Sample Chapter




Dental Assisting a Comprehensive Approach 5th Edition by Phinney  – Test Bank



Sample  Questions


Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________                               ID: A








Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____ 1. A binding agreement between two or more persons is known as a deed.
____ 2. A contract can be terminated when one of the parties does not meet contractual obligations.
____ 3. The law that provides people immunity for acts performed while providing emergency care is the Good
Samaritan Law.
____ 4. If any part of the dental office chooses to transmit any transactions electronically, they must comply with
OSHA standards.
____ 5. Is it the responsibility of the provider to ensure that he or she is up to date and has the correct information
on insurance policies.
____ 6. Any information that identifies an individual or gives a reasonable basis in identifying the individual
must be protected.
____ 7. Employees must be trained to understand the privacy policies under HIPAA.
____ 8. The dental office must create and display a Patient Rights Notice that states all of the rights patients have
in regards to their PHI.
____ 9. Dental offices must self-monitor and self-evaluate the HIPAA practices.
____ 10. The Civil Monetary Penalties are a noncriminal violation that includes disclosures made in error with no
intent to violate.
____ 11. The dental assistant must develop the HIPAA office privacy policy for disciplining employees who
violate and continue to violate privacy rules and regulations.
____ 12. An employee who files a HIPAA complaint is covered under the whistleblower provision where no
retaliation is to occur.
____ 13. The enforcement of HIPAA is with the Office of Civil Rights of the American Dental Association.
____ 14. In safekeeping, all of the PHI must be kept in a locked safe.
____ 15. A privacy officer in the dental office can only be the dentist.
____ 16. The location of the fax machine is critical so that any PHI that is copied or faxed may not be viewed by
any individuals who pass by the machine.
____ 17. The Current Dental Terminology (CDT) 2011 has twelve categories in the code standard.










Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A



Multiple Choice


Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   The laws that govern dentistry are ___________.


  1. dental jurisprudence c.     both a and b


  1. dental ethics d.    neither a nor b



____    2.   Moral judgment is ___________.


  1. jurisprudence


  1. ethics


  1. both a and b


  1. neither a nor b



____ 3. What describes the legal restrictions and controls for the practice of dentistry?
a. Expanded functions c. Dental Practice Act
b. ADA d. None of the above
____ 4. The delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skill are ____________.
a. expanded functions c. Dental Practice Act
b. ADA d. none of the above
____ 5. The administrative board that supervises the Dental Practice Act is the ____________.
a. State Board of Dental Examiners c. either a or b
b. Dental Quality Assurance Board d. neither a nor b
____ 6. The job of examining applicants for dental licenses is done by the _____________.
a. State Board of Dental Examiners c. either a or b
b. Dental Quality Assurance Board d. neither a nor b
____ 7. Individuals who have passed the requirements for one state and are allowed to perform their dental skills
in other states without taking written or clinical examinations are examples of _____________.
a. reciprocity c. contract
b. doctrine of respondeat superior d. none of the above
____ 8. When an act of wrongdoing takes place under the guidelines of employment, this action falls under
a. reciprocity c. res gestae
b. doctrine of respondeat superior d. none of the above
____ 9. A written or verbal contract is a(n) _________.
a. implied contract c. expressed contract
b. res gestae d. agent
____ 10. A(n) ________ contract is implemented by actions, not words.
a. implied c. expressed
b. res gestae d. agent
____ 11. The principle of _______ translates to mean “part of the action.”
a. implied contract c. expressed contract
b. res gestae d. doctrine of respondeat superior
____ 12. Reasonable and prudent care that any dental professional would do in the same circumstances is defined
as _____________.
a. negligence c. due care
b. noncompliance d. none of the above









Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 13. Failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would do in the same circumstances is
defined as ____________.
a. negligence c. due care
b. noncompliance d. none of the above
____ 14. Professional negligence is defined as ___________.
a. negligence c. malpractice
b. noncompliance d. none of the above
____ 15. A wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another is ___________.
a. noncompliance c. malpractice
b. negligence d. tort



