### Sample Chapter

##### Sample  Questions

 1. One person in a 10-person group is 10 times older than anyone else in the group. With respect to age, it is most likely that the majority of group members are younger than the group’s A) mode. B) median. C) mean. D) standard deviation.

 2. The ________ is a measure of ________. A) standard deviation; central tendency B) mean; variation C) median; central tendency D) mode; variation

 3. Janet has five brothers who are 4, 6, 6, 9, and 15 years of age. The mean age of Janet’s brothers is A) 6. B) 7. C) 8. D) 9.

 4. Which measure of variation is affected most by a few extreme scores? A) standard deviation B) mean C) median D) range

 5. The maximum height of a normal curve corresponds to the ________ of a normal distribution. A) range B) mean C) standard deviation D) statistical significance

 6. If a negative correlation between two sets of scores is displayed in a scatterplot, the points are clustered in a pattern that A) resembles a bell-shaped curve. B) extends from the lower left to the upper right. C) resembles a U-shaped curve. D) extends from the upper left to the lower right.

 7. Random samples provide ________ estimates of population averages if the samples have small ________. A) good; means B) good; standard deviations C) poor; means D) poor; standard deviations

 1. Ahmed has five sisters who are 3, 3, 5, 9, and 10 years of age. The number 5 represents the ________ of the sisters’ ages. A) mode B) median C) mean D) range

 2. The ________ can be a particularly misleading indication of what is average for a ________ distribution of scores. A) mean; skewed B) median; skewed C) mean; normal D) median; normal

 3. To provide a rough estimate of how similar or diverse a set of scores is, we should calculate the A) standard deviation. B) mean. C) median. D) range.

 4. The ________ is a measure of ________. A) median; variation B) range; central tendency C) standard deviation; variation D) normal curve; central tendency

 5. When people’s symptoms of emotional distress are at their worst, whatever they do to try to alleviate the condition is likely to be followed by improvement rather than further deterioration. This is best explained in terms of A) the standard deviation. B) illusory correlation. C) the “decline effect.” D) regression toward the mean.

 6. Differences between two samples are LEAST likely to be statistically significant if the samples are _______ and the standard deviations of the samples are _______. A) small; small B) large; large C) small; large D) large; small

 7. To assess age-linked differences in self-esteem, researchers plan to give children from different age groups a test of self-esteem during the upcoming week. This research best illustrates A) regression toward the mean. B) a cross-sectional study. C) a skewed distribution. D) a longitudinal study.

 1. A completely focused state of consciousness resulting from optimal engagement of one’s skills is called A) charisma. B) 360-degree feedback. C) transformational leadership. D) flow.

 2. Personnel psychology is one of the main subfields of A) organizational psychology. B) industrial-organizational psychology. C) human factors psychology. D) social psychology.

 3. Analyzing job requirements and optimizing worker placement are of most direct relevance to A) human factors psychology. B) clinical psychology. C) organizational psychology. D) personnel psychology.

 4. By scripting specific job-relevant questions to be asked of all those applying for a particular work position, a personnel psychologist is most clearly developing a framework for A) the experience of flow. B) transformational leadership. C) structured interviews. D) 360-degree feedback.

 5. For each performance review, Professor Donnell is evaluated by her students, colleagues, department chair, and research assistants. This best illustrates A) managing by objectives. B) the experience of flow. C) human factors psychology. D) 360-degree feedback.

 6. Assessing the impact of different management styles on the motivation and productivity of employees best illustrates the professional concerns of A) personnel psychology. B) clinical psychology. C) organizational psychology. D) human factors psychology.

 7. Human factors psychologists would be most likely to aid in the design of A) employee weight-reduction programs. B) management training seminars. C) user-friendly factory machinery. D) work-skills assessment tests.

 1. Using scientific procedures to test whether watching violent movies increases the frequency of emotionally upsetting dreams best illustrates A) functionalism. B) Freudian psychology. C) an empirical approach. D) positive psychology.

 2. Three key attitudes of scientific inquiry are A) pride, enthusiasm, and ingenuity. B) ingenuity, practicality, and certainty. C) certainty, creativity, and curiosity. D) curiosity, skepticism, and humility.

 3. Rodesia insists that Dr. Phillips’ theory of aggression be checked against observable evidence. She is demonstrating the scientific attitude of A) pride. B) skepticism. C) practicality. D) enthusiasm.

 4. The scientific attitude requires an open-minded humility because it involves a willingness to A) avoid multiple levels of analysis. B) reject any ideas that can’t be scientifically tested. C) recognize the errors in our own ideas. D) respect political beliefs that contradict our own.

 5. Reasoning that does not blindly accept available arguments and conclusions illustrates A) introspection. B) critical thinking. C) the psychodynamic perspective. D) an empirical approach.

 6. Critical thinking most clearly involves A) a biopsychosocial approach. B) introspection. C) evaluating evidence. D) the psychodynamic perspective.

 7. A questioning attitude regarding psychologists’ assumptions and hidden values best illustrates A) behaviorism. B) critical thinking. C) introspection. D) Freudian psychology.

 8. Melinda expressed concerns as to whether the wording of the questions in a life satisfaction survey may have encouraged respondents to convey unusually positive levels of well-being. Melinda’s concerns best illustrated A) introspection. B) an empirical approach. C) critical thinking. D) the neuroscience perspective.

 9. Questioning whether conclusions are warranted by the existing evidence best illustrates A) critical thinking. B) functionalism. C) the biopsychosocial approach. D) introspection.

 10. When you question the claim that hypnosis helps people to recall memories more accurately, you are most clearly demonstrating A) introspection. B) the neuroscience perspective. C) an empirical approach. D) critical thinking.

 11. Aristotle suggested the source of our personality is the A) brain. B) throat. C) heart. D) stomach.

 12. Wilhelm Wundt’s laboratory work involved experimental studies of A) animal intelligence. B) personality development. C) social influence. D) mental processes.

 13. The birth of psychology is often attributed to Wilhelm Wundt because he pioneered the investigation of mental processes using A) a biopsychosocial perspective. B) an evolutionary perspective. C) positive psychology. D) scientific methods.

 14. The early school of thought that used introspection to reveal the mind’s makeup was called A) cognitive neuroscience. B) behaviorism. C) structuralism. D) evolutionary psychology.

 15. Introspection was the basic research tool used by ________ in order to study people’s inner sensations and mental images. A) John B. Watson B) Charles Darwin C) Edward Titchener D) B. F. Skinner

 16. Looking inward and reporting your immediate sensations, images, and feelings is called A) cognitive neuroscience. B) introspection. C) behaviorism. D) humanistic psychology.

 17. Research participants are asked to monitor and report their own immediate sensory reactions to differently colored objects. This research involves a technique known as A) behavior genetics. B) psychoanalysis. C) behaviorism. D) introspection.

 18. The unreliability of ________ led to the waning popularity of structuralism. A) introspection B) behavior genetics C) behaviorism D) humanistic psychology

 19. William James was a prominent American A) psychoanalyst. B) behaviorist. C) functionalist. D) psychiatrist.

 20. Functionalism was a school of psychology that focused attention on the A) adaptive value of thoughts and behaviors. B) component elements of sensory experience. C) disruptive effects of unconscious motives. D) treatment of psychological disorders.

 21. Which theorist most clearly influenced William James’ efforts to understand the adaptive functions of thinking and consciousness? A) John B. Watson B) Sigmund Freud C) Carl Rogers D) Charles Darwin

 22. Edward Titchener is to structuralism as William James is to ________. A) behaviorism B) humanistic psychology C) cognitive neuroscience D) functionalism

 23. Who was a student of William James and the first female president of the American Psychological Association? A) Jean Piaget B) Margaret Floy Washburn C) Rosalie Rayner D) Mary Whiton Calkins

 24. Early psychologists such as Wilhelm Wundt and William James focused on the study of A) mental processes. B) clinical psychology. C) unconscious motives. D) conditioned responses.

 25. Beginning in the 1920s, American psychologists such as John B. Watson emphasized the study of A) genetic influences. B) self-esteem. C) conscious thoughts and feelings. D) observable behavior.

 26. The view that psychology should be an objective science that studies observable human activity without reference to mental processes is known as A) behaviorism. B) cognitive neuroscience. C) humanistic psychology. D) positive psychology.

 27. Behaviorists dismissed the value of A) science. B) introspection. C) neuroscience. D) applied research.

 28. Observing and recording people’s behavior as they are conditioned was of most central interest to A) Freudian psychology. B) humanistic psychology. C) behaviorism. D) structuralism.

 29. Early behaviorists such as John B. Watson would have considered the introspective study of self-esteem to be A) applied research. B) a positive psychology. C) an unscientific method. D) a biopsychosocial approach.

 30. John B. Watson is to Edward Titchener as ________ is to ________. A) biology; environment B) observable behavior; inner sensations C) mental illness; psychiatry D) cognitive perspective; psychodynamic perspective

 31. Which major force in psychology emphasized unconscious thought processes? A) evolutionary psychology B) Freudian psychology C) behavior genetics D) behaviorism

 32. Sherry is often overly generous in sacrificing her time to help others. Her friend suggests that by keeping busy in this way Sherry avoids confronting her own unconscious conflicts. Her friend’s suggestion illustrates the type of explanation that is most typical of A) evolutionary psychology. B) cognitive neuroscience. C) structuralism. D) Freudian psychology.

 33. Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow promoted a historically significant approach known as A) behaviorism. B) humanistic psychology. C) cognitive neuroscience. D) behavior genetics.

 34. Humanistic psychologists focused attention on the importance of people’s A) childhood memories. B) genetic predispositions. C) unconscious thought processes. D) potential for growth.

 35. Contemporary psychology is best defined as the science of A) conscious and unconscious mental activity. B) observable responses to the environment. C) behavior and mental processes. D) maladaptive and adaptive behaviors.

 36. Smiling is to feeling as ________ is to ________. A) evolution; natural selection B) behavior; mental process C) conscious; unconscious D) nurture; nature

 37. The young science of psychology developed from the more established fields of philosophy and A) economics. B) biology. C) geography. D) sociology.

 38. The personality theorist Sigmund Freud was an Austrian A) chemist. B) physician. C) theologian. D) politician.

 39. One of the last century’s most influential observers of children was the Swiss biologist A) Edward Bradford Titchener. B) Margaret Floy Washburn. C) William James. D) Jean Piaget.

 40. Today’s psychology is best described as increasingly A) introspective in its methods. B) psychodynamic it its perspective. C) globalized in its influence. D) controversial in its application.

 41. In the 1960s, the cognitive revolution in psychology involved a renewal of interest in the scientific study of A) mental processes. B) hereditary influences. C) unconscious motives. D) learned behaviors.

 42. The scientific study of mental activities associated with perceiving, processing, and remembering information is most central to A) clinical psychology. B) humanistic psychology. C) evolutionary psychology. D) cognitive psychology.

 43. Cognitive neuroscience studies relationships between A) natural selection and genetic predispositions. B) childhood memories and psychological disorders. C) thought processes and brain functions. D) philosophy and physiology.

 44. Investigating patterns of brain activity that accompany people’s recollections of a stressful experience would be of most direct interest to the specialty area known as A) behavior genetics. B) cognitive neuroscience. C) evolutionary psychology. D) functionalism.

 45. The nature–nurture issue refers to the debate over the relative contributions that ________ make to the development of psychological traits. A) introspection and nerve cell activity B) unconscious and conscious motives C) behavior and mental processes D) genes and experience

 46. Innate ability is to learned skill as ________ is to ________. A) observation; introspection B) psychology; psychiatry C) nature; nurture D) behavior; mental processes

 47. Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more heavily influenced by their biology or their home environments are most directly relevant to the debate regarding A) structuralism and functionalism. B) conscious and unconscious thought. C) observation and introspection. D) nature and nurture.

 48. Lissette wonders whether personality differences between her friends who recently moved from Nigeria and those who moved from Thailand result primarily from biological influences or from cultural influences. In this instance, Lissette is primarily concerned with the relative contributions of A) neuroscience and cognition. B) nature and nurture. C) behavior and mental processes. D) conscious and unconscious thoughts.

 49. Plato’s assumption that we inherit character traits and intelligence is most directly relevant to the controversy regarding A) conscious and unconscious thoughts. B) observation and introspection. C) nature and nurture. D) basic and applied research.

 50. In the context of debates over the origins of psychological traits, nature is to nurture as A) Plato is to Aristotle. B) Watson is to Skinner. C) Aristotle is to Plato. D) Skinner is to Watson.

 51. Professor McClure believes that young children are frequently able to make morally correct decisions because humans are endowed with an inborn knowledge of basic ethical principles. The professor’s belief is most consistent with the views of A) Aristotle. B) Plato. C) John B. Watson. D) B. F. Skinner.

 52. Who is best known for highlighting the reproductive advantages of environmentally adaptive traits? A) Plato B) Aristotle C) Edward Titchener D) Charles Darwin

 53. Charles Darwin attempted to explain the ________ that he encountered. A) unconscious thought processes B) species variation C) biopsychosocial approach D) cognitive neuroscience

 54. The survival of organisms best suited to a particular environment is known as A) functionalism. B) natural selection. C) behavior genetics. D) structuralism.

 55. Natural selection refers to the principle that variations in _________ that contribute to reproduction and survival will most likely be passed on to succeeding generations. A) learned habits B) inherited traits C) levels of analysis D) cultural practices

 56. Exploring how we humans are alike because of our common biology and evolutionary history is the focus of A) cognitive neuroscience. B) community psychology. C) behavior genetics. D) evolutionary psychology.

