Sample Chapter



ISBN-13: 9781464164767

ISBN-10: 1464164762

Psychology in Modules with Updates on DSM5 by David G. Myers – Test Bank


Sample  Questions


1. An explanation using an integrated set of principles that organizes observations and predicts behaviors or events is called a(n)
A) independent variable.
B) hypothesis.
C) theory.
D) scatterplot.



2. According to Professor Fayad, we like people who like us because their affection for us boosts our own self-esteem. His idea is an example of
A) an operational definition.
B) hindsight bias.
C) replication.
D) a theory.



3. Hypotheses are best described as
A) assumptions.
B) replications.
C) explanations.
D) predictions.



4. A statement describing how a researcher manipulates an independent variable is known as a(n)
A) control condition.
B) replication.
C) operational definition.
D) hypothesis.



5. In reporting the effect of drinking alcohol on self-consciousness, psychological researchers would specify exactly how they measured self-consciousness. They are thereby providing a(n)
A) experimental hypothesis.
B) case study.
C) double-blind procedure.
D) operational definition.



6. Operational definitions are most likely to facilitate
A) replication.
B) positive correlations.
C) random sampling.
D) the placebo effect.



7. Replication involves
A) the selection of random samples.
B) randomly assigning research participants to different groups.
C) repeating an earlier research study.
D) rejecting ideas that cannot be scientifically tested.



8. To verify the reliability of a new scientific finding, psychological researchers are most likely to engage in
A) naturalistic observation.
B) random sampling.
C) replication.
D) positive correlation.



9. Professor Bolden claims that his experimental research demonstrates that eating an apple every day improves children’s reading skills. How might he best offer further support for the reliability of this finding?
A) replication
B) naturalistic observation
C) case studies
D) correlational research



10. To better understand how brain malfunctions influence behavior, Dr. Mosher extensively and carefully observes and questions two stroke victims. Which research method is Dr. Mosher using?
A) random sampling
B) the survey
C) the case study
D) experimentation



11. Jean Piaget developed his ideas about children’s thinking after carefully observing and questioning only a few children. Which research method did he use?
A) the survey
B) the double-blind procedure
C) the case study
D) experimentation



12. Those who rely on the case-study method need to be especially alert to the dangers of
A) confounding variables.
B) replication.
C) random assignment.
D) false generalization.



13. After carefully studying how three single parents dealt with the loss of their jobs, Dr. Phong began to overestimate the national rate of unemployment. In this instance, Dr. Phong should be warned that ________ may be misleading.
A) surveys
B) case studies
C) dependent variables
D) random samples



14. To describe the behavior of animals in their native habitats, researchers are most likely to make use of
A) survey research.
B) random assignment.
C) experimental methods.
D) naturalistic observation.



15. To study the development of relationships, Dr. Rajiv carefully observed and recorded patterns of verbal and nonverbal behaviors among men and women in singles bars. Which research method did Dr. Rajiv employ?
A) naturalistic observation
B) the survey
C) the case study
D) experimentation



16. Naturalistic observation is most useful for
A) describing behaviors.
B) predicting attitudes.
C) explaining complex emotions.
D) detecting cause-effect relationships.



17. Which research method would be most effective for identifying the mating rituals of North American deer?
A) survey research
B) naturalistic observation
C) experimentation
D) the double-blind procedure



18. Researchers make no effort to manipulate or control variables when they engage in
A) naturalistic observation.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) replication.
D) experimentation.



19. The survey is a research method in which
A) individuals are carefully observed in their natural environments.
B) a representative, random sample of individuals are questioned regarding their attitudes or behaviors.
C) an individual is studied in great depth.
D) an investigator determines the extent to which two variables influence each other.



20. Which of the following techniques would be the most effective way of investigating the relationship between the political attitudes and the economic status of North Americans?
A) the survey
B) naturalistic observation
C) experimentation
D) the case study



21. A majority of respondents in a national survey agreed that “classroom prayer should not be allowed in public schools.” Only 33 percent of respondents in a similar survey agreed that “classroom prayer in public schools should be banned.” These differing findings best illustrate the importance of
A) statistical significance.
B) the placebo effect.
C) random assignment.
D) wording effects.



22. Researchers observe random samples because they are likely to be
A) vivid.
B) homogeneous.
C) representative.
D) statistically significant.



23. The children in Mrs. Shashoua’s neighborhood make fun of her limp. She concludes that today’s kids are typically cruel and insensitive. Mrs. Shashoua ought to remind herself that reasonable generalizations depend on
A) observing representative samples.
B) recognizing that correlation does not mean causation.
C) confusing causation with correlation.
D) the elimination of confounding variables.



24. Mrs. Blair concludes that boys do not read as well as girls because most of the students in her remedial reading classes are boys. Mrs. Blair’s conclusion best illustrates the danger of
A) not calculating statistical significance.
B) generalizing from select cases.
C) confusing correlation with causation.
D) random sampling.



25. The whole group from which samples may be drawn is called a(n)
A) control condition.
B) population.
C) case study.
D) independent variable.



26. To learn about the political attitudes of all students enrolled at Arizona State University, Professor Marlow randomly selected 800 of these students to complete a questionnaire. In this instance, all the students enrolled at Arizona State University are considered to be a(n)
A) independent variable.
B) representative sample.
C) control condition.
D) population.



27. A random sample of a large group of people is one in which
A) the number of people included in the sample is determined by chance.
B) every person in the large group has an equal chance of being included in the sample.
C) personality differences among those in the sample are practically nonexistent.
D) all of these situations are true.



28. Which procedure helps to ensure that the participants in a survey are representative of a larger population?
A) random assignment
B) replication
C) naturalistic observation
D) random sampling



29. Website polls and call-in phone surveys often yield unrepresentative results because they fail to use
A) operational definitions.
B) random sampling.
C) scatterplots.
D) double-blind procedures.



30. Which of the following statistical measures is most helpful for indicating the extent to which high school grades predict college or university grades?
A) standard deviation
B) median
C) correlation coefficient
D) range



31. A correlation coefficient is a statistical measure of the
A) difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
B) extent to which two factors vary together.
C) statistical significance of a difference between two sample means.
D) frequency of scores at each level of some measure.



32. To assess the extent to which mortality rates increase as people age, researchers would most likely make use of
A) the double-blind procedure.
B) case studies.
C) experimentation.
D) correlation.



33. If university graduates typically earn more money than high school graduates, this would indicate that level of education and income are
A) positively correlated.
B) independent variables.
C) dependent variables.
D) negatively correlated.



34. A correlation coefficient can range in value from
A) 0 to 100.
B) 0 to 1.00.
C) 1 to 99.
D) –1.00 to +1.00.



35. A scatterplot graphically depicts the
A) standard deviation of a distribution of scores.
B) arithmetic average of a distribution of scores.
C) total population from which samples may be drawn.
D) degree of relationship between two variables.



36. If the points on a scatterplot are clustered in a pattern that extends from lower left to upper right, this would suggest that the two variables depicted are
A) normally distributed.
B) positively correlated.
C) negatively correlated.
D) not correlated.



37. Which of the following correlations between annual income and education level would best enable you to predict annual income on the basis of level of education?
A) +0.05
B) –0.01
C) +0.10
D) +0.50



38. Which of the following correlations expresses the strongest degree of relationship between two variables?
A) +0.10
B) –0.67
C) –0.10
D) +0.59



39. A correlation between levels of impulsiveness and annual income of –0.75 would indicate that
A) lower levels of impulsiveness are associated with lower levels of annual income.
B) higher levels of annual income are associated with lower levels of impulsiveness.
C) it is impossible to predict annual income levels from knowledge of impulsiveness levels.
D) impulsiveness has no causal influence on annual income.



40. A researcher would be MOST likely to discover a negative correlation between
A) body height and body weight.
B) self-esteem and depression.
C) education and personal wealth.
D) intelligence and academic success.



41. If those with low self-esteem are also particularly likely to suffer from depression, this would not necessarily indicate that low self-esteem triggers negative emotions because
A) sampling extreme cases leads to false generalizations.
B) a placebo effect may be operating.
C) association does not prove causation.
D) confounding variables may have an effect.



42. Following the scientific discovery that a specific brain structure is significantly larger in violent individuals than in those who are nonviolent, a news headline announced: “Enlarged Brain Structure Triggers Violent Acts.” The headline writer should most clearly be warned about the dangers of
A) the placebo effect.
B) subjective observations.
C) confusing association with causation.
D) generalizing from unrepresentative samples.



43. If psychologists discovered that people who live at the poverty level have more aggressive children than do wealthy people, this would clearly indicate that
A) poverty has a negative influence on children’s behavior.
B) the factors that lead to poverty also cause aggressive behavior.
C) people’s economic status and the aggressiveness of their children are negatively correlated.
D) all of these statements are correct.



44. A positive correlation between self-esteem and academic success would indicate that
A) a positive self-concept contributes to academic success.
B) academic success contributes to a favorable self-image.
C) those with high self-esteem are more academically successful than those with low self-esteem.
D) all of these statements are correct.



45. Incorrectly interpreting a correlation between two factors as evidence of causation is best avoided by making use of
A) experiments.
B) survey research.
C) case studies.
D) naturalistic observation.



46. A research method in which an investigator manipulates factors that potentially produce a particular effect is called a(n)
A) survey.
B) experiment.
C) case study.
D) correlation.



47. The experiment is a research method in which
A) a random sample of individuals are questioned about their opinions and behaviors.
B) individuals are carefully observed in their natural environment.
C) a researcher manipulates one or more factors that might affect behavior.
D) an individual is studied in great depth.



48. To maximize control over the factors they are studying, researchers engage in
A) case studies.
B) correlation research.
C) experimentation.
D) surveys.



49. Which of the following research methods would most effectively demonstrate that watching TV violence causes children to act aggressively?
A) experiment
B) naturalistic observation
C) survey
D) case study



50. Experimentation is more useful than correlational research for testing the claim that
A) children who view a great deal of television violence are also likely to be unusually aggressive.
B) people who exercise frequently are less likely to suffer from depression than infrequent exercisers.
C) people’s friendliness and feelings of happiness are increased by the consumption of alcohol.
D) people who consume excessive amounts of coffee experience higher-than-normal levels of anxiety.



51. Unlike correlational studies, experiments involve
A) operationally defining research procedures.
B) manipulating the factors of interest.
C) studying observable behaviors.
D) replication of previous research.



52. The most effective way of assessing the impact of hormone replacement therapy on women’s health is by means of
A) case studies.
B) experiments.
C) correlational measurement.
D) naturalistic observations.



