as that of eyewitness (testimonial) evidence.
  2. The same value
  3. Greater value
  4. Less value

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. The corroborative use of means that it can be used to:
  2. Provide a lead to give the investigation direction.
  3. Establish a definite identity.
  4. Support other investigative findings.
  5. Rule out a particular suspect.

 

 

Page number: 65

 

 

  1. can be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion if:
  2. It is collected in accordance with the Fourth Amendment.
  3. The standard reference sample (control) from the person does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene.
  4. It does not have a well-documented chain of custody.
  5. Evidence taken from suspect is obtained voluntarily.

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. Forensic databases are maintained for all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Fingerprints
  3. Dental impressions.
  4. DNA.
  5. Automotive paint.

 

 

Page number: 67

 

 

  1. The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) became fully operational in what year?
  2. 1998
  3. 1991
  4. 1978
  5. 1999

 

 

Page number: 68

 

 

  1. A component of the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network is called:
  2. PDQ.
  3. CODIS.
  4. IBIS.
  5. a and b

 

 

Page number: 69

 

 

  1. When a forensic analyst determines the chemical composition of preparations that may contain illicit drugs such as heroin, cocaine, or barbiturates, this is an example of:
  2. Individualization.
  3. Identification.
  4. Classification.
  5. Comparison.

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

  1. The examination of a paint chip found on a hit-and-run victim’s garment side-by-side with paint removed from a vehicle suspected of being involved in the incident is an example of:
  2. Comparison.
  3. Identification.
  4. Classification.
  5. Individualization.

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

  1. Evidence having class characteristics can:
  2. Exonerate an innocent suspect.
  3. Link a person to a crime with a high degree of certainty.
  4. Always be fitted together in the manner of a jigsaw puzzle.
  5. Have no evidential value.

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. If the laboratory can piece broken glass from a window or headlight together, then the evidence has _____ characteristics.
  2. Identification
  3. Comparative
  4. Individual
  5. Class

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. A comparison analysis subjects a suspect specimen and a control specimen to the same tests and examinations for the ultimate purpose of determining:
  2. Whether or not they have a common origin.
  3. If they are identical in chemical composition.
  4. If the same person handled them.
  5. If they are alike in molecular structure.

 

 

Page number: 62-62

 

 

  1. Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of: a. Identification.
  2. Comparison.
  3. Class characterization.
  4. Individualization.

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

  1. The computerized database used to store DNA information is:
  2. AFIS.
  3. CODIS.
  4. NIBIN.
  5. Drugfire.

 

 

Page number: 68

 

 

  1. To calculate the overall frequency of occurrence of a blood type in a population, the _____ can be applied by using a series of blood factors that occur independently of each other.
  2. Locard’s exchange principle
  3. Multiplication table
  4. Tangent method
  5. Product rule

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. The value of class lies in its ability to:
  2. State with certainty the identity of the perpetrator.
  3. Corroborate events with data in a manner nearly without bias.
  4. Determine the probability of the occurrence of an event.
  5. Determine the quality of forensic analyses carried out on the evidence.

 

 

Page number: 65

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a national fingerprint and criminal history system maintained by the FBI and launched in 1999?
  2. NIBIN
  3. PDQ
  4. IAFIS
  5. SICAR

 

 

Page number: 68

 

 

  1. Paint chips, random glass fragments, and synthetic fibers all exhibit:
  2. Individual characteristics.
  3. Class characteristics.
  4. Identification characteristics.
  5. Comparison characteristics.

 

 

Page number: 63-64

 

 

  1. The database that contains chemical and color information pertaining to original automotive paints is the:
  2. PDQ.
  3. NIBIN.
  4. SICAR.
  5. IAFIS.

 

 

Page number: 69

 

 

  1. The database that includes more than 300 manufacturers of shoes with more than 8,000 different sole patterns is the:
  2. PDQ.
  3. SICAR.
  4. IAFIS.
  5. CODIS.

 

 

Page number: 70

 

 

  1. Which source of CODIS contains DNA profiles from unsolved crime scene evidence?
  2. Offender index
  3. National index
  4. Forensic index
  5. DNA index

 

 

Page number: 68

 

 

  1. The PDQ is maintained by the:
  2. FBI.
  3. RCMP.
  4. ATF.
  5. National DNA Database.

 

 

Page number: 69

 

 

  1. The “jigsaw fit” of known and questioned fragments is important for court presentation primarily because:
  2. It is a quick way of demonstrating how the object broke.
  3. Courts and juries are too nonscientific to understand it any other way.
  4. Instrumental analysis is too complicated to explain to nontechnical juries.
  5. This method will definitely demonstrate common origin when a match is made.

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. </INST>Who ultimately determines the significance of in a trial?
  2. The judge
  3. Expert witness
  4. The Supreme Court
  5. The jury

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. Multiplying together the frequencies of independently occurring factors is called the:
  2. Multiplication rule.
  3. Frequency rule.
  4. Product rule.
  5. Factor rule.

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. A computerized archive of information relating to a specific type of is a(n):
  2. Evidence database.
  3. Information database.
  4. Comparison database.
  5. Forensic database.

 

 

Page number: 67-68

 

 

 

Chapter 3 True-False

 

  1. Evidence having class characteristics can exonerate an innocent suspect.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of comparison.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 61-62

 

 

  1. The “jigsaw fit” of known and questioned fragments demonstrates common origin when a match is made.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. Shoeprints cannot be used to aid in a crime scene reconstruction.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 70

 

 

  1. The jury ultimately determines the significance of in a trial.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. Identification is the process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

  1. To permit a positive identification, testing procedures must be sufficient to exclude all other substances.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

  1. Class characteristics are properties of evidence that can be attributed to a common source with an extremely high degree of certainty.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. Paint and fibers are examples of class characteristics.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. The greatest weakness of class evidence is that examiners cannot assign exact or even approximate probability values to the comparison of most class evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. Eyewitness testimony and confessions are not as susceptible to dispute, human error, or bias as class evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 65

 

 

  1. Juries often accord scientific evidence lesser weight than other evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. When measured or examined with extreme precision, no two items – even those originating from the same source – are exactly alike.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 66

 

 

  1. CODIS is maintained by the FBI and thus does not enable local crime laboratories to electronically exchange and compare DNA profiles.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 68

 

 

  1. It is a duty of the forensic scientist to draw a conclusion about the origins of the specimens.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 62

 

 

  1. As the number of objects linking an individual to a crime scene increases, so does the likelihood of that individual’s involvement with the crime.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 72

 

 

  1. Class evidence is not unique and therefore not useful to forensic scientists.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 65

 

 

  1. Most items of retrieved at crime scenes can be linked definitively to a single person or object.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. The value of class lies in its ability to corroborate events with data in a manner that is, as nearly as possible, free of human error and bias.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 65

 

 

  1. Bloodstains only have class characteristics.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 64

 

 

  1. Identification requires that the number and type of tests needed to identify a substance be sufficient to exclude all other substances.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 61

 

 

 

Chapter 3 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. If the laboratory can piece broken glass from a window or headlight together, then the evidence has _____ characteristics.

 

 

 

  1. A single-layer paint chip can normally be expected to have _____ characteristics.

 

 

 

  1. The computerized database used to store DNA information is _____.

 

 

 

  1. Blood, hair, and fingerprints are some types of _____ evidence that are commonly found at crime scenes.

 

 

 

  1. The two methods used by forensic scientists when examining are identification and _____.

 

 

  1. The first step in _____ is determining which properties from the suspect and the standard/reference specimen to compare.

 

 

 

  1. The value of _____ evidence lies in its ability to corroborate events with data that are, as nearly as possible, free of human error and bias.

 

 

 

  1. IAFIS is maintained by the _____.

 

 

 

9.. The French scientist _____ mathematically determined the probability of two individuals having the same fingerprints.

 

 

 

  1. The only commercially available computer database system is _____.

 

 

 

  1. The process of identification requires the adoption of testing procedures that give characteristic results for specific _____ materials.

 

 

 

  1. The product rule is used to determine the frequency of occurrence of _____ profiles typically determined from blood and other biological materials.

 

 

 

  1. The purpose of _____ is to determine the physical or chemical identity of a substance.

 

 

 

  1. Class characteristics are properties of evidence that can be associated only with a group and never with a single _____.

 

</P></ANS>

 

  1. The _____ rule can be used to show the likelihood of two pieces of evidence containing the exact same set of characteristics.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 3 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Class characteristics a. Properties of evidence that can be attributed to a common source with an extremely high degree of certainty
2. Comparison b. A formula for determining how frequently a certain combination of characteristics occurs in a population. One must first determine the probability of each characteristic occurring separately, then multiply together the frequencies of all independently occurring characteristics. The result is the overall frequency of occurrence for that particular combination of characteristics.
3. Identification c. The process of ascertaining whether two or more objects have a common origin
4. Individual characteristics d. The process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity
5. Product rule e. Properties of evidence that can be associated only with a group and never with a single source
6.AFIS f. Combined DNA Index System
7.CODIS g. Process for developing DNA profiles from a buccal swab in 90 minutes or less
8. Rapid DNA h. Shoeprint Image Capture and Retrieval
9. NIBIN i. National Integrated Ballistics Information Network
10. SICAR j. Automated Fingerprint Identification System

 

 

 

Chapter 3 Essay

 

  1. Name three forensic databases and describe the type of information stored in each.

 

 

  1. List some of the advantages of class .

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between identification and comparison

 

 

 

Chapter 3 Critical Thinking

 

  1. What are three reasons why it is not possible to define a simple analytical scheme that can be applied to all types of evidence?

 

 

  1. Indicate whether the types of evidence listed below likely display individual or class characteristics.
  2. A well-developed and collected latent fingerprint
  3. Random striations on a discharged bullet
  4. Single-layer paint chip
  5. A footwear impression with irregular and random wear patterns
  6. Bloodstain with no DNA-containing cells
  7. An artificial fiber
  8. Irregular edges of a broken knife fitted together

 

 

 

  1. Use the product rule to determine the frequency of occurrence of an individual in the population exhibiting a blood sample with the following factors included:
Blood Factor Frequency in the General Population
AB 16%
Rh + 59%
PGM 2+ 1- 7%
Hp 2-1 3%

 

 

  1. Explain how compatibility of forensic databases and a common depository for entries assists forensic investigations.

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. List five examples of each of the following types of : biological materials, impressions, and manufactured items.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 4

 

Crime scene Reconstruction: Blood Stain Pattern Analysis

 

 

Chapter 4 Multiple Choice

 

  1. The amount of spatter from a blood droplet falling on a hard, non-porous surface is _____ that of a drop of blood of equal size, falling from the same distance, onto a softer, porous surface.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than

 

 

Page number: 78

 

 

  1. The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces:
  2. Opposite its direction of travel.
  3. Toward the direction from which the force came.
  4. Its direction of travel.
  5. Toward the position of the blood source.

 

 

Page number: 78

 

 

  1. A blood droplet deposited at an angle of impact of about 90º (directly vertical to the surface) will:
  2. Show acute elongation.
  3. Feature a tail showing the directionality.
  4. Be elliptical in shape.
  5. Be approximately circular in shape.

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. The most common type of bloodstain pattern found at a crime scene is:
  2. Cast-off spatter.
  3. Void spatter.
  4. Impact spatter.
  5. Arterial spray.

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. The velocity classification of an impact spatter pattern:
  2. Cannot illuminate the specific events that produced the pattern.
  3. Can determine the kind of action that produced the pattern.
  4. Is never used for descriptive purposes.
  5. Can only be determined by a trained bloodstain pattern analyst.

 

 

Page number: 81

 

 

  1. The intersection of straight lines through the long axis of several individual bloodstains in an impact spatter pattern illustrates the _____ of the pattern.
  2. Area of origin
  3. Void pattern
  4. Area of convergence
  5. Velocity classification

 

 

Page number: 82

 

 

  1. At the crime scene, the string method is used to find the _____ of an impact spatter pattern.
  2. Area of origin
  3. Void pattern
  4. Area of convergence
  5. Velocity classification

 

 

Page number: 82

 

 

  1. The deposition of backward spatter produced by a gunshot wound is determined by:
  2. The location of the injury.
  3. The size of the wound created.
  4. The distance between the victim and the muzzle.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 83-84

 

 

  1. If a murder victim’s blood is found in the muzzle of a firearm:
  2. No conclusion can be made.
  3. It can be concluded that the firearm is the murder weapon.
  4. It can be concluded that the firearm was present during injury to the victim.
  5. It can be concluded that the owner of the firearm is the perpetrator.

 

 

Page number: 84

 

 

  1. Which weapon would create cast-off patterns consisting of small droplets in a linear pattern?
  2. Baseball bat
  3. Knife
  4. Wooden plank
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. The pressure of the pumping of oxygenated blood out of an injury causes bright red-colored blood to spurt out and form a(n):
  2. Void pattern.
  3. Expirated pattern.
  4. Arterial spray pattern.
  5. Both b and c

 

 

Page number: 85-86

 

 

  1. The removal of an object or surface that was located between the origin of blood and the target surface during the bloodstain deposition leaves behind:
  2. Expirated blood.
  3. A void.
  4. Blowback spatter.
  5. An unidentifiable pattern.

 

 

Page number: 86

 

 

  1. When an object with blood on it touches one that does not have blood on it, this produces a(n):
  2. Flow.
  3. Indistinguishable pattern.
  4. Contact pattern.
  5. Trail pattern.

 

 

Page number: 87

 

 

  1. Widely spaced bloody shoeprints with satellite spatter between the shoeprints were likely deposited by an individual who was:
  2. Standing in place.
  3. Walking slowly.
  4. Running.
  5. Carrying a bloody weapon.

 

 

Page number: 90

 

 

  1. The direction of a _____ may show movements of objects or bodies while the pattern was still forming or after the blood has dried.
  2. Flow pattern
  3. Cast-off pattern
  4. Bloodstain tail
  5. Trail pattern

 

 

Page number: 87

 

 

  1. The approximate drying time of a pool of blood can be used to estimate timing of events at a crime scene and is dependent upon:
  2. The clotting ability of the blood.
  3. The blood type of the blood.
  4. The environmental condition of the scene.
  5. The method of deposition.

 

 

Page number: 88

 

 

  1. The skeletonized perimeter of a bloodstain can be used to interpret:
  2. The kind of force that produced the bloodstain.
  3. The time that elapsed between deposition of the stain and alteration of the stain.
  4. The source of the bloodstain.
  5. Both b and c

 

 

Page number: 88

 

 

  1. A trail pattern leading away from the victim at a stabbing scene was most likely created by:
  2. A victim’s arterial wound.
  3. Blood dripping from the murder weapon.
  4. Postmortem movement of the victim.
  5. Blood expelled from a respiratory injury.

 

 

Page number: 90

 

 

  1. In the grid method of bloodstain documentation, a grid of squares of known dimensions is created over an entire pattern in order to:
  2. Show the relative sizes of bloodstains in photographs.
  3. Prevent contamination of the bloodstains.
  4. Collect bloodstains for delivery to the laboratory.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 91

 

 

  1. Proper location and documentation of bloodstain patterns at the crime scene is the responsibility of:
  2. A bloodstain analysis specialist.
  3. The lead investigator.
  4. Criminalists and specialists.
  5. All crime scene personnel.

 

 

Page number: 91

 

 

  1. Which of the following is of paramount importance in the interpretation of bloodstain patterns?
  2. The direction of impact
  3. The surface texture
  4. The angle of impact
  5. The amount of blood

 

 

Page number: 77

 

 

  1. When an object blocks the deposition of blood spatter onto a target surface or object, the result is a:
  2. Transfer pattern.
  3. Flow pattern.
  4. Void pattern.
  5. Cast-off pattern.

 

 

Page number: 86

 

 

  1. What is created when an object with blood on it touches one that does not have blood on it?
  2. Flow pattern
  3. Void pattern
  4. Cast-off pattern
  5. Transfer pattern

 

 

Page number: 87

 

 

  1. Rough surfaces usually result in stains with:
  2. Forward spatter.
  3. Back spatter.
  4. Blow-back spatter.
  5. Satellite spatter.

 

 

Page number: 78

 

 

  1. An impact pattern consisting of large separate drops with diameters of 5 millimeters is:
  2. Low-velocity spatter.
  3. Medium-velocity spatter.
  4. High-velocity spatter.
  5. Both a and b

 

 

Page number: 80

 

 

  1. Drops propelled from a blunt surface will be larger and the pattern will be:
  2. Narrow.
  3. Wide.
  4. Linear.
  5. Thin.

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. The presence of a cast-off pattern shows that there were more than _____ blow(s) delivered:
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Five
  5. The cast-off pattern cannot tell how many blows were delivered.

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. Setting up a rectangular border of rulers around the patterns and then placing a small ruler next to each stain describes the:
  2. String method
  3. Stake method
  4. Grid method
  5. Perimeter ruler method

 

 

Page number: 91

 

 

  1. Setting up squares of known dimension over the entire pattern describes the:
  2. String method.
  3. Stake method.
  4. Grid method.
  5. Perimeter ruler method.

 

 

Page number: 91

 

 

  1. Crime scene reconstructions have the best chance of accuracy if:
  2. Investigators exclude all testimonial evidence.
  3. Investigators use proper documentation and collection methods for all types of evidence.
  4. Investigators process all evidence at the crime laboratory.
  5. Investigators trust their first instincts and test their first theories.

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

  1. Crime scene reconstruction requires the piecing together of:
  2. Accounts given by witnesses and suspects.
  3. Input from the medical examiner.
  4. The story told by evidence recovered at the crime scene.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

  1. Crime scene reconstruction involves the efforts of all EXCEPT the:
  2. Trial judge.
  3. Medical examiner.
  4. Police.
  5. Criminalist.

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

  1. Generally, bloodstain diameter _____ as height increases.
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Increases
  5. Increases lengthwise and decreases widthwise

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. The _____ of a bloodstain pattern in a three-dimensional space illustrates the position of the victim or suspect when the stain-producing event took place.
  2. Void
  3. Area of convergence
  4. Directionality
  5. Area of origin

 

 

Page number: 82

 

 

  1. _____ transfer patterns are produced when the object makes contact with the surface and the object is removed without any movement.
  2. Void
  3. Contact
  4. Simple
  5. Flow

 

 

Page number: 87

 

 

  1. By counting and pairing the patterns of a(n) _____ pattern, an investigator can estimate the minimum number of blows inflicted upon a victim.
  2. Impact
  3. Arterial spray
  4. Void
  5. Cast-off

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. A blood stain that impacts a surface at a low angle will have a _____ tail than one that impacts at a higher angle.
  2. Longer
  3. Shorter
  4. Wider
  5. Narrower

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, what happens to the diameter of the resulting blood droplets?
  2. Increases
  3. Stays the same
  4. Decreases
  5. The diameter is unaffected by force and velocity.

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. Droplets of _____ are very small. They may not travel far and could be overlooked.
  2. High-velocity spatter
  3. Transfer patterns
  4. Medium-velocity spatter
  5. Low-velocity spatter

 

 

Page number: 80

 

 

  1. What information can an investigator gain from the location of the area of origin of a bloodstain pattern?
  2. Position of weapons at a crime scene
  3. Position of person from which pattern originated
  4. Type of force used
  5. Identity of the suspect

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

  1. What should one surmise if a flow found on an object or body does not appear consistent with the direction of gravity?
  2. The object or body was within 5 feet of the blood source.
  3. The object or body was moved after the blood had dried.
  4. The object or body was not moved.
  5. The object or body was at a lower temperature than the blood.

 

 

Page number: 87-88

 

 

  1. The process of crime scene reconstruction may enlist the expertise of all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. A trained criminalist.
  3. A criminal personality profiler.
  4. A medical examiner.
  5. A forensic anthropologist.

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

  1. that can be used to aid in a crime scene reconstruction includes:
  2. Blood spatters.
  3. Gunshot residues.
  4. Glass fragments.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

 

Chapter 4 True-False

 

  1. The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces its direction of travel.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 78

 

 

  1. A bloodstain that impacts a surface at a low angle with have a shorter tail than one that impacts at a higher angle.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. Forward spatter is more likely to be deposited on the object or person creating the impact.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. Back spatter consists of the blood projected backward from the source.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, the diameter of the resulting blood droplets increases.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. Since droplets of high-velocity spatter are very small, they may not travel far.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 81

 

 

  1. The location of injury, the size of the wound created, the distance between the victim and the muzzle of the weapon all affect the amount of backward spatter that occurs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 84

 

 

  1. The sizes of the drops in a cast-off pattern are not related to the size of the point from which they were propelled.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. Drops propelled from a small or pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more linear.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. Expirated blood is blood that is expelled from the mouth or nose from an external injury.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Pager number: 86

 

 

  1. A flow pattern is created when an object blocks the deposition of blood spatter onto a target surface or object.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 86

 

 

  1. Voids may help investigators establish the body position of the victim or assailant at the time of the incident.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 86

 

 

  1. The first transfer pattern will be lighter in color while subsequent transfers will be increasingly dark and heavy.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 87

 

 

  1. The flow pattern on an object or body can help determine if the body was moved after the blood had dried.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 87

 

  1. Pools of blood are not reliable to use in reconstruction or determining the amount of time that has elapsed since the blood was deposited.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 88

 

 

  1. The tails of the drops in a trail pattern point in the direction that the person was moving.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. Void spatter is the most common type of bloodstain pattern found at a crime scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 79

 

 

  1. Gunshot exit wounds commonly produce medium-velocity spatter, while explosions produce high-velocity spatter.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 80

 

 

  1. The velocity at which blood strikes a surface is not useful to describe the specific events that produced the spatter pattern.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 81

 

 

  1. The less blood on an object, the smaller the stains produced.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 85

 

 

  1. During crime scene reconstruction, no evidence or data should ever be excluded.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 76

 

 

 

Chapter 4 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ spatter is projected outward and away from the source.

 

 

 

  1. In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, the diameter of the resulting blood droplets _____.

 

 

 

  1. The location of injury, the size of the wound created, the distance between the victim and the muzzle of the weapon all affect the amount of _____ spatter that occurs.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ effect occurs when back spatter strikes the gunman and enters the gun muzzle.

 

 

 

  1. Drops propelled from a large or blunt surface will be _____ and the pattern wider.

 

 

 

  1. The presence of bubbles of oxygen in the drops can differentiate _____ blood from other types of bloodstains.

 

 

 

  1. Expirated blood also may be lighter in color as a result of dilution by _____.

 

 

 

  1. Simple _____ patterns are produced when the object makes contact with the surface and is removed without any movement of the object.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ pattern is a pattern made by drops or large amounts of blood flowing by the pull of gravity.

 

 

 

  1. More circular stains are found where the person was moving slowly enough to not form _____.

 

 

 

  1. In general, as the force of the impact on the source of blood increases, the velocity of the blood droplets emanating from the source _____.

 

 

 

  1. Blunt force trauma is normally associated with _____-velocity spatter.

 

 

 

  1. Drops propelled from a pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more _____.

 

 

 

  1. Cast-off patterns can show the _____ number of blows.

 

 

 

  1. Typically the blood expelled from impact wounds is not as bright red as the blood expelled from the _____.

 

 

  1. Often, reconstruction requires the involvement of a medical examiner and at least one _____.

 

 

 

  1. Crime scene _____ is the method used to support a likely sequence of events at a crime scene by observing and evaluating and statements made by individuals involved with the incident.

 

 

 

Chapter 4 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Angle of impact a. An impact spatter pattern created by a force traveling at 100 ft/sec or faster and producing droplets with diameters less than 1 mm
2. Area of convergence b. Blood directed back towards the source of the force that caused the spatter
3. Area of origin c. The process by which the edges of a stain will dry to the surface in a specific period of time (dependent upon environmental and surface conditions) and will remain apparent even after the rest of the bloodstain has been disturbed from its original position
4. Arterial spray d. A bloodstain pattern formed by the movement of small or large amounts of blood due to gravity’s pull
5. Back spatter e. A bloodstain pattern produced when an object makes forceful contact with a source of blood, projecting droplets of blood outward from the source
6. Cast-off f. The area on a two-dimensional plane where lines traced through the long axis of several individual bloodstains meet. This approximates the two-dimensional place where the bloodstains were projected from
7. Expirated blood pattern g. A bloodstain pattern created when a surface that carries wet blood comes in contact with a second surface. Recognizable imprints of all or a portion of the original surface or the direction of movement may be observed.
8. Flow pattern h. An impact spatter pattern created by a force traveling at 5-25 ft/sec and producing droplets with diameters between 1 mm and 3 mm
9. Forward spatter i. A characteristic bloodstain pattern containing spurts that results from blood exiting under pressure from an arterial injury
10. High-velocity spatter j. Small droplets of blood that are distributed around the perimeter of a drop or pool of blood that were produced as a result of the blood impacting the target surface
11. Impact spatter k. The acute angle formed between the path of a blood drop and the surface which it contacts
12. Low-velocity spatter l. An area within a deposited spatter pattern that is clear of spatter, caused by an object or person blocking the area at the time of the pattern’s deposition
13. Medium-velocity spatter m. A pattern of bloodstains formed by the dripping of blood off a moving surface or person in a recognizable pathway separate from other patterns
14. Satellite spatter n. A bloodstain pattern that is created when blood is flung from a blood-bearing object in motion onto a surface
15. Skeletonization o. Blood which travels away from the source in the same direction as the force which caused the spatter
16. Drip trail pattern p. The location in three-dimensional space that blood that produced a bloodstain originated from. The location of the area of convergence and the angle of impact for each bloodstain is used to approximate this area.
17. Transfer pattern q. An impact spatter pattern created by a force traveling at 5 ft/sec or less and producing droplets with diameters greater than 3 mm
18. Void r. Blood that is expelled out of the nose, mouth, or respiratory system as a result of air pressure and/or air flow

 

 

 

 

Chapter 4 Essay

 

  1. Define the terms area of convergence and area of origin and explain what each reveals to an investigator.

 

 

 

  1. What determines the size of blood drops in a cast-off pattern? Explain.

 

 

  1. Name and describe two methods for documenting bloodstain patterns.

 

 

 

  1. Name two major limitations of crime scene reconstruction.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 4 Critical Thinking

 

  1. What conclusion can be deduced if fine droplets of the victim’s blood are found inside the muzzle of a firearm at an outdoor crime scene, where the victim suffered several gunshot wounds?

 

 

 

  1. An investigator is faced with clustered and irregularly colored bloodstain patterns at a crime scene that he believes could have originated from an arterial or oral injury. What characteristics of arterial and expirated blood patterns can assist the investigator in differentiating these patterns from other pattern types and each other?

 

 

 

  1. If the distribution and pattern of bloodstains at a crime scene are not properly documented and analyzed, what potential information could be missed?

 

 

 

Chapter 5

 

Death Investigation

 

 

Chapter 5 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Which can be used in making an identification of a deceased individual?
  2. Fingerprinting
  3. Dental examination
  4. Facial reconstruction
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 101

 

 

  1. The death of an individual suffering from chronic alcoholism is ruled:
  2. Natural.
  3. Accidental.
  4. Suicide.
  5. Undetermined.

 

 

Page number: 108

 

 

  1. The largest percentage of accidental deaths is due to:
  2. Drug overdoses.
  3. Drowning.
  4. Fire.
  5. Transportation accidents.

 

 

Page number: 108

 

 

  1. Characteristic markings on the skin caused from the discharge of a firearm is known as:
  2. Staining.
  3. Stippling.
  4. Tattooing.
  5. b and c

 

 

Page number: 103

 

 

  1. Partially digested or dissolved pills can be seen in the:
  2. Large intestine.
  3. Stomach.
  4. Small intestine.
  5. Esophagus.

 

 

Page number: 103

 

 

  1. The best place to take a blood sample in order to avoid contamination is the:
  2. Inferior vena cava.
  3. Superior vena cava.
  4. Heart.
  5. Femoral vein.

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. A sharp force injury will most likely come from a:
  2. Hammer.
  3. Baseball bat.
  4. Glass piece.
  5. Cinder block.

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. A body that displays a cherry-red discoloration might lead a pathologist to suspect poisoning by:
  2. Cyanic acid.
  3. Arsenic.
  4. Pesticides.
  5. Carbon monoxide.

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. Defense wounds are most typically seen on the:
  2. Hands.
  3. Face.
  4. Shins.
  5. Back.

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Death at a fire scene is most often attributed to:
  2. Carbon dioxide.
  3. Carbon monoxide.
  4. Nitrogen.
  5. Hydrogen.

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Pulmonary edema is frequently found in victims that chronically abuse:
  2. Marijuana.
  3. Amphetamines.
  4. Heroin.
  5. Alcohol.

 

 

Page number: 103

 

 

  1. Beginning an hour after death, the body will lose heat at an approximate rate of:
  2. 0 – 0.5°F per hour.
  3. 0.5 – 1°F per hour.
  4. 1 – 1.5°F per hour.
  5. 1.5 – 2°F per hour.

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. Lividy can be expected to be fixed after _____ hours.
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 16
  5. 24

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. A pathologist would expect rigor mortis to disappear after _____ hours.
  2. 12
  3. 24
  4. 36
  5. 48

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. Time of death can be approximated by analyzing the vitreous humor and the levels of:
  2. Potassium
  3. Calcium
  4. Sodium
  5. Magnesium

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Adipocere typically takes about _____ weeks to develop.
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 8
  5. 12

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. What must a medical examiner possess?
  2. Elected position
  3. Medical degree
  4. Board certification
  5. b and c

 

 

Page number: 100

 

 

  1. Which should be performed first at a death scene?
  2. Secure the scene
  3. Photographs
  4. Sketch
  5. Collect evidence

 

 

Page number: 111

 

 

  1. What does hemoglobin transport in the blood?
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Carbon monoxide
  5. Oxygen

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Which factors can help to determine if a victim was alive during a fire?
  2. Levels of carbon monoxide in the body
  3. Extent of burns on the body
  4. Soot
  5. a and c

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Hanging cases will typically display:
  2. Fracture of the hyoid bone.
  3. Fracture of the thyroid cartilage.
  4. Abundance of large petechiae on the eyelids.
  5. Blue appearance of the face.

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Which is commonly fractured in strangulation cases?
  2. Hyoid bone
  3. Thyroid cartilage
  4. Thymus cartilage
  5. Nothing is typically fractured in strangulation cases.

 

 

Page number: 106

 

  1. Common drugs tested for during a death investigation do NOT include:
  2. Alcohol.
  3. Cocaine.
  4. LSD.
  5. Morphine/Heroin.

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. The types of autopsies include all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Criminal.
  3. External.
  4. Clinical.
  5. Medicolegal.

 

 

Page number: 101

 

 

  1. Negative photographs are:
  2. Photographs that have not yet been developed.
  3. Photographs that did not develop properly.
  4. Photographs of uninjured parts of the body.
  5. Photographs of injured parts of the body.

 

 

Page number: 102

 

 

  1. What part of the victim’s body is often bagged in order to prevent loss of trace evidence?
  2. Hands
  3. Feet
  4. Head
  5. No part is bagged

 

 

Page number: 103

 

 

  1. Death intentionally caused by another person is typically ruled a(n):
  2. Accident.
  3. Suicide.
  4. Homicide.
  5. Natural.

 

 

Page number: 107

 

 

  1. Toxicological specimens are taken at which stage of the death investigation?
  2. Death scene
  3. Internal examination
  4. External examination
  5. Anytime

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. Homicide, suicide, accident, natural, and undetermined are all categories of:
  2. Manner of death.
  3. Cause of death.
  4. Mechanism of death.
  5. Method of death.