 57. Exploring how we humans are diverse because of our differing genes and environments is the focus of A) behavior genetics. B) cognitive psychology. C) evolutionary psychology. D) humanistic psychology.

 58. By suggesting that nurture works on what nature endows, psychologists highlight the fact that we are biologically endowed with a capacity for A) inborn ideas. B) natural selection. C) introspection. D) learning and adaptation.

 59. The enduring traditions, attitudes, ideas, and behaviors shared by a large group of people constitute their A) culture. B) levels of analysis. C) behavior genetics. D) community psychology.

 60. The transmission of customs for showing respect to those in positions of authority best illustrates the importance of A) functionalism. B) culture. C) introspection. D) behavior genetics.

 61. Studying people of all races and cultures is most helpful for A) promoting structuralism. B) inhibiting introspection. C) discerning human similarities and differences. D) encouraging natural selection.

 62. The risk of being color deficient is greater for men than for women. This best illustrates an important A) conditioned response. B) psychodynamic perspective. C) empirical approach. D) gender difference.

 63. Psychological differences between the genders are A) of little interest to contemporary psychologists. B) simply reflections of biological differences between the sexes. C) no longer evident in contemporary Western societies. D) far outweighed by gender similarities.

 64. Depression and suicide are more common in today’s North American culture than they were in the very different North American culture of nearly a century ago. But in both the past and the more recent cultural settings, pessimistic thinking and feelings of loneliness corresponded to a heightened risk of depression and suicide. This best illustrates that ________ often underlie cultural differences in behavior. A) genetic differences B) unconscious motives C) early childhood memories D) common psychological processes

 65. Discovering and promoting human strengths and virtues that help individuals and communities to thrive is the major focus of A) the psychodynamic perspective. B) positive psychology. C) evolutionary psychology. D) behavior genetics.

 66. Different accounts of the same behavior that together give us a more complete understanding represent different A) cognitive functions. B) unconscious motives. C) levels of analysis. D) natural selections.

 67. The biopsychosocial approach provides an understanding of social-cultural influences integrated within the larger framework of A) the psychodynamic perspective. B) introspection. C) humanistic psychology. D) multiple levels of analysis.

 68. Janna has low self-esteem because she is often teased for being overweight. Appreciating the complexity of Janna’s difficulties requires A) introspection. B) psychoanalysis. C) positive psychology. D) a biopsychosocial approach.

 69. The biopsychosocial approach incorporates different levels of analysis, which A) have little value for applied research. B) typically contradict common sense. C) are generally impossible to test scientifically. D) complement one another.

 70. The neuroscience perspective in psychology would be most likely to emphasize that behavior is influenced by A) environmental circumstances. B) blood chemistry. C) unconscious conflicts. D) subjective interpretations.

 71. Which perspective would help us to understand the impact of strokes and brain diseases on memory? A) evolutionary B) behavioral C) psychodynamic D) neuroscience

 72. Professor Lopez believes that severe depression results primarily from an imbalanced diet and abnormal brain chemistry. Professor Lopez favors a ________ perspective on depression. A) neuroscience B) psychodynamic C) behavior genetics D) cognitive

 73. Which perspective highlights the reproductive advantages of inherited psychological traits? A) evolutionary B) cognitive C) behavioral D) social-cultural

 74. Which perspective would suggest that the facial expressions associated with the emotions of lust and rage are inherited? A) cognitive B) behavioral C) evolutionary D) social-cultural

 75. Professor Crisman believes that most women prefer tall and physically strong partners because this preference promoted the survival of our ancestors’ genes. This viewpoint best illustrates the ________ perspective. A) social-cultural B) cognitive C) evolutionary D) psychodynamic

 76. Which perspective studies the relative contributions of our genes and our environment on our individual differences? A) cognitive B) behavior genetics C) social-cultural D) psychodynamic

 77. Professor Brody attempts to measure the relative contributions of inborn traits and social influences on sexual preferences and behavior patterns. Her research efforts best illustrate the interests of the ________ perspective. A) behavior genetics B) psychodynamic C) behavioral D) cognitive

 78. The distinctive feature of the psychodynamic perspective is its emphasis on A) natural selection. B) brain chemistry. C) unconscious conflicts. D) learned behaviors.

 79. Mrs. Alfieri believes that her husband’s angry outbursts against her result from his unconscious hatred of his own mother. Mrs. Alfieri is looking at her husband’s behavior from a(n) ________ perspective. A) evolutionary B) behavioral C) psychodynamic D) behavior genetics

 80. Which perspective most clearly focuses on how we learn observable responses? A) evolutionary B) neuroscience C) behavioral D) behavior genetics

 81. Akira believes that her son has become a good student because he is frequently praised for his learning efforts. Her belief best illustrates a ________ perspective. A) behavior genetics B) neuroscience C) psychodynamic D) behavioral

 82. The cognitive perspective in psychology focuses on how A) feelings are influenced by blood chemistry. B) people try to understand their own unconscious motives. C) behavior is influenced by environmental conditions. D) people encode, process, store, and retrieve information.

 83. Which perspective is most concerned with how individuals interpret their experiences? A) behavioral B) cognitive C) neuroscience D) behavior genetics

 84. Which psychological perspective is most likely to be concerned with identifying the powers and the limits of human reasoning? A) cognitive B) behavioral C) neuroscience D) behavior genetics

 85. Which perspective in psychology is most likely to focus on how behavior and thinking vary across situations and cultures? A) evolutionary B) neuroscience C) cognitive D) social-cultural

 86. Which perspective would focus on the extent to which different parenting styles are encouraged among various ethnic groups? A) evolutionary B) psychodynamic C) social-cultural D) neuroscience

 87. Dr. Wilson attributes the delinquent behaviors of many teens to the pressures associated with being a member of a street gang. Her account best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective. A) behavior genetics B) social-cultural C) neuroscience D) evolutionary

 88. Studies conducted for the sake of building psychology’s base of knowledge are most clearly examples of A) behavior genetics. B) introspection. C) basic research. D) positive psychology.

 89. Dr. Robinson conducts research on the relationship between brain chemistry and intellectual functioning. Which psychological specialty does Dr. Robinson’s research best represent? A) social psychology B) clinical psychology C) biological psychology D) industrial-organizational psychology

 90. Dr. Santaniello conducts research on how children’s moral thinking changes as they grow older. It is most likely that Dr. Santaniello is a(n) ________ psychologist. A) social B) clinical C) developmental D) industrial-organizational

 91. Dr. Caleigh conducts research on the relationship between adults’ language skills and their capacity to solve mathematical problems. Dr. Caleigh is most likely a _________ psychologist. A) cognitive B) biological C) clinical D) social

 92. Dr. Roberts studies how best to assess individual differences in traits such as impulsiveness and sociability. Which specialty area does her research best represent? A) social psychology B) biological psychology C) industrial-organizational psychology D) personality psychology

 93. Dr. Mills conducts research on why individuals conform to the behaviors and opinions of others. Which specialty area does his research best represent? A) cognitive psychology B) social psychology C) developmental psychology D) clinical psychology

 94. Which psychologists are MOST likely to be involved in applied research? A) industrial-organizational psychologists B) developmental psychologists C) personality psychologists D) biological psychologists

 95. Dr. Lipka focuses on ways to improve employee job satisfaction and productivity. Dr. Lipka is most likely a(n) ________ psychologist. A) clinical B) developmental C) personality D) industrial-organizational

 96. Dr. Vazquez helps people make career choices by assisting them in identifying their strengths and interests. Dr. Vazquez is most likely a A) biological psychologist. B) counseling psychologist. C) cognitive psychologist. D) social psychologist.

 97. Clinical psychologists specialize in A) constructing surveys. B) animal research. C) providing therapy to troubled people. D) providing drugs to treat behavioral disorders.

 98. For no apparent reason, Adam has recently begun to feel so tense and anxious that he frequently stays home from work. It would be best for Adam to contact a ________ psychologist. A) developmental B) clinical C) personality D) biological

 99. The specialist most likely to have a medical degree is a A) clinical psychologist. B) personality psychologist. C) developmental psychologist. D) psychiatrist.

 100. Rather than seeking to change people to fit their environments, ________ work to create social and physical environments that are healthy for all. A) counseling psychologists B) cognitive psychologists C) community psychologists D) clinical psychologists

 101. In contrast to explicit, conscious reasoning, an effortless and immediate automatic judgment is best described as a(n) A) hindsight bias. B) chance-based explanation. C) intuition. D) naturalistic observation.

 102. Mark meets briefly with applicants for positions in his company and relies on his immediate gut-level first impressions in deciding whether to offer them a job. Mark’s employment decisions are most clearly guided by A) an operational definition. B) the testing effect. C) hindsight bias. D) intuition.

 103. The hindsight bias refers to people’s tendency to A) dismiss the value of skepticism. B) reject any ideas that can’t be scientifically tested. C) exaggerate their ability to have foreseen an outcome. D) overestimate the extent to which others share their opinions.

 104. The perception that psychological research findings merely verify our commonsense understanding is most clearly facilitated by A) random assignment. B) hindsight bias. C) operational definitions. D) the placebo effect.

 105. Giving half the members of a group some purported psychological finding and the other half an opposite finding is an easy way to demonstrate the impact of A) the placebo effect. B) confounding variables. C) hindsight bias. D) the double-blind procedure.

 106. Professor Smith told one class that drinking alcohol has been found to increase sexual desire. He informed another class that drinking alcohol has been found to reduce sexual appetite. The fact that neither class was surprised by the information they received best illustrates the power of A) replication. B) hindsight bias. C) the double-blind procedure. D) the placebo effect.

 107. Several weeks after a political election, voters often exaggerate their ability to have predicted the election outcome. This best illustrates A) the placebo effect. B) random assignment. C) wording effects. D) hindsight bias.

 108. Mike Crampton’s stockbroker has informed him that he has suffered substantial investment losses. When Mike tells his wife, she angrily responds, “I could have told you that your investment plan would fail!” Her comment best illustrates A) hindsight bias. B) debriefing. C) the placebo effect. D) replication.

 109. A sense of humility regarding the accuracy of our intuitions is most likely to be undermined by A) hindsight bias. B) correlational evidence. C) random assignment. D) operational definitions.

 110. Formulating testable predictions before conducting research is most directly useful for restraining a thinking error known as A) random sampling. B) hindsight bias. C) the placebo effect. D) random assignment.

 111. Our tendency to believe we know more than we do best illustrates A) naturalistic observation. B) the placebo effect. C) overconfidence. D) random assignment.

 112. Megan was certain that she would never live far away from her family. However, when offered a job in another state, she decided to move. Megan’s experience best illustrates A) hindsight bias. B) random assignment. C) the placebo effect. D) overconfidence.

 113. The tendency to perceive order in random events often leads to overestimating the value of A) intuition. B) operational definitions. C) informed consent. D) the double-blind procedure.

 114. On a series of coin tosses, Oleg has correctly predicted heads or tails seven times in a row. In this instance, we can reasonably conclude that Oleg’s predictive accuracy A) defies the laws of statistical probability. B) illustrates hindsight bias. C) is inconsistent with the placebo effect. D) is a random and coincidental occurrence.

 115. Six of the children in Mr. Myers’ class were born on exactly the same day. This strikes him as astonishing and improbable. In this instance, he should be reminded that A) random sequences of events often don’t look random. B) events often seem more probable in hindsight. C) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations. D) correlation does not prove causation.

 116. A theory is an explanation using an integrated set of principles that ______ observations and ______ behaviors or events. A) questions; surveys B) replicates; controls C) organizes; predicts D) randomly samples; randomly assigns

 117. Professor Shalet contends that parents and children have similar levels of intelligence largely because they share common genes. His idea is best described as a(n) A) theory. B) replication. C) naturalistic observation. D) operational definition.

 118. The explanatory power of a scientific theory is most closely linked to its capacity to generate testable A) assumptions. B) correlations. C) predictions. D) variables.

 119. A hypothesis is a(n) A) observable relationship between specific independent and dependent variables. B) testable prediction that gives direction to research. C) set of principles that organizes observations and explains newly discovered facts. D) unprovable assumption about the unobservable processes that underlie psychological functioning.

 120. Testing hypotheses and refining theories in light of those tests is central to A) debriefing. B) the testing effect. C) the scientific method. D) informed consent.

 121. Professor Delano suggests that because people are especially attracted to those who are good-looking, handsome men will be more successful in getting a job. The professor’s prediction regarding employment success is an example of A) informed consent. B) the placebo effect. C) a hypothesis. D) a confounding variable.

 122. A statement describing the exact procedures for measuring an anticipated experimental outcome is known as a(n) A) hypothesis. B) control condition. C) replication. D) operational definition.

 123. In a published report of a research study on social anxiety, psychologists included a 30-item questionnaire, which they had used to assess levels of social anxiety. The psychologists have thus provided their readers with a(n) A) hypothesis. B) independent variable. C) operational definition. D) double-blind procedure.

 124. Replication of a research study is most likely to be facilitated by A) massed practice. B) debriefing. C) operational definitions. D) the placebo effect.

 125. Repeating the essence of a previous research study to verify whether its findings extend to a new group of research participants and to different circumstances is called A) replication. B) random sampling. C) naturalistic observation. D) the double-blind procedure.

