Sample Chapter




Essentials of Oceanography 7th Edition by Tom S. Garrison – Test Bank



Sample  Questions


Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


1. Transform faults are never found at mid-ocean ridges.

a. True
b. False


2. There are two types of plate divergences: divergent oceanic crust and divergent continental crust.

a. True
b. False


3. Convection within the inner core facilitates continental drift.

a. True
b. False


4. Subduction zones are areas where new seafloor is created.

a. True
b. False


5. The asthenosphere is cooler than the lithosphere.

a. True
b. False


6. Density is a measure of relative heaviness and is defined as mass per unit volume.

a. True
b. False


7. The oceanic crust is primarily made of basalt.

a. True
b. False


8. One piece of evidence that suggests the existence of Pangaea is the discovery of Mesosaurus fossils in Argentina and Africa, but nowhere else.

a. True
b. False


9. The Hawaiian Islands were formed within the last 2 million years above a hot spot that is now inactive.

a. True
b. False


10. Alfred Wegener was a polar explorer who suggested that at one time, Earth’s landmasses were joined into a supercontinent called Pangaea.

a. True
b. False


Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


11. Geologists believe that a new ocean basin is forming ____.

a. at the East African Rift Valley
b. in the Mediterranean Sea
c. along the divergent boundary between India and Asia
d. along the boundary between the Nazca Plate and the South American Plate


12. Earlier than 200 million years ago, the continents were joined into one supercontinent called ____.

a. Pangaea
b. Panthalassa
c. Oceanus
d. Tethys


13. With the development of radiometric dating, scientists discovered that the oldest rocks were typically ____.

a. in the center of the Atlantic Ocean
b. along subduction zones
c. near spreading centers
d. in the center of continents


14. A cross section of Earth reveals a layered structure that has different thicknesses and densities. How do geologists know this?

a. From drilling and digging down into the various layers
b. From observing the characteristics of lava and gas issuing from volcanic vents
c. From observing the transit times through Earth of waves generated by earthquakes
d. From comparisons with drill cores taken by robot spacecraft on Mars and Venus


15. The Himalayan Mountains were formed as a result of ____.

a. ocean-continent convergence
b. continent-continent convergence
c. ocean-continent divergence
d. continent-continent divergence


16. What are the primary components in Earth’s continental crust?

a. oxygen, uranium, thorium
b. oxygen, silicon, uranium
c. oxygen, silicon, aluminum
d. iron, aluminum, carbon


17. Japan is located along the Pacific Ring of Fire and experiences many earthquakes. Almost all of the earthquakes around Japan occur ____.

a. only on the east side of the island where the Pacific plate subducts
b. only on the west side of the island where the Eurasian plate subducts
c. near the Pacific spreading center
d. near the Mid-Atlantic ridge


18. One cubic meter of which of these would weigh the most?

a. ocean water
b. granite rock
c. basaltic rock
d. mantle


19. The rigid outer layer of Earth that comprises both continental and oceanic crust is called the ____.

a. hydrosphere
b. lithosphere
c. asthenosphere
d. outer core


20. The magnetic striping of the seafloor is considered evidence of seafloor spreading and ____.

a. periodic interruptions in mantle convection
b. subduction occurring in rift valleys
c. changes in Earth’s axis of rotation
d. periodic reversals in the polarity of Earth’s magnetic field


21. The mid-ocean ridges are ____.

a. subduction zones
b. transform or lateral plate boundaries
c. divergent plate boundaries
d. convergent plate boundaries


22. California’s San Andreas fault is which type of plate boundary?

a. divergent plate boundary
b. transform plate boundary
c. ocean-continent convergent plate boundary
d. continent-continent convergent plate boundary


23. Roughly how fast do most lithospheric plates move?

a. about 5 kilometers per year
b. about 5 kilometers per thousand years
c. about 5 centimeters per hour
d. about 5 centimeters per year


24. Which statement with regard to hot spots is true?

a. Hot spots are relatively stationary features.
b. Hot spots are always located along plate boundaries.
c. The Aleutian Islands in Alaska formed due to a hot spot.
d. Hot spots can only exist beneath oceanic crust.


