Sample Chapter



 Environment And You 2nd Edition by Christensen – 
Test Bank







MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)            The 1987 UN Commission on Sustainability first introduced the concept of ________ as a necessary              1)

focus for maintaining sustainability.

  1. A) cultural services
  2. B) renewable energy
  3. C) human well-being
  4. D) environmental sustainability
  5. E) human population growth

2)            The current total world population has just passed ________.                                  2)

  1. A) 6 billion B) 5 billion             C) 9 billion             D) 8 billion             E) 7 billion

3)            The law of energy and mass conservation states that ________.                                              3)

  1. A) energy can be created and matter destroyed
  2. B) energy cannot be destroyed but matter can be created
  3. C) energy and matter cannot be created or destroyed
  4. D) both energy and matter can be created and destroyed

4)            Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?                                             4)

  1. A) sunlight
  2. B) bacteria
  3. C) temperature
  4. D) rainfall
  5. E) carbon and nitrogen levels

5)            An ecosystem is best defined as ________.                                                  5)


  1. A) all the organisms and their physical and chemical environment within a specific area where energy and matter influence the distribution and abundance of organisms present
  2. B) a regional grouping of plants, animals, and abiotic factors
  3. C) the total population of a specific kind of plant, animal, or microbe and all members of which do or potentially can interbreed and produce young
  4. D) abiotic factors affecting a grouping or plants, animals, and organisms trying to survive in a given area
  5. E) a grouping of plants and animals that interacts with one another in a way that causes the grouping to die


6) Which of the following is not a principle of Ecosystem function?          6)


  1. A) Ecosystems have distinct boundaries that are influenced by the abiotic factors in the ecosystem.
  2. B) Ecosystems are always open to gains and losses of matter and energy.
  3. C) Ecosystem’s processes are self-regulated by interactions among their living and nonliving components.
  4. D) Matter and energy are neither created nor destroyed.
  5. E) Ecosystem change is inevitable and essential.









7) A hypothesis can best be described as ________.  7)


  1. A) an explanation that has been tested many times
  2. B) the science of asking questions and finding concrete answers
  3. C) a proven fact
  4. D) a comparison between groups with an explanation for differences
  5. E) a proposed explanation that can be tested


8)            All the organisms and their physical and chemical environment within a specific area best describe                8)


  1. A) populations
  2. B) ecosystems
  3. C) ecological communities
  4. D) the biosphere
  5. E) biomes

9)            Sustainable use of resources requires ________.        9)


  1. A) an understanding of rate of resource renewal and ability to manage rate of use
  2. B) knowledge of all nonrenewable resources
  3. C) a thorough understanding of the scientific method
  4. D) knowledge of all finite resource locations
  5. E) an understanding of ecosystem models


10) The ecosystem boundary of a drainage basin can be defined by ________.   10)


  1. A) mountains, hills, and valleys that determine where the water flows
  2. B) the rivers that divide the basins between counties, cities, and states
  3. C) local legislative decisions designed to clarify jurisdiction of the ecosystem
  4. D) the amount of water flowing into the basin from a mountain
  5. E) the streams that flow into the basin


11)          A key factor in the ability of ecosystems to provide ecosystem services is ________.         11)

  1. A) the presence of essential abiotic factors
  2. B) the maintenance of a high level of diversity of species
  3. C) the presence of both renewable and nonrenewable resources
  4. D) a steady rate of growth of the ecosystem
  5. E) a sustainable energy cycle

12)          What is one barrier that makes it difficult for scientists to forecast environmental changes?              12)


  1. A) the diversity of views based on cultural and religious differences
  2. B) simplicity of ecosystems
  3. C) unpredictable behavior of ecosystems that cause unpredicted environmental changes
  4. D) the certainties of ecosystem function that humans ignore
  5. E) environmental conflict that leads to ecosystem sustainability


13) At virtually any level of use, nonrenewable resources can be ________.        13)


  1. A) replenished once depleted
  2. B) exhausted or depleted
  3. C) recycled or reused
  4. D) converted to nonmetallic minerals
  5. E) converted to renewable ones








14)          In human-dominated ecosystems, which of the following features is often lacking?              14)

  1. A) drought resistant regulation
  2. B) the presence of sufficient human infrastructure
  3. C) the presence of positive feedback systems
  4. D) homeostatic regulation
  5. E) an ecosystem’s ability to grow sufficient food

15)          Sustainable companies such as DIRTT measure success by the triple bottom line, which includes      15)

________, people, and profit.

  1. A) planet
  2. B) prosperity
  3. C) petroleum
  4. D) popularity
  5. E) professionalism

16)          Environmental science is best described as ________.               16)


  1. A) focusing on renewable resource sustainability
  2. B) studying ecosystem sustainability and destruction
  3. C) focusing on organism relationships within an ecosystem
  4. D) studying all aspects of an environment
  5. E) studying the physical and chemical aspects of an environment


17) Negative feedback processes tend to function within ecosystems to ________.            17)


  1. A) cause further ecological destruction.
  2. B) stabilize the ecosystem
  3. C) cause ecological relationships to disintegrate
  4. D) reinforce harmful changes
  5. E) cause ecological relationships to flourish


18) As human population and demands for resources have changed, our definition of sustainability has 18) also changed. One hundred and fifty years ago, human resource use was largely determined by




  1. A) the necessity to avoid human conflict
  2. B) the understanding of resource supply
  3. C) consideration of human justice
  4. D) the need for balancing multiuses/demands for a resource
  5. E) human needs or desires


19) Ecosystems are connected by ________.               19)


  1. A) the flow of energy and matter through the ecosystem
  2. B) individual species competing for space with other species in the ecosystem
  3. C) the essential flow of water through the ecosystem
  4. D) energy cycling and nutrient flow
  5. E) the movement of pollutants between ecosystems















20) Throughout any introductory examination of ecosystems and environmental sustainability, the 20)

importance of human population numbers is cited. Currently, the world and U.S. populations are

closest to ________.

  1. A) 9 billion; 400 million
  2. B) 7 billion; 500 million
  3. C) 7 billion; 200 million
  4. D) 3.5 billion; 300 million
  5. E) 7 billion; 300 million

21) What ecosystem services from U.S. national forests had the greatest demands placed on them 21)

following World War II and the country’s rapid population growth?

  1. A) grazing and agriculture
  2. B) soil formation and agriculture
  3. C) soil formation and wilderness protection
  4. D) food, fiber, and plant growth
  5. E) grazing, recreation, and timber resources

22) What makes up an ecosystem?  22)


  1. A) living and nonliving parts and the processes that disconnect them
  2. B) energy and matter and the organisms functioning apart
  3. C) living and nonliving parts and energy movement created by the sun
  4. D) living and nonliving parts and the processes that connect them
  5. E) energy and matter and the organisms competing for resources in the ecosystem


23)          Which of the following is not considered biota?                           23)

  1. A) plants B) fungi  C) bacteria             D) water E) animals

24)          Resources are ________.                                  24)


  1. A) finite
  2. B) infinite
  3. C) available in sufficient quantities to sustain all of our futures
  4. D) available in ample quantities
  5. E) used at a slow rate so that they will last forever


25) What is required to be considered sustainable use of resources?     25)


  1. A) understanding that resources are infinite
  2. B) understanding the rate of exhaustion and the ability to manage the rate of the use
  3. C) understanding ecosystem function in relation to resource use
  4. D) understanding the rate of renewal and the ability to manage the rate of the use
  5. E) understanding that resources are finite






































26)          What are examples of provisioning ecosystem services?            26)

  1. A) food, water, and fiber
  2. B) pollination and chlorophyll
  3. C) aesthetic beauty and recreation
  4. D) climate, water flow, and disease
  5. E) soil formation and nutrient cycles

27)          Regulating ecosystem services are ways that ecosystems control important conditions and/or          27)

processes such as ________.

  1. A) climate, water flow, and disease
  2. B) pollination and chlorophyll
  3. C) food, water, and fiber
  4. D) aesthetic beauty and recreation
  5. E) soil formation and nutrient cycles

28)          A cultural ecosystem service might be ________.       28)


  1. A) the beauty or inspiration provided by a forest
  2. B) good health access for populations in a community
  3. C) constructing a “green” building
  4. D) ensuring flow of traffic in and out of a city
  5. E) providing food to the malnourished
























29) What is the end product of the scientific method for a particular question?   29)























































  1. A) hypothesis construction
  2. B) drawing conclusions
  3. C) peer review and publication


  1. D) hypothesis testing
  2. E) scientific observations












SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


30) Match each term with the correct description.      30)



  1. Ecosystem services
  2. Provisioning services III. Regulating services IV. Cultural services
  3. Supporting services


  1. Basic ecosystem processes that are needed to maintain other services
  2. The multitude of resources that ecosystems supply to humans
  3. Food, water, and air we breathe
  4. Spiritual and recreational benefits that an ecosystem provides
  5. Ecosystem control of climate, flows of water, and absorption of pollutants


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying question(s).


Sustainable management requires us to examine the “big picture” of an ecosystem’s context, even though we may not understand every piece and process in that ecosystem. Systems thinking recognizes and addresses the essential connections between the pieces of any system to be analyzed.


31)          Which of the following environmental examples represents systems thinking?     31)

  1. A) undertaking a long-term study of Lake Michigan ecology
  2. B) studying the behavior of a global invasive species
  3. C) emission control devices on California automobiles
  4. D) planting grass for cattle to feed on in desert regions
  5. E) examining the beetle life cycle that is posing a threat to local forests

32)          Ecosystem services are often classified into four different categories that include provisioning        32)

services (supplying us with food, air, and water), as well as ________.

  1. A) aesthetic, cultural, and sustainable services


  1. B) aesthetic, spiritual, and recreational services.
  2. C) regulating, sustainable, and homeostatic services
  3. D) regulating, cultural, and supporting services
  4. E) aesthetic, ecological, and regulating services


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


33)          Assuming that a city wishes to manage its water supply in a sustainable manner, describe/explain two specific factors that must be considered in order to accomplish this.


34)          In the course of one day, a human experiences several dozen ecosystem services other than the essential provisioning services supplying us with food, water, and the air we breathe. Explain three additional ecosystem services that are essential to maintaining life on Earth.















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)            Hetch Hetchy provides the residents of San Francisco with ________.   1)

  1. A) forest for recreation
  2. B) miles of biking and hiking paths
  3. C) water for drinking
  4. D) wilderness habitats
  5. E) lakes for fishing

2)            The Modern Era’s views on the relationship of humans and the environment can be described as   2)



  1. A) human impacts on ecosystems differ significantly from natural disturbances
  2. B) the obsession with material goods that broke the connection between humans and nature
  3. C) reconciliation of our activities with the inescapable laws of the natural world
  4. D) evolutionary change that described the connections between organisms and their environment
  5. E) opportunities for fewer connections between humans and nature


3)            Which of the ethical traditions best describes the building of the Hetch Hetchy Reservoir as right   3)

because it benefited a large number of people?

  1. A) consequence-based ethics
  2. B) virtue ethics
  3. C) utilitarianism
  4. D) environmental ethics
  5. E) duty-based ethics

4)            The domestication of plants and animals allowed humans to alter ecosystems for their benefits.      4)

Which of the following is an example of a human benefit that resulted from ecosystem change?


  1. A) Crop production decreased as natural habitats were replaced.
  2. B) Crop production increased as a result of more plants competing for the same land space.
  3. C) Grasslands were destroyed and predator insects were destroyed.
  4. D) Crop production increased and more people had food to eat.
  5. E) Grasslands were destroyed and replaced with forests.


5) During the 19th century, as populations grew and urban environments expanded, humans had less 5) exposure to ________.



  1. A) chemicals
  2. B) animals
  3. C) water
  4. D) natural environments
  5. E) air pollutants














6) Gifford Pinchot, first head of the U.S. Forest Service, advocated the conservationist view of nature.           6)

This view promoted ________.


  1. A) a deep ecology approach to public resource use
  2. B) resource use in a sustainable manner to provide the greatest benefit for the greatest number of people
  3. C) resource use in a sustainable manner with an ecocentric focus
  4. D) a wilderness and ecocentric approach to public resource use
  5. E) a biocentric approach to public resources


7) Natural wilderness should be protected regardless of the needs of humans is an example of the                7)

________ point of view.

  1. A) conservationist
  2. B) economist
  3. C) ecologist
  4. D) environmentalist
  5. E) preservationist

8) The animal rights movements in society evolved from ________.       8)

  1. A) virtue ethics
  2. B) anthropocentric ethics
  3. C) ecocentric ethics
  4. D) environmental ethics
  5. E) biocentric ethics

9) Rachel Carson’s book, ________, pointed out the dangers posed to the natural environments and            9)

humans by pesticides.

  1. A) Nature
  2. B) Silent Spring
  3. C) Man and Nature
  4. D) Walden
  5. E) The Population Bomb

10) DDT was originally intended to kill ________.        10)

  1. A) birds
  2. B) mosquitoes
  3. C) aphids
  4. D) plants
  5. E) corn insects

11) Environmental ethics is best defined as ________.               11)


  1. A) studying the economic value of all living things in their environment
  2. B) the extrinsic value placed on people, organisms, and objects in the environment
  3. C) studying the moral relationships of humans to the environment and the environment’s living organisms
  4. D) actions taken by humans in the environment in which they live that have impact
  5. E) studying the rightness and wrongness of human actions












12) Environmental justice seeks to ________.              12)


  1. A) ensure that legal boundaries are adhered to when environmental disputes arise
  2. B) ensure the sound management of the environment
  3. C) ensure that people are treated fairly regardless of race, gender, or economic status in the management of natural resources
  4. D) ensure that anthropocentric ethics are applied to the environment
  5. E) ensure that ecocentric ethics are applied to the environment


13) A subsistence economy is one that ________.      13)


  1. A) meets its environmental needs without accumulating wealth
  2. B) meets its environmental need by over fishing lakes and rivers
  3. C) purchases goods and services from others
  4. D) meets is environmental needs while causing ecosystem destruction
  5. E) purchases resources for immediate use


14) A subsistence farmer might ________.   14)


  1. A) buy commodities from others
  2. B) barter or trade goods they grow
  3. C) allow production and consumption of goods and services to take place in a market system
  4. D) sell goods they catch and grow
  5. E) accumulate a surplus of goods to sell for financial gain


15) The price consumers are willing to pay for a resource that may be limited depends on ________.           15)

  1. A) their perceived need for the resource
  2. B) their ability to pay more than someone else
  3. C) how much they can afford at a time the resource is limited
  4. D) their access to the resource in their community
  5. E) how much of the resource is remaining to purchase

16) When a commodity is in short supply, the cost ________.  16)

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) is lower in areas with better access
  3. C) goes up
  4. D) remains the same
  5. E) is near the cost of production

17) The difference between the cost to produce a commodity and its price in the marketplace is    17)


  1. A) economy of scale
  2. B) discount rate
  3. C) opportunity cost
  4. D) profit
  5. E) economic value

18) Cost per unit of a good or services decline as the level of production increases. This is described as        18)



  1. A) profit
  2. B) economy of scale
  3. C) economic value
  4. D) opportunity cost
  5. E) discount rate





19)          The economic value of an ecosystem service can be measured by accessing the willingness to pay 19)

for the action to ________ them.

  1. A) monitor B) recirculate        C) preserve           D) value E) conserve

20)          Which of the following issues would be addressed by a county’s land use development office when               20)

making important environmental decisions?


  1. A) building of a landfill
  2. B) building of a new gas station in the county
  3. C) managing a national park
  4. D) controlling air pollution from automobiles
  5. E) storage of nuclear wastes


21) Gross domestic product is ________.      21)


  1. A) all the resources necessary to produce the ecosystem services
  2. B) cost of services minus the economic value of enhancements or degradation to the environment
  3. C) the total economic value of goods and services produced by a country
  4. D) a measure of a country’s economic standing
  5. E) the willingness of consumers to pay for ecosystem services


22)          Most environmental policy is set by ________.            22)

  1. A) Congress
  2. B) the President
  3. C) Supreme Court rulings
  4. D) federal legislation
  5. E) state and local governments

23)          Individuals in Africa often share crop and livestock land with other families in their community.       23)

What happens to the land as a result of each family using an individual’s approach to managing it?

  1. A) It is preserved from family to family and generation to generation.
  2. B) It is protected by laws.
  3. C) It is preserved as a result of the importance of cultural heritage.
  4. D) It is managed sustainably for future farming.
  5. E) It is often overexploited.

24)          The constitutional basis for environmental justice is rooted in ________.              24)


  1. A) environmental laws and legislative regulations
  2. B) public policy and governmental ethics
  3. C) ecological valuation of the ecosystem
  4. D) equal protection for all citizens
  5. E) compensation to a land owner by the government when their property is needed for public use


25) Which of the following agencies has significant influence on international environmental policy but 25) no government representation or participation?



  1. A) The Global Environmental Facility
  2. B) The European Environment Agency
  3. C) The United Nations
  4. D) The World Trade Organization
  5. E) The World Wildlife Fund







26)          U.S. environmental law and policy are influenced by the actions of ________.     26)

  1. A) the executive branch
  2. B) the legislative branch
  3. C) the judicial branch
  4. D) all three branches of government
  5. E) only the executive and legislative branches

27)          Natural capital is defined as all of Earth’s resources that are necessary to produce ________.          27)

  1. A) a safe habitat for endangered species
  2. B) a profit
  3. C) a sustainable market
  4. D) environmental justice for all
  5. E) the ecosystem services that we depend on

28)          A grass root organization is attempting to preserve a stretch of forest that is being considered for  28)

purchase by a manufacturing plant. The organization’s main strategy is to inform the nearby


housing developments of the effect on their home values if the manufacturing plant goes versus the preserved forest. This approach is using ________.

  1. A) scare tactic valuation
  2. B) market valuation
  3. C) travel-cost valuation
  4. D) hedonic valuation
  5. E) contingent valuation










































29) Some groups state that the primate shown in this photograph has economic value for humans via            29)

ecotourism. This primate would be referred to as having ________.



















































  1. A) instrumental value
  2. B) intrinsic value
  3. C) individual value
  4. D) ecological value
  5. E) theological value































30)          What part of the policy-cycle determines who will deal with a particular issue and when? 30)

  1. A) Problem Definition
  2. B) Setting the Agenda
  3. C) Assessment
  4. D) Implementation
  5. E) Formulating Policy

31)          What part of the policy-cycle allows individuals or agencies to carry out the new activities and        31)

enforce the laws?


  1. A) Problem Definition
  2. B) Assessment
  3. C) Setting the Agenda
  4. D) Implementation
  5. E) Formulating Policy


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


32) Match each term with the correct description.      32)



  1. Virtue ethics
  2. Anthropocentric ethics III. Biocentric ethics
  3. Ecocentric ethics
  4. Duty-based ethics


  1. Rightness or wrongness of actions should be determined by a set of rules or laws.
  2. An action is right if it is motivated by virtues that include kindness, honesty, loyalty, and justice.
  3. Defines right actions in terms of outcomes for human beings
  4. Argues that the value of other living things is equal to the value of humans
  5. Places value on communities of organisms and ecosystems











MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the following questions.


The widespread use of the pesticides DDT in the environment following World War II had major environmental impacts on the ecosystem. Human exposure to this pesticide continues today despite the ban of DDT use in the United States since the early 1970s. However, DDT continues to be manufactured in the U.S. and exported to many countries worldwide.


33)          The approach to the manufacture and use of DDT worldwide is best described as ________.           33)

  1. A) focusing on deep ecological principles
  2. B) anthropocentric
  3. C) focusing on economic externalities
  4. D) biocentric
  5. E) ecocentric

34)          When analyzing the economic value of using DDT in the environment, the major criticism that         34)

environmentalists routinely cite is that ________ costs have not been fully considered.


  1. A) external
  2. B) hedonic valuation
  3. C) subsistence
  4. D) contingent valuation
  5. E) internal


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


35)          Compare economic and ecological approaches to valuation of the environment.


36)          Describe the three main environmental ethic approaches used to determine who or what has value in the Earth’s biosphere.


37)          There are often eight issues that can be debated when reflecting on environmental policy. They include:

  1. government versus individual
  2. competing public values
  3. uncertainty and action
  4. which level of government decides?
  5. which government agency has jurisdiction?
  6. protection against selfish actions
  7. the best means to an end
  8. political power relationships


Discuss at least two of the above issues, describing the challenges that each brings to developing environmental policy.


38)          When measuring the wealth of a nation, explain the difference between gross domestic product (GDP) and genuine progress indicator (GPI).










MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1)            The most essential compound needed to sustain life as we know it is ________.  1)

  1. A) ozone
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) carbohydrates
  5. E) water

2)            What is an element?                                                           2)

  1. A) a chemical that cannot be separated, but is limited in supply
  2. B) one or more molecules held together by chemicals
  3. C) a chemical that cannot be broken down or separated into other chemicals
  4. D) a chemical that can be broken down or separated into other chemicals
  5. E) two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds

3)            What is the basic subunit of elements?                                           3)

  1. A) protons B) molecules         C) neutrons           D) atoms                E) electrons

4)            Molecules are ________.                                  4)


  1. A) positively charged particles
  2. B) a chemical that cannot be broken or separated
  3. C) two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds
  4. D) atoms of an element
  5. E) basic subunits of elements


5)            Which is the most important molecule in the ecosystem?                          5)

  1. A) salt B) nitrogen            C) lead    D) oxygen              E) water

6)            Compounds are ________.                                               6)


  1. A) molecules that are held together by atoms
  2. B) atoms that are electrically charged
  3. C) molecules that are made of more than one element
  4. D) atoms that are radioactive
  5. E) molecules that have mass


7)            Cells and tissues of all organisms are made primarily of ________.          7)

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) hydrogen
  3. C) salt
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) water

8)            Which number indicates neutral on a pH scale?                           8)

  1. A) 1 B) 9         C) 5         D) 7         E) 3









9)            Most organic compounds are made up of ________.                  9)

  1. A) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
  2. B) nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide atoms
  3. C) carbon, nitrogen, and ozone atoms
  4. D) carbon, nitrogen, and water atoms
  5. E) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen atoms

10)          The stratospheric ozone layer is important to ecosystems because it ________.  10)

  1. A) keeps the temperature of Earth stable
  2. B) ensures lakes and oceans do not lose water
  3. C) provides the air we breathe
  4. D) absorbs and scatters UV light
  5. E) keeps atmospheric gases balanced

11)          The most basic source of immediate energy for most organisms is ________.       11)

  1. A) water
  2. B) lipids
  3. C) amino acids
  4. D) glucose
  5. E) starches

12)          The pH scale is a quantitative representation of the relative amounts of ________.            12)

  1. A) hydrogen and polar water molecules in solution
  2. B) hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in solution
  3. C) water and carbon dioxide molecules in solution
  4. D) hydrogen and oxygen ions in solution
  5. E) alkaline and basic ions in solution

13)          Natural gas is primarily composed of ________.                           13)

  1. A) hydrogen
  2. B) methane
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) nitrogen

14)          What is the primary structural constituent in plant tissues?                        14)

  1. A) enzymes
  2. B) chlorophyll
  3. C) cellulose
  4. D) protein
  5. E) starch

15)          What is something that you use almost every day that is a polymer?        15)

  1. A) plastic B) water C) gas      D) metal E) wood

16)          Energy is the ________.                                                    16)


  1. A) motion that moves things
  2. B) chemical bonds between atoms and molecules
  3. C) capacity to do work
  4. D) work that has been done
  5. E) amount remaining to do work in the future





17) The first law of thermodynamics states that ________.        17)


  1. A) although energy can be transformed from one form to another, it cannot be created or destroyed in normal chemical reactions
  2. B) energy is always degraded in a chemical reaction
  3. C) energy is always recycled in ecosystems
  4. D) entropy always decreases in normal chemical reactions
  5. E) all energy always has kinetic and potential characteristics


18)          Most ocean ridges coincide with ________. 18)

  1. A) transforming boundaries
  2. B) convergent plate boundaries
  3. C) continental plates
  4. D) divergent plate boundaries
  5. E) oceanic plates

19)          The energy of light is called electromagnetic radiation. In the electromagnetic spectrum,  19)

photosynthesis makes use of which specific wavelengths?