 126. Professor Ambra was skeptical about the accuracy of recently reported research on sleep deprivation. Which process would best enable her to assess the reliability of the findings? A) naturalistic observation B) replication C) random sampling D) the case study

 127. The case study is a research method in which A) a single individual or group is studied in great depth. B) a representative sample of people are questioned regarding their opinions or behaviors. C) organisms are carefully observed in a laboratory environment. D) an investigator manipulates one or more variables that might affect behavior.

 128. To understand the unusual behavior of an adult client, a clinical psychologist carefully investigates the client’s current life situation and his physical, social-cultural, and educational history. Which research method has the psychologist used? A) the survey B) the case study C) experimentation D) naturalistic observation

 129. Little Hans’ extreme fear of horses was observed as part of a(n) A) experiment. B) survey. C) case study. D) double-blind procedure.

 130. The biggest danger of relying on case-study evidence is that it A) is based on naturalistic observation. B) may be unrepresentative of what is generally true. C) overestimates the importance of operational definitions. D) leads us to underestimate the causal relationships between events.

 131. A descriptive technique of monitoring and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to change or control the situation is called A) random sampling. B) naturalistic observation. C) replication. D) the double-blind procedure.

 132. Psychologists who carefully watch the behavior of chimpanzee societies in the jungle are using a research method known as A) the survey. B) experimentation. C) naturalistic observation. D) the case study.

 133. Professor Ober carefully observes and records the behaviors of children in their classrooms in order to track the development of their social and intellectual skills. Professor Ober is most clearly engaged in A) survey research. B) naturalistic observation. C) experimentation. D) replication.

 134. New technologies such as smart-phone apps and body-worn sensors have enabled the collection of “big data” by means of A) the testing effect. B) case studies. C) experimentation. D) naturalistic observation.

 135. One research team studied the ups and downs of human moods by counting positive and negative words in 504 million Twitter messages from 84 countries. The researchers’ method best illustrates the use of A) experimentation. B) naturalistic observation. C) case studies. D) a survey.

 136. Which of the following facilitates more exact descriptions of ongoing behaviors without explaining them? A) random assignment B) informed consent C) naturalistic observation D) the double-blind procedure

 137. University of Texas students were fitted with electronically activated recorders so that researchers could sample their daily activities. The researchers employed a scientific method known as A) naturalistic observation. B) the double-blind procedure. C) experimentation. D) the case study.

 138. To compare the pace of life in different countries, investigators measured the speed with which postal clerks completed a simple request. Which research method did this illustrate? A) the case study B) naturalistic observation C) the double-blind procedure D) the survey

 139. A descriptive technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a representative sample of a population is known as A) naturalistic observation. B) debriefing. C) a case study. D) a survey.

 140. Which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between the religious beliefs of Americans and their attitudes toward abortion? A) the survey B) naturalistic observation C) the case study D) experimentation

 141. Surveys indicate that people are less likely to support “welfare” than “aid to the needy.” These somewhat paradoxical survey results best illustrate the importance of A) random sampling. B) wording effects. C) the placebo effect. D) naturalistic observation.

 142. People often fail to make accurate generalizations because they are unduly influenced by ________ cases. A) randomly selected B) vivid C) representative D) operationally defined

 143. After noting that a majority of professional basketball players are African-American, Ervin concluded that African-Americans are better athletes than members of other racial groups. Ervin’s conclusion best illustrates the danger of A) replication. B) random assignment. C) the placebo effect. D) generalizing from vivid cases.

 144. A representative sample is one that accurately reflects a larger A) control group. B) correlation coefficient. C) dependent variable. D) population.

 145. When every individual in a large population has a small but equal chance of being included in a survey, researchers are using a procedure known as A) the case study. B) the double-blind procedure. C) random sampling. D) naturalistic observation.

 146. Which of the following is most useful for helping survey researchers avoid false generalizations? A) the case study B) naturalistic observation C) random sampling D) operational definitions

 147. Governor Donovan was greeted by large, enthusiastic crowds at all of his political rallies. As a result, he became overconfident about his chances of reelection. In this instance, the governor needs to be alerted to the value of A) replication. B) random sampling. C) experimental control. D) naturalistic observation.

 148. To learn about the TV viewing habits of all the children attending Oakbridge School, Professor DeVries randomly selected and interviewed 50 of the school’s students. In this instance, all the children attending the school are considered to be a(n) A) population. B) representative sample. C) independent variable. D) control condition.

 149. To assess reactions to a proposed tuition hike at her school, Ariana sent a questionnaire to every fifteenth person in the registrar’s alphabetical listing of all currently enrolled students. Ariana is ensuring that her survey results are accurate by using A) random assignment. B) naturalistic observation. C) replication. D) random sampling.

 150. Suppose you want to find out which candidate college students will vote for in an upcoming national election. To be sure the sample of college students you survey is representative of the college student population, you should A) survey only a small sample of college students. B) survey only politically informed college students. C) survey every college student on your own campus. D) survey a large representative sample of the college student population.

 151. In a survey, psychologists select a random sample of research participants in order to ensure that A) the participants are representative of the population they are interested in studying. B) there will be a large number of participants in the research study. C) the study will not be influenced by the researcher’s personal values. D) the same number of participants will be assigned to each of the experimental conditions.

 152. Correlation is a measure of the extent to which two factors A) vary together. B) are random samples. C) influence each other. D) are dependent variables.

 153. Correlational research is most useful for purposes of A) explanation. B) prediction. C) control. D) replication.

 154. To discover the extent to which economic status can be used to predict political preferences, researchers are most likely to use A) the case study approach. B) naturalistic observation. C) correlational measures. D) experimental research.

 155. Which of the following is a statistical measure of both the direction and the strength of a relationship between two variables? A) a correlation coefficient B) a random sample C) a double-blind procedure D) an independent variable

 156. To determine whether the strength of people’s self-esteem is related to their income level, researchers would most likely make use of A) case studies. B) correlational research. C) experimentation. D) naturalistic observation.

 157. A researcher would be most likely to discover a positive correlation between A) intelligence and academic success. B) poverty and physical health. C) self-esteem and depression. D) school grades and school absences.

 158. If psychologists discovered that wealthy people are less satisfied with their marriages than poor people are, this would indicate that wealth and marital satisfaction are A) causally related. B) negatively correlated. C) independent variables. D) positively correlated.

 159. If the correlation between children’s body weight and their reading ability is –1.00, this would indicate that A) there is very little statistical relationship between children’s body weight and reading ability. B) low body weight has a negative effect on children’s reading ability. C) among children, better reading ability is associated with lower body weight. D) body weight has no causal influence on the reading ability of children.

 160. Which research method assesses how well one variable predicts another without demonstrating a cause-effect relationship between the variables? A) naturalistic observation B) correlational research C) the case study D) the experimental method

 161. Suppose that people who watch a lot of violence on TV are also particularly likely to behave aggressively. This relationship would NOT necessarily indicate that watching violence influences aggressive behavior because A) we most readily notice associations that confirm our beliefs. B) association does not prove causation. C) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations. D) the sample may have been randomly selected.

 162. An extensive survey revealed that children with relatively high self-esteem tend to picture God as kind and loving, whereas those with lower self-esteem tend to perceive God as angry. The researchers concluded that the children’s self-esteem had apparently influenced their views of God. This conclusion best illustrates the danger of A) failing to use operational definitions. B) generalizing from extreme examples. C) being influenced by a confounding variable. D) assuming that association proves causation.

 163. If psychologists discovered that more intelligent parents have smarter children than less intelligent parents, this would demonstrate that A) intelligence is inherited. B) more intelligent parents provide their children with greater educational opportunities than do less intelligent parents. C) the intelligence of parents and children is positively correlated. D) all of these statements are correct.

 164. A negative correlation between degree of wealth and likelihood of suffering from a psychological disorder would indicate that A) poverty makes people vulnerable to psychological disorders. B) people who are poor are more likely to have a psychological disorder than are wealthy people. C) psychological disorders usually prevent people from accumulating wealth. D) all of these statements are correct.

 165. Which of the following methods is most helpful for clarifying cause-effect relationships? A) the survey B) the experiment C) correlational research D) naturalistic observation

 166. Researchers use experiments rather than other research methods in order to isolate A) facts from theories. B) causes from effects. C) case studies from surveys. D) random samples from representative samples.

 167. An experiment enables researchers to isolate the effects of one or more factors by manipulating the factors of interest and also by A) obtaining participants’ informed consent prior to beginning the experiment. B) summarizing participants’ responses with a correlation coefficient. C) holding other factors constant across experimental and control groups. D) fully debriefing participants after completing the experiment.

 168. Which research method provides the best way of assessing whether cigarette smoking boosts mental alertness? A) the case study B) the survey C) naturalistic observation D) the experiment

 169. In which type of research would an investigator manipulate at least one factor and observe its effect on some behavior or mental process? A) the survey B) the case study C) experimentation D) naturalistic observation

 170. In a test of the effects of sleep deprivation on problem-solving skills, research participants are allowed to sleep either 4 or 8 hours on each of three consecutive nights. This research is an example of A) naturalistic observation. B) survey research. C) a case study. D) an experiment.

 171. Participants who are exposed to the treatment being tested in an experiment are said to be assigned to the A) random sample. B) experimental group. C) standardized treatment. D) control group.

 172. The group exposed to a newly created drug that is being tested in an experiment is called the ________ group. A) control B) standardized C) baseline D) experimental

 173. Which of the following is true for those assigned to a control group? A) The experimenter exerts the greatest influence on participants’ behavior. B) The research participants are exposed to all the different experimental treatments. C) The research participants are exposed to the most favorable levels of experimental treatment. D) The experimental treatment is absent.

 174. To study the potential effects of social interaction on problem solving, some research participants were instructed to solve problems by working together; other participants were told to solve problems by working alone. Those who worked alone were assigned to the ________ group. A) experimental B) survey C) control D) correlational

 175. Research participants drank either caffeinated or decaffeinated beverages in a study of the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. Those who received the caffeinated drinks were assigned to the ________ group. A) survey B) experimental C) correlational D) control

 176. To assess the effectiveness of flu vaccine for county residents, Mr. Carlson wants to administer vaccine injections to all county residents rather than give half of them a placebo injection. Mr. Carlson is most clearly underestimating the importance of A) testing a large sample. B) operationally defining his procedures. C) replicating observations of other researchers. D) creating a control group.

 177. Being randomly assigned to the experimental group in a research project involves being assigned A) to that group by chance. B) to the group in which participants are representative of people in general. C) in a way that ensures that the independent variable will affect the dependent variable. D) to the group in which participants all have similar personalities.

 178. To accurately isolate cause and effect, experimenters should use A) random assignment. B) naturalistic observation. C) case studies. D) correlation coefficients.

 179. To assess the impact of test difficulty on persistence of effort, researchers plan to give one group of children relatively easy tests and another group more difficult tests. To reduce the chance that the children in one group are more intelligent than those in the other group, the researchers should make use of A) random assignment. B) the double-blind procedure. C) naturalistic observation. D) operational definitions.

 180. Research participants are randomly assigned to different groups in an experiment in order to A) minimize chances that participants in any group know each other. B) increase chances that participants are representative of people in general. C) minimize any differences between groups of participants. D) increase chances that the different groups have the same number of participants.

 181. One research team randomly assigned hospitalized premature infants either to formula feedings or to breast-milk feedings. Which research method did they use? A) case study B) experimentation C) naturalistic observation D) correlational research

 182. The most reliable way of testing whether a newly introduced method of psychological therapy is truly effective is to use A) survey research. B) naturalistic observation. C) correlational research. D) experimental research.

 183. Participants in an experiment are said to be blind if they are uninformed about A) what experimental hypothesis is being tested. B) whether the experimental findings will be meaningful. C) how the dependent variable is measured. D) which experimental treatment, if any, they are receiving.

 184. Both the researchers and the participants in a memory study are ignorant about which participants have actually received a potentially memory-enhancing drug and which have received a placebo. This investigation involves the use of A) naturalistic observation. B) random sampling. C) the double-blind procedure. D) replication.

 185. To minimize the extent to which outcome differences between experimental and control groups can be attributed to placebo effects, researchers make use of A) random sampling. B) the double-blind procedure. C) random assignment. D) operational definitions.

 186. An inert substance that may be administered instead of a drug to see if it produces any of the same effects as the drug is called a A) placebo. B) coefficient. C) case study. D) replication.

 187. In a study of the effects of drinking alcohol, some participants drank a nonalcoholic beverage that actually smelled and tasted like alcohol. This nonalcoholic drink was a A) dependent variable. B) replication. C) placebo. D) double blind.

 188. The relief of pain following the taking of an inactive substance that is perceived to have medicinal benefits illustrates A) random assignment. B) hindsight bias. C) debriefing. D) the placebo effect.

 189. The placebo effect best illustrates the impact of ________ on feelings and behaviors. A) the double-blind procedure B) random sampling C) positive expectations D) hindsight bias

 190. Random assignment minimizes ________ between experimental and control groups. Random sampling minimizes ________ between a sample and a population. A) similarities; differences B) differences; similarities C) similarities; similarities D) differences; differences

 191. In an experimental study, men with erectile disorder received either Viagra or a placebo. In this study, the drug dosage (none versus peak dose) was the A) confounding variable. B) dependent variable. C) random sample. D) independent variable.