53. Random assignment is most likely to be used in ________ research.
A) survey
B) case study
C) correlational
D) experimental



54. To minimize any differences between participants who are in the control and experimental groups, psychologists make use of
A) random assignment.
B) replication.
C) random sampling.
D) correlation.



55. A psychologist wants to be sure that her research findings do not result from age or personality differences between participants in the experimental and control groups. She should use
A) replication.
B) random assignment.
C) operational definitions.
D) the double-blind procedure.



56. To study the effects of noise on worker productivity, researchers have one group of people work in a noisy room and a second group work in a quiet room. To be sure that any differences in the productivity of the two groups actually result from the different noise levels, the researcher should use
A) the case study.
B) correlational measurement.
C) naturalistic observation.
D) random assignment.



57. Random sampling is to ________ as random assignment is to ________.
A) correlational studies; case studies
B) surveys; experiments
C) replication; correlation
D) description; prediction



58. In a drug-treatment study, participants given a pill containing no actual drug are receiving a
A) random sample.
B) double blind.
C) replication.
D) placebo.



59. To minimize the extent to which placebo effects contribute to outcome differences between experimental and control groups in a drug-treatment study, researchers are likely to make use of
A) random sampling.
B) replication.
C) operational definitions.
D) the double-blind procedure.



60. The double-blind procedure is most likely to be used in ________ research.
A) survey
B) case study
C) correlational
D) experimental



61. Abdul has volunteered to participate in an experiment evaluating the effectiveness of aspirin. Neither he nor the experimenters know whether the pills he takes during the experiment contain aspirin or are merely placebos. The investigators are apparently making use of
A) naturalistic observation.
B) the normal curve.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) random sampling.



62. The healing power of positive expectations is best illustrated by
A) the double blind.
B) positive correlations.
C) the placebo effect.
D) hypothesis testing.



63. In an experiment designed to study the effectiveness of a new drug for treating diabetes, research participants who receive a placebo have been assigned to the ________ group.
A) dependent variable
B) correlational
C) experimental
D) control



64. To provide a baseline against which they can evaluate the effects of a specific treatment, experimenters make use of a(n)
A) dependent variable.
B) independent variable.
C) control group.
D) experimental group.



65. Research participants drank either caffeinated or decaffeinated beverages in a study of the effects of caffeine on anxiety levels. Those who received the caffeinated drinks were assigned to the ________ group.
A) survey
B) experimental
C) correlational
D) control



66. To assess the effectiveness of flu vaccine for county residents, Mr. Carlson wants to administer vaccine injections to all county residents rather than give half of them a placebo injection. Mr. Carlson is most clearly underestimating the importance of
A) testing a large sample.
B) operationally defining his procedures.
C) replicating observations of other researchers.
D) creating a control group.



67. In a test of the effects of cigarette smoking on physical health and development, groups of monkeys were raised in either a smoke-free or smoke-infested environment. Monkeys in the smoke-infested environment were assigned to the _______ group.
A) correlational
B) survey
C) control
D) experimental



68. In a psychological experiment, researchers are interested in studying the potential effects of the ________ variable.
A) dependent
B) confounding
C) independent
D) random



69. Distinguishing between an experimental group and a control group is most relevant to specifying the nature of
A) random sampling.
B) confounding variables.
C) a standard deviation.
D) independent variables.



70. To study some effects of alcohol consumption, Dr. Chu tested the physical coordination skills of 21-year-old men who had just drunk either 4, 2, or 0 ounces of alcohol. In this study, the independent variable consisted of
A) the age of the research participants.
B) the physical coordination skills of the research participants.
C) the amount of alcohol consumed.
D) the effects of alcohol consumption.



71. Which procedure is most likely to be used to control for possible confounding variables?
A) statistical significance
B) the double-blind procedure
C) random assignment
D) standard deviation



72. The dependent variable in an experiment is the factor
A) that is directly manipulated by the investigator.
B) that may be influenced by the experimental treatment.
C) whose effect is being studied.
D) that causes the behavior being studied.



73. In an experimental study of the extent to which sexual arousal is stimulated by laughter, sexual arousal would be the
A) control condition.
B) experimental condition.
C) independent variable.
D) dependent variable.



74. Conducting a case study best illustrates
A) random sampling.
B) the correlational method.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) the descriptive method.



75. The percentage of students whose average grades fall into various performance levels could be represented by a
A) standard deviation.
B) bar graph.
C) scatterplot.
D) correlation coefficient.



76. Measures of central tendency are most useful for
A) random sampling.
B) summarizing data.
C) random assignment.
D) constructing scatterplots.



77. The mode, median, and mean are measures of
A) central tendency.
B) variation.
C) correlation.
D) statistical significance.



78. The mode of a distribution of scores is the
A) score exceeded by 50 percent of all the scores.
B) most frequently occurring score.
C) arithmetic average of all the scores.
D) difference between the highest and lowest scores.



79. Six different students spent $10, $13, $2, $12, $13, and $4, respectively, on entertainment. The mode of this group’s entertainment expenditures is
A) $9.
B) $11.
C) $12.
D) $13.



80. The arithmetic average of a distribution of scores is the
A) mode.
B) median.
C) standard deviation.
D) mean.



81. The most commonly reported measure of central tendency is the
A) mode.
B) mean.
C) median.
D) standard deviation.



82. During the past month, Henri and Sylvia each ate 10 candy bars, while Jerry ate 8, Tricia ate 6, and Tahli ate only 1. The mean number of candy bars eaten by these individuals was
A) 5.
B) 7.
C) 8.
D) 10.



83. In any distribution of scores, an equal number of scores are both greater than and less than
A) the mode.
B) the mean.
C) the median.
D) any of these measures of central tendency.



84. Mr. and Mrs. Berry have five children ages 2, 3, 7, 9, and 9. The median age of the Berry children is
A) 6.
B) 7.
C) 8.
D) 9.



85. Seven members of a girls’ club reported the following individual earnings from their sale of raffle tickets: $5, $9, $4, $11, $6, $4, and $3. In this distribution of individual earnings, the
A) median is greater than the mean and greater than the mode.
B) median is less than the mean and less than the mode.
C) median is greater than the mean and less than the mode.
D) median is less than the mean and greater than the mode.



86. Seven members of a debate club reported the following individual earnings from their sale of cakes: $7, $13, $3, $5, $2, $9, and $3. In this distribution of individual earnings, the
A) mean is greater than the mode and greater than the median.
B) mean is equal to the mode and less than the median.
C) mean is greater than the mode and equal to the median.
D) mean is less than the mode and less than the median.



87. In a distribution of test scores, which measure of central tendency would likely be the most affected by a couple of extremely high scores?
A) median
B) mode
C) standard deviation
D) mean



88. The mode, median, and mean are most likely to have different values when they
A) describe a skewed distribution.
B) are derived from a limited range of scores.
C) represent the central tendency of a random sample.
D) represent the central tendency of an entire population.



89. To understand the British newspaper headline “Income for 62% Is Below Average,” a reader needs to appreciate the distinction between the ________ and the mean.
A) range
B) standard deviation
C) mode
D) median



90. For which of the following distributions of scores would the median most clearly be a more appropriate measure of central tendency than the mean?
A) 16, 28, 4, 8, 24
B) 9, 6, 9, 12, 9
C) 8, 9, 12, 10, 16
D) 6, 18, 4, 5, 2



91. Variation is to central tendency as range is to ________.
A) mode
B) bar graph
C) scatterplot
D) correlation



92. Standard deviation is to mean as ________ is to ________.
A) median; mode
B) variation; central tendency
C) scatterplot; bar graph
D) correlation; scatterplot



93. Which of the following provides a rough indication of the degree of variation among a set of scores?
A) correlation coefficient
B) scatterplot
C) range
D) median



94. The range is
A) the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
B) the most commonly used measure of variation.
C) the average deviation of scores from the mean.
D) the most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores.



95. The intelligence test scores of the five members of the Duluth family are 100, 82, 104, 96, and 118. For this distribution of scores, the range is
A) 14.
B) 36.
C) 48.
D) 100.



96. Two students in an art class are at least 20 years older than the others. Which measure of variation of class members’ ages is most affected by the ages of these two students?
A) standard deviation
B) mode
C) median
D) range



97. The standard deviation is a measure of
A) central tendency.
B) variation.
C) statistical significance.
D) correlation.



98. Professor Woo noticed that the distribution of students’ scores on her last biology test had an extremely small standard deviation. This indicates that the
A) test was given to a very small class of students.
B) test was a poor measure of the students’ knowledge.
C) students generally performed very well on the test.
D) students’ scores tended to be very similar to one another.



99. During the season, four members of the Salem baseball team made 4, 2, 6, and 4 home runs, respectively. For this distribution of home runs, the standard deviation is equal to the square root of
A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 6.
D) 8.



100. A normal curve would be LEAST likely to characterize a large random sample of
A) body weights.
B) intelligence scores.
C) family incomes.
D) professional baseball batting averages.



101. On average, Caryl’s school bus arrives on time, although sometimes it is a bit early or late. If the arrival times are distributed on a normal curve, which of the following statistics would enable Caryl to estimate the probability that her bus will arrive within 5 minutes of its scheduled arrival time on any given day?
A) median
B) mean
C) standard deviation
D) correlation coefficient



102. Approximately 68 percent of the cases represented by the normal curve fall within ________ standard deviation(s) from the mean.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 34



103. Approximately what percentage of the cases represented by the normal curve fall between –2 and +2 standard deviations from the mean?
A) 34
B) 68
C) 95
D) 100



104. If a set of standardized test scores is normally distributed, having a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 6, approximately 95 percent of the scores are somewhere between
A) 72 and 78.
B) 75 and 87.
C) 69 and 81.
D) 63 and 87.



105. After his property was vandalized by a small group of teenagers, Mr. Mahmood concluded that most teenagers are irresponsible and delinquent. Mr. Mahmood ought to be reminded that accurate generalizations depend on
A) a realization that random events may not look random.
B) detecting cause-effect relationships.
C) the observation of representative samples.
D) the selection of samples from a skewed population.



106. We can MOST accurately estimate the mean of a population if
A) a sample is large in size and low in variability.
B) a sample is small in size and high in variability.
C) a sample is large in size and high in variability.
D) a sample is small in size and low in variability.



107. The average scores of two samples taken from the same population are most likely to differ if
A) the samples are both small.
B) the standard deviations of the samples are both small.
C) the samples differ from each other in size.
D) the sample means are both similar to the sample medians.



