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 Ethics And Law in Dental Hygiene 3rd ed by Phyllis L. – Test Bank 

 

 

Chapter 01: Ethics and Professionalism

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When was the inception of the profession of dental hygiene?
a. In ancient Greece
b. In the early 1800s
c. In the early 1900s
d. In 1979

 

 

 

  1. Which member of the dental team is the primary oral preventive therapist?
a. Dentist
b. Dental hygienist
c. Dental assistant
d. Receptionist

 

 

 

  1. The dental hygiene oath is revised by action of which of the following professional organizations?
a. The American Dental Association (ADA)
b. The American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA)
c. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
d. The Organization for Safety, Asepsis, and Prevention (OSAP)
e. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

 

 

 

  1. Society recognizes that health care providers are held to a higher standard than legislative mandate. These higher standards are expressed in professional codes of ethics and are enforced by the legal system.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Success is measured by financial gain in the corporate world; however, for the health care professional the patient’s welfare is placed above profit.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is regarded as the most important aspect of the delivery of health care services?
a. Technical skill
b. Appropriate knowledge
c. Critical judgment
d. Caring

 

 

 

  1. The publication “Medical Professionalism in the New Millennium: A Physician Charter” set out three fundamental principles, including patient welfare, patient autonomy, and the principle of social justice, because it is thought this will reinvigorate the value of professionalism.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is a requirement for licensure of a dental hygienist in the United States EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Completion of a higher education accredited program
b. Graduation from a college or university
c. Passed a written national board examination
d. Passed a clinical national board examination

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following characteristics is used to separate the professional from the layperson?
a. Competency
b. Quality performance
c. A specialized body of knowledge and skill of value to society
d. A code of ethics

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is considered to be a true profession EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Law
b. Medicine
c. Dentistry
d. Culinary chef
e. Ministry

 

 

 

  1. Professionalism is demonstrated through a foundation of clinical competence, communication skills, and ethical and legal understanding. Upon this foundation is built the aspiration to and wise application of the principles of professionalism.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following models or professionalism presents dentistry as an all-knowing profession?
a. Commercial
b. Guild
c. Interactive

 

 

 

  1. Which of the practice models described by Ozar is considered most desirable?
a. Guild
b. Interactive
c. Commercial

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of interprofessional education (IPE) in an academic health center involving two different health education organizations?
a. Nursing students learn about nursing bottle caries along with dental hygiene students.
b. Dental students learn about preventive fluoride along with dental hygiene students.
c. Dental students learn about dental restorative procedures along with dental hygiene students.
d. Dental hygiene students learn about dental preventive procedures along with dental assisting students.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following organizations is recognized by the United States Department of Education to accredit programs for dental hygiene in the United States?
a. The college or university with the dental hygiene program
b. The American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA)
c. The State Board of Dentistry for the respective state
d. The Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA)

 

 

 

  1. How often must a dental hygiene program undergo a formal, on-site review by the accrediting body?
a. Every 10 years
b. Every 7 years
c. Every 3 years
d. Only once, when the program is first created

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of mastery learning according to the competency continuum?
a. Novice, proficient, competent
b. Master, competent, novice
c. Novice, competent, proficient
d. Proficient, novice, competent
e. Competent, novice, master

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is one of the American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA) standards for clinical dental hygiene practice EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Implementation
b. Documentation
c. Recapitulation
d. Assessment
e. Dental hygiene diagnosis

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following terms is used to describe that core of health care that places the needs of the patient or client ahead of those of the provider?
a. Autonomy
b. Justice
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
e. Veracity

 

 

 

  1. An individual who demonstrates certain attributes, traits, and behaviors that embrace the best qualities of care and service is known as a
a. professional.
b. technician.
c. vendor.
d. supplier.

 

 

 

  1. According to the ethicist Laurence McCullough the two virtues required in a professional person are
a. honesty and integrity.
b. self-effacement and self-sacrifice.
c. caring and compassion.
d. maturity and self-analysis.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following professional traits of the dental hygienist ensures that the patient should be confident that information given in written and verbal form is held in confidence and handled appropriately?
a. Caring and compassion
b. Reliability and responsibility
c. Maturity and self-analysis
d. Honesty and integrity

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following terms means demonstrating the empathy necessary to comfort and guide the patient in the health promotion process?
a. Caring
b. Reliability
c. Tolerance
d. Loyalty
e. Honesty

 

 

 

  1. Most states have a legal requirement for continuing education for those who hold a dental hygiene or dental license because mandated continuing education helps ensure optimal health services to the public.
a. Both that statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. The trait in which the dental hygienist assesses his or her skills and takes responsibility for changing and improving those skills when necessary is called
a. integrity.
b. self-analysis.
c. loyalty.
d. reliability.
e. interpersonal communication.

 

 

 

  1. Loyalty is defined as
a. to treat all patients without discrimination.
b. to work toward the goals of attaining and maintaining oral health for each patient.
c. protecting and promoting the interests of a person, group, or organization.
d. a commitment to upholding the code of ethics and the standards of care.

 

 

 

  1. When a license to practice dental hygiene is granted, that person is responsible for knowing and upholding the laws established by the state dental practice act. If a portion of the code is changed subsequent to the date of licensure, that person is not responsible for practicing according to revisions in the law.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. A license to practice as a dental hygienist is granted by
a. The American Dental Association
b. The American Dental Hygienists’ Association
c. The State Board of Dentistry
d. The school of matriculation, meaning where the student graduated

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following individuals is regarded as the father of dental hygiene?
a. Dr. David T. Ozar
b. Dr. Laurence McCullough
c. Dr. A. C. Fones
d. Dr. Carl Rogers

 

 

 

  1. Most legislative changes related to dental health care are driven by individuals in the dental or dental hygiene profession. For the most part the public remains unaware of the intricacies of the process.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is regarded as an expanded function for a dental hygienist rather than a traditional duty?
a. Scaling and root planing
b. Patient education
c. Exposing dental radiographs
d. Administration of an injection

 

 

 

  1. A dental hygienist can practice independently of a dentist in all states, because several states have adopted mechanisms to allow practice without the supervision of a dentist after gaining a special license or credential.
a. Both that statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 02: Ethical Theory and Philosophy

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Ethical decision making is a behavior and can be done well or done poorly. It is inherent and is not taught or learned.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Moral development is thought to be a process, because moral development has been shown to typically occur in progressive steps or stages.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is thought to be one of the strongest and most consistent correlates with development of moral judgment?
a. Age
b. Years of formal education
c. Social status
d. Income

 

 

 

  1. Moral education programs seem to be most effective among which of the following members of society?
a. Infants
b. Children
c. Adolescents
d. Adults

 

 

 

  1. The capacity for moral judgment is rigid, because a person’s cognitive moral development and his or her ability to employ what he or she understands peaks at a certain age.
a. Both that statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. According to Piaget’s four-stage model of moral development, the egocentric stage is found in individuals of which of the following ages?
a. 0-2 years old
b. 2-7 years old
c. 7-12 years old
d. 12 years old and older

 

 

 

  1. According to Piaget, rules are tested and become internalized during which of the following stages of moral development?
a. Amoral stage
b. Egocentric stage
c. Heteronomous stage
d. Autonomous stage

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the most basic stage of Kohlberg’s three-level model of moral development?
a. Interpersonal concordance orientation
b. Law and order orientation
c. Punishment and obedience orientation
d. Instrumental relativist orientation
e. Social contract legalistic orientation

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following stages of Kohlberg’s three-level model of moral development is considered to be conventional reasoning, in which expectations of family and groups are maintained and where loyalty and conformity are considered important?
a. Law and order orientation
b. Instrumental relativist orientation
c. Social contract legalistic orientation
d. Universal ethical principle orientation
e. Punishment and obedience orientation

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following theorists of cognitive moral development created the concept of the ethic of care?
a. Lawrence Kohlberg
b. Jean Piaget
c. Carol Gilligan

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example where avoiding hurt becomes the moral guide governing all moral reasoning according to Gilligan’s model of moral development?
a. Orientation to individual survival
b. Goodness as self-sacrifice
c. Morality of nonviolence

 

 

 

 

  1. People operate on their experiences to make sense of them. The experiences, as we make sense of them, change the basic conceptual structures by which people construct meanings.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. According to Rest and his co-workers, people who love to learn; seek challenges; and are reflective, set goals, take risks, and profit from stimulating and challenging environments are those who develop in which of the following characteristics?
a. Longevity
b. Advanced education
c. Moral judgment
d. High remuneration

 

 

 

  1. The cognitive aspects of moral development are only part of the story, because incorporating the skill of differentiating right from wrong into life is a matter of building habits.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. In the academic world, examining the different ways in which moral thinking can be done is called a study of
a. humanity.
b. moral or ethical theory.
c. behavior.
d. operant conditioning.
e. reasoning.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following views of moral reasoning is predicated on the idea that the rightness or wrongness of any action is determined and justified by the consequences of the act being considered?
a. Consequentialism
b. Nonconsequentialism
c. Virtue ethics
d. Deontology

 

 

 