____  16.   False or malicious spoken words is ________.


  1. slander


  1. libel


  1. both a and b


  1. tort



____ 17. The most common area of fraud in the dental office is __________.
a. insurance fraud c. employee fraud
b. patient fraud d. none of the above
____ 18. Charts in the dental office must be ____________.
a. handwritten c. written in ink
b. written in pencil d. typed
____ 19. Corrections made in a dental chart should be made by ____________.
a. correction fluid c. a single line through each error
b. eraser d. none of the above
____ 20. When the patient is informed about the procedure in words that can be easily understood, this is
a. informed consent c. either a or b
b. implied consent d. neither a nor b
____ 21. As far as the statute of limitations is concerned, most dentists keep their records __________.
a. 2 to 3 years c. 10 years
b. 5 years d. indefinitely
____ 22. Which organization has identified a code of ethics specific to dental assistants?
a. ADA c. ADAA
b. DANB d. State Dental Practice Act
____ 23. To comply with the privacy rule, the dental office must follow which of the following privacy standards?
a. PHI
b. Individual rights
c. Disclosures with patient authorization
d. All of the above


____  24.   When a privacy officer is identified, the officer抯 role is to include which of the following?


  1. Information to patients about their privacy rights


  1. Information on how patients? personal information may be used


  1. Written patient information


  1. All of the above









Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A



____  25.   Which of the following are ways for the dental assistant to strive to stay within the law?


  1. Handle patients in a professional manner.


  1. Preserve confidentiality.


  1. Maintain legible and accurate records.


  1. All of the above


____  26.   The HIPAA training for each employee must include what information?


  1. Coding on electronic claim submissions


  1. Privacy and security


  1. Procedures and processes to be used within the office


  1. All of the above


____ 27. Dental offices may identify in the office HIPAA manual that the office policy for transferring records is
____ years of information.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 5 d. 10
____ 28. ________ is the rule of ability to control access and protect patient information.
a. Disclosure c. Security
b. Contract d. Code set
____ 29. A notice from the dental office for the patient should describe which of the following?
  1. Information must be written so it is easily understood.


  1. How health information about the patient may be used.


  1. Information can be accessed by the patient.


  1. All of the above


____ 30. After initial employment, staff training regarding patient rights is to occur ________.
a. every 6 months c. twice a year
b. annually d. every other year
____ 31. The ____ organization has prepared a HIPAA privacy kit that has policies and procedures for dental
a. ADAA c. PHI
b. ADA d. CDT
____ 32. The person who brings charges against another person in a legal action is called the _________.
a. defendant c. respondent
b. plaintiff d. criminal
____ 33. The type of supervision that requires the dentist to be present in the treatment facility is __________.
a. direct c. controlled
b. indirect d. implied




Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________                               ID: A








Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____ 1. All vitamins are considered water- or fat-soluble.
____ 2. Nonessential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the body.
____ 3. Incomplete proteins can be combined to make complete proteins if complementary foods are eaten at the
same meal.
____ 4. The quality of a protein that has all essential amino acids is called 揷 omplete.?
____ 5. An infant who is provided a bottle of sweetened substances for long periods of time may develop nursing
bottle syndrome.
____ 6. The words diet and weight loss have the same meaning.
____ 7. Everything that is taken into the mouth is considered an individual抯 diet.
____ 8. Carbohydrates are potentially cariogenic.
____ 9. Fats provide an alternate source of energy to carbohydrates.
____ 10. Fats and lipids share one commonality: they are soluble in water.
____ 11. The physical and chemical changes that take place in relationship to the usage of energy is called the
metabolic rate.
____ 12. If the rate of metabolism is less than the consumed calories, the person抯 stored fat will be used.
____ 13. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) will be lower for pregnant women.
____ 14. Optimum energy balance would include the same number of calories taken into the body as are used.
____ 15. Vitamins are a class of nutrients that provide the body with energy.


Multiple Choice


Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____    1.   Which mineral(s) is/are essential in the formation of healthy bones and teeth?