108. Faustin, a member of his school’s golf team, has an opportunity to play against a nationally acclaimed professional golfer. How many holes of golf should Faustin choose to play with the professional in order to maximize his own slim chances of winning?
A) 9
B) 18
C) 27
D) 36



109. If half the students at Quincy University have blue eyes, which of the following events is most probable?
A) In a class consisting of 15 students, 80% or more have blue eyes.
B) In a class consisting of 30 students, 80% or more have blue eyes.
C) In a class consisting of 45 students, 80% or more have blue eyes.
D) All of these answers are equally probable.



110. Statistical significance refers to whether research
A) variables are causally related.
B) participants were randomly assigned to conditions.
C) findings are due to chance variations.
D) results add support to previous findings.



111. A random sample of females was observed to exhibit a lower average level of self-esteem than a random sample of males. To assess the likelihood that this observed difference reflects a real difference in the average self-esteem of the total population of males and females, you should
A) construct a scatterplot.
B) calculate a correlation coefficient.
C) plot the distribution of self-esteem levels among all males and females.
D) conduct a test of statistical significance.



112. An observed difference between two sample groups is more likely to be statistically significant if
A) the observed difference is small.
B) the sample groups are small.
C) the standard deviations of the sample groups are small.
D) both samples are drawn from the same population.


1. The thin surface layer of interconnected neural cells that covers the cerebrum is called the
A) cerebellum.
B) corpus callosum.
C) association areas.
D) cerebral cortex.



2. Which region of the human brain best distinguishes us from other animals?
A) corpus callosum
B) cerebral cortex
C) parietal lobe
D) temporal lobe



3. Nerve cells in the brain receive life-supporting nutrients and insulating myelin from
A) glial cells.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) motor neurons.
D) sensory neurons.



4. Which regions of the cerebral cortex are positioned closest to our eyes?
A) temporal lobes
B) frontal lobes
C) parietal lobes
D) occipital lobes



5. Which regions of the cerebral cortex lie at the back of the head and receive visual information?
A) occipital lobes
B) parietal lobes
C) temporal lobes
D) association areas



6. Alana suffered a brain disease that destroyed major portions of her temporal lobes. Alana is most likely to suffer some loss of
A) auditory perception.
B) hunger and thirst.
C) pain sensations.
D) muscular coordination.



7. The parietal lobes are to ________ as the occipital lobes are to ________.
A) hearing; speaking
B) sensing touch; seeing
C) tasting; smelling
D) speaking; seeing



8. An area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements is called the
A) sensory cortex.
B) motor cortex.
C) corpus callosum.
D) frontal association area.



9. Direct stimulation of the motor cortex would most likely result in
A) feelings of anger.
B) acceleration of heartbeat.
C) a sensation of being touched on the arm.
D) movement of the mouth and lips.



10. To trigger a person’s hand to make a fist, José Delgado stimulated the individual’s
A) motor cortex.
B) corpus callosum.
C) sensory cortex.
D) frontal lobe.



11. A monkey with electrodes implanted in its brain is able to move a computer cursor simply by thinking about the move. This brain-computer interface best illustrates the potential value of
A) neural plasticity.
B) neurogenesis.
C) cognitive neural prosthetics.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.



12. Suppose that a speech synthesizer could produce specific words when signaled by the brain activation patterns involved when a person merely thinks about these words. This would be an illustration of
A) constraint-induced therapy.
B) lateralization.
C) neurogenesis.
D) cognitive neural prosthetics.



13. The sensory cortex is located in the ________ lobes.
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) frontal
D) occipital



14. If a neurosurgeon directly stimulated parts of your sensory cortex, which of the following would you most likely experience?
A) indistinct odors
B) flashes of light
C) repetitive sounds
D) a sense of being touched



15. The cortical regions that are NOT directly involved in sensory or motor functions are known as
A) the cerebellum.
B) frontal lobes.
C) association areas.
D) parietal lobes.



16. Association areas are located
A) only in the frontal lobes.
B) only in the frontal lobes and temporal lobes.
C) only in the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes.
D) in the frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes.



17. Damage to the association areas in the frontal lobe is most likely to interfere with the ability to
A) formulate plans.
B) recognize familiar faces.
C) understand word meanings.
D) recognize familiar voices.



18. Phineas Gage underwent a dramatic personality change after a tamping iron inflicted massive damage to his ________ lobes.
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) frontal



19. The process of comparing currently experienced visual input with past visual memories takes place in
A) the thalamus.
B) the cerebellum.
C) association areas.
D) the corpus callosum.



20. The region of your cerebral cortex that enables you to recognize a person as your own mother is
A) the cerebellum.
B) the sensory cortex.
C) the corpus callosum.
D) an association area.



21. Plasticity refers to the brain’s capacity to
A) automatically regulate heartbeat and breathing.
B) generate a sense of conscious awareness.
C) build new neural pathways.
D) transmit information between the two cerebral hemispheres.



22. Teaching a patient to regain use of an impaired limb by limiting his or her use of the good limb is called
A) functional magnetic resonance imaging.
B) constraint-induced therapy.
C) cognitive neural prosthetics.
D) lateralization.



23. One stroke patient was put to work cleaning tables, with his good arm and hand restrained. Slowly, the bad arm recovered its skills. He gradually learned to write again and even to play tennis. This best illustrates the value of
A) hemispherectomy.
B) the split brain.
C) plasticity.
D) cognitive neural prosthetics.



24. When Stoyka was a child, a brain disease required the surgical removal of her left cerebral hemisphere. Stoyka is now a successful college student who lives a normal life. Her success best illustrates the importance of
A) cognitive neural prosthetics.
B) reuptake.
C) glial cells.
D) plasticity.



25. Visual information processing in the temporal lobe of deaf people whose native language is sign best illustrates
A) cognitive neural prosthetics.
B) the split brain.
C) plasticity.
D) hemispherectomy.



26. After Terry lost a finger in an industrial accident, the area of his sensory cortex devoted to receiving input from that finger gradually became very responsive to sensory input from his adjacent fingers. This best illustrates
A) neural transmission.
B) neurogenesis.
C) plasticity.
D) hemispherectomy.



27. Neurogenesis refers to
A) the initiation of an action potential.
B) the formation of new neurons.
C) the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic gap.
D) the reabsorption of neurotransmitters by a sending neuron.



28. The brain is most likely to compensate for a loss of neurons by
A) generating new brain cells.
B) increasing the speed of the action potential.
C) inhibiting the growth of glial cells.
D) decreasing the production of acetylcholine.



29. Physical exercise and exposure to stimulating environments are most likely to promote
A) a split brain.
B) neurogenesis.
C) hemispherectomy.
D) lateralization.



30. The ability to recognize faces with the right hemisphere but not with the left hemisphere best illustrates
A) Parkinson’s disease.
B) neurogenesis.
C) plasticity.
D) lateralization.



31. The large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres is called the
A) motor cortex.
B) temporal lobe.
C) association area.
D) corpus callosum.



32. Information is most quickly transmitted from one cerebral hemisphere to the other by the
A) corpus callosum.
B) motor cortex.
C) cerebellum.
D) sensory cortex.



33. Split-brain patients have had their ________ surgically cut.
A) occipital lobes
B) corpus callosum
C) sensory cortex
D) glial cells



34. The left cerebral hemisphere is typically superior to the right in
A) spatial reasoning.
B) speech production.
C) visual perception.
D) musical abilities.



35. If an individual’s right cerebral hemisphere is completely destroyed by disease, that person is unable to see anything
A) with his or her right eye.
B) with his or her left eye.
C) in his or her right field of vision.
D) in his or her left field of vision.



36. A picture of a cat is briefly flashed in the left visual field and a picture of a mouse is briefly flashed in the right visual field of a split-brain patient. The individual will be able to use her
A) right hand to indicate she saw a cat.
B) left hand to indicate she saw a mouse.
C) right hand to indicate she saw a mouse.
D) left or right hand to indicate she saw a cat.



37. What will most likely happen as a neurosurgeon sedates the entire right cerebral hemisphere of a right-handed patient who is asked to count aloud with both arms extended upward?
A) The patient’s left arm will fall limp and he will become speechless.
B) The patient’s right arm will fall limp and he will become speechless.
C) The patient’s left arm will fall limp but he will continue counting aloud.
D) The patient’s right arm will fall limp but he will continue counting aloud.



38. People who can hear usually process their speaking with the ________ hemisphere. Deaf people usually process their language signing with the ________ hemisphere.
A) right; left
B) left; right
C) right; right
D) left; left



39. If primed with the flashed word foot, the ________ hemisphere will be especially quick to recognize the word heel. If primed with foot, cry, and glass, the ________ hemisphere will be especially quick to recognize the word cut.
A) right; left
B) left; right
C) right; right
D) left; left



40. A failure to recognize that one’s arm or leg is part of one’s self is most likely to be associated with damage to the
A) corpus callosum.
B) cerebellum.
C) right hemisphere.
D) thalamus.



41. Research on left-handedness indicates that
A) twice as many women as men are left-handed.
B) left-handers typically have a smaller corpus callosum than right-handers.
C) left-handers are less likely than right-handers to process speech primarily in their left hemisphere.
D) left-handers generally demonstrate less mathematical competence than right-handers.



42. Left-handers are more numerous than usual among those with
A) reading disabilities.
B) musical disabilities.
C) artistic disabilities.
D) mathematical disabilities.



43. According to Roger Sperry, a recognition that the mind cannot be fully explained by the activity of nerve cells is important for appreciating our human capacity for
A) lateralization.
B) neural plasticity.
C) moral responsibility.
D) developing neural networks.


1. People who carry out a suggestion not to smell or react to a bottle of ammonia held under their nose are likely to be highly responsive to
A) dissociation.
B) social influence.
C) hypnotic induction.
D) role playing.



2. Twenty-two-year-old Felicia scores high in hypnotic responsiveness as measured by the Stanford Hypnotic Susceptibility Scale. Research suggests that Felicia may also have
A) below-average intelligence.
B) an above-average ability to hypnotize others.
C) difficulty keeping her attention focused on any specific task.
D) a creative imagination.



3. Research showed that research participants ordered to plunge their hands into what they think is acid, and then throw the “acid” in a research assistant’s face, will
A) refuse to do either, even when hypnotized.
B) plunge their hands into the “acid” but will not throw it when hypnotized.
C) plunge their hands into the “acid” and throw it in the assistant’s face, but only when hypnotized.
D) plunge their hands into the “acid” and throw it in the assistant’s face, whether hypnotized or not.



4. While Bev was hypnotized, her therapist suggested that during the next several days she would have a strong desire to eat well-balanced meals. The therapist was apparently making use of
A) social influence.
B) posthypnotic suggestion.
C) hypnotic role playing.
D) dissociation.