 

 

Page number: 107

 

 

  1. Putrefaction and autolysis are two types of _____ processes.
  2. Rigor mortis
  3. Decomposition
  4. Livor mortis
  5. Algor mortis

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Evidence of tampering with the position of a body after death can be obtained by evaluating the:
  2. Rigor mortis.
  3. Algor mortis.
  4. Livor mortis.
  5. Both b and c

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. Rigor mortis refers to the:
  2. Temperature of death.
  3. Stiffness of death.
  4. Color of death.
  5. Time of death.

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. A corpse was discovered in an apartment last November. It was that of a 50-year-old male who died of a heart attack. At the time of discovery, the body temperature was determined to be 89°F. What is the most probable post mortem interval?
  2. 1 hour
  3. 2 hours
  4. 7 hours
  5. 4 hours

 

 

Page number: 108-109

 

 

  1. The rate of cooling of a dead body can be influenced by all BUT the:
  2. Weather conditions.
  3. Location.
  4. Size of body.
  5. Gender of victim.

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. According to forensic entomologists, which “witness” is the first to arrive at the crime scene?
  2. Carrion beetle
  3. Mite
  4. Spider
  5. Blow fly

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. Which of the following techniques can be used to estimate the time of death?
  2. Rigor mortis
  3. Eye fluid potassium levels
  4. Livor mortis
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 109-110

 

 

  1. What part of a decedent’s body resists rapid decomposition and is used by forensic anthropologists to provide information about the decedent?
  2. Teeth
  3. Bones
  4. Soft tissue
  5. Cartilage

 

 

Page number: 110

Level:  Intermediate

 

  1. A forensic anthropologist may help to create a(n) _____ to help with the identification of the victim.
  2. Autopsy chart
  3. Dental profile
  4. Fingerprint chart
  5. Facial reconstruction

 

 

Page number: 114

 

 

  1. To determine the gender of skeletal remains, a forensic anthropologist can examine all of the following area of the skeleton EXCEPT the:
  2. Cranium.
  3. Pelvis.
  4. Sacrum.
  5. Femur.

 

 

Page number: 111

 

 

  1. The stage of fusion of various bones within a skeleton can be used to estimate the _____ of the decedent.
  2. Sex
  3. Race
  4. Occupation
  5. Age

 

 

Page number: 111

Level:  Intermediate

 

  1. As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye:
  2. Increases.
  3. Decreases.
  4. Remains the same.
  5. b or c

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a manner of death?
  2. Natural
  3. Drowning
  4. Homicide
  5. Suicide

 

 

Page number: 107

 

 

  1. The collection of evidence from a “tomb” site by a forensic anthropologist must include:
  2. A careful recovery of all visible remains.
  3. A thorough documentation of the site and all evidence.
  4. A search of the surrounding area for related evidence.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 111

 

 

  1. Estimations of the postmortem interval (PMI) using entomological evidence must take into account:
  2. The geographical location of the decedent’s body.
  3. Weather conditions.
  4. The location’s climate over time.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. Insect evidence should be collected:
  2. At the scene by a forensic entomologist or trained investigator.
  3. During the autopsy by the medical examiner.
  4. Upon the finding of the decedent by the first responding officer.
  5. At the crime laboratory by forensic analysts.

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. If a cause of death cannot be found through simple observation of the victim, a(n) _____ is typically carried out.
  2. Autopsy
  3. Crime scene investigation
  4. Drug screening
  5. Anthropological profile

 

 

Page number: 101

 

 

 

Chapter 5 True-False

 

  1. It is not feasible for a medical examiner to respond in-person to every death scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 100

 

 

  1. A pathologist must examine a body’s wounds to determine if the death was a homicide and if the assailant had intent to kill.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 107

 

 

  1. Chronic drug use is typically considered suicide by the medical examiner.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 108

 

 

  1. Photographs should be taken both of areas with injuries and areas without injuries.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 100

 

 

  1. The primary role of the medical examiner is to determine the cause and manner of death.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. The two types of autopsies are a clinical autopsy and a hospital autopsy.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 101

 

 

  1. X-rays are most commonly performed in gunshot wound cases and stab wound cases.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 103

 

 

  1. The external examination involves classifying the injuries and examining the organs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 102

 

 

  1. It is best to collect blood at distant areas of the body to obtain the most accurate drug levels.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. General testing for poisons is a routine procedure carried out by the pathologist.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. Another name for a bruise is a contusion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. High levels of carbon monoxide are needed to cause a victim to become disoriented.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. Carbon monoxide levels continue to rise in the body even after death.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 105

 

 

  1. The pathologist typically does not perform a drug analysis unless a drug overdose is suspected.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 104

 

 

  1. The onset of livor mortis begins immediately after death.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. A body decomposing on a summer day will typically show increased progression of rigor mortis.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Autolysis is carried out by microorganisms such as bacteria.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Decomposition typically occurs on the face before the abdomen.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. The forensic pathologist is also aided by the skills of specialists including forensic anthropologists, forensic entomologists, and forensic odontologists.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 100

 

 

  1. For gunshot victims, the cause of death can be listed as a gunshot wound.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 106

 

 

  1. Skeletal bones are resistant to rapid decomposition.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. Forensic entomology is often used to help estimate the time of death.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. The known sequence of arrival of different insect groups cannot help to determine the postmortem interval.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. Rigor mortis occurs within 12 hours of death and disappears within 24 hours.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. Livor mortis occurs when blood settles in parts of the body closest to the ground.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 109

 

 

  1. After death, the body does not cool at a predictable rate.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 108-109

 

 

  1. The concentration of sodium in the eye fluids can help determine time of death.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 110

 

 

  1. The postmortem interval can be affected by various environmental conditions.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 117

 

 

  1. The age of a skeleton can be determined by various factors, including the shape of the pelvis and sacrum, the size of the cranium, and the protrusion of the brow bone and mastoid process.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 111

 

 

 

Chapter 5 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. Disease and environmental abuse fall under the _____ category of manner of death.

 

 

 

  1. The goal of a(n) _____ autopsy is to determine the cause and manner of death.

 

 

 

  1. Hemorrhages in the eyelids are known as _____.

 

 

 

  1. Types of injuries that are classified during the external autopsy include contusions, lacerations, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. The range of _____ involves the distance between the gun and the victim and can help in distinguishing between homicide and suicide.

 

 

 

  1. _____ specimens include samples of blood, stomach contents, bile, and urine.

 

 

 

  1. A distinct smell of burnt almonds may accompany a death by _____ toxicity.

 

 

 

  1. Tearing and crushing of the tissues is known as a _____ force type injury.

 

 

 

  1. A cut produces an injury that is longer than it is _____.

 

 

 

  1. A contusion can sometimes exhibit the _____ of the weapon used.

 

 

 

  1. Petechiae are caused by the escaping of blood into the tissue as a result of _____ bursting.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ in its broadest definition is simply the examination of a body after death.

 

 

 

  1. During decomposition, the body may experience _____ where the skin begins to blister with gas and peel.

 

 

 

  1. Forensic _____ is concerned primarily with the identification and examination of human skeletal remains.

 

 

 

  1. The study of insects and their relation to a criminal investigation is known as forensic _____.

 

 

 

  1. By determining the most developed stage of fly found on the body, entomologists can approximate the postmortem _____.

 

 

 

  1. The process by which the body temperature cools after death is known as _____ mortis.

 

 

 

  1. Rigor mortis, eye fluid potassium levels, livor mortis, and insect infestation can be used to estimate the _____ of death.

 

 

 

  1. The stiffening of muscles after death is known as _____ mortis.

 

 

 

  1. The settling of blood in the parts of the body closest to the ground is known as _____ mortis.

 

 

 

  1. Livor mortis continues for up to _____ hours after death.

 

 

 

  1. Time of death can be estimated by measuring the concentration of _____ in the victim’s eye fluids.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ of a skeleton can be determined by observing the shape of the pelvis and sacrum, the size of the cranium, and the protrusion of the brow bone and mastoid process.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 5 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Postmortem redistribution a. A postmortem process in which the body attempts to equalize with the environmental temperature
2. Rigor mortis b. The formation of a waxy substance during decomposition
3. Autolysis c. A postmortem chemical change that causes the muscles to become rigid
4. Algor mortis d. The process of the blood settling to parts of the body nearest the ground once the heart stops pumping
5. Asphyxia e. The redistribution of drugs in the blood after death
6. Adipocere f. Self-digestion by the cell’s own enzymes
7. Livor mortis g. Decomposition carried out by microorganisms
8. Putrefaction h. A variety of conditions that interfere with the intake of oxygen
9. Slippage i. The fluid within the eye
10. Vitreous humor j. When skin begins to blister and peel

 

 

 

 

Chapter 5 Essay

 

  1. Describe the various victim characteristics that can be determined by a forensic anthropologist.

 

 

  1. Explain how the presence of certain insects can help a forensic entomologist estimate the time of death.

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between autolysis and putrefaction. What are these processes dependent on?

 

 

 

  1. Briefly describe the processes of algor mortis, livor mortis, and rigor mortis.

 

 

  1. What is postmortem redistribution and how do forensic pathologists avoid it?

 

 

 

  1. In cooperation with the medical examiner or coroner, what type of evidence is to be retrieved from a deceased victim for examination in the crime laboratory?

 

Chapter 5 Critical Thinking

 

  1. If no scene analysis is carried out with the death investigation, what types of evidence may never be located and recovered?

 

 

 

  1. What conclusions about the position of a victim and an attacker can be drawn from the presence of defensive wounds on the forearms and hands of the victim? How about defensive wounds on the legs and feet?

 

 

  1. Explain the importance of the forensic pathologist or medical examiner making proper classifications of a victim’s wounds during the autopsy.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 6

 

Fingerprints

 

 

Chapter 6 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Sir Francis Galton, in writing his textbook on fingerprints, built on the groundbreaking work in this area by:
  2. Henry
  3. Bertillon
  4. Vucetich
  5. Fauld

 

 

Page number: 126

 

 

  1. The fingerprint classification system used in most English speaking countries was devised by:
  2. Henry
  3. Vucetich
  4. Herschel
  5. Fauld

 

 

Page number: 127

 

 

  1. Will West was the man who:
  2. Had a virtual “double” with a similar name.
  3. Devised the fingerprint classification system used in Spanish-speaking countries.
  4. Mutilated his fingerprints with acid.
  5. Invented Superglue.

 

 

Page number: 127

 

 

  1. Under which circumstances have two people been found to have identical fingerprints?
  2. Identical twins
  3. Siamese twins
  4. Fraternal twins
  5. None to date

 

 

Page number: 127

 

 

  1. It is estimated that there are as many as _____ ridge characteristics in an average complete fingerprint.
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 150
  5. 200

 

 

Page number: 128

 

 

  1. The most commonly encountered ridge characteristics (used by AFIS) are the:
  2. Ridge ending and island.
  3. Ridge crossing and short ridge.
  4. Bifurcation and ridge ending.
  5. Bifurcation and trifurcation.

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. What is the minimum number of ridge characteristics necessary before two fingerprints can be identified as the same?
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
  5. No minimum exists.

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. Fingerprints are formed:
  2. During fetal development.
  3. By the time a child is two years old.
  4. During first six months after birth.
  5. At birth.

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. The friction skin ridges:
  2. Have no useful purpose other than identification.
  3. Provide a firmer grip.
  4. Resist slippage.
  5. Both b and c

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. The pores of the sweat glands are located in the:
  2. Skin ridges.
  3. Friction grooves.
  4. Dermis.
  5. Dermal papillae.

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. Prints that are not readily visible are commonly referred to as:
  2. Latent.
  3. Open.
  4. Plastic.
  5. Rolled.

 

 

Page number: 136

 

 

  1. To permanently alter the fingerprint and produce scars, one must damage the:
  2. Minutiae
  3. Ridges
  4. Epidermis
  5. Dermal papillae

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. Which person listed below attempted to destroy his fingerprints with corrosive acid?
  2. James Gotti
  3. Carlo Gambino
  4. William West
  5. John Dillinger

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. The most common ridge pattern is the:
  2. Loop.
  3. Whorl.
  4. Accidental.
  5. Arch.

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. The number of deltas found in an arch pattern is _____ the number of deltas found in a loop pattern.
  2. Greater than
  3. Less than
  4. The same as

 

 

Page number: 130-131

 

 

  1. In the Primary Classification System, a finger is assigned numerical value if its pattern is a:
  2. Loop.
  3. Ulnar loop.
  4. Arch.
  5. Whorl.

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

  1. What percentage of the population falls into the 1/1 Primary Classification category?
  2. 30%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%
  5. 10%

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. In the Primary Classification scheme, the left index finger has a potential value of:
  2. 16.
  3. 8.
  4. 4.
  5. 2.

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. The value of ridge patterns in determining the uniqueness of a fingerprint is ________ the value of type and position of ridge characteristics in determining the uniqueness of a fingerprint.
  2. Greater than
  3. The same as
  4. Less than

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. AFIS is a(n):
  2. Computerized system for storing and retrieving fingerprint records
  3. Method used to determine age of a latent print
  4. Computer system programmed to analyze hair
  5. Assay technique used to identify drugs

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. The FBI’s IAFIS became fully operational in:
  2. 1977.
  3. 1989.
  4. 1991.
  5. 1999.

Answer:  d

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. The AFIS _____ determines the degree of _____ between the location and relationship of the minutiae between the questioned fingerprint and those in the database.
  2. Relative position, orientation
  3. Search algorithm, correlation
  4. Identification system, minutiae
  5. Software configurations, difference

 

 

Page number: 133-134

 

 

  1. Livescan images of fingerprints:
  2. Have eliminated the need for inked prints on paper cards.
  3. Are sent to the AFIS database electronically.
  4. Are captured when the subject’s fingers and palms are placed onto a glass platen.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 134

 

 

  1. A primary classification of 9/3 means that there are:
  2. Whorls on the left index and right ring fingers.
  3. Deltas on fingers #9 and #3.
  4. Whorls on the left and right middle fingers.
  5. Loops on the right thumb and left ring finger.

 

 

Page number: 132-133

 

 

  1. Prints impressed in a bar of soap are referred to as:
  2. Latent.
  3. Hidden.
  4. Plastic.
  5. Dusted.

 

 

Page number: 136

 

 

  1. Investigators can use ________ to detect latent fingerprints without use of chemicals or powder treatments.
  2. RUVIS
  3. AFIS
  4. GRIM 3
  5. GC/MS

 

 

Page number: 137

 

 

  1. Which is NOT considered a porous surface?
  2. Tile
  3. Cloth
  4. Paper
  5. Cardboard

 

 

Page number: 137

 

 

  1. Sublimation occurs with the use of:
  2. Iodine fuming.
  3. Cyanoacrylate.
  4. Laser-print detection.
  5. Silver nitrate.

 

 

Page number: 138

 

 

  1. Ninhydrin is used on a latent print to detect:
  2. Fatty acids.
  3. Riboflavin.
  4. Protein material.
  5. Salt.

 

 

Page number: 138

 

 

  1. Physical developer contains:
  2. Iodine.
  3. Silver nitrate.
  4. Ninhydrin.
  5. Acrylate.

 

 

Page number: 138

 

 

  1. In which order should chemical treatments to visualize latent prints be performed?
  2. Ninhydrin 2. Iodine fuming                     3. Physical developer
  3. 1, 3, 2
  4. 2, 1, 3
  5. 3, 1, 2
  6. 1, 2, 3

 

 

Page number: 139

 

 

  1. Superglue fuming is NOT suitable for use on:
  2. Cardboard.
  3. Metal.
  4. Leather.
  5. Plastic bags.

 

 

Page number: 139

 

 

  1. Which chemical treatment produces a white-appearing latent print?
  2. Ninhydrin
  3. Iodine fuming
  4. Superglue fuming
  5. Physical developer

 

 

Page number: 139

 

 

  1. Which substance is a substitute for Ninhydrin?
  2. DFO
  3. RAY
  4. MRM 10
  5. RAM

 

 

Page number: 141

 

 

  1. Currently, which of the following, in conjunction with chemically induced fluorescence, is most often used to visualize latent prints?
  2. High-intensity light sources
  3. IR light
  4. UV light
  5. Laser illumination

 

 

Page number: 141

 

 

  1. Dusting to visualize a latent print on finished leather and rough plastic is best done with a:
  2. Fiberglass brush.
  3. Magna brush.
  4. Camel’s hair brush.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 138

 

 

  1. After successfully visualizing a latent print on an object, an investigator should next:
  2. Classify the print.
  3. Lift the print with adhesive tape.
  4. Compare it to the suspect’s prints.
  5. Take a 1:1 photograph of the print.

 

 

Page number: 142

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true about digital imaging?
  2. Once the image is produced, it can be manipulated and enlarged.
  3. It produces an image composed of pixels.
  4. It is a process in which a picture is converted into a digital file.
  5. It does not allow for the simultaneous comparison of two prints.

 

 

Page number: 143

 

 

  1. Which of the following types of fingerprints are more likely to be found impressed in soft wax?
  2. Visible
  3. Plastic
  4. Latent
  5. Hidden

 

 

Page number: 136

 

 

  1. The first systematic system of individual classification and identification was introduced by:
  2. Francis Galton
  3. Richard Henry
  4. William Herschel
  5. Alphonse Bertillon

 

 

Page number: 126

 

 

  1. The fingerprint pattern accounting for only 5% of all known patterns is the:
  2. Arch.
  3. Radial loop.
  4. Ulnar loop.
  5. Whorl.

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. A fingerprint pattern having no delta is a(n):
  2. Arch.
  3. Loop.
  4. Plain whorl.
  5. Central pocket loop.

 

 

Page number: 131

 

 

  1. Protein residues are best developed into fingerprint impressions with:
  2. Iodine.
  3. Ninhydrin.
  4. Physical developer.
  5. Dusting powder.

 

 

Page number: 138

 

 

  1. Which statement is true of a partial fingerprint?
  2. It must show at least a little of all ten fingers.
  3. Any print is sufficient for identification as long as there is enough to identify its basic pattern.
  4. Any print can identify a criminal if it shows an adequate number of ridge characteristics.
  5. At least 75% of the pattern must be present for identification.

 

 

Page number: 128

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a ridge characteristic of a fingerprint?
  2. Enclosure
  3. Bifurcation
  4. Island
  5. Core

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. A chemical method used for developing prints on nonporous surfaces is:
  2. Physical developer.
  3. Ninhydrin.
  4. Fuming with cyanoacrylate.
  5. DFO.

 

 

Page number: 139

 

 

  1. Chemical methods for developing latent fingerprints must be used in the following sequence:
  2. Iodine, physical developer, ninhydrin.
  3. Iodine, ninhydrin, physical developer.
  4. Ninhydrin, iodine, physical developer.
  5. Ninhydrin, physical developer, iodine.

 

 

Page number: 139

 

 

  1. A chemical method used for developing prints on nonporous surfaces is:
  2. Physical developer.
  3. Ninhydrin.
  4. Applying the dye rhodamine 6G after fuming with cyanoacrylate.
  5. DFO.

 

 

Page number: 141

 

 

  1. A point-by-point comparison of a fingerprint’s _____ must be demonstrated in order to prove identity.
  2. Minutiae
  3. Pattern
  4. Protein composition
  5. Classification

 

 

Page number: 127

 

 

  1. If an imaginary line drawn between the two deltas of a whorl pattern touches any of the spiral ridges, the pattern is classified as a(n):
  2. Central pocket whorl
  3. Central pocket loop
  4. Accidental
  5. Plain whorl

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. Computerized fingerprint search systems match prints by comparing the position of _____ and _____.
  2. Loops; arches
  3. Minutiae; ridge characteristics
  4. Bifurcations; ridge endings
  5. Ridges; furrows

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. The image produced from a digital file is composed of numerous square electronic dots called:
  2. Bytes
  3. Cubic millimeters
  4. Screen elements
  5. Pixels

 

Page number: 143

 

 

  1. Which step of the ACE-V process requires the examiner to identify any distortions associated with the friction ridges?
  2. Analysis
  3. Comparison
  4. Evaluation
  5. Verification

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

 

Chapter 6 True-False

 

  1. The second fundamental principle of fingerprints is that a fingerprint is an individual characteristic.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. Ridge characteristics are ridge endings, bifurcations, enclosures, and other ridge details, which must match in two fingerprints to establish their common origin.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 127

 

 

  1. The second fundamental theory of fingerprints states that a fingerprint remains unchanged once the individual enters adulthood.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. The shape of the boundary formed from dermal papillae determines the fingerprint pattern</P></ANS>.</P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 129

 

 

  1. A latent fingerprint is a fingerprint made by the deposit of oils and/or perspiration that is visible to the naked eye.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 136

 

 

  1. It is possible to obscure one’s fingerprints by scarring.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. The third fundamental principle of fingerprints is that fingerprints have general ridge patterns that permit them to be systematically classified.</P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. Loops are the most common type of fingerprint patterns.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. Loops include ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. A loop must have at least one delta.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 130

 

 

  1. A plain arch is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 131

 

 

  1. The primary classification is the first step in classifying fingerprints under the FBI system.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

  1. When using AFIS, the computer makes the final verification of the print’s identity.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 133

 

 

  1. The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, invisible prints, and latent prints.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 136

 

 

  1. Soft and porous surfaces are preferably developed by applying fingerprint powder or treating with Superglue.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 137

 

 

  1. RUVIS detects prints by using chemical treatments.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 137-138

 

 

  1. The perspiration in fingerprints contains a variety of components that fluoresce when illuminated by laser light.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 137

 

 

  1. After the latent print has been visualized, a photograph must be taken before any further attempts at preservation.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 142

 

 

  1. Digital imaging is a process through which a picture is converted into pixels.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 142

 

 

  1. Digital imaging is still effective in enhancing latent fingerprints even if details of the print do not exist on the original images.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 142

 

 

  1. The comparison step of the ACE-V process requires the comparison of the known and unknown print at two different levels.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

  1. A final conclusion made using the ACE-V process is either the individualization or elimination of a print.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

  1. The ACE-V process requires an independent examination by a second examiner.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 132

 

 

 

Chapter 6 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. Fingerprints are a reproduction of _____ skin ridges found on the palm side of the fingers and thumbs.</P></Q>

 

 

 

  1. The _____ fundamental principle of fingerprints is that a fingerprint is an individual characteristic.

 

 

 

  1. The identity, number, and relative location of ridge characteristics impart _____ to a fingerprint.

 

 

 

  1. Ridge characteristics are also known as _____.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ fundamental principle of fingerprints is that a fingerprint remains unchanged during an individual’s lifetime.

 

 

 

  1. Dermal papillae are cells that form a _____ between the outer skin, or epidermis, and the inner skin, or the dermis. </P></Q>

 

 

 

  1. _____ fingerprints are formed when a finger touches a surface and transfers perspiration, along with oils onto the surface.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ fundamental principle of fingerprints is that fingerprints have general ridge patterns that permit them to be systematically classified.</P></Q>

 

 

 

  1. The three types of fingerprint patterns are loops, whorls, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ include ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas.

 

 

 

  1. A loop must have at least one _____.

 

 

  1. A plain _____, formed by ridges entering from one side of the print and exiting on the opposite side, is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns.

 

 

 

  1. The presence or absence of the _____ pattern is the basis for determination of the primary classification.

 

 

 

  1. The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, latent prints, and _____ prints.

 

 

 

  1. Four common chemical methods for visualizing latent prints are SuperGlue fuming, ninhydrin, Physical Developer, and _____ fuming.<

 

 

 

  1. The analysis, comparison, evaluation, and verification of a fingerprint is known as _____.

 

 

 

  1. Level _____ of the comparison step in the ACE-V process can individualize a print.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 6 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Anthropometry a. A chemical reagent used to develop latent fingerprints on porous materials by reacting with amino acids in perspiration
2. Arch b. A technique for visualizing latent fingerprints by exposing them to iodine vapors
3. Digital imaging c. A class of fingerprints characterized by ridge lines that enter from one side of the pattern and curve around to exit from the same side of the pattern
4. Fluoresce d. A square electronic dot that is used to compose a digital image
5. Iodine fuming e. A class of fingerprints characterized by ridge lines that enter the print from one side and flow out the other side
6. Latent fingerprint f. A physical change from the solid directly into the gaseous state
7. Livescan g. Ridge endings, bifurcations, enclosures, and other ridge details which must match in two fingerprints to establish their common origin
8. Loop h. To emit visible light when exposed to light of a shorter wavelength
9. Ninhydrin i. A verbal description of a perpetrator’s physical characteristics and dress provided by an eyewitness
10. Physical developer j. A fingerprint made when the finger deposits a visible material such as ink, dirt, or blood onto a surface
11. Pixel k. A system of identification of individuals by measurement of parts of the body, developed by Alphonse Bertillon
12. Plastic print l. A technique for visualizing latent fingerprints on nonporous surfaces by exposing them to cyanoacrylate vapors; named for the commercial product Superglue
13. Portrait parlé m. A class of fingerprints that includes ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas
14. Ridge characteristics n. A fingerprint made by the deposit of oils and/or perspiration; it is invisible to the naked eye
15. Sublimation o. A fingerprint impressed in a soft surface
16. Superglue fuming p. A process through which a picture is converted into pixels
17. Visible print q. An inkless device that captures digital images of fingerprints and palm prints and electronically transmits them to an AFIS
18. Whorl r. A silver nitrate–based reagent formulated to develop latent fingerprints on porous surfaces

 

 

 

 

Chapter 6 Essay

 

  1. </INST>Name two main drawbacks to using AFIS.

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. <Q NUM=”27″><P><INST></INST>Describe the basic process used to “lift” a fingerprint. When should this procedure be used?

 

 

 

  1. Name three reasons why alternate light sources have replaced lasers for visualizing latent prints.

 

 

 

  1. <Q NUM=”28″><P><INST></INST>What is digital imaging? How is it useful for analyzing fingerprints?

 

 

 

  1. Why is it pointless to try to obscure or obliterate one’s fingerprints by scarring or otherwise damaging the skin?

 

 

 

Chapter 6 Critical Thinking

 

  1. Using the description given below of the types of fingerprint patterns on each finger of a suspect, give the primary classification of the individual.

 

Finger Right Hand Left Hand
Thumb Whorl Whorl
Index Loop Loop
Middle Loop Loop
Ring Loop Whorl
Little Arch Loop

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss how fingerprints on the following surfaces should best be visualized, documented, and preserved.

 

  1. Latent fingerprint on a silver-colored butter knife.
  2. Visible fingerprint (black) on the white wall of a house.
  3. Latent fingerprint on a large manila envelope.

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7

 

The Microscope

 

Chapter 7 Multiple Choice

 

  1. A compound microscope is equipped with two objective lenses (10x and 45x) and has a 10x ocular lens. The highest magnification attainable with this instrument is:
  2. 65x
  3. 100x
  4. 650x
  5. 450x

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. In order to examine an opaque object with a compound microscope, one must:
  2. Use transmitted illumination.
  3. Light the object from beneath the stage.
  4. Use reflected illumination.
  5. Stain the object before viewing it.

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. A parfocal microscope:
  2. Eliminates the need to stain the specimen to be viewed.
  3. Has two ocular lenses.
  4. Requires a polarized light source.
  5. Allows for ease of focusing when switching from low to high power.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. As the magnification of the compound microscope is increased, the field of view:
  2. Decreases.
  3. Remains the same.
  4. Increases.
  5. Becomes more focused.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. As the magnifying power of the compound microscope increases, the depth of focus:
  2. Remains the same
  3. Decreases
  4. Increases
  5. Becomes less focused

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. A comparison microscope designed to examine bullets and fibers is equipped with:
  2. Vertical illumination.
  3. Transmitted illumination.
  4. Oblique illumination.
  5. Both A and B.

 

 

Page number: 153-155

 

 

  1. The condenser of a compound microscope is located:
  2. At the base.
  3. Within the body tube.
  4. Beneath the stage.
  5. Between the coarse and fine adjustments.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. When using a compound microscope, the areas above and below the depth of focus are best viewed by adjusting the:
  2. Eyepiece lens.
  3. Fine or coarse adjustment.
  4. Intensity of the illumination.
  5. Numerical aperture.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. Which microscope has the largest potential working distance?
  2. Stereoscopic
  3. Comparison
  4. Polarizing
  5. Compound

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. Which microscope provides a right-side-up image?
  2. Comparison
  3. Stereoscopic
  4. Compound
  5. Polarizing

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. In the design of a polarizing microscope, the polarizer is placed between the:
  2. Specimen and the analyzer.
  3. Analyzer and the eyepiece.
  4. Light source and the sample stage.
  5. Sample stage and the analyzer.

 

 

Page number: 156

 

 

  1. Normally with a polarizing microscope, the polarizer and analyzer are set:
  2. Parallel to each other.
  3. So that maximum plane polarized light can reach the eyepiece.
  4. Perpendicular to each other.
  5. So that they are in constant motion.

 

 

Page number: 156

 

 

  1. Which microscope is best suited to the study of birefringent minerals and fibers?
  2. Stereoscopic
  3. Microspectrophotometer
  4. Polarizing
  5. Comparison

 

 

Page number: 157

 

 

  1. Which microscope plots an absorption spectrum of the item under examination?
  2. Polarizing
  3. Comparison
  4. Stereoscopic
  5. Microspectrophotometer

 

 

Page number: 158

 

 

  1. A microscope with which light source, when linked to a spectrophotometer, will provide a “fingerprint” spectrum of the object being viewed?
  2. Visible
  3. Plane polarized
  4. IR (infrared)
  5. UV (ultraviolet)

 

 

Page number: 158

 

 

  1. _____ are used to focus the SEM (scanning electron microscope).
  2. Analyzers
  3. Lenses
  4. Polarizers
  5. Magnets

 

 

Page number: 159

 

 

  1. The image produced by an SEM is initially displayed on:
  2. An X-ray analyzer.
  3. Photographic paper.
  4. An X-ray film.
  5. A cathode ray tube.

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. The microscope that provides the highest resolution and greatest depth of focus is the:
  2. SEM.
  3. Comparison.
  4. Compound.
  5. Stereoscopic.

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. Which microscope can be linked to an X-ray analyzer?
  2. SEM
  3. Microspectrophotometer
  4. Stereoscopic
  5. Polarizing

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. Which microscope is most likely to be used as a tool for determining whether or not a suspect has recently fired a gun?
  2. comparison
  3. Polarizing
  4. SEM
  5. Stereoscopic

 

 

Page number: 162

 

 

  1. When the SEM’s primary electron beam bombards a specimen, it causes the emission of:
  2. Electrons from elements of the upper layer of the specimen.
  3. X-rays from the target.
  4. Gamma rays from the target.
  5. Both A and B.

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. Richard Bruno Hauptmann was convicted of the kidnap and murder of the Lindbergh child in part on the basis of optical examination of:
  2. GSR (gunshot residue).
  3. Wood.
  4. Hair.
  5. Fibers.