  1. Fluoride c.     Calcium


  1. Phosphorus d.     All of the above













Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 2.  Nutrients are classified as:
1. water
2. vitamins
3. minerals
4. fats
5. proteins
6. carbohydrates
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c. 4, 5, 6
b. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d. 2, 3
____ 3.  The nutrients responsible for providing energy are ___________.
a. proteins c. vitamins
b. fats d. carbohydrates
____ 4.  The nutrients responsible for growth and repair are ___________.
a. proteins c. vitamins
b. fats d. carbohydrates
____ 5.  The energy that a person uses when at rest is termed __________.
a. calorie c. basal metabolic rate
b. metabolism d. none of the above
____ 6.  Which vitamin can be produced by the body after exposure to the sun?
a. A c. K
b. C d. D
____ 7.  Which vitamins are excreted by the body daily?
1. A
2. B complex
3. C
4. D
5. E
6. K
a. 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 4, 5, 6 d. 4 only


____    8.   Which minerals are classified as major minerals?


  1. Copper


  1. Sodium


  1. Calcium


  1. Potassium


  1. Chromium


  1. Sulfur
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c. 1, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 6 d. 1, 2, 4, 6


















Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 9. Which minerals are classified as trace minerals?
1. Copper
2. Sodium
3. Calcium
4. Potassium
5. Chromium
6. Sulfur
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c. 1, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 6 d. 2 only
____ 10. The most abundant nutrient(s) in the body is (are) _______.
a. fat c. protein
b. water d. vitamins
____ 11. Which of the following are considered nonessential amino acids?
a. Histadine c. Lipine
b. Glutamate d. Valine
____ 12. Name the carbohydrates that patients are unaware may cause tooth decay.
a. Raisins c. Fruits
b. Crackers d. All of the above
____ 13. Carbohydrates that are broken down to simple sugars are ___________.
a. candies c. sweet desserts
b. soft drinks d. all of the above
____ 14. More than ____ percent of Americans are overnourished.
a. 50 c. 60
b. 40 d. 70
____ 15. ____ essential nutrients are required by the human body.
a. 40+ c. 30
b. 20 d. 10
____ 16. Carbohydrates primarily come from __________.
a. fruits c. legumes
b. grains d. all of the above
____ 17. The USDA first developed a guide to a balanced diet in _______.
a. 1992 c. 2005
b. 1996 d. 1999
____ 18. _______ is often called a backup source of energy.
a. Protein c. Fat
b. Fiber d. Water
____ 19. The American Heart Association suggests that a diet contain ____ percent fat content.
a. 50 c. 40
b. 30 d. 45
____ 20. It is suggested that ____ grams of fiber be eaten daily.
a. 20 c. 50
b. 15 d. 45









Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 21. If a label states that a product is light, it is normally about ____ percent less fat than normal.
a. 25 c. 10
b. 50 d. 45
____ 22. ____ calories make up 1 kilocalorie.
a. 100 c. 10,000
b. 1000 d. 10
____ 23. Carbohydrate and protein grams yield ____ calories per gram.
a. 4 c. 5
b. 1 d. 9
____ 24. ____ gram(s) of fat yield(s) 9 calories.
a. One c. Five
b. Four d. Three
____ 25. ________ is/are responsible for blood clotting.
a. Metabolic rate c. Prothrombin
b. Calories d. Ascorbic acid
____ 26. When a person is in a healthy condition, the ________ are in balance.
a. amino acids c. calories
b. electrolytes d. fats
____ 27. The mineral that makes up the largest quantity in the body is ________.
a. phosphorus c. calcium
b. sodium d. magnesium
____ 28. Which of the following are considered trace minerals?
a. Copper c. Manganese
b. Selenium d. All of the above
____ 29. _________ is found in the thyroid gland and regulates metabolism of the body as well.
a. Iodine c. Chlorine
b. Iron d. Chromium
____ 30. ________ primarily function(s) as a solvent for the biochemical reactions of the body.
a. Cholesterol c. Trace minerals
b. Fat-soluble vitamins d. Water
____ 31. An eating disorder characterized by severe weight loss, extreme aversion to food, and an extreme fear of
being fat is ____________.
a. chronic dieting syndrome c. anorexia
b. bulimia d. amenorrhea
____ 32. A product grown without the use of herbicides, chemical pesticides, or fertilizers can be labeled
a. organic c. lite
b. preservative free d. healthy