25. New crust is being generated ____.

a. in the deep ocean trenches
b. at convergent plate boundaries
c. at divergent plate boundaries
d. at the centers of tectonic plates


26. The largest known mantle plume is located beneath ____.

a. Antarctica
b. Africa
c. Hawaii
d. Yellowstone National Park


27. What is the primary reason for the inside of Earth being hot?

a. No heat is being generated, but Earth’s outer layers have prevented the escape of heat trapped during the planet’s initial formation.
b. The decay of radioactive elements is creating heat in Earth’s inner layers.
c. A nuclear process like that found in stars is at work in Earth’s interior.
d. Huge quantities of oil and natural gas occasionally burn deep within Earth.


28. A boundary in which crustal plates slide laterally past one another is called a ____.

a. transform fault
b. convergent zone
c. divergent zone
d. rift valley


29. About how many kilometers (miles) is it from the center of Earth to the outer edge of the outer core?

a. 12,523 kilometers (7,827 miles)
b. 6,370 kilometers (3,980 miles)
c. 1,264 kilometers (790 miles)
d. 2,880 kilometers (1,800 miles)


30. Which statement is true with regard to subduction zones?

a. They are also referred to as “hot spots.”
b. They are sites where lithospheric plates are diverging or pulling apart.
c. They are marked by the presence of mid-ocean ridges.
d. They are zones where old seafloor descends into the crust and mantle.


31. Scientists believe the breakup of Pangaea occurred about ____.

a. 1 million years ago
b. 25 million years ago
c. 200 million years ago
d. 750 million years ago


32. Some plateaus, ocean ridges, ancient island arcs, and parts of continental crust are too buoyant to be subducted. These are, instead, squeezed and sheared onto the face of a continent, forming ____.

a. Wadati-Benioff zones
b. terranes
c. rift valleys
d. sea mounts


33. The youngest seafloor rocks are found ____.

a. near the edges of continents
b. near the rift valleys of mid-ocean ridges
c. beneath the deep sea trenches
d. evenly distributed over the ocean basins


34. The Hawaiian Islands formed as they pass over a hot spot in the middle of the ____.

a. Mid-Atlantic ridge
b. Nazca Plate
c. Mariana Trench
d. Pacific Plate


35. As early as the 1700s, scientists and observers noticed a remarkable coincidence of shape of the Atlantic coasts of Africa and ____.

a. North America
b. Australia
c. Asia
d. South America


36. Buoyancy is the ability of an object to float in a fluid by ____.

a. weighing less than the water surrounding it
b. displacing a volume of water equal in weight to its own weight
c. displacing a volume of water which weighs slightly more than its own weight
d. displacing a volume of water which weighs slightly less than its own weight


37. The ____ accounts for 83% of Earth’s volume.

a. mantle
b. inner core
c. crust
d. outer core


38. A “mystery” in our understanding of plate tectonics has been, until recently, the nature of the power source capable of moving the plates and the continents embedded within them. Recent evidence indicates the power source to be ____.

a. the readjustment of the surface to continual shrinking of the whole Earth
b. convection currents within Earth’s mantle is moving the plates
c. the action of ocean currents is dragging along the seafloor, causing the seafloor and the continents to move
d. the continual vibration from earthquakes and volcanoes slowly moves the continents equator-ward under the influence of centrifugal force


39. If two oceanic plates collide and one is older and cooler (therefore more dense) than the other, what will happen?

a. A deep trench will form.
b. Continental mountains will form.
c. A mid-ocean ridge will form.
d. A hot spot will form.


40. The hot, partially melted, slowly flowing layer of Earth is called the ____.

a. inner core
b. asthenosphere
c. lithosphere
d. outer core



41. What kind of observational evidence did Alfred Wegener use to propose his theory of continental drift, and the idea that the continents were once connected as the single landmass, Pangaea?


42. What is plate convergence and what types of features are produced from convergence?


43. How has the history of plate movement been captured in residual magnetic fields?


44. Using the Atlantic Ocean as an example, describe in detail how an ocean basin is formed.
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