  1. You are at a party and notice that a friend has consumed more alcohol than usual and appears inebriated. At you watch her weave to her car, you wrestle with intervening, and many questions go through your mind. You wonder if she will be angry and resent it later on if you try to stop her but fear that she will not make it home safely if you do not. You wrestle whether or not to grab her keys and call a cab. This is an example of which of the following types of ethics?
a. Consequentialist ethics
b. Nonconsequentialist ethics
c. Virtue ethics
d. None of the above

 

 

 

  1. John Stuart Mill was a proponent of utilitarianism, which states that an action should be judged to be moral on its capacity to provide the greatest good for the largest number of people.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Who was a proponent of utilitarianism?
a. Immanuel Kant
b. Plato
c. John Stuart Mill
d. Aristotle

 

 

 

  1. Adding fluoride to a community water system is a good example of the application of which of the following types of ethical reasoning?
a. Consequentialism or utilitarian ethics
b. Deontology or nonconsequentialism
c. Virtue ethics
d. None of the above

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following ethical theories regards an action as right when it conforms to a principle or rule of conduct that meets a requirement of some overriding duty?
a. Consequentialism
b. Nonconsequentialism
c. Virtue ethics
d. Deontology

 

 

  1. Immanuel Kant is associated with which of the following theories of ethical thinking?
a. Virtue ethics
b. Consequentialism
c. Nonconsequentialism
d. None of the above

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following ethical types of reasoning would be most likely to say that a physician should be honest in telling a cancer patient that he or she only has a short time to live, even if he or she knew the patient would live longer if he or she did not know the truth?
a. Consequentialist ethics
b. Nonconsequentialist ethics
c. Virtue ethics

 

 

 

  1. According to Immanuel Kant, the test for a universal law is whether an action is related to (a/an)
a. overriding duty.
b. moral compass.
c. desirable outcome.
d. benefit for the majority.

 

 

 

  1. Immanuel Kant’s test for correct moral reasoning is called the categorical imperative, which means a
a. designation of the reasoning according to four criteria.
b. stable pattern of perceiving, thinking, and acting rightly.
c. rule or standard of conduct that is binding for all human beings.
d. consequence of an alternative course of action in a given situation.

 

 

 

  1. According to Kant, helping an elderly person cross the street is (a/an)
a. categorical imperative.
b. perfect duty.
c. imperfect duty.
d. moral obligation.
e. universal law.

 

 

 

  1. Some moral philosophers have advocated that correct moral thinking should be like solving a simple mathematical equation. Theories of moral development have been offered to help understand how easy making good moral decisions can be.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following types of ethical philosophies is based upon good patterns of perceiving, thinking, and acting rightly?
a. Consequentialist ethics
b. Nonconsequentialist ethics
c. Virtue ethics
d. None of the above

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the focus of virtue ethics?
a. Our perfect duties and our imperfect duties
b. To reflect on what kind of person we ought to be
c. The consequences of our actions
d. Our duties and rights rather than the consequences of our actions

 

 

 

Chapter 03: Ethical Principles and Values

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Each of the following is one of the main normative principles in health care EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Nonmaleficence
b. Beneficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
e. Veracity

 

 

 

  1. Normative ethical principles are linked to commonly expected behaviors, because they are based on shared standards of thinking and behaving.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. An ethical dilemma occurs when one or more ethical principles
a. are in conflict.
b. are involved.
c. are additive with one another.
d. cancel each other out.

 

 

 

  1. The principle that the first obligation of a health care provider is to do no harm is known as which of the following?
a. Integrity
b. Justice
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists are required to maintain their level of knowledge and skill through participation in which of the following?
a. Graduation from an accredited institution where dental hygiene is taught
b. Appropriate continuing education programs
c. Using standardized operating procedures
d. Using top quality rather than inferior quality materials

 

 

 

  1. A health care provider may not always be able to avoid harm, because causing some degree of harm when that harm will lead to a greater good may be necessary.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. All of the following statements are true; however, which one takes precedence over the rest?
a. One ought not to inflict harm.
b. One ought to prevent harm.
c. One ought to remove harm.
d. One ought to do or promote good.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following refers to the most basic, historic principle of nonmaleficence rather than beneficence?
a. One ought to do or promote good.
b. One ought to prevent harm.
c. One ought to remove harm.
d. One ought not to inflict harm.

 

 

 

  1. Nonmaleficence is concerned with doing no harm to a patient. Beneficence requires that existing harm be removed.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. The promotion of good for the public can be difficult, because good is defined according to differing values and belief systems.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following principles is self-determination and the ability to be self-governing and self-directing?
a. Beneficence
b. Autonomy
c. Justice
d. Paternalism
e. Veracity

 

 

 

 

  1. The application of patient autonomy is based upon which of the following theories of ethical thinking?
a. Virtue ethics
b. Consequentialism
c. Nonconsequentialism

 

 

 

  1. A practitioner must provide the treatment chosen by a patient even if he or she does not agree with it, because the patient has a right to choose based on the principle of autonomy.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following principles is concerned with providing individuals or groups with what is owed, due, or deserved?
a. Nonmaleficence
b. Beneficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice

 

 

  1. Fundamental to the principle of justice is an effort to treat people who have similar needs in a similar or identical manner. All patients who seek treatment for the prevention of periodontal disease should receive the same level of care and attention from the dental hygienist regardless of personal or social characteristics.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

  1. Which of the following terms is used to describe the allocation of resources in large social systems?
a. Autonomy
b. Distributive justice
c. Prima facie duty
d. Primum non nocere

 

 

  1. The provision of dental care is applied equally in the United States. People who present for treatment are granted access based on their dental needs.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Charitable service meets the needs of those who cannot access dental care for economic reasons, because many dental hygienists and dentists recognize their obligation to serve society.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following means that the health care professional acts as a parent and makes decisions for the patient?
a. Veracity
b. Informed consent
c. Paternalism
d. Confidentiality

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following ethical values and concepts is thought to be in the most conflict with autonomy?
a. Paternalism
b. Veracity
c. Informed consent
d. Confidentiality

 

 

  1. Paternalism was more prevalent in health care in the past because the health care provider had superior knowledge and skills and because the patient expected the health care provider to make decisions in the best interest of the patient.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Educating the patient about the balance of benefits and risks of treatment often creates a conflict between autonomy and
a. paternalism.
b. justice.
c. beneficence.
d. veracity.

 

 

 

  1. Veracity is being honest and telling the truth. Honesty on the part of patient and clinician allows the patient to use his or her autonomy to make decisions in his or her own best interest.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Benevolent deception is supported by most codes of ethics because benevolent deception is in the tradition of the Hippocratic Oath.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. The right of the patient to assess all the information provided by the professional yet still make a choice that is not the one most valued by the professional is known as
a. cognitive dissonance.
b. informed refusal.
c. a fork in the road.
d. independent thinking.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following circumstances requires informed consent prior to treatment EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. A patient who is a child
b. A patient mentally disabled person
c. A patient with a language barrier
d. A patient whose life is in danger

 

 

 

  1. The term used to describe a person’s ability to understand his or her health care conditions, treatment options, and ability to make his or her own decisions is
a. judgment.
b. free will.
c. capacity.
d. cognition.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the recommended method of assuring that a patient has the capacity to make an informed consent?
a. Using language at the sixth-grade level
b. Providing written instructions
c. Speaking very slowly while looking directly at the patient
d. Reaching out to the family, primary care physician, or surrogate decision maker

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of Americans will be 65 years of age or older by the year 2030?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following values and concepts is related to respect for persons and involves the patient exercising his or her autonomy in providing information to the professional?
a. Veracity
b. Capacity
c. Confidentiality
d. Paternalism

 

 

 

  1. It is illegal for a dentist to report suspected child abuse to authorities because it is a violation of confidentiality.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. The dental hygienist who suspects child abuse should place the welfare of the child over the autonomy of the parent. The stronger duty in this instance is the good of the child, not the right of the parent.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following fundamental principles of the American Dental Hygiene Association is a characteristic that states that if two or more people consider the same action or trait in the same situation, the same conclusion would be drawn?
a. Community
b. Complementarity
c. Responsibility
d. Universality
e. Ethics

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following principles is found in the American Dental Hygiene Association code but not in the American Dental Association code?
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Veracity
d. Societal trust

 

 

Chapter 04: Social Responsibility

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When was the first Surgeon General’s Report on Oral Health published?
a. 1850
b. 1900
c. 1950
d. 2000

 

 

 

  1. The use of “oral health” and not “dental health” was a deliberate choice of words in the first Surgeon General’s Report on Oral Health because oral health is equivalent to healthy teeth.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. Disparities and inequalities in oral health care affect the most vulnerable populations. These groups cannot access care for financial reasons, but lack of access also can be caused by fear and complex psychosocial or cultural assumptions.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. It is expected that racial and ethnic minority groups will constitute the emerging majority of the U.S. population by
a. 2030.
b. 2040.
c. 2050.
d. 2060.