 192. In a psychological experiment, the experimental factor that is manipulated by the investigator is called the ________ variable. A) dependent B) independent C) control D) experimental

 193. In an experimental study of the impact of exposure to criticism on self-esteem, exposure to criticism would be the ________ variable. A) replicated B) dependent C) confounding D) independent

 194. A factor other than the independent variable that might produce an effect in an experiment is called a A) wording effect. B) correlation coefficient. C) placebo effect. D) confounding variable.

 195. If participants in the experimental group of a drug treatment study are much younger than participants in the control group, the age of the research participants is a A) dependent variable. B) correlation coefficient. C) confounding variable. D) replication.

 196. In a psychological experiment, the factor that may be influenced by the manipulated experimental treatment is called the ________ variable. A) dependent B) experimental C) control D) independent

 197. To assess the influence of self-esteem on interpersonal attraction, researchers either insulted or complimented students about their physical appearance just before they went on a blind date. In this research, the dependent variable was A) insults or compliments. B) physical appearance. C) interpersonal attraction. D) feelings of self-esteem.

 198. An experiment was designed to study the potential impact of alcohol consumption on emotional stability. A specification of the procedures used to measure emotional stability illustrates A) the independent variable. B) an operational definition. C) the double-blind procedure. D) random assignment.

 199. Assessing how well one variable predicts another variable is to _________ as detecting cause-effect relationships between different variables is to _________. A) naturalistic observation; case studies B) descriptive methods; correlational methods C) a control group; an experimental group D) correlational research; experimental research

 200. The simplified reality of laboratory experiments is most helpful in enabling psychologists to A) predict human behavior in almost all situations. B) perceive order in completely random events. C) develop general principles that help explain behavior. D) observe random samples of human conduct.

 201. Psychologists study animals because A) animal behavior is just as complex as human behavior. B) experiments on people are generally considered to be unethical. C) the ethical treatment of animals is not mandated by professional guidelines. D) similar processes often underlie animal and human behavior.

 202. The first major issue that emerges in debates over experimenting on animals centers on the A) usefulness of studying biological processes in animals. B) ethics of placing the well-being of humans above that of animals. C) obligation to treat information about individual animals with confidentiality. D) need to obtain the informed consent of animals used in research.

 203. A major issue that has emerged from debates over the use of animals in psychological research centers on A) whether operational definitions help to distinguish between animal and human functioning. B) when use of the double-blind procedure is most appropriate in animal studies. C) whether experimental methods can reduce the need for descriptive methods in research involving animals. D) what safeguards should protect the well-being of animals used in research.

 204. In an effort to prevent participants in an experiment from trying to confirm the researchers’ predictions, psychologists sometimes A) obtain written promises from participants to respond honestly. B) treat information about individual participants confidentially. C) deceive participants about the true purpose of an experiment. D) allow people to decide for themselves whether they want to participate in an experiment.

 205. Potential research participants are told enough about an upcoming study to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate. This illustrates the practice of seeking A) a representative sample. B) informed consent. C) an operational definition. D) a placebo effect.

 206. The ethics codes of the American Psychological Association and the British Psychological Society urge researchers to A) avoid the use of monetary incentives in recruiting people to participate in research. B) forewarn potential research participants of the exact hypotheses that the research will test. C) avoid the manipulation of independent variables in research involving human participants. D) explain the research to the participants after the study has been completed.

 207. After an experiment, research participants are told its purpose and about any deception they may have experienced. This is called A) debriefing. B) replication. C) informed consent. D) the double-blind procedure.

 208. Psychologists’ personal values and goals A) are carefully tested by means of observation and experimentation. B) lead them to avoid experiments involving human participants. C) can bias their observations and interpretations. D) have very little influence on the process of scientific observation.

 209. The study of psychology is potentially dangerous because A) psychological knowledge can be used for destructive purposes. B) psychologists generally believe that people are not personally responsible for their actions. C) psychological research usually necessitates performing stressful experiments on people. D) psychological research typically violates personal privacy rights.

 210. The testing effect refers to the ________ that accompanies repeated retrieval of learned information. A) hindsight bias B) naturalistic observation C) enhanced memory D) increasing boredom

 211. Students learn and remember course materials best when they A) give informed consent. B) engage in massed practice. C) process information actively. D) avoid operational definitions.

 212. SQ3R is a study method incorporating five steps: survey, question, read, ________, and review. A) revise B) reason C) retrieve D) research

 213. The SQ3R study method emphasizes the importance of A) massed practice. B) replication. C) retrieving information. D) random sampling.

 214. Discerning the unstated assumptions and values that underlie conclusions best illustrates ________, which is an important learning tool. A) critical thinking B) the testing effect C) spaced practice D) SQ3R

 1. A neuron is best described as a(n) A) ion. B) cell. C) sheath. D) molecule.

 2. Which of the following is most clearly characterized by a temporary inflow of positively charged sodium ions through an axon membrane? A) reuptake B) an action potential C) a refractory period D) the resting potential

 3. Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin will thereby increase the concentration of serotonin molecules in the A) axon terminals. B) synaptic gaps. C) glial cells. D) endocrine glands.

 4. Natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control are called A) ACh agonists. B) dendrites. C) morphine antagonists. D) endorphins.

 5. Botox injections smooth facial wrinkles because botulin is a(n) A) ACh antagonist. B) dopamine antagonist. C) ACh agonist. D) dopamine agonist.

 6. The vast majority of neurons in the body’s information system are A) glial cells. B) interneurons. C) motor neurons. D) sensory neurons.

 7. As needed, the sympathetic nervous system ________ blood sugar levels and ________ the pupils of the eyes. A) lowers; dilates B) raises; contracts C) lowers; contracts D) raises; dilates

 8. While listening to operatic solos, musicians process the lyrics and the tunes in separate brain areas. This most clearly illustrates the functioning of different A) neurotransmitters. B) parathyroids. C) neural networks. D) reflex systems.

 9. The endocrine system consists of A) myelin sheaths. B) neural networks. C) interneurons. D) glands.

 10. Which hormone enables contractions associated with birthing and milk flow during nursing? A) insulin B) cortisol C) oxytocin D) epinephrine

 11. Which of the following would be particularly useful for detecting the brain areas that are most active as a person performs mathematical calculations? A) a brain lesion B) enlarged ventricles C) a PET scan D) an MRI scan

 12. The brain’s oldest region is the A) hippocampus. B) amygdala. C) brainstem. D) hypothalamus.

 13. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex? A) thalamus B) amygdala C) medulla D) cerebellum

 14. After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth and coordinated manner. She has probably suffered damage to her A) amygdala. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebellum. D) hippocampus.

 15. The limbic system structure that regulates hunger is called the A) thalamus. B) amygdala. C) hippocampus. D) hypothalamus.

 16. The limbic system’s hippocampus A) coordinates body movement and balance. B) regulates hunger and thirst. C) plays a central role in fear and rage. D) helps process explicit memories for storage.

 17. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in making plans and formulating moral judgments? A) occipital lobes B) frontal lobes C) temporal lobes D) parietal lobes

 18. The brain devotes more tissue within the ________ for body areas requiring the most precise movement control such as the fingers. A) hippocampus B) corpus callosum C) occipital lobes D) motor cortex

 19. The regions of the parietal lobes that are involved in mathematical and spatial reasoning are known as A) the hippocampus. B) the corpus callosum. C) the somatosensory cortex. D) association areas.

 20. If you lose a foot, the somatosensory cortex that received its input will begin to pick up signals from the formerly adjoined leg. This best illustrates the value of A) neurogenesis. B) lateralization. C) plasticity. D) hemispherectomy.

 21. The right hemisphere of Julie’s brain is better than her left hemisphere at recognizing facial expressions of emotion. This best illustrates A) neurogenesis. B) plasticity. C) lateralization. D) brain fissures.

 22. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are A) less similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and less similar in risk of being emotionally unstable. B) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable. C) equally similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable. D) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and equally similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.

 23. Adoptive parents are LEAST likely to influence the ________ of their adopted children. A) personality traits B) religious beliefs C) political attitudes D) moral values

 24. In emphasizing that heredity’s effects on behavior depend on a person’s home environment, psychologists are most clearly highlighting the importance of A) a double helix. B) natural selection. C) dizygotic development. D) nature–nurture interactions.

 25. The study of molecular mechanisms by which environments can trigger or block gene expression is called A) behavior genetics. B) evolutionary psychology. C) epigenetics. D) genomics.

 26. The prevalence of genetically predisposed traits that have a reproductive advantage is best explained in terms of A) epigenetic marks. B) natural selection. C) the human genome. D) behavior genetics.

 27. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of A) gene splicing. B) selective mating. C) food deprivation. D) hormone injections.

 28. Which of the following is a major source of genetic diversity? A) mutations B) epigenetic marks C) adaptive flexibility D) free-floating stress hormones

 29. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to A) fear dangerous animals. B) love their own children. C) seek healthy-looking mates. D) do all of these things.

 1. An axon transmits messages ________ the cell body and a dendrite transmits messages ________ the cell body. A) away from; toward B) away from; away from C) toward; away from D) toward; toward

 2. To excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the A) axon. B) synaptic gap. C) myelin sheath. D) endocrine glands.

 3. The release of ________ to muscle cell receptors triggers muscle contractions. A) ACh B) serotonin C) dopamine D) adrenaline

 4. Depressed mood states are linked to ________ levels of serotonin and ________ levels of norepinephrine. A) low; low B) high; high C) low; high D) high; low

 5. A drug molecule that increases the release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic gap is a(n) A) glutamate. B) steroid. C) agonist. D) opiate.

 6. The peripheral nervous system consists of A) interneurons. B) the spinal cord. C) endocrine glands. D) sensory and motor neurons.

 7. The autonomic nervous system most directly controls A) speech production. B) thinking and memory. C) movement of the arms and legs. D) bladder contractions.

 8. Although Ron has no genital sensations, he is capable of an erection if his genitals are stimulated. Ron’s experience is most indicative of a(n) A) morphine antagonist. B) severed spinal cord. C) synaptic gap. D) all-or-none response.

 9. The release of epinephrine and norepinephrine ________ blood pressure and ________ blood sugar levels. A) raises; raises B) lowers; lowers C) raises; lowers D) lowers; raises

 10. To monitor the electrical activity in the brain that is triggered by hearing one’s own name, researchers would make use of a(n) A) MRI. B) PET scan. C) EEG. D) brain lesion.

 11. Your life would be most immediately threatened if you suffered destruction of the A) amygdala. B) hippocampus. C) cerebellum. D) medulla.

 12. Stimulation of the reticular formation will cause a A) sleeping cat to awaken. B) hungry cat to stop eating. C) violent cat to become passive. D) thirsty cat to drink.

 13. Which neural center in the limbic system plays an important role in emotions such as fear and rage? A) amygdala B) thalamus C) nucleus accumbens D) hypothalamus

 14. Research has suggested that a reward deficiency syndrome may contribute to A) insomnia. B) substance use disorders. C) schizophrenia. D) Parkinson’s disease.

 15. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in controlling the facial muscle movements necessary for speaking? A) occipital B) frontal C) temporal D) parietal

 16. The visual cortex is located in the A) occipital lobes. B) parietal lobes. C) temporal lobes. D) association areas.

 17. Following massive damage to his frontal lobes, Phineas Gage was most strikingly debilitated by A) muscle spasms. B) memory loss. C) auditory hallucinations. D) irritability.

 18. Brain scans indicate that well-practiced pianists have a larger-than-usual auditory cortex area that encodes piano sounds. This best illustrates the impact of A) neurogenesis. B) lateralization. C) brain fissures. D) plasticity.

 19. Research with split-brain patients suggests that the ________ typically constructs the theories people offer to explain their own behaviors. A) corpus callosum B) left cerebral hemisphere C) somatosensory cortex D) right cerebral hemisphere

 20. Chromosomes are composed of A) epigenetic molecules. B) genomes. C) neurotransmitters. D) deoxyribonucleic acid.

 21. Two individuals are most likely to differ in personality if they are A) fraternal twins who were raised together. B) identical twins who were raised apart. C) fraternal twins who were raised apart. D) identical twins who were raised together.

 22. Adopted children are especially likely to have similar ________ if raised in the same home. A) mutations B) genomes C) personality traits D) attitudes

 23. Researchers studying mice have found that in utero exposure to certain chemicals can cause genetically identical twins to have different colored fur. This is best explained by the fact that genetically linked traits can be modified by A) serotonin molecules. B) epigenetic marks. C) natural selection. D) behavior genetics.

 24. Evolutionary psychology most clearly suggests that human behavioral and biological similarities arise from our shared A) neurotransmitter levels. B) genome. C) epigenetic molecules. D) evocative interactions.

 25. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute the human tendency to fear spiders and snakes to A) epigenetic marks. B) domestication. C) free-floating stress hormones. D) genetic predispositions.
 1. Some neuroscientists believe that synchronized activity across different regions of the brain is a sign of A) the cocktail party effect. B) conscious awareness. C) change blindness. D) selective inattention.

 2. A teenager focused on texting while crossing the street is not likely to notice a car rounding the corner and about to cross her path. This best illustrates the impact of A) blindsight. B) selective attention. C) dual processing. D) the popout phenomenon.

 3. In one experiment, many of the research participants who were keeping track of basketball tosses between players failed to notice a gorilla-suited research assistant thumping his chest as he moved among the players. This best illustrated A) blindsight. B) the popout phenomenon. C) inattentional blindness. D) the cocktail party effect.