5. Research has indicated that hypnosis
A) can force people to act against their will.
B) can block sensory input.
C) is helpful in overcoming alcohol addictions.
D) enables some people to undergo surgery without anesthesia.



6. Advocates of the social influence theory of hypnosis are likely to argue that
A) hypnosis is a unique state of consciousness.
B) hypnotized people are simply enacting the role of “good hypnotic subjects.”
C) most hypnotized people are consciously faking hypnosis.
D) hypnotic susceptibility is positively correlated with dissociation.



7. Hypnotized people are no more likely to perform dangerous acts than those who are asked to simulate hypnosis. This fact is most consistent with
A) the neural activation theory.
B) dissociation theory.
C) divided consciousness.
D) social influence theory.



8. People become unresponsive to hypnosis if told that those who are highly gullible are easily hypnotized. This fact is most consistent with the theory that hypnosis
A) involves dissociation.
B) involves conscious role playing.
C) requires a rich fantasy life.
D) requires selective attention.



9. Dissociation refers to
A) a state of divided consciousness.
B) refreshed memories.
C) conscious enactment of a hypnotic role.
D) nonconformity to social pressure.



10. People hypnotized for pain relief may show activity in brain areas that receive pain sensations but not in brain areas that make us consciously aware of the pain. This most directly supports the theory that hypnosis involves
A) imagination.
B) indirect perception.
C) dissociation.
D) hallucinations.



11. When subjected to a painful medical procedure without the benefit of an anesthetic, a hypnotized person is most likely to
A) show physiological activation of the sensory cortex.
B) exhibit a brain-wave pattern similar to that of deep sleep.
C) have no sensory experience of the pain-producing procedure.
D) be unable to remember anything that occurred during the procedure.



12. Evidence that people in a posthypnotic state have no difficulty consciously recalling everything they had experienced while under hypnosis would most clearly serve to challenge
A) social influence theory.
B) neural activation theory.
C) dissociation theory.
D) role playing.



13. Instead of viewing hypnosis as simply role playing or as simply a matter of dissociation, researchers are using a ________ approach to explore hypnosis from complementary perspectives.
A) selective attention
B) biopsychosocial
C) neurological
D) psychoanalytic



1. Rosenzweig and Krech observed that rats in an enriched environment developed more ______ than did rats in an impoverished environment.
A) reactive temperaments
B) cerebral cortex
C) Y chromosomes
D) gender schemas



2. A stimulating environment is most likely to facilitate the development of a child’s
A) individualism.
B) temperament.
C) collectivism.
D) neural connections.



3. Unused neural connections in the brain are reduced through a process of
A) synapsis.
B) gender typing.
C) collectivism.
D) pruning.



4. Carlos was born with cataracts in both eyes. Even though they were removed when he was 5, his lack of visual experiences during early childhood makes it likely that he has experienced
A) degeneration of neural connections in visual reception areas of the brain.
B) an inability to develop heritable traits.
C) difficulty incorporating new experiences into existing schemas.
D) a massive loss of sensory neurons.



5. Research on brain development suggests that repeated learning experiences seem to
A) strengthen neural connections at the location that processes the experiences.
B) reduce the number of brain cells needed to effectively process information.
C) promote the formation of the brainstem but have no effect on the formation of the cortex.
D) have no effect on the structure of neural tissue.



6. Parents should not take too much blame for the failures and shortcomings of their children because
A) their child-rearing mistakes simply reflect that they were not properly raised by their own parents.
B) children typically fail on purpose in order to establish a healthy independence from parents.
C) child-rearing practices have little effect on children’s beliefs and values.
D) parental behavior is only one of many factors that influence children’s behavior.



7. The remarkable academic and vocational successes of the children of people who fled from Vietnam and Cambodia best illustrate the importance of
A) individualism.
B) temperament.
C) family environment.
D) culture shock.



8. Children’s English accents are more likely to be influenced by their
A) peers than by their parents.
B) temperament than by their gender.
C) X chromosome than by their Y chromosome.
D) biological race than by their social environment.



9. Parents can most effectively increase their influence on their children by
A) encouraging their children to achieve athletic success.
B) helping to select their children’s neighborhood and schools.
C) spacing the birth of their children over a large number of years.
D) encouraging them to value individualism.



10. The ideas, attitudes, values, and traditions shared by a group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next is called
A) temperament.
B) collectivism.
C) gender typing.
D) culture.



11. Unlike our ancestors of centuries past, humans today rely heavily on personal computers and electronic communications. This best illustrates the impact of
A) collectivism.
B) norms.
C) temperament.
D) culture.



12. By inventing the custom of potato washing and passing it on to their peers and offspring, young chimpanzees are exhibiting a rudiment of
A) temperament.
B) collectivism.
C) gender schemas.
D) culture.



13. The rules of a culture for accepted and expected behavior are
A) stereotypes.
B) norms.
C) gender schemas.
D) temperaments.



14. The practice of covering your mouth when you cough best illustrates the impact of
A) genetic predispositions.
B) gender schemas.
C) culture shock.
D) norms.



15. Social norms have been found to
A) facilitate smooth social interaction.
B) vary from one culture to another.
C) free people from uncertainty about how they ought to behave.
D) do all of these things.



16. For the first wave of U.S. Peace Corp volunteers, the pace of life and sense of punctuality in their new host countries contributed to their experience of
A) a pruning process.
B) a selection effect.
C) culture shock.
D) collectivism.



17. In comparison to 40 years ago, American women today are more likely to marry for the sake of
A) economic advantage.
B) reproductive success.
C) gender identity.
D) love.



18. Social roles are especially likely to be central to people’s self-identity in ________ cultures.
A) individualist
B) ethnically diverse
C) collectivist
D) democratic



19. Collectivism is most likely to be emphasized in
A) North America.
B) China.
C) Europe.
D) Australia.



20. In a collectivist culture, individuals are likely to avoid
A) displaying personal humility.
B) embarrassing other people.
C) prolonging conversations.
D) all of these behaviors.



21. Compared with those in cultures that value individualism, people in collectivist cultures are especially likely to value personal
A) modesty.
B) privacy.
C) freedom.
D) achievements.



22. Compared with those living in individualist cultures, people in collectivist cultures are likely to experience
A) more privacy and less loneliness.
B) less privacy and less loneliness.
C) more privacy and more loneliness.
D) less privacy and more loneliness.



23. Many North American parents want to pick names for their children that sound unique or are spelled in an unusual way. This desire best illustrates one of the consequences of
A) gender typing.
B) neuroticism.
C) cultural norms.
D) individualism.



24. Interdependence is to ________ as independence is to ________.
A) gender schemas; gender typing
B) nurture; nature
C) chromosomes; genes
D) collectivism; individualism



25. One would not observe unusually high rates of divorce in cultures that promote
A) collectivism.
B) ethnic diversity.
C) personal privacy.
D) individual human rights.



26. The study of how neurobiology and cultural traits influence each other is most central to a new subfield called
A) gender studies.
B) evolutionary psychology.
C) cultural neuroscience.
D) behavior genetics.



27. People in collectivist cultures have been found to carry a version of a serotonin-regulating gene associated with heightened levels of
A) gender identity.
B) brain plasticity.
C) extraversion.
D) anxiety.



28. Compared with Asian parents, North American parents today place
A) more emphasis on obedience and less emphasis on family loyalty.
B) less emphasis on obedience and more emphasis on family loyalty.
C) more emphasis on obedience and more emphasis on family loyalty.
D) less emphasis on obedience and less emphasis on family loyalty.



29. Parents in Westernized cultures are more likely than parents in Asian cultures to encourage children to value
A) nonconformity.
B) gender roles.
C) cultural traditions.
D) enduring friendships.



30. Compared with children raised in Westernized cultures, children in many Asian cultures grow up with a strong sense of
A) self-consciousness.
B) gender identity.
C) self-esteem.
D) family self.



31. Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that
A) differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial groups.
B) developmental processes are highly similar among individuals raised in different cultures.
C) differences among cultural groups are greater than person-to-person differences within cultural groups.
D) gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from differences in life experience.



32. Compared with the average man, the average woman is
A) less likely to become sexually re-aroused immediately after orgasm.
B) more likely to commit suicide.
C) less likely to express emotions freely.
D) more vulnerable to depression and anxiety.



33. Compared with women, men experience a greater risk of
A) autism spectrum disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) all of these disorders.



34. Research on gender and aggression indicates that
A) women admit to feeling more hostility than do men.
B) in laboratory experiments, men and women are equally likely to give others what they believe are painful electric shocks.
C) throughout the world, men are more likely than women to commit violent crimes.
D) all of these statements are true.



35. The gender gap in aggression is LEAST likely to pertain to ________ another person.
A) spreading false rumors about
B) physically hitting
C) poisoning
D) shooting



36. Gender differences in physical aggression are greatest in cultures characterized by
A) individualism.
B) a pruning process.
C) gender inequality.
D) extraversion.



37. In a group discussion, women are ________ likely than men to express support for others’ opinions. As group leaders, women are ________ likely than men to promote a democratic leadership style.
A) less; more
B) more; more
C) less; less
D) more; less



38. During a group conversation, men are more likely than women to
A) stare at other group members.
B) interrupt other speakers.
C) talk assertively.
D) behave in all of these ways.



39. On extended visits to foreign countries, you would be most likely to observe
A) more men than women in political leadership positions.
B) women earning the same amount of money as men.
C) men and women equally involved in child care.
D) men and women equally involved in violent crime.



40. Compared with men, women are more likely to show obvious signs of
A) gender typing.
B) temperament.
C) interdependence.
D) self-esteem.



41. Compared with men, women are more likely to talk with others to
A) communicate solutions.
B) explore relationships.
C) demonstrate leadership skills.
D) express their unique opinions.



42. A study of phone communication in France indicated that women make ________ phone calls than men and stay connected for a ________ period of time than men do when talking to other men.
A) more; longer
B) fewer; shorter
C) more; shorter
D) fewer; longer



43. Women report that their friendships with women are ________ enjoyable and intimate than their friendships with men. Men report that their friendships with men are ________ enjoyable and intimate than their friendships with women.
A) more; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) less; less



44. As compared to women, men are typically
A) more socially independent and less interested in religion.
B) less socially independent and more interested in religion.
C) more socially independent and more interested in religion.
D) less socially independent and less interested in religion.