 

 

 

  1. More than how many people in the United States are estimated to be underinsured or have no health insurance?
a. 26 million
b. 37 million
c. 47 million
d. 57 million

 

 

 

  1. How does dental hygiene fit with the goals of health promotion that have been established by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services?
a. Dental hygienists are focused on prevention.
b. Dental hygienists are well-respected professionals.
c. Dental hygienists are licensed by their respective State Board of Dentistry.
d. Dental hygienists can collaborate with fellow health care professionals.

 

 

  1. The concept of service and the aspirations for professionalism in dental hygiene are established in which of the following documents?
a. Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings—Centers for Disease Control
b. The American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics
c. The American Dental Association (ADA) Code of Ethics
d. The State Board of Dentistry for the respective state

 

 

  1. Listed under the American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA) Standards of Professional Responsibility, Community, and Society are several points that include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Increasing access to care
b. Promoting public health
c. Recognizing an obligation to provide pro bono service
d. Veracity

 

 

 

  1. How the dental hygienist uses his or her skills and knowledge to advance the public good is part of the obligation laid out in which of the following?
a. Code of Ethics
b. Curriculum vitae
c. Prima facie duties
d. Res gestae

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an ethical principle that focuses on the individual rather than society?
a. Stewardship
b. Justice
c. Autonomy
d. Caring

 

 

  1. Defining basic dental care is a daunting task that challenges communities and the federal government. The goal of improving the health of the population is a societal greater good benefiting society at large.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Two Institute of Medicine reports in the early 2000s advocated increased professionalism and which of the following as a part of improving quality and bridging gaps in health care?
a. More federal funding
b. Development of a nationalized dental delivery system
c. Social justice
d. Increased delivery of sealants

 

 

 

  1. In 2003, the American Dental Education Association (ADEA) published a report that advocated which of the following?
a. Preparing future dental professionals to commit to delivering oral health care to all populations
b. Establishing student loan forgiveness programs
c. Recommending that restorable teeth receive periodontal treatment rather than extraction
d. Redistribution of recent graduates to underserved areas

 

 

 

  1. According to the text, a dentist’s decision to participate or not in a safety net program such as Medicaid can be viewed as fulfillment of which of the following?
a. Establishing adequate reimbursement levels
b. The social contract
c. Providing a broad range of services
d. Ensuring a good practitioner to patient ratio

 

 

 

Chapter 05: Codes of Ethics

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A code of ethics is one of the essential characteristics of a true profession. It is a guideline for members of a professional group used for self-regulation of the group.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Ethical codes address each of the following areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Personal integrity
b. Dedication
c. Hours of continuing education required
d. Principled behavior

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following types of ethical theories is thought to be of the most influence in screening applicants for professional schools of health care?
a. Consequentialism
b. Nonconsequentialism
c. Virtue ethics

 

 

 

  1. Learning what is expected of a professional reinforces character traits in the developing student professional through each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Introducing students to the institution’s code of conduct
b. Assuming the entering student does not have the character traits needed to be a true professional
c. Familiarizing students with the profession’s code of ethics and professional conduct
d. Enforcing adherence to expected professional behaviors when professional codes have been violated

 

 

 

  1. It is the obligation of professionals to help regulate their profession, because the reputation of the profession and the well-being of the public ultimately rest on a willingness to engage in meaningful self-policing of the profession.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about codes of ethics is most accurate?
a. It is easy to determine the degree to which codes of ethics are effective.
b. It is reasonable to assume that the professions find codes of ethics to be extremely valuable.
c. The professions cannot do anything about it if someone does not behave with integrity.
d. There is no way to judge acceptable parameters of behavior according to a code of ethics.

 

 

 

  1. Where was the first ethical code developed?
a. Assyria
b. Greece
c. Italy
d. United States
e. France

 

 

 

  1. Traditional medical codes of ethics emphasize all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
a. Obligation to each other
b. Duties in the individual patient–physician relationship
c. The use of a patient’s bill of rights in health care settings
d. Authority and duty of beneficence

 

 

 

  1. Power and prestige is granted to the professions, because a code of ethics is a promise to society to uphold certain values and standards in the practice of the profession.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Ideally, ethical codes should create a relationship among members of a profession that is similar to ties in which of the following types of relationships?
a. A high school or collegiate athletic team
b. A family
c. A club or organization where members have similar interests
d. A group of people who are working together in a restaurant

 

 

 

  1. The first principle function of a code of ethics is to provide an enforceable standard of minimally decent conduct for those who fall below that standard. The second principle function is to address every situation that may occur.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. How can the American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics for Dental Hygienists be amended?
a. If changes are approved by a majority of state dental hygiene associations.
b. If changes are approved at any meeting of the ADHA House of Delegates by a majority of the group.
c. If changes are approved at any meeting of the ADHA House of Delegates by a two-thirds vote of the group.
d. The ADHA Code of Ethics for Dental Hygienists cannot be modified. It can only be replaced.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is found as a core value in the American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA) Code but are not found as fundamental principles in the American Dental Association (ADA) Code of Ethics?
a. Autonomy
b. Nonmaleficence and beneficence
c. Societal trust
d. Veracity

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following principles of the American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics recognizes the existence of an obligation to justice and basic human rights?
a. Universality
b. Complementarity
c. Ethics
d. Community
e. Responsibility

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following core values of the American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA) Code of Ethics states that “we accept our fundamental obligation to provide services in a manner that protects all clients and minimizes harm to them and others involved in their treatment”?
a. Societal trust
b. Confidentiality
c. Beneficence
d. Nonmaleficence
e. Veracity

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is true according to the American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADAH) Standards of Professional Responsibility to the Community and Society EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Report the use of illicit drugs by a patient to responsible authorities.
b. Use peer review as a mechanism for identifying substandard care by dental hygienists.
c. Promote access to dental hygiene services for all.
d. Recognize and uphold our obligation to provide pro bono service.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is associated with the American Dental Association (ADA) Code of Ethics?
a. Five core values
b. Five fundamental principles
c. Seven core values
d. Seven fundamental principles

 

 

 

Chapter 06: Ethical Decision Making in Dental Hygiene and Dentistry

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is associated with making a choice rather than resolving a dilemma?
a. Careful decision making
b. Issues of right and wrong
c. Weighing options
d. A variety of answers, each of which has an element of rightness

 

 

 

  1. The two aspects that are involved in ethics are the ability to discern right from wrong and
a. complying with laws enacted by the state legislature.
b. complying with rules established by the state board of dentistry.
c. the commitment to act on a decision.
d. maintaining the status quo.

 

 

 

  1. The goal for the curricula established in 1989 by the American Dental Educational Association (ADEA) was to develop a commitment by students to
a. moral principles.
b. moral distress.
c. ethical dilemmas.
d. moral dilemmas.

 

 

 

  1. Ethical decision making is
a. inherently understood by children.
b. learned in curriculum in professional school.
c. acquired through continuing education classes following the period of formal education.
d. learned throughout a lifetime.

 

 

  1. The ethical awareness of an individual is called moral
a. dilemma.
b. distress.
c. sensitivity.
d. uncertainty.
e. weakness.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the types of moral problems categorized by Campbell and Rogers exists when obligations or responsibilities are in conflict?
a. Moral uncertainty
b. Moral dilemma
c. Moral weakness
d. Moral distress

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is categorized by Campbell and Rogers as one of the three categories of moral problems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Moral dilemma
b. Moral distress
c. Moral weakness
d. Moral uncertainty

 

 

 

  1. According to Campbell and Rogers, which of the following terms is used to describe a situation where moral responsibilities point in one direction and personal inclination in another?
a. Moral distress
b. Moral dilemma
c. Moral weakness
d. Moral uncertainty

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is one of the “four A’s” of The American Association of Critical Care Nurses (AACCN) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Act
b. Affirm
c. Assess
d. Associate
e. Ask

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the first of Dr. John S. Murray’s seven critical checkpoints to use in ethical decision making?
a. Ascertain what principles need to be expressed and defended in the situation—focus on one or two of the more critical values.
b. Evaluate the circumstances to establish whether moral courage is needed in the situation.
c. Consider the possible adverse consequences/risks associated with taking action.
d. Determine what moral values and ethical principles are at risk or in question of being compromised.

 

 

 

  1. The goal of an ethical decision-making model is to
a. provide a cookbook process for determining a solution to a problem.
b. provide a framework for making the best decision in a particular situation.
c. provide a matrix for determining the solution so the provider does not have to think about the situation.
d. make a decision about right and wrong.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning the ethical decision-making model presented in the chapter?
a. It is a four-step approach diagrammed as a square grid.
b. It is a four-step approach diagrammed as a circle.
c. It is a six-step approach diagrammed as a square grid.
d. It is a six-step approach diagrammed as a circle.

 

 

 

  1. The process of ethical decision making is static, meaning that truth is immutable. Dental hygienists are confronted with many questions to consider, and they must filter out their own values and beliefs to eliminate bias in the decision.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the first step in the ethical decision-making model presented in the text?
a. State the options.
b. Identify the ethical dilemma or problem.
c. Apply the ethical principles to the options.
d. Collect information.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the most critical step in the ethical decision-making model?
a. Apply the ethical principles to the options.
b. State the options.
c. Collect information.
d. Identify the ethical dilemma or problem.