 

 

Page number: 148

 

 

  1. A microscope uses a combination of _____ to magnify an image.
  2. Stages
  3. Mirrors
  4. Lenses
  5. Confocals

 

 

Page number: 150

 

 

  1. A type of image that cannot be viewed directly is called a(n) ___________ image.
  2. Real
  3. Imaginary
  4. Reflected
  5. Virtual

 

 

Page number: 150

 

 

  1. A transparent specimen is viewed through a microscope using _____ light while an opaque object requires _____ illumination.
  2. Transmitted; stereoscopic
  3. Confocal; transmitted
  4. Vertical; horizontal
  5. Transmitted; vertical

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. The size of the specimen area in view is known as the:
  2. Depth of field.
  3. Field of view.
  4. Stage size.
  5. Objective.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. Crystals that are _____ produce two planes of polarized light, each perpendicular to the other.
  2. Amorphous
  3. Solid
  4. Birefringent
  5. Colored

 

 

Page number: 157

 

 

  1. If crystals of unknown origin are viewed under a polarizing microscope and appear dark, what can be concluded about the crystals?
  2. The crystals are not heroin crystals
  3. The crystals are colorless
  4. The crystals are polarizing
  5. The crystals are non-polarizing

 

 

Page number: 157

 

 

  1. What instrument can be used to view a single fiber found at a crime scene and identify its generic class?
  2. Infrared microspectrophotometer
  3. Stereoscopic microscope
  4. Polarizing microscope
  5. Both a and c

 

 

Page number: 157

 

 

  1. The major advantages of the SEM image include all of the following except:
  2. High magnification.
  3. High reproducibility.
  4. High resolution.
  5. Great depth of focus.

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. Components of a compound microscope include all of the following except:
  2. Expander.
  3. Stage.
  4. Coarse adjustment.
  5. Condenser.

 

 

Page number: 151-152

 

 

  1. An objective lens with a numerical aperture of 1.50 can separate details at half the distance of a lens with a numerical aperture of:
  2. 0.65.
  3. 3.00.
  4. 30.00.
  5. 0.75.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. An object with the letter “L” is viewed under low power of a compound microscope. The image would appear as:

a.

 

b.

 

c.

 

d.

 

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the:
  2. Eyepiece lens.
  3. Objective lens.
  4. Objective lens multiplied by two.
  5. Objective lens multiplied by the eyepiece lens.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. The microscope examination of a bullet requires:
  2. Transmitted light.
  3. Reflected light.
  4. Condensed light.
  5. All of the above.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. Which of these is not part of the optical system of a compound microscope?
  2. Abbé condenser
  3. Objective lens
  4. Eyepiece lens
  5. The body tube

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. If the polarizer and analyzer of a polarizing microscope are placed parallel to each other, no light will penetrate.
  3. Light confined to a single plane of vibration is said to be polarized.
  4. Many crystals are birefringent.
  5. The lens nearest the specimen is called the objective lens.

 

 

Page number: 156

 

 

  1. The most important tool of the firearms examiner is the:
  2. Compound microscope.
  3. Comparison microscope.
  4. Stereoscopic microscope.
  5. Polarizing microscope.

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. Which of the following is false?
  2. The scanning electron microscope (SEM) produces an image by aiming a beam of electrons onto a specimen.
  3. The major attraction of the SEM is its high magnification and depth of field.
  4. The SEM produces an image that is stereoscopic in appearance.
  5. Microwaves are generated when the electron beam of the SEM strikes a target.

 

 

Page number: 159

 

 

  1. Palynology is the study of:
  2. Fish.
  3. Insects.
  4. Birds.
  5. Spores.

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. Which type of pollen is rarely deposited on objects except by direct contact with the plant?
  2. Anemophilous
  3. Exine
  4. Entomophilous
  5. Gameotphyte

 

 

Page number: 163

 

 

  1. The pattern of the pollen grain surface is called:
  2. Sculpturing.
  3. Apertures.
  4. Exine.
  5. Pollen rain.

 

 

Page number: 163

 

 

 

Chapter 7 True-False

 

  1. The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the objective lens multipled by two.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 150

 

 

  1. The microscopic examination of a bullet requires reflected light.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 153-154

 

 

  1. The body tube is part of the optical system of a compound microscope.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. If the polarizer and analyzer of a polarizing microscope are placed parallel to each other, no light will penetrate.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 156

 

 

  1. The scanning electron microscope produces an image by aiming a beam of electrons onto a specimen.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 158-159

 

 

  1. A virtual image can be seen directly with the naked eye.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 150

 

 

  1. A compound microscope produces greater magnification because it uses two lenses to enlarge the object being viewed instead of just one.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. A forensic scientist would use vertical illumination when studying opaque specimens.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. As magnifying power increases, the microscope’s field of view also increases.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. As magnifying power increases, the microscope’s depth of focus decreases.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 153

 

 

  1. The stereoscopic microscope has a narrow field of view.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. An IR spectrum is unique for every chemical substance.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 158

 

 

  1. The SEM produces an image that is stereoscopic in appearance.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 160

 

 

  1. Many crystals are birefringent.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 157

 

 

  1. The lens nearest the specimen is called the ocular lens.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 150

 

 

  1. Transmitted illumination can be used only with specimens that are transparent.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 151

 

 

  1. Bullets fired through the same barrel display comparable markings, called striations, caused by the rifling of the barrel.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. The stereoscopic microscope forms an inverted and reversed image.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 155

Level: Intemediate

 

  1. The stereoscopic microscope is the most frequently used microsope in the crime laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 155

 

 

  1. The infrared microspectrophotometer is used to analyze fibers and paints.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 158

 

 

  1. Pollen and spores can be used to provide links between a crime scene and a person or object.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 163

 

 

  1. The pollen of entomophilous plants is dispersed by wind.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 163

 

 

  1. It is not possible to identify a geographical origin by the type and percentages of airborne pollen grains.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 163

 

 

 

Chapter 7 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the objective lens _____ by the eyepiece lens.

 

 

 

  1. The most important tool of the firearms examiner is the _____ microscope.

 

 

 

  1. The major attraction of the _____ is its high magnification and depth of field.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ image is an image formed when light rays converge on a surface.

 

 

 

  1. _____ illumination is illumination of a specimen from above.

 

 

 

  1. _____ aperature measures the ability of an objective lens to resolve details into separate images instead of one blurred image.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ microscope presents a three-dimensional image of an object.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ allows the forensic scientist to view a particle under a microscope while at the same time obtaining its absorption spectrum.

 

 

  1. A _____ uses a stream of electrons to create an image of the specimen being studied.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ lens magnifies the real, enlarged image created by the objective lens, producing a greatly enlarged virtual image of the object.

 

 

 

  1. With opaque specimens, the light source must be placed _____ the specimen and reflected off the specimen’s surface and into the lens.

 

 

 

  1. A _____ microscope is used to make side-by-side comparisons of specimens.

 

 

 

  1. If the _____ on two bullets viewed through a comparison microscope are alike, the examiner can conclude that both bullets traveled through the same barrel.

 

 

 

  1. Light confined to a single plane of vibration is said to be _____.

 

 

 

  1. Pollen grains are the single-celled male _____ of seed-bearing plants.

 

 

 

  1. Unique shapes, aperture type, and surface _____ are typically used to identify spore samples.

 

 

  1. The pollen expert’s first task is to calculate the pollen _____ for the crime scene.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Magnification a. Size of the specimen area being observed
2. Working distance b. Used to examine birefringent materials
3. Polarizing microscope c. Illumination of a specimen from above
4. Depth of focus d. Presents a distinctive three-dimensional image
5. Field of view e. The thickness of a specimen in focus
6. Real image f. The lower lens of a microscope positioned directly over the specimen
7. Stereoscopic microscope g. Eyepiece multiplied by objective lens
8. Transmitted illumination h. Provides a simultaneous view of two specimens
9. Vertical illumination i. The image seen through a compound microscope
10. Comparison microscope j. Image formed by the actual convergence of light rays on a screen
11. Objective lens k. Space between the specimen and objective lens
12. Virtual image l. Illumination required to view a transparent object

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7 Essay

 

  1. Briefly describe how a comparison microscope works and what it is used for.

 

 

 

  1. What happens to a light beam that passes through a polarizing crystal? What happens when plane-polarized light passes through a second polarizing crystal set perpendicular to the first crystal?

 

 

  1. How can a scanning electron microscope be used to identify the elements present in a specimen?

 

 

 

 

Chapter 7 Critical Thinking

 

1.Indicate what type of microscope should be used to analyze each of the following items of evidence:

  1. fired bullets
  2. a synthetic fiber
  3. soil minerals
  4. paint chips
  5. a shed head hair

 

 

 

  1. Describe the best process to analyze and attempt to identify the chemical components of fiber and paint evidence?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 8

 

Firearms, Tool Marks, and Other Impressions

 

Chapter 8 Multiple Choice:

 

  1. The barrel of a shotgun:
  2. Is indistinguishable from that of a rifle.
  3. Is smooth without the grooves and lands found in rifles.
  4. Is generally shorter than that of a rifle.
  5. Is wider at the end to concentrate shot.

 

 

Page number: 169

 

 

  1. The reason grooves are rifled into the bore of a gun is so that a:
  2. Bullet will be made to spin and have a true and accurate course on leaving the barrel.
  3. Bullet moving through will have unique striations.
  4. Manufacturer can put its unique mark on its product.
  5. Bullet will be reduced in size before it exits the gun.

 

 

Page number: 170

 

 

  1. The comparison of two bullets is possible with the comparison microscope. Such a study is made difficult by the fact that:
  2. Lands and grooves are subject to wear and tear and hence striations markings are susceptible to continuing change.
  3. Often evidence bullets are distorted on impact and only small areas are found with intact markings.
  4. The presence of grit and rust can to some degree alter the markings on bullets fired through the same barrel.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 172

 

 

  1. Generally, the gauge of a shotgun is _____ to the diameter of its barrel.
  2. Directly related
  3. Not related
  4. Indirectly related
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 175

 

 

  1. Distinctive markings of shells and cartridges can be made by the:
  2. Extractor and ejector mechanism.
  3. Firing pin.
  4. Breech face mark.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 176

 

 

  1. NIBIN is/are:
  2. Trade groups of firearms manufacturers.
  3. Safety education courses for firearm use.
  4. A database for firearm evidence.
  5. Lists of licensed gun dealers.

 

 

Page number:178

 

 

  1. Generally speaking, the amount of gun powder particles found around a bullet hole is _____ to the distance from which the weapon was fired.
  2. Indirectly related
  3. Not related
  4. Directly related
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 180

 

 

  1. Gun powder residue patterns can be detected by:
  2. The Greiss Test.
  3. IR photograph.
  4. Both a and b
  5. Neither a nor b

 

 

Page number: 182

 

 

  1. Chokes are sometimes found on shotguns where they function to constrict the end of the barrel. The speed and distance traveled by pellets fired from a narrow choke is _____ the speed and distance traveled by pellets fired from a shotgun with a wide choke.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 182

 

 

  1. The “dermal nitrate test” has fallen into disfavor because of its lack of specificity. Which of the following common materials does NOT give a misleading positive reaction to this test?
  2. Tobacco
  3. Chocolate
  4. Urine
  5. Cosmetics

 

 

Page number: 183

 

 

  1. The likelihood of detecting GSR on swabs taken from living subjects more than six hours after a firing has occurred is _____ the likelihood of detecting GSR within two hours of a firing.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 184-185

 

 

  1. Which technique of detecting GSR holds the most promise for the immediate future?
  2. Infrared spectroscopy
  3. SEM primer residue detection
  4. Neutron activation analysis
  5. Dermal nitrate test

 

 

Page number: 185

 

 

  1. When an etching agent is applied to a metal surface in order to restore a removed serial number the stamped area will dissolve at _____ as the unstamped area.
  2. A greater rate
  3. The same rate
  4. A slower rate
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 199

 

 

  1. To prevent the disturbance of latent fingerprints on a firearm, the weapon should be lifted by:
  2. Inserting a pencil into the barrel
  3. Using disposable forceps
  4. The outside of the barrel or the trigger
  5. The edge of the trigger guard or by the checkered portion of the grip

 

 

Page number: 187

 

 

  1. When a gun is recovered from an underwater location, it should be:
  2. Transported to the crime lab in a container with enough of the same water necessary to keep it submerged.
  3. Placed in an air-tight plastic bag.
  4. Cleaned and dried.
  5. Submitted to the crime lab in a paper bag.

 

 

Page number: 188

 

 

  1. Discharged evidence bullets must be carefully handled to avoid damage to the:
  2. Manufacturer’s imprint.
  3. Caliber markings.
  4. Striation markings.
  5. Ejection pattern.

 

 

Page number: 187

 

 

  1. Tools and tool marks are often found at burglary scenes and can be useful evidence. Proper evidence collection by the field investigator would include:
  2. Reporting whether a tool found at the crime scene fit into the tool marks.
  3. Making test marks with the suspected tool onto a soft metal surface at the crime scene.
  4. Taking a photograph and cast of the marks if necessary.
  5. Packing of tool and tool mark evidence together so that the crime lab personnel know they are thought to be a matched set.

 

 

Page number: 188

 

 

  1. Two-dimensional imprints found at a crime scene can be lifted using:
  2. Photographic paper.
  3. A silicone casting medium.
  4. A scanning electron lifter.
  5. An electrostatic lifting device.

 

 

Page number: 192

 

 

  1. Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft Earth can be best preserved by:
  2. Photographing and casting with dental stone.
  3. Photographing and then use of the electrostatic lifting technique.
  4. Casting with dental stone and then attempting the electrostatic lift technique.
  5. Both a and b

 

 

Page number: 193

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a class characteristic of a suspect’s sneaker?
  2. Wear marks
  3. Brand
  4. Color
  5. Size

 

 

Page number: 195

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not expected to show any evidential marks or impressions?
  2. A fired bullet
  3. A cartridge casing fired from a handgun
  4. A cartridge casing fired from a shotgun
  5. A shotgun pellet

 

 

Page number: 175

 

 

  1. Which of the following procedures is not to be followed in collecting and packaging firearms evidence at the crime scene?
  2. Marking a fired bullet on its base for identification
  3. Avoiding inserting a stick or pencil into the barrel of a weapon
  4. Marking an empty cartridge case on its base for identification
  5. Unloading a weapon before shipping it to the crime laboratory

 

 

Page number: 188

 

 

  1. Two elements detected on the hands of an individual who has recently fired a weapon are:
  2. Zinc and copper
  3. Antimony and barium
  4. Barium and nitrates
  5. Antimony and iron

 

 

Page number: 183

 

 

  1. Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered by the examining tool mark technician?
  2. The direction of the tool movement as it passes over the surface
  3. The side or portion of the tool making the impression
  4. The brand name of the tool
  5. The angle at which the tool was held

 

 

Page number: 188-189

 

 

  1. Which of the following results is not possible from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence?
  2. Determining that two or more cartridge cases were fired from the same weapon
  3. Determining how far from the victim the weapon was held
  4. Restoring serial numbers ground off the gun
  5. Identifying a bullet as having been combined with a particular shell prior to being discharged

 

 

Page number: 198

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
  2. A bullet can be individualized to a weapon by the number and twist of its lands and grooves.
  3. The comparison microscope is an indispensable tool of the firearm examiner.
  4. The diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm is its gauge.
  5. Carbonaceous smoke or soot deposited around a bullet hole is normally indicative of a discharge 12 to 18 feet or less from the target.

 

 

Page number: 173

 

 

  1. The presence of gunpowder residues on a garment whose color conceals the existence of the residue is best revealed by:
  2. Infrared photography.
  3. Ultraviolet photography.
  4. Color photography.
  5. Infrared spectrophotometry.

 

 

Page number: 182

 

 

  1. Which of the following rifling methods is no longer in use?
  2. The button method
  3. The hook cutter method
  4. The mandrel method
  5. The broach cutter method

 

 

Page number: 171

 

 

  1. Which of the following makes the final determination about whether or not two bullets were fired by the same gun?
  2. IBIS
  3. A comparison microscope
  4. NIBIN
  5. A trained firearms examiner

 

 

Page number: 180

 

 

  1. The automated shoe print identification system is known as:
  2. SICAR
  3. NIBIN
  4. ATF
  5. IBIS

 

 

Page number: 195

 

 

  1. Dust imprints found at a crime scene can be lifted using:
  2. Photographic paper.
  3. A silicone casting medium.
  4. A scanning electron lifter.
  5. An electrostatic lifting device.

 

 

Page number: 192

 

 

  1. A technique applicable for determining whether or not an individual has ­recently fired a weapon is:
  2. Neutron activation analysis.
  3. Atomic absorption analysis.
  4. The scanning electron microscope.
  5. All of the above

 

 

Page number: 185

 

 

  1. Objects bearing tool marks should either be submitted intact to the crime lab or a _____ should be taken of the tool mark.
  2. Digital photograph
  3. Film photograph
  4. Black and white photograph
  5. Cast

 

 

Page number: 189-191

 

 

  1. A wear pattern, cut, gouge, or other damage pattern can impart _____ characteristics to a shoe.
  2. Class
  3. Wear
  4. Individual
  5. Generic

 

 

Page number: 195

 

 

  1. An imprint may be lifted from a surface at a crime scene using:
  2. Plaster of paris.
  3. Luminol.
  4. Imido black dye.
  5. An electrostatic lifting device.

 

 

Page number: 192

 

 

  1. The distribution of gunpowder particles and other discharge residues around a bullet hole permits:
  2. Determination of the distance from which the gun was fired.
  3. Determination of the kind of firearm used.
  4. Estimation of the angle of bullet impact.
  5. Estimation of the height of the shooter.

 

 

Page number: 180

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 8 True-False

 

  1. Caliber is a measure of the diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm.</P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 170

 

 

  1. The hook cutter rifling method is still used today.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 171

 

 

  1. The number of lands and grooves and the width and direction of twist are individual characteristics of a rifled barrel.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 172

 

 

  1. Unlike handguns, a shotgun is not rifled.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 169

 

 

  1. Shotgun shells are not impressed with any characteristic markings that can be used to compare two shotgun shells to determine if they were fired from the same weapon.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 175

 

 

  1. The parts of a firearm that leave impressions on a cartridge case that constitute class characteristics of that weapon are the firing pin, the breech face mark, the ejector, and the extractor.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 176

Level: Intemediate

 

  1. NIBIN is the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network, a unified firearms search system that incorporates both DRUGFIRE and IBIS technologies.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 178

 

 

  1. NIBIN makes the final determination about whether or not two bullets were fired by the same gun.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number:180

 

 

  1. A distance determination can be estimated by measuring the spread of the discharged shot.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 180

 

 

  1. As the distance to the target of a shotgun blast decreases, the pellets separate and spread out.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 182

 

 

  1. Shortly after a weapon is fired, residues are most likely to be deposited on the thumb web and the back of the firing hand of a shooter.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 184

</P></Q>

 

  1. The SEM approach for primer residue detection is its enhanced specificity over hand swabbing.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 185

 

 

  1. If the zone of strain has been removed, or if the area has been impressed with a different strain pattern, the serial number usually can be restored.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 186

 

 

  1. It is acceptable to pick up a firearm by inserting an object into its barrel.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 187

 

 

  1. A weapon recovered from underwater should be transported to the laboratory in a receptacle containing enough of the same water in which it was found to keep it submerged.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 188

 

 

  1. When removal of the original tool mark is impractical, the criminalist photographs the marked area to scale and makes a cast of the mark.</P></Q></P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 189

 

 

  1. Two procedures used to preserve impressions that can be submitted to the laboratory are lifting and casting.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 193

 

 

  1. Distance determination is usually based on the distribution of powder patterns or the spread of a shot pattern.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 180

 

 

  1. A compound microscope permits the user to view two separate specimens side-by-side.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 173

 

 

  1. Blood enhancement chemicals have been found to negatively impact STR DNA typing and therefore footwear impressions made with blood are not typically analyzed.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

 

 

Chapter 8 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ refers to the spiral grooves impressed in the bore of a firearm barrel.

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. _____ are the cut or low-lying portions between the lands in a rifled bore.

 

 

 

  1. _____ are markings impressed into the metal of a barrel.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ microscope is the firearms examiner’s most important tool because it allows two bullets to be observed and compared simultaneously.

 

 

 

  1. The higher a shotgun’s gauge, the _____ the diameter of its barrel.

 

 

 

  1. DRUGFIRE was developed by the _____.

 

 

  1. Bullet wipe consists of a mixture of carbon, dirt, lubricant, primer residue, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. Barrel length, caliber, type of ammunition, the type of weapon fired, and the condition of the weapon are all factors that influence the amount of _____ residue deposited on a target.

 

</P></Q>

  1. The _____ the choke, the narrower the spread pattern of the pellets and the faster and farther the pellets will travel.

 

 

 

  1. The Greiss test is used to determine the presence of _____.

 

 

</P></Q>

  1. Discernible random nicks and breaks that the tool has acquired through wear and use typically impart _____ characteristics to tool marks.

 

 

 

  1. Before any impression is moved or otherwise handled, it must be _____ to show all the observable details of the impression.

 

 

  1. Two procedures used to preserve impressions that cannot be submitted to the laboratory are lifting and _____.

 

 

 

  1. Distance determination is the process of determining the distance between the _____ and a target.

 

 

 

  1. Protection of class and individual markings on _____ and cartridge cases is the primary concern of the field investigator when recovering bullets and cartridge casings.

 

</P></Q>

</P></Q>

 

Chapter 8 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Bore a. The mechanism in a firearm that throws the cartridge or fired case from the firearm
2. Breech face mark b. The cut or low-lying portions between the lands in a rifled bore
3. Caliber c. A chemical test used to develop patterns of gunpowder residues around bullet holes
4. Choke d. Size designation of a shotgun, originally the number of lead balls with the same diameter as the barrel that would make a pound. The only exception is the .410 shotgun, in which bore size is 0.41 inch.
5. Distance Determination e. The mechanism in a firearm by which a cartridge or fired case is withdrawn from the chamber
6. Ejector f. The diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm, usually expressed in hundredths of an inch or millimeters
7. Extractor g. The process of determining the distance between the firearm and a target, usually based on the distribution of powder patterns or the spread of a shot pattern
8. Firearms Identification h. The spiral grooves formed in the bore of a firearm barrel that impart spin to the projectile when it is fired
9. Gauge i. A discipline mainly concerned with determining whether a bullet or cartridge was fired by a particular weapon
10. Greiss Test j. An interior constriction placed at or near the muzzle end of a shotgun’s barrel to control shot dispersion
11. Grooves k. The interior of a firearm barrel
12. Lands l. The raised portion between the grooves in a rifled bore
13. Rifling m. The rear part of a firearm barrel

 

 

 

 

Chapter 8 Essay

 

  1. How are striations useful for comparing bullets?

 

 

 

</Name three factors that can prevent a firearms examiner from obtaining a perfect match of striation markings around the periphery of two bullets.

 

 

 

  1. </P></Q>Briefly describe the sequence of events that occur from the time the trigger of a firearm is pulled to the time the bullet is fired.

 

 

 

  1. Briefly describe how a firearms examiner makes a distance determination for a handgun or rifle shot.

 

 

 

  1. What is SICAR and how is it useful in comparing impressions?

 

 

 

Chapter 8 Critical Thinking

</P></Q>

<Q NUM=”26″><P><INST>1.   </INST>Name and briefly describe two popular approaches for collecting gunshot residue from a suspect’s hands. What is the logical next step in analysis for these collected samples.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss five factors that influence the amount of gunpowder residue deposited on a target.

 

 

 

  1. Determine for each of the impressions listed below which characteristics are class characteristics and which are individualizing characteristics.
  2. Screwdriver pry mark: 0.5 inch wide, filings of stainless steel imbedded in mark, rounded edges, center half-circle groove, 3 wide striations near one edge, 7 narrow striations near one edge
  3. Two-dimensional footwear impression: Nike brand, 11 inches long, wear pattern on back outside edge, 4 inches wide at arch, gouge at back heel, “Nike Air” imprinted on arch
  4. Recovered bullet: .22 caliber, deep striation in one land, left-handed twist, 13 fine striations in one groove, 5 grooves around periphery, 79% lead composition

 

 

  1. </inst><question><para>From each of the following descriptions of bullet holes, estimate the distance from the shooter to the target.

<answer label=”a”><para>a.         A few widely scattered gunpowder particles with no soot around the entrance hole</para></answer>

<answer label=”b”><para>b.         A dark ring around the bullet hole, but no soot or gunpowder particles</para></answer>

<answer label=”c”><para>c.         A halo of soot surrounding the entrance hole along with scattered specks of powder grains</para></answer>

<answer label=”d”><para>d.         Scorch marks and melted fibers surrounding the entrance hole</para></answer></answerset></question></general-problem>

<answerset><answer label=”1″><orderedlist numeration=”loweralpha” inheritnum=”ignore” continuation=”restarts”><listitem><para>

————————-

 

 

Chapter 9

 

Matter, Light, and Glass Examination

 

Chapter 9 Multiple Choice

 

  1. The basic metric unit for volume is the:
  2. Centimeter.
  3. Liter.
  4. Milliliter.
  5. Gram.

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. The weight 264.45 grams can be correctly expressed as:
  2. 26,445 decigrams.
  3. 0.26445 kilograms.
  4. 26.445 centigrams.
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 208

 

 

  1. One milliliter of a liquid is _____ 1cc of the same liquid.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. Eight inches is approximately _____ centimeters.
  2. 17
  3. 10
  4. 8
  5. 20

 

 

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. The heat intensity (hotness) of water at 100°C is _____ the heat intensity of water at 212°F.
  2. Greater than
  3. The same as
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 210

 

 

  1. The use of the Celsius temperature scale by scientists is _____ their use of the Fahrenheit temperature scale.
  2. Greater than
  3. The same as
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 210

 

 

7.. Which of the following is an element?

  1. Wood
  2. Water
  3. Aluminum
  4. Air

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

8.. The physical state that has both shape and volume is a:

  1. Solid.
  2. Liquid.
  3. Gas.
  4. Vapor.

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

9.. Which of the following is false?

  1. The basic building blocks of all substances are elements.
  2. Elements are composed of atoms.
  3. Two or more elements combine to form compounds.
  4. At present, 96 compounds have been identified.

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

 

  1. The freezing point of water in Fahrenheit is _____ the freezing point of water.
  2. Less than
  3. The same as
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 210

 

 

  1. The effect of gravity on the weight of an object is ________ the effect of gravity on the mass of the same object.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 210

 

 

  1. The periodic table is a:
  2. Forensic text table of contents.
  3. Forensic newsletter issued periodically.
  4. Special laboratory surface for multiphase experiments.
  5. Chart listing all the known elements by name and symbol.

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

  1. Sublimation is defined as a change of state from:
  2. Gas to liquid.
  3. Liquid to solid.
  4. Solid to liquid.
  5. Solid to gas.

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. Which physical state has volume but no specific shape?
  2. Gas
  3. Liquid
  4. Solid
  5. No such state exists

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. The attraction between the molecules of a gas is _____ the attraction between the molecules of a liquid.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. Unrelated to

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. The density of liquids is ________ the density of gases.
  2. Less than
  3. The same as
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

.

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. If an object is immersed in a liquid of greater density, it will:
  2. Be suspended in the liquid
  3. Float
  4. Sink
  5. Be suspended for a known period of time before sinking

 

.

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. The density of water at 60°F is _____ the density of water at 28°F.
  2. Less than
  3. Greater than
  4. The same as
  5. None of the above

 

.

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. Which is NOT an intensive property of matter?
  2. Density
  3. Refractive index
  4. Weight
  5. Temperature

 

 

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. The refractive index of a substance varies with:
  2. Its temperature.
  3. The wavelength of the light passing through it.
  4. The color of the light passing through it.
  5. All of the above

 

.

Page number: 212

 

 

  1. Crystalline solids, with the exception of _____ crystals, exhibit _____, or the property of refracting a beam of light into two different ray components.
  2. Amorphous, refraction
  3. Calcite, refractive index
  4. Glass, optical properties
  5. Cubic, double refraction

 

 

Page number: 213

 

 

  1. The process of a glass prism separating sunlight into component colors is called:
  2. Refraction
  3. Birefringence
  4. Sublimation
  5. Dispersion

 

 

Page number: 214

 

 

  1. What is the main ingredient in ordinary glass?
  2. Lime (CaO)
  3. Soda (NaCO)
  4. Sand
  5. Metal oxides

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Pyrex glass:
  2. Is put through an annealing process.
  3. Has been tempered.
  4. Is made with the addition of boron oxide.
  5. Is laminated.

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Tempered glass is used in:
  2. Windshields in autos manufactured in the United States.
  3. Crystal stemware.
  4. The side and rear windows of autos manufactured in the United States.
  5. Both b and c

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Flotation is a method used by scientists to determine the _____ of a particle of glass.
  2. Density
  3. Refractive index
  4. Mass
  5. Weight

 

.

Page number: 218

 

 

  1. A hot-stage microscope or the GRIM 3 is used to determine the _____ of glass fragments.
  2. Refractive index
  3. Relative density
  4. Metallic oxide content
  5. Temperature

 

.

Page number: 221

 

 

  1. The change in refractive index for tempered glass upon annealing is _____ when compared to nontempered glass.
  2. Greater
  3. The same as
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

.

Page number: 220

 

 

  1. When a bullet penetrates a panel of glass, it leaves a crater-shaped hole that:
  2. Is wider on the exit side.
  3. Is wider on the entrance side.
  4. Forms randomly and hence the direction of impact cannot be determined by its appearance.
  5. a or c

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. Which is a true statement about the fracturing of glass?
  2. Radial cracks appear first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force.
  3. Radial cracks form afterward, starting on the same side as the destructive force.
  4. Concentric fractures form first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force.
  5. Concentric fractures form first, on the same side as the destructive force.

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. A piece of glass is immersed in a liquid. It proceeds to float on the liquid’s surface. This shows that the density of the glass is _____ the density of the liquid.
  2. More than
  3. Less than
  4. Equal to
  5. Not comparable

 

.

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. The two most important physical properties of glass for forensic comparisons are:
  2. Color and density
  3. Weight and density
  4. Refractive index and density
  5. Refractive index and weight

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. The fracture pattern of glass usually has:
  2. Radial lines.
  3. Concentric lines.
  4. Radial and concentric lines.
  5. Directional lines.

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. If glass cannot be physically pieced together then the control and question glass are best compared as to their:
  2. Color and density.
  3. Weight and density.
  4. Refractive index and density.
  5. Refractive index and weight.

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are:
  2. Perpendicular to the side on which the force was applied.
  3. Parallel to the side on which the force was applied.
  4. Parallel to the side opposite the side on which the force was applied.
  5. Perpendicular to the side of the glass facing outdoors.

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. The smallest particle of an element that can exist and still retain its identity as that element is the:
  2. Compound.
  3. Element.
  4. Photon.
  5. Atom.

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

  1. _____ is the visual effect caused by an object’s absorption of certain portions of the visible light spectrum and transmission or reflection of others.
  2. Dispersion
  3. Color
  4. Density
  5. Refractive Index

 

 

Page number: 214

 

 

  1. To explain the events that occur after radiation is absorbed by a substance, light must be characterized as:
  2. A wave of constant frequency.
  3. A wave of variable frequency.
  4. A wave consisting of non-discrete particles.
  5. A stream of discrete particles.

 

 

Page number: 214

 

 

  1. The refractive index of a medium is determined by the ratio of:
  2. Velocity of light in a vacuum to velocity of light in a medium.
  3. Density of light in the medium to density of light in a vacuum.
  4. Frequency of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium.
  5. Velocity of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium.

 

.