  1. A) X-rays
  2. B) infrared radiation
  3. C) ultraviolet radiation
  4. D) visible light
  5. E) the entire electromagnetic spectrum


20)          Heat energy refers to the kinetic energy of molecules. Heat can move in a number of different ways: 20) when warm air rises causing the gas or liquid to circulate, the process that is said to occur is


  1. A) conduction
  2. B) convection
  3. C) latent heat transfer
  4. D) evaporation
  5. E) radiation



21)          What are the three distinct layers of the earth?           21)

  1. A) mantle, magma, crust
  2. B) oceanic crust, mantle, magma
  3. C) core, mantle, magma
  4. D) core, mantle, crust
  5. E) mantle, crust, oceanic crust

22)          What makes up about 70% of the Earth’s total volume, as it relates to the Earth’s structure?              22)

  1. A) mantle


  1. B) magma
  2. C) oceanic crust
  3. D) lithosphere
  4. E) crust













23) What parts of the Earth’s crust float on top of the mantle?  23)

  1. A) tectonic plates
  2. B) stratosphere
  3. C) lithosphere
  4. D) ozone layer
  5. E) oceans

24) The type of tectonic plate boundary at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is referred to as a ________.      24)

  1. A) seismic boundary
  2. B) divergent boundary
  3. C) convergent boundary
  4. D) transform fault
  5. E) subduction zone

25) The Earth’s atmosphere is mostly composed of ________. 25)

  1. A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
  2. B) water and carbon dioxide
  3. C) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
  4. D) water and oxygen
  5. E) nitrogen and oxygen

26) ________ is the tendency toward a disordered state.         26)

  1. A) Kinetic energy
  2. B) Potential energy
  3. C) Convection
  4. D) Heat
  5. E) Entropy

27) ________ are synthesized in a two-step process: transcription and translation.            27)

  1. A) Genes
  2. B) Proteins
  3. C) Carbohydrates
  4. D) Nucleic acids
  5. E) Lipids

28) Starch and cellulose are examples of ________.   28)

  1. A) proteins
  2. B) nucleic acids
  3. C) sterols
  4. D) lipids
  5. E) carbohydrates

29) Light is a form of ________radiation.       29)

  1. A) electromagnetic


  1. B) infrared
  2. C) UV
  3. D) gamma
  4. E) X-ray









30) The unit that measures the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1°C        30)

is the ________.

  1. A) watt-hour
  2. B) volt
  3. C) kilowatt-hour
  4. D) joule
  5. E) calorie

31) The type of ocean current that is driven by differences in temperature and salinity is a ________           31)


  1. A) gyre
  2. B) Coriolis effect


  1. C) Ferrel cell
  2. D) Hadley cell
  3. E) thermohaline




























































































































32)          When the vase is sitting on top of the table, what type of energy exists?                32)

  1. A) heat energy
  2. B) work
  3. C) kinetic energy
  4. D) entropy
  5. E) potential energy

33)          When the vase falls to the floor, what happens to the energy in the system?         33)


  1. A) The kinetic energy is converted to heat energy that causes the vase to break.
  2. B) The entropy within the system remains constant during the fall.
  3. C) The potential energy causes the entropy in the system to change causing disorder.
  4. D) The potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
  5. E) The kinetic energy is converted into potential energy.


34) Which of the rays/waves along the wavelength contains the most energy?     34)












  1. A) gamma rays
  2. B) infrared rays
  3. C) X-rays
  4. D) microwaves
  5. E) ultraviolet rays


35) Use the energy conversions table to determine how many joules (J) a 60-Watt light bulb uses in one 35) hour.













  1. A) 294,000 J B) 72,000 J C) 144,000 J          D) 216,000 J          E) 252,000 J













36) Where in the Earth’s atmosphere are chemicals most likely to be dispersed and present for a long          36)

period of time?































































  1. A) thermosphere
  2. B) mesosphere
  3. C) stratosphere





  1. D) ozone layer
  2. E) troposphere


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


37) Match each term with the correct description.      37)



  1. Protons
  2. Neutrons III. Electrons IV. Isotopes
  3. Molecules


  1. Negatively charged particles of the central nucleus of an atom
  2. Electrically neutral particles of the central nucleus of an atom
  3. Positively charged particles of the central nucleus of an atom
  4. Two or more atoms held together by a chemical bond
  5. Atoms of an element with different numbers of neutrons


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the accompanying scenario and answer the following questions.


The human body has the capacity to do work or engage in energy each day. Answer the following questions about the energy you have as you run a triathlon.


38) When you are resting at the top of a hill on a bicycle prior to racing down the hill you have       38)

________ energy for movement.

  1. A) chemical
  2. B) kinetic
  3. C) mechanical
  4. D) nuclear
  5. E) potential

39) When the race begins and your body starts to move, the energy of ________ allows you to run and       39)

complete the race.

  1. A) fission B) heat C) fusion                D) work  E) motion



ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


40)          So far as we know, Earth is the only planet in our solar system that supports life. Describe/explain four major factors/characteristics unique to Earth, allowing for the evolution and support of life.


41)          Describe how heat moves as you boil a pot of water to cook spaghetti for dinner.









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The place where an organism lives is its ________.                1)

  1. A) community
  2. B) ecosystem
  3. C) niche
  4. D) biome
  5. E) habitat

2) Total fertility rate refers to ________.       2)

  1. A) the number of offspring born during a given year
  2. B) the average age at which females become sexually active
  3. C) the potential number of offspring born per female in her reproductive years
  4. D) the number of females giving birth during a given year
  5. E) the number of offspring that survive to become reproductive adults

3) The lowest fertility rates may be found in ________.             3)

  1. A) developed countries
  2. B) developing countries
  3. C) where access to birth control is limited
  4. D) in places with poor health care systems
  5. E) countries providing opportunities for women’s education

4) When populations approach their carrying capacity, their resources ________.             4)

  1. A) increase because populations are decreasing
  2. B) are not a concern as they are usually infinite in supply
  3. C) become more scarce as growth rate becomes zero
  4. D) increase in supply but are less accessible
  5. E) decrease in supply but are more accessible to competitors

5) Assuming no migration, birth rate minus death rate is equal to ________.        5)

  1. A) the proportions of fertile women in different populations
  2. B) the cause of deaths in the population
  3. C) the relative rates of immigration and emigration are increasing
  4. D) a higher birth rate in a population
  5. E) the increase or decrease in different populations

6) An organism’s ________ for many environmental factors determines where it can live.                6)

  1. A) adaptations
  2. B) fitness
  3. C) range of tolerance


  1. D) survivorship
  2. E) carrying capacity











7) An organism’s range of tolerance is best described as ________.       7)


  1. A) the range of precipitation that falls on a given area
  2. B) the total amount of pollutants experienced by an organism
  3. C) the difference between the amount of sunlight tolerated and the amount of sunlight available
  4. D) the span between the minimum and maximum temperatures in which an organism flourishes
  5. E) the difference between the amount of food available and its consumption of that food


8) An organism’s range of tolerance is most closely related to an organism’s ________.     8)

  1. A) temperature maximum
  2. B) ecological niche
  3. C) toxic chemical threshold
  4. D) habitat
  5. E) rainfall minimum

9) What was one of the main causes of the Galapagos Island finches’ death in 1977?           9)

  1. A) an earthquake
  2. B) a hurricane
  3. C) a tsunami
  4. D) a tropical storm
  5. E) a drought

10) What are the three requirements for photosynthesis?        10)

  1. A) sunlight, nitrogen, and water
  2. B) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water
  3. C) sunlight, oxygen, and glucose
  4. D) sunlight, oxygen, and water
  5. E) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and glucose

11) From what process do all organisms use energy to power their physical, behavioral, and            11)

reproductive functions?

  1. A) photosynthesis
  2. B) cell division
  3. C) chemosynthesis
  4. D) anaerobic respiration
  5. E) cellular respiration

12) In asexual reproduction, ________.         12)

  1. A) the offspring have identical DNA
  2. B) the offspring are genetically related but also genetically distinct
  3. C) the offspring are genetically unique
  4. D) the offspring develop from a different zygote
  5. E) the offspring are made up of portions of each of the parent’s DNA

13) Population growth is determined by ________.    13)

  1. A) birth, death, and environmental resistance
  2. B) birth, death, and net migration


  1. C) birth, death, and emigration
  2. D) birth, death, and total fertility
  3. E) birth, death, and doubling time








14)          Populations in which the probability of dying is constant at every age exemplify ________.              14)

  1. A) natural selection
  2. B) type II survivorship
  3. C) type I survivorship
  4. D) type III survivorship
  5. E) arithmetic growth

15)          In the process of natural selection, the organisms most likely to survive are ________.      15)


  1. A) the organisms that can adapt to an extreme range of tolerance of precipitation
  2. B) the organisms that have a range of reproductive fitness
  3. C) the organisms that are most reproductively fit
  4. D) the organisms that survive at various ranges of tolerance of temperature
  5. E) the organisms that are very large and very small that outlive the average sized organisms


16) The medium ground finches (normally distinguished by a range of beak sizes) that survive drought 16) conditions in the Galapagos are able to eat the large and tough seeds from the fever plant. This survival can be described best as ________.



  1. A) disruptive selection
  2. B) directional selection
  3. C) the founder effect
  4. D) genetic drift
  5. E) stabilizing selection


17) If a tiger and a lion were to mate, what may be a result?      17)


  1. A) Sterile or partially sterile offspring are produced.
  2. B) The chance of fertility in female offspring increases.
  3. C) The species are genetically appropriate and contribute to the exponential growth in the population.
  4. D) Breeding barriers will not allow the mating to occur.
  5. E) A new species forms and replication allows the population to flourish.


18) The mating ritual of the blue-footed boobies in the Galapagos Islands includes a complex dance.              18)


The birds will not mate with other birds that do not know the dance. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) structural isolation
  2. B) mechanical isolation
  3. C) reproductive isolation
  4. D) behavioral isolation
  5. E) geographic isolation


19) Different insect species may not pollinate a plant because of the shape or color of its flowers. This is 19) best described as ________.



  1. A) geographic isolation
  2. B) behavioral isolation
  3. C) reproductive isolation
  4. D) structural isolation
  5. E) disruptive isolation











20) A kingdom in the hierarchical system of classification can be defined as ________.     20)


  1. A) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera and their subgroups
  2. B) an overall category containing organisms that share fundamental structures and functions
  3. C) a major subdivision of a family containing one or more species
  4. D) a group of similar individuals that are able to interbred with one another in the world
  5. E) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders of their subgroup


21) In the hierarchical system of classification, a family can be defined as ________.          21)


  1. A) a group of organisms that are very closely related to one another
  2. B) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera
  3. C) a group of individuals that are able to interbreed with one another
  4. D) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders
  5. E) an overall category containing organisms that share fundamental structures and functions


22) In the hierarchical system of classification, species are defined as ________.                22)


  1. A) an overall category containing organisms that share very similar fundamental structures and functions
  2. B) a major subdivision of a phylum or a division containing one or more orders of their subgroup
  3. C) a major subdivision of a family containing one or more related groups
  4. D) a group of individuals that are able to interbreed with one another, producing fertile offspring
  5. E) a major subdivision of an order containing one or more genera and their subgroups


23) The scientific, two-part Latin name of a species ________. 23)


  1. A) describes exactly to which phylum it belongs
  2. B) is always composed of a genus and species name
  3. C) is always composed of two unique names for that species
  4. D) describes exactly to which kingdom it belongs
  5. E) is always composed of a family and genus name


24)          Scientists often depict their understanding of an organism’s evolutionary ancestry in diagrams best                24)

by ________.

  1. A) classification trees
  2. B) hierarchical trees
  3. C) phylogenetic trees
  4. D) taxonomic trees
  5. E) ancestral trees

25)          Genetic drift refers to ________.    25)


  1. A) a change in the frequency of genes in a population because of tectonic plate movement
  2. B) a change in the frequency of a population’s genes because of mutation
  3. C) a change in the overall distribution of a population
  4. D) a change in the frequency of a population’s inherited trait brought about by a chance event
  5. E) a change in the frequency of a species’ occurrence


26) Which of the following is an example of a prokaryote?        26)


  1. A) plants B) bacteria C) fungi  D) protozoa           E) algae









27) How does generation time affect population growth rate?  27)


  1. A) the longer the generation time, the more stabilized the population growth rate
  2. B) the longer the generation time, the shorter the population growth rate
  3. C) the shorter the generation time, the higher the population growth rate
  4. D) the shorter the generation time, the lower the population growth rate
  5. E) the longer the generation time, the higher the population growth rate


28) An S-shaped population growth curve best describes ________.      28)

  1. A) exponential growth
  2. B) rapid and steady rate growth
  3. C) slow and constantly changing growth
  4. D) unlimited growth
  5. E) logistic growth

29) In meiosis ________ are formed, which only have one set of chromosomes. 29)

  1. A) gametes
  2. B) daughter cells
  3. C) zygotes
  4. D) somatic cells
  5. E) spores

30) At fertilization, the egg and the sperm merge to form a zygote. The zygote contains DNA from both         30)

parents making the offspring ________.

  1. A) inbred vigorous
  2. B) a clone
  3. C) sterile hybrid
  4. D) genetically unique
  5. E) haploid offspring

31) If a population of lemmings grows fast during a productive winter and shoots beyond the carrying           31)

capacity the population will ________.

  1. A) continue to grow just as quickly


  1. B) slowly return to below the carrying capacity
  2. C) quickly crash back below the carrying capacity
  3. D) continue to grow but in an S shape
  4. E) revert to logistic growth

























32) Use the pictures to determine what type of isolation might occur because of the type of organism           32)

































  1. A) reproductive isolation
  2. B) structural isolation
  3. C) geographic isolation
  4. D) behavioral isolation
  5. E) mechanical isolation

































33) What does the figure illustrate?                33)

























  1. A) Birds have a constant mortality rate.
  2. B) Fish have a steady rate of mortality change.
  3. C) Birds have an ever decreasing mortality rate.
  4. D) Humans have an increased mortality rate at a young age.
  5. E) Fish have a decreased mortality rate at young age.




























34) The organism most likely to be vulnerable to global climate change is ________.          34)


  1. A) rainbow trout
  2. B) desert pupfish
  3. C) desert pupfish and all its relatives
  4. D) Antarctic ice fish
  5. E) rainbow trout and Antarctic ice fish






35) The species most likely to be affected if the water temperature increases from 74°F to 80°F would be    35)



  1. A) the rainbow trout
  2. B) neither the desert pupfish or the rainbow trout
  3. C) the Antarctic ice fish, the rainbow trout, and the desert pupfish
  4. D) both the desert pupfish and the rainbow trout
  5. E) the desert pupfish


36) According to the figure, the specific location of photosynthesis is ________.                36)




























  1. A) the atmosphere
  2. B) the atmosphere and the plant
  3. C) the plant cell
  4. D) the plant
  5. E) the chloroplast



























SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


37) Match the following terms with the correct definition.         37)



  1. Death Rate
  2. Birth Rate

III.            Exponential Growth Rate IV. Total Fertility Rate

  1. Population Growth Rate


  1. The multiple by which an exponentially growing population increases
  2. The number of individuals dying per unit of time expressed as a percentage of the population size
  3. The number of births in the population expressed as a percentage of the population


  1. The number of new individuals added to a population in each generation
  2. The potential number of offspring that an average female in a population can produce


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Today, finches occupy every continent except Australia, most eating seeds, a diet for which their bills are well-adapted. Over the past several million years, 13 Galapagos finches have come to occupy the varied Galapagos islands. Finches found on these islands have very different bill shapes and feeding behaviors than finches found on the nearby mainland. Darwin gathered a considerable amount of field data on these finches and their habitats in order to propose his findings.


38) Determining that there were 13 different species of finches, Darwin proposed that they arose by           38)


  1. A) stabilizing selection
  2. B) natural selection
  3. C) genetic drift
  4. D) convergent evolution
  5. E) disruptive selection

39) What major factors allowed the birds to adapt to their new environment?      39)

  1. A) mutation and disruptive selection
  2. B) the founder effect followed by reproductive isolation


  1. C) mutation followed by reproductive isolation
  2. D) genetic drift followed by mutation
  3. E) mutation and increased reproductive fit of some offspring


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


40)          Population growth rates of various key species are important to understand, as large growth rates of any one species can easily affect the natural resources within an ecosystem. Assume that a population of 200 exotic parrots (all of the same species) accidentally escaped from a Miami zoo during a recent hurricane. After intense efforts, 215 are recaptured one year later. Calculate the population growth rate of this parrot species, and based on this growth rate, explain how long it would have taken for this population to double in size, if they had not been recaptured.









41)          How would Darwin explain the origin of over a dozen different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands, when it was thought that only one species was the original parent species for all?














MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1)            By what percentage has the Earth’s population grown in the last 20 years?                            1)

  1. A) 50% B) 10%    C) 20%    D) 40%   E) 30%

2)            The current total world population is ________.                                          2)

  1. A) 6 billion B) 9 billion             C) 5 billion             D) 8 billion             E) 7 billion

3)            It is estimated that the ratio of the population of developing countries to developed countries by   3)

2050 will be ________.

  1. A) 1:2 B) 1:6     C) 6:1     D) 2:1     E) 1:4

4)            Approximately how many years ago did our species, Homo sapiens, begin to migrate out of Africa  4)

and settle in Europe, Asia, and Australia?


  1. A) 1 million years
  2. B) 100,000 years
  3. C) 10,000 years
  4. D) 100 million years
  5. E) 1,000 years


5) Innovations in agriculture have increased food supply. This has allowed human populations to    5)

grow to approximately ________ by the end of the agriculture period.

  1. A) 100 million
  2. B) 500 million
  3. C) 1.5 billion
  4. D) 1 billion
  5. E) 1 million

6) The first stage of demographic transition is characterized primarily by ________.           6)

  1. A) high death rates
  2. B) over consumption of resources
  3. C) high food supplies
  4. D) first availability of medical care
  5. E) low birth rates

7) The most serious problem caused by population growth is ________.               7)

  1. A) inefficient food transportation


  1. B) too few jobs
  2. C) lack of farmland to meet food needs
  3. D) crowding
  4. E) increasing demand for all resources













8)            In the demographic transition model, the highest growth rate in a country is likely to occur during  8)


  1. A) stage 1, the pretransition stage
  2. B) stage 2, the mortality transitional stage
  3. C) stage 3, the fertility transition stage
  4. D) stage 4, the postindustrial or modern stage
  5. E) stage 5, the stability transition stage

9)            Which of the following best describes the human population from early times to the present?         9)


  1. A) slow, uneven growth until the 1800s, then increasingly rapid growth
  2. B) early rapid growth, which has leveled off to a nearly constant rate in the last 20 years
  3. C) early rapid growth, which has increased rapidly in the last 20 years
  4. D) rapid, explosive growth throughout the period
  5. E) slow, steady growth throughout the period


10) The term demographic transition refers to ________.         10)


  1. A) the decline in death rates followed by a decline in birth rates that occurred because sanitation levels in areas improved
  2. B) the decline in death rates followed by decline in birth rates when a country develops a strong economy
  3. C) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches its biocapacity
  4. D) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches the carrying capacity
  5. E) a requirement for a population to reach a specific size before it becomes stable


11) Early in the 18th century, Thomas Malthus recognized the connection between human population          11)

growth and ________.

  1. A) increasing death rates because of the effects of Industrial Revolution
  2. B) the geographical size of the country
  3. C) increasing medical issues leading to high mortality
  4. D) decreasing birth rates
  5. E) resource availability

12) The lowest total fertility rates might be found in ________.               12)

  1. A) developing countries
  2. B) places with poor sanitation
  3. C) places with poor health care systems
  4. D) countries where access to birth control is limited
  5. E) countries providing education for women

13) When considering the world population as a whole, birth rates and death rates enable one to  13)

calculate ________.


  1. A) the causes of death in a population
  2. B) the relative rates of immigration and emigration
  3. C) the proportions of fertile women in a population
  4. D) the causes of infant mortality in a population
  5. E) the increase or decrease in the population












14) Which of the following is not a reason that poor families in developing countries might have many          14)



  1. A) Children are helpers for essential chores on the farm.
  2. B) Most children survive beyond one year.
  3. C) high mortality among the young
  4. D) to assure care of parents in their old age
  5. E) The more males born to a family, the better it is for managing the family farm or business.


15)          In the early part of the 20th century in the U.S., Margaret Sanger succeeded in making significant   15)

contributions toward ________ by providing access to contraception to poor women.

  1. A) family planning
  2. B) promoting the baby boom
  3. C) bringing attention to the problem of decreasing food supply
  4. D) disease prevention
  5. E) bringing attention to the need for women’s education in Africa

16)          Which of the following countries created a policy aimed at stabilizing populations by urging             16)

couples to have only one child?

  1. A) China B) India C) Kenya                D) Russia                E) Mexico

17)          Which statement most accurately describes the population control efforts in India?                           17)


  1. A) There is little governmental financial support for birth control for all couples.
  2. B) Changing public attitudes about family size and timing through education and counseling.
  3. C) Increasing child survival, elevating status and employment levels for women, and increasing literacy in the general population will decrease fertility rates.
  4. D) Lack of education and health care and improved opportunities for women decreases fertility rates
  5. E) A one-child policy that is enforced through taxation works best for controlling population.


18)          In developing countries, a major characteristic of efforts to curb population growth that has been  18)

the most successful includes ________.

  1. A) improved health care for all employed workers
  2. B) knowledge of birth control
  3. C) increased education for men
  4. D) increased education for women
  5. E) better health care for infants

19)          Which statement most accurately describes the population control efforts in China?          19)


  1. A) A one-child policy that is enforced through taxation and penalties works best for controlling population.
  2. B) There is minimal governmental financial support for birth control for all couples.
  3. C) Changing public attitudes about family size through communication, education, counseling, and contraceptives can reduce the population growth rates.
  4. D) Increasing child survival, elevating status and employment levels for women, and increasing literacy in the general population will decrease fertility rates.
  5. E) A one-child policy that requires all women to work and education for all decreases fertility rates.











20)          What is a result when birth rates and death rates reach equal numbers?                               20)

  1. A) changing demography
  2. B) zero population growth
  3. C) demographic transition
  4. D) biocapacity
  5. E) baby boom

21)          The extent to which you consume ecosystem goods and services is described in terms of your        21)


  1. A) ecosystem function
  2. B) fertility rate
  3. C) ecological footprint
  4. D) biocapacity
  5. E) age-structure

22)          In an age-structure pyramid, the most critical age span for women in order to determine the           22)

current fertility rate potential is ________.

  1. A) 15-35 B) 15-49 C) 21-45 D) 25-45                E) 25-49

23)          Zero population growth can be achieved in a population when ________.                            23)


  1. A) carrying capacity is larger than ecological footprint
  2. B) total fertility rate exceeds the average replacement rate
  3. C) ecological footprints are larger than carrying capacity
  4. D) birth rates equal death rates
  5. E) the approach is having as many children in the first five years of marriage


24) In order for a human population to be sustainable, its actual numbers must be ________.         24)

  1. A) above the carrying capacity
  2. B) above its biocapacity
  3. C) above its ecological footprint
  4. D) below its ecological footprint
  5. E) below the carrying capacity

25) Within a country, push factors are conditions characterized by ________.     25)

  1. A) drought, famine, or war
  2. B) religious and cultural freedoms
  3. C) overabundance of resources
  4. D) government tax incentives
  5. E) improved family planning

26) In Latin America from 1600 to 1900 the vast majority of families lived on farms, people were very           26)

poor, and many were malnourished. The next stage of demographic transition should be followed

by a period where ________.


  1. A) population growth rates declined as people lived longer and were more wealthy, well-nourished and educated
  2. B) clean water, less disease, and higher literacy contributed to lower birth rates
  3. C) improved economic conditions relieve food shortages, health care and the death rate declines
  4. D) the population stabilizes and the movement toward zero population growth continues
  5. E) yellow fever and malaria are widespread and the survival ages is less than 30 years old








27) Globally, what is the main reason that life expectancy has increased dramatically over the last five           27)



  1. A) improved clean water supplies
  2. B) improved health care, nutrition, and sanitation
  3. C) migration to cities
  4. D) better family planning efforts in developed countries
  5. E) more food to feed more people but distribution is poor so people still go hungry


28)          In using the IPAT equation, much of the impact of affluence and technology is associated with         28)


  1. A) sustainable development of goods and services
  2. B) use of energy to generate electricity and power cars
  3. C) producing more waste and dealing with water contamination
  4. D) consumer demand for technology
  5. E) consumption of water and production of waste

29)          If the total world population reaches 13 billion, what is one issue that consumers will need to          29)

address to maintain the population on Earth while considering carrying capacity of the Earth itself?


  1. A) Behavior, lifestyles, and expectations will need to follow a path of minimizing consumption of resources.
  2. B) Resources will need to be limited in only developing countries.
  3. C) Since biocapacity will be less than carrying capacity, consumption in developing countries can increase.
  4. D) Behavior, attitudes and lifestyles will need to follow a path of increasing consumption of resources.
  5. E) Resource demand will need to be limited in only developed countries.


30) The infant mortality rate is the percentage of children who die before the age of ________.    30)

  1. A) 5 years B) 1 month C) 6 months           D) 1 year                E) 2 years

































































31)          According to this figure depicting Niger’s population, when did the country enter the second stage                31)

of the demographic transition?

  1. A) 1975-1980 B) 1990-2000       C) 1950-1960       D) 1960-1970       E) 2000-2010

32)          According to this figure depicting Niger’s population transition, during which decade did the birth  32)

rate exceed the death rate?