45. During their teen years, girls become progressively ________ flirtatious and boys become progressively ________ domineering.
A) more; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) less; less



46. The X chromosome is found ________. The Y chromosome is found ________.
A) only in males; only in females
B) only in females; only in males
C) in both males and females; only in females
D) in both males and females; only in males



47. A baby girl receives a(n)
A) Y chromosome from her father.
B) Y chromosome from her mother.
C) Y chromosome from her father and mother.
D) X chromosome from her father and mother.



48. The prenatal development of the external male sex organs is stimulated by
A) gender schemas.
B) the X chromosome.
C) testosterone.
D) gender typing.



49. Brain differences in males and females that occur during the fourth and fifth prenatal months are influenced by
A) the female’s greater testosterone and the male’s ovarian hormones.
B) the male’s greater testosterone and the female’s ovarian hormones.
C) the male’s lack of testosterone and the female’s lack of ovarian hormones.
D) the lack of testosterone in both males and females.



50. Gender differences in spatial perception skills are consistent with evidence that part of the
A) frontal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
B) parietal cortex is thicker in men than in women.
C) frontal lobes is thicker in women than in men.
D) parietal cortex is thicker in women than in men.



51. Genetically female children exposed to excess testosterone during prenatal development often tend to dress and play in male-typical ways. To avoid overestimating the influence of prenatal hormones on these behaviors, we should note that these children
A) have unusually reactive temperaments.
B) may be treated more like boys because they frequently look masculine.
C) are affected by a variety of random errors in gene replication.
D) develop a more masculine brain-wiring pattern before birth.



52. A genetically female child who receives excess testosterone during prenatal growth is subsequently likely to develop
A) an unusually strong heterosexual orientation.
B) a female gender role, but a male gender identity.
C) a male body with both X and Y chromosomes, unless there is corrective surgery.
D) more aggressive behavior patterns than most girls.



53. Sets of expected behaviors for males or for females are called
A) gender identities.
B) gender roles.
C) sexual norms.
D) gender types.



54. Maria has always taken responsibility for preparing family meals because she learned that this was expected of women. Her behavior best illustrates the importance of
A) sex chromosomes.
B) collectivism.
C) temperament.
D) gender roles.



55. It is most likely that in many cultures women’s leadership responsibilities have been limited by their
A) gender identity.
B) sex hormones.
C) gender roles.
D) individualism.



56. In which of the following countries are people most likely to agree that when jobs are scarce, men should have more rights to a job than women?
A) Spain
B) Britain
C) India
D) United States



57. A person’s sense of being male or female is his or her gender
A) identity.
B) role.
C) type.
D) schema.



58. The impact of rewards and punishments on the development of gender identity is most clearly emphasized by
A) evolutionary psychology.
B) collectivism.
C) behavior genetics.
D) social learning theory.



59. Gender typing refers to
A) one’s sense of being male or female.
B) the development of sex hormone receptors in specific areas of the brain.
C) the production of testosterone or prenatal ovarian hormones during prenatal development.
D) the acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role.



60. Elton responds to his daughter’s fistfight with, “Good girls don’t fight!” but when his son has a fistfight he says, “Did you win?!” The role of Elton’s reactions in the gender typing of his children would be of most direct interest to
A) collectivists.
B) individualists.
C) social learning theorists.
D) evolutionary psychologists.



61. The tendency to classify various occupations as masculine or feminine has often led men and women to limit themselves to an unnecessarily restricted range of career options. This best illustrates the impact of
A) temperament.
B) the X chromosome.
C) gender schemas.
D) a pruning process.



62. Children’s tendency to classify toys and songs as either masculine or feminine is most likely to facilitate the process of
A) pruning.
B) individualism.
C) gender typing.
D) norm development.



63. Some children become gender typed because they quickly categorize many objects and activities as either masculine and feminine. This best illustrates the importance of
A) collectivism.
B) gender schemas.
C) sex chromosomes.
D) cultural norms.



64. Some individuals are transgender, meaning that their gender identity feels mismatched with their
A) sexual orientation.
B) birth sex.
C) individualism.
D) gender schemas.



65. Understanding gender differences in behavior as a result of gender norms, sex hormones, and individual expectations regarding gender-appropriate behavior is most clearly provided by
A) a pruning process.
B) gender typing.
C) a biopsychosocial approach.
D) evolutionary psychology.



66. By insisting that humans are “nothing but” products of nature and nurture, we run the greatest risk of undermining
A) collectivism.
B) individual responsibility.
C) gender schemas.
D) gender identity.
1. Which of the following phases of development extends from the beginnings of sexual maturity to independent adulthood?
A) puberty
B) adolescence
C) menopause
D) menarche



2. The term puberty refers to the period of
A) formal operations and the development of conventional morality.
B) late adolescence when self-identity is formed.
C) rapid physical development and the onset of reproductive capability.
D) sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.



3. An example of a primary sex characteristic is a
A) woman’s ovaries.
B) man’s larynx.
C) woman’s breasts.
D) man’s adrenal glands.



4. Nonreproductive sexual characteristics such as the deepened male voice and male facial hair are called
A) telomeres.
B) secondary sex characteristics.
C) primary sex characteristics.
D) teratogens.



5. The term menarche refers to the
A) onset of male sexual potency.
B) first menstrual period.
C) development of the primary sex characteristics.
D) cessation of menstruation.



6. A male’s first ejaculation
A) almost always produces feelings of guilt.
B) typically facilitates habituation.
C) usually occurs as a nocturnal emission.
D) signifies a physical readiness to father children.



7. Boys who are stronger and more athletic during their early teen years tend to be ________ independent and ________ at risk for alcohol use and delinquency.
A) less; less
B) more; more
C) less; more
D) more; less



8. Who is likely to be the most popular student in the fifth-grade class?
A) Helmut, who is the tallest boy in the class
B) Jeff, who is the statistician for the basketball team
C) Hara, who is below average in height and physical maturity
D) Sally, who is the most sexually mature girl in the class



9. There is some evidence that as adults, girls who experienced ________ may exhibit more apprehensive responses to male faces and voices.
A) infantile amnesia
B) secure attachments
C) egocentrism
D) early puberty



10. The speed of neurotransmission in the frontal lobe increases during adolescence due to the growth of
A) myelin.
B) the self-concept.
C) the pituitary gland.
D) secondary sex characteristics.



11. The improved judgment and impulse control that occur as adolescents grow older is made possible by the development of
A) primary sex characteristics.
B) secondary sex characteristics.
C) the frontal lobes.
D) the limbic system.



12. Vincent’s ability to reason hypothetically in his geometry class indicates that he is in the ________ stage of development.
A) concrete operational
B) formal operational
C) preconventional
D) postconventional



13. “If you’re really concerned about the rights and dignity of women,” Yigal asked his older brother, “how can you justify buying pornographic magazines?” Yigal’s question indicates that he is in the ________ stage of development.
A) formal operational
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) concrete operational



14. Like Piaget, Kohlberg emphasized that children’s moral judgments build on their
A) cognitive development.
B) social development.
C) physical development.
D) economic development.



15. Who analyzed people’s answers to moral dilemmas for evidence of different stages of moral reasoning?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Jean Piaget
D) Lawrence Kohlberg



16. Which theory would most likely suggest that children often take turns passing and shooting a basketball because they want to avoid having others angry at them, whereas adolescents often do so because they want to play the game the way it’s supposed to be played?
A) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory
B) Piaget’s cognitive development theory
C) Harlows’ attachment theory
D) Kohlberg’s moral development theory



17. Henry disapproves of stealing jelly beans from his sister’s Easter basket because he thinks his mother will spank him if he does. Henry best represents a ________ morality.
A) conventional
B) preconventional
C) concrete operational
D) postconventional



18. According to Kohlberg, morality based on a desire to uphold the laws of society is characteristic of the ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional



19. A student who does not cheat on tests because he doesn’t want to violate classroom rules is in Kohlberg’s ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional



20. Formal operational thought is MOST necessary for the development of ________ morality.
A) preoperational
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional



21. Preconventional morality is to postconventional morality as ________ is to ________.
A) caring relationship; ethical principles
B) self-interest; social approval
C) social approval; self-interest
D) self-interest; ethical principles



22. Kohlberg’s critics have noted that a postconventional level of morality is most likely to be found among people who value
A) individualism.
B) conservation.
C) authoritarian parenting.
D) simple equality rather than equity.



23. Much of our psychological reasoning occurs on the “low road” of automatic unconscious thinking. This best illustrated by our
A) critical periods.
B) moral intuitions.
C) formal operations.
D) longitudinal studies.



24. Which perspective emphasizes that automatic feelings often precede and influence our moral reasoning?
A) Kohlberg’s moral development perspective
B) Haidt’s intuitionist perspective
C) Harlow’s attachment perspective
D) Erikson’s psychosocial perspective



25. Killing one person in order to save five by throwing a switch that diverts a runaway trolley is judged as more morally acceptable than killing one person in order to save five by pushing a stranger directly into the path of the oncoming trolley. This best illustrates that moral judgments may reflect
A) post conventional reasoning.
B) gut-level intuitions.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) formal operational thought.



26. Today’s character education programs teach children to experience
A) habituation.
B) object permanence.
C) empathy.
D) maturation.



27. Giving up immediate rewards to achieve longer-term goals is called
A) habituation.
B) accommodation.
C) delay of gratification.
D) terminal decline.



28. Piaget is to cognitive development as Erikson is to ________ development.
A) moral
B) physical
C) emotional
D) psychosocial



29. According to Erikson, infancy is to trust as adolescence is to
A) autonomy.
B) identity.
C) generativity.
D) integrity.



30. According to Erikson, later adulthood is to integrity as young adulthood is to
A) autonomy.
B) initiative.
C) intimacy.
D) identity.



31. According to Erikson, adolescents who are unable to develop a sense of identity experience
A) postconventional morality.
B) role confusion.
C) egocentrism.
D) dementia.



32. According to Erikson, committing oneself to meaningful social roles would be most indicative of the achievement of
A) autonomy.
B) competence.
C) initiative.
D) identity.



33. Fred has no meaningful occupational goals and has switched college majors several times. Erikson would have suggested that Fred lacks
A) identity.
B) initiative.
C) autonomy.
D) industry.



34. Lolita vacillates between acting rebellious toward her parents and high school teachers and behaving with compliance and respect. Erikson would have suggested that Lolita’s inconsistency illustrates
A) stranger anxiety.
B) role confusion.
C) egocentrism.
D) terminal decline.



35. When surrounded by men, a woman may become mindful of her gender because ________ often forms around one’s distinctiveness.
A) social identity
B) a secure attachment
C) egocentrism
D) object permanence



36. As individuals progress through their teen years into early adulthood, their self-concepts typically become
A) less personalized and unique.
B) more fluid and changeable.
C) less integrated.
D) more positive.