Page number: 213

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ property describes the behavior of a substance without reference to any other substance while a(n) _____ property describes the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance.
  2. Optical; birefringent
  3. Physical; biological
  4. Chemical; biological
  5. Physical; chemical

 

 

Page number: 226

 

 

A                                             B

 

  1. In reference to the diagram above, what is the correct sequence of impacts?
  2. a first
  3. b first
  4. a and b simultaneously
  5. Sequence impossible to determine

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. Which color of the visible spectrum has the highest frequency and the shortest wavelength?
  2. Red
  3. Green
  4. Violet
  5. Yellow

 

 

Page number: 214

 

 

  1. The photons of which source have the LEAST amount of energy?
  2. Microwaves
  3. Gamma rays
  4. Infrared rays
  5. Radio waves

 

 

Page number: 216

 

 

  1. Which of the following has higher frequencies and higher energy values in the electromagnetic spectrum?
  2. Visible light
  3. Radio waves
  4. Ultraviolet radiation
  5. X-rays

 

Page number: 216

 

 

 

 

Chapter 9 True-False

 

  1. The basic metric unit of volume is the ounce.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. The boiling point of a substance is a physical property.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 210

 

 

  1. The two most important physical properties of glass for forensic comparisons are refractive index and density.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. The larger opening of crater-shaped hole in glass made by the penetration of a projectile indicates the entrance side of the glass.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

  1. Refractive index measures the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in air.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 213

 

 

  1. A physical property is the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

  1. The English system is used in the United States.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 208

 

 

  1. The Fahrenheit scale uses a melting point of 32 degrees and a boiling point of 212 degrees.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. Weight is a constant property of matter that reflects the amount of material present.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 210-211

 

 

  1. The weight of an object can vary from one location to another while mass remains the same regardless of location.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 210-211

 

 

  1. The atoms in a crystalline solid have a regular arrangement while the atoms in an amorphous solid have no regular order.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 213

 

 

  1. Each color component of light refracts at a different angle as it emerges from a prism.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 214

 

 

  1. Examples of intensive properties include density and refractive index.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 209

 

 

  1. Most glass fragments can by physically reassembled or fitted together by the criminalist.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. The general chemical composition of various window glasses has so far been found to be relatively uniform among various manufacturers and therefore offers no basis for identifying individual samples.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. The 3R rules states that Radial cracks form a Right angle on the Reverse side of the force.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 223

 

 

 

  1. It is frequently possible to determine the sequence of impacts in glass by observing the existing fracture lines and their points of termination.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 224

 

 

  1. When tempered glass breaks, it does not shatter.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Tempered glass is used in the windshields of U.S.-built cars.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. The only way to individualize glass fragments at a crime scene to a single source is to assemble the fragments and physically fit them together like a jigsaw puzzle.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 217

 

 

  1. Glass fragments removed from a single sheet of plate glass have a uniform density or refractive index value.
  2. True
  3. False

 

.

Page number: 218

 

 

  1. A fracture always terminates at an existing line of fracture.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 224

 

 

24 X-rays have higher frequencies and higher energy values in the electromagnetic spectrum.

  1. True
  2. False

 

 

Page number: 215-216

 

 

25 An atom is a pure substance composed of two or more elements.

  1. True
  2. False

 

 

Page number: 204

 

 

  1. A gas has neither a specific shape nor a specific volume.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. When a substance undergoes a change of state from liquid to gas, the attractive forces between the molecules increase in strength.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. Sublimation causes the attractive forces between molecules to decrease in strength.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 207

 

 

  1. The more material one has, the less radiation it will absorb.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 215

 

 

  1. Different phases are distinguished from one another by definite visible boundaries.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 215

 

 

 

Chapter 9 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. One inch is equivalent to _____ centimeters.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is defined as weight per unit volume.

 

 

 

  1. A piece of glass that is floating on the liquid’s surface shows that the density of the glass is _____ than the density of the liquid.

 

 

 

 

  1. If glass cannot be physically pieced together, then the control and question glass are best compared as to their refractive index and _____.

 

 

 

  1. The fracture pattern of glass usually has radial and _____ lines.

 

 

 

  1. Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are _____ to the side on which the force was applied.

 

 

 

  1. The basic unit of length in the metric system is the _____.

 

 

 

  1. The most convenient reference point of ice is the _____ point.

 

 

 

  1. As the temperature of a liquid or gas increases, its density _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the bending of a light wave as it passes from one medium to another.

 

 

 

  1. _____ solids have only one refractive index.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ property is a property that is not dependent on the size of an object.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ line is a bright halo observed near the border of a particle that is immersed in a liquid with a different refractive index.

 

 

 

  1. _____ index measures the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in any given substance.

 

 

 

  1. The main ingredient in ordinary glass is _____.

 

 

  1. _____ glass is used commonly in bottles and windows.

 

 

 

  1. _____ glass is glass made stronger by introducing stress through rapid heating and cooling of the glass surfaces.

 

 

 

  1. _____ glass is created by sandwiching one layer of plastic between two pieces of ordinary window glass.

 

 

 

  1. _____ consists of slowly heating and then cooling a piece of glass.

 

 

 

  1. <ITAL>R</ITAL>adial cracks form a <ITAL>R</ITAL>ight angle on the <ITAL>R</ITAL>everse side of the force is known as the _____ rule.

 

 

 

21 The smallest unit of a(n) _____ is an atom.

 

 

 

22 _____ is a physical change from the solid state directly into the gaseous state.

 

 

 

23 The color of an opaque object is determined by which component color(s) of light it _____.

 

 

 

  1. The three states of matter are solid, liquid, and _____.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 9 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Physical property a. A physical property of matter that is equivalent to the mass per unit volume of a substance
2. Chemical property b. A property that is not dependent on the size of the object
3. Weight c. A crack in a glass that forms a rough circle around the point of impact
4. Mass d. A property of matter that depends on both the mass of a substance and the effects of gravity on the mass
5. Density e. Glass that is strengthened by introducing stress through rapid heating and cooling of the glass surfaces
6. Intensive property f. A constant property of matter that reflects the amount of material present
7. Refraction g. A difference in the two indices of a refraction exhibited by most crystalline materials
8. Birefringence h. The behavior of a substance without alteration of the substance’s composition through a chemical reaction
9. Dispersion i. A bright halo that is observed near the border of a particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index
10. Tempered glass j. The bending of a light wave as it passes from one medium to another
11. Laminated glass k. Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded together with a plastic film
12. Radial fracture l. The behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance
13. Concentric fracture m. A crack in a glass that extends outward like the spoke of a wheel from the point at which the glass was struck
14. Becke line n. The separation of light into its component wavelengths

 

 

 

 

Chapter 9 Essay

 

  1. A storefront window is broken and a robbery committed. A suspect is later found running from the scene. Examination of his shoes reveals glass particles embedded in a heel. Describe the proper collection and preservation of glass evidence for laboratory examination.

 

 

 

  1. Describe the process of floatation and explain what it is used for.

 

 

 

  1. What physical properties are used most often to characterize glass particles? What is the main drawback of using these properties to characterize glass?

 

 

 

  1. What two models do scientists use to explain the nature of light? Under what conditions does each model best describe the behavior of light?

 

</P></Q>

 

 

Chapter 9 Critical Thinking

 

  1. At the scene of a vehicle vandalism, fragments of soda-lime glass, tempered glass, and laminated glass are found inside the vehicle. From where could these types of glass originated?

 

 

 

 

  1. Using the floation method, three pieces of soda-lime glass are placed in three separate cylinders containing a solution with a density of 1.67 g/mL. Glass fragment (a) floats, glass fragment (b) is suspended in the middle of the solution, and glass fragment (c) sinks. What can the criminalist deduce from these results?

 

 

 

 

  1. A criminalist is attempting to find the side of a glass pane from which a shattering force originated. How can that be determined when examining a fragment from a radial crack? A concentric crack?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 10

 

Hairs and Fibers

 

Chapter 10 Multiple Choice

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a layer of the hair shaft?
  2. Cuticle
  3. Cortex
  4. Medulla
  5. Follicle

 

 

Page number: 232

 

 

  1. Which part of the hair shaft is most resistant to chemical decomposition?
  2. Cortex
  3. Medulla
  4. Follicle
  5. Cuticle

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Which feature of hair is MOST important in making a species identification?
  2. Follicle shape
  3. Scale pattern
  4. Bulb size
  5. Shaft length

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The number of hair scales pointing towards the tip of the hair is _____ the number of hair scales pointing towards the hair follicle.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. A cast of a hair surface can be made using:
  2. An SEM.
  3. Clear nail polish.
  4. Softened vinyl.
  5. Both B and C

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Pigment granules that impart hair with color are found in the:
  2. Cortex.
  3. Medulla.
  4. Cuticle.
  5. Both A and B

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The central canal running through many hairs is known as the:
  2. Shaft.
  3. Medulla.
  4. Cuticle.
  5. Cortex.

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The medullary index of human hair is _____ the medullary index for most other animals.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Medullae may be classified as being:
  2. Interrupted or absent.
  3. Fragmented.
  4. Continuous.
  5. All of the above.

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 234

 

 

  1. Which race is most likely to have head hair with continuous medullae?
  2. Negroid
  3. Caucasian
  4. Mongoloid
  5. Native American

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 234

 

 

  1. Beard hairs are coarse and normally _____ in cross-section.
  2. Ribbon-like
  3. Oval
  4. Triangular
  5. Round

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 238

 

 

  1. A human hair in cross-section appeared flat in shape. The racial origin was most likely:
  2. Caucasian.
  3. Negroid.
  4. Indian.
  5. Mongoloid.

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 238

 

 

  1. In determining whether a hair sample originated from a male or a female, the MOST important consideration is:
  2. Whether the hair is bleached.
  3. The results of DNA analysis performed on the root structure.
  4. Whether the hair was dyed.
  5. The length of the hair.

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. The presence of sheath cells on hair that has been pulled quickly from the head is _____ the presence of sheath cells on hairs that have been removed slowly from the scalp.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. Nuclear DNA typing can be most successfully accomplished on hairs that have been removed during which stage of growth?
  2. Telogenic
  3. Mutagenic
  4. Catagenic
  5. Anagenic

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. The conviction of Ennis Cosby’s killer was aided by the DNA analysis on a hair that was crucial evidence in the case. This hair:
  2. Belonged to Cosby and was found in the suspect’s car.
  3. Belonged to the killer and was found in his cap with which he had wrapped the murder weapon before discarding it.
  4. Belonged to Cosby and was found clinging to the murderer’s jacket.
  5. Belonged to the killer and was found on the body of the victim.

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 241

 

 

  1. Which type of crime is LEAST likely to be solved with the use of fiber evidence?
  2. Breaking and entering
  3. Sexual assault
  4. Bombing
  5. Hit-and-run

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 241

 

 

  1. Mohair and cashmere are hairs from:
  2. A goat.
  3. A llama.
  4. A sheep.
  5. A camel.

 

 

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. By far the most prevalent plant fiber is:
  2. Linen.
  3. Silk.
  4. Kapok.
  5. Cotton.

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. A fiber whose microscopic appearance includes being ribbon-like in shape (flat) with twists at irregular intervals is:
  2. Polyester.
  3. Cotton.
  4. Kapok.
  5. Linen.

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. Which was the first man-made fiber?
  2. Nylon
  3. Polyester
  4. Acetate
  5. Rayon

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a synthetic fiber?
  2. Rayon
  3. Polyester
  4. Acrylic
  5. All of the above are synthetic

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 246

 

 

  1. Which is made of natural polymers?
  2. Plastic
  3. Nylon
  4. Starch
  5. Paint

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 245

 

 

  1. In the collection of fiber evidence, great care should be taken to:
  2. Avoid cross-contamination of evidence.
  3. Shake off all garments to be sent for examination before neatly folding them.
  4. Send as much potential evidence as possible to the crime lab to ensure that nothing is missed.
  5. Package all items from each individual together in one bag to avoid later confusion.

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of fiber evidence.

Page number: 252

 

 

  1. If a hair does not have a follicular tag, an expert witness is on best scientific footing when stating that:
  2. The hair in question comes from a 21-year-old.
  3. His examination reveals that the hair is that of a male.
  4. The given hair comes from a specific person.
  5. A suspect hair comes from a particular animal species.

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 237

 

 

  1. Which step in the examination of fibers would logically be taken first?
  2. Examination of dye composition using visible light microspectrophotometer
  3. Make a cross sectional view of the fibers
  4. Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers
  5. Infrared spectrophotometry

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 246

 

 

  1. Which would involve determining the refractive index of the fibers?
  2. Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers
  3. Infrared spectrophotometry
  4. Study of the birefringence of the fibers
  5. TLC study of dyes in fibers

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 246-247

 

 

  1. Which would produce “fingerprints” of the fibers?
  2. Examination of dye composition using visible light microspectrophotometer
  3. Make a cross sectional view of the fibers
  4. Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers
  5. Infrared spectrophotometry

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 248

 

 

  1. The rate of human hair growth per month is:
  2. 1 inch
  3. 1 mL
  4. 1 cm
  5. 1 dm

 

Objective: List the three phases of hair growth.

Page number: 237

 

 

  1. The visible light microspectrophotometer is a convenient tool with which to compare the color of fibers because:
  2. Very small samples can be compared
  3. Fibers can be studied right on a microscope slide
  4. Fibers are not destroyed
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 248

 

 

  1. Generally, the parallel refractive index of a fiber is _____ the perpendicular refractive index of the same fiber.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. none of the above

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 250

 

 

  1. It is a virtual certainty that two fabrics share a common origin if their fibers:
  2. Can be fitted together at their torn edges
  3. Have the same striations
  4. Have the same color
  5. Appear identical in cross section

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 246

 

 

  1. Before the 20th century, all fibers were:
  2. Natural.
  3. Regenerated.
  4. Synthetic.
  5. Derived.

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. A regenerated fiber can be derived from:
  2. Polyester
  3. Cellulose
  4. Rayon
  5. Acetate

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 246

 

 

  1. Which of the following properties should not be examined when comparing two synthetic fibers?
  2. Presence or absence of delustering particles
  3. Diameter
  4. Lengthwise striations
  5. Medullary index

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The monomers involved in the synthesis of proteins are:
  2. Sugars
  3. Amino acids
  4. Fatty acids
  5. Starches

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 245

 

 

  1. Cellulose is the basic component of:
  2. Sugar.
  3. Starch.
  4. Wood.
  5. Wool.

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. The portion of the hair containing its scales is:
  2. The cortex.
  3. The cuticle.
  4. The medulla.
  5. The root.

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. A human head hair is best characterized by:
  2. The absence of a cortex.
  3. Its scale pattern.
  4. A medulla that is more than 1/2 the overall diameter of the hair shaft.
  5. A medulla that is absent or is less than 1/3 the overall diameter of the hair shaft.

 

 

Page number: 234

 

 

  1. Which statement is true?
  2. The racial origin of hair can always be identified.
  3. Hair can be individualized through its trace elemental composition.
  4. Hair is routinely examined to determine sex.
  5. Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics.

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 237

 

 

  1. Rayon is classified as a:
  2. Natural fiber.
  3. Synthetic fiber.
  4. Plant fiber.
  5. Regenerated fiber.

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 246

 

 

  1. Which of the following properties should be examined when comparing two fibers?
  2. Color
  3. Diameter
  4. Birefringence
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 249

 

 

  1. The cortex of hair derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it contains:
  2. Scales.
  3. Pigments.
  4. Medullae.
  5. DNA.

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence because they bear:
  2. Catagenic roots.
  3. Telogenic roots.
  4. Follicular tissue.
  5. Mitochondria.

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. A criminalist is more likely to obtain DNA from hairs in the:
  2. Anagenic stage.
  3. Catagenic stage.
  4. Telogenic stage.
  5. Terminal stage.

 

Objective: List the three phases of hair growth.

Page number: 238-239

 

 

  1. The cortex of hair derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it contains:
  2. Scales.
  3. Pigments.
  4. Medullae.
  5. DNA.

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence because they bear:
  2. Catagenic roots
  3. Telogenic roots
  4. Follicular tissue
  5. Mitochondria

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. Hair can best be characterized as originating from an animal by examining:
  2. The medulla.
  3. The cuticle.
  4. Both the medulla and cuticle.
  5. Its color.

 

 

Page number: 233-234

 

 

  1. The layers of the hair shaft are the _____, the _____, and the _____.
  2. Cuticle; root; medulla
  3. Cortex; mitochondria; pigment
  4. Pigment; cortex; pigment
  5. Cuticle; cortex; medulla

 

 

Page number: 232

 

 

  1. The stages of hair growth include all of the following except:
  2. Anagenic.
  3. Catagenic.
  4. Telogenic.
  5. Analgesic

 

Objective: List the three phases of hair growth.

Page number: 235-236

 

 

  1. In making hair evaluations, it is best to view the hairs using a(n) _____ microscope.
  2. Scanning electron
  3. Comparison
  4. Stereoscopic
  5. Polarizing

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for the microscopic comparison of human hairs.

Page number: 253

 

 

  1. Microscopic hair comparisons must be regarded by police and courts as:
  2. Conclusive
  3. Individualizing
  4. Useless
  5. Presumptive

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for the microscopic comparison of human hairs.

Page number: 237

 

 

  1. For standard/reference hair sampling from a victim, the collection of a minimum of _____ full-length head hairs and _____ full-length pubic hairs is recommended.
  2. 50; 25
  3. 100; 100
  4. 20; 20
  5. 5; 16

 

Objective: Explain the proper collection of forensic hair evidence.

Page number: 241

 

 

  1. Synthetic fibers display _____ because they are crystalline.
  2. High density
  3. Infrared reflectance
  4. Dispersive properties
  5. Birefringence

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 249

 

 

  1. A hair sample was examined and its medulla appeared to have a pattern described as resembling a string of pearls. It was most likely from a:
  2. Rabbit.
  3. Deer.
  4. Cat.
  5. Mouse.

 

 

Page number: 234

 

 

  1. In what stage can a hair most readily be removed from the scalp?
  2. Anagenic
  3. Catagenic
  4. Telogenic
  5. Analgesic

 

Objective: List the three phases of hair growth.

Page number: 236

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following questions cannot be answered with a microscopic examination of hair?</P>

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a. </INST>Whether a hair came from a 25-year-old or an infant</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>Whether a hair is from a man or a woman</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Whether a hair is from a scalp or a beard</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. </INST>Whether the hair is consistent with Caucasian or Negroid hair

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not an exmaple of a natural polymer?
  2. Starch
  3. Cellulose
  4. Sugar
  5. Proteins

 

Objective: Understand the differences between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 245

 

 

 

Chapter 10 True-False

 

  1. Much of a hair’s resistance and stability is attributed to the cuticle.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The scale pattern of the cortex is an important feature for characterizing animal hair.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The cortex derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it gives hair its color.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Most animals have medullae that are either continuous or interrupted.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 234

 

 

  1. Members of the Negroid race usually have head hairs with continuous medullae.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 238

 

 

  1. A criminalist is most likely to collect DNA from hairs in the catagen stage.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the three phases of hair growth.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. Hair tends to exhibit variable morphological characteristics, not only from one person to another but also within a single individual.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 232

 

 

  1. A microscopic examination can tell whether a hair is from a man or a woman.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. A microscopic examination can tell whether a hair is from a scalp or a beard.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 238

 

 

  1. Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe and understand the role of DNA typing in hair comparisons.

Page number: 239

 

 

  1. It is not necessary for questioned and standard/reference hairs to come from the same area of the body.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of hair evidence.

Page number: 240

 

 

  1. The entire hair is collected because a hair may show variation in color and other morphological features over its entire length.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of hair evidence.

Page number: 241

 

 

  1. The cuticle is formed by overlapping scales that always point away from the tip end of each hair.
  2. True
  3. False

 

 

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. The scale pattern is not a useful characteristic for individualizing a human hair.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List hair features that are useful for microscopic comparisons of human hairs.

Page number: 233

 

 

  1. Finding white cotton fibers at a crime scene is nearly meaningless due to its wide use.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. Manufactured fibers have increasingly replaced natural fibers in garments and fabrics.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.

Page number: 242

 

 

  1. It is common to obtain a physical match for fibers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 246

 

 

 

  1. The criminalist typically has many fibers available for analysis.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 241

 

 

  1. It is not possible to link a fibers strand definitively to a single garment.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons.

Page number: 241

 

 

 

Chapter 10 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. Hair is an appendage of the skin that grows out of an organ known as the hair _____.

 

 

 

  1. One feature that makes hair a good subject for establishing individual identity is its resistance to chemical _____.

 

 

 

  1. The scale pattern of the cuticle is an important feature for characterizing <WOL1></WOL1><INST>_____</INST> hair.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ is embedded with pigment granules that give hair its color.

 

 

 

  1. Human head hairs rarely show continuous _____.

 

 

 

  1. The three phases of hair growth are the anagen, catagen, and _____ phases.

 

 

 

  1. Some hairs in the anagen phase have a _____ tag containing DNA that may be analyzed in order to individualize the hair.

 

 

 

  1. Forcibly removed hairs often bear follicular tags that are rich sources of _____ DNA.

 

 

 

 

  1. Forensic hair comparisons generally involve either _____ hair or pubic hair.

 

 

 

  1. A criminalist first compares the color and _____ of fiber evidence.

 

 

 

 

  1. The three basic cuticle patterns are coronal, spinous, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ is the main body of the hair shaft.

 

 

 

  1. Collecting _____ full-length hairs from all areas of the scalp normally ensures a representative sampling.

 

 

 

  1. Fibers are classified as being natural or _____.

 

 

 

  1. Fibers manufactured from natural raw materials are _____ fibers.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 10 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Anagen phase a. A molecule with a high molecular mass
2. Catagen phase b. The scale structure covering the exterior of the hair
3. Cortex c. A cellular column running through the center of the hair
4. Cuticle d. A transition stage between the anagen and telogen phases of hair growth
5. Follicular tag e. A substance composed of a large number of atoms that are usually arranged in repeating units
6. Macromolecule f. Two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds
7. Manufactured fibers g. Fibers derived entirely from animal or plant sources
8. Medulla h. The initial growth phase during which the hair follicle actively produces hair
9. Mitochondrial DNA i. The basic unit of structure from which a polymer is constructed
10. Molecule j. A translucent piece of tissue surrounding the hair’s shaft near the root that contains the richest source of DNA associated with hair
11. Monomer k. DNA that is present in the nucleus of a cell and that is inherited from both parents
12. Natural fibers l. The final growth phase in which hair naturally falls out of the skin
13. Nuclear DNA m. The main body of the hair shaft
14. Polymer n. DNA present in small structures (mitochondria) outside the nucleus of a cell. Mitochondria supply energy to the cell. This form of DNA is inherited maternally (from the mother).
15. Telogen phase o. Fibers derived from either natural or synthetic polymers.

 

 

 

Chapter 10 Essay

 

  1. Name and briefly define the three layers of the hair shaft.

 

 

 

  1. </P></Q>In comparing hairs, what aspects of the hair is the criminalist particularly interested in matching? Name at least one other important feature that the criminalist might compare.

 

 

 

  1. </P></Q></INST>Describe three analytical techniques for comparing the color of two fibers.

 

 

 

  1. Name the three phases of hair growth. A criminalist is more likely to collect DNA from hairs in which stage of growth? Why?

 

 

 

Chapter 10 Critical Thinking

 

  1. What two features make hair a good subject for establishing individual identity? To which layer of the hair shaft are much of these features attributed?

 

 

 

  1. During a microscopic comparison of two hairs, a trace analyst compares the medullae of the hairs to determine species of origin and, if possible, human origin of the hairs. What is the difference between the medullae of human and animal hairs? Name one exception to this among humans that may help in these determinations.

 

 

 

  1. Why must questioned hairs and standard/reference hairs being compared come from the same area of the body?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the process of comparing two fibers via microscopic and analytical methods. What morphological characteristics should a criminalist compare in these steps?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 11

 

Drugs

 

Chapter 11 Multiple Choice

 

  1. What is the percentage of evidence evaluated in the crime lab that is drug-related?
  2. 25%
  3. 75%
  4. 60%
  5. 35%

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. The pattern and intensity of dependency on a drug does NOT depend on the:
  2. Cost of the drug.
  3. Individual’s rate of metabolism.
  4. Dose and route of administration.
  5. Frequency of administration.

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. Use of which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to lead to psychological dependence?
  2. Codeine
  3. Alcohol
  4. Heroin
  5. Cocaine

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 261

 

 

  1. Which physical symptom is part of the abstinence syndrome?
  2. Body chills
  3. Stomach cramps and vomiting
  4. Convulsions
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 261

 

 

  1. The use of which drug will NOT lead to physical dependence?
  2. Barbiturates
  3. Heroin
  4. Cocaine
  5. Alcohol

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 261

 

 

  1. Most narcotics are:
  2. Physically addicting.
  3. Obtained from opium.
  4. Depressants to the central nervous system.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 262

 

 

  1. Which is NOT derived from opium?
  2. Morphine
  3. Marijuana
  4. Heroin
  5. Codeine

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 263

 

 

  1. Which substance is NOT normally used as a diluent of heroin?
  2. Procaine
  3. Starch
  4. Glucose
  5. Quinine

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. What is NOT true about codeine?
  2. It is stronger than morphine.
  3. It is prepared synthetically from morphine.
  4. It is present in opium.
  5. It is a component in over-the-counter cough medicine.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 264

 

 

  1. Which is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States today?
  2. Marijuana
  3. Heroin
  4. Cocaine
  5. Alcohol

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. Which drug is often incorrectly classified as a narcotic?
  2. Heroin
  3. Morphine
  4. Marijuana
  5. Codeine

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 263

 

 

  1. Which part of cannabis contains the LEAST amount of THC?
  2. Seeds
  3. Flower
  4. Leaf
  5. Resin

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. What is the most potent form of marijuana?
  2. Hashish
  3. Loose vegetation
  4. Sinsemilla
  5. Liquid hashish

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 267

 

 

  1. Marijuana has potential use in which medical application?
  2. Lessening of nausea caused by anticancer drugs
  3. Useful as a muscle relaxant
  4. Reduction of excessive eye pressure in glaucoma
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 266

 

 

  1. The administration of which drug eliminates an addict’s desire for heroin?
  2. Methadone
  3. Morphine
  4. OxyContin
  5. Codeine

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 264

 

 

  1. Which is NOT an effect of marijuana use?
  2. Dryness of the mouth
  3. Increased heart rate
  4. Reddening of the eyes
  5. Decrease in appetite for sweets

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 266

 

 

  1. Which hallucinogen can be synthesized by a simple chemical process and is often manufactured in clandestine laboratories?
  2. Marijuana
  3. Mescaline
  4. PCP
  5. LSD

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 266

 

 

  1. Which is the most widely used and abused drug?
  2. Alcohol
  3. Cocaine
  4. Heroin
  5. Marijuana

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 266

 

 

  1. A low dose of alcohol will NOT inhibit:
  2. Confidence
  3. Concentration
  4. Judgment
  5. Memory

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Which barbiturate is absorbed more slowly than the others?
  2. Phenobarbital
  3. Secobarbital
  4. Pentobarbital
  5. Amobarbital

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Barbiturates act to:
  2. Produce sleep.
  3. Create a feeling of well-being.
  4. Promote relaxation.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Which is true of the use of mild tranquilizers?
  2. They impair high-thinking faculties.
  3. They induce sleep.
  4. They do not produce dependency.
  5. They reduce tension.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. The sniffing of volatile solvents can cause:
  2. Drowsiness and stupor.
  3. Slurred speech and double vision.
  4. Feelings of exhilaration and euphoria.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 270

 

 

  1. Methamphetamine is a:
  2. Depressant.
  3. Hallucinogen.
  4. Stimulant.
  5. Tranquilizer.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 270

 

 

  1. Cocaine is a(n):
  2. Stimulant.
  3. Opiate.
  4. Depressant.
  5. Hallucinogen.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 270

 

 

  1. Most often, cocaine is:
  2. Snorted.
  3. Smoked.
  4. Injected.
  5. Swallowed.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 271

 

 

  1. The most difficult drug addiction to overcome is that of:
  2. Nicotine.
  3. Alcohol.
  4. Crack cocaine.
  5. Heroin.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

 

Page number: 271

 

 

  1. What is true about the “club drug” Rohypnol?
  2. It is enhanced when combined with alcohol.
  3. It results in loss of memory of what happened in the hours after ingestion.
  4. It is odorless, colorless, and tasteless.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 272

 

 

  1. MDMA (Ecstasy) does NOT cause:
  2. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
  3. Increased inhibition.
  4. Confusion, anxiety, and paranoia.
  5. Hallucinogenic and amphetamine-like effects.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 272

 

 

  1. What is NOT true of the use of anabolic steroids?
  2. They can greatly enhance strength and general athletic performance.
  3. They can cause unpredictable effects on mood and personality.
  4. They can produce infertility and diminished sex drive in males.
  5. They can cause masculinizing effects in females.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 273

 

 

  1. The Controlled Substance Act established five schedules of classification for substances based on the drugs:
  2. Medical value.
  3. Potential for physical dependence.
  4. Potential for psychological dependence.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List and define the schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.

Page number: 274

 

 

  1. The Marquis Reagent was used on drug evidence and it turned purple. The drug being tested could be:
  2. Heroin.
  3. Cocaine.
  4. Methadone.
  5. Either A or B

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. The Dillie-Koppanyi reagent is useful in screening for:
  2. Amphetamines.
  3. Barbiturates.
  4. Marijuana.
  5. Opiates

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. Duquenois-Levine solutions were used on a sample and the chloroform layer turned purple. This suggests that the tested substance is:
  2. Marijuana.
  3. Cocaine.
  4. Valium.
  5. Heroin.

 

Objective: Explain the testing procedures used for forensic identification of marijuana.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. The Van Urk reagent was used to test a sample and it turned bluish-purple. This indicates the presence of:
  2. LSD.
  3. MDMA.
  4. GHB.
  5. PCP.

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. Scott Test solutions can indicate the presence of:
  2. Marijuana.
  3. Cocaine.
  4. Codeine.
  5. Librium.

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. The specificity of microcrystalline tests is _____ the specificity of color tests.
  2. Less than
  3. The same as
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. Which type of test would logically be used first by the drug analyst?
  2. Gas chromatography
  3. Microcrystalline
  4. TLC
  5. Color

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 277

 

 

  1. The ability to make a positive identification of a drug using UV spectrophotometry is _____ the ability to make a positive identification using IR spectrophotometry.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 287

 

 

  1. Which technique allows for both separation and specific identification of a questioned mixture of substances?
  2. GC/MS
  3. GC
  4. UV spectrophotometry
  5. IR spectrophotometry

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 287

 

 

  1. Which absorption spectrum is equivalent to a “fingerprint” of a substance and can be used for identification purposes?
  2. Visible
  3. IR
  4. UV
  5. X-ray

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 290

 

 

  1. Gas chromatography suffers a big drawback in that it does not produce specific identification. This problem is overcome by connecting the GC to a:
  2. GRIM 3.
  3. MS.
  4. HPLC.
  5. TLC.

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 290

 

 

  1. Marijuana is considered to be a:
  2. Depressant.
  3. Stimulant.
  4. Narcotic.
  5. Hallucinogen.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 262

 

 

  1. Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act?
  2. I
  3. II
  4. III
  5. IV

 

Objective: List and define the schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.

Page number: 275

 

 

45.There is a significant likelihood that continued use of _____ will result in a high degree of psychological dependence.

  1. Cocaine
  2. Heroin
  3. Marijuana
  4. All of the above

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 260-261

 

 

  1. Regular use of the following drug may lead to physical dependency:
  2. LSD.
  3. Marijuana.
  4. Aspirin.
  5. Ethyl alcohol.