 4. A skilled tennis player’s brain and body respond automatically to an oncoming serve before becoming consciously aware of the ball’s trajectory. This best illustrates our capacity for A) the popout phenomenon. B) inattentional blindness. C) the cocktail party effect. D) dual processing.

 5. The simultaneous processing of information on many parallel tracks is most closely associated with A) sequential processing. B) the cocktail party effect. C) the popout phenomenon. D) unconscious mental activity.

 6. Staying up especially late on weekends is most likely to have an influence on A) narcolepsy. B) sleep apnea. C) the circadian rhythm. D) night terrors.

 7. A recurring sleep stage during which most vivid dreams commonly occur is known as ________ sleep. A) NREM-1 B) NREM-2 C) NREM-3 D) REM

 8. Alpha waves are associated with A) NREM-2 sleep. B) NREM-3 sleep. C) REM sleep. D) a relaxed but awake state.

 9. Bright light inhibits our feelings of sleepiness by influencing the production of A) melatonin. B) dopamine. C) cortisol. D) leptin.

 10. Sleep deprivation increases levels of the hunger-arousing hormone A) melatonin. B) ghrelin. C) leptin. D) serotonin.

 11. Which of the following sleep disorders is most strongly associated with obesity? A) narcolepsy B) insomnia C) night terrors D) sleep apnea

 12. Sleepwalking is most likely to be associated with ________ sleep. A) NREM-1 B) NREM-2 C) NREM-3 D) REM

 13. The distinction between manifest content and latent content is central to ________ theory of dreams. A) the neural activation B) the information-processing C) Freud’s wish-fulfillment D) the cognitive development

 14. As drug users experience neuroadaptation, they demonstrate signs of A) REM sleep. B) a near-death experience. C) tolerance. D) hallucinations.

 15. Felix can’t remember the conversation he had with his girlfriend yesterday when he was intoxicated with alcohol. His memory failure is most likely a result of the way alcohol A) increases self-consciousness. B) reduces sensitivity to pain. C) suppresses REM sleep. D) increases sympathetic nervous system activity.

 16. Nicotine triggers a(n) ________ in anxiety and a(n) ________ in mental alertness. A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase

 17. The experience of vivid geometric images and dreamlike scenes is most likely to be triggered by A) LSD. B) heroin. C) Nembutal. D) amphetamines.

 18. To prevent or reduce marijuana use, young people should be educated about A) the tendency for teens to underestimate marijuana usage among their peers. B) the increased self-consciousness caused by marijuana use. C) the need for increasingly larger doses of marijuana to produce the desired high. D) the long-term costs of regular marijuana use.

 1. The ability to focus our attention in order to learn a complex concept best illustrates the value of A) the popout phenomenon. B) dual processing. C) blindsight. D) consciousness.

 2. While conversing with a hotel desk clerk, Aaron momentarily turned around to pick up his suitcase. When he turned back and resumed his conversation, he failed to notice that he was now speaking with a different desk agent. His failure best illustrates A) change blindness. B) parallel processing. C) the popout phenomenon. D) blindsight.

 3. The ability to consciously recognize and name the color of an object while we simultaneously and unconsciously monitor the object’s shape and movement illustrates A) the popout phenomenon. B) change blindness. C) dual processing. D) blindsight.

 4. Normally sighted people whose visual cortex is disabled with magnetic stimulation can nevertheless sense the emotion expressed in faces. This best illustrates our capacity for A) change blindness. B) unconscious information processing. C) inattentional blindness. D) sequential information processing.

 5. Parallel processing involves the processing of many aspects of a problem A) in a sequential order. B) in a balanced manner. C) at the same time. D) at a conscious level.

 6. People who claim to have been abducted by space aliens—often shortly after going to bed—commonly recall being floated off their beds. It is most likely that they have incorporated ________ into their memories. A) sleep spindles B) narcolepsy C) hypnagogic sensations D) sleep apnea

 7. The large, slow brain waves associated with NREM-3 sleep are called A) sleep spindles. B) delta waves. C) alpha waves. D) REMs.

 8. Which of the following is a stress hormone that stimulates the body to make fat? A) leptin B) cortisol C) melatonin D) serotonin

 9. Chronic sleep deprivation is most likely to contribute to A) weight loss. B) increased creativity. C) suppression of the immune system. D) decreased blood pressure.

 10. Those who complain of insomnia typically ________ how long it actually takes them to fall asleep and ________ how long they actually slept. A) underestimate; overestimate B) overestimate; underestimate C) underestimate; underestimate D) overestimate; overestimate

 11. Which sleep disorder is most likely to be accompanied by sleepwalking and sleeptalking? A) narcolepsy B) night terrors C) sleep apnea D) insomnia

 12. The neural activation theory provides a physiological explanation for A) dreaming. B) sleep apnea. C) narcolepsy. D) the circadian rhythm.

 13. The discomfort and distress following discontinued use of a psychoactive drug best illustrates A) disinhibition. B) withdrawal. C) dehydration. D) a near-death experience.

 14. Young women can become addicted to alcohol ________ quickly than young men because they have ________ of a stomach enzyme that digests alcohol. A) more; more B) less; less C) more; less D) less; more

 15. Which of the following psychoactive drugs produces the quickest and most powerful rush of euphoria? A) alcohol B) marijuana C) cocaine D) barbiturates

 16. Hallucinations similar to those that accompany the near-death experience can be produced by A) oxygen deprivation. B) disinhibition. C) endorphins. D) the dopamine reward system.

 17. Dr. Brooks seeks to account for the substance abuse of her therapy clients in terms of their abusive home environments, their limited sense of life purpose, and the altered functioning of their neurotransmitter systems. Dr. Brooks is most clearly using a(n) ________ approach to understanding addictive behaviors. A) behavioral B) biopsychosocial C) psychoanalytic D) neural activation
 1. Dr. Matsuko’s major research interest is the long-term effects of child-raising practices on the psychological adjustment of offspring. It is most likely that Dr. Matsuko is a(n) ________ psychologist. A) cognitive B) developmental C) biological D) psychodynamic

 2. Questions about the extent to which maladaptive habits learned in childhood can be overcome in adulthood are most directly relevant to the issue of A) continuity and stages. B) stability and change. C) behavior and mental processes. D) nature and nurture.

 3. Nutrients and oxygen are transferred from a mother to her developing fetus through the A) embryo. B) ovaries. C) teratogens. D) placenta.

 4. If research suggested that a pregnant mother’s use of an artificial sweetener caused harm to the fetus, the artificial sweetener would be considered a(n) A) habituation. B) stress hormone. C) digestive enzyme. D) teratogen.

 5. When touched on the cheek, infants reflexively A) retract their arms. B) open their mouths. C) close their eyes. D) cry.

 6. The sequence in which babies master the skills of rolling over, sitting, crawling, and walking is the same around the world. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in motor development. A) temperament B) maturation C) imprinting D) object permanence

 7. The importance of schemas was most clearly highlighted by A) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory. B) Piaget’s cognitive development theory. C) Harlow’s attachment theory. D) Vygotsky’s social cognitive theory.

 8. Two closed, pyramid-shaped beakers containing clearly identical amounts of a liquid are judged by a child to hold different amounts after one of the beakers is inverted. The child apparently lacks a A) sense of object permanence. B) concept of conservation. C) capacity for habituation. D) secure attachment.

 9. A child’s realization that others may have beliefs that the child knows to be false best illustrates the development of A) object permanence. B) egocentrism. C) a theory of mind. D) stranger anxiety.

 10. The process of imprinting occurs during a brief developmental phase known as A) the preoperational stage. B) object permanence. C) accommodation. D) a critical period.

 11. Although 3-year-old Adam happily explores the attractive toys located in the dentist’s waiting room, he periodically returns to his mother’s side for brief moments. Adam most clearly displays signs of A) secure attachment. B) object permanence. C) egocentrism. D) conservation.

 12. “I don’t care whether you want to wash the dishes, you will do so because I said so!” This statement is most representative of a(n) ________ parenting style. A) preconventional B) authoritative C) formal operational D) authoritarian

 13. During adolescence, maturation of the ________ lags behind maturation of the ________. A) brainstem; pituitary B) pituitary; brainstem C) limbic system; frontal lobes D) frontal lobes; limbic system

 14. Adolescents’ sense of what’s fair is most likely to change from simple equality to what’s proportional to merit when they achieve A) formal operations. B) menarche. C) preconventional morality. D) an identity.

 15. Mark believes that choosing to violate government laws is morally justifiable if it is done to protect the lives of innocent people. Kohlberg would suggest that this illustrates ________ morality. A) conventional B) unconventional C) preconventional D) postconventional

 16. Jessica acts so differently with her parents than with her girlfriends that she often thinks her personality is completely phony. Erik Erikson would have suggested that Jessica is experiencing A) delay of gratification. B) stagnation. C) role confusion. D) generativity.

 17. Adolescents are most likely to be influenced by their parents with respect to ________, and they are most likely to be influenced by their peers with respect to ________. A) online communication habits; college choices B) dating practices; religious faith C) bedtime preferences; political views D) career choices; clothing preferences

 18. A public initiation into adult responsibilities and status is called a A) pruning process. B) critical period. C) rite of passage. D) delay of gratification.

 19. Physical exercise in late adulthood has been found to A) enhance muscle strength. B) help prevent heart disease. C) stimulate brain cell development. D) do all of these things.

 20. The preferred age for retirement is quite different in Mexico than in Western Europe. This best illustrates that ________ differs from culture to culture. A) the maturational cycle B) an empty nest C) terminal decline D) the social clock

 21. Since the advent of the Internet, there has been a(n) ________ in the percentage of American couples who report meeting online. The percentage meeting online is currently ________ among same-sex couples than among heterosexual couples. A) increase; smaller B) decrease; smaller C) increase; larger D) decrease; larger

 22. There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her A) risk of life-threatening ailments such as cancer. B) ability to recall meaningless information. C) level of life satisfaction. D) susceptibility to accidental physical injury.

 23. Abner, a 70-year-old retired teacher, feels that his life has not been of any real value or significance. According to Erikson, Abner has failed to achieve a sense of A) basic trust. B) intimacy. C) autonomy. D) integrity.

 1. Men are LESS likely than women to A) stare at people who make them angry. B) be diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. C) interrupt others who are talking. D) ask for other people’s opinions in a group discussion.

 2. How many human chromosomes are common to both males and females? A) 22 B) 23 C) 45 D) 46

 3. Puberty is most closely related to the onset of A) gender identity. B) menarche. C) androgyny. D) gender typing.

 4. Over the past decades, women have been increasingly expected to take responsibility for political leadership. This best illustrates a change in A) sexual orientation. B) gender identity. C) secondary sex characteristics. D) gender roles.

 5. The effect of rewards and punishments on gender typing is most clearly emphasized by A) evolutionary psychology. B) cognitive neuroscience. C) Freudian psychology. D) social learning theory.

 6. The acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role is called A) sexual orientation. B) androgyny. C) gender typing. D) a secondary sex characteristic.

 7. The concepts of masculinity and femininity that we use to organize our world are called gender A) types. B) schemas. C) roles. D) complexes.

 8. The removal of a woman’s ovaries may contribute to decreasing sexual interest because her natural ________ level is ________. A) testosterone; lowered B) testosterone; raised C) prolactin; lowered D) prolactin; raised

 9. During which phase of the sexual response cycle does the refractory period begin? A) the plateau phase B) the resolution phase C) the excitement phase D) orgasm

 10. ________ involves sexual arousal from fantasies, behaviors, or urges involving nonhuman objects, the suffering of self or others, and/or nonconsenting persons. A) Paraphilia B) Sexual dysfunction C) Erectile disorder D) HPV

 11. ________ is an enduring sexual attraction toward members of one’s own sex, the other sex, or both sexes. A) Sexual orientation B) Paraphilia C) Sexual dysfunction D) Homosexuality

 12. Women, more than men, prefer to alternate periods of frequent sexual activity with periods of very little sexual activity. This best illustrates a gender difference in A) sexual orientation. B) erotic plasticity. C) refractory periods. D) the sexual response cycle.

 13. The fraternal birth-order effect refers to a factor associated with A) pedophilia. B) sexual dysfunction. C) erectile disorder. D) sexual orientation.

 14. According to evolutionary psychology, men’s tendency to pair widely and women’s tendency to pair wisely are best explained by the fact that these different strategies have contributed to men’s and women’s A) erotic plasticity. B) reproductive success. C) social scripts. D) paraphilias.

 15. Social learning theory is most likely to highlight the importance of ________ in accounting for the ways in which we sexually interact with others. A) refractory periods B) the older-brother effect C) prolactin D) social scripts

 16. Men and women can achieve orgasm alone. Yet most people experience a greater surge in ________, the hormone associated with sexual satiety, after intercourse and orgasm with their loved one. A) estrogen B) prolactin C) serotonin D) epinephrine

 1. Normal vision accompanied by prosopagnosia best illustrates the distinction between A) absolute thresholds and difference thresholds. B) subliminal sensation and subliminal persuasion. C) sensory adaptation and perceptual set. D) sensation and perception.

 2. The local fire department sounds the 12 o’clock whistle. The process by which your ears transform the sound waves from the siren into neural impulses is an example of A) a threshold. B) signal detection. C) transduction. D) sensory adaptation.