Name: ________________________ ID: A
Match the term to the correct definition.
a. Undernourished c. Malnutrition
b. Diet d. Nutrition
____ 1. Manner in which foods are used to meet bodily needs
____ 2. Food actually eaten
____ 3. Lacking the correct nutrients for the body
____ 4. Disorder resulting from being undernourished
Match the vitamin to its major function in the body.
a. K c. D
b. A d. E
____ 5. Vision
____ 6. Antioxidant
____ 7. Blood clotting
____ 8. Bone growth
The dental assistant should be informed of patients? diets so appropriate oral hygiene habits can be
maintained. Match the diet choice with the culture, religion, region, and/or group.
a. Native American d. Middle Eastern
b. Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, and Cambodia e. Vegetarian
c. Mexican
____ 9. Salty sauce made from fermented fish is commonly used.
____ 10. Diet does not include red meat.
____ 11. Plants commonly eaten are corn, potatoes, and cranberries.
____ 12. Beans, rice, chili pepper, and cornmeal are favorites.
____ 13. Lamb and yogurt are commonly used.




Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________                               ID: A








Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____ 1. Standard precautions are utilized prior to, during, and after each procedure.
____ 2. All OSHA training could be accomplished by videotape viewing.
____ 3. As long as protection for the front of the eyes is provided, any glasses are an appropriate protective
____ 4. The patient should be offered protective eyewear.
____ 5. A holding bath will disinfect any instrument placed in it for the proper length of time.
____ 6. If sterilization has occurred, all forms of microorganisms have been destroyed.
____ 7. There are many shortcuts available in dentistry; one of the best ones is in the area of asepsis.
____ 8. The rag wheel can be disposable or rinsed out and sterilized after use.
____ 9. The first step to accomplish the goal of infection control is for the dental assistant to maintain good
health standards.
____ 10. In taking the patient抯 medical health history, it is important to update this information both verbally and
in writing.
____ 11. It is recommended that to dispose of patient gloves, they go into a biohazard waste receptacle.
____ 12. When removing protective clothing, OSHA recommends that special care is to be taken with items that
are considered potentially infectious.
____ 13. Foot-operated soap dispensers prevent unnecessary hand contamination.
____ 14. Following handwashing, one of the best ways to dry your hands is with a disposable towel.
____ 15. Most often when an OSHA guideline is made, the profession has a specific time frame in which to
____ 16. Universal precautions means that all patients are treated as if they are infectious.
____ 17. Resident microflora are of primary concern to the dental profession because they constitute the pathogen
group that includes hepatitis.
____ 18. Both vinyl and latex gloves can be washed and reused.
____ 19. Following patient treatment and glove removal, gloves are placed into the regular waste receptacle.








Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 20. A type I allergic reaction to latex is the most common among allergies.
____ 21. Polynitrile gloves can be sterilized.
____ 22. Successful handpiece sterilization is accomplished by following the manufacturer抯 directions.
____ 23. An emollient is added to alcohol-based hand rubs to reduce microorganisms.
____ 24. Some dental offices use dishwasher-disinfector devices in place of ultrasonic cleaners.


Multiple Choice


Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____ 1. The creation of an environment free of pathogens is ___________.
a. aseptic technique c. disinfection
b. sterilization d. asepsis
____ 2. Universal precautions mean ___________.
a. most patients are treated as if infectious
b. all patients are treated as if infectious
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b
____ 3. Examples of times when personal protective equipment (PPE) must be worn are ___________.
a. initial examination of patient c. seating and positioning the patient
b. surgical extraction of a third molar d. both a and b
____ 4. Which regulatory body enforces the law that employers must protect their employees from exposure to
infectious materials?
a. ADA c. OSHA
b. FDA d. EPA
____ 5. Items included in the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard are
  1. Train all employees in a timely manner


  1. Provide employees with everything to meet standard regulations


  1. Provide all PPEs


  1. Pay for the hepatitis B vaccination series


  1. Establish standards for disposing of hazardous waste
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 5 d. 1, 3, 5
____ 6. Which written plan lists how to evaluate situations involving exposure?
a. Occupational exposure c. Exposure determination
b. Written exposure d. OSHA
____ 7. Under which exposure category would the dental assistant be classified?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. None of the above
____ 8. Which regulatory agency is involved in regulating the disposal of hazardous waste after it leaves the
dental office?
a. EPA c. ADA
b. OSHA d. State Dental Practice Act






Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 9. OSHA training must involve which of the following personnel?
a. Full-time c. Temporary
b. Part-time d. All of the above
____ 10. Where is the labeling and waste disposal information found for a product?
  1. Ask the dentist.