1. The only way in which calcium carbonate sediment can form is by evaporation.

a. True
b. False


2. The white cliffs of Dover are chalk-like deposits of coccolithophores and are around 100 million years old.

a. True
b. False


3. Scientists use ocean sediments to obtain information about ocean processes throughout the history of the ocean.

a. True
b. False


4. Some sediment originates from the remnants of organisms.

a. True
b. False


5. Sediment refers to the inorganic materials that accumulate on the ocean floor.

a. True
b. False


6. An example of a terrigenous sediment is the manganese nodule.

a. True
b. False


7. Manganese nodules were discovered during the Challenger expedition and are hydrogenous sediments.

a. True
b. False


8. An example of a siliceous ooze are those formed from radiolarian shells.

a. True
b. False


9. Stratigraphy is the study of the deposition and layering of sediments over time.

a. True
b. False


10. Clays are the coarsest and most easily transported of the terrigenous sediments.

a. True
b. False


Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


11. Aside from manganese, what is the other primary component of manganese nodules?

a. iron oxide
b. uranium
c. silver
d. gold


12. In the process of lithification, sediments ____.

a. are subducted into the mantle at a deep trench
b. are converted into solid rock
c. slip into the center of the mid-ocean ridges and become new seafloor
d. are uplifted to form the edges of continents


13. Which method would be valid for classifying sediments?

a. Studying the size and settling rate of sediment grains
b. Studying the thickness of sediment layers
c. Studying the color of the sediment
d. Determining the age of the bedrock underlying the sediments


14. Over millions of years, natural gas and oil can be formed from ____.

a. erosion
b. volcanic ash
c. biogenous sediments
d. terrigenous sediments


15. Large volumes of bottom sediments may be transported long distances by ____.

a. storm waves
b. icebergs
c. tidal action.
d. turbidity currents


16. Which type of sediment is generated in place, on the spot where we find them?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


17. Which sediments cover the greatest area of seabed?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


18. More than 75% of the total ocean floor is considered ____.

a. continental shelf
b. deep ocean floor
c. continental slope
d. continental rise


19. Which sediments arrive in the ocean from continents via wind and water?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


20. The oozes on the seafloor mostly consist of ____.

a. boulders and cobbles from glaciers oozing off the land
b. bones and teeth of bottom-dwelling fishes
c. fine muds washed down the continental slope to the seafloor
d. microscopic hard parts of single-celled living organisms


21. Radiolarians and diatoms are both examples of ____.

a. organisms that are only found in tropical parts of the ocean
b. single-celled animals
c. creatures whose shells form siliceous oozes
d. calcareous oozes in the deepest parts of the ocean


22. The depth in the ocean where the rate at which calcareous sediments are supplied to the seabed equals the rate at which those sediments dissolve. What is this depth called?

a. calcium carbonate compensation depth
b. calcium dissolution depth
c. calcium carbonate pressure point
d. carbonate equalization depth


23. Sand is classified as sediment that has a maximum diameter of ____.

a. 4 mm
b. 0.2 mm
c. 2 mm
d. 0.004 mm


24. Neritic sediments are found on the ____.

a. deep ocean floor, mostly in the Atlantic Ocean
b. continental shelf
c. continental rise
d. abyssal plains


25. Sediments that are found on the continental slope and rise and on the deep ocean floor are called ____.

a. pelagic sediments
b. abyssal sediments
c. evaporites
d. neritic sediments


26. Which of the following is a major source of terrigenous sediments?

a. erosion
b. dissolved organic material
c. dissolved nutrients
d. precipitation over the open ocean


27. The analysis of layered sedimentary deposits in the ocean is known as ____.

a. stratigraphy
b. oceanography
c. marine biology
d. ecology


28. What type of information can scientists derive from observing deep ocean cores?

a. How much light penetrates the ocean
b. Information about historical changes in Earth’s climate
c. Historical changes in tidal cycles
d. Direct measurements of salinity over time


29. Which of the following are hydrogenous sediments?

a. quartz sand
b. phosphorite deposits
c. siliceous oozes
d. tektites


30. One area in the ocean that has an extreme abundance of sediment deposition is the ____.

a. shallow waters around Alaska
b. waters around the tip of Africa
c. deep ocean floor in the middle of the Pacific Ocean
d. waters near the Gulf Coast of North America


31. Most of the floor of the North Pacific Ocean is covered with ____.

a. manganese nodules
b. glacial-marine sediments
c. pelagic clay
d. evaporites


32. Which type of sediment is most abundant in neritic deposits?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


33. Which particles are the finest in size?

a. sand
b. silt
c. clay
d. granules


34. Which sediments would be considered oozes?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


35. A depression along the boundary of a seamount where sediment has built-up is a(n) ____.

a. scour moat
b. guyot
c. island arc
d. abyssal plain


36. Carbonate sediments are rare in deep sea sediments because the ____.

a. organisms providing shells do not live in the deep sea
b. abundance of muds and clays cover the carbonate shells
c. carbonate shells are dissolved in deep water
d. organisms do not live beyond the edge of the continental shelf