 3. A subliminal message is one that is presented A) below one’s absolute threshold for awareness. B) in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive. C) with very soft background music. D) repetitiously.

 4. Weber’s law is relevant to an understanding of A) absolute thresholds. B) difference thresholds. C) sensory adaptation. D) subliminal persuasion.

 5. If you move your watchband up your wrist an inch or so, you will feel it for only a few moments. This best illustrates A) a perceptual set. B) priming. C) sensory adaptation. D) Weber’s law.

 6. Compared with the entire range of visible light waves, those that are highest in frequency are most likely to be experienced as A) blue. B) yellow. C) red. D) green

 7. Receptor cells in the human eye that are the most sensitive to fine detail are called A) feature detectors. B) supercell clusters. C) cones. D) rods.

 8. Multiple ________ send combined messages to a bipolar cell, whereas a single ________ may link directly to a single bipolar cell. A) rods; cone B) cones; rod C) feature detectors; supercell cluster D) supercell clusters; feature detector

 9. The opponent-process theory is most useful for explaining a characteristic of A) perceptual adaptation. B) retinal disparity. C) accommodation. D) afterimages.

 10. Some stroke victims lose the capacity to perceive motion but retain the capacity to perceive shapes and colors. Others lose the capacity to perceive colors but retain the capacity to perceive movement and form. These peculiar visual disabilities best illustrate our normal capacity for A) perceptual adaptation. B) parallel processing. C) feature detection. D) accommodation.

 11. The way in which you quickly group the individual letters in this test item into separate words best illustrates the principle of A) closure. B) proximity. C) interposition. D) perceptual constancy.

 12. The fact that we recognize objects as having a consistent form regardless of changing viewing angles illustrates A) interposition. B) closure. C) perceptual constancy. D) linear perspective.

 13. The Moon illusion refers to our tendency to perceive the Moon as unusually A) large when it is near the horizon. B) large when it is high in the sky. C) bright when it is near the horizon. D) bright when it is high in the sky.

 14. Immanuel Kant and John Locke would have been most likely to disagree about the extent to which perception is influenced by A) cultural experience. B) retinal disparity. C) accommodation. D) relative luminance.

 15. Damage to the basilar membrane is most likely to affect one’s A) olfaction. B) audition. C) sense of smell. D) vestibular sense.

 16. Dissociation has been used as an explanation for A) the McGurk effect. B) synesthesia. C) hypnotic pain relief. D) stereophonic hearing.

 17. Receptor cells for the vestibular sense send messages to the A) temporal lobes. B) cerebellum. C) olfactory cortex. D) frontal lobes.

 18. Holding a heavy rather than a light clipboard leads people to perceive job candidates as more important. This best illustrates A) the volley principle. B) psychokinesis. C) embodied cognition. D) the McGurk effect.

 19. Psychics are unable to make millions of dollars betting on horse races. This undermines their claims to possess the power of A) clairvoyance. B) synesthesia. C) precognition. D) telepathy.

 1. Through direct experience with animals, we come to anticipate that dogs will bark and that birds will chirp. This best illustrates: A) secondary conditioning. B) spontaneous recovery. C) operant behavior. D) associative learning.

 2. The first time that Liza heard the loud sound of her father’s bass drum, she responded with fear. The fear response is most clearly an example of: A) spontaneous recovery. B) operant behavior. C) associative learning. D) respondent behavior.

 3. John B. Watson believed that psychology should be the science of: A) observable behavior. B) cognitive processes. C) genetic predispositions. D) all of these factors.

 4. Blinking in response to a puff of air directed to your eye is a: A) UR. B) US. C) CR. D) CS.

 5. Pavlov noticed that dogs began salivating at the mere sight of the person who regularly brought food to them. For the dogs, the sight of this person was a(n): A) spontaneous recovery. B) unconditional stimulus. C) operant stimulus. D) conditioned stimulus.

 6. Long after her conditioned fear of dogs had been extinguished, Marcy experienced an unexpected surge of nervousness when first shown her cousin’s new cocker spaniel. Her unexpected nervousness best illustrates: A) discrimination. B) spontaneous recovery. C) observational learning. D) an unconditioned response.

 7. A year after surviving a classroom shooting incident, Kim-Li still responds with terror at the sight of toy guns and to the sound of balloons popping. This reaction best illustrates: A) an unconditioned response. B) operant conditioning. C) discrimination. D) generalization.

 8. Cats received a fish reward whenever they maneuvered themselves out of an enclosed puzzle box. With successive trials, the cats escaped from the box with increasing speed. This illustrates: A) negative reinforcement. B) the law of effect. C) respondent behavior. D) spontaneous recovery.

 9. In teaching her son to play basketball, Mrs. Richards initially reinforces him with praise for simply dribbling while standing still, then only for walking while dribbling, and finally only for running while dribbling. She is using a procedure known as: A) generalization. B) partial reinforcement. C) spontaneous recovery. D) shaping.

 10. If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light. In this case, the light is a ________ reinforcer. A) partial B) primary C) conditioned D) delayed

 11. Working hard every day of the year for the gratification of a bonus paycheck at the end of the year best illustrates the impact of ________ on behavior. A) shaping B) primary reinforcers C) variable-interval schedules D) delayed reinforcers

 12. Airline frequent flyer programs that reward customers with a free flight after every 75,000 miles of travel illustrate the use of a ________ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-interval B) variable-interval C) fixed-ratio D) variable-ratio

 13. During a typical morning, Colin checks the clock frequently before being reinforced with confirmation that the time for his regularly scheduled lunch break has arrived. In this case, Colin’s behavior is reinforced on a ________ schedule. A) fixed-interval B) variable-interval C) fixed-ratio D) variable-ratio

 14. Punishment ________ the rate of operant responding, and negative reinforcement ________ the rate of operant responding. A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) has no effect on; has no effect on

 15. Rats most easily learn to associate nausea-producing radiation treatments with: A) loud sounds. B) bright lights. C) novel tastes. D) high-pitched sounds.

 16. An organism’s ability to mentally anticipate that a US will follow a CS is most likely to be highlighted by a(n) ________ perspective. A) evolutionary B) behaviorist C) cognitive D) neuroscience

 17. If one chimpanzee watches a second chimp solve a puzzle for a food reward, the first chimp may thereby learn how to solve the puzzle. This best illustrates: A) operant conditioning. B) observational learning. C) classical conditioning. D) instinctive drift.

 18. An empathic husband who sees his wife in pain will exhibit some of the same brain activity she is showing. According to many researchers, this best illustrates the functioning of: A) cognitive maps. B) latent learning. C) mirror neurons. D) extrinsic motivation.

 19. Most of the TV shows that 9-year-old Fred watches involve violence. This is most likely to lead Fred to: A) react with a sense of distress at the sight of two children fighting on the school playground. B) perceive the injuries of victims of violence as less severe. C) be more inhibited about personally starting a fight on the school playground. D) overestimate the pain and injury experienced by victims of violent crime.

 1. Prior to the twentieth century, psychology was considered to be the study of A) observable behavior. B) evolutionary change. C) states of consciousness. D) parallel processing.

 2. Behaviorism encouraged psychologists to ignore the study of A) the visual action track. B) consciousness. C) socialization. D) cortical activation patterns.

 3. The reemergence of psychology’s concern with consciousness after 1960 is best illustrated by efforts to A) define psychology as a behavioral science. B) demonstrate that humans lack free will. C) liken consciousness to a car’s speedometer. D) identify the brain activity associated with different mental states.

 4. Our awareness of ourselves and our environment is called A) parallel processing. B) a visual action track. C) consciousness. D) dual processing.

 5. The ability to focus attention on his arm and shoulder movements during his golf swings enabled Jason to learn more effective skills for both chip shots and putting. This best illustrates the value of A) the cocktail party effect. B) blindsight. C) the popout phenomenon. D) consciousness.

 6. The interdisciplinary study of brain activity linked with our mental processes is known as A) behaviorism. B) behavior genetics. C) cognitive neuroscience. D) neurology.

 7. Professor Rodriguez studies how the activation of specific regions of the brain affects dream content. Her work best illustrates the subfield of A) personality psychology. B) clinical psychology. C) cognitive neuroscience. D) evolutionary psychology.

 8. When asked to imagine playing tennis, a noncommunicative patient exhibited ________ that was similar to that exhibited by a healthy person. A) popout B) blindsight C) brain activity D) change blindness

 9. You suddenly become conscious that your own nose is in your line of vision when this is pointed out to you. This best illustrates the impact of A) the popout phenomenon. B) change blindness. C) blindsight. D) selective attention.

 10. Felix was so preoccupied with his girlfriend’s good looks that he failed to perceive any of her less admirable characteristics. This best illustrates an unfortunate consequence of A) sequential processing. B) selective attention. C) blindsight. D) change blindness.

 11. The ability to pay attention to only one voice at a time is called A) dual processing. B) change blindness. C) the popout phenomenon. D) the cocktail party effect.

 12. Selective attention is best illustrated by A) blindsight. B) parallel processing. C) a visual action track. D) the cocktail party effect.

 13. Because she was listening to the news on the radio, Mrs. Schultz didn’t perceive a word her husband was saying. Her experience best illustrates A) change blindness. B) blindsight. C) dual processing. D) the cocktail party effect.

 14. fMRI scans of brain areas vital to driving indicate that activity ________ when a driver is attending to conversation. A study that focused video cams on teen drivers found that a ________ of crashes followed driver distraction from other passengers or phones. A) increases; majority B) decreases; minority C) increases; minority D) decreases; majority

 15. Long-haul truck drivers are at a much-greater-than-normal risk of a collision if texting while driving. This best illustrates the impact of A) the popout phenomenon. B) blindsight. C) selective attention. D) the cocktail party effect.

 16. Inattentional blindness refers to A) the loss of self-awareness when one is mentally absorbed in a challenging task. B) a condition in which a person can respond to a visual stimulus without consciously experiencing it. C) failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere. D) the simultaneous processing of information on separate conscious and unconscious tracks.

 17. Standing in the checkout line at the grocery store, Jerry was concentrating on answering a text. As a result, he failed to see that a store employee was being robbed by a person just in front of him. Jerry most clearly experienced A) the cocktail party effect. B) inattentional blindness. C) blindsight. D) the popout phenomenon.

 18. Inattentional blindness is best described as a by-product of A) blindsight. B) sequential processing. C) selective attention. D) a visual action track.

 19. Failing to notice changes in our immediate surroundings is called A) the cocktail party effect. B) the popout phenomenon. C) dual processing. D) change blindness.

 20. When Jason briefly turned to summon the waiter, his wife quickly switched her glass of red wine with his glass of white wine. Jason’s failure to notice that his chosen wine had been replaced best illustrates A) the popout phenomenon. B) parallel processing. C) change blindness. D) sequential processing.

 21. The only smiling face in a crowd of anxious-looking people may be so strikingly distinct that people cannot help but notice it. This best illustrates A) dual processing. B) blindsight. C) the cocktail party effect. D) the popout phenomenon.

 22. One of the six criminal suspects in a police lineup immediately captured observers’ attention because he was the only suspect with black skin color. This best illustrates A) the cocktail party effect. B) dual processing. C) the popout phenomenon. D) blindsight.

 23. A large amount of our mental activity occurs outside our awareness thanks to our capacity for A) sequential processing. B) change blindness. C) synchronized activity across the brain. D) dual processing.

 24. The two-track mind operates on two levels. A conscious “high road” is said to be ________. An unconscious “low road” is said to be ________. A) automatic and intuitive; deliberate and reflective B) deliberate and reflective; automatic and intuitive C) automatic and reflective; deliberate and intuitive D) deliberate and intuitive; automatic and reflective

 25. Mark’s decision to hire a particular job applicant was simultaneously influenced by unconscious feelings about the applicant’s physical appearance and by a conscious consideration of the applicant’s reported work history. This best illustrates the impact of A) blindsight. B) dual processing. C) change blindness. D) the popout phenomenon.

 26. A person is able to accurately point to the current location of certain moving objects that she is unable to consciously see. This best illustrates A) inattentional blindness. B) the popout phenomenon. C) selective attention. D) blindsight.

 27. Damage to the brain’s visual perception track without any damage to the brain’s visual action track is associated with a condition known as A) selective attention. B) blindsight. C) parallel processing. D) change blindness.

 28. The experience of blindsight in certain people who have suffered brain damage best illustrates the importance of our normal human capacity for A) change blindness. B) dual processing. C) inattentional blindness. D) selective attention.

 29. Parallel processing refers to A) responding to a visual stimulus without consciously experiencing it. B) processing information in an orderly sequence. C) linking brain activity with conscious awareness. D) processing many aspects of a problem simultaneously.

 30. Parallel processing tends to be both ________ and ________ conscious than sequential processing. A) slower; less B) faster; more C) slower; more D) faster; less

 31. Simultaneously assessing the taste, texture, and temperature of food in your mouth best illustrates A) blindsight. B) the popout phenomenon. C) parallel processing. D) the cocktail party effect.

 32. Unconscious information processing is more likely than conscious processing to A) occur slowly. B) be limited in capacity. C) contribute to effective problem solving. D) process many aspects of a problem simultaneously.

 33. Consciousness is most important for the correct performance of behaviors that A) depend on information processing. B) require physical coordination skills. C) have been learned through repeated practice. D) are novel and challenging.