  1. A) 2010-2040
  2. B) That is not projected on this graph.
  3. C) 1990-2000
  4. D) 1970-1980
  5. E) 1950-1960

























33) In the early stages of fertility transition, what is happening with birth and death rates in this       33)

demographic transition graph?




























  1. A) Birth and death rates are increasing.
  2. B) Birth rates are increasing and death rates are decreasing.
  3. C) Birth and death rates are decreasing.
  4. D) Birth rates are decreasing and death rates are increasing.
  5. E) Birth and death rates are stable.




































34) Based on information in this figure on birth rates and wealth, what can be inferred about a       34)

population’s birth rate as it relates to the Gross Domestic Product in the country?














































  1. A) Birth rates are higher in countries with lower wealth because the women are younger when they give birth.
  2. B) Wealthier countries have higher birth rates.
  3. C) Poorer countries have lower birth rates.
  4. D) Birth rates are higher in countries with lower wealth because the women are older when they give birth.
  5. E) Wealthier countries have higher birth rates because people can afford more children.
















SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


35) Match the following terms with the correct definition.         35)



  1. Birth Rate
  2. Total Fertility Rate III. Death Rate
  3. Infant Mortality Rate V. Age Specific Birth Rate


  1. The number of individuals dying per unit of time expressed as a percentage of the population size
  2. The number of children born in a year per 1,000 women in a defined age group
  3. The number of births in the population expressed as a percentage of the population size
  4. The potential number of offspring that an average female in a population can produce
  5. The percent of infants within a population that die before age one


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


In China, the one-child population policy has significantly diminished population growth rates, and zero-population growth effects are hoped for as soon as 2030. In various areas throughout the world different population control strategies are being implemented in an effort to reduce population growth and achieve replacement fertility. Use this information to answer the following questions.


36) Globally, which of the following population control strategies has the greatest impact on fertility              36)


  1. A) immunizations for childbearing mothers
  2. B) health care for men
  3. C) gifts as a reward for having only one child
  4. D) the rhythm method
  5. E) education for women

37) What population control strategy has a big impact on population growth without infringing on  37)

people’s rights to reproduce?

  1. A) China’s one-child population policy
  2. B) Mexico’s taxation on large families


  1. C) sterilization
  2. D) immunizations for babies over age 2
  3. E) India’s family planning ministry


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


38)          The forecasts of world population growth made by population modelers Pearl and Gould in 1936 contrasted greatly with that of Meadows and Meadows made in 1972. Since all models are based on specific assumptions, explain the major differences in assumptions between these two models. Also include the major characteristics of the current UN population growth forecast.










39)          The total fertility rate among Italian women in 2010 was 1.4, whereas it was nearly 4.5 for women in the African country of Ivory Coast. What do these numbers mean? How are they likely to relate to the actual number of children per woman in each country and why? How are they likely to change in the future?







































































MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Flying squirrels competing with each other for truffles is an example of ________.        1)

  1. A) exploitation competition
  2. B) habitat competition
  3. C) interference competition
  4. D) interspecific competition
  5. E) intraspecific competition

2) What makes up an ecological community?                2)

  1. A) all the plants, animals, and organisms interacting in a specific area
  2. B) all the plants, animals, and organisms in the biome
  3. C) different species of the same type of animal within a specific area
  4. D) species that use the same resources
  5. E) all the plants, animals, and organisms in the ecosystem

3) Chipmunks and flying squirrels competing for truffles is an example of ________.          3)

  1. A) exploitation competition
  2. B) habitat competition
  3. C) interference competition
  4. D) intraspecific competition
  5. E) interspecific competition

4) What makes it possible for the coexistence of several warbler species that feed on the same insect          4)


  1. A) The birds eat in the different portions of the forest canopy.
  2. B) Some of the warblers are diurnal and some nocturnal.
  3. C) The birds eat in the same portion of different evergreens.
  4. D) The birds eat in the same area of different fir and spruce trees.
  5. E) The warblers do not experience intraspecies competition.

5) Several warbler species are able to coexist in the same forest because ________.         5)


  1. A) they feed in different parts of the fir and spruce trees
  2. B) they feed on the same larvae
  3. C) different birds eat different larvae from the soil
  4. D) season change within the forest causing certain species of the birds to fly south in the winter leaving more food for those that remain
  5. E) the water they drink is the food source for the plankton they eat


6) Herbivores feed on ________.    6)


  1. A) plants B) parasites C) fungi  D) animals              E) bacteria














7)            Animals such as earthworms and millipedes that feed on dead organic matter are ________.          7)

  1. A) decomposers
  2. B) consumers
  3. C) carnivores
  4. D) producers
  5. E) herbivores

8)            Which of the following is the best approach to minimize the spread of parasitic beetles in a              8)

pine-dominated forest?

  1. A) planting additional pines once some trees die
  2. B) releasing sterile wasps into the forest
  3. C) using pesticides to kill the beetles
  4. D) introducing maples, oaks, and other hardwood tree species

9)            Mutualism is ________.     9)


  1. A) a relationship between a beneficial predator and its prey
  2. B) a relationship in which two species have a mutual predator
  3. C) a relationship between two species in which only one benefits
  4. D) a relationship with no benefits to either species
  5. E) a relationship between two species in which both benefit


10)          Mutualistic relationships between bacteria and certain root nodules play an important role in the  10)

global cycling of ________.

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) water
  3. C) carbon
  4. D) phosphorus
  5. E) rock

11)          The monarch butterfly-milkweed relationship is best described as an example of ________.            11)

  1. A) succession
  2. B) carnivory
  3. C) parasitism
  4. D) commensalism
  5. E) coevolution

12)          Chestnut blight fungus kills U.S. chestnut trees because the trees ________.        12)


  1. A) release the fungus into the soil and it is drawn up in the roots
  2. B) are hosts to the vectors of the fungus
  3. C) have not matured long enough to survive
  4. D) release the fungus in the leaves that fall to the ground and the fungus is absorbed in the soil
  5. E) have not coevolved with the fungus


13) The symbiosis between a fungus and the roots of a tree is an example of ________.   13)


  1. A) trophic cascade
  2. B) commensalism
  3. C) succession
  4. D) mutualism
  5. E) mutual dependency








14)          Primary producers transform energy from sunlight and certain inorganic chemicals into ________.               14)

  1. A) galactose
  2. B) low-energy carbohydrates
  3. C) biomass energy
  4. D) high-energy carbohydrates
  5. E) biomass fuel

15)          The feeding interactions among species in a community are best described as a(n) ________.         15)

  1. A) food web
  2. B) succession
  3. C) trophic cascade
  4. D) trophic level
  5. E) energy flow

16)          Consumers are ________.                16)


  1. A) organisms that feed on one another
  2. B) organisms that feed on dead organic matter
  3. C) organisms that feed on decomposers
  4. D) organisms that feed on other living organisms
  5. E) organisms that feed on soils and soil nutrients


17) The approximate transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level is   17)


  1. A) unable to be determined
  2. B) a 50% decrease
  3. C) increasing, the higher one goes in the food web
  4. D) 1%
  5. E) 10%

18) Which of the following is an ecological legacy?      18)

  1. A) woody debris left after a fire
  2. B) water
  3. C) logging of forests
  4. D) fire
  5. E) hurricane

19) Which of the following are pioneer species on recently glaciated rock?          19)

  1. A) evergreens and fir trees
  2. B) lichens and mosses
  3. C) maples and redwoods
  4. D) spruce and fir trees
  5. E) herbs and shrubs

20) One of the longest field studies of predator-prey population cycles has been of ________.       20)

  1. A) moose and fox
  2. B) bison and prairie grass


  1. C) lynx and snowshoe hares
  2. D) grizzly bear and humans
  3. E) flying squirrels and grizzly bear








21) A vector is an organism that ________.   21)


  1. A) carries a parasite but is never affected by it
  2. B) is beneficial to parasitized organisms
  3. C) preys upon vulnerable species
  4. D) is always parasitic
  5. E) a host species vulnerable to infection


22)          Fig species depend on ________ to transfer pollen from male to female flowers.               22)

  1. A) bees
  2. B) ants
  3. C) mosquitoes
  4. D) butterflies
  5. E) wasps

23)          Tertiary consumers are usually in which trophic level?               23)

  1. A) decomposers
  2. B) 1st trophic level
  3. C) 2nd trophic level
  4. D) 3rd trophic level
  5. E) 4th trophic level

24)          An organism occupying the 3rd trophic level is best described as a ________.     24)

  1. A) predator
  2. B) top carnivore
  3. C) keystone species
  4. D) secondary consumer
  5. E) tertiary consumer

25)          In succession, facilitation refers to ________.              25)


  1. A) species altering the environment around them in ways that make it more habitable for other species
  2. B) the migration of plant species
  3. C) species sharing space, environment, and resources
  4. D) species creating competition for food and water making it harder for species succession
  5. E) competition for space by different populations of species


26)          Humans are a(n) ________-based life form.  26)

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) carbon
  3. C) phosphorus
  4. D) hydrogen
  5. E) nitrogen

27)          Since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, the increased flux of carbon into the atmosphere 27)

has been primarily because of ________.

  1. A) addition of phosphate in detergents


  1. B) addition of fertilizers to the soil
  2. C) burning of fossil fuels
  3. D) desertification
  4. E) deforestation







28) The total amount of CO2 that photosynthetic organisms convert to organic carbon each year is                28)

called ________.

  1. A) carbohydrate synthesis
  2. B) NEP
  3. C) organic carbon assimilation
  4. D) NPP
  5. E) GPP

29) A large scale wildfire that clears a large area of forest would begin the process of ________    29)


  1. A) tertiary


  1. B) secondary
  2. C) climax
  3. D) restoration
  4. E) primary


30) Demodex folliculorum are tiny mites that live in the pores of your face. Being that you were probably 30) unaware they existed until now this would be an example of ________.



  1. A) parasitism
  2. B) mutualism
  3. C) commensalism
  4. D) predation
  5. E) assimilation


31) Why might there be a lot of spacing between the desert plants shown growing in this photo?    31)























  1. A) The other plants around them have died because there is not enough space in the desert area where they grow.
  2. B) The roots of strong plants are established and force other plants out because they are more mature.
  3. C) The plants exploit the nitrogen produced in the atmosphere causing only stronger plants to survive the harsh desert-like environment.
  4. D) The plants need room to grow and expand as they mature.
  5. E) The plants exploit water and nutrients preventing other shrubs from establishing in their area.






32) This figure best depicts ________.           32)




































  1. A) the energy cycling consequences of the 10% law
  2. B) nutrient cycling in an ecosystem
  3. C) the consequences of decomposers in an ecosystem
  4. D) the energy implications of the 10% law
  5. E) the energy implications of increasing energy for ecosystem utilization































33) During old-field succession, the graph clearly shows that the number of species increases with                33)

time. During what period of time is this rate of increase the greatest?

































  1. A) 40-60 years
  2. B) 20-40 years
  3. C) 60-100 years
  4. D) 0-20 years


  1. E) cannot be determined from this data
































34) Using only the information provided by this figure, which species of warbler appears to have the             34)

greatest competitive advantage?
























  1. A) Blackburnian warbler
  2. B) black-throated warbler
  3. C) myrtle warbler
  4. D) bay Breasted warbler
  5. E) Cape May warbler








































35) In this grassland ecosystem, where is the most chemical energy located?        35)











































  1. A) decomposers
  2. B) 1st trophic level
  3. C) 2nd trophic level


  1. D) 3rd trophic level
  2. E) 4th trophic level














































36)          The greatest terrestrial net primary production can be seen to occur ________.                36)

  1. A) in North America
  2. B) in Africa
  3. C) in South America
  4. D) in equatorial latitudes
  5. E) in Eurasia

37)          Net ecosystem production values (NEP) will always be positive as a result of ________.     37)

  1. A) high levels of photosynthesis


  1. B) high GPP and increases in biomass during succession
  2. C) high GPP and a constant biomass
  3. D) high levels of respiration
  4. E) low NPP


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


38) Most organisms feed on something in their ecological community. Match the organism               38)

with what they feed on or live on in the ecosystem.



  1. Consumer
  2. Predator

III.            Herbivore

  1. Vector
  2. Parasite


  1. Carry a parasite to other organisms
  2. Feed on other living organisms
  3. Hunt and kill animals for food
  4. Live on plants and animals but usually do not kill them
  5. Feed on plants









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


In the late 1800s the federal government began eradicating the grey wolf from Yellowstone because of fear that the wolf population would have a negative impact on the area’s elk, which were considered a more desirable species at that time. The eradication of this keystone species continued until the 1930s, when wolves were effectively eliminated from the lower 48 states. In the absence of wolves, elk populations begin to explode and that, in turn, resulted in what has become known as a trophic cascade. Use this information to answer the following questions on the effects of keystone species eradication and the resulting trophic cascade.


39) With an overabundance of elk, the next population in the Yellowstone ecosystem to be directly              39)


affected was/were ________.

  1. A) plant species
  2. B) songbird
  3. C) beaver
  4. D) wolves
  5. E) mountain lion


40) What was the primary reason that the beaver and songbird populations were also diminished from 40) the area?



  1. A) The wolf population was feeding on the beaver and songbirds.
  2. B) The elk population was feeding on the beaver and songbirds.
  3. C) The rivers were full of sediment, making it difficult for beaver to swim and songbirds to drink water.
  4. D) The temperatures in the area were warming, making it difficult for the beavers and songbirds to survive in warmer weather.
  5. E) The plants that the beaver and songbirds ate were diminishing, because of the elk’s increased herbivore pressure.


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


41)          Describe the major factors that influence the process of change during primary succession on bare rock exposed by a retreating glacier.


42)          The distinguished ecologist G. Evelyn Hutchinson provided one of the most important explanations for how competing species can coexist. Explain his fundamental niche concept, and how he would account for closely related species coexisting.


43)          Explain the two major processes that drive the normal functioning of the carbon cycle, and then discuss two ways in which humans have negatively impacted this cycle.












MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The landscape along interstate 70 was changed drastically over the last 175 years. What is now seen        1)

on the landscape that was not seen in the past?

  1. A) bunchgrasses
  2. B) grasslands
  3. C) herbs
  4. D) sagebrush
  5. E) dense woodlands

2) Communities of similar organisms found in a particular climate are called ________.     2)

  1. A) ecosystems
  2. B) pools
  3. C) habitats
  4. D) ecological communities
  5. E) biomes

3) What two main factors are most important in determining a particular biome? 3)

  1. A) temperature and soil type
  2. B) vegetation and animal distribution
  3. C) temperature and precipitation
  4. D) transpiration and soil type
  5. E) temperature and fire frequency

4) Which biome is characterized by little rainfall, low grasses and shrubs, and cold temperatures?  4)

  1. A) tundra
  2. B) savanna
  3. C) grasslands
  4. D) desert
  5. E) deciduous forest

5) Which biome would be found primarily in the temperate zone?          5)

  1. A) savanna
  2. B) boreal forest
  3. C) desert
  4. D) deciduous forest
  5. E) tundra

6) The greatest threat to tropical rain forests is ________.        6)

  1. A) birds feeding in canopies of many trees
  2. B) deforestation


  1. C) lack of rainfall
  2. D) pesticide use
  3. E) high nitrogen levels in the soil










7)            Deforestation causes greenhouse gases to increase in the Earth’s atmosphere of the release of      7)


  1. A) phosphorous
  2. B) nitrogen
  3. C) nitrous oxide
  4. D) silicon
  5. E) carbon dioxide

8)            The biome that is increasing significantly in size because of negative human activities is the              8)


  1. A) savanna
  2. B) desert
  3. C) deciduous forest
  4. D) evergreen forest
  5. E) grassland

9)            When is the dormant season for most plants in the temperate zone?                      9)

  1. A) fall B) winter                C) summer             D) late fall              E) spring

10)          What one thing remains relatively constant through the seasons in tropical biomes?                           10)


  1. A) greenhouse gas levels
  2. B) temperature
  3. C) moisture
  4. D) precipitation
  5. E) sunlight


11)          Which biome is home to more plant and animal species than any other?                11)

  1. A) evergreen forest
  2. B) tropical rain forest
  3. C) savanna
  4. D) deciduous forest
  5. E) grassland

12)          The biome with the greatest number of ecological niches and highest species diversity is ________.             12)

  1. A) boreal forest
  2. B) chaparral


  1. C) tropical rain forest
  2. D) deciduous forest
  3. E) desert


13) The biome characterized by rapid nutrient cycling, high productivity, and very little organic matter 13) in the soil is the ________.



  1. A) grassland
  2. B) tundra
  3. C) tropical rain forest
  4. D) desert
  5. E) taiga


14) How much of Earth’s surface is desert?                                    14)

  1. A) 45% B) 40% C) 25%    D) 30%   E) 35%







15) In which biome are most succulents most likely to grow?    15)

  1. A) chaparral
  2. B) boreal forest
  3. C) grasslands
  4. D) tropical forest
  5. E) desert

16) Where are temperate rain forests most common?                16)

  1. A) coastal regions
  2. B) tropical regions
  3. C) polar region
  4. D) desert regions
  5. E) mountain regions

17) Agriculture and cattle grazing have altered over 90% of this biome. 17)

  1. A) temperate grasslands
  2. B) deciduous forest
  3. C) tropical forest
  4. D) boreal forest
  5. E) chaparral

18) Mountains are a geographical feature found in many biomes. The rain shadow effect is where  18)


  1. A) rainfall fluctuates, arriving in equal amounts on both sides
  2. B) the dry region is on the leeward side of the mountain
  3. C) the wet region is determined by the location of jet stream
  4. D) the wet region is on the leeward side of the mountain
  5. E) rainfall fluctuates, but always falls in shadow areas

19) Along coastlines, sand dunes will most often begin to form and grow when ________.                19)

  1. A) birds carry tree seeds to the area, which then become established
  2. B) perennial grasses become established
  3. C) annual plants become established
  4. D) diverse grasses and woody shrubs thrive
  5. E) erosion and subsequent deposition bring in the necessary sand

20) Places on Earth that have similar climates often support plants and animals with similar physical                20)

and physiological traits. The best explanation of this phenomenon is ________.

  1. A) convergent evolution
  2. B) migration of species
  3. C) divergent evolution
  4. D) speciation
  5. E) natural selection

21) Where do most human populations live?                21)

  1. A) in the desert


  1. B) in the temperate zone
  2. C) in the tropical zone
  3. D) in the savanna
  4. E) in the mountainous zone







22) Which group of organisms has been most impacted by the loss of both deciduous and tropical 22)


  1. A) insects
  2. B) rabbits
  3. C) flying squirrels
  4. D) migratory birds
  5. E) spotted owls

23) Tropical savanna is being converted to ________ biome because of overgrazing, loss of grasses and       23)


  1. A) paramo
  2. B) taiga
  3. C) tropical rain forest
  4. D) desert
  5. E) tundra

24) Most of the tall grass prairie of North America has been converted to ________.         24)

  1. A) savannas
  2. B) tropical rain forest
  3. C) desert
  4. D) farmland
  5. E) tundra

25) Which biome has been degraded the most by humans?      25)

  1. A) savannas
  2. B) desert
  3. C) tropical rain forest
  4. D) tundra
  5. E) temperate grasslands

26) Natural bodies of fresh water that are flowing are described by scientists as ________.              26)

  1. A) aquifers
  2. B) estuaries
  3. C) tidal basins
  4. D) lentic
  5. E) lotic

27) The difference between the wetland category of marsh and swamp is ________.        27)

  1. A) water flows in a swamp and not in a marsh
  2. B) that water is much deeper in a marsh
  3. C) the dominance of shrubs and trees in a swamp
  4. D) water flows in a marsh and not in a swamp
  5. E) the dominance of herbaceous plants in swamps

28) Which of the following best describes a marsh?    28)


  1. A) wetland with peat deposits that support a variety of evergreen trees and shrubs
  2. B) wetlands dominated by shrubs or trees that are fed by flowing water
  3. C) wetlands that are periodically or continuously flooded and are dominated by herbaceous plants
  4. D) wetlands that are fed primarily by groundwater
  5. E) wetlands that are fed primarily from lakes and rivers





29)          Abundant light and constant nutrient input make ________ among the most productive ecosystems             29)

on Earth.

  1. A) streams B) lakes  C) estuaries           D) bogs   E) fens

30)          Lakes and ponds are bodies of freshwater that are not moving and referred to as ________.           30)

  1. A) lotic B) eutrophic          C) open  D) lentic E) stagnant

31)          The shallow, sloped area close to the shore of a lake that tends to be dominated by rooted plants is               31)

the ________.


  1. A) benthic zone
  2. B) aphotic zone
  3. C) thermocline
  4. D) littoral zone
  5. E) halocline


32) The area along seacoasts that are dominated by tidal activity and go through cycles of exposure and 32) submergence are ________.



  1. A) littoral zone
  2. B) estuaries
  3. C) aphotic zone
  4. D) intertidal zone
  5. E) pelagic zone


33) Short grass prairie is being converted to ________ along 1-70.         33)


















  1. A) woodlands
  2. B) savanna
  3. C) mixed-grass prairie
  4. D) desert
  5. E) tall-grass prairie

















34) The United States is in the ________ zone.            34)





















  1. A) desert
  2. B) temperate
  3. C) continental
  4. D) tropical
  5. E) polar


35) Where is it likely that forest and woodland cover will increase?        35)

























  1. A) Arctic
  2. B) Europe
  3. C) South America
  4. D) North America
  5. E) Asia











36) Which biome is diagrammed in the accompanying figure?  36)























  1. A) tundra
  2. B) chaparral
  3. C) boreal forest
  4. D) tropical savanna


  1. E) desert












































37) Abandonment of croplands has resulted in more forests covering the ________ part of the United        37)







































  1. A) eastern B) southern C) northern           D) southwest         E) western


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


38) Match the forest with the description that best describes the biome.               38)



  1. Tropical rain forest
  2. Temperate deciduous forest III. Temperate rain forest
  3. Boreal forest
  4. Temperate evergreen forest


  1. Annual rainfall is greater than 80 inches; rainfall an warm climate support an enormous diversity of plants and animals.
  2. Coniferous forests that grow in a short season with long, dry and bitterly cold winter days
  3. Dominated by broad-leaved trees that lose their leaves in the fall and grow a new set in the spring
  4. Dominated by trees that keep their leaves throughout the year
  5. Lush evergreen forests where heavy rains and year round moisture provide ideal conditions along coastal areas






MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Scientists are currently using data from satellite images and climate simulation models to predict the effects of global warming on the distribution of biomes. Results from this research are being used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change to predict how global warming will cause biomes to shift. On some continents, these scientists are predicting forests spreading; however, when it comes to deserts and tropical biomes, they are finding predictions much more challenging, as it is uncertain how warmer temperatures will affect rainfall.


39) Understanding the basics of global climate change effects, the findings of this research on shifting           39)

biomes is most likely to predict ________.

  1. A) tundra regions shifting north to polar ice caps
  2. B) temperate deciduous forests moving south
  3. C) boreal forests shifting north to tundra regions
  4. D) deserts shrinking globally
  5. E) boreal forests shifting south

40) The satellite remote sensing involved in this biome project is most likely measuring what specific             40)

parameter of Earth’s surface?

  1. A) extent of continental ice cover


  1. B) El Niño effects
  2. C) geology
  3. D) sea-level rise
  4. E) leaf cover


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


41)          Discuss the two factors that are most important in the distribution of biomes? Choose one biome and explain how these two factors impact the specific plants and animals found in this biome.


42)          Discuss three specific environmental consequences of tropical rain forest destruction. Be sure to include why we should be concerned about each of these environmental consequences.









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1)            In Hawaii, the extinction rate of bird species is one species every 10-12 years. By comparison, bird                1)

species worldwide are being lost at a rate of approximately ________ per year.

  1. A) 1 B) 1000  C) 0.1      D) 100    E) 10

2)            Biodiversity is ________.                                                   2)


  1. A) the variety of life in all its forms and combinations and at all levels of organization
  2. B) the three dimensional distribution of species and biological features
  3. C) the relative abundance of the different species in a community
  4. D) difference in variety and abundance of species from place to place
  5. E) the total number of species in a location


3) Species that are found only in specific environments or have restricted localities are said to be  3)


  1. A) structurally complex
  2. B) evenness
  3. C) diverse
  4. D) endemic
  5. E) rich

4) The total number of plant and animal species that a field biologist identifies along a mountain trail              4)

is an example of ________.