37. Erikson suggested that the capacity to form close, loving relationships in young adulthood depended on
A) demonstrating generativity.
B) developing a sense of integrity.
C) mastering formal operational thinking.
D) achieving a sense of identity.



38. Adolescents and their parents are most likely to have disagreements regarding
A) religious beliefs.
B) career choices.
C) college choices.
D) homework.



39. “Facebook fatigue” is most likely to be experienced by adolescents who become overly absorbed by
A) imprinting.
B) social networking.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) postconventional morality.



40. Parent-child conflict during the transition to adolescence tends to be ________ with the first-born rather than second-born children. The conflict tends to be ________ between children and their mothers than between children and their fathers.
A) stronger; stronger
B) weaker; weaker
C) stronger; weaker
D) weaker; stronger



41. Compared with 40 years ago, in the United States today people are likely to
A) establish their adult careers at an earlier age.
B) marry for the first time at a later age.
C) live separately from their parents at an earlier age.
D) experience their first menstrual period at a later age.



42. Which of the following is TRUE of adolescence today as compared with a century ago?
A) Menarche occurs later in life, and adult independence occurs later in life.
B) Menarche occurs earlier in life, and adult independence occurs earlier in life.
C) Menarche occurs later in life, and adult independence occurs earlier in life.
D) Menarche occurs earlier in life, and adult independence occurs later in life.



43. Allowing 26-year-olds to remain on their parents’ health insurance illustrates an increasing recognition of a phase of life called
A) adolescence.
B) a critical period.
C) emerging adulthood.
D) the midlife crisis.



1. Green light is
A) longer in wavelength than yellow light.
B) shorter in wavelength than blue light.
C) longer in wavelength than orange light.
D) shorter in wavelength than red light.



2. Intensity is to brightness as wavelength is to
A) accommodation.
B) frequency.
C) amplitude.
D) hue.



3. The amplitude of electromagnetic waves determines the ________ of light.
A) absolute threshold
B) brightness
C) hue
D) wavelength



4. The iris is a doughnut-shaped ring of muscle that adjusts the size of the
A) cochlea.
B) cornea.
C) pupil.
D) lens.



5. The adjustable opening in the center of the eye is the
A) fovea.
B) iris.
C) cornea.
D) pupil.



6. Dilation and constriction of the pupil are controlled by the
A) optic nerve.
B) lens.
C) retina.
D) iris.



7. The iris constricts in response to visible ________ light waves.
A) low-frequency
B) low-amplitude
C) high-frequency
D) high-amplitude



8. The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the
A) pupil.
B) cornea.
C) retina.
D) iris.



9. The process by which the lens changes shape to focus the image of an object on the retina is called
A) interposition.
B) accommodation.
C) transduction.
D) feature detection.



10. The receptor cells that convert light energy into neural signals are called
A) bipolar cells.
B) ganglion cells.
C) rods and cones.
D) feature detectors.



11. Bipolar cells are located in the
A) optic nerve.
B) retina.
C) blind spot.
D) lens.



12. The area of the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is called the
A) blind spot.
B) visual cortex.
C) cornea.
D) lens.



13. Damage to the fovea would have the GREATEST effect on
A) night vision.
B) peripheral vision.
C) detecting fine detail.
D) sensory adaptation.



14. The most light-sensitive receptor cells are the
A) ganglion cells.
B) cones.
C) bipolar cells.
D) rods.



15. Compared with rods, cones are
A) more sensitive to dim light and more sensitive to fine detail.
B) less sensitive to dim light and less sensitive to fine detail.
C) more sensitive to dim light and less sensitive to fine detail.
D) less sensitive to dim light and more sensitive to fine detail.



16. Under very dim levels of illumination
A) rods reach their maximum light sensitivity more rapidly than do cones.
B) rods are more light sensitive than cones.
C) it is particularly important to look straight at the objects we want to see.
D) all of these statements are true.



17. Any given area of the retina relays its information to a corresponding location in the
A) hypothalamus.
B) oval window.
C) occipital lobe.
D) cerebellum.



18. The nerve cells that respond to specific aspects of a visual stimulus, such as its shape or its movement, are
A) bipolar cells.
B) rods and cones.
C) ganglion cells.
D) feature detectors.



19. Feature detectors in the visual cortex pass visual information received from ganglion cells to other cortical areas where complex patterns are processed by
A) bipolar cells.
B) supercell clusters.
C) the optic nerve.
D) opponent-process cells.



20. The roll of feature detector cells in the processing of visual information was first demonstrated by
A) Young and Helmholtz.
B) Melzack and Wall.
C) Hubel and Wiesel.
D) Gibson and Walk.



21. When you look at a vertical line, you are probably activating different ________ than when you look at a horizontal line.
A) feature detectors
B) opponent processes
C) sensory thresholds
D) hair cells



22. The ability to simultaneously recognize the color, shape, size, and speed of an oncoming automobile best illustrates
A) kinesthesis.
B) parallel processing.
C) subliminal perception.
D) blindsight.



23. After suffering stroke damage to specific areas of her brain, Mrs. M. cannot visually perceive the motion of objects, though she can visually perceive their form, color, and depth. Her experience best illustrates the role of ________ in visual perception.
A) sensory adaptation
B) retinal disparity
C) parallel processing
D) kinesthesis



24. The importance of parallel processing is best illustrated by
A) sensory adaptation.
B) Weber’s law.
C) blindsight.
D) accommodation.



25. The ability to almost instantly recognize a familiar face best illustrates the value of
A) the phi phenomenon.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) parallel processing.
D) sensory interaction.



26. According to the Young-Helmholtz theory
A) the retina contains three kinds of color receptors.
B) color vision depends on pairs of opposing retinal processes.
C) the size of the difference threshold is proportional to the intensity of the stimulus.
D) certain nerve cells in the brain respond to specific features of a stimulus.



27. People who lack color receptors for the wavelengths of red are most likely to experience
A) prosopagnosia.
B) blindsight.
C) dichromatic vision.
D) tinnitus.



28. When most people stare at a red square and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of the square is
A) yellow.
B) red.
C) green.
D) blue.



29. Experiencing a green afterimage of a red object is most easily explained by
A) the opponent-process theory.
B) signal detection theory.
C) the Young-Helmholtz theory.
D) frequency theory.



30. According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are turned “on” by ________ light are turned “off” by ________ light.
A) red; blue
B) blue; green
C) yellow; green
D) yellow; blue



31. Which psychologists focused on principles of perceptual organization?
A) behaviorists
B) psychoanalysts
C) Gestalt psychologists
D) parapsychologists



32. Gestalt psychologists emphasized that
A) perception is independent of sensation.
B) we learn to perceive the world through experience.
C) sensation and perception are identical processes.
D) we organize sensory information into meaningful forms.



33. The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate the importance of
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) retinal disparity.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) top-down processing.



34. Although several students in the classroom are talking loudly, Jim’s attention is focused on what his girlfriend is saying. In this instance, the girlfriend’s voice is a
A) figure.
B) gestalt.
C) perceptual set.
D) perceptual adaptation.



35. A floating ship is to the ocean water as ________ is to ________.
A) closure; continuity
B) brightness constancy; relative height
C) figure; ground
D) proximity; interposition



36. People are more likely to perceive a figure and ground illustration as reversible if they are told it is reversible. This best illustrates the importance of
A) interposition.
B) retinal disparity.
C) perceptual adaptation.
D) top-down processing.



37. Who best illustrated that the perceived whole differs from the sum of its parts?
A) evolutionary psychologists
B) parapsychologists
C) behaviorists
D) Gestalt psychologists



38. The Gestalt principle of proximity refers to way in which we
A) adapt to perceptual changes.
B) activate meaningful perceptual sets.
C) organize stimuli into coherent groups.
D) see objects in three dimensions.



39. The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near each other is called
A) interposition.
B) continuity.
C) proximity.
D) closure.



40. Because the football game was interrupted by a long half-time, 5-year-old Mark mistakenly concluded that the first and second halves of play were two different games. His experience best illustrates the organizational principle of
A) continuity.
B) proximity.
C) interposition.
D) closure.



41. The principle of continuity refers to the perceptual tendency to
A) group things that are near each other.
B) group stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns.
C) fill in gaps so as to perceive a complete, whole object.
D) generate reversible figure-ground patterns.



42. The tendency to see complete letters on a neon sign, even though some of the bulbs are burned out, illustrates the principle of
A) closure.
B) relative luminance.
C) proximity.
D) continuity.



43. During a radio ad, listeners are repeatedly asked, “What would life be without Fletchers Ice Cream?” At the end of the ad, the same question is cleverly interrupted immediately after the word “without.” At that point, many listeners mentally respond with the words “Fletchers Ice Cream.” Their response best illustrates the principle of
A) closure.
B) proximity.
C) interposition.
D) perceptual adaptation.



44. The organization of two-dimensional retinal images into three-dimensional perceptions is called
A) retinal disparity.
B) depth perception.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) sensory interaction.



45. Experiments with the visual cliff suggest that
A) newborn chicks cannot recognize depth.
B) binocular cues are more important than monocular cues.
C) biological maturation predisposes us to be wary of height.
D) unlike other animals, humans do not perceive depth until about 8 months of age.



46. Infants are especially likely to avoid crawling over the edge of a visual cliff if they
A) have a lot of previous crawling experience.
B) have little previous experience with heights.
C) lack a capacity for psychokinesis.
D) lack vision in one eye.



47. Which of the following is a binocular cue for the perception of distance?
A) relative size
B) retinal disparity
C) relative motion
D) linear perspective



48. A 3D movie enhances our sense of depth perception by exaggerating normal
A) interposition.
B) retinal disparity.
C) linear perspective.
D) perceptual constancy.



49. Depth perception that uses information transmitted to only one eye depends on
A) relative luminance.
B) stroboscopic movement.
C) brightness constancy.
D) monocular cues.



50. Distant trees were located closer to the top of the artist’s canvas than were the nearby flowers. The artist was clearly using the distance known as
A) linear perspective.
B) closure.
C) relative height.
D) interposition.



51. Relative motion provides a cue for perceiving the ________ of objects.
A) weight
B) speed
C) distance
D) shape



52. Renny knew the red tulip was closer to her than the yellow tulip because the red one cast a larger retinal image than the yellow one. This illustrates the importance of the distance cue known as
A) relative size.
B) interposition.
C) proximity.
D) relative height.



53. The seeming convergence of parallel lines provides the distance cue known as
A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) linear perspective.
D) continuity.