  1. There is never a problem disposing of any product.


  1. MSDS


  1. OSHA Communication Standard


____ 11. One of the best ways to prevent the spread of microorganisms from one person to another is by
a. handwashing
b. covering the mouth during a sneeze
c. handwashing with water and a microbial soap
d. handwashing with water and an antimicrobial soap
____ 12. Antimicrobial means ___________.
a. sterilization c. growth inhibitor
b. disinfection d. all of the above
____ 13. At a minimum, a ________ handwash should be done.
a. 15-second c. 1-minute
b. 30-second d. 15-minute
____ 14. The glove of choice for working chairside is the _______ glove.
a. utility c. over
b. latex d. surgical
____ 15. After the procedure, gloves that were not torn or ripped should be ___________.
  1. washed, dried, and used until they are torn or ripped


  1. disinfected for later use


  1. sterilized for later use


  1. removed and thrown away


____  16.   Food-handler gloves are used in a dental procedure


  1. They are not used in a dental procedure.


  1. to remove hot items from the sterilizer


  1. to clean the operatory


  1. when placed over latex gloves to retrieve something inside a drawer


____  17.   Utility gloves are used in a dental procedure ___________.


  1. to handle instruments.


  1. to remove hot items from the sterilizer


  1. to clean the operatory


  1. when placed over latex gloves to retrieve something inside a drawer


____  18.   A mask is worn by dental team members to ___________.


  1. protect the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth


  1. keep from breathing on the patient


  1. keep from having to smell the patient’s bad breath


  1. none of the above









Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A



____  19.   The standards for wearing a mask include ___________.


  1. replacing it when it becomes moist


  1. never letting the mask dangle from one ear


  1. placing a new mask for each patient


  1. all of the above


____  20.   Protective clothing worn during dental treatment includes ___________.


  1. short-sleeve gowns for comfort during the summer months


  1. high-neck and cuffed-wrist area


  1. V-neck and cuffed-wrist area


  1. There are no specific requirements for clothing.


____ 21. The physical removal of organic matter from surfaces or instruments is ___________.
a. disinfection c. cleaning
b. sterilization d. sanitizing
____ 22. Some products require as few as _______ to disinfect.
a. 10 minutes c. 5 hours
b. 30 minutes d. 10 hours
____ 23. Some products require ________ of submersion to sterilize.
a. 10 minutes c. 5 hours
b. 30 minutes d. 10 hours
____ 24. The only way to verify the time requirement for a particular product is by ___________.
a. calling the manufacturer c. reading the label
b. asking the dentist d. all of the above
____ 25. The disinfection level that kills some viruses and fungi and most bacterial microorganisms is _______
a. high c. low
b. intermediate d. none of the above
____ 26. The disinfection level that destroys most, but not all, bacterial spores is ________ level.
a. high c. low
b. intermediate d. none of the above
____ 27. The disinfection level that does not kill bacterial spores is ________ level.
a. high c. low
b. intermediate d. none of the above
____ 28. If during an immersion disinfection procedure an additional instrument is added to the solution before the
disinfection time is up, the ___________.
  1. time must be started over for all instruments


  1. first instruments can be removed according to the original time limit


  1. both a and b


  1. neither a nor b
















Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 29. Sodium hypochlorite is:
1. nonirritating to eyes and skin
2. irritating to eyes and skin
3. corrosive to metals
4. stable and has a long shelf life
5. unstable and must be mixed daily
a.  None of the above c. 1, 3, 4
b.  1, 2, 3, 4, 5 d. 2, 3, 5
____ 30. Which disinfectant can stain light-colored vinyl or plastics?
a. Chlorine dioxide c. Iodophors
b. Sodium hypochlorite d. None of the above
____ 31. Which is true of isopropyl alcohol?
  1. It is not used as a disinfectant agent in a dental office.