  1. A) species evenness
  2. B) species composition
  3. C) genetic diversity
  4. D) species richness
  5. E) structural diversity

5) How is genetic variation maintained in most populations?      5)

  1. A) through asexual reproduction
  2. B) through inbreeding
  3. C) through cloning
  4. D) through biotechnology
  5. E) through sexual reproduction

6) How can viable genetic diversity be restored when a population becomes very small?   6)

  1. A) through inbreeding


  1. B) through captive breeding programs
  2. C) through sterile breeding techniques
  3. D) through asexual reproduction
  4. E) through hybridization with another species












7) Conservation biologists define a region as a biodiversity hotspot if ________. 7)


  1. A) there is an endemic species protected by a captive breeding program
  2. B) there is an unusually large number of endemic species threatened by humans
  3. C) there is at least one umbrella species to be protected
  4. D) there is an unusually large number of endemic species thriving
  5. E) species richness is unusually high and protection is required


8)            Which biome has the greatest biological diversity?                                      8)

  1. A) oceans
  2. B) grassland
  3. C) deserts
  4. D) temperate deciduous forest
  5. E) tropical rain forest

9)            Within populations of individual species, biodiversity is measured as ________.                  9)

  1. A) genetic diversity
  2. B) species evenness
  3. C) ecosystem diversity
  4. D) species richness
  5. E) population viability

10)          Of all the threats to biodiversity, the single greatest threat is ________.                                10)

  1. A) pollution
  2. B) overharvesting species
  3. C) invasive species
  4. D) habitat fragmentation
  5. E) habitat destruction

11)          The equilibrium theory of island biogeography has become a fundamental principle in      11)

conservation biology. The principles of this theory are being applied to ________.

  1. A) managing island endangered species
  2. B) determining equilibria for ecosystem management
  3. C) island species as a source for captive breeding
  4. D) managing isolated habitat patches
  5. E) setting regulations for national parks

12)          Most of the 80% of animals that live on land are ________.                                      12)

  1. A) birds B) insects               C) horses               D) fish     E) cattle

13)          Biodiversity is partially influenced by net primary productivity. The highest rates of NPP can be       13)

found in ________.


  1. A) tundra
  2. B) tropical rain forests
  3. C) deserts
  4. D) polar regions
  5. E) deciduous forests












14) Species richness is affected by many variables. As one travels to higher latitudes, one would expect       14)


  1. A) the number of species to be maintained
  2. B) other factors to be more important than latitude
  3. C) the number of species to decrease
  4. D) population viability to increase
  5. E) the number of species to increase

15) Forest songbirds have been declining for the past century in the United States. Evidence is       15)

accumulating and pointing to ________ as the most likely reason.

  1. A) island biogeography
  2. B) habitat fragmentation


  1. C) population viability
  2. D) endemic species vulnerability
  3. E) migration corridor implementation


16) Air and water pollution are directly responsible for the loss of some species. In their studies of these 16) pollution effects, biologists have determined that ________ are especially sensitive to air pollution,



and are now being used as an index of urban air quality.

  1. A) lichens
  2. B) songbirds
  3. C) warblers
  4. D) evergreen trees
  5. E) deciduous trees


17) Habitat fragmentation has been an important factor in the decline of ________ species in the United 17) States.



  1. A) eastern hemlock
  2. B) coral reef
  3. C) manatee
  4. D) Kirtland’s warbler
  5. E) shad and salmon


18)          Of the estimated 7-15 million eukaryotic species that Earth supports, biologists have described and               18)

assigned scientific names to about ________ of these species.

  1. A) 500,000 B) 5 million            C) 1.5 million         D) 3 million            E) 1 million

19)          Non-native invasive species have been found to negatively influence biodiversity. A well-known     19)

example would include ________.


  1. A) the Jack Pine’s Kirtland warbler
  2. B) the prairie bison
  3. C) the hemlock adelgid
  4. D) the monarch butterfly
  5. E) Mexico’s jaguar


20) What percentage of Earth’s land surface is legally designated as preserves?   20)

  1. A) 31% B) 1% C) 7%      D) 12%   E) 22%











21)          What two factors largely determine the diversity of species on an island?                              21)

  1. A) replication and extinction
  2. B) migration and replication
  3. C) migration and extinction
  4. D) immigration and replication
  5. E) viability and extinction

22)          The greatest concern for the worldwide loss of species is ________.                     22)

  1. A) anthropogenic activities
  2. B) water pollution
  3. C) decreased soil nutrients
  4. D) habitat destruction
  5. E) air pollution

23)          What percentage of North America’s deciduous forests has been logged or cleared for agriculture?              23)

  1. A) 15% B) 3%      C) 95%    D) 22%   E) 76%

24)          Do connections between habitat patches actually increase their diversity? Evidence from current  24)

field research involving plants is determining that ________.


  1. A) only if adequate fertilizers and pesticides are applied to the habitats
  2. B) no, corridors connecting habitat patches actually decrease diversity
  3. C) no, corridors connecting habitat patches have yet to make a difference
  4. D) yes, corridors connecting habitat patches do increase species diversity
  5. E) only if migrating animals and birds carry seeds between patches


25) According to the Endangered Species Act, species whose population is reduced to near critical               25)

levels but is not on the brink of extinction is said to be ________.

  1. A) critical
  2. B) endangered
  3. C) replaceable
  4. D) extinct
  5. E) threatened

26) Biodiversity is highest at ________ levels of disturbance.   26)

  1. A) high
  2. B) cyclical
  3. C) fluctuating
  4. D) low
  5. E) intermediate

27) Overharvesting is a serious threat to ________.   27)

  1. A) deer


  1. B) fisheries
  2. C) insect pollinators
  3. D) songbirds
  4. E) wheat












28) Many species have provided medicines and products demonstrating that biodiversity has ________ 28) value and should therefore be preserved.



  1. A) entertainment
  2. B) ethical
  3. C) aesthetic
  4. D) religious
  5. E) economic


29) This graph depicting island diversity predicts that ________.             29)
























  1. A) large islands close to the mainland will have the most species
  2. B) small islands close to the mainland will have the most species
  3. C) size and distance to the mainland do not matter for island species
  4. D) small islands close to the mainland will have the least species
  5. E) large islands far away from the mainland will have the least species














































30) This study of Minnesota prairie plots and drought resistance indicates that the highest resistance to        30)

drought was experienced when ________.


  1. A) plant diversity attained 0.2
  2. B) there were at least 5 species per plot
  3. C) there were between 10 and 20 species per plot
  4. D) plant diversity exceeded 0.2
  5. E) there were over 20 species per plot


31)          After collecting the evidence on these 22 Minnesota prairie plots, one could conclude that ________.   31)


  1. A) species diversity and drought resistance are inversely correlated
  2. B) this data shows no discernable pattern from which to make conclusions
  3. C) species diversity and drought resistance are positively correlated
  4. D) species diversity does not really influence drought resistance
  5. E) species diversity is a positive feature; however, it is most likely not related to drought resistance






















































32) Experimental studies have demonstrated that there are a high number of herbivores near the 32)

largest individual tree species on which that herbivore feeds. According to the data shown, the

probability that seeds from that tree species will successfully germinate and grow is ________.

  1. A) highest near that tree species
  2. B) dependent on how the local wind and weather affects seed dispersal
  3. C) dependent on how far the herbivore migrates
  4. D) lowest near adult trees of that species
  5. E) highest near the herbivore’s watering hole

33) The important general conclusion that can be made from this data on herbivory is that ________.          33)

  1. A) herbivory decreases tropical tree diversity


  1. B) herbivory is in equilibrium at distance represented by dotted line
  2. C) herbivory increases tropical tree diversity
  3. D) more field studies are needed before any conclusion can be made
  4. E) controlled herbivory can be beneficial during field studies


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


34) Match the terms with the appropriate description.               34)



  1. Biodiversity
  2. Landscape Diversity III. Structural Complexity IV. Endemic
  3. Genetic Diversity


  1. The three-dimensional distribution of species and the biological features that affects community biodiversity
  2. The variety of life in all forms and combinations and at all levels of organization
  3. The differences in the variety and abundance of species from place to place
  4. Species that are found only in specific environments or restricted localities
  5. Genetic variation among individuals









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


In the 2001 regular session of the Oregon Legislative Assembly, House Bill 3564 was enacted by the people of the State of Oregon to encourage private landowners to manage their land for the purposes of maintaining the long-term ecological, economic, and social values of the land. The lands will be managed sustainably through tax policy, land use planning, education, and technical and financial incentives. The Act does discourage from imposing additional taxes on property, commodities, or income if the landowner voluntarily foregoes, limits, or postpones economic uses of private land for conservation.


35)          What might a private landowner do with land that they want to conserve and support the Oregon  35)

Act for sustainable land management?

  1. A) convert the land to a nature preserve for visitors to enjoy
  2. B) turn the site into a landfill
  3. C) use the land for farming
  4. D) build an industrial facility on the land site
  5. E) convert the land to a prairie or a grassland

36)          What would be a major incentive for a landowner to practice private land conservation?  36)

  1. A) conservation land certification for their property


  1. B) higher taxations on the conserved land
  2. C) pride in knowing they are contributing to land degradation
  3. D) mandatory land conservation laws
  4. E) tax incentives such as reduced property taxes


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


37)          Policies for conserving biodiversity have been set aside in a number of important pieces of specific U.S. legislation. Explain two pieces of legislation that directly address biodiversity preservation issues, making sure to discuss how the legislation attempts to accomplish its goals.


38)          Describe three strategies to encourage biodiversity conservation on private lands.









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1) What has contributed to the loss of polar bears in arctic areas?           1)


  1. A) decline in sea ice
  2. B) the decline of lemmings; the primary food of the polar bear
  3. C) fires in the taiga and tundra
  4. D) the tundra shifting northward
  5. E) hunting of the polar bear by the Inuit people


2)            Global temperature trends can be inferred from changes in ________ and ________.                     2)

  1. A) fossils; chemical isotopes found in sediments and glacial ice
  2. B) volcanic eruptions; isotope ratios in glacial ice
  3. C) volcanic eruptions; fossils
  4. D) fossils; hydrogen and oxygen isotopes found in sediments and glacial ice
  5. E) fossils; isotope ratios in glacial ice

3)            What is the average annual air temperature near the Earth’s surface?                    3)

  1. A) 57°F B) 42°F   C) 82°F   D) 63°F   E) 76°F

4)            Compared to the five-year period 1971-75, approximately how much warmer has the Earth’s          4)

temperature become during the more recent 2001-2005 five-year period?

  1. A) 4.0°F B) 0.92°F                C) 1.5°F  D) 3.0°F  E) 5.2°F

5)            A cooling of surface ocean waters in the eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean is known specifically as   5)



  1. A) La Niña
  2. B) El Niño
  3. C) Antarctic bottom water
  4. D) the ENSO effect
  5. E) the Little Ice Age


6)            When volcanoes erupt, they emit ________ into the atmosphere, resulting in a cooling effect on the           6)


  1. A) water vapor
  2. B) methane
  3. C) sulfur dioxide
  4. D) particulates
  5. E) nitrous oxide

7)            Which of the following sources contributes the least to the emission of greenhouse gases?              7)

  1. A) fossil fuel mining


  1. B) transportation
  2. C) power station operation
  3. D) waste disposal
  4. E) agriculture








8) In Brazil, what is the primary cause for increase in CO2 in the atmosphere?      8)

  1. A) burning wood for fuel
  2. B) acid deposition
  3. C) deforestation
  4. D) volcano eruptions
  5. E) automobile use

9) Which of the following is the most abundant natural greenhouse gas?               9)

  1. A) water vapor
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) methane
  5. E) carbon dioxide

10) Which of the following is the least abundant natural greenhouse gas?             10)

  1. A) chlorofluorocarbons
  2. B) nitrogen
  3. C) methane
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) water vapor

11) Which of the following is a synthetic greenhouse gas?         11)

  1. A) water vapor
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) methane
  5. E) chlorofluorocarbons

12) Which of the following will have the least impact on rising sea level?               12)

  1. A) melting of the floating polar ice cap
  2. B) melting of North America’s continental glaciers
  3. C) melting of Eurasia’s continental glaciers
  4. D) the Antarctic ice shelf collapse
  5. E) melting of Greenland’s ice sheet

13) What is a growing concern related to sea level rise?            13)

  1. A) deforestation as salt in the atmosphere increases
  2. B) eroding shorelines in coastal areas
  3. C) fish migrating earlier than usual
  4. D) migrating birds as salt in the atmosphere increases
  5. E) vanishing land near lakes and rivers

14) The major source(s) of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere was/were ________.     14)

  1. A) refrigerants, solvents, and spray propellants


  1. B) combustion of fossil fuels
  2. C) emissions from automobile exhaust and chemical fertilizers
  3. D) microbial fermentation of organic matter in coal mines, oil wells, and livestock
  4. E) burning of fossil fuels and coal









15)          Impacts of global warming include all of the following except ________.               15)

  1. A) more human illness
  2. B) rising sea levels
  3. C) decrease in mortality because winter is warmer
  4. D) more extreme weather
  5. E) earlier migration of fish and birds

16)          What may be an ecological implication of global warming?         16)


  1. A) Since biodiversity is usually higher in warmer, milder climates, there will be little or no ecological implications.
  2. B) In general, plants and animals will probably benefit from warmer temperatures.
  3. C) Plants and animals may not be able to move to a suitable habitat quickly enough.
  4. D) Plants and animals will adjust quickly to the changes in temperature and begin to replicate and reproduce in new areas.
  5. E) Since farmland may be lost, the habitats of plants and animals will increase in area.


17) What is the current regulatory standard for gasoline mileage of automobiles in the United States?           17)

  1. A) 30.5 miles per gallon
  2. B) 27.5 miles per gallon
  3. C) 33 miles per gallon
  4. D) 35 miles per gallon
  5. E) 22 miles per gallon

18) By 2020 what will the regulatory standard for gasoline mileage of automobiles in the United States          18)


  1. A) 22 miles per gallon
  2. B) 35 miles per gallon
  3. C) 30.5 miles per gallon
  4. D) 33 miles per gallon
  5. E) 27.5 miles per gallon

19) The Kyoto Protocol was ratified by 130 countries in 2004 and became international law in 2005.             19)

What is the goal of the Kyoto protocol?

  1. A) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
  2. B) reduction of emissions of nitrous oxide to control acid rain
  3. C) reduction of emissions from scrubbers used in industrial plants
  4. D) reduction of chlorofluorocarbon emissions
  5. E) reduction of air pollutants from nuclear power plants

20) The Neutral Gator Initiative is a nonprofit organization that works to reduce ________ emissions in        20)



  1. A) nitrogen dioxide
  2. B) silicon
  3. C) carbon
  4. D) nitrogen
  5. E) acid rain












21) The best description of anthropogenic activities is ________.           21)


  1. A) human activities that decrease greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
  2. B) human activities that increase greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
  3. C) all activities by humans affecting the Earth and its biosphere
  4. D) human activities that reduce carbon emissions through taxing fuel used for automobiles
  5. E) human activities that reduce carbon emissions through tax credits for reducing automobile emissions


22) Transportation efficiency refers specifically to ________.  22)


  1. A) employing more renewable fuels
  2. B) employing more hybrid vehicle technology
  3. C) increasing fuel conservation measures
  4. D) improving fuel efficiency in electric power plants
  5. E) using carbon capture and storage (CCS) technology


23) Photovoltaic cells are ________.              23)


  1. A) batteries that derive energy from plant material
  2. B) devices that derive energy from plant material
  3. C) devices that directly convert sunlight to electrical currents
  4. D) batteries that fuel automobiles and buses
  5. E) devices that directly convert fuel to electrical currents


24) Biofuels are ________.               24)


  1. A) batteries that derive energy from plant material
  2. B) fuels that use electrical currents to power automobiles
  3. C) fuels that are derived from plant material
  4. D) devices that directly convert fuel to electrical currents
  5. E) batteries that fuel automobiles and buses


25) Which of the following global warming mitigation efforts generates more emotion than any others?        25)


  1. A) increasing nuclear energy use
  2. B) installing scrubbers on industrial plants
  3. C) reducing fossil fuel use
  4. D) biostorage absorption
  5. E) using more renewable energy


26) Since the Industrial Revolution, climate change data shows that ________.    26)


  1. A) rainfall has increased significantly in eastern North and South America
  2. B) glacial regions are increasing while more forestry areas are expanding
  3. C) desert and glacial regions are increasing
  4. D) rainfall has decreased significantly in North America and Europe
  5. E) glacial regions are decreasing while forestry areas are expanding


27) Which of the following is a cause of natural climate change?              27)


  1. A) tornadoes
  2. B) forest fires
  3. C) glacial melting
  4. D) volcanic eruptions
  5. E) sea levels increasing








28)          Which of the following gases has the greatest global warming potential (GWP)?   28)

  1. A) O3 B) CFC     C) N2O   D) CO2   E) CH4

29)          Scientists use ________ to forecast climate change.                   29)


  1. A) computer simulation models
  2. B) political mandate
  3. C) historical data
  4. D) statistics
  5. E) CO2 concentrations


30) ________ is what scientists refer to the warming that would still occur even if all emissions would          30)

immediately cease.

  1. A) Latent heat
  2. B) Heat capacity
  3. C) Thermal inertia
  4. D) Committed warming
  5. E) ENSO

31) What are some of the consequences of global warming?    31)

  1. A) increasing heat
  2. B) drier conditions and drought
  3. C) changing storm patterns
  4. D) increased rainfall and flooding
  5. E) all of the above

32) The Earth has ________ for the past 2 million years.            32)

  1. A) cycled between hot and cold
  2. B) slowly frozen then quickly thawed
  3. C) gradually warmed
  4. D) gradually cooled
  5. E) stayed the same temperature

33) The ________ is the current interglacial period and began about 10,000 years ago.    33)

  1. A) Jurassic
  2. B) Holocene


  1. C) Pleistocene
  2. D) Cretaceous
  3. E) Triassic






















34) Based on the information provided in the diagram, when have the warmest years on Earth        34)































  1. A) 1920-1940 B) 1999-2009 C) 1960-1980       D) 1975-1985       E) 1940-1960










































35) Total Annual CO2e emissions are greatest in ________.      35)




































  1. A) India
  2. B) Brazil
  3. C) China
  4. D) Indonesia
  5. E) European Union






























36) When examining the Keeling Curve in the accompanying graph, one notices a “zigzag”                36)

upward-moving curve. What do these small up and down movements indicate?






























  1. A) O2 versus CO2 concentrations
  2. B) seasonal cycles in CO2 concentrations


  1. C) latitudinal differences in CO2 concentrations
  2. D) weather-related factors affecting CO2


  1. E) uncertainty in the CO2 conditions

































37) The consequences of the Kyoto Protocol are pictured in the accompanying figure. Which category         37)


or group of countries experienced substantial emissions reductions because of improved energy technologies?






















  1. A) developing countries
  2. B) developed countries
  3. C) United States
  4. D) poorest countries
  5. E) China


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


38) Match each term with its definition.         38)



  1. Global Warming
  2. Greenhouse Effect III. Greenhouse Gases
  3. Global Circulation Model
  4. Global Warming Potential


  1. The measure of an individual molecule’s long-term impact on atmospheric temperature
  2. The increase in atmospheric temperature since the late 1800s
  3. The absorption of radiation by greenhouse gases and trapping of that heat in the troposphere
  4. Gases that efficiently capture heat
  5. The use of basic physical principles to forecast future climate change


















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


The trapping of heat in the lower atmosphere (the troposphere), referred to as the greenhouse effect, is a natural process that helps regulate the temperature of our planet, allowing for life on Earth to exist and flourish. Nitrogen and oxygen molecules make up 99% of Earth’s atmosphere, with water and carbon dioxide accounting for less than 0.5%. This natural greenhouse effect is the result of heat absorption by H2O and CO2 molecules in the lower atmosphere, and re-radiation of this trapped heat back to Earth’s surface. Without the natural greenhouse effect, Earth’s temperature would be 0°F instead of its present 57°F. The question for some is whether human activities are causing an increase of the greenhouse effect, and thus global climate change. Scientific data collected in the past 50 years indicates that the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has been increasing.


39)          The greenhouse gas that has been the most directly connected to the combustion of fossil fuels is 39)

________ and the greenhouse gas that has stabilized in the lower atmosphere is ________.

  1. A) H2O; CH4
  2. B) CO2; CH4
  3. C) CO2; CFC
  4. D) CH4; CFC
  5. E) N2O; H2O

40)          Which greenhouse gas is most abundant naturally?     40)

  1. A) water vapor


  1. B) carbon dioxide
  2. C) methane
  3. D) trace gases
  4. E) nitrous oxide


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


41)          Over the past 50 years the average rate of sea level rise has been 1.8 mm per year. Explain the two primary factors responsible for this rise in sea level.


42)          Discuss how global circulation models (GCMs) use processes involved in the Earth’s energy budget to understand impacts of global warming. Which specific processes are manipulated in these computer simulations?


43)          Scientists predict that even if atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations were to remain at current levels, additional warming of Earth is unavoidable. Explain two mitigation approaches (one regulatory and one economic incentivee)

that are currently being employed.


44)          Many scientific advances have been made toward accurately collecting evidence for global climate change. Explain one technique used: (1) to measure changes that have occurred in atmospheric CO2 over the past 500,000 years; and (2) to measure the long-past temperatures over this same period of time.














MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1) Air pollution is best defined as ________.                1)


  1. A) suspended particles of gases that contain small amounts of solids and liquids
  2. B) organic chemicals that can vaporize into the air
  3. C) any gases in Earth’s atmosphere in trace amounts
  4. D) small particles in the atmosphere arising from volatile organic compounds
  5. E) gases or particles present in high enough concentrations in the atmosphere to harm humans, other organisms and structures


2)            Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?                                    2)

  1. A) carbon monoxide
  2. B) sulfur dioxide
  3. C) ozone
  4. D) mercury
  5. E) chlorofluorocarbons

3)            Which of the following is not an aerosol?                                                       3)

  1. A) pollen B) sea salt              C) smoke                D) dust   E) methane

4)            ________ pollutants are chemicals or particles that are directly emitted from identifiable sources.                4)


  1. A) Primary
  2. B) Tertiary
  3. C) Natural
  4. D) Secondary
  5. E) Man-made


5)            A temperature inversion can adversely affect air quality and is characterized by ________.             5)

  1. A) air masses in which primary and secondary air pollutants are inverted
  2. B) a layer of warm air forming above the stratosphere
  3. C) a layer of warm air forming above colder air
  4. D) a layer of cold air forming above warmer air
  5. E) inverted air masses with particulates held at altitude

6)            Photochemical smog is formed when primary air pollutants interact with ________.                          6)

  1. A) water B) sunlight C) air       D) gases E) moisture

7)            CFCs were primarily used in ________.                                                          7)


  1. A) factories
  2. B) power plants
  3. C) automobiles
  4. D) refrigeration
  5. E) aerosols











8) Scrubbers remove 90% of ________.        8)

  1. A) sulfur oxides
  2. B) nitrogen oxides
  3. C) CFCs
  4. D) greenhouse gases
  5. E) acid deposition

9) An aerosol mixture of particulates and sulfur compounds forms a grayish-colored substance that is           9)

called ________.

  1. A) inversion smog
  2. B) sulfuric aerosols
  3. C) industrial fog
  4. D) industrial smog
  5. E) photochemical fog

10) All of the following are considered indoor air pollutants except ________.    10)

  1. A) cigarette smoke
  2. B) pesticides
  3. C) sodium chloride
  4. D) radon
  5. E) asbestos

11) The best way to address outdoor air pollution is to ________.           11)

  1. A) use high sulfur content coal
  2. B) use automobiles without catalytic converters
  3. C) install scrubbers on smoke stacks
  4. D) build high smoke stacks
  5. E) use less polluting energy sources

12) Radon is an indoor air pollutant that has been linked to ________.  12)

  1. A) skin cancer
  2. B) liver failure
  3. C) liver cancer
  4. D) lung cancer
  5. E) kidney failure

13) The most common human health response to air pollution is ________.         13)

  1. A) circulatory ailments
  2. B) blindness caused by deteriorating eye tissues
  3. C) heart disease
  4. D) eye and respiratory irritation
  5. E) lung cancer

14) Stratospheric ozone depletion is currently most serious ________. 14)

  1. A) over tropical latitudes
  2. B) over the most populated and urbanized regions


  1. C) over the Arctic Ocean
  2. D) over North America
  3. E) over New Zealand and Australia








15) All of the following are major steps to controlling air pollution except ________.         15)

  1. A) determination of major sources of pollutants
  2. B) finding cures for the diseases caused by air pollutants
  3. C) implementing strategies to meet the air pollution standards
  4. D) identification of the pollutants
  5. E) developing agreements among countries to limit air pollution

16) Which step would be most likely to have the greatest effect on improving outdoor air pollution?             16)

  1. A) drastic reduction in the use of aerosol cans
  2. B) drastic reduction in radon emissions
  3. C) drastic reduction in burning firewood
  4. D) significant reduction in automobile use
  5. E) drastic reduction in cigarette smoking

17) Which of the following health problems associated with UV exposure is also associated with      17)

thinning of Earth’s ozone layer?