37. Manganese nodules ____.

a. are a type of cosmogenous sediment
b. are almost exclusively found on continental shelves
c. “grow” very slowly, at an average rate of 1 to 10 millimeters per million years
d. are inexpensive to collect, and are therefore, widely exploited


38. Sediment that contains a mixture of various particle sizes is referred to as ____.

a. homogeneous
b. poorly sorted
c. well-sorted
d. eroding sediments


39. Which type of sediment is of organic origin, i.e., made by organisms?

a. terrigenous sediments
b. biogenous sediments
c. hydrogenous (or authigenic) sediments
d. cosmogenous sediments


40. The study of the ocean’s past is referred to as ____.

a. stratigraphy
b. geology
c. paleogeochemistry
d. paleoceanography



41. Describe neritic sediments and explain what you would expect in the composition of a typical neritic sample.


42. What is sediment and what are the four classifications of marine sediments based on their origin?


43. What are the main sources of terrigenous sediments?


44. Paleoceanography is the study of past processes and past events that have occurred in the ocean. What types of questions do paleoceanographers ask and what are the methods they use to obtain information about the ocean’s past?


45. What is the origin of manganese nodules?



45. Describe the mechanism that controls the formation of the Hawaiian Islands. Is this island chain still actively forming?




Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


1. Oxygen is the primary component of air.

a. True
b. False


2. Air is never completely dry.

a. True
b. False


3. The uneven heating of the surface of Earth results in atmospheric convection currents.

a. True
b. False


4. The most intense summer monsoons occur in Asia.

a. True
b. False


5. Hadley atmospheric circulation cells are found at the mid-latitudes.

a. True
b. False


6. Tropical cyclones are most common in the equatorial South Atlantic.

a. True
b. False


7. Superstorm Sandy was the result of a collision between a nor’easter and an extratropical cyclone.

a. True
b. False


8. Due to the Coriolis effect, objects are deflected to the right or clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

a. True
b. False


9. Cyclonic storms can form within or between air masses (a large body of air with a uniform density throughout).

a. True
b. False


10. The change in the angle of the sun with latitude does not influence heating at Earth’s surface.

a. True
b. False


Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


11. The dependable surface winds of Earth centered at about 15° north and south latitudes are called ____.

a. the westerlies
b. the northerlies
c. the trade winds
d. the doldrum winds


12. Which of the following statements is true with regard to air?

a. Cold air can hold more water vapor than warm air.
b. Humid air is denser than dry air.
c. Warm air is less dense that cold air.
d. Water vapor in air can occupy up to 30 percent of air’s volume.


13. Which statement is true regarding the solar heating of Earth?

a. The heating of Earth is uniform across all latitudes.
b. Ice absorbs almost all of the solar energy that reaches the poles.
c. At the poles, more incoming solar radiation is absorbed than is reflected.
d. At the equator, more incoming solar radiation is absorbed than is reflected.


14. According to the atmospheric circulation model developed in the text, air tends to ____.

a. rise at 30° north and fall at 60° north
b. rise at 60° north and fall at 30° north
c. rise at 30° north and fall at 0° north
d. rise at 30° north and rise at 60° north


15. The most abundant gaseous components of Earth’s atmosphere are ____.

a. carbon dioxide and oxygen
b. nitrogen and hydrogen
c. nitrogen and carbon dioxide
d. nitrogen and oxygen


16. Which of the following conditions contributed most to the destructive nature of Hurricane Katrina?

a. a severe drop in temperature after the storm
b. very strong winds, up to 125 miles per hour
c. its pass over cooler waters before making landfall, causing the storm to strengthen
d. an exceptionally cold pocket of water over the Gulf of Mexico


17. Calm equatorial areas of low pressure are referred to as the ____.

a. doldrums
b. horse latitudes
c. trade winds
d. westerlies


18. Most of the damage caused by Hurricane Katrina was due to ____.

a. heavy rains
b. a huge storm surge
c. the low winds
d. the high temperatures


19. The power for tropical cyclones comes from ____.

a. static electricity
b. warm and cool air masses colliding
c. the Coriolis effect
d. the condensation of warm, moist air


