Sample Chapter

INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
 
The Challenge of Democracy 12th Edition, Kenneth Janda, Jeffrey M. Berry  – Test Bank
 
Sample  Questions

 

  1. In 2006, __________ became the first state to require its citizens to buy health insurance or face a penalty.
    A. Texas
    B. New York
    C. Massachusetts
    D. Wisconsin
    E. California

 

  1. In 2010, Congress passed the Affordable Health Care Act that
    A. required nearly all Americans to buy health coverage or pay a penalty.
    B. nationalized health care into a government-run model.
    C. gave uninsured Americans a $10,000 voucher to help purchase private health insurance.
    D. created a government-funded public health plan to compete with private insurers.
    E. mandated that no private health plan cost more than $20,000.

 

  1. The broad, basic definition of politics given by the text is
    A. the restriction of human freedom in the name of national sovereignty.
    B. the authoritative allocation of values for a society.
    C. the struggle for economic self-interest.
    D. rule by the people.
    E. the manipulation of public opinion by government.

 

  1. When the authors say that we live in an era of “globalization,” they mean that citizens and nations are increasingly
    A. peace loving.
    B. industrialized.
    C. commercialized.
    D. belligerent.
    E. interdependent.

 

  1. The broad, basic definition of government given by the text is
    A. the use of force to benefit an elite.
    B. legitimate use of force within specified geographic boundaries to control human behavior.
    C. citizens participating in community decisions.
    D. taking from each according to his or her ability and giving to each according to need.
    E. leaders controlling power and authority.

 

  1. Globalization can be seen as a threat to
    A. commercial activity.
    B. national sovereignty.
    C. capitalism.
    D. liberalism.
    E. socialism.

 

  1. When NATO established a no-fly zone over Libya in 2011, Libyan dictator Moammar Gadhafi  protested that NATO had violated Libya’s
    A. politics.
    B. national supremacy.
    C. self-control.
    D. domestic rule.
    E. national sovereignty.

 

  1. As an example of globalization affecting higher education, in 2010 there were over _________ foreign students in American college classrooms.
    A. 100,000
    B. 300,000
    C. 700,000
    D. one million
    E. three million

 

  1. The United States now imports more goods from _________ than from France and Britain combined.
    A. Saudi Arabia
    B. Russia
    C. Brazil
    D. Australia
    E. China

 

  1. The United States opposed an international court because
    A. international law is nothing like U.S. law.
    B. the judges for the court would, in most instances, be very opposed to applying Western values.
    C. it would be impossible to enforce judgments rendered by the court.
    D. U.S. soldiers stationed abroad might be arrested and tried in an international court.
    E. executions in other countries are unconstitutionally cruel and unusual punishment in the United States.

 

  1. The oldest objective of government is
    A. preserving the state of nature.
    B. supporting economic growth.
    C. maintaining order.
    D. promoting social equality.
    E. guaranteeing the security of citizens.

 

  1. According to Thomas Hobbes, author of Leviathan, the proper objective of government is to ensure
    A. freedom.
    B. order.
    C. a functioning economy.
    D. public goods.
    E. free and fair elections.

 

  1. The state of nature refers to
    A. order without equality.
    B. regulation without leadership.
    C. order without conflict.
    D. government without values.
    E. society without government.

 

  1. Thomas Hobbes’s ideal form of government was
    A. a representative democracy.
    B. democratic socialism.
    C. the absence of any strong central authority.
    D. a global council of world leaders.
    E. a single ruler with unquestioned authority.

 

  1. John Locke’s views on government are expressed in
    A. Leviathan.
    B. The Social Contract.
    C. Two Treatises on Government.
    D. Common Sense.
    E. Utopia.

 

  1. According to John Locke, the fundamental purpose of government is the protection of
    A. life.
    B. liberty.
    C. property.
    D. Options A, B, and C are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Which political philosopher inspired the phrase “life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness” in the Declaration of Independence?
    A. Thomas Jefferson
    B. Adam Smith
    C. Karl Marx
    D. Boris Yeltsin
    E. John Locke

 

  1. In communist political systems, property is
    A. not a concern of the government.
    B. in private hands and not actively protected by the state.
    C. held privately but protected by government authority.
    D. held by the state in the name of the people.
    E. subject to government seizure at any time.

 

  1. Two nations with deep ties to the principle of communism that have moved in the direction of more private property are
    A. Brazil and Argentina.
    B. Japan and South Korea.
    C. Germany and France.
    D. Russia and China.
    E. South Africa and Ethiopia.

 

  1. Examples of public goods are
    A. social welfare programs.
    B. nonprofit organization programs.
    C. police protection.
    D. education, sanitation, and parks.
    E. the armed forces.

 

  1. Services that benefit all citizens and are not likely to be produced by the voluntary acts of individuals are known as
    A. public goods.
    B. communism.
    C. social welfare.
    D. private benefits.
    E. volunteered materials.

 

  1. Public goods can best be described as benefits and services
    A. provided by a particular segment of society for its own benefit.
    B. provided by government to benefit all citizens.
    C. voluntarily performed by citizens for the benefit of all.
    D. produced by a free-market economic system.
    E. created through public taxation.

 

  1. Who said that the ultimate principle of the state should be, “from each according to his ability, to each according to his needs”?
    A. Thomas Hobbes
    B. Karl Marx
    C. John Locke
    D. Jean Jacques Rousseau
    E. Milton Friedman

 

  1. During the early nineteenth century administration of James Monroe, Americans disagreed whether it was a proper function of government to
    A. provide universal health care.
    B. maintain a navy.
    C. tax private goods.
    D. build interstate roads.
    E. ban abortion.

 

  1. __________ became a major objective of government after industrialization and urbanization.
    A. Freedom
    B. Unity
    C. Order
    D. Relative disparity
    E. Equality

 

  1. Of the following major objectives of government, the most recent one is
    A. providing public goods.
    B. maintaining order.
    C. defending order.
    D. maintaining defense against external enemies.
    E. promoting equality.

 

  1. Government policies aimed at redistributing wealth
    A. are strongly favored by communists.
    B. are still considered a radical idea for most governments.
    C. are associated with the philosopher John Locke.
    D. are generally applauded by people of all ideological persuasions.
    E. are generally associated with libertarianism.

 

  1. An example of a government policy that promotes social equality without redistributing income is
    A. Vermont’s civil unions.
    B. raising the minimum wage.
    C. redefining the welfare eligibility cut-off income.
    D. defense spending.
    E. financial aid determination.

 

  1. The government’s role in redistributing income to promote economic equality has been a major source of debate in the United States ever since
    A. the Constitution.
    B. the Great Depression.
    C. the Civil War.
    D. the 1960s.
    E. World War I.

 

  1. Franklin Roosevelt’s four freedoms included all of the following except
    A. freedom of speech.
    B. freedom from fear.
    C. freedom from inequality.
    D. freedom of religion.
    E. freedom from want.

 

  1. According to the text, the concept of order encompasses
    A. preserving life.
    B. protecting property.
    C. maintaining patterns of social relationships.
    D. Options A, B, and C are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Social order is usually defined as
    A. the degree of equality in society.
    B. the methods by which government enforces its authority.
    C. the pattern of economic ownership.
    D. established patterns of authority and traditional modes of behavior.
    E. mechanisms for disagreement with government.

 

  1. Government’s authority to maintain order is known as its _________ power.
    A. police
    B. residual
    C. implied
    D. absolute
    E. reserved

 

  1. Compared to citizens in other nations, Americans are more likely to
    A. value freedom of speech less than order.
    B. value freedom of speech less than equality of outcome.
    C. value equality of outcome more than order.
    D. value freedom of speech more than order.
    E. value governmental responsiveness less than order.

 

  1. The national government under the U.S. Constitution
    A. does not need to trace its actions to a constitutionally delegated power.
    B. has fewer delegated powers than the state governments.
    C. can only pass laws affecting states, not individual citizens of the states.
    D. lacks a general police power.
    E. can regulate individuals in the name of equality, but not order.

 

  1. After the underwear bomber was thwarted from blowing up an airliner on Christmas Day, 2009, airports began using
    A. armed secret agents on planes.
    B. no fly lists.
    C. full-body scanners to probe through clothing.
    D. only round trip tickets.
    E. bomb sniffing dogs.

 

  1. Each citizen having one vote demonstrates
    A. equality of opportunity.
    B. social equality.
    C. a republic.
    D. mandated freedoms.
    E. political equality.

 

  1. When one person has the same chance to succeed in life as another, this is called
    A. equality of outcome.
    B. political equality.
    C. equality of opportunity.
    D. social order.
    E. equality of results.

 

  1. The notion that American public schools are open to all, is an example of
    A. affirmative action.
    B. social equality.
    C. equality of outcome.
    D. equality of opportunity.
    E. political equality.

 

  1. If universities increase funding for women’s sports so that they receive comparable funding to men’s, that is an example of
    A. equality of outcome.
    B. equality of opportunity.
    C. equal protection under the law.
    D. social equality.
    E. economic fairness.

 

  1. Equality of outcome is often said to be similar to the concept of
    A. civil liberties.
    B. “freedom of.”
    C. government-supported rights.
    D. social order.
    E. political equality.

 

  1. Government’s “original dilemma” is how best to balance
    A. order and equality.
    B. equality and freedom.
    C. freedom and order.
    D. equality of opportunity and equality of outcome.
    E. chaos and structure.

 

  1. Who said that to devise a proper government is “to find a form of association which will defend and protect with the whole common force the person and goods of each associate, and in which each, while uniting himself with all, may still obey himself alone, and remain free as before”?
    A. Thomas Hobbes
    B. Karl Marx
    C. Kofi Annan
    D. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
    E. Joseph Kahn

 

  1. Communist regimes that gave their police great powers to arrest and imprison suspicious people raised a conflict between
    A. equality of opportunity and equality of outcome.
    B. freedom and order.
    C. order and equality.
    D. freedom and equality.
    E. public and private interests.