  1. A) headaches
  2. B) skin irritations
  3. C) heart disease
  4. D) skin cancer
  5. E) gastrointestinal disease

18) Stratospheric ozone destruction involves a complex series of reactions. These reactions begin with        18)


  1. A) UV from sunlight causing Cl atoms to break free from CFCs
  2. B) UV from sunlight being trapped in the troposphere
  3. C) O3 reacting directly with CFCs
  4. D) UV from sunlight reacting directly with O3
  5. E) O3 reacting with industrial sulfuric acid

19) The primary sources of the acidity in acid rain are the gases ________.          19)

  1. A) H2SO4 and NO
  2. B) NOx and N2O
  3. C) O3 and SO2
  4. D) SO2 and NOx
  5. E) O3 and VOCs

20) Which of the following acts set new standards to reduce automobile emissions along with         20)

establishing a cap-and-trade program for reducing sulfur dioxide emissions?

  1. A) the Clean Air Act Amendment of 1990


  1. B) the Clean Air Act of 1963
  2. C) the Clean Air Act Amendment of 1970
  3. D) the Air Quality Act of 1967
  4. E) the Motor Vehicle Air Pollution Control Act of 1965













21)          All of the following pollutants were targeted for reduction by 2010, according to The 1999 Protocol,             21)

except ________.

  1. A) ammonia
  2. B) VOCs
  3. C) sulfur dioxide
  4. D) CFCs
  5. E) nitrous oxide

22)          Which of the following pesticides was used to kill termites and treat wood between 1948 and 1988?             22)

  1. A) PCB B) DDT    C) Lindane             D) Chlordane        E) Atrazine

23)          Which naturally emitted gas, accumulating in indoor spaces, has been linked with lung cancer in     23)



  1. A) mercury
  2. B) asbestos
  3. C) ozone
  4. D) radon
  5. E) carbon monoxide


24) The EPA regulates the demolition and renovation of older buildings because they may contain 24)


  1. A) plywood
  2. B) hydrocarbons
  3. C) radon
  4. D) VOCs
  5. E) asbestos

25) In many developing countries a primary indoor air pollutant is ________.      25)

  1. A) asbestos
  2. B) radon
  3. C) smoke from wood-fueled stoves
  4. D) cigarette smoke
  5. E) VOCs

26) Trace gases make up ________ of the Earth’s atmosphere.                26)

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) less than 5%
  3. C) more than 10%
  4. D) less than 10%
  5. E) less than 1%

27) Carbon dioxide released by automobiles is an example of a ________ source of pollution.        27)

  1. A) point
  2. B) non-point


  1. C) volatile
  2. D) multi-point
  3. E) aerosol










28)          Acid rain is an example of ________ deposition.         28)

  1. A) wet
  2. B) dry
  3. C) industrial
  4. D) aerosol
  5. E) photochemical

29)          Aerosols of sulfur compounds affect climate in what way?         29)


  1. A) They reflect sunlight and cool the Earth’s surface.
  2. B) They have no effect on climate.
  3. C) They absorb sunlight and cause the Earth’s surface to warm.
  4. D) They destroy the ozone layer.
  5. E) They have different effects depending on their source.


30)          Which of the following heavy metals is/are associated with damage to the human nervous system?                30)

  1. A) mercury
  2. B) mercury and lead
  3. C) lead
  4. D) mercury, lead, and radon
  5. E) radon

31)          Indoor air is likely to be contaminated by all of the following except ________.                   31)

  1. A) radon
  2. B) particulate matter
  3. C) microorganisms
  4. D) volatile organic compounds
  5. E) mercury

32)          The Donora killer smog of 1948 was primarily a consequence of ________.                         32)

  1. A) emissions from home furnaces
  2. B) emissions from the steel mill
  3. C) meteorological conditions
  4. D) emissions from automobiles
  5. E) climate change

33)          Rowland and Molina’s work showed that ultraviolet light in the stratosphere causes CFCs to              33)

release ________ atoms.

  1. A) chlorine B) hydrogen          C) fluoride             D) carbon              E) mercury

34)          Students at MIT developed a method to produce ________ from agricultural wastes, resulting in a                34)

safer indoor fuel for use in developing countries.

  1. A) ethanol B) biodiesel           C) wood D) charcoal            E) fuel cells


















35) Which of the following particles is likely to fall out of the air faster? 35)


















  1. A) bacteria B) pollen C) viruses               D) salt-algae          E) fog/smog

36) According to the graph, what year was the Montreal Protocol most likely to have been enacted?             36)























  1. A) 1982 B) 1987 C) 1984  D) 2000  E) 1990



























37) Where are deaths from indoor smoke most likely?               37)




























  1. A) North America
  2. B) South America
  3. C) Africa
  4. D) Asia
  5. E) Australia


38) Where in the United States is the risk of radon exposure lowest?     38)






















  1. A) New Mexico
  2. B) Alabama
  3. C) Florida
  4. D) North Dakota
  5. E) Michigan








39) You go onto the AirNow website, enter your zipcode, and receive your local AQI for the EPA’s 39)


criterion pollutants. Your AQI is 136. You spent about an hour outside today doing yardwork.

Based on these graphs, you should be most concerned about your exposure to ________.





































  1. A) particulate matter
  2. B) nitrogen dioxide
  3. C) lead
  4. D) ozone
  5. E) none of these, as you are a very healthy person



























SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


40) Match the term with the correct definition.            40)



  1. Air Pollution
  2. Air Quality

III.            Volatile Organic Compounds IV. Particulate Matter

  1. Photochemicals


  1. Secondary chemicals whose formation is facilitated by sunlight
  2. Gases or particles that are present in high enough concentrations to harm humans, other organisms, and buildings and other structures
  3. Amount of gases and small particles in the atmosphere that influence ecosystem or human well-being
  4. Organic chemicals that can vaporize into the air
  5. Very small solid and liquid particles suspended in the air


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Acid deposition can be decreased by reducing industrial fossil fuel combustion. In accomplishing this, the amount of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, particulates, and mercury produced would also be lowered.


41)          The major acid resulting from these industrial sources is ________.       41)

  1. A) sulfuric acid
  2. B) nitric acid
  3. C) mercuric acid
  4. D) carbonic acid
  5. E) tropospheric acid

42)          What is the current best strategy, resulting in the greatest decline, for reducing sulfur dioxide from              42)

these industrial emission?


  1. A) tall smokestacks
  2. B) cap-and-trade programs
  3. C) atmospheric dilution of pollutants
  4. D) catalytic converters
  5. E) smoking bans


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


43)          How does acid deposition form, and what are three important impacts that it has on the environment?


44)          Discuss the specific actions that the EPA has taken to minimize the automobile emissions of lead, nitrogen oxide, and carbon monoxide.















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1) A watershed is ________.            1)


  1. A) a river that drains into the sea
  2. B) an inland basin that connects to another inland basin
  3. C) a term used to describe water stored underground
  4. D) the area of land from which rainfall drains into rivers or lakes
  5. E) the water held in the atmosphere prior to returning to Earth in the form of rainfall


2)            What percentage of Earth’s surface is covered with water?                       2)

  1. A) 80% B) 70%    C) 23%    D) 56%   E) 42%

3)            The hydrologic cycle is driven by ________.                                 3)


  1. A) gravity and solar energy
  2. B) solar energy
  3. C) water
  4. D) water and solar energy
  5. E) gravity


4) ________ are human-made lakes and reservoirs that store water for irrigation, flood control, or               4)

energy generation.

  1. A) Aquifers
  2. B) Levees
  3. C) Impoundments
  4. D) Watersheds
  5. E) Channels

5) The entire flux of water into the atmosphere is represented by ________.      5)

  1. A) evapotranspiration
  2. B) percolation
  3. C) transpiration
  4. D) evaporation
  5. E) runoff

6) Which water molecule has the longest residence time?         6)

  1. A) a molecule in the ocean
  2. B) a molecule in snow
  3. C) a molecule in a river
  4. D) a molecule in the atmosphere
  5. E) All water molecules have equal residence times.

7) Dams provide an important source of ________.    7)

  1. A) renewable energy


  1. B) water flowing into lakes
  2. C) nonrenewable energy
  3. D) electricity
  4. E) stabilization for migrating fish to reproduce






8)            Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of pollution?                               8)

  1. A) fertilizer-enriched runoff
  2. B) industrial facilities
  3. C) municipal sewage treatment plant
  4. D) nuclear power plants
  5. E) water released from a paint manufacturer

9)            What percentage of groundwater drawn from aquifers each year is used for irrigation?    9)

  1. A) 3% B) 11%    C) 38%    D) 68%   E) 21%

10)          The Red River of the North flows into Hudson Bay, part of the North Atlantic Ocean. What kind of   10)

watershed does the Red River drain?

  1. A) large B) open  C) oceanic             D) closed               E) small

11)          The underground depth where rock and sediment are completely saturated with water is referred               11)

to as the ________.


  1. A) water table
  2. B) recharge zone
  3. C) unconfined aquifer
  4. D) confined aquifer
  5. E) discharge zone


12) An artesian well is created when the well is drilled into ________.  12)

  1. A) a confined aquifer under great pressure
  2. B) an unconfined aquifer under little pressure
  3. C) a confined aquifer under little pressure
  4. D) any groundwater source
  5. E) an unconfined aquifer under great pressure

13) People who rely on wells for drinking water are likely concerned about all of the following except          13)


  1. A) saltwater intrusion
  2. B) pollutants
  3. C) flooding
  4. D) faulty septic systems
  5. E) overdrawing water

14) Which of the following actions should you avoid if you want to decrease the severity of flooding?            14)

  1. A) converting meadows into agricultural areas
  2. B) planting trees
  3. C) converting agricultural fields to residential areas
  4. D) using permeable pavers
  5. E) installing green roofs

15) The Aral Sea is shrinking due to ________.            15)

  1. A) a large number of dams
  2. B) overdrawing the aquifer it is located upon
  3. C) saltwater intrusion


  1. D) subsidence
  2. E) diversion of the rivers that flow into it






16) An important characteristic of aquatic dead zones is a ________.     16)


  1. A) high concentration of urban development
  2. B) low concentration of oxygen
  3. C) low concentration of keystone species
  4. D) high concentration of organisms resulting in extreme competition and finally the death of most
  5. E) low concentration of nitrogen and phosphorus nutrients


17) The rapid sinking of a large area of land above an aquifer is known as ________.         17)

  1. A) subsidence
  2. B) a sinkhole
  3. C) a recharge zone
  4. D) saltwater intrusion
  5. E) a discharge zone

18) The specific aquifer on which most of the U.S. midwestern agriculture depends is known as the               18)


  1. A) Illinois aquifer
  2. B) Trans Dakota-Texas aquifer
  3. C) Ogallala aquifer
  4. D) Artesian Aqueduct project
  5. E) Colorado water project

19) In the United States, which of the following consumes the greatest amount of water?  19)

  1. A) industry
  2. B) domestic
  3. C) U.S. government
  4. D) power plant cooling
  5. E) agriculture

20) Most of the water supplied to homes is used ________.     20)

  1. A) to water house plants
  2. B) to wash, clean, and flush away undesirable materials
  3. C) for drinking
  4. D) for recreation
  5. E) for cooking

21) A specific example of nonconsumptive use of water is ________.    21)

  1. A) cattle grazing operations on federal lands
  2. B) disposal of sewage wastewater
  3. C) commercial forestry
  4. D) agriculture
  5. E) industrial cooling processes

22) The first comprehensive national law to manage water quality was the ________.        22)

  1. A) Safe Drinking Water Act


  1. B) Water Pollution Control Act
  2. C) Clear Drinking Water Act
  3. D) Oil Pollution Control Act
  4. E) Clean Water Act







23) Which Act requires the EPA to regulate the discharge of pollutants into waterways?    23)

  1. A) Oil Pollution Control Act
  2. B) Water Pollution Control Act
  3. C) Clear Drinking Water Act
  4. D) Safe Drinking Water Act
  5. E) Clean Water Act

24) The maximum amount of a pollutant that a body of water can support without reducing water  24)

quality below acceptable levels is represented by ________.

  1. A) total minimum daily levels
  2. B) total maximum daily levels
  3. C) total maximum daily loads
  4. D) total minimum daily loads
  5. E) water quality

25) Bioassessment uses ________ to determine water quality.                25)

  1. A) conductivity
  2. B) dissolved oxygen
  3. C) turbidity
  4. D) pH
  5. E) living organisms

26) Eutrophication is caused by ________.   26)

  1. A) mercury
  2. B) high levels of phosphorus
  3. C) low pH
  4. D) low dissolved oxygen
  5. E) high turbidity

27) Ocean acidification is a consequence of what other environmental problem?                27)

  1. A) climate change
  2. B) saltwater intrusion
  3. C) eutrophication
  4. D) acid precipitation
  5. E) biodiversity loss

28) Which of the following methods has the highest irrigation efficiency?              28)

  1. A) flooding fields
  2. B) low-energy precision application sprinklers
  3. C) surge irrigation
  4. D) aerial sprinkler systems
  5. E) drip irrigation

29) What is the major deterrent to the widespread use of desalination?                29)

  1. A) expense
  2. B) taste


  1. C) lack of an energy source
  2. D) lack of a water source
  3. E) lack of technology








30) Which of the following is not considered wastewater?         30)

  1. A) sewage
  2. B) water from sinks
  3. C) groundwater
  4. D) storm water runoff
  5. E) water used in manufacturing

31) ________ is/are formed during primary wastewater treatment.       31)

  1. A) Gray water
  2. B) Inorganic nutrients
  3. C) Toxins
  4. D) Sludge
  5. E) Bacteria

32) A/An ________ is a series of large tanks that begin with anaerobic treatment and follows with 32)

plants and biological life forms that would live in various wetland areas.

  1. A) septic tank
  2. B) leach field
  3. C) eco-machine
  4. D) wastewater treatment plant
  5. E) septic field

33) Solids in wastewater treatment are removed in ________.                33)

  1. A) primary treatment
  2. B) pretreatment
  3. C) secondary treatment
  4. D) sludge digestion
  5. E) tertiary treatment

34) Secondary sewage treatment is designed primarily to ________.     34)

  1. A) remove all bacteria and microorganisms
  2. B) remove the solids
  3. C) pretreat wastewater on its way to tertiary treatment
  4. D) remove the dissolved organic matter
  5. E) remove hazardous chemicals such as pesticides and heavy metals

35) When considering using gray water, you might use the water for ________. 35)

  1. A) flushing toilets
  2. B) taking baths
  3. C) washing clothes
  4. D) filling swimming pools
  5. E) washing hands

36) The purpose of an Eco-Machine is to ________.   36)

  1. A) simulate photosynthesis
  2. B) treat wastewater


  1. C) treat saltwater
  2. D) create graywater
  3. E) reduce municipal water use








37) Based on this data, which country or countries would you expect to have an economy highly    37)

dependent upon industry?


































































  1. A) United States and France





  1. B) United States
  2. C) France
  3. D) Mali
  4. E) France and Mali


38) In 1848, San Francisco Bay looked much different than it does today. At one time, the largest part of 38) this estuary had an area defined by approximately ________.

























  1. A) 30 × 80 km
  2. B) 15 × 40 km
  3. C) 20 × 40 km


  1. D) 40 × 50 mi
  2. E) 40 × 150 mi


































39) According to this data, which impairment should be of most concern?             39)




































  1. A) trash
  2. B) pH
  3. C) algal growth


  1. D) pathogens
  2. E) mercury































40) The main conclusion from this graph on soil and vegetation change after wetland restoration is                40)


























  1. A) soil organic matter and nutrient absorption are much easier to accomplish than improvements in biomass
  2. B) that it takes at least 10 years for wetlands restoration to be completed
  3. C) soil organic matter is initially the most rapid category to recover
  4. D) plant biomass recovers relatively rapidly in restored wetlands
  5. E) soils are more important to wetlands restoration than are plants


41) The year that Boston was able to reduce its water consumption to below 275 millions of gallons per 41) day was ________.























  1. A) 2009 B) 1998 C) 1992  D) 1994  E) 1985













42) Which country would you expect to be most likely to see conflicts over access to water?           42)

























  1. A) India B) Brazil C) Russia                D) Australia           E) Canada

43) Where in this household septic system are the dissolved organic chemicals broken down by     43)



























  1. A) gravel or crushed stone field
  2. B) distribution box
  3. C) septic tank
  4. D) leach field
  5. E) drain field












SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


44) Match the description with the appropriate term. 44)



  1. Runoff
  2. Groundwater

III.            Aquifer

  1. Transpiration
  2. Evapotranspiration


  1. Water that percolates through the soil and into the rock below
  2. Rainwater that falls on land and flows across the surface
  3. Layer of soil or rock that is saturated with water
  4. Represents the entire flux of water into the atmosphere
  5. Evaporation from leaves


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


The following is some information and finding on The State on California’s salt water marshes. Review this information below before answering the questions on California’s wetlands quality.


∙               85% of the State’s salt marshes were in good to very good health; 35% of salt marsh acreage reflected very good hydrology and marsh plant community structure; 65% had large, intact buffers.

∙               Salt marsh health generally declined from Northern to Southern California, consistent with a trend in increasing urbanization.

∙               Dikes and levees were among the most frequent and most severe physical stressors.


∙               California has 2.9 million acres of wetlands.

∙               Estimates of total historical wetland loss vary for California. Some regional studies have reported loss rates up to 90%. Some wetland types, such as vernal pools, riparian habitat, and coastal wetlands have experienced disproportionately higher rates of loss. Wetland loss has occurred as land was converted from natural habitat to urban and agricultural land uses.


∙               California has made substantial progress over the last 10 years in identifying, acquiring, restoring, and enhancing wetlands.


45)          As of this study, approximately how many million acres of wetlands in California are in good to        45)

very good health?

  1. A) 2.2 million acres
  2. B) 1.6 million acres
  3. C) 2.9 million acres
  4. D) 2.5 million acres
  5. E) cannot be determined

46)          From the data provided, approximately how many acres of wetlands did California originally            46)



  1. A) 5 million acres
  2. B) 3.2 million acres
  3. C) 1.5 million acres
  4. D) 10 million acres
  5. E) 90 million acres











ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


47)          Differentiate between point source and non-point source pollution. Give an example of each and describe a current piece of legislation or policy designed to control each type of pollution.


48)          It is estimated that by 2035, half of the people in the world will live under severe water shortages. Discuss three specific strategies for conserving water in the United States.









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1)            People living in the Andes Mountains approximately 5,000 years ago domesticated ________.       1)

  1. A) corn B) potatoes            C) wheat                D) chickpeas         E) barley

2)            Beginning over 5,000 years ago, corn (maize) was first domesticated in ________.                             2)

  1. A) Spain B) Brazil C) Portugal            D) Mexico              E) China

3)            The primary reasons agricultural productivity increased during the Green Revolution was been a   3)

combination of fertilizers, crop breeding, pest control, and ________.


  1. A) less overgrazing
  2. B) organic farming techniques
  3. C) genetically modified organisms
  4. D) irrigation improvements
  5. E) increased rainfall


4)            The move from hunter-gatherers to purposefully planning cultivation of crops first began in            4)


  1. A) Europe
  2. B) New Mexico
  3. C) Llano Estacado
  4. D) Mesopotamia
  5. E) Africa

5)            Which crop was one of the first to be domesticated?                                  5)

  1. A) rice B) soybeans           C) chickpeas          D) corn   E) sorghum

6)            One of the most important insect pollinators has been ________.                                           6)


  1. A) hornets
  2. B) fruit-eating bats
  3. C) honeybees
  4. D) hummingbirds
  5. E) wasps


7) For most domestic animals, trophic-level efficiency is usually ________.           7)

  1. A) less than 10%
  2. B) approximately 20%
  3. C) approximately 30%
  4. D) greater than 10%
  5. E) dependent on what the animals were fed

8) Agrosystems are prone to nutrient losses because of all the following reasons except ________.               8)

  1. A) plowing of crops
  2. B) plants are harvested
  3. C) the water cycle breaks down


  1. D) low crop biodiversity in a given field
  2. E) leaching as a result of irrigation





9)            The primary cause of soil erosion is ________.            9)

  1. A) use of crop cover
  2. B) crop rotation
  3. C) over cultivation
  4. D) no-till agriculture
  5. E) strip cropping

10)          An ideal pesticide would be characterized by ________.           10)


  1. A) being of equal value to the damage the pest would have caused
  2. B) not leaching into water supplies in the ground
  3. C) broad spectrum in its target
  4. D) persistence
  5. E) allowing the development of genetic resistance


11) In developed countries, the most recent increases in agricultural productivity have come from                11)


  1. A) irrigation in arid areas
  2. B) clearing rainforests
  3. C) new crop varieties and polyculture techniques
  4. D) extensive drip irrigation use in farming
  5. E) clearing grasslands and savannas

12) ________ is an example of a pesticide that qualifies as a form of biological pest control.            12)

  1. A) Carbamate
  2. B) Organophosphates
  3. C) Lindane
  4. D) Pheromones
  5. E) DDT

13) Soil texture influences ________.            13)

  1. A) color
  2. B) nutrient content
  3. C) bedrock geology
  4. D) pH
  5. E) tilth

14) Mercury is known to biomagnify in food chains, in the same manner as DDT. Based on your       14)

knowledge of biomagnification of DDT, which organism would you expect to contain the most

mercury in a contaminated lake?

  1. A) algae and plants


  1. B) small fish
  2. C) large fish
  3. D) fish-eating birds
  4. E) aquatic insects















15) Sustainable agriculture has many goals. One of the primary goals is best described as ________.             15)


  1. A) increasing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
  2. B) converting forestland into productive cropland
  3. C) converting desert land into productive cropland because of the growth in desalinization technology
  4. D) encouraging the growth of large-scale agribusiness because it is the most economically viable form of agriculture
  5. E) making an effort to maintain productive topsoil


16) ________ is defined as physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food        16)

to meet dietary needs and food preferences needed for an active and healthy lifestyle.

  1. A) Ecological eating
  2. B) Food security
  3. C) Sustainable agriculture
  4. D) The food footprint
  5. E) World hunger

17) Managing crop competitors and pests have been challenging to agronomists for centuries. One               17)

approach, integrated pest management, ________.

  1. A) combines a variety of pesticides to combat the pest
  2. B) uses no pesticides of any kind
  3. C) uses only pheromones
  4. D) combines chemical pesticides with biological control techniques
  5. E) uses only chemical pesticides

18) Humus is ________.    18)

  1. A) partially decomposed organic matter
  2. B) an indicative of poor soils
  3. C) a mixture of living organisms and their waste products
  4. D) light colored or nearly white
  5. E) poisonous to soil microorganisms

19) A pheromone is a ________.     19)


  1. A) chemical that travels in the bloodstream and controls an organism’s growth and development
  2. B) strong herbicide
  3. C) new form of chemical insecticide waiting FDA approval
  4. D) species-specific chemical attractant
  5. E) predator used to manage a pest naturally


20) The process by which the concentration of a pesticide increases through a food chain is called                20)



  1. A) biomagnification
  2. B) broad-spectrum effect
  3. C) biological concentration
  4. D) bioaccumulation
  5. E) pesticide treadmill effect












21) Most crops cannot grow in ________.     21)


  1. A) warm climates
  2. B) water logged soil
  3. C) soil containing good oxygen levels
  4. D) areas with seasonal temperature and rainfall patterns
  5. E) nutrient rich soil


22) Which of the following is not required for plant growth?     22)

  1. A) light
  2. B) water
  3. C) carbon dioxide
  4. D) nutrients
  5. E) oxygen

23) Soil texture refers to the relative amounts of ________ in soil.         23)

  1. A) organic matter and minerals
  2. B) water, organic matter, and minerals
  3. C) sand, silt, and clay
  4. D) detritus and humus
  5. E) mineral content and water saturation

24) Water diversion and irrigation has allowed humans to grow crops in areas where natural supplies           24)

have been limited. A major challenge that exists in these regions has been ________.

  1. A) low crop diversity
  2. B) high pesticide use
  3. C) salinization of soils
  4. D) soil erosion
  5. E) high trophic-level efficiency

25) People around the world have become more dependent on global markets for their food. As a                25)

result, recent U.S. government policies encouraging ________ have had a major negative effect on

food availability.

  1. A) organic farming
  2. B) increased herbicide use
  3. C) ethanol production
  4. D) permaculture techniques
  5. E) integrated pest management

26) Which of the following is not a reason for the origins of agriculture?                26)

  1. A) population growth
  2. B) newly evolved plant adaptations
  3. C) improved quality of human life
  4. D) shortages of wild food
  5. E) climate change

27) Which of the following is a recent human impact on the nitrogen cycle?         27)

  1. A) bacterial nitrification


  1. B) introducing legumes into plant rotation
  2. C) the Haber-Bosch process
  3. D) biological nitrogen fixation
  4. E) nitrogen mining





28)          In which horizon is subsoil located?                                 28)

  1. A) A B) C         C) B         D) O        E) E

29)          In which region of the world would you expect irrigation to be most critical?        29)


  1. A) PET is lower than rainfall.
  2. B) PET is higher than rainfall.
  3. C) Rainfall is high.
  4. D) Rainfall is low.
  5. E) PET is equal to rainfall.