20. Sunlight strikes polar latitudes at a ____ angle, spreading the incoming heat over a large area.

a. low
b. high
c. near-vertical
d. perpendicular


21. When viewed from above, tropical cyclones rotate ____ in the Southern Hemisphere.

a. clockwise
b. counterclockwise
c. in either direction depending on the storm
d. poleward


22. The volume of gases, water vapor, and airborne particles that envelops Earth is the ____.

a. weather
b. atmosphere
c. Coriolis Effect
d. biosphere


23. A ____ is a pattern of wind circulation that changes with the seasons.

a. monsoon
b. typhoon
c. hurricane
d. cyclone


24. The atmospheric circulation cells that operate in the mid-latitudes are called ________ cells.

a. Hadley
b. Ferrel
c. polar
d. trade wind


25. The boundary between two air masses of different density is called a ____.

a. Hadley line
c. Hadley cell
d. front


26. The area of high pressure and little surface wind, located at 30
latitude, is referred to as the ____.

a. subtropical low
b. intertropical convergence zone
c. horse latitudes
d. doldrums


27. One of the driving forces of atmospheric circulation is ____.

a. convection
b. conduction
c. evaporation
d. transpiration


28. Winds generally move across the United States ____.

a. from north to south
b. from east to west
c. from south to north
d. from west to east


29. Tropical cyclones are also called ____.

a. monsoons
b. tornadoes
c. hurricanes
d. nor’easters


30. When air masses come together ____.

a. very little weather activity results
b. a tropical cyclone forms
c. the denser air mass slides beneath the lighter air mass forming a front.
d. the lighter air mass slides beneath the denser air mass forming a storm surge


31. Warm air ____ and cool air ____.

a. expands and sinks; expands and rises
b. contracts and rises; expands and sinks
c. expands and rises; contracts and sinks
d. expands and rises; expands and sinks


32. If you were standing on top of a high mid-Pacific island at 15° north latitude, from which direction would you expect the wind to come? (Hint: don’t forget to consider the Coriolis effect!)

a. north
b. south
c. northwest
d. northeast


33. Seasons are caused by ____.

a. changes in the weather
b. annual variation in the energy output of the sun
c. Earth’s orbital tilt relative to the plane of its orbit around the sun
d. our being closer to the sun in summer


34. Weather may be defined as ____.

a. long-term temperature and rainfall trends
b. short-term, localized states of the atmosphere
c. long-term changes in the composition of the atmosphere
d. short-term changes in the composition of the atmosphere


35. Extratropical cyclones typically form ____.

a. near the equator
b. at high latitudes, at the north or south pole
c. at high latitudes, at the junction between the polar cells and the Ferrel cells
d. in the tropics


36. In the world model of atmospheric circulation, the ____ cells are located nearest the equator.

a. Doldrum
b. Polar
c. Ferrel
d. Hadley


37. The turbulent layer of Earth’s atmosphere in which nearly all weather occurs is called the ____.

a. stratosphere
b. mesosphere
c. asthenosphere
d. troposphere


38. The Coriolis effect causes objects moving in the northern hemisphere to veer off course ___.

a. to the right, or clockwise when viewed from above
b. to the left, or counterclockwise when viewed from above
c. in an upward direction
d. in a downward direction


39. The long-term statistical sum of weather in a geographic region is called ____.

a. weather
b. cyclonic circulation
c. the Coriolis Effect
d. climate


40. There are ____ major atmospheric circulation cells in each hemisphere of Earth.

a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five



41. Explain the distribution of solar heating across Earth. How does it vary? How are these variations balanced?


42. Describe atmospheric convection.


43. What is a hurricane and how are they formed?


44. Explain the Coriolis Effect.


45. Explain how the relationship between the atmosphere and the ocean affects weather and climate.
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