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 261

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a stimulant?
  2. Caffeine
  3. Amphetamine
  4. Cocaine
  5. Ethyl alcohol

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Heroin is a chemical derivative of:
  2. Morphine
  3. Barbituric acid
  4. Codeine
  5. Methadone

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 263

 

 

  1. Which of the following is synthetically produced and does not occur naturally?
  2. Cocaine
  3. Amphetamine
  4. Morphine
  5. Opium

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 270

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a depressant?
  2. Librium
  3. Valium
  4. Methaqualone
  5. All of the above are depressants

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Hashish is a concentrated preparation of marijuana.
  3. The active ingredient of marijuana is tetrahydrocannabinol.
  4. Prior to 1970 marijuana was classified as a narcotic drug.
  5. Marijuana is synthesized from the Cannabis sinsemilla plant.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. Which of the following is considered to be a hallucinogen?
  2. Phencyclidine (PCP)
  3. Mescaline
  4. Psilocybin
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 262

 

 

  1. The tranquilizers Valium and Librium are classified in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act?
  2. I
  3. II
  4. III
  5. IV

 

Objective: List and define the schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.

Page number: 275

 

 

  1. Which of the following are considered to be “club drugs”?
  2. Ketamine
  3. MDMA
  4. Rohypnol
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 271

 

 

  1. The reagent used for the field test of heroin is:
  2. Marquis
  3. Duquenois-Levine
  4. Scott reagent
  5. Van Urk

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. The most common diluent of heroin is:
  2. Mannitol
  3. Quinine
  4. Procaine
  5. Starch

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 277

 

 

  1. A police officer performs a field test on a white powder, obtaining a purple color. The most likely drug present is:
  2. Cocaine
  3. Heroin
  4. LSD
  5. Methadone

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 278

 

 

  1. “Designer” drugs are:
  2. High-end products of the major pharmaceutical companies.
  3. Often abused by the wealthy.
  4. Very often used in the fashion industry.
  5. Chemically related to controlled substances.

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 276

 

 

  1. A compound can tentatively be identified by gas chromatography from its:
  2. Carrier gas.
  3. Rf value.
  4. Partition coefficient.
  5. Retention time.

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 281

 

 

  1. The most satisfactory way of simultaneously separating and tentatively identifying drugs is by:
  2. Ultraviolet spectrophotometry
  3. Infrared spectrophotometry
  4. Emission spectroscopy
  5. Chromatography

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 279-280

 

 

  1. Which of the following analytical technique is considered to be a specific test in a drug identification scheme?
  2. Color test
  3. Microcrystalline test
  4. Thin-layer chromatography
  5. Infrared spectrophotometry

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 279

 

 

  1. Chromatography is NOT used to:
  2. Aid in analysis of illicit drug preparations.
  3. Separate molecules in a mixture.
  4. Determine colors of a compound.
  5. Tentatively identify molecules.

 

Objective: Describe and explain the process of chromatography

Page number: 279-280

 

 

  1. Which chromatographic process would be LEAST likely to be utilized in the crime lab?
  2. GC
  3. TLC
  4. HPLC
  5. Paper chromatography

 

Objective: Explain the differences among thin-layer chromatography and gas chromatography,

Page number: 266

 

 

  1. TLC uses _____ as its moving phase.
  2. A carrier gas
  3. Silica gel
  4. A thin film
  5. Liquid

 

Objective: Explain the differences among thin-layer chromatography and gas chromatography.

Page number: 282

 

 

  1. Thin-layer chromatography was performed and four spots were visualized on the glass slide. The substance with which Rf value was least soluble in the stationary phase?
  2. Rf value .7
  3. Rf value .2
  4. Rf value .5
  5. Rf value  8.5

 

Objective: Explain the differences among thin-layer chromatography and gas chromatography.

Page number: 282-284

 

 

 

Chapter 11 True-False

 

  1. Increasing caseloads associated with drug evidence have provided the major justification for the expansion of forensic laboratory services.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. A drug user’s expectations do not play a role in drug dependence.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. Psychological dependence is defined as the physiological need for a drug that has been brought about by its regular use.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 260

 

 

  1. Physical dependence develops only when the drug user uses a drug on a regular schedule.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Compare and contrast psychological and physical dependence.

Page number: 261

 

 

  1. Drugs prepared from opium include morphine, heroin, and codeine.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 263

 

 

  1. Methadone is used to treat chronic pain, while OxyContin is used to eliminate an addict’s desire for heroin while producing minimal side effects.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 264

 

 

  1. Sedatives are drugs that cause marked alteration in thought processes, perceptions, and moods.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 269

 

 

  1. Resin has higher concentrations of THC than the flowers of the <ITAL>Cannabis</ITAL> plant.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. Marijuana is the most widely abused drug in the United States.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 266

 

 

 

  1. Gas chromatography cannot be considered an absolute means of identification.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis.

Page number: 281

 

 

  1. Hashish is a concentrated preparation of marijuana.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. Marijuana is synthesized from the Cannabis sativa plant.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 265

 

 

  1. Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in Schedule I of the Controlled Substances Act.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and define the schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.

Page number: 275

 

 

  1. Cocaine is classified as a narcotic under current federal law.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 262

 

 

  1. Heroin is typically snorted by addicts.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 263

 

 

  1. The two most commonly abused illegal stimulants are amphetamines and cocaine.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 270-271

 

 

  1. The most popular club drug is LSD.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name and classify the commonly abused drugs.

Page number: 272

 

 

  1. A compound can tentatively be identified by gas chromatography from its retention time.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe and explain the process of chromatography.

Page number: 281

 

 

  1. The distribution of a substance between a mobile and stationary phase describes spectrophotometry.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe and explain the process of chromatography.

Page number: 279

 

 

20 The recorder of a spectrophotometer measures the refractive index of light.

  1. True
  2. False

 

Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs.

Page number: 288

 

 

  1. Many chemical substances have similar mass spectra fragmentation.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis.

Page number: 291

 

 

  1. Gas chromatography cannot produce a specific identification of a chemical substance.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain the differences among thin-layer chromatography and gas chromatography.

Page number: 279-280

 

 

  1. A mass spectrometer can detect materials weighing only one millionth of a gram.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis.

Page number: 292

 

 

  1. Spectrophotometry does not require that a material be in a relatively pure state.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs.

Page number: 292

 

 

  1. The UV spectra of different substances are not similar and therefore the technique can usually always provide a definite result.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs.

Page number: 294

 

 

  1. The IR spectrum for each substance is unique.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectroscopy for the identification of organic compounds.

Page number: 294

 

 

  1. The most important drawback of gas chromatography is that a forensic chemist cannot identify an unknown substance based solely on the results of gas chromatography.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe and explain the process of chromatography

Page number: 282

 

 

 

Chapter 11 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. A _____ may be defined as a natural or synthetic substance that is used to produce physiological or psychological effects in humans or other animals.

 

 

 

  1. _____ dependence is the conditioned use of a drug caused by underlying emotional needs.

 

 

 

  1. The pharmacological definition of a _____ is a substance that relieves pain and produces sleep.

 

 

 

  1. The source of most narcotic analgesics is _____.

 

 

 

  1. Methadone and OxyContin are two _____ opiates.

 

 

 

  1. Commonly used _____ include marijuana, LSD, PCP, and MDMA (Ecstasy).

 

 

 

 

  1. The active ingredient in marijuana is _____.

 

 

 

  1. Potential medical uses of marijuana include reduction of eye pressure in _____, lessening of nausea caused by anticancer drugs, and as a muscle relaxant.

 

 

 

 

  1. Angel dust is a mixture of _____ with other drugs such as LSD or amphetamines.

 

 

 

  1. The two phases in a forensic scientist’s analytical scheme are screening and _____.

 

 

 

  1. Two types of empirical tests are color tests and _____ tests.

 

 

 

  1. _____ can separate unknown mixtures into their components.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ drugs are substances that are chemically related to some controlled drugs and are pharmacologically potent.

 

 

 

 

  1. Hairs shaped like “bear claws” on the upper side of a marijuana leaf are known as _____ hairs.

 

 

 

  1. A technique for separating and tentatively identifying the components of a mixture is _____.

 

 

 

 

  1. The last step in a thin-layer chromatographic analysis is _____.

 

 

 

  1. In mass spectrometry, a chemical substance enters a chamber where it is _____ by high-energy electrons.

 

 

 

  1. In chromatography, the distribution of a gas between the liquid and gas phases is determined by the _____ of the gas in the liquid.

 

 

 

  1. The study of the absorption of light by chemical substances, or _____, is the basic tool used to characterize and identify organic materials.

 

 

 

  1. One function of a(n) _____ is to disperse light into it different wavelengths.

 

 

 

  1. _____ law states that the quantity of light absorbed at any frequency is directly proportional to the concentration of material absorbing it.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 11 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Anabolic steroids a. A substance that induces changes in normal thought processes, perceptions, and moods
2. Analgesic b. Drug that induces sleep and depresses vital body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing rate
3. Confirmation c. The conditioned use of a drug caused by underlying emotional needs
4. Depressant d. A substance that lessens or eliminates pain
5. Hallucinogen e. A substance that slows down, or depresses, the functions of the central nervous system
6. Microcrystalline test f. A single test that specifically identifies a substance
7. Narcotic g. Test that identifies a specific substance based on the color and shape of crystals formed when the substance is mixed with specific reagents
8. Physical dependence h. A substance that speeds up, or stimulates, the activity of the central nervous system
9. Psychological dependence i. Physiological need for a drug brought about by its regular use and characterized by withdrawal sickness when administration of the drug is abruptly stopped
10. Screening test j. A preliminary test used to reduce the number of possible identities of an unknown substance
11. Stimulant k. Synthetic compounds, chemically related to the male sex hormone testosterone, that are used to promote muscle growth
12. Spectrophotometry l. Invisible long frequencies of light beyond violet in the visible spectrum
13. Chromatography m. Colored light ranging from red to violet in the electromagnetic spectrum
14. Infrared n. An analytical method for identifying a substance by its selective absorption of different wavelengths of light
15. Ultraviolet o. Any of several analytical techniques for separating  mixtures into their components by attraction to a stationary phase while being propelled by a moving phase
16. Visible light p. Invisible short frequencies of light before red in the visible spectrum

 

 

 

 

Chapter 11 Essay

 

  1. What is the difference between a screening test and a confirmation test?

 

 

 

  1. What is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States? Under what class of drugs is it listed and what are its short-term physical and psychological effects at low to moderate doses?

 

 

</P></Q>

  1. Describe how a microcrystalline test works. Name two advantages of microcrystalline tests.

 

 

 

4.Briefly describe the basic chromatographic process. Be sure to explain how motion is important to the process.

 

 

 

 

  1. What three chromatographic processes are most applicable for solving analytical problems typically encountered in the crime laboratory? What is the main advantage of each?

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. Briefly describe the basic process of spectrophotometry.

 

 

 

Chapter 11 Critical Thinking

 

  1. Many factors affect the intensity of drug dependence in any given individual. For each item of information about a drug abuser’s life given below, indicate whether the factor would likely yield a high (+) or low (-) level of dependence.
  2. daily, scheduled use of small to moderate amounts of a drug
  3. occasional use of large amounts of a drug
  4. user’s expectation of significant effects of a drug
  5. use of drug by direct injection into the user’s bloodstream
  6. user’s intense need to escape from reality of his or her life and circumstances
  7. frequent use of drug by user’s family or friends
  8. use of drug with no potential for negative symptoms following withdrawl

 

 

 

  1. Synthetic opiates may be encountered as drug evidence. Depending on their use, they may be considered illicit. What are the most common synthetic opiates and what therapeutic purposes can each be used for? What illicit purposes can each be used for?

 

 

 

  1. Arrange the following parts or products of the Cannabis plant in order of THC content, from highest to lowest concentration of THC: flowers, leaves, resin, seeds, stem.

 

 

 

  1. A newly synthesized drug, called MET, is identified by the DEA. What drug schedule should this drug be classified under given the following established characteristics: high potential for abuse, a potential medical use requiring severe restrictions, a potential for severe psychological or physical dependence.

 

 

  1. An unknown white powder was located at a crime scene. Describe an analytical scheme, in proper order, to identify the drug or drugs which may be present in the powder. For each step, note whether it is a screening or confirmatory test and why it should be used.

 

 

 

  1. A white powder received by the forensic chemist must be identified. What are the preferred analytical methods for identification of the powder’s organic components?

 

 

 

  1. Multiple chemical components of a mixture are separated via thin-layer chromatography using silica gel as the stationary phase and ethanol and acetic acid as the mobile phase. What does the distance travelled by each component tell the analyst about their chemical identity?

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 12

 

Forensic Toxicology

 

Chapter 12 Multiple Choice

 

  1. In Western countries, the most heavily abused drug(s) is/are:
  2. Tranquilizers
  3. Alcohol
  4. Barbiturates
  5. Amphetamines

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 300

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a factor in determining the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream?
  2. The alcoholic content of the beverage
  3. The presence or absence of food in the stomach
  4. The amount consumed
  5. All of the above are factors

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. Which of the following, if blood is not available, can the medical examiner NOT use in order to determine the body’s alcohol content to a reasonable degree of accuracy?
  2. Urine
  3. Cerebrospinal fluid
  4. Vitreous humor
  5. Brain tissue

 

Objective: List and contrast laboratory procedures for measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Page number: 304

 

 

  1. The amount of alcohol absorbed through the stomach walls is _____ the amount of alcohol absorbed through the walls of the small intestine.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 302

 

 

  1. There is a(n) _____ relationship between the amount of alcohol in the blood and that in the alveolar breath.
  2. Variable
  3. Indirect
  4. Direct
  5. Undetermined

 

Objective: Understand the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs.

Page number: 302

 

 

  1. During the period of absorption, the concentration of alcohol in arterial blood is _____ the concentration of alcohol in venous blood.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 303

 

 

  1. A breath test reflects the alcohol concentration in the:
  2. Aorta.
  3. Left ventricle.
  4. Pulmonary vein.
  5. Pulmonary artery.

 

Objective: Understand the concepts of infrared and fuel cell breath-testing devices for alcohol testing.

Page number: 304

 

 

  1. Field sobriety tests do NOT include:
  2. Walk and turn.
  3. Horizontal gaze nystagmus.
  4. Performance of sit ups.
  5. One leg stand.

 

Objective: Describe commonly employed field sobriety tests to assess alcohol impairment.

Page number: 307

 

 

  1. To analyze blood for alcohol, forensic labs normally use:
  2. TLC.
  3. GM/MS.
  4. LC.
  5. GC.

 

Objective: List and contrast laboratory procedures for measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Page number: 309

 

 

  1. Of the following, which country has the lowest blood alcohol concentration in determining legal impairment level?
  2. Japan
  3. Sweden
  4. France
  5. United States

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 311

 

 

  1. The DOT set the maximum allowable blood alcohol concentration for commercial truck and bus drivers at:
  2. 0.08%.
  3. 0.02%.
  4. 0.05%.
  5. 0.04%.

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 311

 

 

  1. After a blood sample is collected for alcohol testing, a(n) _____ is added to stop the blood from clotting.
  2. Monochromator
  3. Anti-coagulant
  4. Preservative
  5. Fuel cell

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. Blood samples taken for alcohol testing must be taken only with the driver’s consent according to:
  2. The Fifth Amendment.
  3. Schmerber</ITAL> v. <ITAL>California.
  4. Frye standard.
  5. Missouri v. McNeely.

 

Objective: Understand the significance of implied-consent laws and the Schmerber v. California case to traffic enforcement.

Page number: 312

 

 

  1. Upon entering the bloodstream, heroin is almost immediately metabolized into:
  2. Morphine.
  3. Procaine.
  4. Opium.
  5. Cocaine.

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 313

 

 

  1. The toxicologist’s capabilities are NOT directly dependent on the input from the:
  2. Medical examiner.
  3. Police.
  4. Case prosecutor.
  5. Attending physician.

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 314

 

 

  1. A substance with a pH of 8 is likely to be:
  2. Water
  3. Neutral
  4. Acidic
  5. Basic

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. Of the following, which is an acid drug?
  2. Aspirin
  3. Cocaine
  4. Methadone
  5. PCP

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number 316

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a widely used screening tool in the toxicology lab?
  2. Immunoassay
  3. TLC
  4. GC-MS
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. Analyzing segments of hair for drug content may define the timeline for drug use, dating it back over a period of:
  2. Days.
  3. Weeks.
  4. Years.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. The Reinsch test would NOT be used to detect:
  2. Bismuth.
  3. Copper.
  4. Mercury.
  5. Arsenic.

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. Carbon monoxide is toxic because it:
  2. Activates killer white blood cells.
  3. Destroys red blood cells.
  4. Causes platelets to clump.
  5. Combines with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin.

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. The presence of high levels of carbon monoxide in the blood of a victim found at the scene of a suspicious fire is proof that the victim:
  2. Died elsewhere and was brought to the fire scene after death.
  3. Perished after the fire started.
  4. Died before the fire started.
  5. Was the arsonist.

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. The rate of alcohol absorption on a full stomach is _____ the rate of absorption on an empty stomach.
  2. The same as
  3. Less than
  4. Greater than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. The concentration of alcohol in an exhaled breath is in direct proportion to that of the blood of the same individual. The ratio of this relationship is closest to:
  2. 1:10.
  3. 1:1,000.
  4. 1:100.
  5. 1:2,000.

 

Objective: Understand the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs.

Page number: 305

 

 

  1. The DRE program incorporates standardized methods for examining suspects to determine:
  2. Whether they are transporting any illegal substances.
  3. Whether they are involved in the buying or selling of drugs.
  4. Whether they are under the influence of one or more drugs.
  5. Whether they have ever taken one or more drugs.

 

Objective: Describe how to coordinate the Drug Recognition Expert program with a forensic toxicology finding.

Page number: 320

 

 

  1. Alcohol is eliminated from the body chemically unchanged in:
  2. Urine
  3. Breath
  4. Perspiration
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. Alcohol is oxidized in the body primarily in:
  2. The stomach.
  3. The small intestine.
  4. The liver.
  5. The lungs.

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. The blood alcohol concentration level for being presumed to be legally “Under the Influence” in most states is:
  2. 0.04 percent
  3. 0.05 percent
  4. 0.08 percent
  5. 0.10 percent

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 311

 

 

  1. A breath test may be used to analyze:
  2. Ethyl alcohol.
  3. Marijuana.
  4. Barbiturates.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the concepts of infrared and fuel cell breath-testing devices for alcohol testing.

Page number: 304

 

 

  1. Blood is drawn from a living suspect involved in an automobile accident. If the specimen is kept unrefrigerated and at a moderately warm temperature the alcohol concentration can be expected to:
  2. Remain unchanged.
  3. Increase with time.
  4. Decrease with time.
  5. Either increase or decrease with time.

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. The elimination or “burn off” rate of alcohol averages _____ percent w/v per hour.
  2. 0.10
  3. 0.15
  4. 0.015
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 304

 

 

  1. Which of the following drugs is not found in blood or urine?
  2. Morphine
  3. Heroin
  4. Amphetamine
  5. Methadone

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 313

 

 

  1. Carbon monoxide combines with what component of blood?
  2. Carboxyhemoglobin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Oxyhemoglobin
  5. White blood cells

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. In the case of Schmerber v. California, blood was categorized as ­being:
  2. Direct evidence.
  3. Indirect evidence.
  4. Testimonial evidence.
  5. Nontestimonial evidence.

 

Objective: Understand the significance of implied-consent laws and the Schmerber v. California case to traffic enforcement.

Page number: 312

 

 

  1. In forensic toxicology, all positive drug findings must be confirmed by a specific chemical test. The confirmation test of choice is:
  2. Ultraviolet spectrophotometry.
  3. Gas chromatography.
  4. Infrared spectrophotometry.
  5. Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry.

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. A neutral substance will have a pH closest to:
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. 5
  5. 7

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. Field sobriety tests that can be employed to ascertain the degree of an individual’s alcohol impairment normally do not include the following:
  2. Portable, roadside breath tester.
  3. Horizontal gaze nystagmus.
  4. Gas chromatography.
  5. Walk and turn.

 

Objective: Describe commonly employed field sobriety tests to assess alcohol impairment.

Page number: 307

 

 

  1. For the purpose of extracting the drug out of body tissues, an amphetamine is classified as an:
  2. Acid drug.
  3. Basic drug.
  4. Neutral drug.
  5. All of the above.

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. About 95–98 percent of alcohol is oxidized to what two substances?</P>

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a. </INSCarbon dioxide and dehydrogenase</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>Water and acetic acid</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Acetaldehyde and acetic acid</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. </INST>Water and carbon dioxide

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not classified as a heavy metal?</P>

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a. </INST>Lead</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>Arsenic</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Mercury</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. </INST>Thallium

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 318

 

</P></ITEM></LL></Q>

  1. A drug recognition expert (DRE) can:
  2. Identify street drugs by their appearance.
  3. Help a drug user acknowledge his/her habit and suggest ways to become drug-free.
  4. Determine whether a person has taken one or more drugs.
  5. Advise the toxicologist as to which drug may be impairing an individual.

 

Objective: Understand the drug recognition expert program and how to coordinate it with a forensic toxicology result.

Page number: 320-322

 

 

  1. The analytical technique widely used for directly measuring the amount of alcohol present in the blood is:
  2. Gas chromatography.
  3. Thin-layer chromatography.
  4. Infrared spectrophotometry.
  5. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry.

 

Objective: List and contrast laboratory procedures for measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Page number: 309

 

 

  1. Some breath-testing devices for alcohol use _____ light to measure the quantity of alcohol trapped in a chamber.
  2. Visible
  3. Ultraviolet
  4. Infrared
  5. Colored

 

Objective: Understand the concepts of infrared and fuel cell breath-testing devices for alcohol testing.

Page number: 305

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Alcohol is broken down in the liver by oxidation.
  3. Alcohol can be considered a brain depressant.
  4. Alcohol is distributed nearly evenly throughout water portions of the body by blood.
  5. The mass spectrometer measures the absorption of light by alcohol.

 

Objective: List and contrast laboratory procedures for measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. The drug recognition expert evaluation process can suggest the presence of how many broad categories of drugs?
  2. Nine
  3. Seven
  4. Four
  5. Ten

 

Objective: Understand the drug recognition expert program and how to coordinate it with a forensic toxicology result.

Page number: 320

 

 

 

Chapter 12 True-False

 

  1. Alcohol is the most widely abused drug in Western countries.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 300

 

 

  1. Alcohol tends to be distributed throughout the watery parts of the body.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. The quantity and type of food present in the stomach at the time of drinking does not affect the rate at which alcohol is absorbed.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. The amount of alcohol exhaled in the breath is in indirect proportion to the concentration of alcohol in the blood.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. For a longer total time required for complete absorption, the peak blood-alcohol concentration will be lower.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. Most alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream through the walls of the stomach.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 301

 

 

  1. When the blood enters the lungs, it contains very little oxygen and a great deal of carbon dioxide.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion.

Page number: 302

 

 

  1. The most widespread method for rapidly determining alcohol intoxication is breath testing.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concepts of infrared and fuel cell breath-testing devices for alcohol testing.

Page number: 304

 

 

  1. Field sobriety tests include psychophysical tests and a breath test.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe commonly employed field sobriety tests to assess alcohol impairment.

Page number: 307

 

 

  1. Liquid chromatography is the most widely used approach for determining alcohol levels in blood.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and contrast laboratory procedures for measuring the concentration of alcohol in the blood.

Page number: 309

 

 

  1. An alcoholic disinfectant should be applied to a subject’s skin before drawing blood.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. An airtight container best ensures the preservation of blood samples.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. An anticoagulant should be added to inhibit the growth of microorganisms capable of destroying alcohol.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. Failure to keep the blood refrigerated or to add a preservative may result in a substantial decline in alcohol concentration.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate the precautions to be taken to properly preserve blood in order to analyze its alcohol content.

Page number: 310

 

 

  1. The implied-consent law allows the operator of a motor vehicle on a public highway to refuse a test for alcohol intoxication.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the significance of implied-consent laws and the Schmerber v. California case to traffic enforcement.

Page number: 311

 

 

  1. Few substances enter and completely leave the body in the same chemical state.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 313

 

 

  1. A screening test gives quick insight into the likelihood that a specimen contains a drug substance while a confirmation test identifies a specific drug.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 316

 

 

  1. The three most widely used screening tests are thin-layer chromatography (TLC), gas chromatography (GC), and liquid chromatography (LC).
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 317

 

 

  1. Lead is not classified as a heavy metal.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe techniques that forensic toxicologists use to isolate and identify drugs and poisons.

Page number: 318

 

 

  1. The concentration of a drug present in urine is a poor indicator of how extensively an individual’s behavior or state is influenced by the drug.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Appreciate the significance of finding a drug in human tissues and organs to assessing impairment.

Page number: 320

</P></Q>

</P></Q>

 

Chapter 12 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. A _____ is an individual whose job is to detect and identify drugs and poisons in body fluids, tissues, and organs.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the transformation of a chemical in the body to other chemicals to facilitate its elimination from the body.

 

 

 

  1. The three stages which occur after a chemical enters the body are absorption, distribution, and _____.

 

 

 

 

  1. About 95–98 percent of alcohol is oxidized to water and _____.

 

 

 

  1. Alcohol that is not oxidized is expelled _____ in breath, perspiration, and urine.

 

 

  1. Arteries carry blood _____ from the heart while veins carry blood toward the heart.

 

 

 

  1. Breath testing is based on the observation that there is a fixed ratio between the concentration of alcohol in alveolar breath and the concentration of alcohol in the _____.

 

 

 

  1. A fuel cell detector converts alcohol in alveolar breath into _____ acid.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ detector is a device attached to a breath tester to ensure that the breath sample being measured is alveolar or deep-lung breath.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ should be added to the blood sample to prevent clotting.

 

 

 

  1. The current legal measure of drunk driving in the United States is a blood-alcohol concentration of _____ percent weight/volume.

 

 

 

  1. Blood and _____ should be collected from any suspected drug user.

 

 

 

 

  1. Alcohol, marijuana, and _____ account for 90 percent or more of the drugs encountered in a typical toxicology laboratory.

 

 

 

  1. Carbon monoxide in the bloodstream combines with _____, reducing the amount of hemoglobin left to carry oxygen.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 12 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Absorption a. A blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart
2. Acid b. The transformation of a chemical in the body to other chemicals for the purpose of facilitating its elimination from the body
3. Alveoli c. A detector in which a chemical reaction involving alcohol produces electricity
4. Anticoagulant d. A compound capable of donating a hydrogen ion (H+) to another compound
5. Artery e. Elimination of alcohol from the body in an unchanged state; typically in breath and urine
6. Base f. An individual charged with the responsibility of detecting and identifying the presence of drugs and poisons in body fluids, tissues, and organs
7. Capillary g. A substance that prevents the of clotting of the blood
8. Excretion h. A symbol used to express the basicity or acidity of a substance. A pH value of 7 is neutral; lower values are acidic; higher values basic.
9. Fuel cell detector i. The passage of alcohol across the wall of the stomach and small intestine into the bloodstream
10. Metabolism j. substance that stops the growth of microorganisms in blood
11. Oxidation k. A tiny blood vessel that receives blood from arteries and carries it to veins and across whose walls exchange of materials between the blood and the tissues takes place
12. pH l. A blood vessel that transports blood toward the heart
13. Preservative m. Small sacs in the lungs through whose walls air and other vapors are exchanged between the breath and the blood
14. Toxicologist n. The combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new products
15. Vein o. A compound capable of accepting a hydrogen ion (H+)

 

 

 

 

Chapter 12 Essay

 

  1. List and describe the three stages of alcohol’s fate in the human body.

 

 

  1. What are alveoli and what role do they play in circulation?

 

 

 

  1. What is mouth alcohol and how does it affect the accuracy of a breath test? Name three potential sources of mouth alcohol.

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. Name and describe two divided-attention tasks administered during a field sobriety text.

 

 

 

  1. When collecting postmortem blood samples for alcohol determination, why is it best to collect a number of blood samples from different body sites?

 

 

 

  1. What are acids and bases? How are they used to extract and categorize drugs?

 

 

  1. Explain the DRE program.

 

 

 

Chapter 12 Critical Thinking

 

  1. For each task listed below, specify whether the task should be carried out by a forensic toxicologist, clinical/hospital toxicologist, or neither.
  2. analyze unidentified white powder
  3. establish the alcohol content of a whole blood sample
  4. analyze urine sample for heroin metabolites
  5. analyze a dried bloodstain for the presence of DNA
  6. analyze blood sample for presence of the AIDS virus
  7. analyze victim’s clothing for seminal evidence
  8. analyze scalp hair for the presence of a heavy metal poison
  9. perform toxicity studies on a new pharmaceutical drug
  10. estimate the influence of a drug on an individual

 

 

 

  1. List and describe the functions of the three types of blood vessels in the circulatory system and the roles they play in metabolism of alcohol.

 

 

 

  1. Following field sobriety testing, a driver is transported to the police station for an offcial breath alcohol test. Explain what safe guards and instrumental parameters must be in place before, during, and after the breath test to ensure its accuracy.

 

 

 

  1. What steps should be employed by a toxicologist in an analytical scheme to look for barbituates in a urine sample? What chemicals or instrumentation should be used at each step?

 

 

 

  1. A toxicologist is asked to draw conclusions about a subject’s drug-induced behavior. What factors aside from blood concentration levels can have an affect on the toxicologist’s findings?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 13

 

Metals, Paint, and Soil

 

Chapter 13 Multiple Choice

 

  1. What type of evidence would be expected to have trace elements?
  2. Glass and metal objects
  3. Paint and bullet fragments
  4. Soil and gun primer particles
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .

Page number: 328

 

 

  1. In a simple emission spectrograph, excitation of the specimen under investigation is accomplished with a(n):
  2. Electrical arc.
  3. Inductive magnetic field.
  4. Hot plasma torch.
  5. Activated prism.

 

Objective: Distinguish continuous and line emission spectra.

Page number: 334

 

 

  1. The nucleus of an atom contains:
  2. Neutrons.
  3. Neutrons and electrons.
  4. Protons and electrons.
  5. Protons and neutrons.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 332

 

 

  1. An element is selective in the frequency of light it will absorb. This selectivity is due to its:
  2. Number of neutrons.
  3. Proton cloud.
  4. Atomic mass.
  5. Electron energy levels.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 334

 

 

  1. Atoms having the same atomic number but different atomic masses are called:
  2. Isobars.
  3. Isotopes.
  4. Isotherms.
  5. Isomers.

 

Objective: Explain the concept of an isotope.

Page number: 335

 

 

  1. Which type of radiation is NOT given off by radioactive decay?
  2. X rays
  3. Gamma rays
  4. Beta particles
  5. Alpha particles

 

Objective: Understand how elements can be made radioactive.

Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Neutron activation analysis involves bombarding specimens with neutrons and then measuring the resultant:
  2. X rays.
  3. Gamma rays.
  4. Beta particles.
  5. Alpha particles.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a non-destructive technique for identifying and quantifying trace elements in a test sample?
  2. Carbon arc emission spectrometry
  3. ICP emission spectrometry
  4. Neutron activation analysis
  5. Infrared spectrophotometry

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .

Page number: 336

 

 

 

  1. The most abundant element of the earth’s crust is:
  2. Oxygen.
  3. Hydrogen.
  4. Carbon.
  5. Aluminum.

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .

Page number: 331

 

 

  1. A “fingerprint” of an element is obtained by the technique of:
  2. Infrared spectrophotometry.
  3. Ultraviolet spectrophotometry.
  4. Gas chromatography.
  5. Emission spectroscopy.

 

Objective: Understand the parts of a simple emission spectrograph.

Page number: 332

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Protons and neutron comprise the nucleus of an atom.
  3. The proton has a charge of +1.
  4. The neutron has no electrical charge.
  5. The electron and proton have the same mass.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 332

 

 

  1. The atoms of hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium all have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they possess. These substances are:
  2. Elements.
  3. Compounds.
  4. Molecules.
  5. Isotopes.

 

Objective: Explain the concept of an isotope.

Page number: 335

 

 

  1. In neutron activation analysis, an element is identified by measuring the energy of emitting:
  2. Protons.
  3. Electrons.
  4. Neutrons.
  5. Gamma rays.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Gamma rays are:
  2. Electrons.
  3. Protons.
  4. Neutrons.
  5. Electromagnetic radiation.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.

Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is correct?
  2. All atoms of an element have the same atomic mass number.
  3. All atoms of an element have the same number of protons.
  4. All atoms of an electron have the same number of neutrons.
  5. All atoms of an element have an equal number of neutrons and electrons.

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons

Page number: 332

 

 

  1. The emission spectrograph is used to determine the:
  2. Mass of a substance.
  3. Weight of a substance.
  4. Crystalline structure of a substance.
  5. Elemental composition of a substance.

 

Objective: Understand the parts of a simple emission spectrograph.

Page number: 342

 

 

  1. Radioactivity is composed of:
  2. Alpha particles.
  3. Beta particles.
  4. Gamma rays.
  5. All of the above.

 

Objective: Understand how elements can be made radioactive.

Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Paint as is most frequently encountered in:
  2. Burglary.
  3. A hit-and-run.
  4. Car theft.
  5. Both A and B

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. After examining small paint chips from an auto accident scene and using the PDQ database, the crime lab worker can determine the _____ of the vehicle.
  2. Model
  3. Make
  4. Year
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Which is NOT part of the composition of paint?
  2. Solvent
  3. Adhesive
  4. Pigment
  5. Binder

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Which coating helps resist UV radiation and acid rain?
  2. Electrocoat primer
  3. Primer surface
  4. Basecoat
  5. Clearcoat

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Which coating provides resistance to corrosion?
  2. Electrocoat primer
  3. Primer surface
  4. Basecoat
  5. Clearcoat

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Which coat represents the “eye appeal”?
  2. Electrocoat primer
  3. Primer surface
  4. Basecoat
  5. Clearcoat

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Which property imparts paint with its most distinctive forensic characteristics?
  2. Color-layer sequence
  3. Color
  4. Gloss
  5. Texture

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 341

 

 

  1. Paint binders can be chemically analyzed using:
  2. TLC.
  3. IR spectrophotometry.
  4. Pyrolysis GC.
  5. Both B and C

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 342

 

 

 

  1. Paint chips may be individualized to a single source by examining their:
  2. Infrared spectra.
  3. Ultraviolet spectra.
  4. Color and layer structure.
  5. Pyrograms.
  6. Their relative size.

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 342

 

 

  1. The polymeric makeup of paint binders can readily be compared by:
  2. Emission spectroscopy.
  3. Thin-layer chromatography.
  4. Microscopy.
  5. Pyrolysis gas chromatography.

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 342

 

 

  1. Automobile finishes typically contain which layers?
  2. Colorcoat
  3. An electrocoat primer, colorcoat, and clearcoat
  4. Clearcoat
  5. Electrocoat primer and colorcoat

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. What is the logical first step in soil analysis?
  2. Examination for presence of debris under low-power magnification
  3. Comparison of dried soil sample for color and texture
  4. Use of the density-gradient tube technique
  5. Examination of minerals and rocks under high-power magnification

 

Objective: List the important forensic properties of soil.

Page number: 346

 

 

  1. Which would be LEAST useful in identifying a mineral crystal?
  2. Size
  3. Color
  4. Geometric shape
  5. Refractive index

 

Objective: List the important forensic properties of soil.

Page number: 346

 

 

  1. The _____ properties of crystals, such as refractive index and birefringence, provide points of identification that help characterize them.
  2. Physical
  3. Chemical
  4. Amorphous
  5. Optical

 

Objective: List the important forensic properties of soil.

Page number: 346

 

 

 

Chapter 13 True-False

 

  1. The presence of trace elements is useful because they provide markers that may establish the source of a material.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .
Page number: 328

 

 

  1. A continuous spectrum is most helpful in identifying a particular element because it serves as a unique “fingerprint” of an element.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Distinguish continuous and line emission spectra.
Page number: 332

 

 

  1. The concentration of the absorbing element is directly proportional to the quantity of the light absorbed.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Appreciate the phenomenon of how an atom absorbs and releases energy in the form of light.
Page number: 334

 

 

  1. Mutilated bullets are often not suitable for traditional microscopic comparisons against an exemplar test-fired bullet.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .
Page number: 335

 

 

  1. Neutrons carry no charge.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Page number: 332

 

 

  1. An atom has a net zero electrical charge, which indicates that it contains the same number of protons and electrons.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Page number: 332

 

 

  1. Emission spectroscopy measures the frequency of light emitted by an atom when one of its electrons moves to a higher orbital.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Appreciate the phenomenon of how an atom absorbs and releases energy in the form of light.
Page number: 334

 

 

  1. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of protons in their respective nuclei.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain the concept of an isotope.
Page number: 335

 

 

  1. Isotopes have different atomic mass numbers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain the concept of an isotope.
Page number: 335

 

 

  1. Alpha particles are a form of radiation consisting of electrons.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how elements can be made radioactive.
Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Gamma rays are a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how elements can be made radioactive.
Page number: 336

 

 

  1. The major advantage of neutron activation analysis is that it provides a nondestructive method for identifying and quantitating trace elements.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .
Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Neutron activation analysis is favored in crime laboratories because of its low cost and ease of use.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .
Page number: 336

 

 

  1. Emission, spectroscopy and neutron activation analysis do not provide any information as to how the elements are combined into compounds.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the usefulness of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of .
Page number: 336

 

 

  1. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the atomic mass number.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Page number: 335

 

 

  1. All atoms of an element have the same number of neutrons.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Define and distinguish protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Page number: 332

 

 

  1. After the paint has been applied to a surface, the solvent evaporates.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. The variety of coatings applied to the body of an automobile adds significant diversity to automobile paint and contributes to the forensic significance of automobile paint comparisons.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 340

 

 

  1. Surface texture is the most important of the characteristics that a criminalist looks for when comparing paint chips.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the most useful examinations for performing a forensic comparison of paint.

Page number: 342

 

 

  1. It is not necessary that the collected paint from a vehicle involved in a hit-and-run accident be close to the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation methods for forensic paint, glass, and soil evidence.

Page number: 345

 

 

  1. The investigator should not try to remove trace paint evidence found on a tool but package the tool for laboratory examination instead.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation methods for forensic paint, glass, and soil evidence.

Page number: 345

 

 

  1. The minerals found in different soil samples cannot effectively be used to determine whether or not they have the same origin.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the important forensic properties of soil.

Page number: 346

 

 

  1. Standard/reference soil samples should be collected at the site of the crime at various intervals within a 100-foot radius of the crime scene.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence

Page number: 348

 

 

  1. The first step in a forensic soil comparison is analysis of the size of the particles.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the important forensic properties of soil.

Page number: 346

 

 

  1. If soil is found adhering to an object, the investigator should remove the soil particles form the object and send them to the laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation methods for forensic paint, glass, and soil evidence.

Page number: 348-349

 

 

 

 

Chapter 13 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. A _____ element is an element found in very small quantities.

 

 

 

  1. Elements selectively absorb and emit _____.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ spectrum shows a continuous band of colors all blending into one another.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ spectrum shows a series of lines separated by black areas in which each line represents a definite wavelength of frequency.

 

 

  1. ICP emission spectrophotometry can be used to obtain an _____ profile of the questioned bullet fragment for comparison against an unfired bullet generally found in the possession of the suspect.

 

 

 

  1. The three basic subatomic particles are the proton, electron, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. An electron moves to a _____-energy orbital when it absorbs energy, such as heat or light.

 

 

 

  1. _____ are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons in their respective nuclei.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the emission of radiation that accompanies the spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei.

 

 

 

  1. The three types of radiation are alpha particles, beta particles, and _____ rays.

 

 

 

  1. Alpha particles are a type of radiation composed of _____ atoms minus their orbiting electrons.

 

 

 

  1. When an electron moves to a lower-energy orbital, it _____ energy.

 

 

 

  1. _____ as is most frequently encountered in hit-and-run cases.

 

 

 

  1. Paint specimens are best compared side by side under a _____ microscope.

 

 

 

  1. When comparing paint chips under a microscope, a criminalist looks for color, surface texture, and _____ layer sequence.

 

 

 

  1. A thorough comparison of paint must include a chemical analysis of the paint’s pigments and _____ composition.

 

 

 

  1. Pyrolysis gas chromatography produces a pattern or _____ of the polymers that identify the specific chemical makeup of the binder.

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is a naturally occurring crystalline solid that can be identified by its physical properties.

 

 

 

  1. Soil is collected as _____ to preserve a record of the buildup of several layers of soil from different locations over time.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 13 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Atomic mass a. A negatively charged particle that is one of the fundamental structural units of the atom
2. Atomic number b. Light emitted from a source and separated into its component colors or frequencies
3. Electron c. A particle with no electrical charge that is one of the basic structures in the nucleus of an atom
4. Emission spectrum d. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
5. Isotope e. A positively charged particle that is one of the basic structures in the nucleus of an atom
6. Line spectrum f. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom
7. Neutron g. An atom differing from another atom of the same element in the number of neutrons in its nucleus
8. Proton h. A type of emission spectrum showing a

series of lines separated by black areas

9.  Electron Orbital i. The path of electrons as they move around the nuclei of atoms
10.  Excited State j. The state in which an atom absorbs energy and an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level

 

 

 

 

Chapter 13 Essay

 

  1. Explain how the analysis of trace elements was important to the investigation of the assassination of President John. F. Kennedy.

 

 

 

  1. How does a nuclear reactor generate radioactive elements?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the process of neutron activation analysis. How does the process allow a forensic scientist to identify an isotope?

 

 

 

  1. A suspect has been found miles from the scene of a murder. Soil is found adhering to the suspect’s shoe. Describe the proper collection and preservation of soil evidence that will permit a thorough comparison of the soil on the shoe to soil at the crime scene.

 

 

 

  1. Loose soil, soil adhering to a garment, and a lump of soil are found at a crime scene. How must the investigator collect and package each?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the proper collection and preservation of paint evidence from an automobile suspected of being involved in a hit-and-run incident. Paint that is foreign to the suspect automobile is observed on the hood.

 

 

Chapter 13 Critical Thinking

 

  1. Using knowledge about the operation of ICP emission spectrophotometry, determine whether it could or could not be utilized for the following analyses:
  2. analysis of metals in wine to determine area of origin
  3. detection of arsenic in a food sample
  4. carbon dating of a tree pulp sample
  5. analysis of trace metals in soil samples to determine area of origin
  6. analysis of hydrocarbons in a fuel mixture used to propel a hot air balloon
  7. identification of polymer binders in an automobile paint sample
  8. authentication of a bronze age weapon by component metal analysis

 

 

 

  1. 2. Why must paint collected from a vehicle involved in a hit-and-run accident be taken from the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim?

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 14

 

Forensic Serology

 

Chapter 14 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Which blood components are directly pertinent to the forensic aspects of blood identification?
  2. Platelets
  3. Blood serum
  4. Red blood cells
  5. Both b and c

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility?
  2. A
  3. B
  4. D
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. Type AB blood contains:
  2. Anti-A antibodies and B antigens.
  3. Anti-A antigens and anti-B antibodies.
  4. Both A and B antigens.
  5. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. In the United States, the rarest blood type is:
  2. A
  3. B
  4. AB
  5. O

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 358

 

 

  1. The sensitivity of the Takayama and Teichmann crystal tests for the identification of bloodstains is _____ the sensitivity of the Kastle-Meyer color test for bloodstain identification.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 358

 

 

  1. To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform:
  2. A precipitin test.
  3. The luminol test.
  4. An analysis with Hemastix strips.
  5. RIA.

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 362

 

 

  1. Which of the following types of cells are not contained in plasma?
  2. Phagocytes
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Erythrocytes
  5. Platelets

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 354

 

 

  1. The amount of acid phosphatase in seminal fluid is _____ the amount of acid phosphatase in blood.
  2. Greater than
  3. The same as
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 367

 

 

  1. PSA (p30) is a:
  2. Polymorphic enzyme found in red blood cells.
  3. Protein found in seminal plasma.
  4. Blood enzyme used to discriminate bloodstains.
  5. Protein specific to females.

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 368

 

 

  1. Evidence to substantiate that a rape occurred could include:
  2. Blood and semen.
  3. Hairs.
  4. Fibers.
  5. All of the above.

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of  in a rape investigation.

Page number: 370

 

 

  1. A gene pair made up of two similar alleles—for example, AA and BB—is said to be:
  2. Heterozygous.
  3. Monoclonal.
  4. Complementary.
  5. Homozygous.

 

Objective: Contrast chromosomes and genes.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. Luminol can be used at crime scenes to:
  2. Detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing.
  3. Make hair evidence fluoresce.
  4. Light up the crime scene with a high degree of illumination.
  5. Locate latent prints that otherwise would be overlooked.

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. Buccal cells are obtained from:
  2. Semen.
  3. The mouth and inside of the cheek.
  4. Urine.
  5. Blood.

 

Objective: Describe the proper collection of  in a rape investigation.

Page number: 371

 

 

  1. The presence or absence of how many antigens ­determines an individual’s blood type in the A-B-O system?
  2. 0
  3. 1
  4. 2
  5. 3

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. An individual who is type O has:
  2. O antibodies.
  3. A antibodies.
  4. B antibodies.
  5. Neither A nor B antibodies.

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. Antibodies are found:
  2. In the red blood cells
  3. In the white blood cells
  4. In the solid portion of blood
  5. In the blood serum

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. If blood is found to have both A and B antigens it is typed as:
  2. A
  3. B
  4. AB
  5. O

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Semen is unequivocally identified by the presence of spermatozoa.
  3. The likelihood of finding seminal acid phosphatase in vaginal swabs decreases with time.
  4. Spermatozoa can generally be found in the vagina of a living ­female after 3 days.
  5. Semen will contain the enzyme p30.

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 372

 

 

  1. A stain can tentatively be identified as blood by:
  2. The benzidine test.
  3. The luminol test.
  4. The phenolphthalein test.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is false?
  2. Dried bloodstains may tentatively be identified as blood by a peroxidase test.
  3. All bloods contain the enzyme peroxidase.
  4. A-B-O antigens are present in all human blood.
  5. The Kastle-Meyer test is used to determine whether blood is of ­human origin.

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 358

 

 

  1. EMIT is NOT a(n):
  2. Highly specific process to identify drugs in blood.
  3. Immunological assay technique that utilizes antibodies.
  4. Speedy test to detect methadone in urine.
  5. Screening test for suspected marijuana smoking.

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 359

 

 

  1. What is true about monoclonal antibodies?
  2. They are produced utilizing rapidly multiplying blood-cancer cells.
  3. They are produced by injecting a mouse with an antigen.
  4. They are expected to be medicine’s version of the “magic bullet.”
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. _____ transport oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carry carbon dioxide back to the lungs.
  2. Red blood cells
  3. White blood cells
  4. Alveoli
  5. Lymphocytes

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. The D antigen is also known as the _____ antigen.
  2. Monoclonal
  3. X
  4. AB
  5. Rh

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody is known as:
  2. Radioimmunology.
  3. Clotting.
  4. Agglutination.
  5. Serology.

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. In which phenotype pairings can the genotypes of the individuals be directly known?
  2. Type AB and type O
  3. Type A and type B
  4. Type B and type O
  5. Type A and type AB

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 366

 

 

  1. Paternity testing is done involving a woman with type AB blood who has accused a man with type B blood of fathering her child who has tested AB. What can be determined in this case?
  2. The male is definitely NOT the father of the child.
  3. The male could have fathered the child.
  4. The male definitely IS the father of the child.
  5. The child can not belong to this mother.

 

Objective: Learn how the Punnett square is used to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.

Page number: 366

 

 

  1. What approximate percentage of the population is type B?
  2. 80 percent
  3. 41 percent
  4. 38 percent
  5. 15 percent

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 358

 

 

  1. A precipitin test can be used to identify:
  2. Human blood.
  3. Dog blood.
  4. Cat blood.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the concept of antigen-antibody interactions and how it is applied to species identification and drug identification.

Page number: 362

 

 

  1. One parent is type AB; the other parent is type O. A possible genotype for an offspring is:
  2. AB
  3. OO
  4. AO
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Learn how the Punnett square is used to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.

Page number: 366

 

 

  1. When an animal is injected with an antigen, the animal will respond by producing:
  2. Polyclonal antibodies.
  3. Monoclonal antibodies.
  4. Agglutinates.
  5. Both a and b

 

Objective: Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.

Page number: 360-361

 

 

  1. During the production of monoclonal antibodies, which step is not followed?
  2. Inject an animal with the antigen of interest.
  3. Remove the animal’s spleen cells.
  4. Fuse the spleen cells to malignant blood cells.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. Acid-phosphatase is a major constituent of:
  2. Blood.
  3. Semen.
  4. Saliva.
  5. Perspiration.

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 367

 

 

  1. The presence of _____ indicates that a stain is seminal in nature.
  2. PGM
  3. Peroxidase
  4. p30
  5. DNA

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 368

 

 

 

Chapter 14 True-False

 

  1. The blood factors belonging to the A-B-O system are the most important for properly matching a donor and recipient for a transfusion.</P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 354

 

 

  1. People with type O blood have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 355

 

 

  1. The most common color test for bloodstains is Luminol.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. Microcrystalline tests are far less sensitive than color tests for blood identification.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 362

 

 

  1. Gel diffusion takes advantage of the fact that antibodies and antigens move toward one another on a plate.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 363

 

 

  1. Aspermia is an abnormally low sperm count.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 367

 

 

  1. The presence of prostate specific antigen (PSA) or p30 is useful for identifying a sample stain containing semen.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 368

 

 

  1. Nonmotile sperm generally survive for up to four to six hours in the vaginal cavity of a living female.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 372

 

 

  1. Chromosomes are the fundamental units of heredity.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Contrast chromosomes and genes.

Page number: 364

 

 

  1. Most human cells contain forty-six chromosomes, arranged in twenty-three mated pairs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Contrast chromosomes and genes.

Page number: 364

 

 

  1. A heterozygous gene pair is made up of two different alleles while a homozygous gene pair is made up of two similar alleles.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Contrast chromosomes and genes.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. When two different genes are inherited, the characteristic coded for by a recessive gene is expressed.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Contrast chromosomes and genes.

Page number: 365

 

 

  1. Biological evidence should be packaged in plastic or airtight containers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain how suspect blood and semen stains are to be properly preserved for laboratory examination.

Page number: 369

 

 

  1. One of the most frequent uses of the EMIT technique in forensic laboratories has been for screening the urine of suspected marijuana smokers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of antigen-antibody interactions and how it is applied to species identification and drug identification.

Page number: 359

 

 

  1. The reaction of luminol with blood results in the production of color rather than light.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood.

Page number: 361

 

 

  1. Information about when the victim last had consensual sex is not useful for evaluating the significance of findings during a possible rape examination.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains.

Page number: 367

 

 

  1. Type O blood is the most common in the United States.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 358

 

 

  1. An antigen is a protein that destroys or inactivates a specific antibody.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the A-B-O antigens and antibodies found in the blood for each of the four blood types: A, B, AB, and O.

Page number: 367

</P></Q>

</P></Q>

  1. Polyclonal antibodies are more useful than monoclonal antibodies for the forensic scientist.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain the difference between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies.

Page number: 361

 

</P></Q>

  1. Human bloodstains dried for years may still give a positive reaction for a precipitin test.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of antigen-antibody interactions and how it is applied to species identification and drug identification.

Page number: 363

 

 

</P></Q>

Chapter 14 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ is the fluid portion of the blood.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is a protein in the blood serum that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen.

 

 

 

  1. When serum containing B antibodies is added to red blood cells carrying the B antigen, the blood _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the study of antigen and serum antibody reactions.

 

 

 

 

  1. The standard test used to determine whether blood is of human or animal origin is the _____ test.

 

 

 

  1. The best way to locate and characterize a _____ stain is to perform the acid phosphatase test.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the absence of sperm, or sterility in males.

 

 

 

  1. Type _____ blood is the least common.

 

 

 

  1. One of the most frequent uses of EMIT in forensic laboratories has been for screening the urine of suspected _____ users.

 

 

 

  1. Monoclonal antibodies bind to _____ antibody site(s).

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is the particular combination of genes present in the cells of an individual.

 

 

 

  1. Two commonly used _____ tests for blood are the Kastle-Meyer test and the Hemastix test.

 

 

 

  1. The reaction of luminol with blood results in the production of _____ rather than color.

 

 

 

  1. Rape evidence should be packaged separately in _____ bags.

 

 

 

  1. Spermatozoa can be difficult to locate because they are bound tightly to _____ materials.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 14 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Acid phosphatase a. The basic unit of heredity, consisting of a DNA segment located on a chromosome
2. Agglutination b. The female sex chromosome
3. Allele c. A substance that stimulates the body to produce antibodies against it
4. Chromosome d. An abnormally low sperm count
5. Gene e. Any of several alternative forms of a gene located at the same point on a particular pair of chromosomes
6. Antibody f. The liquid that separates from the blood when a clot is formed
7. Antigen g. An enzyme found in high concentration in semen
8. Aspermia h. The fluid portion of unclotted blood
9. Oligospermia i. The physical manifestation of a genetic trait such as shape, color, and blood type
10. Plasma j. The particular combination of genes present in the cells of an individual
11. Serum k. A structure in the cell nucleus composed of DNA, along which the genes are located
12. Genotype l. The male sex chromosome
13. Phenotype m. The absence of sperm
14. X chromosome n. The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody
15. Y chromosome o. A protein that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen

 

 

 

 

Chapter 14 Essay

 

  1. The victim of a rape is found dead in her apartment. Describe the proper collection and preservation of the seminal stained clothing. Emphasize the proper collection of controls from the victim and suspect.

 

 

 

  1. The victim of a homicide is wrapped in a blood-soaked sheet. Describe the proper steps to be taken in order to preserve the sheet for laboratory examination. List all necessary submissions that must be made for a thorough examination of blood evidence.

 

 

 

  1. What three questions must the criminalist be prepared to answer when examining dried blood?

 

 

 

  1. What type of packaging should not be used for biological evidence? Why? What type of packaging should be used instead for articles containing biological evidence?

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 14 Critical Thinking

 

  1. Three blood samples are exposed to the antiserums shown below with the given reactions. Based on these results, determine the ABO/Rh blood type of each sample.

 

Blood Sample 1 Blood Sample 2 Blood Sample 3
Anti-A Agglutinates No reaction No reaction
Anti-B Agglutinates No reaction Agglutinates
Anti-D No reaction Agglutinates Agglutinates

 

 

 

  1. To determine the human or non-human origin of a blood sample, the forensic scientist needs antibodies for each species of interest. Briefly describe how antibodies capable of reacting are produced in animals.

 

 

 

  1. What three questions must the criminalist answer when examining dried blood? Which tests or analysis tools can be used to answer each question?

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 15

 

DNA: The Indispensable Forensic Science Tool

 

Chapter 15 Multiple Choice

 

  1. The technology of DNA typing had its beginnings in 1985 with the work of:
  2. Henry Lee.
  3. Francis Crick.
  4. James Watson.
  5. Alec Jeffreys.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. DNA is a(n):
  2. Protein.
  3. Starch.
  4. Polymer.
  5. Enzyme.

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. The molecular structure of DNA was deduced by:
  2. Gregor Mendel.
  3. Francis Crick.
  4. James Watson.
  5. Both B and C

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide?
  2. Phosphorous containing group
  3. Double helix
  4. Sugar
  5. Nitrogenous base

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA?
  2. Thymine
  3. Cytosine
  4. Uracil
  5. Adenine

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Which component of DNA forms the backbone of the molecule?
  2. Phosphate group
  3. Nitrogenous base
  4. Sugar
  5. Both a and c

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA?
  2. A-U
  3. G-A
  4. T-A
  5. C-T

 

Objective: Understand the concept of base pairing as it relates to the double-helix structure of DNA.

Page number: 379

 

 

  1. The building blocks of the DNA molecule are known as:
  2. Amino acids.
  3. Nucleotides.
  4. Polysaccharides.
  5. Hydrocarbons.

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 379

 

 

  1. In DNA replication, polymerases:
  2. Enable the strands to unwind from the helix.
  3. Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence.
  4. Separate the strands of the double helix.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. PCR is a technique that:
  2. Provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings.
  3. Can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA.
  4. Produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases.
  5. Virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis.

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to:
  2. Synthesize protein.
  3. Copy DNA.
  4. Make probes radioactive.
  5. Hydrolyze polymerase.

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit the:
  2. DNA to coil very tightly in the helical shape.
  3. Process to take place without DNA degradation.
  4. Hybridization to take place.
  5. Double-stranded molecules to separate completely.

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 382

 

 

  1. The amplification of DNA using the Thermal Cycler takes approximately:
  2. 30 cycles.
  3. Four cycles.
  4. Two hours.
  5. Two minutes.

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. Which is an advantage of working with short DNA fragments?
  2. They are more stable and less likely to break apart.
  3. Their quantity can be greatly amplified by PCR technology.
  4. They are less subject to degradation due to adverse environmental conditions.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. STR analysis has replaced other DNA typing techniques because it:
  2. Is less subject to sample degradation.
  3. Requires a smaller sample size.
  4. Can be implemented using the PCR.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 386

 

 

  1. The separation of STRs using capillary electrophoresis:
  2. Evolved from the flat-gel electrophoresis approach.
  3. Decreases analysis time.
  4. Is currently the preferred method.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis.

Page number: 389

 

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true? Few forensic labs do analysis of mtDNA because:
  2. Little mtDNA is present in a cell.
  3. The analysis procedure is very rigorous.
  4. It costs much more than nuclear DNA profiling.
  5. Such study takes a long time.

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 393

 

 

  1. Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits used in crime labs because the gene allows determination of:
  2. Ethnicity.
  3. Blood type.
  4. Gender.
  5. Eye color.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 388

 

 

  1. The discriminating power of mtDNA is _____ the discriminating power of STR analysis.
  2. Greater than
  3. The same as
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. CODIS is a national system of:
  2. Computers to track the movement of sex offenders released from prison.
  3. Shared databases of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime scene evidence.
  4. Vastly enhanced 911 emergency systems.
  5. Crime laboratory directors.

 

Objective: Understand the use of DNA computerized databases in criminal investigation.

Page number: 387

 

 

  1. HV1 and HV2 are:
  2. Restriction enzymes.
  3. STR types.
  4. Types of viruses.
  5. Regions of mtDNA.

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 394

 

 

  1. Y-STR markers are useful when multiple males are involved in a sexual assault. If three men are involved in such an attack the investigators would expect Y-STR analysis to show a maximum of:
  2. Eight peaks.
  3. Three peaks.
  4. Six peaks.
  5. Four peaks.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 389

 

 

  1. How many different bases are associated with the makeup of DNA?
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 6

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Assume that two strands of DNA have been separated and that the base sequence on one strand is ATGC. State the sequence of bases on the second strand.
  2. GCAT
  3. ACTC
  4. TGGC
  5. TACG

Anwer: d

Objective: Understand the concept of base pairing as it relates to the double-helix structure of DNA.

Page number: 379

 

 

  1. The concept of simultaneously extracting, amplifying, and detecting a combination of STRs is known as:
  2. PCR.
  3. THO1.
  4. Multiplexing.
  5. Electrophoresis.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. Which statement is not correct for Y-STRs?
  2. Female STRs will not yield a Y-STR profile.
  3. Y-STRs can be amplified by PCR.
  4. Y-STR types are typically shorter in length as compared to X-STRs.
  5. A typical Y-STR pattern has one band.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 389

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about mitochondrial DNA is incorrect?
  2. Mitochondrial DNA is located outside the cell’s nucleus.
  3. Mitochondrial DNA is constructed in a loop configuration.
  4. Many copies of mitochondrial DNA’s hypervariable regions are made by PCR.
  5. The number of repeat segments found in the hypervariable ­regions are used to type mitochondrialnDNA.

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. Examples of polymers that contain repeating units known as nucleotides are:
  2. Hemoglobin.
  3. Starch.
  4. Cellulose.
  5. DNA.

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. The production of amino acid is coded by a sequence of how many bases on the DNA molecule?
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four
  5. Five

 

Objective: Contrast DNA strands that code for the production of proteins with strands that contain repeating base sequences.

Page number: 380

 

 

  1. Portions of the DNA molecule useful for DNA typing:
  2. Code for the production of proteins.
  3. Are useful for recombinant DNA.
  4. Are repeated many times.
  5. Are useful for the production of insulin.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. The specific proteins produced by a cell are directly related to the:
  2. Sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell.
  3. Number of mitochondria in the cell.
  4. Length of the chromosomes.
  5. Sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell.

 

Objective: Contrast DNA strands that code for the production of proteins with strands that contain repeating base sequences.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. What is the number of nitrogenous bases needed to code for a specific amino acid?
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 6

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. Information from the Human Genome Project will:
  2. Help to reveal the role and implications of evolution.
  3. Be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic diseases.
  4. Reveal the location of a gene on a particular chromosome.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism’s:
  2. DNA nucleotide sequence.
  3. Nitrogenous bases.
  4. Amino acids.
  5. Environment.

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 380

 

 

  1. In which hereditary disease does abnormal hemoglobin differ from normal hemoglobin by only a single amino acid?
  2. Phenylketonuria
  3. Hemophilia
  4. Sickle-cell anemia
  5. Albinism

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 380

 

 

  1. Which statement about tandem repeats is NOT true?
  2. More than 30% of the human genome is composed of these repeating units.
  3. Their origin is a mystery.
  4. It is thought that they may act as spacers between the coded regions of DNA.
  5. They are of no forensic interest.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 381-382

 

 

  1. Which statement regarding STRs is true?
  2. Restriction enzymes are used to cut STRs from the DNA helix.
  3. There is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person.
  4. All humans have the same type of STRs.
  5. Typically a core repeat sequence would consist of 15-30 bases.

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 386

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Use this DNA STR pattern of evidence from a rape investigation to answer the following question(s).

 

Blood of Victim Semen Recovered

from Victim

Blood taken from Suspect A Blood taken from Suspect B Blood taken from Suspect C
         
    _________    
_________        
  _________      
    _________    
      _________  
        _________
_________        
  _________      
        _________

 

  1. The evidence suggests which suspect raped the victim?
  2. Suspect A
  3. Suspect B
  4. Suspect C
  5. The evidence shows that none of these suspects is a match.

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis

Page number: 387

 

 

  1. Note that suspect B has only one band in his lane. This is most likely an indication that:
  2. He is homozygous for the gene.
  3. He is trisomic for the trait.
  4. His DNA was contaminated during the collection process.
  5. Band shifting occurred.