54. The apparent narrowing of a river as it flows directly away from you into the distance best illustrates the depth cue known as
A) interposition.
B) closure.
C) relative motion.
D) linear perspective.



55. Interposition is a cue for depth perception in which closer objects
A) create larger retinal images than do distant objects.
B) obstruct our view of distant objects.
C) reflect more light to our eyes than do distant objects.
D) appear lower in the horizontal plane than do distant objects.



56. When viewing an object, we typically assume that the light originates from ________ the object.
A) behind
B) in front of
C) above
D) below



57. We compute motion based on the assumption that shrinking objects are
A) schemas.
B) retreating.
C) binocular cues.
D) fixation points.



58. If all the following oncoming vehicles were traveling at the same speed, which would most likely be perceived as moving the most slowly?
A) a car
B) a train
C) a bus
D) a motorcycle



59. The perception that a cartoon character is hopping across a movie screen best illustrates
A) the McGurk effect.
B) retinal disparity.
C) the volley principle.
D) stroboscopic movement.



60. The illusion of movement in animated neon signs is known as
A) interposition.
B) relative motion.
C) the McGurk effect.
D) the phi phenomenon.



61. Perceiving a dinner plate as having consistent shape, size, and color regardless of the angle, distance, and lighting conditions from which we view it is known as
A) the phi phenomenon.
B) interposition.
C) shape constancy.
D) retinal disparity.



62. On a cloudy day, a yellow flower is likely to appear ________ it does on a bright sunny day.
A) less yellow than
B) equally as yellow as
C) more yellow than
D) whiter than



63. The phenomenon of color constancy best demonstrates that
A) an object’s perceived color is influenced by its surrounding objects.
B) the brain processes information about color and shape simultaneously.
C) quivering eye movements help to maintain the perception of color.
D) color vision depends on pairs of opposing retinal processes.



64. Brightness constancy refers to the fact that
A) the frequency of light waves has a fixed relationship to the brightness of the light.
B) objects are perceived to have consistent lightness even if the amount of light they reflect changes.
C) light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in illumination levels.
D) the perceived whiteness of an object has a constant relation to its lightness.



65. Relative luminance most clearly contributes to
A) the phi phenomenon.
B) brightness constancy.
C) the Moon illusion.
D) the McGurk effect.



66. Shape constancy refers to our perception of an object as unchanging in shape regardless of changes in the
A) angle from which we view the object.
B) distance from which we view the object.
C) color of the object.
D) luminance of the object.



67. As Sherod walked away from the camera, the image of his body filled a smaller area of the television screen. Nevertheless, viewers did not perceive Sherod as suddenly shrinking. This illustrates
A) perceptual adaptation.
B) size constancy.
C) closure.
D) interposition.



68. The visually perceived distance between ourselves and an object provides an important cue for our perception of the object’s
A) brightness.
B) shape.
C) color.
D) size.



69. If two different stars cast retinal images of the same size, the star that appears to be
A) brighter is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be dimmer.
B) moving is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be stationary.
C) farther away is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be closer.
D) high in the sky is likely to be perceived as larger than the one that appears to be near the horizon.



70. The Moon just above the horizon typically appears to be unusually
A) large because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
B) bright because we perceive it as unusually close to ourselves.
C) large because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.
D) bright because we perceive it as unusually far away from ourselves.



71. The Moon illusion can best be explained in terms of the relationship between
A) relative motion and relative height.
B) perceived distance and perceived size.
C) proximity and closure.
D) atmospheric air pressure and diffusion of light waves.



72. The distorted room illusion involving two girls who are perceived as very different in size can best be explained in terms of
A) shape constancy.
B) retinal disparity.
C) the principle of continuity.
D) the misperception of distance.



73. We automatically perceive distinct words when listening to a flow of conversation in our own language. This best illustrates
A) telekinesis.
B) interposition.
C) the phi phenomenon.
D) perceptual organization.



74. The philosopher Immanuel Kant emphasized that
A) perception is the same as sensation.
B) we learn to perceive the world through experience.
C) the whole is equal to the sum of its parts.
D) perception depends on innate ways of organizing sensory experience.



75. Who emphasized that perceptions are learned through experience?
A) Immanuel Kant
B) Gestalt psychologists
C) John Locke
D) Ernst Weber



76. In the historical controversy over the dynamics of perception, ________ was to nature as ________ was to nurture.
A) continuity; closure
B) Helmholtz; Hering
C) linear perspective; interposition
D) Kant; Locke



77. Mr. Watkins had been blind from birth. While corrective eye surgery enabled him to see, he was unable to visually distinguish a spoon from a key. This fact would serve to support the position advanced by
A) Kant.
B) Gestalt psychologists.
C) Locke.
D) parapsychologists.



78. After corrective eye surgery, adults blind from birth are likely to have the greatest difficulty in visually distinguishing between stimuli that differ in
A) color.
B) brightness.
C) shape.
D) size.



79. When visually restricted infant monkeys were first allowed to see, they could not visually distinguish
A) between dim and bright lights.
B) between different-colored objects.
C) figures from backgrounds.
D) circles from squares.



80. Perceptual adaptation refers to the
A) grouping of stimuli into smooth, uninterrupted patterns.
B) processing of information without conscious awareness.
C) perception of an object as unchanging in shape regardless of our own viewing angle.
D) perceptual adjustment to an artificially displaced visual field.



81. The impact of experience on perception is most clearly illustrated by
A) relative luminance.
B) retinal disparity.
C) the phi phenomenon.
D) perceptual adaptation.



82. After chicks were fitted with special lenses that visually displaced objects to the left, they
A) quickly learned to compensate by pecking to the left of where the food appeared to be.
B) only gradually learned to compensate by pecking to the right of where the food appeared to be.
C) only gradually learned to compensate by pecking to the left of where the food appeared to be.
D) never adapted to the visual distortion.



83. An integrated understanding of perception in terms of our sensory capacities, cultural contexts, and Gestalt principles is most clearly provided by
A) opponent-process theory.
B) a biopsychosocial approach.
C) Weber’s law.
D) signal detection theory.



84. ESP refers to
A) perception that occurs apart from sensory input.
B) the ability to move objects without touching them.
C) a readiness to perceive an object in a distorted fashion.
D) all of these characteristics.



85. Telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition are different forms of
A) psychokinesis.
B) extrasensory perception.
C) synaesthesia.
D) the phi phenomenon.



86. Shauna claims that she knows at any given moment exactly what important political figures are thinking. Shauna is claiming to possess the power of
A) telepathy.
B) precognition.
C) psychokinesis.
D) clairvoyance.



87. Clairvoyance refers to the
A) extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
B) extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver.
C) perception of future events, such as a person’s fate.
D) ability to understand and share the emotions of another person.



88. Rudy claims that his special psychic powers enable him to correctly anticipate whether the outcome of a coin toss will be heads or tails. Rudy is claiming to possess the power of
A) psychokinesis.
B) clairvoyance.
C) telepathy.
D) precognition.



89. Farouk insists that by intense mental concentration he can actually influence the mechanically generated outcomes of slot machines. Farouk is most specifically claiming to possess the power of
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) psychokinesis.
D) precognition.



90. The study of phenomena such as clairvoyance and telepathy is called
A) parapsychology.
B) Gestalt psychology.
C) psychokinesis.



91. Scientific analyses of the predictive powers of dreams offer support for the existence of
A) telepathy.
B) clairvoyance.
C) precognition.
D) none of these things.



92. Thousands of controlled experiments indicate that
A) many people have ESP.
B) ESP exists only in a few specially gifted people.
C) there is no reliable evidence that anyone possesses ESP.
D) it is impossible to conduct scientifically valid tests of ESP.
1. Learning associations between one’s own personal actions and resulting events is most relevant to the process of
A) classical conditioning.
B) latent learning.
C) observational learning.
D) operant conditioning.



2. Julio’s mother has been giving him gold stars for keeping his bed dry all night. After about a week, Julio discontinued his habit of bed-wetting. His change in behavior best illustrates the value of
A) primary reinforcement.
B) classical conditioning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) operant conditioning.



3. Because Saleem was spanked on several occasions for biting electric cords, he no longer does so. Saleem’s behavior change best illustrates the value of
A) negative reinforcement.
B) classical conditioning.
C) conditioned reinforcers.
D) operant conditioning.



4. The psychologist most closely associated with the study of operant conditioning was
A) B. F. Skinner.
B) Ivan Pavlov.
C) John B. Watson.
D) Albert Bandura.



5. The law of effect refers to the tendency to
A) learn associations between consecutive stimuli.
B) learn in the absence of reinforcement.
C) repeat behaviors that are rewarded.
D) lose intrinsic interest in an over-rewarded activity.



6. Dr. Raheja places a rat in a small cage where it learns to press a bar to obtain a food pellet. Obviously, Dr. Raheja is using a(n) ________ to study learning.
A) operant chamber
B) variable-ratio schedule
C) Pavlovian maze
D) puzzle box



7. A reinforcement is any event that
A) satisfies a biological need.
B) triggers feelings of pleasure.
C) elicits a conditioned response.
D) increases the frequency of a preceding response.



8. The process of reinforcing successively closer approximations to a desired behavior is called
A) generalization.
B) intermittent reinforcement.
C) shaping.
D) secondary reinforcement.



9. Golf instruction that reinforces short putts before attempting to reinforce long putts best illustrates the process of
A) shaping.
B) modeling.
C) discrimination.
D) delayed reinforcement.



10. To teach an animal to perform a complex sequence of behaviors, animal trainers are most likely to use a procedure known as
A) delayed reinforcement.
B) latent learning.
C) generalization.
D) shaping.



11. On Monday, Johnny’s mother gave him cookies and milk after he had played quietly for 10 minutes. On Tuesday, she required 20 minutes of quiet play before treat time. On Wednesday, she gave him cookies only after he played quietly for a full half-hour. Johnny was taught to play quietly for extended periods through
A) secondary reinforcement.
B) partial reinforcement.
C) shaping.
D) modeling.



12. Teachers who effectively shape their students’ study habits are most likely to
A) avoid the use of negative reinforcement to motivate effective study.
B) reinforce effective study with primary rather than secondary reinforcers.
C) reinforce effective study on a fixed-interval schedule.
D) reinforce even minor improvements in students’ study skills.



13. After his mother smiles, Jimmy’s request for a snack is reinforced. But if his mother is not smiling, his subsequent request for a snack is not reinforced. By indicating that Jimmy’s request for a snack will be reinforced, the mother’s smile is a
A) primary reinforcer.
B) discriminative stimulus.
C) respondent behavior.
D) unconditioned reinforcer.