1. The Florida Keys is an example of how living organisms such as corals can influence coastlines.

a. True
b. False


2. The Ganges–Brahmaputra delta is an example of a wave-dominated delta.

a. True
b. False


3. Both land erosion and sea-level changes can shape a coastline.

a. True
b. False


4. Over time, the amount of water in the world ocean has remained constant.

a. True
b. False


5. One mechanism by which sediments are transported in the surf zone is via longshore currents.

a. True
b. False


6. Barrier islands were once part of the mainland when sea levels were lower.

a. True
b. False


7. A longshore bar is a vertical wall of sand delineating the low-tide mark.

a. True
b. False


8. Depositional coasts are growing because of sediment accumulation or the action of living organisms.

a. True
b. False


9. Marine erosion is usually most rapid on low-energy coasts.

a. True
b. False


10. Deltas form at the mouths of sediment-laden rivers and where continental shelves are broad.

a. True
b. False


Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


11. Beaches with very fine-grained sediments tend to be ____.

a. relatively steep
b. relatively flat
c. most common along erosional coastlines
d. in areas where the coast is rapidly rising or sinking


12. Which of the following best describes the foreshore of a beach?

a. It is the active zone of the beach that is washed by waves during the daily rise and fall of the tides.
b. It is highest part of a beach.
c. It is the part of the beach that has windblown dunes and grasses.
d. It is the area bellow the low-tide mark, where wave action, turbulent backwash,
and longshore currents excavate a trough.


13. A(n) ____ is a bridge of sediment that connects a sea island to the mainland.

a. inlet
b. tombolo
c. sand spit
d. bay mouth bar


14. Which of the following is true for depositional coasts?

a. They have never been changed by wave action since sea level stabilized.
b. They never support beaches.
c. Exposed bedrock is more common than loose sediment on depositional coasts.
d. Beaches are a common feature on depositional coasts.


15. A vertical wall of variable height that is often carved into a beach by wave action at high tide is called a ____.

a. berm
b. beach scarp
c. foreshore
d. backshore


16. The present shorelines of the world are considered to be ____.

a. geologically stable zones separating land and sea
b. features of great geological antiquity
c. active environments that are subject to rearrangement by waves and tides, by gradual changes in sea level, by biological processes, and by tectonic activity
d. that part of the marine environment most resistant to change


17. Most often, sediments found on the beaches of depositional coasts are supplied by ____.

a. erosion of local coastal cliffs
b. erosion of basement rock along the shoreline
c. glacial processes
d. rivers or ocean currents


18. The origin of sea cliffs, sea stacks, sea caves, blowholes, and arches is related to ____.

a. longshore currents
b. high tides
c. human activities
d. erosion by waves


19. The steep cliffs and rugged headlands common along much of the Pacific Coast of the United States are primarily the result of ____.

a. recent tectonic activity
b. marine deposition
c. river deposition
d. glacial erosion


20. Human activities that can significantly contribute to shoreline erosion include ____.

a. building sand dunes near the backshore to protect property
b. importing sand to beaches from offshore
c. placement of seawalls along the shoreline
d. excess fishing and boating activities


21. Deep, narrow bays that are often formed by tectonic forces and later modified by glaciers are called ____.

a. lagoons
b. drowned river mouths
c. fjords
d. bay mouth bars


22. It is believed that over the past two million years, world sea level has ____.

a. changed, but not significantly
b. varied from about 6 meters above to about 125 meters below present position
c. varied from about 125 meters above to about 6 meters below present position
d. not changed


23. An example of a partially mixed estuary is ____.

a. Milford Sound
b. Chesapeake Bay
c. the mouth of the Columbia River
d. the mouth of the Mississippi River


24. The highest point on a summer beach profile is the ____.

a. berm crest
b. backshore
c. foreshore
d. low-tide terrace


25. The energy that drives the longshore currents is derived from ____.

a. hurricanes and cyclones
b. major surface currents, such as the Gulf Stream
c. monthly high tides
d. wind waves approaching the beach front at an angle


26. Estuaries are categorized by ____.

a. location or latitude
b. circulation patterns
c. the ratio of fresh water to salt water
d. sediment origins and age


27. The movement of sediment (usually sand) along the coast, driven by wave action, is referred to as ____.

a. wave reflection
b. foreshore current
c. longshore drift
d. estuarine drift


28. On high energy shores ____ does most of the erosional work.

a. wave action
b. the tidal range
c. alternate freezing and thawing of coastal cliffs
d. prevailing wind


29. Breakwaters alter beaches by ____.

a. diverting sand away from boat anchorages that the breakwater was built to provide
b. interrupting the progress of waves to the beach and weakening the longshore current
c. allowing freshwater to flow readily into the ocean
d. filling in bays or inlets


30. Steep sea cliffs on erosional coasts are usually caused by ____.

a. exposure of these features due to a drop in sea level
b. deposition of large amounts of sediment by waves
c. glacial erosion
d. the collapse of undercut notches of exposed bedrock


31. Which statement is true regarding the Florida Keys?

a. They were formed during an ice age period.
b. They are an example of an erosional coast.
c. They are an example of a coast formed by biological activity.
d. They are completely below sea level.