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis

Page number: 387

 

 

  1. The rate at which large DNA fragments move through the electrophoretic gel is _____ the rate at which small DNA fragments move through the same apparatus.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis

Page number: 385

 

 

  1. Each cycle of the DNA Thermal Cycler takes approximately:
  2. 30 seconds.
  3. Four hours.
  4. Two hours.
  5. Two minutes.

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 382

 

 

  1. STRs normally consist of repeating sequences of:
  2. 13-17 bases.
  3. 18-2 bases.
  4. 3-7 bases.
  5. 8-12 bases.

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. The amount of DNA material required for STR analysis is _____ the amount of DNA required for RFLP analysis.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology cannot provide information helpful in:
  2. Matching a suspect to biological evidence found at a crime scene.
  3. Deciding immigration cases based on family relationships.
  4. Settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity.
  5. Determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect.

 

Objective: Contrast DNA strands that code for the production of proteins with strands that contain repeating base sequences.

Page number: 393

 

 

  1. DNA analysts are able to examine samples containing as few as _____ cells for an STR profile.
  2. 18
  3. 36
  4. 180
  5. 800

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 395

 

 

  1. _____ region(s) of mitochondrial DNA have been found to be highly variable in the human population for forensic determinations.
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three
  5. Four

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. Small amounts of blood are best submitted to a crime laboratory:
  2. Immediately while still wet.
  3. In a druggists fold.
  4. After dried.
  5. After removal from surface of deposition and rehydration.

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 396

 

 

  1. How should blood-containing clothes from a victim be packaged?
  2. In an airtight metal container
  3. In an airtight clear plastic container
  4. In a metal paint can
  5. In breathable paper after blood has dried

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 396

 

 

  1. Whole blood collected for DNA typing purposes must be placed in a vacuum containing the preservative:
  2. Rh factor.
  3. EDTA.
  4. CODIS.
  5. Ethylene glycol.

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 395

 

 

  1. A typical STR DNA type emanating from a single individual shows a _____ band pattern.
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three
  5. Zero

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 389

 

 

  1. A conventional STR profile emanating from a mixture of DNA from male donors yields four peaks or bands for each locus present. How many peaks or bands would you normally expect for each locus if a Y-STR profile is performed on the same sample?
  2. One
  3. Two
  4. Three
  5. Four

 

Objective: Understand the DNA-typing technique known as short tandem repeats (STRs).

Page number: 389

Level:

 

 

  1. Electrophoresis can be used in the crime lab to analyze:
  2. DNA.
  3. Proteins.
  4. dried blood.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the concept of Electrophoresis.

Page number: 383

 

 

 

Chapter 15 True-False

 

  1. James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with discovering the structure of DNA.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of base pairing as it relates to the double-helix structure of DNA.

Page number: 378

 

 

  1. The four bases on the DNA molecule are paired with <ITAL>A</ITAL> opposite <ITAL>T</ITAL> and <ITAL>G</ITAL> opposite <ITAL>C</ITAL>.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of base pairing as it relates to the double-helix structure of DNA.

Page number: 379

 

 

  1. Longer DNA strands are more stable and less subject to degradation than shorter strands.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. A short tandem repeat (STR) is a region of a DNA molecule that contains short segments consisting of 50-100 repeating base pairs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. The greater the number of STRs characterized, the smaller the frequency of occurrence of the analyzed sample in the general population.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 387

 

 

  1. Mitochondrial DNA is found in the nucleus of each cell and is inherited from both parents.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. Mitochondrial DNA analysis is significantly more sensitive than nuclear DNA profiling.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. Proteins are formed by linking a combination of nucleotides.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Name the parts of a nucleotide and explain how they are linked together to form DNA.

Page number: 380

 

 

  1. PCR are regions of a chromosome that contain multiple copies of a core DNA sequence arranged in a repeating fashion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. Tandem repeats are useful for forensic scientists because they provide a way to distinguish one individual from another through DNA typing.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 381

 

 

  1. STR analysis is the most successful and widely used DNA profiling procedure.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. The more STRs a forensic scientist can characterize, the greater is the likelihood that they originated from two different individuals.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 387

 

 

  1. The Y-STR gene can reveal the sex of the person who contributed a DNA sample.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the structure of an STR.

Page number: 388

 

 

  1. Mitochondrial DNA is arranged in a circular loop of bases while nuclear DNA is arranged in a continuous strand of bases.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Page number: 392

 

 

  1. Blood in soil must be stored in a clean glass or plastic container and immediately frozen.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 396

 

 

  1. The synthesis of new DNA from existing DNA is known as hybridization.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Explain the technology of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and how it applies to forensic DNA typing.

Page number: 383

 

 

  1. Capillary electrophoresis as the preferred technology for characterization of STRs.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis

Page number: 389

 

 

  1. Collection swabs must not be packaged in a wet state.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 396

 

 

  1. Buccal cells are derived from the inner cheek lining.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis.

Page number: 396

 

 

  1. Electrophoresis is widely used in the characterization of proteins and DNA in dried blood.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the concept of electrophoresis

Page number: 383

 

 

 

Chapter 15 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ is the molecule that carries the body’s genetic information.

 

 

 

  1. A _____ is a threadlike structure in the cell nucleus along which the genes are located.

 

 

 

  1. DNA is a large molecule called a polymer, created by linking a series of repeating units known as _____.

 

 

 

  1. The four bases associated with DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ repeats are regions of a chromosome that contain multiple copies of a core DNA sequence arranged in a repeating fashion.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ gene is often used to determine the sex of a DNA contributor.

 

 

  1. Decoding the human _____ can be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic diseases.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is a technique for replicating or copying a portion of a DNA strand outside a living cell.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is a technique that simultaneously detects more than one STR in a single DNA analysis.

 

 

 

  1. _____ are male specific and are useful for characterizing multiple-male DNA mixtures.

 

 

 

  1. _____ present in soil rapidly degrade DNA.

 

 

 

  1. The sequence of _____ acids in a protein chain determines the shape and function of the protein.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ is the fundamental unit of heredity.

 

 

 

  1. DNA _____ are enzymes that assemble a new DNA strand in the proper base sequence determined by the original or parent DNA strand.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the process of joining two complementary strands of DNA to form a double-stranded molecule.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is a technique for the separation of molecules through their migration on a support medium while under the influence of an electrical potential.

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 15 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Amelogenin gene a. A technique for separating molecules through their migration on a support medium while under the influence of an electrical potential
2. Amino acids b. Different fragment lengths of base pairs that result from cutting a DNA molecule with restriction enzymes
3. Buccal cells c. Small structures outside the nucleus that supply energy to the cell
4. Chromosome d. A repeating unit of DNA consisting of one of four bases—adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine—attached to a phosphate–sugar group
5. Electrophoresis e. Cells derived from the inner cheek lining
6. Hybridization f. A short strand of DNA used to target a region of DNA for replication by PCR
7. Mitochondria g. A genetic locus useful for determining gender
8. Multiplexing h. A technique for replicating or copying a portion of a DNA strand outside a living cell
9. Nucleotide i. An unstained object adjacent to an area on which biological material has been deposited
10. Polymerase Chain Reaction j. A region of a DNA molecule that contains short segments of three to seven repeating base pairs
11. Primer k. A rodlike structure in the cell nucleus composed of DNA, along which the genes are located
12. Short tandem repeat (STR) l. DNA from skin cells transferred onto the surface of an object by simple contact
13. Substrate control m. A technique that simultaneously detects more than one DNA marker in a single analysis
14. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs) n. The building blocks of proteins
15. Touch DNA o. The process of joining two complementary strands of DNA to form a double-stranded molecule

 

 

 

 

Chapter 15 Essay

 

  1. What is CODIS? How is CODIS useful to forensic scientists?

 

 

  1. Describe the process of DNA replication. What is the importance of DNA replication?

 

 

 

  1. List two advantages STRS have over restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP).

 

 

 

  1. Name two advantages and two disadvantes of mitochondrial DNA analysis compared to nuclear DNA analysis.

 

 

 

  1. List four ways to minimize contamination of biological evidence.

 

 

 

Chapter 15 Critical Thinking

 

  1. What are the advantages of using PCR in the analysis of DNA for forensic investigation?

 

 

 

  1. DNA analysis of blood found at a homicide crime scene was analyzed and yielded a profile for five STR regions. The frequency of occurrence of each STR type is shown in the table below. Use the product rule to calculate the combined frequency of occurrence of the DNA profile given.

 

STR Repeats at STR Loci Frequency of Occurrence
vWA 17 0.21
FGA 21 0.35
TH01 6, 9.3 0.09
CSF1PO 11, 12 0.01
TPOX 8, 12 0.11

 

 

 

  1. List the differences between nuclear DNA and mitochondrial DNA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mitochondrial DNA analysis in forensic investigations?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 16

 

Forensic Aspects of Fire and Explosion Investigation

 

 

Chapter 16 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Which substance has the highest ignition temperature?
  2. Turpentine
  3. Fuel oil #2
  4. Benzene
  5. Kerosene

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 410

 

 

  1. Telltale signs of arson include:
  2. Separate points of origin.
  3. Trails of burn patterns.
  4. The presence of containers.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize the telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. Factors that can contribute to abnormal observations at a fire scene include:
  2. Winds or drafts.
  3. Secondary fires due to collapsing floors or roof.
  4. Stairways or elevator shafts.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize the telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. The likelihood that spontaneous combustion will occur in improperly ventilated containers of highly unsaturated oils is _____ the likelihood that such combustion will occur with hydrocarbon lubricating oils.
  2. Less than
  3. Greater than
  4. The same as

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. What is the rapid combination of oxygen with a fuel, which produces a noticeable release of energy?
  2. The flash point
  3. Explosion
  4. Ignition
  5. Combustion

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will spontaneously ignite is called:
  2. A dangerous place to store flammable liquids.
  3. The ignition temperature.
  4. The heat of combustion.
  5. The flash point.

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. What is the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce enough vapor to burn?
  2. Ignition temperature
  3. Sublimation temperature
  4. Critical temperature
  5. Flash point

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 411

 

 

  1. What is the concentration at which a vapor-to-fuel mixture in the air is capable of burning?
  2. Flammable range
  3. Heat of combustion
  4. Lethal range
  5. Spontaneous concentration

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. When investigators search a fire scene, the first focus must be on:
  2. Finding the origin of the fire.
  3. Interviewing eyewitnesses.
  4. Taking photographs and making sketches.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. Hydrocarbon accelerants can be detected by:
  2. A portable detector (sniffer).
  3. Trained dogs.
  4. Most people.
  5. a and b

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 416

 

 

  1. Which instrumentation is considered the most sensitive and reliable for detecting and characterizing flammable residues?
  2. NAA
  3. IR
  4. GC
  5. TLC

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. Arson investigators must work quickly to collect evidence at a fire scene because:
  2. Accelerant residues may quickly evaporate.
  3. Safety requirements may require that cleanup and salvage operations begin quickly.
  4. Accelerants in soil may rapidly degrade.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. A fuel can only achieve combustion in:
  2. The solid state.
  3. The liquid state.
  4. The gaseous state.
  5. A liquid-solid phase.

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. What is the decomposition of organic matter by heat?
  2. Combustion
  3. Pyrolysis
  4. Ignition temperate
  5. Radiation

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 411

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true?
  2. All chemical reactions give off heat.
  3. Heat is required to change one element into another.
  4. A chemical equation shows the number of atoms lost during a chemical reaction.
  5. Oxidations are chemical reactions that produce new substances.

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 408

 

 

  1. Which chemical reaction is associated with a fire?
  2. Reduction
  3. Oxidation
  4. Precipitation
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 408

 

 

  1. Which is a natural heat-producing process that may give rise to a fire?
  2. Chain reaction
  3. Flash point
  4. Ignition point
  5. Spontaneous combustion

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. The minimum temperature at which fuel vapor will ignite is known as:
  2. The glow temperature
  3. The boiling point
  4. The flash point
  5. The ignition temperature

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 411

 

 

  1. Gasoline residues are best characterized by:
  2. Ultraviolet analysis.
  3. Infrared spectrophotometry.
  4. Gas chromatography.
  5. Emission spectroscopy.

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 416

 

 

  1. Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a laboratory examination of evidence recovered from an arson?
  2. The presence of gasoline, kerosene, or turpentine in debris
  3. Origin of liquid gasolines
  4. The brand name of gasoline used to start the fire
  5. The ignition mechanism used by the arsonist

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. The quantity of heat from a chemical reaction comes from:
  2. The breaking and formation of chemical bonds.
  3. The presence of oxygen in the reaction.
  4. The emission of radiation.
  5. The composition of the fuel–air mix.

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. Complex chromatographic accelerant patterns can be simplified by:
  2. Gas chromatography.
  3. Thin-layer chromatography.
  4. Mass spectrometry.
  5. Headspace analysis.

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 421

 

 

  1. Combustion occurring at the surface of a solid describes:
  2. Pyrolysis.
  3. Spontaneous combustion.
  4. Flash point.
  5. Glowing combustion.

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. Movement of heat through a solid object is caused by:
  2. Conduction.
  3. Radiation.
  4. Convection.
  5. a and c

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 413

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?
  2. Wood
  3. Plastic
  4. Paper
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. What is radiation?
  2. Movement of heat through a solid object
  3. Transfer of heat energy from a heated surface to a cooler surface
  4. Transfer of heat energy by movement of molecules within a liquid or gas
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. Water being heated on a stove illustrates the concept of:
  2. Conduction.
  3. Radiation.
  4. Convection.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. Heat energy can ignite distant objects through the transmission of:
  2. Electrons.
  3. Streamers.
  4. Electromagnetic energy.
  5. Oxidizing agents.

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 413-414

 

 

  1. Materials that have electrons firmly attached to their molecules:
  2. Transfer heat by convection.
  3. Transfer heat by radiation.
  4. Are excellent conductors of heat.
  5. Are poor conductors of heat.

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 413-414

 

 

  1. All combustible fuels simultaneously igniting to engulf a structure in flames is known as:
  2. Pyrolysis.
  3. Spontaneous combustion.
  4. Combustion.
  5. Flashover.

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. The transfer of heat energy by the movement of molecules within a liquid or gas is:
  2. Radiation.
  3. Oxidation.
  4. Convection.
  5. Conduction.

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. What is the major advantage of using the vapor concentration technique with gas chromatography?
  2. Low resolution of peaks associated with volatile residues
  3. Ability to determine relative concentration of solid residues
  4. Only non-volatile residues will be detected
  5. High sensitivity for detecting volatile residues

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. A common classification system characterizes ignitable liquids based on their boiling point ranges and number of _____ molecules as light, medium, and heavy petroleum distillates.
  2. Carbon
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Petroleum
  5. Petrol

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. What is NOT true about primary explosives?
  2. They will detonate violently.
  3. Lead azide and lead styphnate are examples.
  4. They are used in blasting caps.
  5. They are very stable.

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Which is NOT a high explosive?
  2. Black powder
  3. Dynamite
  4. RDX
  5. TNT

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Most explosives can be recovered from debris for future study by being rinsed with:
  2. Water.
  3. Toluene.
  4. Kerosene.
  5. Acetone.

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of an explosion.

Page number: 430

 

 

  1. Which is a homemade explosive that has been used by terrorist organizations in the Middle East?
  2. PETN
  3. TNT
  4. TATP
  5. RDX

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 425

 

 

  1. Which is an explosive readily detonated by heat or shock?
  2. Dynamite
  3. Secondary explosive
  4. Primary explosive
  5. ANFO

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Which is a chemical used to synthesize the explosive TATP?
  2. Aluminum
  3. Magnesium
  4. Hydrogen peroxide
  5. Potassium chlorate

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 427

 

 

  1. Which is the most widely used low explosive?
  2. Potassium chlorate and sugar
  3. Black powder
  4. Smokeless powder
  5. b and c

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 428

 

 

  1. Which is a device used to screen objects for the presence of explosive residues?
  2. X-ray diffraction
  3. Mass spectrometry
  4. Infrared spectrophotometry
  5. Ion-mobility spectrometry

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify explosive residues.

Page number: 428

 

 

  1. A procedure commonly used as a screening test for explosive residues is:
  2. Color spot tests.
  3. Thin-layer chromatography.
  4. Gas-chromatography-mass spectrometry.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify explosive residues.

Page number: 430

 

 

  1. Which is an initiating explosive often used in detonators?
  2. Lead azide
  3. PETN
  4. TNT
  5. Dynamite

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 426

 

 

  1. Which are common chemical ingredients of black powder?
  2. Aluminum, potassium, nitrate, nitrocellulose
  3. Sulfur, carbon, nitrogen
  4. Carbon, nitrocellulose, potassium chlorate
  5. Potassium nitrate, charcoal, sulfur

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 422

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
  2. Potassium chlorate can be mixed with sulfuric acid and sugar to create a low explosive.
  3. Chemicals that supply oxygen are known as oxidizing agents.
  4. Smokeless powder is a low explosive.
  5. Dynamite is an initiating high explosive.

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a military explosive?
  2. RDX
  3. C-4
  4. TNT
  5. Nitroglycerin

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 425

 

 

  1. The speed in a low explosive is called the speed of:
  2. Detonation.
  3. Deflagration.
  4. Oxidation.
  5. Combustion.

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Single-base smokeless powder consists of:
  2. Nitrocellulose and nitroglycerine.
  3. Potassium chlorate and nitrocellulose.
  4. Nitrocellulose.
  5. Nitroglycerine.

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Examples of secondary explosives do NOT include:
  2. TNT
  3. PETN
  4. RDX
  5. Lead azide

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Which type(s) of screening and confirmation tests are used for analyzing evidence of explosives?
  2. TLC
  3. Color spot tests
  4. Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedues used to detect and identify explosives residues.

Page number: 432

 

 

  1. Many explosives must have their own source of:
  2. Fuel.
  3. Oxygen.
  4. Heat.
  5. Energy.

 

Objective: Understand how explosvies are classified.

Page number: 422

 

 

  1. A low explosive has a velocity of detonation less than:
  2. 150 meteres per second.
  3. 500 meters per second.
  4. 1000 meteres per second.
  5. 1500 meters per second.

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Which is available in commercial form as fertilizer?
  2. Ammonium nitrate
  3. Triacetone triperoxide
  4. Diazodinitrophenol
  5. Potassium chlorate

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. Which is often used as the explosive core in a detonating cord?
  2. TNT
  3. PETN
  4. RDX
  5. C-4

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 426

 

 

  1. Explosives that decompose at relatively slow rates are classified as:
  2. Decomposing explosives.
  3. Low explosives.
  4. High explosives.
  5. Slow explosives.

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Which type of explosives detonate almost instantaneously to produce a smashing or shattering effect?
  2. Dentoating explosives
  3. Low explosives
  4. High explosives
  5. Instantaneous explosives

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. High explosives can be classified as either _____ or _____ explosives.
  2. Civilian; military
  3. Initial; secondary
  4. Military grade; non-military grade
  5. Primary; secondary

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

 

Chapter 16 True-False

 

  1. The quantity of heat from a chemical reaction comes from the presence of oxygen in the reaction.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. Molecules must absorb energy when their bonds are reformed <WOL1></WOL1><INST> and they liberate energy when their bonds break apart.<WOL1></WOL1><INST> their
  2. True
  3. False

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. Rusting is not accompanied by combustion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. Combustion is accompanied by the production of noticeable heat and light.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. Heat energy is liberated in an endothermic reaction and absorbed in an exothermic reaction.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 409

 

 

  1. A fire will burn until either the oxygen or the fuel is exhausted.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 410

 

 

  1. A fuel must be in its gaseous state to produce combustion when it reacts with oxygen.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 411

 

 

  1. If the fuel concentration in the fuel–air mix is too low or too great, combustion does not occur.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. A fuel does not need to be present to initiate and sustain combustion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 413

 

 

  1. Arson investigators must work quickly to collect evidence at a fire scene because any accelerant residues may evaporate within a few days or even hours.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. A search of the fire scene must focus on finding the fire’s point of origin.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. Water does not interefere with laboratory methods used to detect and characterize flammable liquid residues.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 416

 

 

  1. Wood is a poor insulator.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. Paper is not good for spreading a fire and causing ignitions far from the initial heat source.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. The phenomenon of flashover is an example of radiation.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the three mechanisms of heat transfer.

Page number: 414

 

 

  1. The brand name of a gasoline sample cannot currently be determined by any technique.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. A burning cigarette is an example of spontaneous combustion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the conditions necessary to initiate and sustain combustion.

Page number: 412

 

 

  1. The easiest way to recover accelerant residues from fire-scene debris is to heat the airtight container in which the sample is sent to the laboratory.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 418

 

 

  1. The most common igniter is an electrical sparking device.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize the telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire.

Page number: 410

 

 

  1. Two to three quarts of ash and soot debris must be collected at the point of origin of a fire when arson is suspected.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of a suspected arson.

Page number: 415

 

 

  1. Detonation is characterized by very rapid oxidation that produces heat, light, and a subsonic pressure wave.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Low explosives detonate relatively slowly (less than 1,000 meters per second), while high explosives detonate very rapidly (from 1,000 to 8,500 meters per second).
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. The only ingredients required for a low explosive are fuel and a good oxidizing agent.</P></Q>
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Dynamite has largely replaced ammonium-nitrate-based explosives for industrial uses.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 424

 

 

  1. PETN is the most powerful and popular military explosive.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.

Page number: 426

 

 

  1. The most obvious characteristic of a high or contained low explosive is the presence of a crater at the origin of the blast.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.

Page number: 427

 

 

  1. Soil and other soft loose materials collected at the scene of an explosion are best stored in metal containers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of an explosion.

Page number: 428

 

 

  1. Bombs made of high explosives must be detonated by an initiating explosion.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand how explosives are classified.
Page number: 426

 

 

  1. Plastic bags are suitable to store evidence suspected of containing explosive residues.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how to collect  at the scene of an explosion.
Page number: 428

 

 

  1. Black powder and smokeless powder do not have characteristic shapes and colors and therefore are difficult to locate in debris.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify explosive residues.
Page number: 428

 

 

  1. Black powder does not explode when unconfined.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.
Page number: 423

 

 

  1. Nitroglycerin-based dynamite has all but disappeared from the industrial explosives market.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.
Page number: 431

 

 

  1. Military “dynamite” contains no nitroglycerin.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives.
Page number: 426

 

 

 

Chapter 16 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ is the combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new substances.

 

 

 

  1. In a(n) _____ reaction, heat energy is liberated.

 

 

 

  1. Two factors that influence the _____ of reaction of a fire are the physical state of the fuel and the temperature.

 

 

 

  1. The _____ point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form a mixture with air that will support combustion.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is the chemical breakdown of solid organic matter by heat.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ combustion is fire caused by a natural heat-producing process in the presence of sufficient air and fuel.

 

 

 

  1. _____ are trails of flammable material, such as gasoline or paper, spreading outward from a fire’s point or origin in order to cause the fire to move rapidly from one room to another.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ is vapor containing volatile residues recovered from debris at a fire scene.

 

 

 

  1. Metals, beams, nails, fasteners, and bolts are examples of good _____.

 

 

 

 

  1. In a fire scene the electromagnetic radiation movs in a(n) _____ line from one surface to another.

 

 

 

  1. Warm air expands, which causes it to become _____ dense.

 

 

 

  1. Most arsons are started with _____-based accelerants such as gasoline or kerosene.

 

 

  1. Typically, the rate of a chemical reaction _____ when the temperature is raised.

 

 

 

 

  1. The collection and preservation of arson evidence should inclue all _____ materials such as wood flooring, rags, rugs, and upholstery.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ is characterized by extremely rapid oxidation that produces a supersonic shock wave.

 

 

 

  1. The most widely used _____ explosives are black powder and smokeless powder.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ fuse consists of black powder wrapped in a fabric or plastic casing and is used to carry a flame at a uniform rate to an explosive charge.

 

 

 

 

  1. _____ is an explosive consisting of ammonium nitrate soaked in fuel oil.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is a device used to create an explosion needed to ignite a high explosive.

 

 

 

  1. Following microscopic examination, the recovered debris is thoroughly rinsed with _____.

 

 

 

  1. The most obvious characteristic of a high or contained low explosive is the presence of a(n) _____ at the origin of the blast.

 

 

 

  1. The ingredients in black powder are potassium nitrate, carbon, and _____.

 

 

 

  1. A primary explosive is easily detonated by heat, friction, or _____.

 

 

 

  1. Ammonium nitrate is a(n) _____ agent.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 16 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Accelerant a. The minimum temperature at which a fuel spontaneously ignites
2. Combustion b. A chemical transformation in which heat energy is liberated
3. Flammable range c. The heat liberated during combustion
4. Flash point d. Rapid combination of oxygen with another substance, accompanied by production of noticeable heat and light
5. Ignition temperature e. The ability or potential of a system or material to do work
6. Oxidation f. Any compound consisting of only carbon and hydrogen
7. Spontaneous combustion g. The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel produces enough vapor to burn
8. Endothermic reaction h. Combustion on the surface of a solid fuel in the absence of heat high enough to pyrolyze the fuel
9. Exothermic reaction i. Any material used to start or sustain a fire
10. Energy j. The decomposition of solid organic matter by heat
11. Glowing combustion k. The combination of oxygen with other

substances to produce new substances

12. Heat of combustion l. An offender’s pattern of operation
13. Hydrocarbon m. A fire caused by a natural heat-producing process in the presence of sufficient air and fuel
14. Modus operandi n. The entire range of possible gas or vapor fuel concentrations in air that are capable of burning
15. Pyrolysis o. A chemical transformation in which heat is absorbed from the surroundings

 

 

 

Chapter 16 Essay

 

  1. Explain the proper collection of evidence at the origin of a fire that is suspected of being initiated by gasoline. Describe the proper submission of controls for laboratory examination.

 

 

 

<Q NUM=”8″><P><INST>2. </INST>List three common signs of arson at a fire scene.

 

 

 

  1. Where will an investigator usually locate the probable point of origin of a fire? What factors can cause a fire to deviate from normal behavior?

</P></Q>

 

 

  1. What are the two classes of high explosives? What is the difference between the two classes?

 

 

 

  1. What is an oxidizing agent? Why is an oxidizing agent important to an explosion?

 

 

 

  1. What produces the violent physical disruption of the surrounding environment released in an explosion? Explain how this creates shrapnel when a bomb explodes.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 16 Critical Thinking

 

  1. 1. A large container of gasoline is recovered from the walk-in freezer at a restaurant owned by an arson suspect. The gasoline temperature is found to be -10 degrees Fahrenheit. The suspect claims this gasoline would be too cold to have been used as an accelerant in the arson. Describe the difference between flash point and ignition temperature and use this information to explain whether the suspect’s claim is true or untrue.

 

 

 

  1. At a fire scene, what characteristics should an investigator look for to identify the fire’s point of origin? What circumstances may affect these characteristics?

 

 

 

  1. What is the main advantage of analyzing accelerant residues from a fire using the vapor concentration technique over the headspace technique?

 

 

 

  1. The following substances were found at the scenes of explosions. Indicate for each group of items if low, high, or a combination of explosives were used. If high explosives were used, indicate whether the components can be identified as primary or secondary explosives.
  2. Potassium nitrate, charcoal, sulfur
  3. PETN (pentaerythritoltetranitrate)
  4. Lead styphnate
  5. Ammonium nitrate and sodium nitrate gelled with guar gum
  6. Potassium chlorate mixed with sugar
  7. Triacetone triperoxide

 

 

 

  1. Criminalist Matt Hughes arrives arrives at the scene of an explosion. He first carries out a search of the periphery of the crime scene, questions several witnesses, and then locates the crater caused by the blast. After finding the crater, he uses a sifter to separate the debris at the site for evidence. Any large pieces of detonators or foreign materials that did not fall through the mesh are collected and packaged in small paper bags. Large, jagged pieces found in the crater are wrapped in paper then placed in another paper bag. What mistakes, if any, did Matt make in collecting and storing this evidence?

 

 

 

 

Chapter 17

 

Document Examination

 

 

Chapter 17 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Questioned documents include:
  2. Contracts and passports.
  3. Petitions and lottery tickets.
  4. Letters and checks.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Define questioned document.

Page number: 438

 

 

  1. The possibility of recognizing known writing habits in samples produced when a writer is under the influence of drugs or alcohol is _____ the possibility of recognizing known writing habits produced when the writer of a sample is not under the influence of drugs or alcohol.
  2. Less than
  3. Greater than
  4. The same as

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 441

 

 

  1. The ease with which a child’s handwriting can be individualized is _____ the ease with which one can individualize an adult’s handwriting.
  2. The same as
  3. Greater than
  4. Less than

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 438

 

 

  1. The writing characteristics of a person may be altered by whether:
  2. The paper is ruled or unruled.
  3. Pencil, ballpoint, or fountain pen is used.
  4. The posture or stance of the author varies between writings.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 441

 

 

  1. With regard to the constitutionality of obtaining handwriting exemplars, the courts have ruled all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Such action does not constitute unreasonable search and seizure of a person.
  3. It is not in violation of Fourth Amendment rights.
  4. Fifth Amendment privileges apply.
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. The ease with which one can find individual variations in a typewritten document is _____ the ease of finding such defects in documents produced by business and personal computers.
  2. Less than
  3. Greater than
  4. The same as

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 438

 

 

  1. In dealing with fax machines, photocopiers, and computer printers, which class characteristics might be examined?
  2. Type of paper
  3. Chemical composition of toner
  4. Type of toner-to-paper fusing method
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. Infrared luminescence is used to:
  2. Detect if two different inks were used in the writing of a document.
  3. Reveal writing that has been erased.
  4. Prepare ink for thin-layer chromatography.
  5. a and b

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 446

 

 

  1. A databank of ink dye patterns has been established by the U.S. Treasury Department using:
  2. TTI.
  3. TLC.
  4. HPLC.
  5. NAA.

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 451

 

 

  1. Document examiners frequently uncover the original writing of words that have been crossed out with the aid of:
  2. Color photography.
  3. Transmitted radiation.
  4. Infrared radiation.
  5. Side lighting.

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 447

 

 

  1. When dictating to a person in order to obtain samples of handwriting, one should NOT:
  2. Use paper similar to that of the questioned document.
  3. Use a pen similar to that of the questioned document.
  4. Dictate the contents of the text at least three times.
  5. Allow the suspect to view the questioned document before dictating it.

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. If an investigator is to prepare standards from a suspect typewriter, which procedure is recommended?
  2. Partial copies of the suspect text are to be typed in light, medium, and heavy touches.
  3. Prepare at least one copy of the text in full word-for-word order.
  4. Each character should be typed without the ribbon.
  5. Examine the type impressions left on the ribbon.

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 452

 

 

  1. Inks on handwritten documents may be compared for their chemical composition by the technique of:
  2. Thin-layer chromatography
  3. Infrared spectrophotometry
  4. Ultraviolet spectrophotometry
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 449

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
  2. An inconclusive finding by a document examiner may be due to an insufficient number of known writings available for comparison.
  3. Any object that contains handwritten or typewritten markings whose source or authenticity is in doubt is a questioned document.
  4. Once adulthood is reached, an individual’s handwriting generally will not change with age.
  5. In the case of Gilbert v. California the court held that the taking of handwriting exemplars was not prohibited by the Fifth Amendment.