 

  1. An underlying assumption of the text is that perfect freedom, order, and equality can never be achieved because
    A. no government structure is perfectly designed.
    B. some political officials will always be corrupt or incompetent.
    C. these two values are inherently in conflict and cannot be provided simultaneously.
    D. these three terms refer essentially to the same thing.
    E. upper-class citizens do not want parity with lower-class citizens.

 

  1. With the collapse of Communism came the end of strict social order, and respondents of a 2009 survey in nine former Communist countries in Eastern Europe said that __________ were among their top national problems.
    A. too much police power
    B. a capitalist economic system
    C. allowing more freedom
    D. restricting individual freedom
    E. crime and illegal drugs

 

  1. In a 2011 national survey, _________ of Americans said they were “afraid to walk alone at night” in areas within a mile of their home.
    A. about 10 percent
    B. about 25 percent
    C. about 40 percent
    D. about 50 percent
    E. about 75 percent

 

  1. During the 1990s, Congress prohibited private businesses from discriminating in employment, public services, and public accommodations on the basis of physical or mental disabilities. This act creates a clash between
    A. freedom and order.
    B. equality and order.
    C. liberty and justice.
    D. freedom and equality.
    E. equal opportunity and equal outcomes.

 

  1. Compared with people in other Western countries, Americans are _________ to choose equality over freedom.
    A. more likely
    B. less likely
    C. about equally likely
    D. very unlikely
    E. unable

 

  1. A consistent set of values and beliefs about the proper purpose and scope of government is a(n)
    A. political ideology.
    B. public good.
    C. original dilemma.
    D. system of government.
    E. political attitude.

 

  1. In a totalitarian regime, there is a general desire for the government to control
    A. business.
    B. labor.
    C. education.
    D. religion.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. An example of a totalitarian government is the government of
    A. Canada.
    B. Brazil.
    C. the Soviet Union under Stalin.
    D. Ghana.
    E. India.

 

  1. Using a one-dimensional model, arranged from the most government to the least government, which of the following is the correct ordering of political theories?
    A. Anarchism, libertarianism, liberalism, totalitarianism
    B. Socialism, totalitarianism, anarchism, libertarianism
    C. Totalitarianism, socialism, libertarianism, anarchism
    D. Libertarianism, anarchism, totalitarianism, socialism
    E. Socialism, libertarianism, anarchism, totalitarianism

 

  1. Which of the following philosophers is usually associated with socialism?
    A. Karl Marx
    B. Montesquieu
    C. John Locke
    D. Milton Friedman
    E. Albert Einstein

 

  1. A person who favors government ownership of some basic industries and a strong government role in directing the economy would best be labeled a
    A. socialist.
    B. capitalist.
    C. totalitarian.
    D. libertarian.
    E. moderate.

 

  1. Western Europe’s experience with democratic socialism demonstrates that
    A. government control of the economy is incompatible with freedom and participation.
    B. socialism and freedom can be combined in theory but not in practice.
    C. socialism can be practiced along with personal freedoms and democratic participation.
    D. socialism can exist only where it is imposed by military force.
    E. equality of opportunity cannot be realized.

 

  1. A good contemporary example of a socialist government is found in
    A. Austria.
    B. Sweden.
    C. the United States.
    D. Brazil.
    E. Iraq.

 

  1. Capitalism is best described as a(n)
    A. economic system in which the means of production are owned by the state.
    B. system that guarantees rights of speech and political participation.
    C. system in which the use of property is controlled by majority will.
    D. economic system in which production and property are privately owned, with a minimum of government interference.
    E. good idea in theory but not practically applicable.

 

  1. The economist who argued that free enterprise is a necessary condition for democracy is
    A. Karl Marx.
    B. Milton Friedman.
    C. Lord Keynes.
    D. Options A, B, and C are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Although the United States is a capitalist country, the government does intervene in the economic arena, primarily through
    A. central planning for industry.
    B. ensuring equal access to wealth.
    C. government ownership of some key industries.
    D. controlling public access to goods and services.
    E. regulating private businesses.

 

  1. In general, libertarianism
    A. opposes all government action except that which protects life and property.
    B. supports government action to protect public morals.
    C. supports a strong government role in the economy.
    D. encourages government-initiated programs to help the needy.
    E. seeks to destroy inequities in government programs.

 

  1. A libertarian is likely to believe
    A. laws should not define the minimum drinking age.
    B. marijuana should not be criminalized.
    C. helping the needy should be a matter of individual choice.
    D. government should not own and control industry.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. The New Hampshire state motto, “Live Free or Die,” under a two-dimensional model of ideology, is best represented by the views of
    A. communitarians.
    B. liberals.
    C. libertarians.
    D. conservatives.
    E. socialists.

 

  1. According to your text, the difference between libertarianism and John Locke-inspired liberalism is
    A. libertarianism has come to mean something closer to generous.
    B. liberalism is focused on equality of outcome, while libertarianism focuses on social equality.
    C. liberalism rejects the need for public goods.
    D. libertarianism puts a greater emphasis on individual freedom.
    E. diminishing over time and the two terms now largely mean the same thing.

 

  1. A government pursuing laissez-faire policies would
    A. regulate economic competition to ensure basic fairness.
    B. promote fairness for the least-advantaged members of society.
    C. take a hands-off attitude toward the economy.
    D. regulate the economy in the interest of efficiency and equality.
    E. write new legislation creating requirements for businesses.

 

  1. Anarchists have gained some visibility in recent years as a result of protests related to
    A. the United Nations.
    B. NATO.
    C. the World Trade Organization.
    D. NAFTA.
    E. Both options A and B are true.

 

  1. In 2012, more than 150 people ran for Congress as candidates of the Libertarian Party and
    A. 20 won.
    B. 10 won.
    C. 5 won.
    D. 2 won.
    E. no one won.

 

  1. Conservatives strongly favor
    A. firm police action and swift punishment for criminals.
    B. traditional patterns of social relations.
    C. less government regulation of business.
    D. Options A, B, and C are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Liberals are more likely to favor generous government support for
    A. education.
    B. housing.
    C. public transportation.
    D. a whole range of social programs.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Using a two-dimensional model of political ideology, conservatives are more likely to support
    A. freedom over order and equality over freedom.
    B. order over freedom and equality over freedom.
    C. equality over order and equality over freedom.
    D. order over equality and equality over freedom.
    E. order over freedom and freedom over equality.

 

  1. An American who supports the creation of election districts that are likely to vote for minority candidates for public office, but wants more restrictions on business owners’ hiring decisions, is likely to be a
    A. libertarian.
    B. conservative.
    C. liberal.
    D. totalitarian.
    E. capitalist.

 

  1. School uniforms are sometimes held up as policies that promote both equality and order more than freedom; equality because they minimize differences in income, and order because they minimize conflicts and distractions. In this way, school uniforms might be especially favored by
    A. liberals.
    B. libertarians.
    C. conservatives.
    D. communitarians.
    E. capitalists.

 

  1. In order to understand political ideology, we must look at both the scope of governmental action and
    A. the size of the republic.
    B. its purpose.
    C. its relation to other governments.
    D. related bureaucracies.
    E. elite attitudes.

 

  1. __________ value both equality and order more than freedom, and its members support both affirmative action and laws that restrict pornography.
    A. Communists
    B. Libertarians
    C. Socialists
    D. Communitarians
    E. Capitalists

 

  1. People often seem inconsistent in their political beliefs because
    A. they refuse to think about politics because it is too boring.
    B. they tend to think Communism is a better system, and so recognize the inconsistency of the current system.
    C. politics generally is not a valid topic of discussion for most people.
    D. they may favor government action to promote one value but not another.
    E. of their general lack of political knowledge.

 

  1. Explain why differences between state Constitutions and the U.S. Constitution made it more controversial for the national government to require all citizens to buy health insurance.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the tension between globalization and national sovereignty. Give an example of how the United States has been affected by globalization.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Summarize the views of Thomas Hobbes with respect to the state of nature and the purpose and role of government.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the views of John Locke and Karl Marx with respect to property and the role of government.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain what Franklin Roosevelt referred to as the “four freedoms.”

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain why a libertarian would support two of Franklin Roosevelt’s four freedoms, but might oppose the other two.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss how the crisis over AIDS has added new twists to the dilemma of freedom versus order.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Provide some examples of how Congress, the courts, and state legislatures have attempted to promote equality since the 1960s.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between socialism and totalitarianism.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between the ideologies of liberals and libertarians.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain in turn how a liberal, a libertarian, a conservative and a communitarian would respond to a government program used to promote traditional moral values.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss why contemporary political ideologies can be better explained by analyzing them on two dimensions rather than one.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the political views of communitarians.

 

  1. The 2007 European Reform Treaty did all but
    A. plan for an EU president.
    B. create a diplomatic service under a single foreign-affairs head.
    C. create a centralized debt-refinancing agency for indebted countries.
    D. drop state-like symbols and terminology.
    E. reduce the number of areas requiring unanimity among member nations.

 

  1. By 2012, members of the European Union (EU) agreed to greater central authority over their respective economies, with the exception of
    A. Sweden.
    B. France.
    C. Germany.
    D. Great Britain.
    E. Italy.

 

  1. The U.S. Constitution contains about _________ words.
    A. 4,300
    B. 11,500
    C. 17,500
    D. 36,000
    E. 52,000

 

  1. A major event that led to greater British taxation of American colonies was
    A. the Feudalism Act.
    B. the increased success of cotton as an American export.
    C. the growth of the American slave trade.
    D. the increased industrialization of the Northern colonies.
    E. the Seven Years’ War.