30) Which of the following is a concern people have about genetically modified organisms?             30)

  1. A) It can allow farmers to kill weeds without harming the crop.
  2. B) It can result in livestock that produce less manure.
  3. C) It can increase the nutritional value of food.
  4. D) It can lead to reduced use of pesticides.
  5. E) It can lead to herbicide resistance.

31) Which of the following may not be a good choice when eating sustainably?    31)

  1. A) choosing natural foods
  2. B) choosing seasonal foods
  3. C) choosing vegetarian foods
  4. D) choosing organic foods
  5. E) choosing local foods

32) Which of the following did not contribute to the collapse of agricultural ecosystems during the Dust       32)


  1. A) drought conditions
  2. B) lack of cover crops
  3. C) shelterbelt planting
  4. D) plowing practices
  5. E) burning of fields

33) Which of the following is a benefit of perennial wheat over annual wheat?    33)

  1. A) There is less use of fossil fuels.


  1. B) There is more permanent storage of carbon.
  2. C) There is less risk due to weather conditions.
  3. D) There is less soil erosion.
  4. E) All of these are benefits.






















34)          34) Vegetarians function as ________ in agricultural ecosystems.

































  1. A) primary producers
  2. B) secondary consumers
  3. C) decomposers
  4. D) primary consumers
  5. E) omnivores


35) The increase in American consumption of organic foods has increased approximately ________             35)

from 2004 to 2006.























  1. A) 10% B) 20% C) 30%    D) 80%   E) 4%


















36)          The major conclusion that can be drawn from the U.S. data presented is ________.           36)

  1. A) farm size and number are in equilibrium in 1950
  2. B) fewer and bigger farms were the norm in 1950
  3. C) larger and a greater number of large farms are the norm in 2010
  4. D) fewer and smaller farms are the norm in 2010
  5. E) fewer and bigger farms are the norm in 2010

37)          The average size of U.S. farms in 2000 was approximately ________ acres.           37)

  1. A) 1,000 B) 550 C) 7,000 D) 4,000 E) 100













































38) According to this data depicting the climate limits of specific crops, corn, an important food crop,            38)

grows best in the ________ biome.









































  1. A) tropical savanna
  2. B) tropical rain forest
  3. C) taiga
  4. D) chaparral/grassland
  5. E) temperate forest























39) You want to reduce your food footprint. You are at the grocery store and deciding what to have for 39) dinner. Based on the graph shown, what is your best option?




























  1. A) chicken noodle soup
  2. B) vegetable omelet
  3. C) hamburger and fries
  4. D) cereal and milk
  5. E) bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


40) Match the description with the appropriate term. 40)



  1. Agriculture
  2. Agronomy

III.            Agroecosystem IV. Harvest Index

  1. Green Revolution


  1. A recent period where global agriculture has increased several fold
  2. Crops, domestic animals, and the physical environments in which they grow
  3. The fraction of total crop production that people can use
  4. The science that applies genetics, physiology, chemistry, and ecology to agriculture
  5. The system of land management used to grow plants and animals for food, fiber, or energy
















41) Match the description with the appropriate term. 41)



  1. Gravitational Water
  2. Hygroscopic Water III. Capillary Water IV. Field Capacity
  3. Soil Wilting Point


  1. There is no longer enough water in the soil for plants to replace transpiration water loss
  2. Amount of water that a given volume of soil can hold against the force of gravity
  3. Water held in micropores by water-to-water hydrogen bonds
  4. Water bound to soil particles
  5. Water flowing through the soil


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Climate change presents agriculture with challenges and uncertainties. In most of the middle and higher latitudes, global warming will impact the length of the potential growing season. This seasonal change could possibly allow for earlier planting in the spring as well as earlier harvesting, with the possibility of completing two harvests in one season. However, most climate models indicate that conditions for agriculture will worsen in tropical latitudes, as a result of increasing temperatures.


42) The process that is most likely to be affected by increasing temperatures, thereby influencing  42)

tropical croplands is ________.

  1. A) genetic diversity
  2. B) evapotranspiration
  3. C) tropical pest increase
  4. D) soil nutrient content
  5. E) salinization

43) Agriculture production may possibly move northward in latitude due to increased warming.     43)

However, agriculture will only be successful if ________.

  1. A) appropriate soils are found at these latitudes


  1. B) appropriate farming technology is available
  2. C) pesticides are acceptable for use
  3. D) polyculture techniques are available
  4. E) climate change eventually reverts its current trends


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


44)          Discuss two major environmental impacts of producing and managing large numbers of domestic animals for food.


45)          Discuss how integrated pest management differs from historical pest management practices.










MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Accounting for over half of all deforestation in tropical regions is the ________.            1)

  1. A) need for urban development
  2. B) harvesting of natural forest products for food
  3. C) highly productive nature of tropical soils
  4. D) unlimited supply of land
  5. E) need for agricultural expansion

2) Deforestation can be slowed by which of the following?        2)

  1. A) growing more timber on short rotations
  2. B) building new roads and homes in forest areas
  3. C) practicing clear cutting
  4. D) practicing shifting agriculture on forest land
  5. E) recycling more paper to reduce the need for pulpwood

3) Which of the following is a consequence of clearing forests for agriculture purposes?   3)

  1. A) Water runoff is decreased.
  2. B) Biodiversity is increased.
  3. C) Crop productivity is greatly increased because of the rich soil.
  4. D) Soil erosion is increased.
  5. E) CO2 levels remain appropriate within the atmosphere.

4) Sustainable forest management ________.              4)


  1. A) is the most efficient, cheapest harvesting method
  2. B) includes varied uneven-aged management approaches
  3. C) is the most efficient way to harvest valuable small timber without disturbing the larger early successional trees
  4. D) is the most effective way to harvest all trees in a given location
  5. E) includes even-aged management


5) High grading can be defined as ________.                5)


  1. A) removal of particular species of trees for fuel and construction
  2. B) the loss of biodiversity of forest areas
  3. C) a forest that has been largely unaffected by humans
  4. D) artificially or naturally reforested areas
  5. E) the natural frequency and severity of fires in a forest


6) Allocation is ________. 6)


  1. A) the loss of biodiversity of forest areas
  2. B) the creation of even-aged stands for greater biodiversity
  3. C) the management of the location and relative amounts of different forest uses
  4. D) the creation of agricultural lands
  5. E) naturally reforesting specific areas










7)            Complete removal of the forest canopy is ________.                 7)

  1. A) forest rotation
  2. B) rationing
  3. C) selective harvesting
  4. D) uneven aged management
  5. E) clear-cutting

8)            Forests provide habitat for ________ of all terrestrial species.                 8)

  1. A) 0-20% B) 60-80%              C) 40-60%              D) 20-40%             E) 80-100%

9)            The best approach for slowing worldwide deforestation will require ________.  9)


  1. A) focus on soil erosion issues
  2. B) multiple strategies
  3. C) limiting biodiversity losses
  4. D) focus on limiting consumption in developing countries
  5. E) focus on charcoal use in developed countries


10)          Wood consumption by humans in developing countries is primarily used for ________.    10)

  1. A) solid wood products
  2. B) building
  3. C) making paper
  4. D) manufacturing homes
  5. E) fuel

11)          The seeds of conifer trees are found in ________.                                     11)

  1. A) roots B) flowers              C) shoots                D) cones                E) tissue

12)          Field experiments studying the effects of increased CO2 on forest growth have shown ________. 12)


  1. A) increased net primary productivity under all circumstances
  2. B) there is no real effect on net primary productivity
  3. C) increased net primary productivity only when phosphorus and iron are abundant
  4. D) increased net primary productivity only when nitrogen and water are abundant
  5. E) decreased net primary productivity


13) The establishment stage of forest development following disturbance can be described as ________.    13)


  1. A) large trees continuing to grow with the biomass of the forest increasing
  2. B) very large, old trees that are abundant
  3. C) tree seedlings becoming established in the gaps in the forest
  4. D) trees becoming much larger and more widely spaced in the forest
  5. E) tree seedlings germinating on the recently cleared ground


14) Primary plant/tree growth is characterized mainly by ________.      14)


  1. A) seed germination
  2. B) upward and downward growth due to cell division at tips of roots and shoots
  3. C) development of leaves that are essential to photosynthesis
  4. D) change in diameter of the stem/trunk
  5. E) growth and production of wood










15)          Ten thousand years ago, forests covered approximately 50% of Earth. Today, forests cover               15)

approximately ________ of the Earth’s land area.

  1. A) 70% B) 50%    C) 15%    D) 5%      E) 30%

16)          Currently, the most economically valuable non-wood commodity to be harvested from forests is    16)



  1. A) gums and resins for industry
  2. B) mushrooms and truffles
  3. C) wild nuts and fruits for human food
  4. D) high protein foods for malnourished populations
  5. E) pharmaceuticals


17) Primary forests ________.         17)


  1. A) have been cleared by not degrading it
  2. B) have been largely unaffected by humans
  3. C) have been impacted by fire
  4. D) have been compromised because of the introduction of non-nature species
  5. E) have grown back from disturbance


18) Rationing is ________.                18)


  1. A) the process of determining how old a forest is
  2. B) intensively managing forests for plant and animal benefit
  3. C) the process of managing the forest using selective cutting
  4. D) the process of determining the amount of forests goods and services to be used by humans
  5. E) intensively managing forests for human benefit


19) Rotation time in a forest depends on ________.   19)


  1. A) trees produced in the forest
  2. B) topography and location of the forest
  3. C) forest management goals
  4. D) extraction of the wood for building homes
  5. E) heterogeneous age structure of the forest


20) Rotation time is ________.         20)


  1. A) intended use of wood
  2. B) the average interval between successive cuts
  3. C) intensively managing forests for plant and animal benefit
  4. D) the average interval between types of forests: evergreen or deciduous
  5. E) intensively managing forests for human benefit


21) Which of the following is a way in which humans pay directly for the ecosystem services forests              21)



  1. A) flood prevention
  2. B) ecotourism
  3. C) carbon storage
  4. D) biodiversity
  5. E) water purification










22)          Which of the following forest products would you expect to have the best potential for sustainable               22)


  1. A) garden mulch
  2. B) paper
  3. C) building materials
  4. D) pharmaceuticals
  5. E) firewood

23)          Life of a single tree begins with a(n) ________.                                            23)

  1. A) conifer
  2. B) angiosperm
  3. C) seed
  4. D) flower
  5. E) cone

24)          Which tree species is most widely used for the purpose of making paper?                            24)

  1. A) maple B) pine   C) redwood           D) ash     E) cedar

25)          What percentage of wood harvested in Africa is consumed for fuel?                      25)

  1. A) 90% B) 60%    C) 40%    D) 20%   E) 10%

26)          The area necessary to maintain all different patch types and populations of their associated species,              26)

given the typical patterns of disturbance, is defined as the ________.


  1. A) minimum dynamic area
  2. B) primary growth
  3. C) establishment stage
  4. D) old-growth area
  5. E) secondary growth



































27) Among non-wood forest products, ________ has/have the highest economic value on world   27)





























  1. A) wild nuts and fruit
  2. B) mushrooms and truffles
  3. C) pharmaceuticals
  4. D) ginseng
  5. E) gums and resins





































28) What do the light green lines within this forestry area represent?    28)




























  1. A) nature hiking paths
  2. B) road development in the forest
  3. C) strip cropping
  4. D) shade tree lines that help with coffee growing
  5. E) alley cropping

















29) Which of the following continents is using the least harvested wood for fuel?                29)


  1. A) South America
  2. B) Europe
  3. C) Africa
  4. D) North America
  5. E) Asia














30) Which of the following continents is using the majority of harvested wood for lumber or solid  30)

wood products?

  1. A) Asia
  2. B) Africa
  3. C) South America
  4. D) Europe
  5. E) North America

31) Which of the following continents is using the majority of wood for fiber to produce paper?     31)

  1. A) Asia
  2. B) Africa
  3. C) North America


  1. D) Europe
  2. E) South America


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


32) Match the description with the appropriate term. 32)



  1. Allocation
  2. Harvest

III. Clear-Cutting

  1. Even-Aged Management
  2. Uneven-Aged Management


  1. The management of the location and relative amount of different forest uses
  2. Produces a more heterogeneous age structure
  3. The extraction of goods or services from a forest
  4. Produces trees of uniform age
  5. The complete removal of forest canopy trees


33) Match the description with the appropriate term. 33)



  1. Seed
  2. Conifer

III.            Angiosperm IV. Phloem

  1. Xylem


  1. Tree whose seeds grow in flowers
  2. Tree whose seeds grow in cones
  3. Transports carbohydrates down stems to roots
  4. Embryo embedded in nutritive tissue and surrounded by a protective coat
  5. Transports nutrients and water from the roots up the stems
















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Use the following information to answer the accompanying questions.


When tropical storm Jeanne hit Haiti and the Dominican Republic in September, 2004, there was over 20 inches of rainfall in 24 hours–more than a third of the rain that typically falls during an entire year. Forestry practices in these two tropical countries have been quite different, with most of Haiti’s forests having been removed by 1990, and the rapidly growing population becoming increasingly dependent on subsistence farming in mountainous regions of the island. Tropical storm Jeanne created a national disaster for Haiti with over 3,000 lives lost, but the Dominican Republic experienced very short-lived effects.


34)          After tropical storm Jeanne, one immediate consequence of Haiti’s forestry practices was to           34)


  1. A) decrease important sediments brought to cropland
  2. B) reduce NPP values that affected food growing potential
  3. C) increase volume and speed of rainfall runoff
  4. D) increase the demand for wood products from forests
  5. E) pollute tropical oceans decreasing tourism

35)          One possible approach to remediating the above scenario might be ________.   35)


  1. A) increasing agricultural output of the country so that starvation is reduced
  2. B) increasing education of the populous so that more urban technology can occur
  3. C) sustainable harvesting of agricultural crops
  4. D) community-based programs coupling forest restoration with economic development
  5. E) employing even-aged forestry management practices


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


36)          On July 4-5, 1999 a derecho (widespread wind storm) resulted in damage to 370,000 acres (out of 1 million total acres) and the loss of 25 million trees in the Boundary Water Canoe Area Wilderness (BWCAW) in northern Minnesota. Explain what you expect will happen to the forest stand in the BWCAW as a result of this disturbance.


37)          With only 7.3 million mi2 of primary forests remaining worldwide, 23,000 mi2 of these forests continue to be cut on an annual basis. Discuss three major environmental concerns with this continual loss of primary forest land.













MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) For the last 100 years, our primary energy source has been ________. 1)
A) fuel wood
B) nuclear energy
C) fossil fuels
D) hydropower
E) natural gas
2) Which of the following primary energy sources is currently most consumed by humans? 2)
A) natural gas
B) oil
C) wood
D) coal
E) nuclear power
3) One hundred units of coal energy are converted to electricity, which is then used to power an 3)
incandescent light bulb that produces 1.2 units of light energy. This results in a 1.2% ________.
A) energy conversion
B) consumption
C) energy conversion efficiency
D) energy return on investment
E) energy end-use efficiency
4) Currently, fossil fuels meet ________ of the global energy needs. 4)
A) 35% B) 79% C) 70% D) 57% E) 5%
5) When coal is burned to generate electricity, 70% of the primary energy in the coal is transformed 5)
into unused heat. This means that the energy conversion efficiency from chemical to electrical
energy is ________.
  1. 0%
  2. 100%
  3. 70%
  4. 30%
  5. cannot be determined


6) In the United States, oil production is ________ oil consumption. 6)
  1. A) slightly less than
  2. B) significantly less than
  3. C) equal to
  4. D) significantly greater than
  5. E) slightly greater than












7) All of the following except ________ would result in improved energy-use efficiency. 7)
  1. buying more SUV motor vehicles
  2. buying high-efficiency appliances
  3. rebates for building energy-efficient buildings


  1. tax credits for insulating and putting double pane windows in existing buildings
  2. tax credits for installing geothermal heating in your home


8) The source of energy for nuclear power is ________. 8)
A) nuclear fusion
B) breeder reactions
C) nuclear fission
D) natural gas
E) nuclear reaction
9) A measure of the useful energy produced divided by the amount of energy it takes to obtain it, is 9)
known as ________.
A) the proven reserves
B) the energy conversion efficiency
C) a measure of intrinsic value
D) the energy return on investment (EROI)
E) a measure of secondary energy
10) Renewable energy includes all of the following except ________. 10)
A) the sun
B) rain
C) geothermal heat
D) natural gas
E) the wind
11) Electric power is measured in ________. 11)
A) amperes
B) base load
C) volts
D) kilowatt hours
E) peak load
12) Keeping energy prices artificially low ________. 12)
A) encourages waste and rapid depletion of energy resources
B) has no effect on the amount of air pollution in the United States
C) will reduce inflation
D) encourages use of renewable energy sources
E) prevents manufacturing from wasting energy in production of good
13) Fossil fuels are best described as a(n) ________ energy source. 13)
A) environmentally friendly
B) nonrenewable
  1. C) efficient
  2. D) clean
  3. E) renewable








14) Which of the following represents the greatest electric power? 14)
A) high potential and low current
B) no potential and high current
C) low potential and high current
D) high potential and high current
E) low potential and low current
15) Proven environmental impacts of the transmission of electricity have been associated with 15)
intermittent ________.
A) air pollution surrounding coal mining
B) use of PCBs in transformers
C) use of heavy metals in transmission lines
D) electromagnetic fields
E) radioactive effects of electricity
16) Energy consumption can be reduced by all of the following except ________. 16)
A) purchasing only energy-efficient lighting
B) using your car instead of mass transit
C) turning off unused lights
D) buying a more energy-efficient furnace for your home
E) purchasing energy-efficient light bulbs
17) Proved reserves of a nonrenewable energy source are ________. 17)
A) the extent of known energy reserves
B) reserves that will be exhausted due to overuse by humans
C) quantities of fuel that can be recovered using current technology and prices
D) measures of useful energy produced
E) refined and captured but not able to be reused
18) The Hudson River has been polluted with ________ from a facility that manufactures electrical 18)
B) coolants
C) solid waste
E) peat
19) Using high pressure liquids to extract oil from rocks such as oil shale is known as ________. 19)
A) internal combustion
B) scrubber technology
C) hydraulic fracturing
D) outflow washing
E) primary oil recovery
20) A/An ________ is a device designed to remove particles and pollutant gases. 20)
A) tall stack
  1. B) air filter
  2. C) boiler
  3. D) coal washer
  4. E) scrubber







21) Mine tailings contain ________, which harms fish and other aquatic organisms. 21)
A) lignite B) fly ash C) sulfide D) nitrogen E) oxygen
22) Many oil reserves are located far away from the urban areas requiring these reserves. A major oil 22)
spill associated with the transporting of oil was ________.
  1. Deepwater Horizon
  2. Prestige
  3. Exxon Valdez
  4. America Trader
  5. Alaska Monitor


23) A major concern with natural gas demand is ________. 23)
A) lack of greenhouse gas emission
B) lack of appropriate storage
C) transportation
D) limited use of the fossil fuel
E) low supply
24) Natural gas is mainly consumed by ________. 24)
A) industry
B) nuclear power
C) transportation
D) households
E) agriculture
25) Which of the following is a benefit of using nuclear power? 25)
A) core meltdown of reactors
B) increasing costs of nonrenewable energy sources
C) mining activities
D) few greenhouse gases are emitted
E) using nuclear power causes more use of fossil fuels
26) In which situation would you expect to be closest to peak load? 26)
  1. on a cool, sunny day
  2. in the middle of a spring night
  3. on a windy day
  4. on an extremely hot day
  5. Peak load is always the same, regardless of time or weather.


27) Tar sand deposits are examples of ________. 27)
  1. A) peak oil
  2. B) clean coal systems
  3. C) conventional oil reservoirs
  4. D) unconventional oil reservoirs
  5. E) liquefied natural gas













28) Using the natural built-up pressure in a reservoir to extract crude oil is known as ________ oil 28)
A) solitary
B) primary
C) quaternary
D) tertiary
E) secondary
29) The Kern River Oil Field in California has remained active because ________. 29)
A) new extraction technologies have been developed
B) the price of oil has increased
C) both the demand and price for oil has increased
D) the demand for oil has increased
E) All of these answers are correct.
30) The presence of specific polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) in the red blood cells of seagulls 30)
indicates ________.
A) long-term exposure to pollutants from oil spills
B) recent exposure to pollutants from nuclear waste
C) long-term exposure to pollutants from nuclear waste
D) recent exposure to pollutants from oil spills
E) nothing of concern as PAHs are normally present in red blood cells
31) Knowing the importance of assessing coal reserves in terms of energy content per unit weight, which 31)
region has the most valuable coal reserves?


























  1. South America
  2. Australia
  3. Europe
  4. Asia
  5. Africa







32) Proven uranium reserves are found in many continents; of the countries listed below, the country 32)
with the least known reserves is ________.

























  1. Canada
  2. Uzbekistan
  3. Kazakhstan
  4. Namibia
  5. Brazil


33) Currently, which of the following primary energy sources accounts for the least global 33)



















  1. nuclear
  2. hydropower
  3. wood
  4. gas
  5. renewable energy










SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


34) Match the description with the appropriate term. 34)


  1. Primary Energy
  2. Secondary Energy
  • Nonrenewable Energy IV. Renewable Energy
  1. Energy Conversion


  1. The process of changing one form of energy into other forms of energy
  2. Energy contained in natural resources
  3. Energy sources that have been converted from other energy sources
  4. Sources of energy that exist in limited quantities
  5. Sources of energy that are not depleted when they are used


35) Match the description with the appropriate term. 35)


  1. Fuel Cell
  2. Transformer
  • Electric Power Grid IV. Electric Generator V. Electromagnetic Field


  1. Converts chemical energy into electricity through a reaction with oxygen
  2. Reduces amperage and increases voltage
  3. Network of transmission lines and transformers
  4. Dynamo
  5. Area of electromagnetic force


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Electrical current is the flow of electrons through a wire and is measured in amperes (amps). The voltage (volts) is a measure of the electric force required to keep electrons flowing through a wire. Power is the rate at which electricity does work, or provides energy, and is measured in watts (W). The current and voltage are related to electric power by the following equation: Power = volts × amps. Large amount of electric power is measured in kilowatts (kW). An electric bill reflects the total amount of electrical energy (expressed in kilowatt-hours, kWh), used by all electric appliances for the duration of the time (in hours) they were being used. Thus: kWh = (W × h) ÷ 1000.


36) If a household appliance is operating on 110 volts and electricity is flowing with a current of 0.2 36)

amperes in this appliance, how many watts are consumed?

  1. A) 550 watts
  2. B) 55 watts
  3. C) 22 watts
  4. D) 220 watts
  5. E) cannot be determined with information provided











37) If an electrical tea kettle requires 1500 watts to heat, how many kilowatts does this equal? 37)
  1. A) 1,500,000 kw
  2. B) 15,000 kw
  3. C) 1.5 kw
  4. D) 1.5 × 103 kw
  5. E) cannot be determined from the data provided


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


  • Even without the possibility of a nuclear accident, no primary energy source seems to generate more controversy and debate in the United States than nuclear power. Discuss three important environmental impacts that are a result of the normal operation of a nuclear power plant.


  • Identify specific ways in which the transportation and electricity generating sectors could reduce and/or conserve energy in an effort to become more sustainable.








MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)   Renewable primary energy sources include all of the following except ________. 1)

  1. A) wind
  2. B) sunlight
  3. C) natural gas
  4. D) biomass
  5. E) ocean tides

2)   In order to make use of most renewable energy resources, we must ________.        2)


  1. A) solve the negative environmental impacts of these renewable energy resources
  2. B) persuade government officials of their abundance
  3. C) convert the concentrated nature of these natural resources to more usable forms
  4. D) capture and convert these diffuse energy sources into more concentrated forms
  5. E) further explore the tropical rainforests for natural products that will aid in these new technologies


3)   What percentage of energy comes from renewable energy sources besides wood and charcoal         3)


  1. A) 6% B) 20%   C) 10%  D) 2%    E) 14%

4)   Which of the following renewable energy power sources makes up 50% of the renewable energy    4)

currently consumed?


  1. A) wind
  2. B) geothermal
  3. C) solar
  4. D) biomass
  5. E) hydropower


5)   Hydroelectric plants using impoundments generate electricity when water is released from a         5)


  1. A) turbine
  2. B) generator
  3. C) pipe
  4. D) powerhouse
  5. E) dam

6)   The primary advantage of hydropower is that it ________.           6)


  1. A) does not rely on fossil fuel to generate electricity
  2. B) is the oldest of the renewable energy resources
  3. C) is the most economically feasible of all the renewable energy resources
  4. D) produces no environmental effects
  5. E) is widely available to all countries











7) The fastest growing source of electricity in the world today is from ________.          7)

  1. A) wind power
  2. B) nuclear power
  3. C) biomass
  4. D) solar power
  5. E) hydropower

8) In California, Oregon, and Washington, development of hydropower is limited by potential              8)

impacts of facilities on ________.