 

Objective: Define questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. Some inks, when exposed to blue-green light, absorb _____ radiation and emit light.
  2. Visible
  3. Polarized
  4. Ultraviolet
  5. Infrared

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 446

 

 

  1. _____ writings are partially visible impressions appearing on a sheet of paper underneath the one on which the visible writing was done.
  2. Obliterated
  3. Indented
  4. Questioned
  5. Charred

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 447

 

 

  1. In the case of _____, the Supreme Court held handwriting to be nontestimonial evidence not protected by Fifth Amendment privileges.
  2. Gilbert v. California
  3. Carmichael v. Kumho Tire Co.
  4. United States v. Mara
  5. United States Secret Service v. Mara

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. Defects that are reproduced by a photocopier onto a copied document may originate from defects in all of the following photocopier parts EXCEPT:
  2. Glass plate
  3. Feed tray
  4. Inner cover
  5. Mechanical portions

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 443

 

 

  1. Fax machines print a header known as the _____ at the top of each fax page, which may become a very important point of comparison.
  2. ELD
  3. HTTP
  4. TLC
  5. TTI

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. What is the process by which the image is stored in memory by scanning and converting by computer into an array of digital intensity values called picture elements?
  2. Luminescence
  3. Adobe Photoshopping
  4. Digitizing
  5. Pixelization

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 447

 

 

  1. When a suspect computer printer is not available, the examiner may need to analyze the document’s _____ to identify the make and model of the machine.
  2. Handwriting
  3. Individual characteristics
  4. TTI
  5. Class characteristics

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. When comparing sample writing to a suspect document, the age difference between the documents should be no more than:</P>

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a.</INST> Six to twelve months</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>Twelve to eighteen months</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Two to three years</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. </INST>Five to seven years

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. Which are important characteristics of a printer, photocopier, or fax machine?
  2. Printing technology
  3. Type of paper
  4. Type of toner or ink used
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. The TTI is a characteristic used to distinguish:
  2. Photocopiers.
  3. Fax machines.
  4. Computer printers.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. Which is an example of an impact printer?
  2. Dot-matrix
  3. Ink-jet
  4. Laser
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. Overwriting or crossing out writing is known as:
  2. Erasure.
  3. Alteration.
  4. Obliteration.
  5. Indentation.

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 447

 

 

  1. The property exhibited by some dyes that emit infrared light when exposed to blue-green light is known as:
  2. Infrared luminescence.
  3. Thin-layer chromatography.
  4. Microspectrophotometry.
  5. Digitizing.

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 446

 

 

 

Chapter 17 True-False

 

  1. Angularity, slope, and speed are examples of individual variations.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 439

 

 

  1. Margins, spacing, crowding, insertions, alignment, spelling, punctuation, phraseology, and grammar cannot impart individual variations.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 439

 

 

  1. An adequate number of exemplars is critical for determining the outcome of a comparison.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 441

 

 

  1. A TTI is a characteristic of a fax document.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. A TTI cannot be used to distinguish between a real and a fraudulently prepared fax document.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. The two general categories of printers are impact and nonimpact printers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. Nonimpact printers include thermal and dot-matrix printers.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 444

 

 

  1. Examination of toner typically involves microscopic analysis followed by identification of the inorganic and organic components.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 445

 

 

  1. Variations in vertical and horizontal alignment cannot be used to identify a typewriter.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers.

Page number: 445

 

 

  1. Infrared luminescence can reveal writing that has been erased.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 446

 

 

  1. Indented writings are not readable under any typical examinations.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 448

 

 

  1. Two analytical techniques used to analyze writing inks are microspectrophotometry and thin-layer chromatography.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.

Page number: 449

 

 

  1. The most common features associated with a paper examination are general appearance, color, weight, and watermarks.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 452

 

 

  1. When comparing sample writing to a suspect document, the age difference between the documents should be no more than </P> </INST>six to twelve months.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List some important guidelines for collecting known writings for comparison to a questioned document.

Page number: 442

 

 

  1. No two specimens of writing prepared by one person are ever identical in every detail.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Know what common individual characteristics are associated with handwriting.

Page number: 438

 

 

 

Chapter 17 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. A(n) _____ document is any object that contains handwritten or typewritten markings whose source or authenticity is in doubt<BOLD>.

 

 

 

  1. _____ are authentic samples of an individual’s writing used for comparison to suspect handwriting samples.

 

 

 

 

  1. Transitory defect marks originating from random debris on the glass platen are examples of points of comparison produced by a _____.

 

 

 

  1. Investigators can use a TTI to determine the model of _____ machine that produced the document.

 

 

 

  1. _____ printers include thermal and dot-matrix printers.

 

 

 

  1. _____ printers include inkjet and laser printers.

 

 

 

  1. _____ luminescence can be used to detect alterations to a document made with ink differing from the original and can also reveal writing that has been erased.

 

 

 

  1. Applying an electrostatic charge to the surface of a polymer film that has been placed in contact with a questioned document can be used to read _____ writing.

 

 

 

  1. Two analytical techniques used to analyze writing inks are microspectrophotometry and _____ chromatography.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 17 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Charred document a. Impressions left on paper positioned under a piece of paper that has been written on
2. Erasure b. A property exhibited by some dyes that emit infrared light when exposed to blue-green light
3. Exemplar c. The removal of writing, typewriting, or printing from a document, normally accomplished by either chemical means or an abrasive instrument
4. Indented writings d. Any document about which some issue has been raised or that is the subject of an investigation
5. Infrared luminescence e. Blotting out or smearing over writing or printing to make the original unreadable
6. Natural variations f. Any document that has become darkened and brittle through exposure to fire or excessive heat
7. Obliteration g. Normal deviations found between repeated specimens of an individual’s handwriting
8. Questioned document h. An authentic sample used for comparison purposes, such as handwriting
9.  TTI i.  The process by which the image is stored in memory
10. Digitizing j. A header that fax machines print

 

 

 

 

Chapter 17 Essay

 

  1. Describe two situations in which a document examiner may be prevented from coming to a positive conclusion about a questioned document.

 

 

 

  1. What are natural variations? How can they be useful for detecting forgeries?

 

 

 

  1. Name five important characteristics of a printer, photocopier, or fax machine that a document examiner must identify when analyzing a document in a situation where the suspect machine is not available.

 

 

 

</P></Q>

Chapter 17 Critical Thinking

 

  1. A warranted search of a victim’s apartment yields three pages of exemplar handwriting samples written on ruled notebook paper with blue ballpoint pen. The investigators would like to compare the handwriting on these exemplars to a potential suicide note found with the dead victim written on unruled paper in pencil. Based on this information, which characteristics of the handwriting can be used to compare the exemplar documents and questioned document? Which characteristics cannot be used, and why?

 

 

 

  1. A threatening letter is received by a company CEO via fax. What characteristics can be examined to gain information about the sending machine, the sending individual, and fraudulent source information?

 

 

 

  1. A small piece of paper from a hotel notepad is found in the pocket of a potential “hit man” as he attempted to kill his “mark.” The paper shows writing in various pen colors, some of which is obliterated and some of which was erased. The top corner of the paper also appears to possess intended writing. Discuss the methods investigators should employ to visualize the writing if possible.

 

</P></Q>

 

 

 

Chapter 18

 

Computer Forensics

 

Chapter 18 Multiple Choice

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a hardware device?
  2. The monitor
  3. The hard disk drive
  4. The mouse
  5. The operating system

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of software?
  2. Linux
  3. Firefox
  4. Excel
  5. Random Access Memory

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

  1. A motherboard:
  2. Is the main circuit board within a computer.
  3. Has a socket to accept RAM.
  4. Connects to every device used by the system.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 457

 

 

  1. The term “bit” is short for:
  2. Tidbit.
  3. Byte.
  4. Binary digit.
  5. Database.

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. The primary form of data storage within a personal computer is:
  2. The CD-ROM.
  3. The hard disk drive.
  4. A zip drive.
  5. The recycle bin.

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 459

 

 

  1. A Network Interface Card (NIC) enables a personal computer to communicate with other computers via:
  2. A wired connection.
  3. A wireless connection.
  4. A satellite connection.
  5. a and b

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 460

 

 

  1. The first thing a crime scene investigator should do when encountering computer forensic evidence is:
  2. Unplug every device from the CPU to preserve the hard disk drive.
  3. Procure a warrant to search.
  4. Remove the system to the laboratory for processing.
  5. Document the scene.

 

Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene.

Page number: 462

 

 

  1. The ultimate goal of obtaining an image of a hard disk drive is to:
  2. Locate as much incriminating information as possible.
  3. Preserve the photographs and video stored on the drive.
  4. Give priority to the text files on the drive.
  5. Obtain information without altering the drive in any way.

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 465

 

 

  1. One of the most common places to begin to look for evidential data is in:
  2. The spreadsheet files.
  3. A photograph editing program.
  4. A CAD package.
  5. The word processing or text-based document files.

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 466

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the best definition of latent data?
  2. Anything readily available to the user, also known as visible data
  3. Data that are hidden from view
  4. An automatically saved copy of a file that was recently modified
  5. Data which are typically of little use to forensic investigators

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 468

 

 

  1. Once a file is deleted by a user, it:
  2. Is obliterated from the system and cannot be recovered.
  3. Is retained until the disk space it occupies is allocated for another use.
  4. May be identified using forensic image acquisition software.
  5. b and c

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 470

 

 

  1. Evidentiary data may be recovered from which of the following?
  2. Slack space on the HDD
  3. Unallocated space on the HDD
  4. RAM swap files
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 467

 

 

  1. One gigabyte can be expressed as:
  2. 1,000 bytes.
  3. 1,000 megabytes (MB).
  4. 1,000 kilobytes (KB).
  5. 8,000 bits.

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. A software algorithm used to create a “fingerprint” of a file or an entire HDD is called:
  2. MD5.
  3. ROM.
  4. RAM.
  5. MAC OS.

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 465

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT associated with the partitioning of a HDD?
  2. Quadrant
  3. Sector
  4. Track
  5. Cluster

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. A cluster is a group of _____ in multiples of _____.
  2. Partitions, two
  3. Disks, four
  4. Cylinders, three
  5. Sectors, two

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. What keeps track of the location of files and folders on the HDD?
  2. The search engine
  3. The HDD itself
  4. The CPU
  5. The FAT

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 471

 

 

  1. When is it necessary to make a “fingerprint” of a HDD?
  2. In most cases
  3. Only sometimes
  4. Before and after imaging its contents
  5. Rarely

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 465

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT classified as software?
  2. Operating systems
  3. Word processors
  4. Web browsers
  5. Floppy discs

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

  1. The boot (start-up) process for a computer is controlled by:
  2. The hard disk drive.
  3. ROM.
  4. RAM.
  5. USB thumb drives.

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. The complex of wires located on the motherboard which serves to carry data from one hardware device to another is:
  2. RAM.
  3. ROM.
  4. System bus.
  5. Central processing unit.

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. Sectors are typically how many bytes in size?
  2. 126 bytes
  3. 256 bytes
  4. 512 bytes
  5. 1024 bytes

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. One should not search for “visible” data in:
  2. Swap files.
  3. Temporary files.
  4. Unallocated space.
  5. Windows.

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 466

 

 

  1. One should not look for “latent” data in:
  2. RAM slack.
  3. File slack.
  4. Unallocated space.
  5. Temporary files.

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 468

 

 

  1. Hard drive partitions are typically divided into:
  2. Sectors.
  3. Clusters.
  4. Tracks.
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. URL stands for:
  2. Uniform Replacement Listing.
  3. Unlimited Real-time Link.
  4. Uniform Resource Locator.
  5. User-Resource Link.

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. Most web browsers use a(n) _____ to expedite and streamline browsing.
  2. Area network
  3. Cable modem
  4. Domain
  5. Caching system

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. Which of the following is/are potential sources for forensic evidence on a suspect’s personal computer?
  2. Internet “cookies”
  3. Internet history
  4. Cache
  5. All of the above

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. Unauthorized intrusion into a computer is called:
  2. Crashing.
  3. Whacking.
  4. Hacking.
  5. Spamming.

 

Objective: List and describe three locations where investigators may pinpoint the origin of a hacker.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. Which source will NOT be useful to investigators seeking to determine a user’s Internet historyz?
  2. Cookies
  3. Cache
  4. Favorite sites
  5. Slack files

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. Files containing chat and instant messaging are most likely stored in:
  2. Swap files.
  3. RAM.
  4. ROM.
  5. Slack files.

 

Objective: Describe how e-mails, chat, and instant messages on the Internet can be traced and recovered.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. Which of the following carries data from one hardware device to another?

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a. </INST>System bus</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>Central processing unit (CPU)</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Random-access memory (RAM)</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. </INST>Network interface card (NIC)

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. In which of the following places would a computer forensic investigator look for latent data?</P>

<LL><ITEM><P><INST>a. </INST>RAM slack</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>b. </INST>File slack</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>c. </INST>Unallocated space</P></ITEM>

<ITEM><P><INST>d. All of the above</INST>

</P></ITEM></LL></Q>

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 468

 

 

  1. Text messaging is also known as:
  2. SMS.
  3. MMS.
  4. GPS.
  5. RAM.

 

Objective: Describe services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. The best way to handle a mobile device and preserve data is:
  2. Turn the mobile device off.
  3. Leave the mobile device on.
  4. Leave the mobile device on, but place it in a Faraday shield.
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 478

 

 

  1. Which of the following are NOT considered to be classified as software?
  2. Operating systems
  3. Word processors
  4. Web browsers
  5. Floppy disks

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of RAM?
  2. SSIM
  3. DDIM
  4. SD
  5. DAB

 

Objective: Understand the difference between read-only memory and random-access memory.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. The most commonly used feature of the Internet is:
  2. E-mail.
  3. Academic research.
  4. Online shopping.
  5. Long-distance phone service.

 

Objective: Describe how e-mails, chat, and instant messages on the Internet can be traced and recovered.

Page number: 475

 

 

  1. A directory or index cataloging the content of the Internet is called:
  2. The World Wide Web.
  3. A search engine.
  4. A web browser.
  5. An IPO.

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 471

 

 

  1. If a file system defines a cluster as six sectors, how many bytes of information can be stored on each cluster?
  2. 24,576
  3. 512
  4. 3,072
  5. 307.2

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. Which of the following actions taken at the crime scene involving a computer are incorrect?
  2. Upon arrival, sketching the overall layout as well as photographing it
  3. Photographing any running monitors
  4. Removing the plug from the back of the computer, not from the wall
  5. None of the above

 

Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene.

Page number: 462

 

 

  1. The two types of slack space are _____ slack and _____ slack.
  2. File; RAM
  3. RAM; ROM
  4. Cluster; file
  5. IP; TTI

 

Objective: Understand the difference between read-only memory and random-access memory.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is placed on a hard disk drive by a website to track certain information about its visitors.
  2. Phish
  3. IP address
  4. E-mail
  5. Cookie

 

Objective: Describe how e-mails, chat, and instant messages on the Internet can be traced and recovered.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. A device that permits only requested traffic to enter a computer system is known as a(n):
  2. Central processing unit (CPU).
  3. Firewall.
  4. Cookie.
  5. Internet cache.

 

Objective: List and describe three locations where investigators may pinpoint the origin of a hacker.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. Which type of data are readily available to a computer user?
  2. Swap
  3. Latent
  4. Visible
  5. Allocated

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 466

 

 

  1. The _____ is a complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another.
  2. Motherboard
  3. Central processing unit (CPU)
  4. Hard disk drive
  5. Operating system

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 457

 

 

  1. The definition of software is:
  2. Storage programs used to start the boot process.
  3. A set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task.
  4. A complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another.
  5. A primary component of storage in the personal computer.

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

 

Chapter 18 True-False

 

  1. Software comprises the physical components of the computer.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 456

 

 

  1. The central processing unit is the main system board of a computer that delivers power, data, and instructions to the computer’s components.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. The central processing unit, or CPU, is the part of the computer that actually computes.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. ROM stores software programs and instructions while the computer is turned on.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between read-only memory and random access memory.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. RAM is not permanent; its contents are lost forever once power is taken away from the computer.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between read-only memory and random access memory.

Page number: 458

 

 

  1. The primary storage device on most computers is the hard disk drive (HDD).
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 460

 

 

  1. Before an OS can be formatted, it must write to a HDD.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe how a hard disk drive is partitioned.

Page number: 461

 

 

  1. A cluster is the smallest unit of data that a hard drive can address.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. A bit, or a binary digit, is the smallest unit of information on a computer.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. A FAT tracks the location of files and folders on the hard disk drive.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. The primary goal in obtaining data from a HDD is to do so without altering even one bit of data.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 465

 

 

  1. Visible data exists in areas of the drive that are, generally speaking, unknown and inaccessible to most end users.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 466

 

 

  1. The two main types of evidentiary computer data are visible data and latent data.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 479

 

 

  1. A computer forensic investigator would most likely look for latent data in temporary files.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Understand the difference between and location of visible and latent data.

Page number: 468

 

 

  1. Swap space is empty space on a hard disk drive (HDD) created because of the way the HDD stores files.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List and describe the hardware and software components of a computer.

Page number: 467

 

 

  1. A domain manages traffic between computers on a network.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 476

 

 

  1. An IP address typically takes the form ###.###.###.###, in which ### can be any number from 0 to 255.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 474

 

 

  1. Three places where a forensic computer examiner might look to determine what websites a computer user has visited recently are the Internet cache, cookies, and the Internet history.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated.

Page number: 472

 

 

  1. An IP address may lead to the identity of the person who was using a particular computer to access the Internet.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: List the areas of the computer that will be examined to retrieve forensic data.

Page number: 474

 

 

  1. Extracting data from a mobile device is more complicated than extracting data from a computer.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. MMS, or Multimedia Message Service, is text messaging with attachments.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. The call history for a mobile device is generally not able to be used in an investigation.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. Often mobile devices contain the same Internet artifacts as a computer, such as cookies and browser history.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. Mobile devices are often shut off to avoid the loss of data.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

  1. The operating systems of mobile devices are usually the same.
  2. True
  3. False

 

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have.

Page number: 477

 

 

 

Chapter 18 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. _____ comprises the physical components of the computer.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is a set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task.

 

 

 

 

  1. The _____ is the main chip within the computer.

 

 

 

  1. _____ consists of programs that are used to start the computer’s boot process.

 

 

 

  1. The computer’s _____ system is the bridge between the human user and the computer’s electronic components.

 

 

 

  1. Clusters are groups of _____.

 

 

 

 

  1. A Message Digest 5 (MD5)/Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) takes a _____ of a hard disk drive (HDD) before and after forensic imaging.

 

 

 

 

  1. Investigators would want to copy blank or unused portions of the HDD to preserve _____data.

 

 

 

  1. _____ data includes all information that the operating system is presently aware of, and thus is readily accessible to the user.

 

 

 

  1. _____ space is a file or defined space on the HDD to which data is written to free RAM for applications that are in use.

 

 

 

  1. _____ space is empty space on a hard disk drive (HDD) created because of the way the HDD stores files.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ address is a unique address given to every computer connected to the Internet.

 

 

 

  1. Chat and instant messages typically are stored in _____.

 

 

 

  1. _____ is a slang term for an unauthorized computer or network intrusion.

 

 

 

  1. A(n) _____ is a device that permits only requested traffic to enter a computer system.

 

 

 

  1. The travel history of a suspect can be documented using _____ and map data from a mobile device.

 

 

 

  1. Extraction of data from a mobile device can be done on a physical level and a(n) _____ level.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 18 Matching

 

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Central processing unit (CPU) a. The main system board of a computer (and many other electronic devices) that delivers power, data, and instructions to the computer’s components
2. Cluster b. Typically the main storage location within the computer, consisting of magnetic platters contained in a case
3. Hard disk drive (HDD) c. Portions of visited Web pages placed on the local hard disk drive to facilitate quicker retrieval once revisited
4. Latent data d. A set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task
5. Motherboard e. All data that the operating system is presently aware of, and thus is readily accessible to the user
6. Sector f. The main chip within the computer; also referred to as the brain of the computer. This microprocessor chip handles most of the operations (code and instructions) of the computer.
7. Software g. Hardware or software designed to protect against intrusions into a computer network
8. Visible data h. A standard method by which Internet sites are addressed
9. Cookies i. Areas of files and disks that are typically not apparent to the computer user (and often not to the operating system), but contain data nonetheless
10. Firewall j. Files placed on a computer from a visited website; they are used to track visits and usage of that site
11. Internet cache k. A group of sectors in multiples of two; typically the minimum space allocated to a file
12. Uniform resource locater (URL) l. The smallest unit of data addressable by a hard disk drive, generally consisting of 512 bytes

 

 

 

Chapter 18 Essay

 

  1. What aspects of a computer should be photographed close-up at an electronic crime scene?

 

 

 

  1. Name two situations in which an investigator would not immediately unplug a computer at an electronic crime scene.

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. What is fragmentation? What effect does fragmentation have on a hard disk drive (HDD)?

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. What is the purpose of an Internet cache?

 

 

 

  1. What is hacking? Who most commonly engages in hacking, and for what purpose?

 

</P></Q>

 

 

Chapter 18 Critical Thinking

 

  1. What type of memory stores software programs and instructions while the computer is turned on? What special considerations must be taken to preserve this type of memory on a computer at a crime scene?

 

 

 

  1. An investigator would like to take a forensic “image” of a suspect’s HDD. What is the primary goal in obtaining data from a HDD? What tools can the investigator use to achieve this goal?

 

</P></Q>

 

  1. List four places where a forensic computer examiner might look to determine what websites a computer user has visited recently. What kind of leads could this information provide to the investigator?

 

 

 

 

Chapter 19

 

Mobile Forensics

 

Chapter 19 Multiple Choice

  1. What does 1G consist of?
  2. Analog networks
  3. Digital networks
  4. Broadband networks
  5. Native IP networks

 

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.

Page number: 484

 

 

  1. What does 2G consist of?
    Analog networks
    b. Digital networks
    c. Broadband networks
    d. Native IP networks

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. What does 3G consist of?
    Analog networks
    b. Digital networks
    c. Broadband networks
    d. Native IP networks

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. What does 4G consist of?
    Analog networks
    b. Digital networks
    c. Broadband networks
    d. Native IP networks

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. In 2001, mobile Broadband networks (3G) arrived on the scene in what country?
    North Korea
    b. China
    c. Japan
    d. India

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 485

  1. The Smartphone was developed under which technology?
    Digital networks
    b. Broadband networks
    c. Native IP networks
    d. Analog networks

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 485

 

  1. Since the _____, the concepts of handoff and frequency reuse allowed users to move between cells without dropping calls.
    1960s
    b. 1970s
    c. 1980s
    d. 1990s

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. What type of network devices started using operating systems?
    1G
    b. 2G
    c. 3G
    d. 4G

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 485

  1. Which is/are the most popular operating system(s) for mobile devices?
    Apple iOS
    b. Google Android
    c. Microsoft Windows Phone OS
    d. All the above

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 485

  1. Feature phones have divergent – based upon the phone – feature sets. These core features usually are:
    Phone and text
    b. E-mail and camera
    c. Applications and media
    d. a and b

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 492

  1. Working on what type of surface increases the danger of static electricity?
    Metal tables
    b. Hardwood floors
    c. Carpet
    d. Lab desk

Objective: Describe the procedure for preserving evidence on a mobile device.
Page number: 487

  1. It may not be possible to recover deleted file items from a mobile device, such as:
    E-mails
    b. Text messages
    c. Photos
    d. All the above

Objective: Describe the procedure for preserving evidence on a mobile device.
Page number: 485

  1. How many types of chains of evidence are there?
    1
    b. 2
    c. 4
    d. 5

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices, including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 491

  1. When working on electronic devices, what should you use to dissipate any static charge that might damage electronic chips?
  2. Rubber-soled shoes
    b. Prevention of physical contact
    c. Gloves
    d. Grounded anti-static wristband

Objective: Describe the procedure for preserving evidence on a mobile device.
Page number: 487

  1. What does SIM stand for?
  2. Subscriber Identity Module
    b. Source Information Memory
    c. Simple Identification Mount
    d. Subscriber Identification Memory

 

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 488

  1. What would an investigator do the SIM card to retain a perfect copy for evidentiary purposes?
  2. Take a picture
    b. Upload to a PC
    c. Clone the SIM
    d. Properly store in evidence

Objective: Describe the procedure for preserving evidence on a mobile device.
Page number: 488

  1. What does the ICCID contain?
  2. IIN (issuer identification number)
    b. UPC (universal purchase code number)
    c. PID (phone identification number)
    d. IP address

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices, including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 488

  1. Because a mobile device is similar a computer and transmits wireless signals, what laws does an investigator need to follow?
  2. Radio laws
    b. First Amendment rights
    c. Computer laws
    d. a and c

Objective: Describe the procedure for seizing mobile devices.
Page number: 489

  1. What feature on a mobile device can help an investigator establish a timeline?
  2. GPS
    b. NFC
    c. Android Beam
    d. Bluetooth

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 486

  1. What is another name for a temporal chain of events?
  2. Cause and effect
    b. A timeline
    c. Crime assessment
    d. Crime log

Objective: Describe the procedure for seizing mobile devices.
Page number: 491

 

Chapter 19 True/False

 

  1. Mobile devices began as an outgrowth of ship-to-shore radios in World War I.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Identify the types of networks used to connect mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. 2G appeared in the 1990s using two standards: GSM & CDMA.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 484

  1. Analog phones have divergent feature sets. The core features usually were phone, e-mail, text, and camera.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 484

  1. 2G and 3G phones are closest in architecture and design to a PC.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different file systems typical in a mobile device.
Page number: 486

  1. Just because an app is written for Apple’s iOS operating system does not mean that it runs equally well or behaves the same on the iPad and iPhone.
  2. True
    b. False

 

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 486

  1. From a forensic perspective it is a toss-up as to how much data you may be able to extract from a 2G device.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe techniques that may be used to extract data from older mobile devices.
Page number: 485

  1. It may not be possible to recover deleted file items from a mobile device such as e-mails, texts, and photos.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 485

  1. Physical extraction is a snapshot of the file system showing what the file system wants you to see.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Differentiate between logical and physical forensic images of mobile devices.
Page number: 487

  1. Logical extractions are useful only when the physical option is not available because of the device itself.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Differentiate between logical and physical forensic images of mobile devices.
Page number: 487

  1. All mobile devices have architecture.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different file systems typical in a mobile device.
Page number: 486

  1. SD cards and SIM cards perform the same way.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 488

  1. Each SIM card has an international mobile subscriber identity number that associates the phone with the subscriber’s mobile network.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 488

  1. All mobile devices use SIM cards.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 488

  1. Integrated circuit Identification (ICCID) number is located on each SIM.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices.
Page number: 488

  1. Even though some mobile devices are really small computers with computer-like operating systems, they can usually be examined using typical computer forensic tools.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 486

  1. By cloning the SIM card, the investigator retains a perfect copy for evidentiary purposes.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the procedure for seizing mobile devices.
Page number: 489

  1. Blackberry is the only mobile device that can be recovered directly.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 489

  1. One interesting aspect of mobile device forensics is geolocation. Some devices and many apps report out the geographical location of the device. That can make it much easier to track the owner’s movements.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices, including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 486

  1. A digital forensic investigation depends upon timelines for its success. When overlaid on the timelines of a physical crime, the timelines from mobile devices and computers provide an excellent yardstick by which to measure the play of events surrounding the crime itself.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices, including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 492

  1. Causal chains of evidence describe the events of a crime in terms of cause and effect.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 491

  1. Some tools, such as Cellebrite’s UFED Touch, are quite clear about which devices support physical extraction.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Identify the types of forensic tools used to examine mobile devices.
Page number: 487

  1. You can’t use a 1G phone to track a 15-year-old crime.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe techniques that may be used to extract data from older mobile devices.
Page number: 485

  1. When a mobile device is set to use WiFi, it will recognize any WiFi network in its range but may not be able to join the network because of the security settings on the WiFi access point—the mobile device will see it and note that it exists. When that happens, the device takes note of the network and logs it.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices, including cell tower location evidence.
Page number: 492

  1. Users of mobile devices need to manually perform various forms of housekeeping from small simple tasks like doing routine checks of address books and contacts to larger tasks such as connecting to local WiFi connections, formatting storage, clearing out device memory, or forcing background programs to close.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe different storage methods found in mobile devices
Page number: 492

  1. The amount of information we can get from a mobile device varies greatly with the device in question.
  2. True
    b. False

Objective: Describe the different types of operating systems used in mobile devices and their impact upon evidence collection and analysis.
Page number: 492

 

Chapter 19 Fill in the Blank

 

  1. Since the 1960s, the concepts of handoff and frequency reuse allowed users to move between ______ without dropping a call.
  2. In many ways mobile device forensics is similar to ______ forensics.
  3. When _____ was launched in Japan in 2001, moving photos over the network, streaming video and television, video chat, and other advanced services now could be supported.
  4. ______ phones have divergent (based upon the phone) feature sets. The core features usually were phone, e-mail, text, and camera.
  5. 3G and 4G mobile devices have the ability to download and install ______, the same as a PC or MAC.
  6. ______ devices were the first to use an operating system.
  7. When working with mobile devices, ______ searching is probably the most useful source of information available to the investigator.
  8. ______ forensic images are bit-by-bit copies of the file system, including deleted data.
  9. Each SIM has an international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) number that associates the phone with the subscriber’s mobile _______.
  10. It often is desirable to _______ the SIM in much the same way one would take a physical image of the mobile device or a computer.
  11. ________ crime assessment is a technique that can be used when faced with a physical crime (murder, rape, robbery, etc.) and there is a digital element to it—a computer, cell phone, or other mobile device.
  12. Tools such as ______ and MPE+ greatly simplify mobile forensic work.
  13. When a mobile device is set to use WiFi, it will recognize any WiFi network in its range may not be able to join the network because of the security settings on the WiFi ______ point, but the mobile device will see it and note that it exists. When that happens, the device takes note of the network and logs it.

 

Chapter 19 Matching

Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once.

1. Analog a. A software mechanism that defines the way files are named, stored, organized, and accessed
2. Architecture b. A communication channel that can provide higher-speed data communication than a standard telephone circuit
3. Broadband c. A term describing a wireless Local Area Network
4. CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) d. A system for determining position by comparing radio signals from several satellites
5. File system e. A set of standards for second-generation cellular networks
6. Geolocation f. The traditional method of modulating radio signals so that they can carry information
7. GPS (Global Positioning System) g. A custom-designed program that controls the components of mobile devices and facilitates how they function.
8. GSM (Global System for Mobile Communication) h. A duplicate of data located on a mobile device
9. Logical extraction i. A spread spectrum technology for cellular networks
10. Operating system j. A snapshot of the file system of a mobile device
11. Physical extraction k. The basic components of a mobile device
12. SIM card l. Assessment of the actual geographical location of a mobile device
13. SD card m. The smart card that is inserted into a mobile device that identifies the user account to the network, handles authentication, and provides storage for basic user data and network information
14. SMS (Short Message Service) n. A cellular network facility that allows users to send and receive text messages
15. WiFi o. A storage expansion card for a mobile device

 

 

 

 

Chapter 19 Essay


  1. What value can be gleaned from each generation of mobile device (1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G)? What are their strengths and weaknesses?
  2. When should an examiner do a physical examination versus a logical examination, or both?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the two different types of chain of evidence and how they can be used in the investigative process.

 

 

Chapter 19 Critical Thinking

 

  1. Describe the process of using each generation of mobile device to create a timeline and correlate events on the device.

 

 

 

  1. If there is a GPS capability on a smartphone, how might the investigator use it in the investigation?