 

  1. The Daughters of Liberty opposed British rule by
    A. organizing large public protest marches.
    B. dumping tea into Boston Harbor.
    C. refusing to marry, date, or associate with British loyalists.
    D. engaging in violent guerilla actions.
    E. spinning their own cloth and using colonial products rather than buying imported British products.

 

  1. The American colonists’ first claims to the rights of “life, liberty and property” date back to the
    A. Mayflower Compact.
    B. Fundamental Orders of Connecticut.
    C. First Continental Congress.
    D. Second Continental Congress.
    E. Declaration of Independence.

 

  1. The Declaration of Independence was based on input from many people, but its primary author was
    A. James Madison.
    B. John Quincy Adams.
    C. Benjamin Franklin.
    D. George Washington.
    E. Thomas Jefferson.

 

  1. The idea that the people agree to establish rulers for certain purposes, but they have the right to resist or remove rulers who violate those purposes, is also known as
    A. socialism.
    B. social contract theory.
    C. republicanism.
    D. the revolutionary right.
    E. confederalism.

 

  1. In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson’s statement that “all men are created equal” is similar to which theorist’s belief that government is based on the “consent of the governed”?
    A. James Madison
    B. John Adams
    C. John Hancock
    D. Joseph Ellis
    E. John Locke

 

  1. Which document proclaimed, “We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights”?
    A. Locke’s Second Treatise of Government
    B. The Treaty of Lisbon
    C. The Declaration of Independence
    D. The Articles of Confederation
    E. The Constitution

 

  1. The “unalienable rights” identified by the Declaration of Independence are
    A. life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.
    B. freedom of speech, press, and assembly.
    C. life, liberty, and property ownership.
    D. the right to own property and bear arms to protect it.
    E. equality, liberty, and equal protection.

 

  1. The original draft of the Declaration of Independence
    A. did not mention slavery.
    B. condemned slavery but did not call for its end.
    C. specified that slaves did not count as human beings.
    D. called for the end of slavery everywhere.
    E. condemned the king’s support of the slave trade.

 

  1. A result of the Second Continental Congress was
    A. the adoption of the Declaration of Independence.
    B. a plan for the Boston Tea Party.
    C. a brief reconciliation with Britain.
    D. the decision to create thirteen colonies.
    E. increases in colonial taxes paid to England.

 

  1. The punishment for losing the Revolutionary War, for the signers of the Declaration, would have been
    A. death by firing squad.
    B. hanging and drawing and quartering.
    C. exile.
    D. drowning at sea.
    E. crucifixion.

 

  1. A greater percentage of the United States population died or was wounded during the Revolution than in any other U.S. conflict except
    A. the Seven Years’ War.
    B. the War of 1812.
    C. the Civil War.
    D. World War II.
    E. the Vietnam War.

 

  1. An estimated _________ American colonists remained loyal to the British Crown.
    A. one-half of
    B. one in three
    C. one in five
    D. one in ten
    E. one in twenty

 

  1. Which of the following factors contributed to the British loss during the Revolution?
    A. America was too large a country to subdue without total military rule.
    B. Britain had to transport men and supplies across the Atlantic.
    C. The American colonists received vital aid from Germany.
    D. Options A and B are true.
    E. Options A, B, and C are true.

 

  1. A republic is a government
    A. resting on the consent of the governed through their representatives.
    B. based on majority law.
    C. ruled by two political parties.
    D. ruled by a monarch.
    E. divided by two opposing cultures but ruled by one ruler.

 

  1. A confederation can best be described as
    A. a loose association of independent states.
    B. a government without a monarch.
    C. a government ruled by a dictator.
    D. a form of socialism.
    E. smaller units of government controlled by a larger government unit.

 

  1. Which document proclaimed, “Each state retains its sovereignty, freedom, and independence, and every power, jurisdiction, and right, which is not ¼ expressly delegated to the United States”?
    A. John Locke’s Second Treatise of Government
    B. The Treaty of Lisbon
    C. The Declaration of Independence
    D. The Articles of Confederation
    E. The Constitution

 

  1. To amend the Articles of Confederation required a
    A. majority vote.
    B. three-fifths vote.
    C. two-thirds vote.
    D. three-fourths vote.
    E. unanimous vote.

 

  1. TheArticles of Confederation failed because
    A. they did not provide an effective means for the government to raise money.
    B. they did not include an independent leader to direct the government.
    C. they did not give the government the power to regulate commerce.
    D. Options A, B, and C are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Shays’s Rebellion consisted of
    A. Massachusetts residents protesting New Hampshire’s import tax on their state’s products.
    B. farmers trying to prevent foreclosure on their property for debts and taxes owed.
    C. Massachusetts residents protesting the national government’s tax on liquor.
    D. Bostonians throwing British tea into Boston Harbor.
    E. tobacco farmers protesting tariffs on their crops.

 

  1. Shays’s Rebellion indicated the
    A. urgent need to maintain domestic order.
    B. unpopularity of the new national taxes.
    C. inability of the British to maintain a border presence.
    D. continuing threat to the United States from the Native Americans.
    E. ongoing religious conflicts between American Protestants and Catholics.

 

  1. Originally, the Constitutional Convention’s purpose was to
    A. eliminate the power of the Second Continental Congress.
    B. overturn articles amended by the Second Continental Congress.
    C. revise the Articles of Confederation.
    D. file a formal tax protest with England.
    E. adopt a new constitution.

 

  1. Which state legislature sent no delegates to the Constitutional Convention?
    A. Delaware
    B. Massachusetts
    C. Georgia
    D. South Carolina
    E. Rhode Island

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the framers of the Constitution is correct?
    A. One hundred delegates were present at some point during the Convention.
    B. They possessed only an average level of education.
    C. They lacked much practical political experience.
    D. They believed “experience must be our only guide, reason may mislead us.”
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. A group of delegates to the Constitutional Convention proposed a powerful national government to replace the weak confederation of states. This was known as the
    A. Marshall Plan.
    B. Virginia Plan.
    C. New Jersey Plan.
    D. Connecticut Compromise.
    E. Grand Compromise.

 

  1. A key component of the Virginia Plan was
    A. equal legislative representation for all states.
    B. that essential powers would be kept within the states.
    C. a strong national legislature.
    D. an executive who would have absolute veto power over legislative actions.
    E. strong states’ rights.

 

  1. One similarity between the Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan was that both plans
    A. provided for a legislature with two houses.
    B. based representation on state population.
    C. specified the creation of a system of national courts.
    D. left unspecified how many people the executive might have.
    E. gave the executive the right to veto legislation.

 

  1. According to the New Jersey Plan, how was representation to be structured in Congress?
    A. There would be population-based representation in both houses.
    B. There would be one house, and representation in it would be based on population.
    C. States would have equal representation in one house and population-based representation in the other.
    D. There would be one house, and all states would have equal representation in it.
    E. Representation was to be based on the three-fifths compromise.

 

  1. The Great Compromise provided for
    A. a two-chamber legislature with equal representation for all states.
    B. a two-chamber legislature with equal representation for all states in one chamber and population-based representation in the other.
    C. a one-chamber legislature with representation based on population.
    D. a two-chamber legislature with representation based on population.
    E. upper-house members elected separately from lower-house members.

 

  1. The original procedure for selecting the vice president, under the electoral college, was
    A. the vice president would be selected by the Senate.
    B. the vice president would be selected by the House.
    C. the candidate with the next-greatest number of votes would become vice president.
    D. the president would select a vice president after being elected.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Republicanism is a form of government in which power
    A. is divided between the state and national levels.
    B. is concentrated in one political party.
    C. is divided among three branches.
    D. is separated between some elected and some appointed government officials.
    E. resides in the people and is exercised by their elected representatives.

 

  1. The idea of republicanism may be traced to the philosopher
    A. Socrates.
    B. Plato.
    C. Aristotle.
    D. Heraclitus.
    E. Zeno.

 

  1. Federalism, or the division of power between a national government and regional units, stands in contrast to
    A. pluralism.
    B. unitary government.
    C. republican government.
    D. autocratic government.
    E. majoritarian government.

 

  1. Under separation of powers, the U.S. system keeps power among branches balanced by enabling one branch to counter the actions of another by the use of
    A. federalism.
    B. republicanism.
    C. authority.
    D. economic manipulation.
    E. checks and balances.

 

  1. The power of the president to veto laws is an example of
    A. federalism.
    B. implied powers.
    C. checks and balances.
    D. separation of powers.
    E. enumeration.

 

  1. The assignment in the Constitution of lawmaking, law-enforcing, and law-interpreting functions to the legislative, executive, and judicial branches respectively is known as
    A. judicial review.
    B. direct democracy.
    C. inherent powers.
    D. a separation of powers.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Article I of the Constitution refers to the
    A. Preamble.
    B. legislative branch.
    C. executive branch.
    D. judicial branch.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The power of Congress to charter a bank is an example of what type of power?
    A. Inherent
    B. Implied
    C. Derived
    D. Reserved
    E. Enumerated

 

  1. A constitutional clause that allows for a broad interpretation of implied powers is known as a(n) __________ clause.
    A. earmark
    B. reciprocal
    C. rudimentary
    D. elastic
    E. ornate

 

  1. Congress exercises a potential check on the judicial branch through its constitutional power to
    A. create or eliminate lower federal courts.
    B. appoint federal judges.
    C. remove federal judges that declare acts of Congress unconstitutional.
    D. eliminate the U.S. Supreme Court.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a power granted to the president under the Constitution?
    A. The power to make treaties
    B. The power to appoint government officers, diplomats and judges
    C. The power to declare war
    D. The power to veto
    E. The power to convene Congress

 

  1. If a state’s drinking laws allowed eighteen-year-olds to drink alcoholic beverages in violation of the federal government’s age requirement of twenty-one, the federal government’s age restriction would supersede the state’s law based upon the
    A. hold harmless clause.
    B. elastic clause.
    C. establishment clause.
    D. implied law clause.
    E. supremacy clause.