 

 

  1. Brainstorming to identify as many alternatives or options as possible is part of which of the following steps of the ethical decision-making model?
a. Collect information.
b. State the options.
c. Implement the decision.
d. Apply the ethical principles to the options.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following steps of the ethical decision-making model is characterized by developing a list of pros and cons?
a. Apply the ethical principles to the options.
b. Collect information.
c. State the options.
d. Identify the ethical dilemma or problem.

 

 

 

  1. The ethical decision-making process is futile if no action is taken, because no action represents tacit approval of the situation.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. According to a 1990 survey of ethical issues in dental hygiene conducted by Gaston and colleagues, each of the following is one of the most frequently encountered practice dilemmas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Observation of behavior in conflict with standard infection control procedures
b. Nondiagnosis of dental disease
c. Overdelegation of procedures to nonqualified personnel
d. Failure to refer patients to a specialist

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists usually are employed by a dentist or groups of dentists, which is problematic, because an ethical conflict or dilemma can be intensified when a subordinate observes an unethical action performed by an individual in a position of power.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following steps is being implemented by Joan Lakeside, in the hypothetical case presented in the text, when she checks her oral pathology book and looks at photographs of squamous cell carcinoma?
a. Identify the ethical problem.
b. Make the decision.
c. Implement the decision.
d. Collect information.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following choices in the hypothetical case presented in the textbook applies the principle of beneficence as well as autonomy?
a. Go back to Dr. McVey with the textbook and restate her suspicions in an attempt to convince him to refer the patient for a diagnostic biopsy.
b. Go to another dental practitioner and describe the situation, hoping the other practitioner will intervene.
c. Call the patient directly and advise him to seek another opinion about his lesion.
d. Do nothing and wait until the patient comes in for his next appointment.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following options was recommended for Joan Lakeside according to the hypothetical case presented in the textbook?
a. Showing her oral pathology textbook to Dr. McVey and attempt to convince him to refer the patient.
b. Go to another practitioner herself to try and gather support for her position.
c. Call the patient herself and recommend another opinion.
d. Do nothing and wait for the patient’s next appointment.

 

 

 

Chapter 07: Society and the State Dental Practice Act

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following forms of government has the authority and responsibility to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the state’s citizens?
a. The federal government
b. State government
c. County government
d. City or township government

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is protected for citizens of a state EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Health
b. Finances
c. Safety
d. Welfare

 

 

  1. Which of the following branches of state government is authorized to enact laws or statutes that prescribe or prohibit activities within the state?
a. Legislative branch
b. Executive branch
c. Judicial branch
d. Municipal

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the function of the judicial branch of state government?
a. Enact statutes that prescribe or prohibit activities within the state
b. Implementation of prescriptions and prohibitions enacted into law
c. Final arbiter regarding the rights and responsibilities of individuals subject to the laws of the state
d. Regulate trade across state lines

 

 

 

  1. The practice of dental hygiene is regulated through which of the following branches of state government?
a. Legislative, executive, and judicial
b. Legislative and executive, but not judicial
c. Legislative and judicial, but not executive
d. Executive and judicial, but not legislative
e. Legislative only

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following government regulations most specifically controls the practice of dental hygiene?
a. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
b. Equal Pay Act of 1963
c. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
d. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
e. State Dental Practice Act

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following branches of government is responsible for enactment of the State Dental Practice Act?
a. The federal legislative branch in all cases
b. The federal judicial branch in all cases
c. The state legislative branch in all cases
d. The state legislative branch in most cases
e. The state judicial branch in all cases

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following states enacted Initiative Measure No. 607 in 1994, which made it legal for a denturist to practice in that state?
a. Washington
b. Rhode Island
c. California
d. New Jersey
e. Missouri

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists must be familiar with the laws that deal specifically with dental hygiene as well as the general laws that protect the well-being of the state’s citizens because the statutes that regulate the health professions are not all encompassing.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is an example of an issue that may be regulated by state laws but may not be specifically incorporated into the State Dental Practice Act EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. False health care claims
b. Consent to treatment and informed consent
c. Continuing education requirements
d. Biomedical wastes and hazards management
e. Mandatory malpractice insurance

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely found in state statutory law for the practice of dental hygiene?
a. Licensure examination requirements
b. Abuse reporting requirements
c. Business operation practices
d. Public health reporting requirements
e. Patient confidentiality

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following branches of state government implements administrative procedures and requirements for the practice of dental hygiene in that state?
a. Legislative branch
b. Executive branch
c. Judicial branch

 

 

 

 

  1. The legislative branch of government is responsible for implementing the statutory law and providing more specific guidance and regulation regarding the practice of dental hygiene. The development of more specific requirements for implementing statutory law is accomplished through a process known as interrogatories.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Depending upon the state, the regulation of the practice of dental hygiene may be facilitated by
a. an appointed board or elected regulatory body.
b. the administrators of the professional schools in the state.
c. the governor of the state.
d. the mayor of the city where the state capitol is located.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is a term that may be used to refer specifically to the body regulating dental hygienists in a state EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Dental Quality Assurance Commission
b. Board of Dental Health Care
c. Board of Dentistry
d. Department of Health
e. Board of Dental Examiners

 

 

 

 

  1. The functions of the regulatory body for dental hygiene may include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Inspection of a dental office for compliance with infection control procedures
b. Examination of a candidate for licensure as a dental hygienist
c. Renewal of a dental hygiene license
d. Investigation of disciplinary charges against a dental hygienist
e. Adoption of rules and regulations regarding the practice of dental hygiene

 

 

 

  1. The practice of dental hygiene is different in each state, because it is not nationally regulated.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. How often should a dental hygienist review the applicable State Dental Practice Act?
a. When first graduating from an accredited dental hygiene program.
b. When first applying for a license in the state where he or she intends to practice dental hygiene.
c. Once every 3 years.
d. On a yearly basis.
e. It is not necessary once a student has graduated from an accredited dental hygiene program.

 

 

 

 

  1. An individual must have a dental hygiene license issued by which of the following types of governmental authority in order to practice dental hygiene?
a. Federal government
b. State government
c. County government
d. City or township government

 

 

  1. A condition of dental hygiene licensure generally is graduation from a dental hygiene program accredited by which of the following organizations?
a. The Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) of the American Dental Association
b. The Food and Drug Administration
c. The Federal Trade Commission
d. The National Institutes of Health

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following states provides for licensure of a dental hygienist if he or she is a “graduate of a school of dental hygiene which has been approved by the board, or in lieu thereof, shall have served as a dental assistant for a period of time established by board rule and shall have served at least 1 year as a dental hygienist trainee under a training permit issued by the board to a qualified dentist practicing in this state in accordance with the dental hygienist training program established by the board”?
a. Maine
b. Illinois
c. Alabama
d. Mississippi
e. Washington

 

 

 

 

  1. “Dental hygienists who have graduated from a CODA accredited dental hygiene program, who are licensed in good standing in a state with similar or higher requirements for licensure, and who have practiced dental hygiene for a minimum prescribed period may have examination requirements waived on the basis of their credentials,” according to which of the following principles?
a. Licensure by endorsement or reciprocity
b. Garnishment
c. Quid pro quo
d. Informed consent

 

 

 

 

  1. Some states provide for temporary or provisional licensure of dental hygienists who are licensed in other jurisdictions, are relocating to that state, and do have the option of licensure by credential available to them. A temporary or provisional license is valid for a prescribed period or purpose or until the next scheduled licensure examination.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following types of dental hygiene license may be granted on the basis of examination or endorsement of credentials? Such a license permits unrestricted practice within the scope of the State Dental Practice Act.
a. Full license
b. Temporary license
c. Volunteer license
d. Faculty license

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following types of dental hygiene licenses is granted on the basis of licensure in another jurisdiction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Faculty license
b. Volunteer license
c. Full license
d. Temporary license

 

 

 

 

  1. A dental hygienist generally is required to display a current copy of which of the following at his or her place of practice?
a. Dental hygiene board examination results
b. State license to practice dental hygiene
c. Certificate or diploma from the school of graduation
d. Dental hygiene course grades

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygiene licenses expire and require renewal on a schedule prescribed by state law. It is critical not to let current licensure expire, because when a dental hygienist experiences even a limited lapse of licensure, the state requires retaking written and clinical board examinations.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. The practice of dental hygiene without a valid license is a
a. criminal offense that may be categorized as a felony.
b. criminal offense that may be categorized as a misdemeanor but not as a felony.
c. civil offense that may be categorized as a felony.
d. civil offense that may be categorized as a misdemeanor but not as a felony.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the penalty in California for practicing dental hygiene “without causing to be displayed in a conspicuous place in his or her office his or her license under this article to practice dental hygiene”?
a. A felony with imprisonment and a monetary fine
b. A felony with imprisonment or a monetary fine
c. A misdemeanor with imprisonment and a monetary fine
d. A misdemeanor with imprisonment or a monetary fine

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is considered a misdemeanor rather than a third-degree felony in the state of Florida?
a. Practicing dental hygiene without an appropriate, active license
b. Using a dental hygiene license that has been suspended
c. Using a dental hygiene license that has been revoked
d. Implying to any patient or consumer that she or he is an actively licensed dental hygienist unless that person has an active dental hygienist’s license

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists are obligated to comply with the accepted standards of professional practice and conduct. These standards are specific to the practice of dental hygiene and are not intended to be more generally applicable to health care professionals.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is grounds for suspension or revocation of a license to practice dental hygiene EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Unprofessional conduct
b. Violation of the laws and regulations governing the practice of dental hygiene
c. An accident requiring the dental hygienist to use a wheelchair
d. Clinical incompetence

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is true of an applicant for dental hygiene licensure in Idaho EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. All active dental hygienists must hold a current CPR card.
b. All active dental hygienists shall acquire twenty-four (24) credits of verifiable continuing education in each biennial renewal period.
c. A dental hygienist holding an active status license issued by the Board shall be allowed one (1) credit of continuing education for every (1) hour of verified volunteer dental hygiene practice performed during the biennial renewal period.
d. Continuing education must be oral health/health-related education for the professional development of a dental hygienist.