  1. It does a fine job of disinfecting handpieces.


  1. It requires special ventilation in the room during use.


  1. None of the above


____  32.   An ultrasonic cleaner is preferred to hand scrubbing because it ___________.


  1. uses sound waves to reach all areas of the instruments


  1. uses a cavitation process


  1. is safer for the auxiliary


  1. all of the above


____ 33. After instruments have been removed from the ultrasonic cleaner, they ___________.
a. should be rinsed and dried c. are sterilized
b. are disinfected d. must be cleaned by hand scrubbing
____ 34. It is easier to _______ sterilization.
a. achieve b. maintain
____ 35. A disadvantage of an ethylene oxide sterilization system is ___________.
a. There are no disadvantages. c. it requires ventilation
b. works in 1 hour d. it fails to sterilize properly
____ 36. The preferred sterilization method for instruments with surgical cutting edges is ___________.
a. immersion sterilization c. hot bead
b. steam under pressure d. dry heat
____ 37. An autoclave sterilizes by using ___________.
a. chemical vapors c. dry heat
b. steam under pressure d. liquid chemicals
____ 38. The autoclave takes _________________ to sterilize.
a. 30 minutes at 350 degrees at 20 psi c. 15 minutes at 250 degrees at 15 psi
b. 15 minutes at 350 degrees at 15 psi d. 60 minutes at 250 degrees at 15 psi
____ 39. A liquid chemical sterilizer requires ______________ to sterilize.
a. room temperature for 10 hours c. elevated temperature for 1 hour
b. room temperature for 10 minutes d. elevated temperature for 10 hours
____ 40. The heated ethylene oxide sterilization method requires ______________ to sterilize.
a. 150 degrees for 10 hours c. 250 degrees for 1 hour
b. 150 degrees for 2 to 3 hours d. 120 degrees for 2 to 3 hours






Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 41. A dry-heat sterilizer requires ____________ to sterilize.
a. 150 degrees for 2 hours c. 340 degrees for 1 hour
b. 250 degrees for 2 hours d. 270 degrees for 30 minutes
____ 42. The autoclave requires which type of water to function properly?
a. Sterile c. Tap
b. Saline d. Distilled
____ 43. If during the operation of the autoclave a hissing sound comes from the unit, what is the cause?
  1. The wrong solution was placed in the chamber.


  1. The wrong sterilization time for operation was selected.


  1. The door was shut improperly.


  1. The gasket is displaced or torn.


____ 44. The best way to store sterilized instruments is to store them in _____________.
a. a sterile cabinet
b. the package in which they were sterilized
c. in sterile racks on the counter
d. none of the above
____ 45. Failure of complete sterilization in an autoclave could result from _____________.
a. overloading the chamber
b. improper wrapping of instruments
c. improper setting of time and temperature
d. all of the above
____ 46. The most accurate way to ensure that sterilization has occurred is to use _____________.
a. a process indicator c. biological indicators
b. a dosage indicator d.  all of the above
____ 47. Which method indicates that packages in a sterilizer have been exposed to heat?
a. The use of a process indicator c.  Both a and b
b. The use of biological indicators d.  Neither a nor b
____ 48. With which solution may patients be asked to rinse their mouths to reduce microorganisms?
a. Peroxide c. Chlorhexidine gluconate
b. Sodium hypochorite d. Saline
____ 49. The most effective way to reduce the amount of aerosols coming from the high-speed handpiece from
being sprayed into the air is to _____________.
a. turn off the water to the handpiece c. use the saliva ejector
b. place the rubber dam on the patient d. use the HVE
____ 50. All the following statements are true EXCEPT:
  1. Disposable items can be disinfected and reused.


  1. Disposable items are ideal for infection control.


  1. Disposable items may be more expensive overall for the dentist.


  1. Disposable items are intended for single use only.


____  51.   Running the water lines in the unit for ________ flushes out the system.


  1. 5 seconds c.    20 seconds


  1. 10 seconds d.    30 minutes










Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 52. Name the organization that is composed of dental health care workers and that helps dental offices
correct infection control.
b. EPA d. FDA
____ 53. If the dental assistant has not had the hepatitis B series of vaccine, the employer is responsible for
  1. immunization information