  1. A) already existing fossil fuel plants in the area
  2. B) endangered fish
  3. C) agriculture demand for the land
  4. D) timber harvesting facilities
  5. E) lack of water sources

9) One limitation of wind power is that it ________.               9)

  1. A) is intermittent
  2. B) involves mining
  3. C) uses fossil fuels to generate electricity
  4. D) produces water pollution
  5. E) produces radioactive wastes

10) Photovoltaic (PV) technology is best described as ________.         10)


  1. A) using mirrors to concentrate sunlight, in order to heat water and produce steam for electricity generation
  2. B) using sunlight to generate electricity
  3. C) trapping sun’s heat and storing it for many varied uses
  4. D) passive solar technology
  5. E) using sun’s energy to warm a room without mechanical devices


11) Passive solar technologies ________.     11)


  1. A) use the energy of sunlight without relying on electrical or mechanical devices
  2. B) use mechanical devices to heat water and buildings or electrical devices to generate electricity
  3. C) use mirrors to concentrate the sun’s rays on a tower or a series of pipes holding water
  4. D) use photovoltaic cells to produce light energy
  5. E) use silicon wafers to generate light energy


12) What part of the United States is best for capturing solar energy?                                                12)

  1. A) Midwest B) Northwest      C) Southwest      D) Northeast       E) Southeast

13) Currently, approximately what percentage of renewable energy consumption is represented by     13)

solar power in the world?

  1. A) 20% B) 50%   C) 10%  D) 2%    E) 5%

14) Currently, which of the following renewable energy sources has the highest per kilowatt hour        14)

(kWh) cost?


  1. A) geothermal power
  2. B) wind power
  3. C) hydropower
  4. D) coal
  5. E) solar power





15) Biomass energy is energy contained in ________.             15)

  1. A) wind
  2. B) firewood and other plant material.
  3. C) water
  4. D) the sun
  5. E) the Earth’s heat

16) Why is biomass energy renewable?        16)


  1. A) There are always more plants growing somewhere on Earth.
  2. B) Once forest wood is burned, the forest is not replanted.
  3. C) Any living organism is considered renewable.
  4. D) Once plants are harvested, the soil in no longer fertile for replanting and regrowth.
  5. E) Once plants are harvested, they can grow again if proper conditions are provided and rate of harvest does not exceed rate of planting.


17) Burning ethanol derived from sugarcane produces at least ________ less greenhouse gases than   17)

burning an equivalent amount of gasoline.

  1. A) 99% B) 87%   C) 32%  D) 66%  E) 15%

18) Recent U.S. legislation has mandated increased use of biofuels, and the number of ethanol              18)

refineries is growing rapidly. It is now predicted that by 2015, as much as ________ of the U.S. corn

crop could go toward ethanol production.

  1. A) 75% B) 50%   C) 10%  D) 20%  E) 90%

19) Ground-source heat pumps use the difference in temperature between the air and soil to warm and             19)

cool buildings. The upper 10 ft of the Earth is always at a constant temperature of ________, which

is ideal for warming buildings in the winter and cooling them in summer.

  1. A) 70-80°F B) over 360°F       C) 100-20°F          D) 225-60°F         E) 50-60°F

20) Geothermal energy is ________.                                                              20)


  1. A) geographically limited
  2. B) only able to be used during the day
  3. C) intermittent
  4. D) energy originating from the sun and slowly released from Earth’s core
  5. E) based on nuclear reactions in the Earth’s core


21) Tidal power does not ________.              21)


  1. A) generate electricity when high tides revert to low tides.
  2. B) convert the kinetic energy of tides to electricity
  3. C) generate electricity using tidal turbines
  4. D) operate much like wind turbine electricity generation, except underwater
  5. E) convert tides into the potential energy needed for electricity generation


22) Energy efficiency is ________.  22)


  1. A) a measurement of overall energy use
  2. B) the amount of energy used per dollar of economic output
  3. C) increasing demand but decreasing accessibility of various energy sources
  4. D) reducing energy wastes
  5. E) the process of using less energy to obtain goods and services








23) ________ is a government mandate that a certain percentage of energy use come from renewable  23)

energy resources.

  1. A) Economic energy intensity
  2. B) Economies of scale
  3. C) Cost of saved energy
  4. D) Renewable portfolio standards
  5. E) Impoundment power practice

24) “Vampire” power is ________. 24)


  1. A) power that is stored in an electrical system for use later
  2. B) when the majority of the energy produced is converted to kinetic energy that can be used later
  3. C) the hidden cost of energy
  4. D) when electric currents pass through silicone-rich materials
  5. E) energy used when appliance is turned off, but in “standby” mode


25) Compared to the global demand for energy, renewable energy sources can ________.         25)

  1. A) only meet a small percentage of the demand
  2. B) meet only the demand for electricity
  3. C) meet about half of the demand
  4. D) meet all of the demand
  5. E) exceed the demand

26) Which of the following is not a major challenge to the widespread use of renewable energy?            26)


  1. A) Government subsidies for fossil fuels reduce incentives for the use of renewable energy.
  2. B) There are uncertainties and risk associated with investing in new technologies.
  3. C) Consumers often have limited knowledge about the source of their electricity.
  4. D) The cost of production of these new technologies is high.
  5. E) There are many concerns about the environmental risks associated with these technologies.


27) ________ use mirrors to concentrate the sun’s rays on a series of pipes, which heats fluid inside the             27)

pipes to boiling, producing steam. The steam is then used to spin a turbine and generate electricity.

  1. A) Concentrating solar power systems
  2. B) Photovoltaic cells
  3. C) Solar photovoltaic farms
  4. D) Passive solar technologies
  5. E) Biofuels

28) A radio ad is promoting the increased use of E85 fuel as being economically and environmentally                28)

beneficial. There is no mention of disadvantages. You should be skeptical of this ad because



  1. A) it may take more energy to produce the ethanol than it contains
  2. B) fossil fuels are required to produce the ethanol required for this blend
  3. C) only certain cars are designed to run on this fuel blend
  4. D) ethanol fuel may lead to an increase in food prices
  5. E) All of these are reasons to be skeptical.













29) Cellulosic ethanol is not produced from ________.           29)

  1. A) wheat straw
  2. B) switchgrass
  3. C) corn
  4. D) oat straw
  5. E) wood

30) Lake Crystal MN recently experienced a 20% increase in electricity rates. What action would you  30)

recommend residents take to use electricity more efficiently?

  1. A) Install compact fluorescent (CFL) light bulbs.
  2. B) Install light-emitting diode (LED) light bulbs.
  3. C) Purchase a gasoline-electric hybrid car.
  4. D) Install incandescent light bulbs.
  5. E) Purchase a plug-in hybrid car.

31) Which of the following is not a benefit of the OMEGA (offshore membrane enclosures for growing                31)



  1. A) It cleans municipal wastewater.
  2. B) It does not lead to deforestation.
  3. C) It produces freshwater.
  4. D) It does not take up valuable land space.
  5. E) It produces a biodiesel fuel.

32) Which of the following types of vehicles would have the lowest tailpipe emissions?            32)

  1. A) fully electric
  2. B) gas-powered conventional
  3. C) plug-in hybrid
  4. D) gasoline-electric hybrid
  5. E) high-efficiency diesel

33) Undammed rivers in Colorado tend to experience higher flows in ________.         33)





















  1. A) October B) September C) May  D) June  E) April









34) Which of the following energy sources accounts for more than half of the renewable energy             34)


















  1. A) solar energy
  2. B) geothermal
  3. C) biomass
  4. D) hydroelectric power
  5. E) wind energy


35) Before the completion of the Three Gorges Dam, the world’s largest producer of hydroelectricity     35)

was ________.





















  1. A) China
  2. B) Canada
  3. C) United States
  4. D) Russia
  5. E) Brazil

















36) What region of the United States is best suited for producing wind used for energy?            36)


























  1. A) Southeast Mountains
  2. B) Northeast
  3. C) Northwest
  4. D) Western Mountains
  5. E) Southwest


37) The greatest rate of increase in the price of corn ($/bushel) was experienced during ________.         37)





















  1. A) 2000-2001 B) 2005-2006 C) 2007-2008       D) 2009-2010      E) 1996-1997
















SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


38) Match the term with the appropriate description.              38)



  1. Biomass Energy
  2. Geothermal Energy III. Solar Energy


  1. Ocean Energy
  2. Renewable Energy


  1. Energy that takes advantage of tides, waves, and differences in water temperatures
  2. Energy contained in firewood and other plant matter
  3. Heat energy that is generated and stored in the Earth itself
  4. Energy from wind, biomass, solar, hydro, and geothermal sources
  5. The radiant energy of the sun used to heat and light homes


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Data for energy consumption is available for the residential, commercial, and industry sectors in Arizona. In 2010, energy consumption consisted of: 27% for residential energy uses; 15% for industry; 24% for commercial; and 34% for transportation.


39) Which of the following personal actions could have the greatest impact in reducing greenhouse gas            39)


  1. A) driving a hybrid car using ethanol
  2. B) recycling aluminum to the nearest industry
  3. C) increasing home insulation
  4. D) eating organically
  5. E) switching to all compact fluorescent bulbs for lighting

40) Which of the following energy sources has environmental impacts that could reduce greenhouse  40)

gases immediately, and thus have great potential for Arizona?


  1. A) tidal power
  2. B) ocean-grown biofuel
  3. C) hydropower
  4. D) geothermal energy
  5. E) solar power


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


41) Knowing that the fastest growing source of electricity in the world currently is wind power, what is the main environmental advantage and environmental concern to be considered by any community considering wind power’s future for their area?


42) Biomass energy represents a potential energy source that offers a number of obvious environmental advantages over other forms of energy sources. However, there are growing concerns over a number of possible negative impacts associated with bioenergy. Discuss two of these specific concerns.












MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


1) Urbanization is ________.           1)


  1. A) growth of populations in rural communities with the focus on growing your own food and supporting less technological advancements
  2. B) the development of technologies, market economies, and social and government structures
  3. C) settlements that support societies with governments, public buildings, laws, and taxes
  4. D) the centralization of human populations living in densely populated cities
  5. E) cities that serve as centers of commerce and governance of humans


2)            What proportion of people live in urban areas in the United States?        2)

  1. A) 29% B) 53%  C) 79%  D) 83%  E) 70%

3)            Urban is defined by the U.S. Census Bureau as ________.                        3)


  1. A) areas where patches of commercial and residential developments are interspersed in a matrix of rural land
  2. B) a large central city and adjacent communities
  3. C) the parts of a metropolitan area located outside the central city
  4. D) an area with more than 10 million inhabitants
  5. E) an area where the average population density is at least 500 people per square mile


4)            Parts of a metropolitan area outside the central city is a(n) ________.                   4)

  1. A) rural community
  2. B) exurb
  3. C) suburb
  4. D) town
  5. E) metropolis

5)            Which of the following is an inflow to an urban ecosystem?                                     5)

  1. A) polluted water
  2. B) solid waste
  3. C) polluted air
  4. D) natural resources
  5. E) heat

6)            In 1950, 29% of the world population lived in urban areas. Today, ________ live in urban areas,  6)

with that number growing annually.

  1. A) 53% B) 45%  C) 67%  D) 75%  E) 35%

7)            In urban areas, an increase in impervious surfaces will cause ________.                               7)


  1. A) an increase in runoff
  2. B) does not influence water flow or precipitation
  3. C) a decrease in runoff
  4. D) more precipitation to fall
  5. E) less precipitation to fall








8)            Urban sprawl is a result of people moving away from ________.            8)

  1. A) rural communities
  2. B) city centers
  3. C) suburbs
  4. D) current residences
  5. E) natural resources

9)            About half of urban sprawl is due to ________.          9)


  1. A) an increase in urban population
  2. B) less people living in cities
  3. C) highway/road expansion
  4. D) increased per capita land use in urban areas
  5. E) residential development


10)          Which of the following human health concerns is a possible consequence of urban sprawl?              10)

  1. A) skin disorders
  2. B) lower blood pressure
  3. C) cancer
  4. D) nutritional deficiencies
  5. E) obesity

11)          In urban planning, ________ is the designation of specific areas for different categories of land use.             11)

  1. A) zoning
  2. B) urban renaissance
  3. C) green space designation
  4. D) new urbanism
  5. E) urban growth boundary

12)          Urban growth boundaries ________.              12)


  1. A) determine specific areas of land for different uses
  2. B) are grid patterns where streets and alleys are laid out at right angles and buildings are grouped into rectangular blocks
  3. C) separate neighborhoods from high-density commercial developments
  4. D) determine where there will be cities and where there will be rural landscapes
  5. E) are radial patterns of building cities outward from the city center


13) Which of the following would not be a part of new urbanism?           13)


  1. A) razing buildings and neighborhoods that are “old”
  2. B) encouraging community neighborhoods
  3. C) promoting mix land uses
  4. D) creating walk able neighborhoods
  5. E) encouraging compact developments embedded in natural landscapes


14) Suburban living encourages ________.   14)


  1. A) driving electric cars
  2. B) riding bicycles
  3. C) walking
  4. D) increased use of farming
  5. E) increased use of automobiles








15) A country’s level of wealth is not the only factor determining the degree of automobile dependency        15)

in cities. ________ is also an important factor.

  1. A) Access to freeways
  2. B) Whether a country is developed or developing
  3. C) Extent of urban decay
  4. D) Availability of transportation alternatives
  5. E) Availability of hybrid vehicles

16) Increased dependence on the automobile results in ________.         16)

  1. A) fewer pollution concerns
  2. B) fewer concerns with gasoline costs
  3. C) increased parking space required in urban areas
  4. D) shorter wait times on roads and highways
  5. E) greater pedestrian-oriented cities

17) Congestion pricing passes externalized costs of auto dependency on to the ________.               17)

  1. A) car manufacturer
  2. B) residents of the city/state through taxation regardless of automobile ownership
  3. C) automobile driver
  4. D) the city/state that licenses the automobile
  5. E) car sales person

18) Which of the following is most important to urban biodiversity and ecosystem services?            18)

  1. A) beaches
  2. B) urban rooftops
  3. C) trees and forested parks
  4. D) window-box gardening
  5. E) greenhouses

19) A habitat generalist is a species________.              19)

  1. A) that relies on rural settings for survival
  2. B) that cannot survive in a city or suburban area
  3. C) with a specific niche
  4. D) that can take advantage of habitats that may have no counterpart in nature
  5. E) that has highly specialized prey

20) A specific example of an urban habitat generalist would be the ________.    20)

  1. A) Eastern hemlock tree
  2. B) American bald eagle
  3. C) American chestnut tree
  4. D) dandelion
  5. E) white-tail deer

21) A greenway ________.               21)


  1. A) is a waterway within a city park
  2. B) prohibits hiking and biking or recreational opportunities
  3. C) is the link that provides pathways for wildlife to travel between parks and preserves
  4. D) gives humans access to exercise
  5. E) contains parks that are large enough to harbor populations of exotic flora and fauna








22) Which of the following statements is false regarding urban ecosystems?         22)


  1. A) They include the physical environment of the city and surrounding areas.
  2. B) They do not include wildlife living in the city and surrounding areas.
  3. C) They are dependent on interactions among living and nonliving components.
  4. D) They are regions that support the commerce, industry, and community interactions of many humans.
  5. E) They rely on a constant input of energy and materials.


23)          ________ is a prime example of an integrated network of urban green spaces, woodlands,              23)

waterways, public spaces, and transportation corridors.

  1. A) Yellowstone NP, WY
  2. B) San Antonio Riverway, TX
  3. C) Boston Harbor, MA
  4. D) Los Angeles Riverway, CA
  5. E) Central Park, NY

24)          Cities tend to require very ________ inputs of energy and materials resulting in ________ outputs of           24)


  1. A) small; small
  2. B) similar; similar
  3. C) small; large
  4. D) large; large
  5. E) large; small

25)          Ninety percent of Earth’s garbage is generated in/on ________.                                               25)

  1. A) industrial facilities
  2. B) farms
  3. C) cities
  4. D) rural landscapes
  5. E) suburbs

26)          Megacities are urban areas with more than ________ million inhabitants.                            26)

  1. A) 100 B) 20      C) 10      D) 1        E) 5

27)          A decline in economic and community and deterioration of infrastructure is known as urban          27)


  1. A) growth B) decay                C) planning           D) sprawl               E) death

28)          Urban planning involves all the following disciplines except ________.                 28)


  1. A) architecture
  2. B) engineering
  3. C) sociology
  4. D) history
  5. E) ecology














29) Green building approaches do not reduce the ecology footprint of buildings through use of        29)


  1. A) greenfield sites
  2. B) LEED certification
  3. C) materials with low embodied energy
  4. D) infill sites
  5. E) building orientation to take advantage of solar radiation

30) After an economic recession in the 1980s, the city of ________ renewed itself as a sustainable city.       30)

  1. A) Port Au Prince, Haiti
  2. B) Malmo, Sweden
  3. C) Toronto, Canada
  4. D) Los Angeles, California
  5. E) Oslo, Norway

31) When completed, benefits of Atlanta’s BeltLine include all of the following except ________. 31)

  1. A) unremediated brownfields
  2. B) pedestrian-friendly rail transit
  3. C) parks
  4. D) affordable housing
  5. E) multiuse trails

32) Which of the following is not one of the credit categories for points in LEED certification?         32)

  1. A) outdoor environmental quality
  2. B) materials and resources
  3. C) energy and atmosphere
  4. D) sustainable sites
  5. E) water efficiency

33) Imagine that you are an urban planner working in the New England area. What recommendation           33)

would you make, based on the Staffordshire University study, to increase the size of bird



  1. A) Keep walls bare of vegetation.
  2. B) Keep walls covered with vegetation in the winter only.
  3. C) Keep walls covered with deciduous vegetation.
  4. D) Keep walls covered with evergreen vegetation.
  5. E) Keep walls covered with vegetation in the summer only.
























34) Which of the following is the biggest megacity in the World?              34)




































  1. A) Tokyo B) Sao Paolo C) New York         D) Delhi E) Seoul




































35) Where are temperatures highest in an urban heat island?    35)



























  1. A) commercial areas
  2. B) suburban residential
  3. C) parks
  4. D) urban residential
  5. E) downtown


36) In a study of London gardens and their biodiversity, their distance from St. Paul’s Cathedral, in               36)

downtown London was ________.



















  1. A) an inverse relationship to biodiversity
  2. B) erratic in influence, and no conclusion could be made
  3. C) a direct relationship with biodiversity
  4. D) not a factor in level of biodiversity
  5. E) negative up to a distance of 10 km, then the influence diminished











37) The amount of gasoline used by each person generally increases with per capita land consumption. 37) However, this graph shows that gasoline consumption is much lower in Australia than in the



United States. Why is this the case?

























  1. A) Australia is a smaller country.
  2. B) Australia has better public transportation.
  3. C) Australia has a better road system.
  4. D) Australia has fewer major cities.
  5. E) Australia is located in the Southern Hemisphere.


38) The average late afternoon temperature in downtown areas is approximately ________ warmer            38)

than rural areas.





















  1. A) 90°F B) 2.5°F C) 10°F D) 10°C E) 5°F













SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


39) Match the term with the appropriate description.  39)



  1. Urban
  2. Urban Ecosystem III. Metropolitan Area IV. Suburb


  1. Exurb


  1. Region of Earth that supports a large number and high density of humans
  2. Population density of at least 500 people per square mile
  3. Located outside of the central city
  4. Large central city and the adjacent communities
  5. Area where patches of commercial and residential development are interspersed with rural land


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


The following are examples of renewable energy sources–wind, flowing water, solar, and geothermal processes. These types of energy are often described as green and clean because there is minimal environmental impact from their uses compared to the environmental impacts from using fossil fuels. Using renewable energy resources in the creation of sustainable cities and green infrastructures have been increasing across the United States.


40)          Which of the following is not an advantage of using renewable energy sources?  40)

  1. A) fewer environmental impacts on plants and animals
  2. B) fewer health impacts on humans
  3. C) Renewable resources can be used over and over again.
  4. D) There are no pollutants emitted.
  5. E) Greenhouse gas emissions continue to be a significant factor.

41)          Which of the following renewable energy source seems to have the greatest potential for creating   41)

sustainable cities, especially as it relates to urban electricity production?

  1. A) compact fluorescent technology


  1. B) tidal power
  2. C) geothermal processes
  3. D) biofuels
  4. E) solar PV


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


42)          Modern cities that are incorporating sustainability as a guiding principle have realized that by mimicking important features of natural ecosystems, their city is at the forefront of today’s urban planning. At the center of this sustainability design is the efficient capture and use of energy and matter. Describe and explain three specific ways in which a city can incorporate aspects of this ecosystem principle that focuses on matter and energy use.


43)          Why are cities usually warmer than surrounding rural areas?











MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Mining of aluminum-rich bauxite ore contributes to ________.                                          1)

  1. A) desertification
  2. B) deforestation
  3. C) soil erosion
  4. D) soil fertility
  5. E) coastal degradation

2) Leachate is collected from landfills because it ________.                                     2)

  1. A) can be used to generate energy
  2. B) is flammable and explosive
  3. C) is a source of noxious odors
  4. D) may contaminate groundwater
  5. E) attracts rodents

3) The most efficient way to generate electricity from MSW is through the use of ________.           3)

  1. A) composting
  2. B) sanitary landfills
  3. C) bioreactor landfills
  4. D) recycling
  5. E) waste-to-energy facilities

4) Why is data on industrial solid waste (ISW) difficult to find?                                                4)

  1. A) ISW data is readily available.
  2. B) ISW is not disposed of properly.
  3. C) ISW is usually managed by the private sector.
  4. D) ISW is generated in small amounts.
  5. E) ISW is not separated from MSW.

5) In preparation for moving you help your parents clean out their garage, where you find several  5)

cans of leftover paint. How should you dispose of this paint?

  1. A) Take it to a household hazardous waste collection center.
  2. B) Pour it down the storm sewers.
  3. C) Throw it in the trash.
  4. D) Pour it down the drain.
  5. E) Burn it.

6) The average American generates about ________ of municipal solid waste each year. (1 kg = 2.2             6)


  1. A) 400 kg B) 350 kg C) 550 kg              D) 725 kg              E) 625 kg















7) The average person in which of the following countries produces the least amount of MSW per  7)


  1. A) France
  2. B) India
  3. C) Mexico
  4. D) United States
  5. E) People generate the same amount of MSW in all these countries.

8) In the United States today, the approach that best reduces the volume and weight of municipal 8)

solid waste is ________.

  1. A) in open pits
  2. B) sanitary landfills
  3. C) municipal sewage treatment
  4. D) composting
  5. E) incineration

9) The greenhouse gas produced from most landfills is ________.                                          9)

  1. A) methane
  2. B) ozone
  3. C) carbon dioxide
  4. D) water vapor
  5. E) nitrogen

10) Biomedical waste is mostly disposed of through ________.                                               10)

  1. A) reusing
  2. B) incinerating
  3. C) landfilling
  4. D) composting
  5. E) recycling

11) You just purchased a new cell phone. Why is it a bad idea to throw the old one in the trash?     11)

  1. A) It contains radioactive elements.
  2. B) It contains heavy metals.
  3. C) It contains PCBs.
  4. D) It contains plastic.
  5. E) It is compostable.

12) One proposed site for a permanent geologic repository for nuclear waste was ________.           12)

  1. A) Fargo, North Dakota
  2. B) San Diego, California
  3. C) Manhattan, Kansas
  4. D) Yucca Mountain, Nevada
  5. E) Chicago, Illinois

13) Recycling programs, especially for aluminum cans, have become very successful because it     13)

requires only ________ of the energy needed to make a can from bauxite ore.

  1. A) 40% B) 5% C) 20%  D) 10%  E) 55%











14)          Over 100 years ago, nearly 75% of waste made up from residential homes in New York City was   14)


  1. A) paper
  2. B) food waste
  3. C) coal ash
  4. D) wood
  5. E) plastics

15)          In Japan, recycling rates exceed ________ of the waste generated.                                        15)

  1. A) 50% B) 10%  C) 30%  D) 40%  E) 20%

16)          How much waste sent to a landfill does the EPA estimate to be reuseable?                           16)

  1. A) 10-12% B) 7-10%               C) 14-16%            D) 2-5% E) 6-8%

17)          There are a variety of ways to approach waste reduction, with the exception of ________.              17)


  1. A) reducing the amount a consumer purchases
  2. B) recycling the waste
  3. C) purchasing items that are reusable
  4. D) buying individual items, not in bulk
  5. E) reduced packaging


18)          Which Act provided funding for the development of state and local waste management programs?               18)

  1. A) 1899 Rivers and Harbors Act
  2. B) 1965 Solid Waste Disposal Act
  3. C) 1970 Resource Recovery Act
  4. D) 2006 REACH Act
  5. E) 1980 CERCLA Act

19)          Which of the following Acts prohibited dumping of waste materials into rivers without permits?      19)

  1. A) 1965 Solid Waste Disposal Act
  2. B) 1970 Resource Recovery Act
  3. C) 2006 REACH Act
  4. D) 1980 CERCLA Act
  5. E) 1899 Rivers and Harbors Act

20)          In closed loop recycling, ________.                20)


  1. A) a material is recycled into a different product
  2. B) materials are incinerated without first recovering what is recyclable
  3. C) the product is made from another type of material and discarded after use
  4. D) the product is reused to produce a similar product
  5. E) materials are recycled an infinite number of times


21) The environmental impact of a product throughout all the stages of its life can be determined  21)


through a ________.