 

  1. Unless they are impeached, federal judges serve
    A. for two years.
    B. for ten years.
    C. for twenty years.
    D. for life.
    E. on the grace of the executive.

 

  1. The text of the Constitution deals with slavery by
    A. prohibiting it after 1807.
    B. abolishing it.
    C. requiring the individual states to decide the issue for themselves.
    D. not mentioning it directly.
    E. making each state responsible for its own policy.

 

  1. According to the first national census, in 1790, about _________ of the American population lived in slavery.
    A. 2 percent
    B. 9 percent
    C. 18 percent
    D. 25 percent
    E. 35 percent

 

  1. The three-fifths formula that was used in regard to representation in the House
    A. left the South with a majority of seats in that chamber.
    B. was adopted as the result of a 7–6 vote.
    C. was a compromise first suggested by John C. Calhoun.
    D. was created by the Committee on Detail in Philadelphia.
    E. had been used in 1783 under the Articles to allocate government costs among the states.

 

  1. Under the Constitution, the slave trade
    A. was banned.
    B. was guaranteed only for Southern states.
    C. could be ended after twenty years.
    D. was not mentioned.
    E. was initially condemned, but this language was removed to win support from Southern delegates to the Convention.

 

  1. Supporters of the Constitutionnamed themselves
    A. Republicans.
    B. Democrats.
    C. Sons of Liberty.
    D. Antifederalists.
    E. Federalists.

 

  1. Before it could take effect, the Constitution had to be ratified by __________ states.
    A. 13
    B. 8
    C. 10
    D. 9
    E. 5

 

  1. The Federalist papers were written by
    A. Alexander Hamilton.
    B. John Jay.
    C. John Adams.
    D. James Madison.
    E. Options A, B, and D are true.

 

  1. The primary contribution of the Federalist papers is
    A. they serve as the collective writings of theorists.
    B. to assert independence from England.
    C. their insights into the roots of the American Revolution.
    D. their ideas supporting the Bill of Rights.
    E. their insight into the reasons for constitutional provisions.

 

  1. Antifederalists attacked the proposed Constitutionon the grounds that
    A. it was not democratic enough.
    B. the national government it created was too weak.
    C. the national government it created was too strong.
    D. it created an independent judiciary.
    E. it created too many enumerated powers for the states.

 

  1. The primary goal of Federalist No. 10 was to demonstrate that the new government
    A. would not fall under the dominance of any one faction.
    B. would, if unopposed, become a tyranny.
    C. would eventually overwhelm the states.
    D. would honor the Bill of Rights.
    E. could be abolished if England chose to ignore it.

 

  1. The chief obstacle to ratification of the Constitutionby the states was
    A. the power it granted to tax.
    B. the omission of a bill of rights.
    C. its failure to abolish slavery.
    D. the lack of court structure below the Supreme Court.
    E. inclusion of the plural executive.

 

  1. According to Madison in Federalist No.10, the most common and durable source of factions has been
    A. religious disputes.
    B. monarchy.
    C. slavery.
    D. democracy.
    E. unequal distribution of property.

 

  1. The main argument against the need for a bill of rights was that
    A. the national government would be weakened if limits on its powers were listed.
    B. states could use the power of nullification if national laws violated individual liberties.
    C. the Constitution established a government of limited powers; because the government was not given the power to regulate individual liberties, no bill of rights was necessary.
    D. the states could easily withdraw from the Union if the national government violated individual liberties.
    E. the design of the institutions of government would preclude them from abusing rights anyway.

 

  1. TheBill of Rights consists of the first __________ amendments to the Constitution.
    A. five
    B. ten
    C. fifteen
    D. twenty
    E. twenty-two

 

  1. The _________ Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures.
    A. First
    B. Second
    C. Fourth
    D. Eighth
    E. Thirteenth

 

  1. The _________  protects against excessive bail, excessive fines, and cruel and unusual punishment.
    A. First Amendment
    B. Second Amendment
    C. Fourth Amendment
    D. Eighth Amendment
    E. Thirteenth Amendment

 

  1. The constitutional amendment process requires
    A. the exercise of judicial review.
    B. extraordinary majorities.
    C. a simple majority.
    D. the exercise of executive privilege.
    E. unanimity in the proposal phase.

 

  1. Including the Bill of Rights, __________ amendments have been added to the Constitution.
    A. ten
    B. nineteen
    C. seventeen
    D. fifty-four
    E. twenty-seven

 

  1. Which amendment does the text categorize as “disastrous”?
    A. First Amendment
    B. Tenth Amendment
    C. Fifteenth Amendment
    D. Eighteenth Amendment
    E. Nineteenth Amendment

 

  1. The __________, which prevents members of Congress from voting themselves immediate pay increases, was submitted to the states in 1789, but was not ratified until 1992.
    A. Sixteenth Amendment
    B. Twenty-first Amendment
    C. Twenty-third Amendment
    D. Twenty-seventh Amendment
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The Supreme Court first declared that the courts have the power to overturn government acts that conflict with the Constitution in
    A. Marbury v. Madison.
    B. Hamilton v. Burr.
    C. Hammer v. Dagenhart.
    D. Barron v. Baltimore.
    E. McCulloch v. Maryland.

 

  1. The key principle argued in the case Marbury v. Madison was
    A. national supremacy.
    B. slavery.
    C. the application of the necessary and proper clause.
    D. judicial review.
    E. the application of the elastic clause to the federal government.

 

  1. __________was heard from some 20,000 protesters, many of them women, in October of 1932 as they demanded repeal of the Eighteenth Amendment.
    A. “Stop the war”
    B. “No taxation without representation”
    C. “Let women vote”
    D. “We want beer”
    E. “Impeach Hoover”

 

  1. The framers of the Constitutionintended _________ to be the strongest branch(es) of government.
    A. the executive branch
    B. the judiciary branch
    C. Congress
    D. the executive and the judiciary branches
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. When compared with the U.S. Constitution,most American state constitutions
    A. are longer and more detailed.
    B. are shorter and less specific.
    C. have been amended less frequently.
    D. vary greatly in text and subjects.
    E. provide more enumerated protections.

 

  1. After the Constitutionwas amended to permit the federal government to levy a progressive income tax, government could more effectively further the goal of
    A. social order.
    B. social equality.
    C. economic freedom.
    D. minority rights.
    E. redistribution.

 

  1. The _________  guarantees that citizens’ right to vote cannot be denied “on account of sex.”
    A. Thirteenth Amendment
    B. Fifteenth Amendment
    C. Nineteenth Amendment
    D. Twenty-sixth Amendment
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The _________ guaranteed citizenship to all persons, including blacks.
    A. Thirteenth Amendment
    B. Fourteenth Amendment
    C. Nineteenth Amendment
    D. Twenty-sixth Amendment
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. According to the text, “it is hard to imagine a government framework better suited [than the Constitution] to __________.”
    A. the majoritarian model
    B. the pluralist model
    C. procedural theory
    D. substantive theory
    E. republican theory

 

  1. Compare and contrast the work and challenges facing the founding fathers at the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia and the creators of the European Union over two centuries later.

 

 

  1. In the United States, the death penalty
    A. is rarely supported by a large number of citizens that are polled.
    B. occasionally receives moderate support in public opinion polls.
    C. consistently receives moderate support in public opinion polls.
    D. consistently receives high levels of support in public opinion polls.
    E. is not supported or opposed in a manner that allows for intelligent generalization.

 

  1. According to the text, all of the following events increased support for the death penalty except
    A. World War I.
    B. World War II.
    C. fears of Soviet communism.
    D. the Vietnam War.
    E. an increase in the nation’s homicide rate.

 

  1. When the Supreme Court declared state application of the death penalty unconstitutional in 1972,
    A. many states abolished that form of punishment.
    B. most states rewrote their laws to adjust to the Court’s specific concerns.
    C. every state abolished that form of punishment.
    D. the decision disallowed that form of punishment from that point forward.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. As public approval of the death penalty increased, in 1976 the Supreme Court
    A. ruled unanimously that the death penalty was unconstitutional.
    B. ruled 5–4 that the death penalty was unconstitutional.
    C. overturned its previous decision restricting the states’ use of the death penalty.
    D. banned the use of the death penalty for minors.
    E. did not take on any new cases about the death penalty.

 

  1. There have been over _________ executions in the United States since the Supreme Court’s critical rulings in the 1970s.
    A. 1,100
    B. 2,000
    C. 3,000
    D. 5,000
    E. 7,000

 

  1. Who is likely to oppose the death penalty?
    A. Democrats
    B. African Americans
    C. Liberals
    D. Republicans
    E. Options A, B, and C are true.

 

  1. The only state that still permits the firing squad as a possible form of execution is
    A. Texas.
    B. North Dakota.
    C. Georgia.
    D. Oklahoma.
    E. Pennsylvania.

 

  1. The basic definition of public opinion is
    A. the collective attitudes of citizens on a given issue or question.
    B. the underlying attitude of citizens toward their government.
    C. journalists’ reports about what the public thinks.
    D. support for or opposition to candidates or proposals.
    E. polling and survey results of the population.

 

  1. Survey methodology did not become a powerful research tool until the
    A. 1930s.
    B. 1950s.
    C. 1970s.
    D. 1980s.
    E. 1990s.

 

  1. The Framers guessed that the __________ would reflect public opinion, especially on the crucial issues of taxes and government spending.
    A. president
    B. Supreme Court
    C. U.S. Senate
    D. House of Representatives
    E. educated classes

 

  1. Although public opinion overwhelmingly favors the death penalty for murder, there were only __________ executions in 2010 despite the fact that over sixteen thousand murders occurred that year.
    A. three
    B. sixteen
    C. forty-six
    D. twenty-five
    E. thirty-six

 

  1. Every western European country has banned capital punishment except
    A. France.
    B. Germany.
    C. Italy.
    D. Spain.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Which of the following statements reflects the role public opinion should play according to the majoritarian model of democracy?
    A. Public opinion should play a much smaller role than it would play in the pluralist model.
    B. Groups with different opinions should be allowed to clash openly over government policy.
    C. Public opinion is less important than the opinions of experts.
    D. Government should do what a majority of the public wants.
    E. A majority of the public is ill-informed on the issues, which means the role of public opinion should be increased.