 

 

 

  1. When is a dental hygienist required to provide documentation or certification of compliance with continuing education requirements?
a. When making an initial application for a license in a particular state following graduation from an accredited dental hygiene program in any state
b. When relocating from one state to another while in practice
c. When renewing a current license to practice as a dental hygienist
d. Only when renewing a lapsed license to practice as a dental hygienist

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists who are not actively practicing dental hygiene and do not want to maintain a current license may be able to apply for which of the following types of licenses?
a. Full license
b. Temporary license
c. Faculty license
d. Inactive license
e. Volunteer license

 

 

 

 

  1. All licenses issued to dentists and dental hygienists are automatically forfeited if the licensee ceases to practice his or her profession in the state of Arkansas for how long?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is considered to be an expanded function rather than a basic function for a dental hygienist?
a. Application of pit and fissure sealant
b. Exposing oral radiographs
c. Administration of an injectable local anesthetic
d. Application of topical fluoride

 

 

 

 

  1. The scope of dental hygiene practice is defined on a national basis. The practice of dental hygiene includes educational, assessment, preventive, clinical, and other therapeutic services.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true regarding administration of local anesthetics and nitrous oxide for a dental hygienist in Oregon?
a. Administration of local anesthetic agents is permitted under the indirect supervision of a dentist.
b. Administration of nitrous oxide is permitted under the indirect supervision of a dentist.
c. Use of local anesthetic reversal agents is not permitted for a dental hygienist.
d. Injected local anesthetic agents may only be administered to a patient who is over the age of 18.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following steps in the restoration of a carious lesion is permitted for a dental hygienist in at least one state EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Expose radiographs of the area requiring restoration.
b. Administer topical and injected local anesthetic.
c. Prepare the tooth with a rotary instrumentation such as burs in a handpiece.
d. Restore the tooth with silver dental amalgam.

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists have the obligation to limit their practice to the scope of functions permitted by law in the jurisdiction in which they are practicing. If asked by an employing dentist to perform services that are clearly outside the legal scope of practice, the dental hygienist should defer to his or her supervisor and perform those services.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following forms of supervision requires the dentist’s approval of the work prior to dismissal of the patient?
a. Direct supervision
b. Indirect supervision
c. General supervision

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following forms of supervision require the dentist to be present in the dental office during treatment by the dental hygienist?
a. Direct supervision, indirect supervision, and general supervision
b. Direct supervision and indirect supervision, but not general supervision
c. Direct supervision and general supervision, but not indirect supervision
d. Indirect supervision and general supervision, but not direct supervision
e. Direct supervision, but not indirect supervision and general supervision

 

 

 

 

  1. All of the following states permit the unsupervised practice of dental hygiene EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Colorado
b. Connecticut
c. Michigan
d. New Mexico
e. Maine

 

 

  1. Unsupervised dental hygiene may be performed by licensed dental hygienists without supervision of a licensed dentist in Colorado, because some states, including Colorado, Connecticut, New Mexico, Minnesota, and Maine, permit the unsupervised practice of dental hygiene.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of child and elder abuse?
a. All states have enacted laws that mandate the reporting of child abuse.
b. All states have enacted laws that mandate reporting elder abuse.
c. Dental hygienists have a personal responsibility to report abuse.
d. Child abuse is concentrated in particular socioeconomic strata of society and knowledge of this fact helps predict when and where it will occur.

 

 

 

 

  1. Child abuse spans which of the following aspects of society?
a. Socioeconomic, cultural, and ethnic
b. Socioeconomic and cultural, but not ethnic
c. Socioeconomic and ethnic, but not cultural
d. Cultural and ethnic, but not socioeconomic
e. Socioeconomic only

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the maintenance of patient health care records?
a. Patient health care records are the property of the patient.
b. Health care records are generally recognized to be confidential and protected against disclosure to unauthorized third parties.
c. Health care records should be destroyed as soon as the person is no longer an active patient in the dental practice.
d. There is no requirement regarding maintenance of a patient record.

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists in some states are mandated to maintain professional liability insurance or other indemnity against liability for professional malpractice. When mandated, the law may prescribe the level of insurance that must be maintained per incident as well as in the aggregate.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Some states have enacted legislation that mandates that dental professionals be currently certified
a. in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
b. in advanced cardiac life support (ACLS).
c. as an emergency medical technician (EMT).
d. as a pharmacy technician.

 

 

 

 

  1. When a patient suggests that the dentist pay him $50 for every patient referred to the dental office, the dentist says no because it would be (a/an)
a. insufficient amount for the value of a new patient.
b. excessive amount for the value of a new patient.
c. kickback.
d. violation of patient confidentiality.

 

 

 

 

  1. General due process provisions include notice and an opportunity to be heard. Notice generally includes a statement of the proposed action to be taken, the available evidence supporting the proposed action, and
a. opportunity for a hearing.
b. waiving of rights to a trial.
c. discussion of Miranda rights.
d. requirement to pay a fine.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 08: Dental Hygienist–Patient Relationship

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The dental hygienist–patient relationship is a critical factor in the delivery of quality dental hygiene care. The dental hygienist–patient relationship is a two-party association that can only achieve its fullest potential with the committed participation of each of the parties.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. If a dental hygienist is unable to meet a patient’s expressed expectations, the patient must
a. demand that the dental hygienist meet those expectations.
b. understand but not accept the limitation.
c. either accept the limitation and alter the expectations or seek care from a different provider who is able to meet the expectations.
d. cease to seek care.

 

 

 

  1. The dental hygienist has a professional obligation in the relationship with the patient to comply with the laws that govern the practice of dental hygiene and to deliver oral health care services that meet the standards of the profession, because failure to fulfill this professional obligation can result in untoward consequences for the patient although the hygienist is spared.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a consequence for the patient of the failure of a dental hygienist to fulfill a professional obligation to comply with the laws that govern the practice of dental hygiene and to deliver oral health care services that meet the standards of care of the profession?
a. Substandard care
b. Complaint review
c. Sanctions
d. Criminal penalties

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is grounds for a complaint to be filed with the administrative hearing commission in Missouri EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Use of an alcoholic beverage to an extent that such use impairs a person’s ability to perform the work of any professional licensed or regulated by the commission
b. Failure or refusal to properly guard against contagious, infectious, or communicable diseases or the spread thereof
c. Failure to maintain his or her office or offices, laboratory, equipment, and instruments in a safe and sanitary condition
d. Discrimination based on the provision of free dental services

 

 

 

  1. A person who practices dental hygiene in Nevada without a license or who, having a license, practices dental hygiene in a manner or place not permitted is guilty of a category D felony
a. if it is the first offense.
b. if it is the second offense.
c. if it is the third offense.
d. in no circumstances, because the offense is categorized as a misdemeanor.

 

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygiene professionals must be familiar with the legal principles of the dental hygienist–patient relationship to guide their actions, decisions, record keeping, and professional interactions. The legal principles are based on society’s general belief that citizens have a right to be protected and, if they come to harm at the hands of another, they have a right charge the offender with a criminal offense.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following examples would involve criminal action as well as civil action?
a. Supervised neglect of a periodontal condition involving increased probing depths
b. Sexual assault of a patient during dental treatment
c. Discussion of a 22-year-old patient’s treatment conditions with her mother without obtaining permission
d. Discussion of an 88-year-old patient’s treatment conditions with her daughter without obtaining permission

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a wrongful act against a person that violates his or her person (body), privacy, or property or contractual rights?
a. Civil offense
b. Criminal offense
c. Deposition
d. Defamation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for dealing with civil and criminal offenses?
a. Filing, investigating, resolving
b. Investigating, filing, resolving
c. Filing, resolving, investigating
d. Investigating, resolving, filing
e. Resolving, filing, investigating

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is correct name for the party bringing a claim in a civil proceeding and in a criminal proceeding respectively?
a. Complainant; prosecutor
b. Plaintiff; prosecutor
c. Prosecutor; plaintiff
d. Plaintiff; complainant
e. Aggressor; defendant

 

 

 

 

  1. Interrogatories and depositions may be utilized during which of the following stages of the investigation of a legal claim?
a. Informed consent
b. The trial
c. Discovery of evidence
d. Intentional tort
e. Unintentional tort

 

 

 

 

  1. The resolution of legal claims and allegations may require a court proceeding known as a
a. deposition.
b. trial.
c. grand jury.
d. tort.