  1. information regarding the availability of the vaccine during initial training


  1. paying for the vaccine series


  1. all of the above


____ 54. The term that indicates that most individuals infected with HBV or HIV have no symptoms is
a. asepsis c. SOP
b. antiseptic d. asymptomatic
____ 55. Sterilizing plastics requires special consideration. Which of the following is NOT recommended for
a. Liquid chemical c. Dry heat
b. Ethylene oxide d. Chemical vapor
____ 56. The microbe, found in dental unit water lines, represents this slime layer that allows bacteria, fungi, and
viruses to multiply.
a. Iodophor c. Peroxide
b. Chlorine dioxide d. Biofilm
____ 57. ________ is a system that requires that PPE be worn to protect against contact with all body fluids,
whether or not blood is visible.
b. CDA d. BSI
____ 58. Which of the following are included in the written exposure plan?
  1. All employees list tasks in each job classification and identify which category they fall under.
  2. The office must have a schedule for implementation.


  1. A manual and procedure plan are written to cover compliance for office PPE and safety issues.


  1. All of the above.


____ 59. In order to break the chain of infection, which of the following practices should be followed?
a. Proper disinfection c. PPE
b. Correct barriers d. All of the above
____ 60. Protective eyewear worn during specific phases of dental treatment will protect from the following
EXCEPT _____________.
a. splatter of saliva c. chemical vapor
b. conjunctivitis d. hepatitis
____ 61. What color of eyewear is normally worn to protect from curing dental materials?
a. Opaque c. Orange
b. Clear d. Gray









Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 62. This agency regulates the glove specification for the health care industry.
a. CDA c. FDA
b. OSHA d. EPA
____ 63. This latex allergic reaction is characterized by hands becoming itchy and sometimes cracked.
a. Contact dermatitis c. Type IV
b. Latex hypersensitivity d. Type I
____ 64. All the dental office items listed below contain potential latex EXCEPT _____________.
a. dental dam c. masking tape
b. treatment gloves d. rubber bands
____ 65. Which of the following are special protective clothing regulated by OSHA?
a. Uniform c. Gowns
b. Lab coats d. All of the above
____ 66. The cleaning device that uses a cavitation process to clean debris from the instruments is
a. bead sterilizer c. antimicrobial rinse
b. ultrasonic d. iodophor solution
____ 67. Sterilization indicators are used to ensure which of the following errors do not occur?
a. Bags are not overfilled. c. Both a and b
b. Sterilizers are not overpacked. d. None of the above
____ 68. In the dental office, rooms and equipment that are often overlooked for disinfecting include
a. radiography room c. dental laboratory
b. radiography processing equipment d. all of the above





Match the glove use with a specific procedure.


  1. Oral surgery procedures


  1. Placed over latex glove during patient treatment


  1. Used during disinfection


  1. Examination glove


____    1.    Vinyl


____    2.   Sterile surgical


____    3.    Overglove


____    4.   Utility



Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________                               ID: A








Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


____ 1. Using E-speed film instead of D-speed film will reduce the developing time.
____ 2. The lead apron should never be folded.
____ 3. Imaging systems are used by dental professionals.


Multiple Choice


Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____ 1. The inventor of x-rays is ____________.
a. Kells c. Black
b. Roentgen d. none of the above
____ 2. Which statement equals more energy?
a. Short wavelength with high frequency c. Long wavelength with low frequency
b. Short wavelength with low frequency d. Long wavelength with high frequency
____ 3. The central beam that comes from the x-ray tube head is _________ radiation.
a. primary c. scatter
b. secondary d. none of the above
____ 4. The radiation formed when the primary x-rays strike the patient is _________ radiation.
a. leakage c. scatter
b. secondary d. none of the above
____ 5. The radiation that is deflected from its path as it strikes matter is _________ radiation.
a. primary c. scatter
b. secondary d. none of the above
____ 6. The form of radiation that escapes in all directions from the tube head is _________ radiation.
a. primary c. scatter
b. leakage d. secondary
____ 7. The tissues/organs most sensitive to radiation include:
  1. nerve


  1. liver


  1. bone marrow


  1. reproductive cell


  1. connective tissue
a. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3 d. none of the above
____   8.  The MPD per year for radiation workers is _____ rems.
a. 0.05 c. 5
b. 50 d. 0.005









Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 9. The effects of radiation are ____________.
a. lost with time c. accumulative
b. dissipated d. none of the above
____ 10. The time between the exposure and the development of biological effects is the _________ period.
a. exposure c. accumulative
b. latent d. none of the above
____ 11. A dosimeter badge should be worn ____________.
  1. at all times in the dental office