32. The Mississippi River delta is an example of a ____.

a. tide-dominated delta
b. river-dominated delta
c. wave-dominated delta
d. mixed delta


33. Which statement is true concerning estuaries?

a. Organisms cannot survive in estuaries.
b. Estuaries are very vulnerable to pollution.
c. The salinity in estuaries is stable, with very little fluctuation.
d. An estuary is a type of delta.


34. A sand spit forms when ____.

a. a long-shore current speeds up
b. a long-shore current slows
c. a turbidity currents flows near a coast
d. sediment deposition connects a barrier island to the mainland


35. A long, shallow body of seawater isolated from the ocean, that lies between the shoreline and a barrier island is called a ____.

a. bay
b. sand spit
c. lagoon
d. tombolo


36. An estuary which forms where a rapidly flowing large river enters the ocean in an area where tidal range is low to moderate is called a ____.

a. well-mixed estuary
b. salt wedge estuary
c. partially mixed estuary
d. reverse estuary


37. A long-term effect of wave refraction is ____.

a. to smooth and straighten a shoreline
b. to add sediment to headlands that extend outward from the shore
c. to erode and deepen bays
d. to remove sand from the beach


38. Which statement is true with regard to breakwaters?

a. Beach sand is eroded on the downstream side of the breakwater.
b. Breakwaters interrupt the progress of waves to the beach.
c. Breakwaters strengthen longshore currents.
d. Breakwaters are often built to provide nesting habitat for shore birds.


39. Short extensions of rock or other material that are placed at right angles to longshore drift to stop the longshore transport of sediments are called ____.

a. berms
b. seawalls
c. groins
d. dolos


40. The variation in sea level that can be measured over the world ocean is called ____.

a. erosional change
b. tectonic change
c. dynamic change
d. eustatic change



41. What is a beach? Define the term and describe features and processes that may bound the limits of a beach.


42. Define the term coast and describe the factors that shape coastlines.


43. What is an erosional coast and how are they different from other types of coasts?


44. What is an estuary and how are they unique ecosystems?


45. How have human activities influenced coastal processes? Provide a specific example.
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.


1. The active swimmers of the pelagic realm are called the zooplankton.

a. True
b. False


2. Huge wings allow the albatross to fly great distances but they also require a tremendous amount of energy because of their inefficiency.

a. True
b. False


3. The distribution of phytoplankton in the ocean is directly influenced by the distribution of nutrients.

a. True
b. False


4. Macroplankton are the smallest size class of plankton.

a. True
b. False


5. Coccolithophores are zooplankton that can form chalky oozes on the seabed.

a. True
b. False


6. Sharks have skeletons made of cartilage, not bone.

a. True
b. False


7. Pelagic organisms live in the open ocean.

a. True
b. False


8. Diatoms and coccolithophores build their coverings (shells or tests) out of the same material.

a. True
b. False


9. Photosynthetic plankton are called phytoplankton and include the diatoms and dinoflagellates.

a. True
b. False


10. Zooplankton are the most numerous primary consumers in the ocean.

a. True
b. False


Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


11. How do marine reptiles and seabirds deal with the salinity of seawater?

a. They have special glands that help excrete salt.
b. They dilute the salt with freshwater.
c. Their bodily fluids are saline, as well.
d. They have a filter in their throats that removes salt.


12. The sharks, skates, and rays are members of which group?

a. Reptilia
b. Chondrichthyes
c. Teleostei
d. Arthropoda


13. The wings of marine birds that spend nearly all of their life aloft over the ocean tend to be ____.

a. short and broad
b. long, broad, and rounded
c. long, thin, and pointed
d. short, thin, and pointed


14. An example of a zooplankton that is very important to many pelagic communities is ____.

a. krill
b. squid
c. coccolithophores
d. diatoms


15. Why are harmful algal blooms, or HABs, so dangerous?

a. They block light from reaching other photosynthesizers.
b. They can produce potent toxins.
c. They clog fish gills.
d. They absorb sunlight, raising the water temperature.