 

  1. Polls show that 70 percent of Americans __________ when it comes to the role of public opinion in democratic government.
    A. prefer the majoritarian model to the pluralist model
    B. prefer the pluralist model to the majoritarian model
    C. want an even mix of the majoritarian model and the pluralist model
    D. do not favor either the majoritarian or the pluralist model
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The goal of the statistical theory of sampling is
    A. to match the sampler’s views with a public response.
    B. to obtain the view of every individual in the population.
    C. to account for wide variances in public opinion on controversial issues.
    D. to obtain a large enough sample size to avoid bias.
    E. to reflect the views of the population with some predictable degree of accuracy.

 

  1. Today, the mass media conduct most polls by
    A. face-to-face interviews.
    B. telephone.
    C. mail surveys.
    D. the Internet.
    E. Options C and D are true.

 

  1. The accuracy of the population sample used for public opinion polls depends on
    A. whether telephoning or direct contact is used to draw the sample.
    B. the care with which questions are written and asked.
    C. whether computers are used to draw the sample.
    D. the factors of believability and reliability.
    E. randomness of selection, size of sample, and variation in the population.

 

  1. A sample of four hundred randomly selected individuals is usually accurate to (plus or minus)
    A. two percentage points.
    B. four percentage points.
    C. six percentage points.
    D. eight percentage points.
    E. ten percentage points.

 

  1. Public opinion polls can be criticized on the grounds that
    A. a survey of a few thousand people cannot possibly yield an accurate picture of American attitudes.
    B. there is clear evidence that polling organizations falsify results.
    C. politicians pay no attention to poll results.
    D. the way a pollster words a question can determine the answer.
    E. the entities that finance administration of the poll skew results for a certain desired outcome.

 

  1. One critique that pluralists make of the public as a whole is that
    A. subgroups within the public do not express opinions on specific matters.
    B. the public simplifies complex issues into too-neat, easy solutions.
    C. the public tends to overwhelmingly focus on a handful of policy issues and ignore the rest.
    D. the public seldom demonstrates clear, consistent opinions on daily issues of government.
    E. public opinion has moved increasingly against minority rights in recent decades.

 

  1. One of the nation’s oldest polls, the __________, was started in the 1930s, and was most notably wrong in 1948 when it predicted that Thomas Dewey, the Republican candidate, would defeat the Democratic incumbent, Harry Truman in the presidential election.
    A. Harris Poll
    B. Zogby Poll
    C. Field Poll
    D. CBS Poll
    E. Gallup Poll

 

  1. When sampled, the public strongly favors the death penalty for certain crimes. The graph of such a distribution would be characterized as
    A. stable.
    B. skewed.
    C. expected.
    D. extremist.
    E. biased.

 

  1. A polling company surveying public opinion on Obama’s health-care plan finds public opinion to be almost evenly divided. The graph of such a distribution would be characterized as
    A. normal.
    B. skewed.
    C. reversed.
    D. modal.
    E. bimodal.

 

  1. When plotted on a graph, data on public opinion regarding whether homosexuals should be allowed to adopt children is a(n)
    A. normal distribution.
    B. skewed distribution.
    C. bimodal distribution.
    D. unstable distribution.
    E. reliable distribution.

 

  1. A symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution around a single mode is called a
    A. stable distribution.
    B. normal distribution.
    C. skewed distribution.
    D. bimodal distribution.
    E. modality.

 

  1. When Americans are asked to identify themselves on left-right ideological scales (“liberal,” “moderate,” or “conservative”), the data plotted on a graph is a(n)
    A. normal distribution.
    B. skewed distribution.
    C. bimodal distribution.
    D. unstable distribution.
    E. reliable distribution.

 

  1. The most frequent response (such as “I favor”) in a public opinion distribution is known as the
    A. norm.
    B. skew.
    C. mode.
    D. tail.
    E. stable point.

 

  1. Since the early 1990s, the ideological distribution of the public has become
    A. somewhat more moderate.
    B. skewed toward liberalism.
    C. skewed toward conservatism.
    D. more bimodal.
    E. more normal.

 

  1. __________ have (has) experienced a significant ideological shift in the past 30 years.
    A. African Americans
    B. The elderly
    C. The general public
    D. Latinos
    E. College students

 

  1. Today, college students are much more __________ than the general public.
    A. conservative
    B. moderate
    C. liberal
    D. alienated
    E. Republican

 

  1. The process whereby one becomes aware of politics, learns political facts, and forms political values is called
    A. political norming.
    B. ideological awakening.
    C. political coming-of-age.
    D. systems building.
    E. political socialization.

 

  1. The extent to which any socializing agent is influential depends on
    A. repetitive behavior.
    B. whether or not a person is familiar with the concept before hearing it.
    C. the economic influence of the agent.
    D. whether the family favorably supports the agent.
    E. prolonged exposure to and good communication with the agent, as well as being receptive.

 

  1. Generally, the first agent of political socialization that people are exposed to is
    A. school.
    B. their peers.
    C. family.
    D. television.
    E. the Internet.

 

  1. Children are likely to adopt their parents’ party identification when
    A. parents discuss party politics with children.
    B. parents refrain from forcing their views on children.
    C. at least one parent has worked for a party.
    D. both parents vote regularly.
    E. both parents strongly identify with the same party.

 

  1. Overall, _________ of young American voters identify with the political party of their parents.
    A. ten percent
    B. one quarter
    C. more than half
    D. about three quarters
    E. about ninety percent

 

  1. Young Americans are more reliably socialized into their parents’ religions than their political parties because
    A. most parents care more about their religion than their politics.
    B. religious issues relate more deeply to core emotional concerns of youth.
    C. religious institutions focus more on socialization than do political parties.
    D. parents are more likely to share the same religion than the same political party.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. The major agents of early socialization in the United States are
    A. religion and social class.
    B. family, religion, and political party.
    C. family, school, community, and peers.
    D. school and social class.
    E. economics, television, and the Internet.

 

  1. _________ have (has) as much or more impact on the political socialization of children as do (does) _________.
    A. Schools; family
    B. Television; family
    C. Religion; peers
    D. Family; religion
    E. The Internet; community

 

  1. When elementary schools introduce students to authority figures outside the family, like the teacher, they prepare students for the value of _________; when they stress norms of democratic decision making and respecting the opinions of others, they teach _________.
    A. order; freedom
    B. order; equality
    C. freedom; order
    D. equality; order
    E. equality; freedom

 

  1. The political knowledge of many young adults changes from high school to college if the college student’s education includes
    A. encouragement to reject authority.
    B. exposure to third parties.
    C. a course in constitutional criticism.
    D. questioning established values.
    E. training in traditional values.

 

  1. The first political institution that young children tend to focus on is the
    A. president.
    B. Congress.
    C. Supreme Court.
    D. political party system.
    E. Constitution.

 

  1. Pressure on an individual to conform to community values or views is strongest when
    A. community values are consistent with modern culture.
    B. schools are involved in socialization.
    C. the community is homogeneous.
    D. competing values are present.
    E. corruption in local government occurs.

 

  1. As parental and school influences wane in adulthood, _________ emerge as more important socialization agents.
    A. adult peer groups
    B. political parties
    C. the mass media
    D. the current presidents
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. A respondent who agrees with the statement, “By law, a woman should be able to obtain an abortion as a matter of personal choice” values
    A. equality over order.
    B. freedom over order.
    C. order over equality.
    D. order over freedom.
    E. freedom over equality.

 

  1. In a 2008 election survey, respondents were asked whether abortion should be outlawed by government or a matter of personal choice, and whether government should guarantee people a job and a good standard of living or people should get ahead on their own. People’s responses to the two questions
    A. demonstrated that these value choices cannot be explained by a one-dimensional liberal-conservative continuum.
    B. demonstrated a majority of Americans are liberal.
    C. demonstrated a majority of Americans are conservative.
    D. demonstrated a majority of Americans are apathetic.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. An individual who agrees that by law, abortion should never be permitted and also that government should see to it that every person has a job and a good standard of living, would be a
    A. liberal.
    B. communitarian.
    C. conservative.
    D. libertarian.
    E. anarchist.

 

  1. As a general trend, college-educated individuals are more likely to choose
    A. social order over freedom.
    B. social order over equality.
    C. equality over freedom.
    D. freedom over social order.
    E. equality over social order.

 

  1. A libertarian is most likely to exhibit the characteristics of
    A. low education and high income.
    B. low education and low income.
    C. low income and high education.
    D. high income and high education.
    E. moderate education and moderate income.

 

  1. In the presidential elections since 1968, the South has tended to vote
    A. for Democratic candidates.
    B. for Independent candidates.
    C. for Republican candidates.
    D. for Republican and Independent candidates about equally.
    E. for Democratic and Independent candidates about equally.

 

  1. As a general trend, Americans with less education are more likely to
    A. choose order over equality.
    B. choose freedom over order.
    C. choose equality over order.
    D. choose equality over freedom.
    E. choose freedom over equality.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning Latinos is incorrect?
    A. Latinos are defined as people of Latin American origin.
    B. Latinos are a racial group.
    C. Latinos are projected to be 20 percent of the nation’s population by 2030.
    D. Latinos have lagged behind African Americans in gaining political office.
    E. Latinos favor government restrictions on abortion more than other groups.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning gender and political beliefs is incorrect?
    A. Women are more likely to favor government action to promote equality.
    B. Women are more likely to favor affirmative action.
    C. Men are less likely to favor increased spending on social programs.
    D. Men are more likely to favor the death penalty.
    E. Women are more likely to favor going to war.