  1. only while exposing radiographs


  1. only while developing radiographs


  1. at all times in the dental office, even when going out for lunch


____ 12. What determines the amount or quantity of radiation?
a. Electronic timer c. Milliamperage
b. Kilovoltage d. Control panel
____ 13. What determines the quality of radiation?
a. Electronic timer c. Milliamperage
b. Kilovoltage d. Control panel
____ 14. The molybdenum focusing cup is on which side of the x-ray tube?
a. Anode c. Both a and b
b. Cathode d. None of the above
____ 15. The area on the tungsten target where the electrons hit is the ____________.
a. collimator c. anode
b. central beam d. focal spot
____ 16. Another name for the lead diaphragm is the ____________.
a. filter c. focusing cup
b. focal spot d. collimator
____ 17. The size of narrow anterior film is ______.
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 4
____ 18. X-ray film is sensitive to ____________.
a. stray radiation c. high temperatures
b. chemicals d. all of the above
____ 19. The lead apron with the thyroid collar should be used for ____________.
a. children c. pregnant women
b. adults d. all of the above
____ 20. The dental film that reduces radiation exposure up to 20 percent is the ____________.
a. Kodak Ektoaspeed plus intra-oral
b. Kodak Ektoaspeed D-speed
c. Kodak Insight F-speed
d. E-speed











Name: ________________________ ID: A
____ 21.  The dental film that has the highest speed for the greatest reduction in radiation exposure for the patient
is the ____________.
a. Ultraspeed c. Insight
b. Ektoaspeed d.  none of the above
____ 22.  Sensor/image plates for digital imaging can come in which of the following sizes and designs?
1. Printer
2. Panoramic
3. Computer
4. Cephalometric
5. Scanner
6. Full-sized “0” x-ray
7. Full-sized “2” x-ray
a. 2, 4, 6, 7 c.  2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 5, 6 d.  1, 2, 5, 6
____ 23.  The experiment with a cathode ray tube called the Hittorf-Crookes tube was used to discover which of the
a. Radiation c. X-rays
b. Electromagnetic energy d. Ionization
____ 24.  In regard to the size of crystals in the emulsion, the larger the crystals, ____________.
  1. the faster the film


  1. the slower the film


  1. there is no difference


  1. it depends on the temperature of the developing solution


____ 25. Milliamperage seconds determine the amount of radiation exposure the patient receives. The difference
between the shades of gray is the ____________.
a. density b. contrast
____ 26. The degree of darkness on an x-ray, which is also controlled by MAS, is the ____________.
a. density b. contrast
Identify the intraoral film sizes with its designed use.
a. No. 0 d. No. 1
b. No. 3 e. No. 2
c. No. 4
____ 1. Adult film
____ 2. Child film
____ 3. Narrow anterior film
____ 4. Long bitewing film
____ 5. Occlusal film












Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A



Some cells are more radiosensitive than others. Match the tissue and organ affected by radiation
a. Skin, intestinal tract, oral mucosa
b. Kidney, muscle, nerves
c. Connective tissue, growing bone
d. Mature bone, salivary glands, thyroid, liver
e. Lymphoid, reproductive cells, bone marrow, intestinal epithelium
____ 6. Least sensitive
____ 7. Less sensitive
____ 8. Moderately sensitive
____ 9. Most sensitive
____ 10. Sensitive


Match the components of the film packet to the letters on the figure.





























____ 11. Outer package and black paper
____ 12. Dental film
____ 13. Black paper
____ 14. Lead foil backing
____ 15. Outer package













Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A





  1. Label the components of the x-ray production in the tubehead.






























  1. Aluminum filter


  1. Anode


  1. Cathode


  1. Copper stem


  1. Glass envelope


  1. Heat radiator


  1. kVp


  1. Lead diaphragm/collimator


  1. Lead lining


  1. Metal casing


  1. Oil bath


  1. Open cone


  1. Port


  1. Primary x-ray beam






Name: ________________________                                                                                                                                           ID: A





  1. Step-down transformer


  1. Step-up transformer


  1. Tungsten filament and focusing cup


  1. Tungsten target


  1. Vacuum


  1. Window