14. A positive reinforcer is anything that when ________ a response, strengthens the response.
A) introduced before
B) removed after
C) introduced after
D) removed before



15. Because Mandisa always picked up her newborn daughter when she cried, her daughter is now a real crybaby. In this case, picking up the infant served as a(n) ________ for crying.
A) negative reinforcer
B) conditioned stimulus
C) positive reinforcer
D) unconditioned stimulus



16. The more often Matthew is scolded following a temper tantrum, the more frequently he loses his temper. In this case, the scolding serves as a ________ for Matthew’s temper tantrums.
A) negative reinforcer
B) conditioned stimulus
C) positive reinforcer
D) punishment



17. Escape from a punishing event is a ________ reinforcer.
A) positive
B) negative
C) partial
D) delayed



18. A negative reinforcer ________ the behavior it follows.
A) strengthens
B) eliminates
C) suppresses but does not eliminate
D) has an unpredictable effect on



19. Jacinda has a glass of wine after work because it relieves her anxiety. Her wine drinking is likely to continue because it is followed by a ________ reinforcer.
A) secondary
B) partial
C) negative
D) positive



20. Innately satisfying stimuli that fulfill biological needs are called ________ reinforcers.
A) fixed
B) primary
C) positive
D) continuous



21. Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcer?
A) applause for an excellent trumpet solo
B) a grade of “A” for an excellent essay
C) $5.00 for washing the car
D) a cold lemonade for pulling weeds on a hot day



22. A conditioned reinforcer gains its reinforcing power through its link with a
A) discriminative stimulus.
B) primary reinforcer.
C) fixed ratio.
D) respondent behavior.



23. Receiving money as a reward and having a monetary fine suspended are both ________ reinforcers.
A) partial
B) primary
C) conditioned
D) positive



24. Money is to food as ________ is to ________.
A) delayed reinforcer; immediate reinforcer
B) secondary reinforcer; primary reinforcer
C) discrimination; generalization
D) partial reinforcement; continuous reinforcement



25. Every time he drinks, Boris has a painful hangover the morning after. But he continues to drink because just a couple of drinks begin to reduce his anxiety. Boris’ continued drinking illustrates the power of
A) generalization.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) extinction.
D) immediate reinforcement.



26. Janna’s behavior is more strongly influenced by the momentary thrill of unprotected sex than by the prospect of an unwanted pregnancy or sexually transmitted infection. This best illustrates the impact of
A) classical conditioning.
B) immediate reinforcement.
C) a variable-interval schedule.
D) spontaneous recovery.



27. Intermittent reinforcement is associated with ________ acquisition and ________ extinction than continuous reinforcement.
A) slower; faster
B) faster; slower
C) faster; faster
D) slower; slower



28. A trainer wants a pigeon to quickly learn to peck a button to obtain food. She also wants to be sure the behavior is resistant to extinction. So, she should use ________ reinforcement until the response is mastered followed by ________ reinforcement.
A) positive; negative
B) negative; positive
C) continuous; partial
D) partial; continuous



29. When the Zantays eat dinner, the family dog begs for food. Sometimes, but not often, the children give in to the dog’s begging and pass their pet a tasty morsel. You would be most justified in predicting that
A) the dog is eventually going to stop begging for food.
B) as soon as the children stop reinforcing the dog’s begging, it will stop begging.
C) the dog is going to be quite persistent in its begging in the future.
D) the dog will always beg for food even if the Zantays never reinforce the begging.



30. A partial reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after a specified number of responses is called a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-ratio
C) fixed-interval
D) variable-interval



31. Coffee shops that reward customers with a free cup of coffee after every 10 coffee purchases are using a ________ reinforcement schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) variable-interval
C) fixed-ratio
D) variable-ratio



32. Luana edits manuscripts for a publisher and is paid $25 for every three pages she edits. Luana is reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) fixed-ratio
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio



33. A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
A) specified time period has elapsed.
B) unpredictable time period has elapsed.
C) specified number of responses have been made.
D) unpredictable number of responses have been made.



34. Which of the following behaviors is typically reinforced on a variable-ratio schedule?
A) studying to be prepared for unexpected quizzes
B) inserting coins into a slot machine
C) paying a cashier for a candy bar
D) checking the mailbox to see if the mail has arrived



35. A partial reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response that occurs after a specified time has elapsed is a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-ratio
C) fixed-interval
D) variable-interval



36. Glancing at the television in the next room in hopes of seeing the beginning of the evening news is likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-interval
B) fixed-ratio
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio



37. A variable-interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
A) specified time period has elapsed.
B) unpredictable number of responses has been made.
C) specified number of responses has been made.
D) unpredictable time period has elapsed.



38. A small-town radio disc jockey frequently announces how much money is currently in a jackpot. Every day several randomly selected residents are called and asked to identify the amount, and thereby win it. Those who keep track of the jackpot amount are most likely to be reinforced on a ________ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-interval
C) variable-ratio
D) fixed-interval



39. A choppy stop-start pattern of operant responding is associated with the ________ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-ratio
D) variable-interval



40. A slow but steady rate of operant responding is associated with the ________ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-ratio
D) variable-interval



41. An event that decreases the behavior that precedes it is a
A) negative reinforcer.
B) punishment.
C) conditioned stimulus.
D) secondary reinforcer.



42. The introduction of an unpleasant stimulus is to ________ as the withdrawal of an unpleasant stimulus is to ________.
A) acquisition; extinction
B) negative reinforcer; positive reinforcer
C) primary reinforcer; secondary reinforcer
D) punishment; reinforcement



43. After receiving a couple of traffic tickets for speeding, Masako no longer drives faster than the legal speed limit. This best illustrates the impact of
A) observational learning.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) punishment.



44. A young child who is spanked after running into the street learns not to repeat this behavior. In this case, the spanking is a
A) positive reinforcer.
B) negative reinforcer.
C) positive punishment.
D) negative punishment.



45. Withdrawing a desirable stimulus following an operant response is
A) negative punishment.
B) negative reinforcement.
C) positive punishment.
D) positive reinforcement.



46. A child learns to stop fighting with his brother after the fight leads to suspension of the child’s TV-viewing privileges. In this case, the suspension of TV-viewing privileges is a
A) positive reinforcer.
B) negative reinforcer.
C) positive punishment.
D) negative punishment.



47. Positive punishment ________ the rate of operant responding, and negative punishment ________ the rate of operant responding.
A) increases; decreases
B) decreases; increases
C) decreases; decreases
D) has no effect on; decreases



48. When children misbehave, some parents a use time-out, removing the children from their reinforcing surroundings. This practice best illustrates
A) negative reinforcement.
B) higher-order conditioning.
C) negative punishment.
D) extinction.



49. Punishment is a potentially hazardous way for teachers to control young children’s behaviors because
A) the more severely children are punished for undesirable behaviors, the more likely they will exhibit those behaviors.
B) children will forget how to perform punished behaviors even when the behaviors may be justified and necessary.
C) the use of punishment could condition children to fear the teachers and avoid school.
D) punishment cannot even temporarily restrain undesirable behaviors.



50. Children can learn to fear the persons and places associated with their punishment. This best illustrates
A) negative reinforcement.
B) the law of effect.
C) latent learning.
D) classical conditioning.



51. Most psychologists think that the use of punishment is
A) ineffective in even temporarily restraining unwanted behavior.
B) more effective than negative reinforcers in shaping behavior.
C) the opposite of positive reinforcers and thus is its psychological equivalent in terms of changing behavior.
D) less effective than positive reinforcers in promoting desirable behavior.



52. In explaining prosocial behavior, B. F. Skinner would most likely have emphasized
A) genetic influences.
B) an unconscious need for social approval.
C) the internalization of moral values.
D) the beneficial consequences of prosocial behavior.



53. B. F. Skinner recommended that we control behavior with ________ rather than with ________.
A) primary reinforcers; secondary reinforcers
B) delayed reinforcement; immediate reinforcement
C) modeling; conditioning
D) reinforcement; punishment



54. Individually paced instruction that provides students with immediate positive feedback following their correct responses best illustrates an application of
A) spontaneous recovery.
B) classical conditioning.
C) latent learning.
D) operant conditioning.



55. Tennis instruction that reinforces soft, short lobs over the net before attempting to reinforce hard, long, cross-court hits best illustrates the process of
A) shaping.
B) modeling.
C) discrimination.
D) delayed reinforcement.



56. Mr. Schlenker has improved worker productivity at his furniture manufacturing plant by occasionally sending notes of appreciation to his hard-working employees. Mr. Schlenker has improved productivity by means of
A) latent learning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) modeling.
D) operant conditioning.



57. Although 5-year-old Katelyn is not really thirsty, she frequently begins whining for a glass of water about 10 minutes after being put to bed. Her parents would be best advised to
A) simply ignore her complaining.
B) provide her with a very small drink of water.
C) close her bedroom door to indicate that they disapprove of her whining.
D) read her a short story so she forgets about wanting a drink.



58. To modify your own behavior using operant conditioning principles, you should
A) monitor and record the actual frequency of the operant behavior you wish to promote.
B) formulate goals for behavior change that are a bit more ambitious than what you can actually accomplish.
C) carefully observe and imitate the specific behaviors practiced by others who have successfully achieved your goals.
D) systematically reinforce the operant behavior you wish to promote with delayed rather than immediate reinforcers.



59. Pavlov is to ________ as Skinner is to ________.
A) operant conditioning; classical conditioning
B) latent learning; observational learning
C) observational learning; operant conditioning
D) respondent behavior; operant behavior



60. Associative learning is best illustrated by
A) cognitive learning.
B) unconditioned responses.
C) modeling.
D) classical and operant conditioning.



61. An automatic response to some stimulus is called
A) associative learning.
B) respondent behavior.
C) observational learning.
D) operant behavior.



62. In classical conditioning, an organism forms associations between
A) unconditioned and conditioned responses.
B) events that it does not control.
C) primary and secondary reinforcers.
D) its own behavior and resulting outcomes.



63. Which of the following is most clearly an operant behavior?
A) blinking
B) salivating
C) whining
D) blushing



64. Respondent behavior is a(n) ________ response, whereas operant behavior is a(n) ________ response.
A) conditioned; unconditioned
B) conscious; unconscious
C) punishing; rewarding
D) automatic; voluntary



65. Classical conditioning involves a learned association between
A) two stimuli.
B) two responses.
C) two reinforcers.
D) behaviors and their consequences.



66. Operant conditioning involves a learned association between
A) two responses.
B) two stimuli.
C) two reinforcers.
D) behaviors and their consequence.