 

  1. The set of values and beliefs that a person holds about the purpose and scope of government is called
    A. political ideology.
    B. party identification.
    C. liberalism or conservatism.
    D. political socialization.
    E. communalism.

 

  1. The contemporary political “gender gap” refers to the tendency of women to
    A. identify more with the Democratic Party than men do.
    B. vote less than men do.
    C. favor female candidates for office over male candidates.
    D. pay less attention to politics than men do.
    E. vote more for Republican candidates than men do.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning ideological “moderates” is correct?
    A. Fewer Americans identify as “moderate” than as liberal or conservative.
    B. Moderates tend to have higher than average incomes and education.
    C. Moderates are as likely as liberals and conservatives to correctly identify ideologies.
    D. Many people identify as “moderate” because they do not understand the alternatives.
    E. Options A and B are correct.

 

  1. In the current American context, a liberal would tend to promote
    A. economic equality ahead of freedom, and freedom ahead of social order.
    B. freedom ahead of economic equality, and social order ahead of freedom.
    C. freedom ahead of both economic equality and social order.
    D. both economic equality and social order ahead of freedom.
    E. business and government policy ahead of social order.

 

  1. In the current American context, a communitarian would tend to promote
    A. both order and equality over freedom.
    B. order over freedom and freedom over equality.
    C. freedom over both order and equality.
    D. equality over freedom and freedom over order.
    E. liberty and equality over fairness.

 

  1. Which of the following facts were Americans least likely to know, according to a 2011 survey?
    A. Afghanistan and Pakistan share a border.
    B. Hillary Clinton is the nation’s secretary of state.
    C. The Republicans have a majority in the House of Representatives.
    D. Homicide levels nationwide have been decreasing.
    E. Joseph Biden is the nation’s vice-president.

 

  1. It appears that 24-hour cable news and the Internet have _________ the level of political knowledge of most Americans.
    A. significantly increased
    B. moderately increased
    C. slightly increased
    D. not increased
    E. transformed and magnified

 

  1. Public opinion surveys of eight countries in 2010 found that the United States
    A. was the most likely to call climate change a serious problem.
    B. was the least likely to call climate change a serious problem.
    C. ranked near the middle in terms of concern about climate change.
    D. was second from the top in concern, behind only India.
    E. was second from the bottom in concern, above only China.

 

  1. Mental shortcuts that require hardly any information are called
    A. mind tricks.
    B. satisficing.
    C. heuristics.
    D. paradigms.
    E. None of the above is true.
  1. Public demonstrations by Egyptian women in December of 2011 were waged in order to protest
    A. their inability to vote.
    B. public beatings of women by Egyptian soldiers.
    C. their rights to congregate without men present.
    D. forced virginity tests on female prisoners.
    E. Options B and D are true.

 

  1. All of the following are regarded in the text as examples of unconventional participation except
    A. the 1965 Selma, Alabama civil rights march.
    B. the Boston Tea Party.
    C. the Montgomery bus boycott.
    D. the “occupy” camps in 2011 protesting income inequality.
    E. all of these are examples of unconventional participation.

 

  1. The text defines __________ as the actions of private citizens by which they seek to influence or support government and politics.
    A. direct action
    B. political participation
    C. unconventional participation
    D. conventional participation
    E. conventional behavior

 

  1. Before the collapse of communism, the former Soviet Union did not function as a democracy because
    A. it did not regularly hold elections.
    B. it had no legislature.
    C. it permitted no acts of conventional participation.
    D. there was only one political party.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Which of the following is an unconventional form of political participation?
    A. Voting
    B. Writing letters to public officials
    C. Campaigning for candidates
    D. Displaying campaign posters in front yards
    E. Chanting slogans outside public officials’ windows

 

  1. Which of the following statements about unconventional participation is not true?
    A. It challenges existing government channels or institutions.
    B. It violates principles or beliefs of the dominant culture.
    C. It always involves working outside the rules of democratic politics.
    D. It may be effective for those who have been otherwise excluded from participation in a democratic polity.
    E. It is normally used by nonvoter groups.

 

  1. Although terrorism is an unconventional political action, it is generally not counted as unconventional political participation because
    A. terrorists do not seek to influence government but to destroy it.
    B. the acceptability of terrorism varies from culture to culture.
    C. terrorism uses fear, not persuasion, as its primary tactic.
    D. terrorist acts generally concern international politics, not domestic disputes.
    E. terrorism does not use the established institutions of representative government.

 

  1. Which of the following was the first known act of unconventional participation in America?
    A. The Revolutionary War
    B. The Declaration of Independence
    C. The civil rights marches of the 1960s
    D. Shays’s Rebellion
    E. The Boston Tea Party

 

  1. Political scientists know less about unconventional forms of political participation because
    A. conventional forms have greater impact.
    B. few people consider unconventional forms legitimate.
    C. it is easier to collect data on conventional practices.
    D. they are biased toward institutionalized, or conventional, politics.
    E. Options C and D are true.

 

  1. Direct action includes
    A. a contribution to a campaign.
    B. legislatures passing laws in response to public demands.
    C. increased voter turnout due to negative campaigning.
    D. a citizen’s group appearing before the city council seeking change in an ordinance.
    E. an interest group soliciting members.

 

  1. Some studies show that direct political action appeals most to those who __________ the political system and have a __________ sense of political efficacy.
    A. distrust; strong
    B. trust; weak
    C. trust; strong
    D. distrust; weak
    E. support; keen

 

  1. Americans are less likely to __________ than citizens of other countries.
    A. vote
    B. sign a petition
    C. boycott products
    D. be interested in politics.
    E. join demonstrations

 

  1. Flying the American flag on holidays is an example of __________ behavior.
    A. influencing
    B. contacting
    C. unconventional
    D. supportive
    E. modeling

 

  1. A practical test of whether or not a government is democratic is whether
    A. people can operate outside government institutions to influence policymaking.
    B. citizens can affect its policies by acting through its institutions.
    C. direct action is necessary for government to hear citizens’ views.
    D. conventional political action consists largely of influencing behaviors and not supportive behaviors.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Petitioning a local government council to rebuild a curb in front of your home is a(n)
    A. form of unconventional participation.
    B. form of supportive behavior.
    C. example of seeking particular benefits.
    D. example of seeking broad policy objectives.
    E. method of self-interested political behavior.

 

  1. Studies of Americans who engage in “contacting behavior” like complaining to city hall find
    A. they are not more likely to vote than other Americans.
    B. they tend to be of low socioeconomic status.
    C. they demand more of the national government than of local government.
    D. they are more focused on elected officials representing their views than on providing city services.
    E. they tend to have a lower favorable opinion about government.

 

  1. Americans contributing money to a candidate’s campaign is best defined as a form of
    A. unconventional participation.
    B. supportive behavior.
    C. influencing behavior.
    D. competitive behavior.
    E. elite behavior.

 

  1. A legal action brought by a person or group on behalf of a number of people in similar circumstances is also known as a(n)
    A. class action suit.
    B. initiative.
    C. supportive behavior.
    D. public act.
    E. referendum.

 

  1. Which of the following activities requires the most initiative?
    A. Voting
    B. Running for office
    C. Working on a campaign
    D. Contacting an elected official
    E. Signing a petition

 

  1. The text defines suffrage and franchise as the right to
    A. participate.
    B. speak.
    C. protest.
    D. vote.
    E. rally.

 

  1. Which country was the first to provide for the general election of representatives through mass suffrage?
    A. France
    B. Australia
    C. Canada
    D. Great Britain
    E. United States

 

  1. The framers of the Constitutionleft the issue of voter enfranchisement to
    A. Congress.
    B. the Supreme Court.
    C. the states.
    D. the Federalist papers.
    E. voting districts.

 

  1. Which of the following qualifications for voting was virtually eliminated in all states by the 1850s?
    A. Property ownership
    B. Age
    C. Race
    D. Gender
    E. Literacy requirement

 

  1. The __________ to the Constitutionprohibits states from denying the right to vote “on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.”
    A. Tenth Amendment
    B. Fourteenth Amendment
    C. Fifteenth Amendment
    D. Twenty-second Amendment
    E. Eighteenth Amendment

 

  1. The purpose of the literacy tests that were used in the southern states after 1870 was to
    A. keep schoolteachers employed.
    B. keep illegal aliens from voting.
    C. void illegally-cast ballots.
    D. ensure that only well-informed people voted.
    E. discourage African Americans from voting.

 

  1. In Smith v. Allwright, the Supreme Court found _________ is(are) unconstitutional.
    A. preventing blacks from voting in primary elections
    B. state poll taxes
    C. literacy tests
    D. property requirements for voting
    E. Jim Crow laws

 

  1. Women were first given the right to vote in
    A. New York.
    B. Massachusetts.
    C. Ohio.
    D. Pennsylvania.
    E. Wyoming.

 

  1. The amendment granting women’s suffrage is the
    A. Eighteenth Amendment.
    B. Nineteenth Amendment.
    C. Twentieth Amendment.
    D. Twenty-first Amendment.
    E. Twenty-eighth Amendment.

 

  1. The amendment lowering the voting age to eighteen is the
    A. Eighteenth Amendment.
    B. Nineteenth Amendment.
    C. Twentieth Amendment.
    D. Twenty-sixth Amendment.
    E. Twenty-seventh Amendment.

 

  1. Compared with other nations in the world in granting suffrage to women, the United States
    A. was among the first.
    B. ranked about in the middle.
    C. lagged far behind.
    D. was unique in extending that right without being pressured to do so.
    E. was more selective in which women were extended the right.