16. Productivity in polar waters ____.

a. is high year-round b. is very low year-round
c. briefly spikes in the summer d. is only high in the winter


17. Organisms with backbones are called ____.

a. vertebrates
b. invertebrates
c. molluscs
d. foraminifera


18. Which type of organism is responsible for harmful algal blooms, or HABs?

a. diatoms
b. dinoflagellates
c. coccolithophores
d. foraminifera


19. Organisms that spend only part of their life cycle as a member of the plankton community are called ____.

a. zooplankton
b. meroplankton
c. holoplankton
d. phytoplankton


20. Which of the following organisms is a cephalopod?

a. whale
b. sea turtle
c. seal
d. squid


21. Where, through a year, is the greatest total oceanic primary productivity?

a. in the tropics
b. in the temperate zones
c. in the polar regions
d. productivity is about equal at all latitudes


22. The portion of the pelagic zone that is near the shore on the continental shelf is the ____.

a. oceanic zone
b. abyssal zone
c. neritic zone
d. bathyal zone


23. A blue whale’s baleen allows it to ____.

a. hold its breath on long dives
b. catch zooplankton by filtering mouthfuls of water
c. communicate with other whales
d. stay warm in cold water


24. The “seals” performing in seal shows are actually ____.

a. sea lions
b. true seals
c. sea otters
d. manatees


25. In the gill of a fish, water and blood circulate ____, which ____ transfer efficiency.

a. in the same direction; increases
b. in opposite directions; increases
c. in the same direction; decreases
d. in opposite directions; decreases


26. Organisms that spend their entire life cycle as plankton are called ____.

a. nanoplankton.
b. meroplankton.
c. holoplankton.
d. zooplankton.


27. Which of the following categories includes manatees and dugongs?

a. Cetacea
b. Pinnipedia
c. Sirenia
d. Teleostei


28. Organisms that are unable to actively move laterally, instead drifting with ocean currents, are called ____.

a. plankton
b. nekton
c. hadal
d. benthic


29. Many populations that interact with one another at a particular location form a ____.

a. niche
b. habitat
c. community
d. genus


30. Bony fishes (like tuna or anchovies) are members of which group?

a. Mammalia
b. Chondrichthyes
c. Osteichthyes
d. Arthropoda


31. The whale shark is the largest species of shark and eats ____.

a. seals and other smaller marine mammals
b. fish, especially tuna
c. plankton near the surface of the water
d. benthic crabs


32. Toothed whales (Odontoceti) can search for prey using ____.

a. echolocation
b. sensitive organs that detect electric charge
c. sensitive organs that detect water pressure
d. bioluminescence


33. ____ refers to organisms that live on or are associated with the bottom.

a. Pelagic
b. Neretic
c. Planktonic
d. Benthic


34. Marine mammals are ____.

a. ectothermic
b. endothermic
c. autotrophic
d. disphotic


35. A group of organisms of the same species that occupy a specific area is called a(n) ____.

a. community
b. population
c. ecosystem
d. niche


36. Into which category do whales fit?

a. Cetacea
b. Pinnipedia
c. Sirenia
d. Teleostei


37. What do bony fishes use to make themselves more buoyant?

a. hollow fins
b. decreased drag
c. gills
d. swim bladder


38. Autotrophic plankton are generally called ____.

a. zooplankton
b. meroplankton
c. holoplankton
d. phytoplankton


39. A ____ is an organism’s “address” within its community, while its ____ is its “occupation”.

a. habitat; metabolism
b. niche; resource
c. neritic zone; selection
d. habitat; niche


40. A massed group of individual fish of a single species and size class packed closely together and moving as a unit is called a ____.

a. flock
b. herd
c. clutch
d. school



41. Discuss adaptations in fish that function to reduce drag.


42. Some of the very large species of animals in the ocean, namely whale sharks and baleen whales, feed on plankton. How can they support their large size eating microscopic organisms?


43. The pelagic realm is massive and supports a great diversity of living things. Considering zonation in the pelagic realm, where would you expect to find most of the organisms and why?


44. Compare and contrast the toothed whales and the baleen whales.


45. What factors are necessary for plankton productivity and therefore determine where productivity is high and where it is low?