 34. Sleep is best defined as A) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle. B) a periodic natural loss of consciousness that involves distinct stages. C) a state of hibernation or general anesthesia. D) episodes of fast and jerky eye movements accompanied by frequent muscle spasms.

 35. Research on sleep and dreaming fails to confirm that A) the use of sleeping pills reduces REM sleep. B) increased genital arousal accompanies dreaming regardless of whether the dream’s content is sexual. C) when dreaming of performing an activity, our limbs move in concert with the dream. D) NREM-3 sleep periods become shorter as we progress through a full night of sleep.

 36. The pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle is called the A) REM rebound. B) circadian rhythm. C) alpha wave pattern. D) hypnagogic sensation.

 37. The impact of circadian rhythms is best illustrated by A) the differing musical preferences of younger and older persons. B) fluctuations in energy level and alertness across the span of a day. C) the different study habits of men and women. D) the different personalities of people born during different months of the year.

 38. Human body temperatures typically A) rise with the approach of morning and fall with the approach of night. B) rise with the approach of night and fall with the approach of morning. C) rise with the approach of NREM-1 sleep and fall with the approach of REM sleep. D) rise with the approach of REM sleep and fall with the approach of NREM-1 sleep.

 39. Thinking is sharpest and memory is most accurate when people are at their daily peak in A) melatonin secretion. B) circadian arousal. C) REM rebound. D) hypnagogic sensations.

 40. Cindi prefers to take exams in the late afternoon rather than during the morning because her energy level and ability to concentrate are better at that time. Her experience most likely reflects the influence of the A) REM rebound. B) menstrual cycle. C) circadian rhythm. D) hypnagogic state.

 41. Women become increasingly morning-oriented “larks” as they have children and also as they transition to menopause. This best illustrates that age and experience can alter our A) hypnagogic sensations. B) circadian rhythm. C) NREM-2 sleep. D) REM rebound.

 42. When people are experiencing vivid dreams A) their body often moves in accordance with what they dream. B) their eyes are likely to move under their closed eyelids. C) they are more likely to emit sleep spindles than during any other stage of sleep. D) their slow brain-wave patterns indicate that they are deeply asleep.

 43. During NREM-1 sleep, people may experience fantastic images that resemble A) delta waves. B) hallucinations. C) latent content. D) sleep spindles.

 44. NREM-1 sleep is likely to be associated with A) genital arousal. B) delta waves. C) night terrors. D) hypnagogic sensations.

 45. At the very onset of sleep, Melanie experienced pressure on her body followed by a feeling that she was falling. Her experience best illustrates A) narcolepsy. B) REM rebound. C) night terrors. D) hypnagogic sensations.

 46. Sleep spindles are characteristic of ________ sleep. A) NREM-1 B) NREM-2 C) NREM-3 D) REM

 47. The large, slow brain waves associated with NREM-3 sleep are called A) alpha waves. B) beta waves. C) sleep spindles. D) delta waves.

 48. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with slow-wave sleep? A) bed-wetting B) sleep spindles C) hallucinations D) genital arousal

 49. Compared with alpha and beta waves, delta waves are A) slower and smaller. B) faster and larger. C) slower and larger. D) faster and smaller.

 50. NREM-2 sleep is to ________ as NREM-3 sleep is to ________. A) alpha waves; sleep spindles B) sleep spindles; delta waves C) delta waves; alpha waves D) alpha waves; rapid eye movements

 51. After Carlos had been asleep for about an hour and a half, his heart began to beat faster, his breathing became fast and irregular, and his closed eyes began to dart back and forth. Carlos was most likely experiencing A) NREM-3 sleep. B) sleep apnea. C) narcolepsy. D) REM sleep.

 52. Which of the following typically occur(s) during REM sleep? A) night terrors B) genital arousal C) bed-wetting D) muscular tension

 53. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of REM sleep? A) Heart and breathing rates increase. B) The eyes move rapidly under closed lids. C) Brain waves become more rapid. D) Voluntary muscles tense and become more active.

 54. Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as ________ sleep is to ________ sleep. A) NREM-1; REM B) REM; NREM-2 C) NREM-2; REM D) REM; NREM-3

 55. In a typical full night of sleep, young adults spend the greatest amount of time (about 50 percent) in A) NREM-1 sleep. B) NREM-2 sleep. C) NREM-3 sleep. D) REM sleep.

 56. Felix is a young adult who has been asleep for three hours. As he continues to sleep, we can expect that A) NREM-2 sleep will diminish and that NREM-1 sleep will increase in duration. B) NREM-3 sleep will diminish and that NREM-1 sleep will increase in duration. C) NREM-3 sleep will diminish and that REM sleep will increase in duration. D) REM sleep will diminish and that NREM-3 sleep will increase in duration.

 57. Margie insists that she never dreams, but her roommate feels she can prove otherwise. To prove that Margie does dream, the roommate should A) feed Margie lots of rich food just before bedtime. B) make an all-night audio recording of the sounds Margie makes while sleeping. C) wake Margie after she has been asleep for about 5 minutes and ask her what she’s dreaming. D) wake Margie after 5 minutes of REM sleep and ask her what she’s dreaming.

 58. Research on sleep patterns indicates that A) older adults and newborns have very similar sleep patterns. B) different sleep patterns reflect differences in latent dream content. C) everyone needs a minimum of 8 hours of sleep per night to function well. D) sleep patterns are genetically influenced.

 59. Thanks to modern lighting and social media diversions, many adults who would have gone to bed at 9:00 P.M. a century ago are now up until 11:00 P.M. or later. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on sleep patterns. A) cognitive development B) culture C) high waking metabolism D) latent content

 60. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a pair of cell clusters in the ________ that controls circadian rhythm. A) pineal gland B) brainstem C) motor cortex D) hypothalamus

 61. Which of the following is a sleep-inducing hormone? A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) norepinephrine D) melatonin

 62. Humans continuously exposed to bright light are most likely to experience a disruption of their A) narcolepsy. B) sleep apnea. C) alpha waves. D) circadian rhythm.

 63. When light strikes the retina, it signals the suprachiasmatic nucleus to suppress the production of ________ by the pineal gland. A) melatonin B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) dopamine

 64. After four years of working nights, Raymond now works days. His present difficulty in getting to sleep at night is most likely due to a disruption of his normal A) circadian rhythm. B) hypnagogic sensations. C) alpha wave pattern. D) sleep apnea.

 65. Animals with the ________ need to graze and the ________ ability to hide from danger tend to sleep less. A) most; most B) least; least C) most; least D) least; most

 66. Studies of mice show that sleep aids in the removal of ________ from brain tissues. A) leptin B) serotonin C) melatonin D) metabolic waste products

 67. Kevin needs to remember what he learned in today’s classes. His memory of the material is most likely to be facilitated by A) a full night of sleep. B) hypnagogic sensations. C) EEG recordings. D) sleep apnea.

 68. After completing a full night of sleep, people are most likely to A) experience REM rebound. B) think more creatively. C) show signs of sleep apnea. D) demonstrate apathy and loss of energy.

 69. Deep sleep is associated with the release of ________ that is (are) necessary for muscle development. A) free radicals B) leptin C) retinal proteins D) a human growth hormone

 70. Pushing back school start times has been found to ________ adolescent mood states and ________ adolescent alertness. A) impair; improve B) improve; impair C) impair; impair D) improve; improve

 71. When allowed to sleep 9 hours a night on a regular basis, college students are most likely to A) experience REM rebound. B) study more effectively. C) show signs of sleep apnea. D) demonstrate apathy and loss of energy.

 72. Chronic sleep debt is most likely to promote A) sleep apnea. B) weight gain. C) insomnia. D) night terrors.

 73. Sleep deprivation ________ levels of the hormone ghrelin and ________ levels of the hormone leptin. A) increases; increases B) decreases; decreases C) increases; decreases D) decreases; increases

 74. Sleep deprivation increases levels of the stress hormone A) cortisol. B) melatonin. C) leptin. D) serotonin.

 75. Terry has not had a decent night’s sleep in over a week. If this sleep deprivation continues, he will become increasingly susceptible to A) viral infections. B) sleep apnea. C) insomnia. D) night terrors.

 76. One study found that driving accident rates were higher among Virginia 16- to 18-year-olds whose A) metabolic rates were higher than average. B) father or mother suffered from sleep apnea. C) cortisol levels were lower than average. D) high school classes started early in the day.

 77. An increase in accident rates following the change to daylight saving time best illustrates the dangers of A) narcolepsy. B) sleep apnea. C) REM rebound. D) sleep deprivation.

 78. Insomnia is a disorder involving A) the excessive use of sleeping pills or other drugs that induce sleep. B) recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep. C) the cessation of breathing during sleep. D) uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness.

 79. Eighty-year-old Mrs. West feels she has trouble falling asleep at night. She typically gets about 6 or 7 hours of sleep every 24 hours. What should she do about this? A) take a sleeping pill every night B) sleep with the bedroom lights on C) drink an alcoholic beverage before bedtime D) relax and remind herself that her sleep patterns are normal

 80. To cure his insomnia, Mr. Ming takes a sleeping pill just before bedtime. Research suggests that this practice A) may actually aggravate Mr. Ming’s sleeping difficulties. B) may help Mr. Ming permanently overcome his insomnia. C) has probably increased Mr. Ming’s REM sleep. D) may make Mr. Ming more vulnerable to sleep apnea.

 81. The disorder involving uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness is known as A) narcolepsy. B) insomnia. C) sleep apnea. D) paradoxical sleep.

 82. Which of the following sleep disorders would be the most incapacitating for a commercial bus driver? A) night terrors B) insomnia C) sleepwalking D) narcolepsy

 83. Sleep apnea is a disorder involving A) temporary cessations of breathing during sleep. B) periodic uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness. C) hypnagogic sensations of falling or floating weightlessly. D) the excessive use of sleeping pills or other sleep-inducing drugs.

 84. Mr. Dayton often stops breathing while sleeping. He wakes up to snort air for a few seconds before falling back to sleep. Mrs. Dayton complains that her husband snores. Clearly, Mr. Dayton suffers from A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) night terrors.

 85. Regular use of a CPAP machine is most frequently prescribed for the treatment of A) insomnia. B) sleep apnea. C) narcolepsy. D) night terrors.

 86. About three hours after he falls asleep, Bobby often sits up in bed screaming incoherently. His mother tries to awaken him, but with no success. The next morning, he remembers nothing. It appears that Bobby suffers from A) night terrors. B) narcolepsy. C) sleep spindles. D) sleep apnea.

 87. Which sleep disorder is more likely to be experienced by children than by adults? A) narcolepsy B) sleep apnea C) night terrors D) insomnia

 88. Sleepwalking typically occurs during A) NREM-1 sleep. B) NREM-2 sleep. C) NREM-3 sleep. D) REM sleep.

 89. Sleeptalking may occur during A) NREM-1 sleep. B) NREM-2 sleep. C) REM sleep. D) any stage of sleep.

 90. Sleepwalking and sleeptalking are most likely to be experienced during A) childhood. B) adolescence. C) young adulthood. D) old age.

 91. Sequences of images notable for their hallucinatory quality are most likely to be associated with A) sleep apnea. B) REM sleep. C) sleepwalking. D) high waking metabolism.

 92. For both men and women, the ________ of dreams include an unpleasant event or emotion and the ________ of dreams involve sexual imagery. A) minority; minority B) majority; majority C) minority; majority D) majority; minority

 93. After suffering a trauma, people commonly report an increase in A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) threatening dreams. D) sleepwalking.

 94. When dreamers’ faces were lightly sprayed with cold water, they were more likely than other dreamers to experience A) sleep apnea. B) hypnagogic sensations. C) dreams about water. D) paradoxical sleep.

 95. According to Freud, people dream in order to A) give expression to personally threatening drives and wishes. B) prepare themselves for the challenges of the following day. C) strengthen their memories of the preceding day’s events. D) accomplish all of these goals.

 96. According to Freud, the manifest content of a dream refers to the A) hypnagogic sensations preceding a dream. B) rapid eye movements during a dream. C) remembered story line of a dream. D) underlying meaning of a dream.

 97. Shane, a straight-A student, remembers dreaming that he failed an important chemistry test. According to Freud, Shane’s account represents the ________ content of his dream. A) paradoxical B) latent C) hypnagogic D) manifest

 98. According to Freud, the personally threatening and censored meaning of a dream is its A) manifest content. B) paradoxical content. C) latent content. D) hallucinatory content.

 99. Josef, a high school student, tells his therapist that he has had a recurring dream in which he hunts and kills a ferocious tiger. The therapist explains that the dream reflects Josef’s unresolved feelings of hostility toward his father. According to Freud, the therapist is revealing the possible ________ content of Josef’s dream. A) manifest B) latent C) circadian D) hypnagogic

 100. Brain regions that are active as rats learn to navigate a maze show similar activity patterns again as the rats later experience A) REM sleep. B) hypnagogic sensations. C) slow-wave sleep. D) sleep spindles.

 101. Preserving and expanding the brain’s neural pathways has been suggested as an important function of A) free radicals. B) EEG recordings. C) sleep spindles. D) dreaming.

 102. The activation-synthesis theory best helps to explain why A) most dreams are realistic portrayals of pleasant life events. B) people often experience sudden visual images during REM sleep. C) dreams typically express unacceptable feelings in a symbolically disguised form. D) individuals with sleep apnea are unable to recall any of their dreams.