 

  1. __________ did not extend the vote on equal terms with men until 1971.
    A. Norway
    B. The Netherlands
    C. Switzerland
    D. Kuwait
    E. Belgium

 

  1. A direct primary is a
    A. direct vote on a proposed law.
    B. preliminary election to choose party candidates.
    C. special election initiated by petition.
    D. procedure by which voters can propose a law to be considered by the legislature.
    E. recorded position on an issue by an interest group.

 

  1. Which statement concerning recall is incorrect?
    A. Twenty-one state governors have been unseated through recall.
    B. They are a direct vote by the people on either a proposed law or an amendment.
    C. Recall elections require petitions signed by a specified number of voters.
    D. Recall can only be used for federal elections.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Most referenda are placed on the ballot by
    A. voters.
    B. governors.
    C. interest groups.
    D. judges.
    E. legislatures.

 

  1. The typical procedure for an initiative requires petitions to feature the signatures of _________ of the number of registered voters in a state.
    A. 5 to 10 percent
    B. 25 to 30 percent
    C. 45 to 50 percent
    D. more than 50 percent
    E. at least 60 percent

 

  1. The _________ states appear to have an affinity for democratic mechanisms such as referenda and initiatives.
    A. southern
    B. southeastern
    C. western
    D. mid-western
    E. north-eastern

 

  1. One recent criticism of referenda and initiatives is that
    A. they create an expensive “industry” designed around circulating petitions and spending millions.
    B. citizens cannot exercise great power over government policy through these mechanisms.
    C. controversial ballot measures tend to lower voter turnout.
    D. voters increasingly tend to reject all ballot measures.
    E. Options B and D are true.

 

  1. At the local level, voters elect about _________ of 15,300 school boards across the nation.
    A. 600
    B. 1,500
    C. 8,500
    D. 11,300
    E. 14,700

 

  1. Although the United States has a much lower voter turnout than do other democracies, Americans may actually work harder at being good citizens because
    A. political parties in the United States demand a high level of activity.
    B. people must pass a test of political knowledge to be eligible to vote in the United States.
    C. many American states still impose a poll tax.
    D. the United States has far more elections than do other countries.
    E. they break fewer laws overall.

 

  1. Voting in the United States decreased during the 1970s and 1980s. Other forms of participation
    A. increased or remained stable.
    B. also decreased.
    C. have not been extensively studied.
    D. rose and fell in no particular pattern.
    E. dramatically increased.

 

  1. The country with the lowest voter turnout among eligible voters in national elections is
    A. Belgium.
    B. Sweden.
    C. Germany.
    D. Spain.
    E. the United States.

 

  1. Characteristics frequently associated with nonvoters are
    A. low education, high income, and being middle-aged.
    B. low education, low income, and being relatively young.
    C. high education, low income, and being relatively old.
    D. low education, low income, and being middle-aged.
    E. low income and general apathy.

 

  1. In general today, women politically participate
    A. less than men.
    B. more than men.
    C. less than men if they are married, but more if they are not.
    D. about the same as men.
    E. There is no consistent pattern across different forms of participation.

 

  1. How does education affect voter turnout?
    A. Well-educated people are more likely to vote than are their less-educated counterparts.
    B. Educated people are less likely to vote than uneducated people because their education makes them more cynical about government.
    C. Educated and uneducated people vote at about the same rates.
    D. Educated people vote more than uneducated people, who are often unable to pass voter literacy tests.
    E. Educated people cast more split ballots on issues.

 

  1. The standard socioeconomic model of participation chiefly refers to
    A. age, race, and education.
    B. gender, ethnicity, and income.
    C. race, income, and religion.
    D. age, education, and political interest.
    E. education, income, and occupation.

 

  1. According to some economic models of rational behavior, voting
    A. is a low-initiative form of participation.
    B. satisfies three psychological motivations.
    C. is a rational means to obtain particularized benefits.
    D. is best pursued by those of low income and education.
    E. rarely has any payoff because one vote rarely decides an election.

 

  1. The effect of the Twenty-sixth Amendment, which enfranchised eighteen-to-twenty-year-olds, was to
    A. boost voter turnout in the United States above that of most other democratic nations.
    B. reduce the national voter turnout rate.
    C. increase the national voter turnout rate.
    D. decrease the percentage of the population that distrusts the American political system.
    E. counter the increasing social mobility of this group.

 

  1. Psychological explanations of turnout suggest that voting will rise if
    A. more Americans believe that government is responsive.
    B. party identification increases among the electorate.
    C. educational levels rise.
    D. a major war begins.
    E. satisfaction with government policies declines.

 

  1. By law, the U.S. presidential election occurs
    A. the last Wednesday in October.
    B. the first Thursday in November.
    C. the last Monday in November.
    D. the second Tuesday in November.
    E. the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November.

 

  1. In nearly every other democratic country, the burden of registration is placed on
    A. the individual voters.
    B. political parties.
    C. community leaders.
    D. the government.
    E. private interest groups.

 

  1. Today, _________ states allow voters to both register and vote on the day of the election.
    A. two
    B. nine
    C. twenty-two
    D. thirty-one
    E. forty-six

 

  1. In Oregon, everyone votes by
    A. telephone.
    B. Internet.
    C. electronic devices.
    D. mail.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. If voter-turnout was computed on the basis of registered voters, about ________ of Americans vote.
    A. 45 percent
    B. 50 percent
    C. 60 percent
    D. 70 percent
    E. 80 percent

 

  1. Most new registrations for voting are done though
    A. mail.
    B. motor-voter provisions.
    C. the Internet.
    D. telephone.
    E. party registration drives.

 

  1. A 2009 study showed that half of all voters are unaware that they can
    A. switch political parties.
    B. vote by mail.
    C. register at motor vehicle offices.
    D. vote for U.S. Senators.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The American emphasis on freedom over equality in political participation works to the benefit of
    A. union members.
    B. the poor.
    C. those with greater resources.
    D. no particular group.
    E. nonvoters.

 

  1. During the Vietnam War, protesting students on college campuses
    A. stopped traffic.
    B. destroyed property.
    C. occupied buildings.
    D. boycotted classes and disrupted lectures.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Congress and the states moved quickly to pass the Twenty-sixth Amendment, which lowered the voting age to eighteen, because they
    A. recognized the justice of the student antiwar and civil rights movements.
    B. knew that student voter turnout would be low.
    C. expected the new voters to change the political balance of power drastically.
    D. hoped to channel student energy away from demonstrations and toward more conventional forms of participation.
    E. realized the unfairness of the discrepancy between the military draft age and the voting age.

 

  1. Which means of political participation serves the ideal of equality better than any other?
    A. Running for office
    B. Contributing to campaigns
    C. Contacting officials
    D. Voting in elections
    E. E-mailing concerns to elected officials

 

  1. Someone who asserts that elections “socialize political activity” is contending that elections are mechanisms that maintain
    A. freedom.
    B. majoritarianism.
    C. equality.
    D. order.
    E. independence.

 

  1. The majoritarian model of democracy favors
    A. both conventional and unconventional forms of participation.
    B. unconventional forms of participation.
    C. resourceful individuals seeking particularized benefits.
    D. better-educated, wealthier citizens.
    E. voting as the primary means of participation.

 

  1. Elections, as an institutional mechanism
    A. have no perceptible effect on policies and actions of governments.
    B. diminish the power and authority of the state.
    C. encourage the citizenry to engage in other kinds of political participation.
    D. bolster the power and authority of the state.
    E. equalize segments of the population.

 

  1. Other than voting, list four specific ways that Americans participate in politics. For each way listed, indicate whether it is a form of conventional or unconventional participation, and why.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain why the 1965 march from Selma, Alabama to Montgomery, Alabama, though an unconventional form of political participation that led to violence, proved beneficial to the Civil Rights movement.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between supportive and influencing behavior, and provide examples of each.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Summarize the expansion of voting rights by describing federal government actions that granted the franchise to those who had been denied suffrage.

 

 

  1. In Great Britain, a key difference in the general elections as compared to the United States is that
    A. British voters are asked to choose candidates for more offices more frequently.
    B. the campaign period is fixed and short.
    C. British political parties can prepare for the election far in advance.
    D. the British vote directly for the Prime Minister.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Unlike in the United States, in Great Britain a general election must be held
    A. every year.
    B. every three years.
    C. every five years.
    D. at least once within any three-year span.
    E. at least once within any five-year span.

 

  1. Until the 1950s, political campaigns were conducted primarily
    A. through the mass media.
    B. through political party organizations.
    C. through quiet appeals to elite electors.
    D. by individual candidates with very little staff or assistance.
    E. by interest groups.

 

  1. Since the 1950s, American political parties
    A. exercise less control over their delegate selection processes.
    B. run less candidate-centered campaigns.
    C. have shrunk in their fundraising capacity.
    D. exist mainly to provide services or funds to their candidates.
    E. Options B and D are true.

 

  1. What fraction of the voting-age population will vote in a primary election?
    A. One-quarter
    B. One-third
    C. One-half
    D. Two-thirds
    E. Three-fourths

 

  1. __________ weaken parties more because it allows voters to float between parties rather than require the voters to participate in the party in which they are registered.
    A. Open primaries
    B. Caucus primaries
    C. Presidential primaries
    D. Congressional primaries
    E. Closed primaries

 

  1. A primary election in which voters must declare their party affiliation before they are given the primary ballot is a(n) ________ primary.
    A. blanket
    B. open
    C. closed
    D. challenge
    E. presidential preference

 

  1. Which statement is not a research finding about primaries listed in your text?
    A. Republican primary voters are more conservative than Republicans who do not vote in primaries.
    B. Democratic primary voters are more liberal than Democrats who do not vote in primaries.
    C. Party activists in primaries vote chiefly for candidates they think will win in the general election.
    D. The tea party movement in 2010 put a greater focus on conservative views of some candidates rather than their ability to win office.
    E. There has been an increase in competition for party nominations.