 

 

 

 

  1. Who decides questions of law in a trial?
a. Judges
b. Juries
c. Prosecuting attorney
d. Plaintiff
e. Defendant

 

 

 

 

  1. The establishment of guilt in a criminal case requires a high level of certainty known as
a. beyond a reasonable doubt.
b. preponderance of evidence.
c. fiduciary relationship.
d. binding arbitration.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the two major categories of civil law?
a. Intentional tort and unintentional tort law
b. Contract law and tort law
c. Implied contract law and explicit contract law
d. Assault and battery law

 

 

 

 

  1. When a patient agrees to cooperate in oral health care and arrange for appropriate payment in exchange for the delivery of services, the courts view the relationship in terms of a contract called a
a. null and void relationship.
b. fiduciary relationship.
c. barter or trade of goods relationship.
d. quid pro quo relationship.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the best example of an express rather than implied contract?
a. The patient seats herself in the dental chair.
b. The dentist presents a written treatment plan involving periodontal surgery for the maxillary right quadrant to the patient.
c. The patient arrives at the dental office at the scheduled time for an initial appointment to have an examination of discomfort in the mandibular left quadrant.
d. The patient asks the dentist if the injection of local anesthetic will hurt and the dentist replies that she will anesthetize the patient very slowly and carefully to minimize discomfort.

 

 

 

 

  1. A contractual relationship is a relationship that binds each of the parties to fulfill his or her committed responsibilities. A disruption of contract is the failure to meet one’s contractual obligation, and it may be remedied through the judicial system.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. A civil wrong that results from breach of a legal duty that exists by virtue of society’s expectations of performance is called a(n)
a. assault.
b. battery.
c. tort.
d. sanction.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of tort law?
a. A tort is a crime that involves criminal law.
b. A tort is a civil wrong.
c. A tort is a legally binding agreement in writing.
d. A tort is a legally binding agreement that is not in writing.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is true of an intentional tort EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. No intent to cause harm
b. A deliberate and purposeful act
c. Relates to persons and to property
d. Misrepresentation

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of assault and battery?
a. Both are categorized as intentional torts.
b. Assault is categorized as an intentional tort; however, battery is an unintentional tort.
c. Battery is categorized as an intentional tort; however, assault is an unintentional tort.
d. Neither assault nor battery is categorized as an intentional tort.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of an intentional tort to a person?
a. Physical contact must happen for assault to occur.
b. Physical contact must happen for battery to occur.
c. An injury must be involved for battery to occur.
d. More than one of the above.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of an unintentional tort rather than an intentional tort?
a. Allowing a dental assistant to work as a dental hygienist
b. Failure to inform a patient of the severity of his or her periodontal treatment needs
c. Slander or libel resulting in defamation
d. Slapping a child to punish him or her for difficult behavior

 

 

 

 

  1. Trespassing on private property without authorization is a form of an
a. intentional tort to a person.
b. unintentional tort to a person.
c. intentional tort to property.
d. unintentional tort to property.

 

 

 

 

  1. A dental hygienist has which of the following responsibilities to the patient in regard to licensure?
a. The dental hygienist must have a current national license issued by the U.S. government and the license must be displayed as required.
b. The dental hygienist must have a current license for the state where he or she practices and have it displayed as required.
c. The dental hygienist must have a current national license issued by the United States; however, the license need not be displayed as the patient can verify the license on the Internet.
d. The dental hygienist must have a current license for the state where he or she practices; however, the license need not be displayed as the patient can verify the license on the Internet.

 

 

 

 

  1. A dental hygienist is held to the standard of care for a
a. periodontist.
b. general dentist.
c. dental hygienist.
d. physician.

 

 

 

 

  1. The practice of dental hygiene is a wonderful opportunity for a dental hygienist to try out experimental medications, because trying untested medications on patients can prove or disprove their effectiveness.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. Discontinuation of the provider–patient relationship requires appropriate notification to avoid
a. termination of services.
b. abandonment of the patient.
c. a severance clause.
d. a notice to quit.

 

 

 

 

  1. The purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to
a. support the digital imaging and communications in medicine (DICOM) standard for exchange of information between health care providers.
b. protect the patient’s right to privacy.
c. help in the transmission of electronic dental claims forms through a clearinghouse.
d. make certain that the electronic records of members of the armed forces follow them if they are transferred to another location.

 

 

 

 

  1. Patient records may include
a. written documentation, radiographs, and models.
b. written documentation and radiographs, but not models.
c. written documentation and models, but not radiographs.
d. written documentation only.

 

 

 

 

  1. Patients have the right to obtain their original records. Records must be provided free of charge.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a recommended method for a dental hygienist to remain current with all aspects of patient care?
a. Attend continuing education courses in person.
b. Watch Webinars and Podcasts relating to the clinical practice of dental hygiene on the Internet.
c. Read scientific literature pertaining to dental hygiene.
d. All of the above.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is a responsibility of the patient when receiving oral health care EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Cooperate in care and keep appointments.
b. Provide accurate answers about the dental or medical history and current health status.
c. Pay a reasonable fee in a reasonable amount of time.
d. Arrive for an appointment 15 minutes prior to the appointment time.
e. Follow instructions, including home care instructions.

 

 

 

  1. Why is it important for a dental patient to provide accurate answers about the medical or dental history and current health status?
a. It is important to be honest in daily life.
b. Honesty is the best policy in one’s personal life and professional life.
c. The delivery of dental care may be affected by a number of diseases and conditions.
d. Inaccurate answers constitute a breach of contract.

 

 

 

 

  1. Patients have a number of responsibilities when receiving oral care. One of the patient responsibilities is to follow instructions, including home care instructions.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is one of the three most common actions relating to health care EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Violation of patient confidentiality
b. Breach of contract
c. Professional malpractice
d. Failure to obtain informed consent

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following concepts is based on the premise that every citizen has the right to be free from invasion of his or her body without permission?
a. Informed consent
b. Integrity of self
c. The principle of self versus nonself
d. Breach of contract

 

 

 

 

  1. The concept that every citizen has the basic right to be free from invasions of his or her body without permission was first extended to health in which of the following legal opinions?
a. Union Pacific Railway v. Botsford, 141 U.S. 250, 251 in 1891
b. Schloendorff v. Society of New York Hospital, 105 N.E. 92, 93 in 1914
c. Salgo v. Leland Stafford Jr. Univ Bd. Of Trustees, 317 P.2d 170 Cal. Ct. App. in 1957
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act [HIPAA] 42 U.S.C. in 2008

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following concepts was first expressed in 1957 in Salgo v. Leland Stafford Jr. Univ Bd. Of Trustees, 317 P.2d 170 Cal. Ct. App.?
a. The concept that every citizen has the basic right to be free from invasions of his or her body without permission
b. The extension of the concept regarding the basic right to be free from invasions of his or her body to the delivery of health care
c. The concept of informed consent for the delivery of health care
d. The concept of the privacy of patient information

 

 

 

  1. The doctrine of informed consent has been codified through which of the following?
a. Common law
b. Case law
c. State statutory enactments
d. Codes of ethics

 

 

 

 

  1. To successfully establish a cause of action for failure to obtain informed consent, a patient must generally establish, in sequence, that (1) the duty was breached, (2) the breach of duty was the cause of the injury sustained by the patient, (3) the health care provider had a duty to disclose sufficient information about the proposed treatment to obtain the patient’s informed consent.
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 2
c. 2, 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 1
e. 3, 1, 2

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following are the two different standards that have emerged as the general measure of the duty to disclose information when a potential danger or risk is associated with a proposed treatment that may influence the decision whether to proceed with the treatment?
a. Prevailing opinion standard and national databank standard
b. Impartial group standard and American College of Dental Surgeons (ACDS) standard
c. Professional community standard and materiality standard
d. State government standard and federal government standard

 

 

 

  1. The elements of informed consent require the dental hygienist to inform that patient of the risks, consequences, and anticipated results of the proposed treatment and alternative feasible treatments. The consequences of accepting no treatment should be discussed as well.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. To establish a causal link between the breach of duty and patient injury
a. both injury causation and decision causation must exist.
b. injury causation but not decision causation must exist.
c. decision causation but not injury causation must exist.
d. neither injury causation nor decision causation must exist.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following must be established to prove injury causation during a breach of duty to obtain informed consent from a patient?
a. That the patient suffered an adverse consequence
b. That the patient suffered an adverse consequence and that the cause of the injury be an undisclosed risk
c. That the patient did not consent to treatment
d. That the patient would not have consented to treatment had the disclosure been adequate

 

 

 

 

  1. Consent to health care services for a competent adult may be determined by
a. the federal court system.
b. the state and county court systems.
c. the person him or herself.
d. the parents of the adult if they are determined to be competent themselves.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is grounds for obtaining informed consent to the treatment of an adult patient from a person other than the patient him or herself?
a. Incompetency or incapacity
b. Advanced age
c. Incarceration in a federal prison
d. Lack of residency status