  1. A) extended product responsibility
  2. B) life-cycle assessment
  3. C) take-back regulation
  4. D) design for disassembly
  5. E) industrial ecology analysis








22) Most hazardous wastes come from ________.     22)

  1. A) chemical and petroleum industries
  2. B) industrial processes
  3. C) common manufacturing
  4. D) pesticide production
  5. E) pharmaceutical production

23) Hazardous wastes are characterized by being mainly ________.     23)

  1. A) wastes that are not able to undergo bioremediation
  2. B) dangerously radioactive
  3. C) composed of non-degradable materials
  4. D) composed of hazardous heavy metals
  5. E) corrosive, flammable, and explosive

24) The most common use of bioremediation has been to assist in the cleanup of ________.          24)

  1. A) non-biodegradable chemicals
  2. B) heavy metal contamination sites
  3. C) PCBs
  4. D) herbicide and pesticide over-application
  5. E) oil spills

25) The Superfund, established to clean up hazardous waste sites in the United States, is a part of the           25)


  1. A) Superfund Management and Liability Act
  2. B) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
  3. C) Hazardous Waste Management Act
  4. D) Superfund Authority Act
  5. E) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

26) The belief that those who make a product should assume responsibility for that product throughout       26)

its life cycle is the basis for ________.

  1. A) take back regulations
  2. B) life cycle assessment
  3. C) industrial ecology
  4. D) design for disassembly
  5. E) extended product responsibility

27) Which of the following actions is not allowed as part of the EPA’s Sustainable Materials            27)

Management (SMM) Electronics Challenge?

  1. A) selling of individual components stripped from devices


  1. B) sending parts to refiners for recovery of precious metals
  2. C) refurbishing and reselling devices
  3. D) processing of waste in facilities outside of the United States
  4. E) recycling of nonelectronic waste, such as cardboard and plastic






























28)          Recycling rates have changed over the years since municipal solid waste recycling was initiated in 28)

the early 1960s. During what time period were these rates the highest?

  1. A) 1985-1990 B) 1995-2000       C) 1960-1970       D) 1990-1995       E) 1980-1985

29)          During the first 20 years of recycling (from 1960 to 1980), the average annual increase in recycling               29)

was approximately ________.


  1. A) 80 million tons/year
  2. B) 0 million tons/year
  3. C) 10 million tons/year
  4. D) 1 million tons/year
  5. E) 20 million tons/year


30) After examining the graph depicting total MSW generation and per capita generation, the main               30)

conclusion one can make is ________.























  1. A) humans are not recycling as much as they did previously
  2. B) recycling of e-waste is having an effect
  3. C) personal reuse and recycling efforts are having an effect
  4. D) per capita generation continues to grow exponentially
  5. E) MSW generation continues to grow exponentially







31) Why have the number of landfills remained constant in recent years?             31)




















  1. A) Incineration is becoming more popular.
  2. B) Reusing rates are decreasing.
  3. C) Composting rates are increasing.
  4. D) People are buying fewer things.
  5. E) Recycling rates have leveled off.


32) ________ constitutes the largest portion of the municipal solid waste stream.               32)
































  1. A) Paper
  2. B) Wood
  3. C) Yard waste
  4. D) Plastics
  5. E) Food waste






33) According to the data shown here, which piece of paper is most likely going to be recycled?      33)





















  1. A) a sheet cut into 8 pieces
  2. B) both of the cut sheets
  3. C) an uncut sheet
  4. D) a sheet cut into 16 pieces
  5. E) They are all equally likely.


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


34) Match the term with the appropriate description.  34)



  1. Municipal Solid Waste
  2. Industrial Solid Waste III. Waste-to-Energy Facility IV. Sanitary Landfill
  3. Compost


  1. Waste produced in industrial processing before the finished product reaches the consumer
  2. Storage areas for waste that are designed to prevent groundwater contamination, odors, and aesthetic problems
  3. Materials that are discarded from homes, small businesses, and institutions
  4. Decayed organic matter that can improve the fertility and water-holding capacity of


  1. Incinerators that use the heat produced by burning waste to produce electricity




















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


In the Philippines, much of the country’s municipal solid waste is disposed of in open dumps or in bodies of water near urban areas. As a result, the environment surrounding the dumpsites is heavily impacted and a source of concern for human and environmental health. Often, over half of the waste is organic, and another significant portion is composed of material resources that could be recycled.


35) Knowing that the Philippines has a growing population that is proving difficult to adequately feed, 35) what waste management approach could help in this problem?



  1. A) composting organic material to increase agricultural productivity
  2. B) decreasing the amount of land for landfill space so that more is available for growing food
  3. C) initiating incineration to remove the health hazards from the open pit dumping
  4. D) recycling all of the glass and aluminum products
  5. E) reducing the over-consumption that is prevalent in the Philippines


36) Given the above method of waste management in the Philippines, the most productive overall                36)

approach might be ________.


  1. A) developing an industrial waste management policy
  2. B) charging appropriate pricing of disposing of wastes
  3. C) developing intensive organic farming across the country
  4. D) establishing central transfer stations where waste types could be separated for more efficient and potential use
  5. E) charging the individuals that dump wastes onto the land


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


37)          Over the past 50 years, the total amount of waste generated by each person in the United States has nearly doubled, primarily because of increased affluence. Discuss three specific actions that an American citizen could take in order to promote a more environmentally sound waste management lifestyle.


38)          Nuclear power, with its radioactive waste production, presents unique environmental challenges for waste management. Discuss the two most critical considerations required to safely manage this type of waste.









MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What pesticide has been primarily used to control mosquito populations?                        1)

  1. A) mercury
  2. B) PCB
  3. C) DDT
  4. D) synthetic estrogens
  5. E) lead

2) In 1950 the global infant mortality was ________ times higher than it is today.                             2)

  1. A) 4 B) 10 C) 2        D) 1/2     E) 1

3) A ________ can be defined as the likelihood of a particular factor impairing health or causing  3)


  1. A) control point
  2. B) toxic
  3. C) hazard
  4. D) disaster
  5. E) risk

4) Which of the following is considered a physical human health hazard?                             4)

  1. A) malaria exposure
  2. B) collisions
  3. C) pollutant
  4. D) earthquake
  5. E) cigarette smoking

5) Which of the following is considered a biological human health hazard?                           5)

  1. A) collisions
  2. B) earthquake
  3. C) pollutant
  4. D) malaria exposure
  5. E) cigarette smoking

6) In toxicity testing, the dose of a chemical above which there is a measurable decline in the health of        6)

the organism being tested is referred to as ________.

  1. A) chronic exposure
  2. B) the dose-response
  3. C) median lethal dose
  4. D) the toxicity threshold
  5. E) acute exposure

7) Building codes in many earthquake prone areas require homes and apartments to be designed to              7)

withstand a ________ Richter magnitude quake.

  1. A) 2.1 B) 7.8 C) 6.0     D) 5.2     E) 9.3









8)            Seventy five percent of weather-related deaths since 1990 have been associated with ________.   8)

  1. A) tropical storms
  2. B) blizzards
  3. C) tornadoes
  4. D) volcanic eruptions
  5. E) wind storms

9)            Human vulnerability to toxins is varied; however, the main influences determining the effects of   9)

toxic substances on different individuals are genetics, socioeconomic status, general health, and



  1. A) global geography
  2. B) urban or rural residency
  3. C) ethnicity
  4. D) age
  5. E) profession


10) Tropical storms and associated floods have greater impacts in poor countries that have experienced      10)


  1. A) forest fires
  2. B) soil erosion
  3. C) hurricanes
  4. D) deforestation
  5. E) desertification

11) Worldwide, death rates from weather hazards have ________.        11)

  1. A) remained the same
  2. B) doubled
  3. C) decreased
  4. D) increased
  5. E) tripled

12) Toxicologists refer to the total amount of a chemical present in the tissues of an organism as   12)


  1. A) bioaccumulation
  2. B) biomagnification
  3. C) threshold content
  4. D) toxic content
  5. E) body burden

13) Toxicology is the study of ________.      13)

  1. A) risks and hazards


  1. B) the relationship between toxin exposure and disease development
  2. C) toxin effects on the environment
  3. D) the relationship between chemical exposure and disease development
  4. E) toxin effects on human health













14) In toxicology studies, LD50 can be best described as the dose ________.      14)


  1. A) in which more than 50% of the population dies as a result of the toxicant development
  2. B) at which 50% of an exposed population is killed or displays a specific symptom
  3. C) in which at least 50% of the exposed population is not affected by the toxicant
  4. D) at which 50% of an exposed population develops disease
  5. E) at which 50% of an exposed population develops a chronic effect from the toxicant


15)          What neurotoxin is of greatest concern for children’s health?                    15)

  1. A) ethylene B) lindane             C) lead   D) acetone            E) benzene

16)          Residence time is ________.                                            16)


  1. A) the chemical change that occurs with time, when substances are altered by the sun or metabolized by microorganisms
  2. B) the length of time it takes to produce toxic chemicals in the environment
  3. C) the length of time it takes for chemicals to be stored in the tissues of living organisms
  4. D) average length of time a molecule of a substance spends in the environment
  5. E) the chemical change that occurs with time, when substances alter the growth and development of humans


17) Bioaccumulation is ________. 17)


  1. A) the total amount of chemicals stored in the tissues of living organisms
  2. B) average length of time a molecule of a substance spends in the environment
  3. C) the chemical change that occurs when substances are altered by the sun or metabolized by microorganisms
  4. D) the chemical change that occurs when substances alter the growth and development of humans
  5. E) the process by which chemicals are stored in the tissues of living organisms


18)          Teratogens are often times also ________.                                                   18)

  1. A) asphyxiants
  2. B) allergens
  3. C) carcinogens
  4. D) endocrine disrupters
  5. E) neurotoxins

19)          Bisphenol A is most often found in ________.                                             19)

  1. A) plastics B) materials          C) metals               D) wood E) cosmetics

20)          The H1N1 flu virus is common in ________ but rarely transmitted to humans until recently.           20)


  1. A) waterfowl
  2. B) birds
  3. C) poultry
  4. D) pigs
  5. E) mosquitoes














21) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by an insect vector?  21)

  1. A) sickle-cell
  2. B) schistosomiasis
  3. C) malaria
  4. D) HIV
  5. E) SIV

22) As a result of air pollution in urban areas, more children have ________.       22)

  1. A) schistosomiasis
  2. B) emphysema
  3. C) asthma
  4. D) sickle-cell
  5. E) malaria

23) In recent years in Africa, more individuals have ________ as a result of parasitic worms in      23)


  1. A) HIV
  2. B) dengue fever
  3. C) malaria
  4. D) Lyme Disease
  5. E) schistosomiasis

24) As a result of rapid changes in the development of forest landscapes, ________ incidence is rapidly      24)


  1. A) Lyme Disease
  2. B) dengue fever
  3. C) HIV
  4. D) schistosomiasis
  5. E) malaria

25) Toxicologists designate particularly long-lived and widely dispersed organic chemicals as          25)

persistent organic pollutants (POPs). Which of the following chemicals are in this category?

  1. A) PCB
  2. B) lead
  3. C) carbon monoxide
  4. D) cadmium
  5. E) U235

26) Which of the following influences perceptions of risk?         26)

  1. A) risk-risk tradeoffs
  2. B) public awareness
  3. C) These all influence risk perceptions.
  4. D) control over the risk
  5. E) the myth of zero risk

27) Which of the following is an example of an indirectly transmitted anthroponosis?       27)

  1. A) Lyme disease
  2. B) Ebola
  3. C) avian flu


  1. D) malaria
  2. E) HIV/AIDS





28)          Globally, 80% of all infectious diseases are caused by ________.           28)

  1. A) tick-borne pathogens
  2. B) water-borne diarrheal pathogens
  3. C) avian and swine influenza viruses
  4. D) HIV/AIDS
  5. E) mosquito-borne pathogens

29)          An integrated approach involving ecology, epidemiology, and education has been used to reduce  29)

the threat of ________ in sub-Saharan Africa.

  1. A) avian flu
  2. B) Ebola
  3. C) Lyme disease
  4. D) malaria
  5. E) schistosomiasis

30)          Which of the following images shows a cultural environmental hazard?                30)



































  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) None of the above











31) There are significant differences in the leading causes of death between developed and developing         31)

regions of the world. The biggest difference is in the category of frequency of ________.


















  1. A) childhood diseases
  2. B) cancer
  3. C) coli illnesses
  4. D) cardiovascular diseases
  5. E) lung diseases


32) Where in South America is the risk of an earthquake higher?             32)





























  1. A) East coast B) South C) West coast       D) Northeast         E) North














33) Where are hurricanes and typhoons most likely to hit the coast of North America?      33)






























  1. A) South B) North C) East   D) West  E) Southwest

34) At a toxicant dose of 27 mg, what would be the expected mortality for this chemical substance?             34)




















  1. A) 80% B) 100% C) 90%  D) 75%  E) 50%



















SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


35) Match the term with the appropriate description.  35)



  1. Toxicity Threshold
  2. Bioaccumulation III. Biomagnification IV. Carcinogens
  3. Teratogens


  1. Chemicals that cause or support cancer
  2. Substances that cause mutations and birth defects
  3. The dose of a chemical above which there is a measurable decline in the health measure
  4. The process by which chemicals are stored in the tissues of living organisms
  5. Concentrations of a chemical increase at each higher level of the food web


MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


As has been well-documented in recent years, certain populations and geographic regions can be much more vulnerable to environmental health issues like malaria and the use of DDT. Growing populations, with over 20-30% infected with HIV/AIDS, global climate change, and an environment that has experienced DDT applications for over 50 years, have led to increased outbreaks of malaria in the tropical regions of Africa.


36) How could global climate change be connected with an increase in malaria cases?      36)


  1. A) All diseases are more prevalent in tropical areas.
  2. B) Humans are more susceptible when they experience temperature extremes.
  3. C) Mosquito abatement programs do not work well when temperature increases.
  4. D) Temperature increases promote immigration, a percentage of who are already infected with malaria.
  5. E) Temperature increases improves mosquito breeding conditions.


37) Which of the following nonhuman-related causes has most likely contributed the most to the   37)


increase in malaria in Africa?

  1. A) increased insecticide resistance
  2. B) less money for mosquito abatement programs
  3. C) increased difficulty in treating malaria with antibiotics
  4. D) growing urban populations
  5. E) increased vulnerability of HIV-infected humans to malaria


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


38)          Debate over the use of DDT to control malaria is likely to continue. However, over the past several decades, much has been learned about how this insecticide works, and why its extensive use poses an environmental concern. Discuss three characteristics of this chemical that cause it to be problematic.


39)          Discuss three of the most important factors influencing a person’s vulnerability to environmental toxins.








MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1)            Which of the following environmental changes is most certain to occur?                               1)

  1. A) The Earth’s atmosphere will cool down.
  2. B) Biodiversity will increase.
  3. C) The Earth’s atmosphere will become warmer.
  4. D) Already scarce resources will be replenished.
  5. E) The population will decrease.

2)            Since 1900, greenhouse gas emissions associated with burning fossil fuels and deforestation have  2)

warmed Earth’s atmosphere by approximately ________.

  1. A) 1°C B) 0°C    C) 8°C    D) 3°C    E) 5°C

3)            If deforestation and fossil fuel burning continue to increase at their current rates, greenhouse gasses              3)

in the atmosphere are predicted to ________ by 2050.


  1. A) decrease by 50%
  2. B) increase 20%
  3. C) increase 30%
  4. D) double
  5. E) triple


4)            If greenhouse emissions continue to accumulate in the atmosphere at the current rate over the next              4)

century, it is predicted that global temperatures will rise by ________.

  1. A) 10°C B) 5°C C) 3°C    D) 8°C    E) 1°C

5)            If no action is taken to limit greenhouse gas emissions over the next century, sea level is predicted 5)

to rise by approximately ________ meters.

  1. A) 0.5 B) 3.0     C) 1.5     D) 0.3     E) 1.0

6)            An effective water conservation strategy that you could take would be ________.                             6)


  1. A) to repair dripping faucets
  2. B) washing dishes in a half-full dishwasher
  3. C) taking longer showers
  4. D) doing very small loads of laundry
  5. E) running the water while you brush your teeth


7)            Since 1970 the rate of new discovery of oil that we can tap using available technologies has declined            7)

by ________.

  1. A) 55% B) 85%  C) 65%  D) 35%  E) 75%

8)            Deforestation ________.                                                   8)


  1. A) increases greenhouse gases
  2. B) fosters replication of endangered species
  3. C) minimizes the flow of water, but increases the quality of the water we drink
  4. D) increases the availability of resources to humans
  5. E) diminishes the trees’ ability to purify water







9) Poverty encourages ________.   9)


  1. A) low death rates
  2. B) low birth rates
  3. C) low fertility rates
  4. D) high population growth rates
  5. E) low population growth rates


10)          Reducing population growth rates in poor countries can be accomplished by ________.   10)

  1. A) illness in infants
  2. B) education of women
  3. C) reproducing beyond replacement fertility
  4. D) economic disasters
  5. E) valuing the birth of a son

11)          How many plants, animals, and microorganisms became extinct in 2011?                           11)

  1. A) 1,000 B) 10,000              C) 100    D) 20,000              E) 100,000

12)          Total world population is ________ billion.                                                  12)

  1. A) 3 B) 9        C) 5        D) 4        E) 7

13)          In order to reduce your waste disposal footprint, you might ________.                  13)


  1. A) throw away everything
  2. B) use organic fertilizers instead of manure or recycled sludge
  3. C) give attention to reuse, recycle, and reduce
  4. D) recycle nothing
  5. E) consider purchasing disposable items


14)          For ecosystems, what specific step can reduce the impact of global temperature increase?                14)

  1. A) Conservation of wetlands and biodiversity
  2. B) Improve coastal dikes and canals.
  3. C) Develop drought-hardy plants.
  4. D) Establish efficient irrigation systems.
  5. E) Implement immunization programs to prevent spread of diseases.

15)          Leadership is ________.    15)


  1. A) based on your own values and visions without focusing on outcomes or diversity
  2. B) based on your own values while focusing on outcomes that cause little environmental change
  3. C) considering knowledge and technologies to show environmental trends
  4. D) actions by you without input from others
  5. E) action by you that changes the behavior of others


16) Sustainable living involves ________.     16)


  1. A) avoiding recycling but taking into consideration reusing items
  2. B) only living for today
  3. C) not considering your daily actions and the impact they have on the environment
  4. D) only learning what you need to know now
  5. E) reducing your ecological footprint










17) Which of the following practices will help reduce greenhouse gas emissions?  17)


  1. A) using renewable energy sources
  2. B) using technologies that increase carbon in the environment
  3. C) using nonrenewable energy sources
  4. D) reducing energy efficiency
  5. E) using technologies that capture carbon for later release into the atmosphere


18)          Which of the following is not a renewable energy source?          18)

  1. A) solar
  2. B) oil
  3. C) heat from the sun
  4. D) wind
  5. E) water

19)          Water stewardship requires ________.           19)


  1. A) maintaining and repairing water systems
  2. B) water conservation
  3. C) full cost pricing in the cost of water to consumers
  4. D) that we stop using surface water and groundwater as waste disposal systems
  5. E) all of the above


20) Per capita oil demand is going to increase worldwide because of ________.  20)


  1. A) more need for oil in producing paint
  2. B) more need for oil in producing plastics
  3. C) less advancement in developing countries for oil-dependent technologies
  4. D) greater access to automobiles in developing countries
  5. E) less access to oil in the Earth’s crust


21)          Earth’s biodiversity remains a reservoir for ________.                21)

  1. A) habitat extinction and species destruction
  2. B) oil and coal
  3. C) pests and disease
  4. D) water and waste production by humans
  5. E) foods and medicines

22)          To determine your specific impacts on the environment, one can ________.       22)


  1. A) measure the volume and type of all the wastes you contribute to the municipal waste stream
  2. B) calculate the biodiversity of your local community
  3. C) calculate your ecological footprint
  4. D) measure local air pollution and its impacts on your health
  5. E) determine your current water pollution impact


23) Effective environmental leaders believe that their actions ________.              23)


  1. A) cannot be changed
  2. B) matter
  3. C) have no impact on the environment
  4. D) are superior to others
  5. E) can do nothing because they are only one person









24) IPAT stands for ________.        24)


  1. A) industry, population, attitude, and teaching
  2. B) impact, population, attitude, and technology
  3. C) industry, people, attitude, and teaching
  4. D) impact, people, affluence, and technology
  5. E) impact, population, affluence, and technology


25)          Ecological footprints of American and Europeans are ________ times larger than those in poor     25)


  1. A) 20-25 B) 5-10  C) 15-20                D) 10-15                E) 2-4

26)          Which of the following actions would put us on the path towards a sustainable future?     26)
























  1. A) increased energy conservation
  2. B) increased use of renewable energy sources
  3. C) diminished reliance on fossil fuels
  4. D) increased energy efficiency
  5. E) All of these actions are necessary.














































27)          The Sustainable Duke program, begun in 2007 in order to reduce Duke University’s net greenhouse                27)

gas emissions, was able to accomplish an approximate ________ reduction by the end of 2009.

  1. A) 10% B) 50%  C) 0%     D) 20%  E) 1%

28)          According to the greenhouse gas emissions data collected by Duke University, the year that Duke’s                28)

rate of emissions increased the most dramatically was ________.

  1. A) 2009-2010 B) 1995-1996       C) 1999-2000       D) 1990-1991       E) 2006-2007










































29) What part of the IPAT equation does providing contraceptive and reproductive health fall under?          29)



































  1. A) population
  2. B) affluence
  3. C) impact
  4. D) technology
  5. E) none of the above
































30) This graph shows that above ________ there is no correlation between happiness and wealth. 30)






















  1. A) $80,000 per year
  2. B) $10,000 per year
  3. C) $40,000 per year
  4. D) $0 per year
  5. E) $20,000 per year


SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.


31) Match the term with the appropriate description.  31)



  1. Sustainable Living
  2. Environmental Leadership III. Give Wisely
  3. Sustainable Waste Disposal
  4. Sustainable Energy Use


  1. Give attention to reusing items, recycling as much as possible and composting organic wastes
  2. Action by you that can change others’ environmental behaviors
  3. Reducing your ecological footprint
  4. Choosing energy efficient lighting and appliances; being mindful of heating and cooling practices
  5. Involvement in volunteer efforts can have significant impacts on the environment you live in




















MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.


Read the scenario and answer the accompanying questions.


Many important life-sustaining resources and ecosystem services are predicted to become scarcer in the next 50 years. Two of the best-known examples of this trend involve water and oil consumption. Although a daily dependence on both is a fact of human existence in the 21st century, these resources differ in very basic ways: renewability. Although not the only effective approach, increased conservation is recommended as a central focus for managing both resources, in order to accelerate the transition to a more sustainable future.


32)          Increased water stewardship requires that we stop using Earth’s surface and groundwater as            32)


  1. A) important ecosystem services
  2. B) a source of recreation for boating
  3. C) a way to raise agricultural crops
  4. D) waste disposal systems
  5. E) sources of electrical energy

33)          The primary reason for a conservation approach for remaining oil reserves is ________.  33)


  1. A) developing countries are using less, making a greater resource available for the industrialized nations
  2. B) the ever-increasing higher costs of oil
  3. C) industry is taking an ever-increasing share of these resources
  4. D) the rate at which we are extracting oil is thousands of times faster than the rate of its formation
  5. E) these resources are very hard to mine


ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.


34)          The question of whether we have passed the peak of availability for oil continues to be debated among energy experts. However, if we define availability to mean oil that can be extracted by conventional technologies and low prices, there is no debate. With this knowledge, discuss three specific oil-use strategies that could be employed to move toward a more sustainable lifestyle.


35)          Calculate your ecological footprint by going to Once you determine the factors that evaluate your use of water, energy, waste disposal, transportation, and food consumption, use the results of your specific ecological footprint to decide upon three specific actions which you can take to reduce the size of your ecological footprint. Make sure that your specific actions each fit into a different category (water, energy, waste, transportation, and food).