 103. When Alissa awakened during a period of REM sleep, she reported experiencing intense fear. A PET scan most likely would reveal that her REM sleep was associated with increased activity in her A) superchiasmatic nucleus. B) frontal lobes. C) pineal gland. D) amygdala.

 104. Evidence that dreams reflect the brain maturation and style of thinking associated with a dreamer’s age and life experience would best support the ________ theory of dream content. A) wish-fulfillment B) neural activation C) memory consolidation D) cognitive development

 105. Which theory most clearly emphasizes our mind’s top-down control of dream content without proposing an adaptive function of dreams? A) cognitive development theory B) memory consolidation theory C) neural activation theory D) Freud’s wish-fulfillment theory

 106. As a participant in a sleep-research study for the past three nights, Tim has been repeatedly disturbed during REM sleep. Tonight, when allowed to sleep undisturbed, Tim will likely experience A) an increase in REM sleep. B) sleep apnea. C) insomnia. D) night terrors.

 107. The occurrence of REM rebound supports the notion that A) as people grow older, they need to spend progressively more time dreaming. B) dreams are triggered by random bursts of neural activity. C) dreams help to solidify our memories of daytime experiences. D) humans, like most other mammals, need REM sleep.

 108. Alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, and a wide variety of other chemical agents that alter perceptions and moods are called A) stimulants. B) depressants. C) psychoactive drugs. D) hallucinogens.

 109. A substance use disorder is best characterized by continued use of a substance A) without realizing it may be addictive. B) in order to lose weight or boost one’s athletic performance. C) without demonstrating any behavioral symptoms of being intoxicated. D) despite significant life disruption and physical health risk.

 110. Repeated use of amphetamines has caused Aaron legal problems, which threaten his job. However, he continues to use the drugs. Aaron most clearly shows symptoms of A) withdrawal. B) substance use disorder. C) sensory deprivation. D) a near-death experience.

 111. One effect of frequent drug use is changes in brain circuits. This leads to A) increased REM sleep. B) decreased drug tolerance. C) increased behavioral inhibitions. D) strong cravings when situations trigger memories of drug use.

 112. The American Psychiatric Association now categorizes the severity of substance use disorder according to A) its effect on the person’s social life but not on his or her physical health. B) the form of the substance involved. C) the number of disruptive symptoms involved. D) whether the drug is legally available to an individual.

 113. A drug’s overall effect depends on A) its biological effects. B) the user’s expectations. C) the user’s culture. D) all of these factors.

 114. Drug tolerance refers to the A) absence of pain or anxiety following the use of a drug. B) loss of social inhibitions following drug use. C) discomfort and distress that follow the discontinued use of a drug. D) reduced effect of a drug resulting from its regular usage.

 115. Neuroadaptation refers to A) the pain relief that occurs following the use of narcotic drugs. B) continued drug craving and use despite its significant dangers. C) the change in brain chemistry that offsets the effect of a psychoactive drug. D) increased sympathetic nervous system activity following the use of stimulant drugs.

 116. As drug users experience neuroadaptation, they demonstrate signs of A) dehydration. B) a near-death experience. C) tolerance. D) hallucinations.

 117. Which process most clearly underlies the development of drug tolerance? A) disinhibition B) REM sleep C) neuroadaptation D) sensory deprivation

 118. Jana developed a habit of drinking several beers after work each day. Her diminishing feeling of intoxication from the drinks is indicative of A) memory disruption. B) tolerance. C) withdrawal. D) disinhibition.

 119. Mark’s compulsive use of cocaine continues even though he knows it has damaged his health and threatens his marriage, which he wants to preserve. Mark most clearly shows signs of A) REM sleep deprivation. B) increased self-awareness. C) hallucinations. D) addiction.

 120. When heavy coffee drinkers skip their usual caffeine, they experience the effects of ________ when a headache strikes. A) reuptake B) withdrawal C) disinhibition D) the dopamine reward system

 121. Research on addictions indicates that A) the majority of people who try cocaine do not become addicted to cocaine within 10 years of their first use. B) behaviors such as gambling cannot become addictive. C) only a small minority of America’s ex-smokers kicked the habit on their own. D) regular marijuana smokers typically experience an irresistible craving for LSD.

 122. People who use ________ are often able to discontinue their drug use without professional help. A) nicotine B) cocaine C) alcohol D) any of these drugs

 123. The three main categories of psychoactive drugs are depressants, stimulants, and A) amphetamines. B) tranquilizers. C) hallucinogens. D) endorphins.

 124. Drugs such as alcohol and opiates that calm neural activity and slow body functions are called A) hallucinogens. B) depressants. C) endorphins. D) amphetamines.

 125. Sympathetic nervous system activity is reduced by A) nicotine. B) alcohol. C) amphetamines. D) cocaine.

 126. Low doses of alcohol enliven a drinker by acting as a(n) A) stimulant. B) hallucinogen. C) disinhibitor. D) amphetamine.

 127. When moderately intoxicated by alcohol A) an angry person tends to be more aggressive than usual. B) a giving person tends to be more generous than usual. C) a sexually aroused person tends to be more sexually active than usual. D) all of these people tend to behave as stated.

 128. Ryan’s excessive beer consumption is marked by tolerance. Abruptly stopping his beer drinking results in symptoms of withdrawal and an overwhelming urge to drink again. Ryan most clearly suffers from A) excessive self-awareness. B) sensory deprivation. C) alcohol use disorder. D) excess dopamine.

 129. Alcohol consumption disrupts the formation of lasting memories by A) suppressing REM sleep. B) increasing anxiety. C) decreasing dehydration. D) increasing self-consciousness.

 130. After drinking three cans of beer, Akiva felt less guilty about the way he mistreated his wife and children. Akiva’s reduced guilt most likely resulted from the fact that his alcohol consumption has A) destroyed some of his brain cells. B) reduced his self-awareness. C) directed his attention to the future. D) increased his level of sympathetic nervous system arousal.

 131. Alcohol consumption is LEAST likely to make people more A) fearful. B) aggressive. C) self-conscious. D) sexually daring.

 132. Alcohol consumption ________ sympathetic nervous system activity and ________ self-awareness. A) decreases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; increases D) increases; decreases

 133. Participants in a sexual stimulation study who mistakenly thought they had consumed alcohol were more likely than those who thought they had not consumed alcohol to report having strong sexual fantasies and feeling guilt-free. This study best illustrated the impact of A) drug tolerance. B) drug addiction. C) user expectations. D) neuroadaptation.

 134. Depressant drugs include alcohol, A) marijuana, and LSD. B) barbiturates, and opiates. C) nicotine, and caffeine. D) cocaine, and amphetamines.

 135. Nembutal, Seconal, and Amytal, drugs prescribed to reduce insomnia, are A) barbiturates. B) amphetamines. C) opiates. D) mild hallucinogens.

 136. Sodium pentothal has sometimes been called a “truth serum” because it relaxes people and enables them to more freely disclose personally embarrassing experiences. It is most likely that sodium pentothal is a(n) A) barbiturate. B) amphetamine. C) hallucinogen. D) form of cocaine.

 137. Soon after taking a psychoactive drug, Larisa’s breathing slowed, her pupils constricted, and her feelings of anxiety were replaced by blissful pleasure. Larisa most likely experienced the effects of A) cocaine. B) heroin. C) LSD. D) nicotine.

 138. Stimulants are to caffeine as depressants are to A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) marijuana. D) LSD.

 139. Taking an overdose of ________ is likely to result in death. A) barbiturates B) morphine C) heroin D) any of these drugs

 140. Who might be tempted to use amphetamines to help him achieve his personal goal? A) Victor, who wants relief from depression B) Karl, who wants to lose a lot of weight C) Milan, who wants to win his boxing match D) All of these people might be tempted to use amphetamines.

 141. Which of the following drugs is classified as a stimulant? A) marijuana B) morphine C) alcohol D) nicotine

 142. Nicotine consumption triggers an increase in A) drowsiness. B) appetite. C) anxiety. D) blood pressure.

 143. Nicotine triggers a(n) ________ in blood pressure and a(n) ________ in pain sensitivity. A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; decrease D) decrease; increase

 144. When Vincente first tried to quit smoking, he experienced anxiety, irritability, and difficulty sleeping. Vincente was experiencing A) withdrawal. B) dehydration. C) disinhibition. D) hallucinations.

 145. Nicotine calms anxiety and diminishes sensitivity to pain by triggering the release of opioids and A) epinephrine. B) dopamine. C) MDMA. D) THC.

 146. Compared with nonsmokers, smokers experience A) lower rates of depression and higher rates of divorce. B) higher rates of depression and lower rates of divorce. C) lower rates of depression and lower rates of divorce. D) higher rates of depression and higher rates of divorce.

 147. A brief 15- to 30-minute rush of euphoria followed by a crash of agitated depression is most closely associated with the use of A) marijuana. B) cocaine. C) LSD. D) barbiturates.

 148. Following use of a psychoactive drug, Jasmine quickly experienced a rush of euphoria followed within the same hour by a crash of agitated depression as the drug’s effect wore off. Jasmine’s reactions most clearly suggest that she was using A) marijuana. B) cocaine. C) LSD. D) barbiturates.

 149. Caged rats respond to foot shocks with unusually high levels of aggression after ingesting A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) marijuana. D) barbiturates.

 150. Compared with ordinary cocaine, crack produces a ________ intense high followed by a ________ intense crash. A) more; less B) less; more C) more; more D) less; less

 151. Methamphetamine enhances energy and mood by triggering the release of the neurotransmitter A) epinephrine. B) dopamine. C) codeine. D) THC.

 152. Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce a euphoric high and feelings of social intimacy? A) Seconal B) opium C) Ecstasy D) marijuana

 153. The major effect of ________ is to release stored serotonin and block its reuptake. A) alcohol B) heroin C) Ecstasy D) Nembutal

 154. Loss of oxygen or extreme sensory deprivation produces perceptual distortions most similar to those produced by consuming A) morphine. B) LSD. C) barbiturates. D) methamphetamine.

 155. The altered state of consciousness that is most similar to an LSD-induced hallucination is A) REM sleep. B) the near-death experience. C) neuroadaptation. D) heroin addiction.

 156. Epilepsy seizures may trigger sensations strikingly similar to A) dehydration. B) disinhibition. C) the near-death experience. D) heroin withdrawal.

 157. LSD is most likely to produce A) dehydration. B) hallucinations. C) binge drinking. D) pain-killing neurotransmitters.

 158. An altered state of consciousness in which people experience fantastic images and often feel separated from their body is most closely associated with the use of A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) marijuana. D) LSD.

 159. The major active ingredient in marijuana is A) THC. B) MDMA. C) LSD. D) methadone.

 160. “K2,” also known as Spice, mimics A) MDMA. B) LSD. C) THC. D) heroin.

 161. In contrast to alcohol, marijuana A) is rapidly eliminated from the body. B) does not impair motor coordination. C) amplifies sensitivity to sounds. D) does not impair memory.

 162. After ingesting a mild hallucinogen, Lonnie lost her awareness of the passage of time and experienced a highly increased sensitivity to both the odor of aromatic candles and the harmonious notes of musical recordings. Lonnie most likely experienced the effects of A) a barbiturate. B) methamphetamine. C) morphine. D) THC.

 163. Regular users of ________ may achieve a high with smaller amounts of the drug than occasional users. A) alcohol B) morphine C) marijuana D) heroin

 164. Studies of marijuana’s effects indicate that A) regular users may achieve a high with less of the drug than occasional users. B) usage has no negative effects on motor coordination or perceptual skills. C) usage consistently reduces feelings of anxiety and depression. D) marijuana is the most commonly used psychoactive drug in North America.

 165. Which of the following drugs is most likely to disrupt the formation of new memories? A) nicotine B) methadone C) marijuana D) caffeine

 166. The percentage of U.S. high school seniors who said there is “great risk” in regular marijuana usage ________ between 1978 and 1991, and it ________ between 1991 and 2014. A) increased; remained unchanged B) remained unchanged; increased C) increased; decreased D) decreased; increased

 167. Having an identical rather than fraternal twin with alcohol use disorder puts one at an increased risk for alcohol problems. This indicates that alcohol use disorder A) has a psychedelic effect. B) is socially influenced. C) is genetically influenced. D) is synaptically transmitted.

 168. Research suggests that an important factor contributing to teen drug abuse is A) having an adoptive parent who uses drugs. B) feeling that one’s life is meaningless. C) having an overly strict parent. D) high dopamine levels in the brain.

 169. Brad’s misuse of alcohol and other addictive drugs is influenced by genetic factors, by the ready availability of drugs in Brad’s neighborhood, and by Brad’s failure to accurately assess the risks associated with drug usage. An understanding of Brad’s difficulties within the framework of multiple levels of analysis is most clearly provided by A) psychoanalysis. B) an evolutionary perspective. C) a biopsychosocial approach. D) the neuroadaptation model.

 170. Young adolescents are especially likely to begin smoking if they A) have friends and relatives who smoke. B) are slow to mature. C) are optimistic about their future. D) suffer from high blood pressure.

 171. African-American teens have ________ rates of smoking and ________ rates of cocaine use than other U.S. teens. A) lower; higher B) higher; lower C) higher; higher D) lower; lower

 172. The best predictor of an adolescent’s pattern of drug usage is whether the adolescent A) has close friends who use drugs. B) grows up in an intact two-parent family. C) has religious beliefs. D) owns his or her own car.