 

 

 

 

  1. Who has the priority for providing informed consent for health care for a patient who is not competent according to the statute in the state of Washington?
a. The patient’s spouse or state registered domestic partner
b. The appointed guardian of the patient
c. Parents of the patient
d. The individual to whom the patient has given a durable power of attorney

 

 

 

 

  1. Consent to treatment of persons younger than which age should be sought from the parents?
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is an exception to the requirement of parental consent for the treatment of minors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Treatment of a minor in an emergency
b. Treatment of a legally recognized emancipated minor
c. Treatment of a statutorily authorized consenting minor
d. Treatment of a minor who is a child of parents who are minors themselves

 

 

  1. Who has the priority for providing informed consent for health care for a patient who is under the age of majority according to the statute in the state of Washington?
a. Parents of the minor patient
b. A competent adult representing himself or herself to be a relative responsible for the health care of such minor
c. A person authorized by the court to consent to medical care for a child in out-of-home placement
d. The appointed guardian, or legal custodian … of the minor patient, if any
e. The individual, if any, to whom the minor’s parent has given a signed authorization to make health care decisions for the minor

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true concerning documentation of informed consent?
a. The dental hygienist must use dental terminology so the patient understands the procedure as a professional would.
b. The patient must have the opportunity to ask questions and receive adequate answers.
c. Informed consent must be written to be valid.
d. Implied consent may be adequate for performance of a clinical examination with minimal risk.

 

 

 

 

  1. Informed consent must be written to be valid. Informed consent that is not written may be difficult to prove.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the term used to describe the failure of an oral health care provider to exercise the degree of care, skill, and learning expected of a reasonably prudent oral health care provider, in the class to which he or she belongs with the state, acting in the same or similar circumstances?
a. Malpractice
b. Unnecessary roughness
c. Willful neglect
d. Wanton negligence

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is permitted in the state of Oregon provided that informed consent has been obtained?
a. Failure to exercise supervision required by the Dental Practice Act
b. Rendering services that the licensee is not licensed to provide
c. Use of the Hand Over Mouth (HOM) technique for behavior management
d. Use of the Hand Over Mouth Airway Restriction (HOMAR) technique for behavior management

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following stands for the proposition that employers act through their employees or agents and are therefore responsible for the negligent acts of their employers or agents?
a. Respondeat superior
b. Prima facie
c. Quid pro quo
d. Perfectum

 

 

 

 

  1. Statutes of limitations are generally how many years from the date of the incident in question?
a. 1 year
b. 2-4 years
c. 4-6 years
d. 6-7 years

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is different about the statute of limitations for minors than for adults?
a. It is 3 years from the date of the incident.
b. It is 5 years from the date of the incident.
c. It is tolled (suspended) until they reach the age of majority.
d. There is no statute of limitations for minors.

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the purpose of the National Practitioner Data Bank?
a. It is a national program that collects negative information on a health care practitioner including malpractice awards and loss of a license.
b. It is a social media website for health care professionals.
c. It is a national job bank for professionals seeking employment opportunities.
d. It is a national data bank of statistics regarding health care professionals.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the most common claim for breach of contract associated with health care injuries?
a. That the health care provider promised that the injury suffered would not occur
b. That the patient was not told of the risks of treatment
c. That the patient was not informed that not seeking treatment was one of the treatment choices
d. That the patient was guaranteed a positive outcome

 

 

 

Chapter 09: Dental Hygienist–Dentist–Employer Relationship

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following scenarios is most likely?
a. The dental hygienist is self-employed.
b. The dental hygienist is employed by a dentist.
c. The dental hygienist is employed by a dental service organization (DSO).
d. The dental hygienist is employed by a government agency.

 

 

 

 

  1. Intentional violations of employment laws should be brought to the attention of the employer, but unintentional violations should not, because the employers did not knowingly intend to break the law.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. Word of mouth and networking with fellow professionals regarding obtaining employment is most likely to occur
a. through classified advertisements in local newspapers.
b. by reading professional publications, such as newsletters and journals.
c. by contacting a dental hygiene placement service.
d. through an electronic posting of available positions on the Internet.
e. at meetings, continuing education programs, and community service events.

 

 

 

  1. The interview with a prospective employee must be limited to a question-and-answer period. A so-called working interview is not permitted because the person is not yet an employee.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following should be found in a professional résumé EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Educational background
b. Marital status
c. Employment history
d. Professional experiences

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a question that may legally be asked during the interview process?
a. How many children do you have and how old are they?
b. What is your native language?
c. What languages can you speak?
d. Do you practice a religion?

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following interview questions is not permitted EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. How old are you? (to someone who appears to be in his or her 40s)
b. Are you Hispanic or from the Middle East?
c. Have you ever been arrested?
d. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
e. How long have you been married?

 

 

 

 

  1. A dental hygienist can be employed within two general categories of an employment relationship, known as
a. give and take.
b. voluntary and involuntary.
c. guided and nonguided.
d. at will and term.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of term employment and not at-will employment?
a. Employment of indefinite duration
b. Employment with a definite duration
c. Termination at the will of the employer for no reason
d. Termination at the will of the employee for no reason

 

 

  1. At-will employment means that
a. termination of employment can legally occur without notice.
b. termination of employment requires 2 weeks’ notice.
c. termination of employment requires 4 weeks’ notice.
d. the employment has a definite duration.

 

 

 

 

  1. An employment contract is associated with at-will rather than term employment, because term employment is employment with a definite duration.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

 

  1. The employment relationship specified by a term cannot be terminated without breaching the contract unless which of the following is present?
a. An amicable relationship
b. An acrimonious relationship
c. Just cause
d. A problematic situation

 

 

  1. Many federal and state employment laws are designed to protect the interests of
a. both employees and employers.
b. employees but not employers.
c. employers but not employees.
d. neither employees nor employers.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a federal law that protects against discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963
b. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
c. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994
d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
e. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

 

 

 

 

  1. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to employers with how many employees?
a. Just 1. Any employer must comply with this Act.
b. Five or more employees.
c. Fifteen or more employees.
d. Fifty or more employees.
e. One hundred or more employees.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the Pregnancy Discrimination Act?
a. An employer can refuse to hire a qualified applicant on the basis of pregnancy.
b. An employer can treat pregnancy-related conditions differently by requesting that only pregnant employees undergo medical evaluations regarding the ability to work.
c. An employer can treat the pregnant employee like any other temporarily disabled employee in terms of available options if a temporary inability to work occurs, such as leave or leave without pay.
d. An employer can have a policy that prohibits an employee from returning to work for a predetermined time after childbirth.
e. An employer can limit pregnancy benefits to married employees.

 

 

 

 

  1. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act was an amendment to which of the following federal laws prohibiting discrimination?
a. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994
b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
e. Equal Pay Act of 1963

 

 

 

 

  1. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 prohibits discrimination based on age against any employee or applicant for employment who is at least
a. 20 years old.
b. 40 years old.
c. 60 years old.
d. 65 years old.

 

 

 

 

  1. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 does not protect people with which of the following impairments?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
c. Addiction to illegal drugs
d. Asthma
e. Osteoporosis

 

 

  1. Disabled individuals can qualify for protection under the Americans with Disabilities Act if they can perform the job with or without reasonable accommodation. Employers are required to provide reasonable accommodation to a qualified disabled employee or job applicant.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is an example of a reasonable accommodation that an employer would be required to provide to a qualified disabled employee or job applicant EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Changes that allow an employee with a disability to enjoy equal benefits and privileges of employment
b. Changes to the job application process
c. Changes to the work environment or the way a job is usually performed
d. Changes that allow for full-time pay for part-time work

 

 

 

 

  1. An employer cannot ask an applicant about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability before making a job offer to a potential employee. Accordingly, the employer cannot and should not inform an applicant of the essential functions of the position and inquire whether the applicant is able with or without accommodation, to perform those job functions.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. States may enact laws that
a. extend the provisions of federal laws against employment discrimination and extend the scope of protections.
b. extend the provisions of federal laws against employment discrimination and restrict the scope of protections.
c. restrict the provisions of federal laws against employment discrimination and extend the scope of protections.
d. restrict the provisions of federal laws against employment discrimination and restrict the scope of protections.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following federal agencies enforces federal laws against discrimination in the employment setting?
a. The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
b. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
c. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d. The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993, an employer must grant an eligible employee up to how many weeks of unpaid leave during a 12-month period for a qualifying reason?
a. 4 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 16 weeks
e. 20 weeks

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is a reason why an employer must grant an eligible employee unpaid leave under the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Birth and care of a newborn child within 1 year of birth
b. Provision of care for a cousin with a serious health condition
c. A serious health condition that makes an employee unable to perform the function of his or her position
d. Any qualifying exigency arising out of the fact that a family member is a covered military member on “covered active duty”

 

 

 

 

  1. An employer is not required to maintain the insurance benefits provided as a part of the employment relationship during an approved Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) leave. Upon return to employment, an employee is required to be restored to his or her original position or to an equivalent position with equal pay, benefits, and other terms and conditions of employment.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970?
a. It is a federal law intended to ensure working conditions for employees are free from recognized hazards to safety and health.
b. States may not modify the requirements imposed by OSHA.
c. The law places responsibility solely on employers to comply with established standards and training requirements intended to minimize the number of personal injuries and illnesses that arise out of employment.
d. The law places responsibility solely on employees to comply with established standards and training requirements intended to minimize the number of personal injuries and illnesses that arise out of employment.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following provisions provides relief for employees who are injured while acting in the course of their employment?
a. State workers’ compensation programs
b. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
d. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

 

 

 

 

  1. Sexual harassment violates which of the following federal regulations?
a. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
b. Equal Pay Act of 1963
c. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
d. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
e. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994

 

 

 

 

  1. Quid pro quo means
a. captain of the ship.
b. something for something.
c. at first glance.
d. the meaning is obvious.

 

 

 

 

  1. A hostile environment occurs when any type of unwelcome sexual behavior creates an offensive or hostile environment. The harassment must result in tangible or economic job consequences, such as the loss of pay or promotion opportunities.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

Chapter 10: Risk Management

Beemsterboer: Ethics and Law in Dental Hygiene, 3rd Edition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is a term used to describe a philosophy of risk identification and system of injury prevention?
a. Risk management
b. Fiduciary relationship
c. Virtue
d. Deontology

 

 

 

  1. A general dental practice may not provide complex oral surgery procedures for patients, because the clinicians have determined that extensive risk factors are associated with those procedures.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

  1. Eliminating a high-risk procedure from the scope of practice is not always possible or desirable. In such cases a risk management strategy should be implemented to control the risk.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is true for a system of incident reporting EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Complete a report for all accidents or unusual incidents.
b. Reporting should include patient care problems, patient management issues, and patient complaints.
c. The report should focus on facts rather than subjective assessments and provide details of the event.
d. The reports should be retained in the patient record.

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a quality improvement program rather than incident reporting system?
a. A systemic tracking of adverse events
b. An ongoing evaluation system that focuses on patterns of behavior
c. A system that requires members of the dental team to complete a report for all accidents or unusual incidents
d. A report that focuses on facts rather than subjective assessments

 

 

 

  1. A quality improvement program should include three dimensions of health care delivery, which are
a. background, delivery, and outcome.
b. skills, application, and evaluation.
c. structure, process, and outcome.
d. methodology, process, and recapitulation.
e. structure, application, and evaluation.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a component of the process dimension of quality improvement?
a. Facilities
b. Technical skill
c. Oral health improvement
d. Organization
e. General health improvement

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the assessment of quality in a quality improvement process?
a. Design a study, collect data, report results, respond to results, and analyze data.
b. Design a study, collect data, report results, analyze data, and respond to results.
c. Design a study, collect data, analyze data, report results, and respond to results.
d. Design a study, collect data, analyze data, respond to results, and report results.
e. None of the above is the correct sequence.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of continuous quality improvement?
a. Assessment, implementation, evaluation, and planning
b. Assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation
c. Planning, assessment, evaluation, and implementation
d. Planning, evaluation, implementation, and assessment

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an analysis of the process dimension of quality improvement?
a. A study to evaluate the quality of dental hygiene scaling and root planing instruments
b. A study to ensure compliance with the practice’s health history policy
c. A study to evaluate the posttreatment effects of dental hygiene care
d. A study to evaluate compliance with OSHA requirements
e. A study to ensure compliance of personnel with required vaccinations

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the recommended method to encourage completion of patient satisfaction surveys?
a. Refuse to schedule another appointment unless the satisfaction survey has been completed.
b. Mail multiple copies until the patient complies by completing the survey.
c. Call the patient to request that the survey be completed by a particular date.
d. Compensate the patient with an incentive, such as oral health care products.

 

 

 

  1. Documentation in the dental record as part of the provision of oral health care services is important to protect
a. both the patient and the oral health care provider.
b. the patient but not the oral health care provider.
c. the oral health care provider but not the patient.
d. neither the patient nor the oral health care provider.

 

 

 

  1. All patient contacts should be recorded in the dental record, including cancellations and oral and written communications including any requests for information. The fundamental requirement for effective and meaningful dental records is the implementation of a systematic process of accurate and complete documentation.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. If the practitioner smells alcohol on a patient’s breath and suspects that the patient is drunk, the
a. patient should be described in objective terms according to the conditions observed.
b. patient should be asked directly if he or she is drunk.
c. clinician should state the obvious in the patient chart and say that the patient was drunk.
d. clinician should not make any mention of it in the patient’s chart.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the proper correction to make if an error is made during an entry in a written chart?
a. Use a whitening product to cover the erroneous entry and write over it.
b. Completely ink over the incorrect entry so it is impossible for another person to read it and the person becomes confused about the entry.
c. Draw a single line through the entry, followed by a note that an error was made.
d. Throw away the page with an erroneous entry and restart with a clean sheet.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding documentation in the dental record?
a. The process of documentation should be completed by the business office manager for consistency.
b. Documentation should be completed at the end of the day to avoid issues of contamination of records with saliva or blood.
c. Abbreviations and professional jargon should be used to save time and space in the record form.
d. A simple note such as “prophy” is not appropriate because it does not convey what procedures were performed.

 

 

 

 

  1. Good risk management practice may call for keeping a dental record beyond the mandated retention date because dental records are the best defense in any legal action.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Dental record entries that are written should be made in
a. Number 2 pencil for ease of correction.
b. red ink to highlight the importance of the information.
c. blue or black permanent ballpoint ink.
d. blue of black erasable ballpoint ink to simplify correction.

 

 

 

  1. Commonly understood acronyms should be used in the dental record so that all members of the dental office staff are familiar with the meaning of the term. Unusual or creative shorthand is encouraged as this may help ensure patient confidentiality.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following statements is true for electronic record keeping EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Electronic record keeping is a common and very acceptable method of maintaining patient information and should follow the general documentation guidelines.
b. Various types of electronic software are on the market and are not difficult to learn.
c. Steps must be in place to ensure that the record cannot be tampered with and that a valid signature is associated with each entry.
d. The guidelines for paper records are different from the guidelines for electronic records and do not apply to the electronic record.

 

 

 

  1. Dental office documentation includes which of the following in addition to written entries?
a. Radiographs, models, and photographs.
b. Radiographs and models but not photographs.
c. Radiographs and photographs but not models.
d. Radiographs but neither models nor photographs.
e. Dental office documentation does not include any of these in addition to written entries.

 

 

 

  1. Patients have a legal right to their original dental records. The dental office has the legal right to refuse to transfer those records if the patient has not paid his or her bill.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is considered to be the key to a successful, safe, and satisfying dental hygiene practice?
a. Excellent remuneration
b. Communication
c. A good practice location
d. Extended hours for patients who are working

 

 

 

 

  1. The dental hygienist uses various levels of communication skills on a daily basis. The ultimate success of verbal communication depends on the way the material is presented, the attitude of the speaker, the tone and volume of voice, and the degree to which the dental hygienist and patient/colleague are able and ready to listen effectively.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. The attitude and tone with which the spoken words are presented can have an impact on the effectiveness of the communication, because judgmental or negative attitudes and tone can influence the patient’s response to the information or distract the patient from the educational message the dental hygienist is trying to convey.
a. Both the statement and reason are correct and related.
b. Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related.
c. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following listening strategies is recommended by Purtilo and Haddad EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Concentrate on central themes rather than isolated statements; listen in paragraphs.
b. Listen with an open mind rather than focus on emotionally charged words.
c. Summarize in your own mind what you have heard before speaking again.
d. Clarify positions and statements before proceeding.
e. Allow vague or incomplete ideas to go unchallenged.

 

 

 

 

  1. Who is responsible for managing the professional competency and maintaining the appropriate credentials associated with being a licensed professional?
a. The dental hygienist
b. The employer
c. The state dental association
d. The dental hygiene program where the practitioner graduated
e. The American Dental Hygiene Association (ADHA)

 

 

 

  1. Most State Dental Practice Acts require that any licensed dental health care provider inform which one of the following of any address or name changes within a certain period?
a. The monitoring agency, usually the State Dental Board
b. The American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA)
c. The local component society of the American Dental Hygienists’ Association (ADHA)
d. The dental hygiene program of graduation

 

 

 

  1. Dental hygienists should carry adequate professional liability insurance and be familiar with the policy and its coverage, terms, and requirements. Claims-made coverage is limited to protection for allegations that arise from treatment rendered and reported while the policy is in force.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. The same ethical and legal standards and practices applied in the dental clinical settings should be adhered to when utilizing social media. Confidentiality of patient information must be maintained and any breach of privacy could result in civil and criminal penalties.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

 

  1. Each of the following is recommended in the textbook for utilizing social media EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Carefully view anything and everything posted online for its communication value and tone.
b. Strive to maintain personal and professional integrity in posting.
c. Do not post any patient information.
d. Be encouraged to “Friend” or “Like” patients on social networking to enhance communication.
e. Know the rules and policies on social media of employers and related institutions.