 

  1. The delegate selection process of both parties underwent fundamental reform after
    A. the 1920 Republican National Convention.
    B. World War II.
    C. the Korean War.
    D. the 1968 Democratic National Convention.
    E. the 1980 Republican National Convention.

 

  1. A method of delegate selection that begins with local meetings and culminates in a state convention is also known as the
    A. open primary.
    B. frontloading method.
    C. caucus method.
    D. closed primary.
    E. deliberation.

 

  1. A state moves its primary to an earlier date to encourage presidential candidates who would otherwise have skipped that state to campaign there. This is known as
    A. a horse race.
    B. a silent primary.
    C. front-loading.
    D. first-past-the-post.
    E. early entry.

 

  1. The term applied when candidates silently begin lining up their support for the next race soon after one election ends is
    A. silent primary.
    B. strategic campaign.
    C. horse race.
    D. secret primary.
    E. invisible primary.

 

  1. The New Hampshire presidential primary gathers the lion’s share of political and media attention because
    A. the New Hampshire primary is the last one to occur each election year.
    B. New Hampshire’s population is a good cross-section of the entire nation.
    C. New Hampshire has more restrictive campaign laws than other states.
    D. New Hampshire is a large, populous state.
    E. the New Hampshire primary is the first one to occur each election year.

 

  1. The New Hampshire primary has been considered a test of how well candidates appeal to
    A. party insiders.
    B. party activists.
    C. non-voters.
    D. ordinary party voters.
    E. members of Congress and special interests.

 

  1. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the 2012 Republican presidential nomination?
    A. While Mitt Romney received more delegates, Rick Santorum actually captured a greater number of popular votes.
    B. Three different candidates won the first three contests.
    C. After the first two contests, only four major candidates remained.
    D. It was the longest presidential primary season in history.
    E. The initial outcome in the Iowa caucus was overturned after a recount.

 

  1. Successful candidates for party nominations for the presidency owe their nominations primarily to
    A. their own personal campaign organizations.
    B. the backing of the national party organization.
    C. endorsements from newspapers and television stations.
    D. interest group endorsements and support.
    E. the Internet and e-campaign technologies.

 

  1. By national law, _________ of the seats in the House of Representatives and ____ of the seats in the Senate are filled in a general election held every even-numbered year.
    A. all; one-third
    B. one-third; one-third
    C. all; all
    D. one-third; all
    E. one-half; two-thirds

 

  1. There are a total of _________ votes in the electoral college.
    A. 270
    B. 428
    C. 435
    D. 538
    E. 720

 

  1. In 2000, Republican George W. Bush won the presidency despite
    A. his failure to win his party’s nomination.
    B. winning fewer electoral college votes than Democrat Al Gore.
    C. not being on the ballot in five states.
    D. receiving fewer popular votes than Al Gore.
    E. his losing more states than Al Gore.

 

  1. Each state has one vote in the electoral college for
    A. the number of senators and representatives on the federal election nomination committee.
    B. each of its representatives in the U.S. House.
    C. every 10,000 registered voters.
    D. each of its citizens.
    E. each of its representatives and senators.

 

  1. The amendment awarding three electoral votes to Washington, D.C. is the
    A. Fourteenth Amendment.
    B. Seventeenth Amendment.
    C. Twentieth Amendment.
    D. Twenty-third Amendment.
    E. Twenty-eighth Amendment.

 

  1. The number of electoral votes needed to win the presidency
    A. is 135.
    B. is 270.
    C. is 535.
    D. varies based on whether it is an even- or odd-numbered year.
    E. goes up every election.

 

  1. If no presidential candidate receives a majority of the electoral college votes, the election is decided by
    A. the U.S. Congress.
    B. the House of Representatives.
    C. the Senate.
    D. votes in the fifty state legislatures.
    E. the U.S. Supreme Court.

 

  1. One shift in the electoral concentration of votes has been from the ________ to the _________.
    A. west; northwest
    B. northeast; south
    C. midwest; east
    D. north; midwest
    E. east coast; north central United States

 

  1. In the 2000 presidential election, after more than a month of ballot counting, recounting, lawsuits, and court decisions, Bush was certified as the winner of Florida’s 25 electoral votes by __________ popular votes.
    A. 537
    B. 1000
    C. 1055
    D. 2000
    E. 3050

 

  1. Which of the following arguments has not been raised as a defense of the electoral college?
    A. It upholds federalism by giving smaller states more voting weight.
    B. It encourages candidates to campaign on foot and in rural areas.
    C. It reduces the risk of requiring a nationwide recount of votes.
    D. Historically, polls show public opinion in favor of keeping it.
    E. It tends to magnify popular vote victories and further increase the legitimacy of winners.

 

  1. In the 2004 presidential election, one of Minnesota’s ten electors voted for vice presidential candidate John Edwards for president instead of presidential candidate John Kerry.  This is known as a(n)
    A. faithless elector.
    B. illegal elector.
    C. secret elector.
    D. state’s rights elector.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Until 2000, the last time a candidate won most of the popular votes but did not win the presidency was in 1888 when Grover Cleveland won the popular vote but lost the presidency to
    A. Abraham Lincoln.
    B. Warren Harding.
    C. William McKinley.
    D. Herbert Hoover.
    E. Benjamin Harrison.

 

  1. Which of the following presidents failed to win a majority of the popular vote?
    A. Clinton (first term)
    B. Clinton (second term)
    C. George W. Bush (first term)
    D. John F. Kennedy
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. A voter who voted for a Republican for senator and Barack Obama for president in 2012
    A. voted a split ticket.
    B. voted a straight ticket.
    C. exhibited the first-past-the-post phenomenon.
    D. voted in an open election.
    E. caused Congress and the president to be unable to reach compromise.

 

  1. In the 1970s and 1980s, Democrats tended to be more successful in __________ elections, whereas Republicans did better in _________ elections.
    A. presidential; congressional
    B. critical; maintaining
    C. local; state
    D. multiparty; primary
    E. congressional; presidential

 

  1. One notable feature of first-past-the-post elections is that
    A. candidates usually cannot win them unless they capture more than a majority of the popular vote.
    B. they require at least three candidates running for the same office.
    C. they originated as a voting system in ancient Greece.
    D. they produce sizable discrepancies between votes won and seats won.
    E. they tend to favor candidates with lower name recognition.

 

  1. Of 2,175 congressional elections in the 2000s, about _________ were decided by 2 percentage points or fewer.
    A. 2 percent
    B. 10 percent
    C. 25 percent
    D. 35 percent
    E. 50 percent

 

  1. Which statement is true about most congressional elections today?
    A. Incumbents lose re-election most of the time.
    B. Incumbents don’t get much attention from the media.
    C. Incumbency has no effect on the outcome of elections.
    D. The challenger does not need to raise a lot of money.
    E. Most congressional elections are not very competitive.

 

  1. Incumbents in the House of Representatives historically have won
    A. more than 50 percent of the time.
    B. more than 95 percent of the time.
    C. less often than incumbents in the Senate.
    D. at about the same rate as challengers.
    E. less than 30 percent of the time.

 

  1. Congressional campaign finance laws regulating elections were significantly strengthened after
    A. scandals involving labor union contributions in 1952.
    B. the resignation of John F. Kennedy’s vice president for accepting bribes.
    C. financial misdeeds during Nixon’s 1972 reelection campaign.
    D. Jimmy Carter’s Secretary of State was convicted for bribery.
    E. Ronald Reagan heavily outspent Carter in the 1980 election.

 

  1. Which statement concerning the Federal Elections Commission is incorrect?
    A. It has six members.
    B. Its members are appointed by the president.
    C. Its members are confirmed by the Senate.
    D. Its members serve two-year terms.
    E. No more than three of its members can be from the same party.

 

  1. Campaign finance laws are challenged as a violation of the _________ Amendment.
    A. First
    B. Fourth
    C. Fifth
    D. Fourteenth
    E. Twenty-second

 

  1. The current limit for individual contributions to a candidate in an election, as of 2011–2012, is
    A. $1,000.
    B. $2,500.
    C. $5,000.
    D. $10,000.
    E. not set by law.

 

  1. The current limit for PAC contributions to candidates in an election is
    A. $1,000.
    B. $2,000.
    C. $5,000.
    D. $10,000.
    E. not set by law.

 

  1. “Independent, expenditures-only political committees” are a legal term by the Federal Elections Committee more commonly referred to as
    A. political action committees (PACs).
    B. 501(c)4 social welfare organizations.
    C. 527 committees.
    D. independent advocacy organizations (IAOs).
    E. Super PACs.

 

  1. Beginning with the 2010 election, corporations will be free to run ads directly advocating a candidate’s election for the first time since 1907, when Congress first banned using general corporate funds in federal election campaigns. This occurred based on which 2010 U.S. Supreme Court decision?
    A. Federal Election Commission v. McCain
    B. Feingold v. McConnell
    C. Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission
    D. BCRA v. Fox News
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Which of the following statements is not true concerning Super PACs?
    A. They were legalized by the Supreme Court decisions Citizens United and Speechnow.org v. FEC.
    B. There is no limit on contributions to Super PACs.
    C. The major Republican presidential candidates in 2012 each had aligned Super PACs spending on their behalf.
    D. After initial opposition, President Obama reversed his opposition to Super PACs and endorsed his own.
    E. They do not have to disclose their individual donors.

 

  1. During the 2010 midterm, __________ spent an estimated $525 million in campaign spending, but did not have to disclose who donated them their money.
    A. political action committees (PACs)
    B. 501(c)4 social welfare organizations
    C. 527 committees
    D. independent advocacy organizations (IAOs)
    E. Super PACs

 

  1. In the 2008 presidential election
    A. neither Barack Obama nor John McCain agreed to accept public funds for the general election.
    B. Barack Obama accepted public funds, but John McCain did not.
    C. John McCain accepted public funds, but Barack Obama did not.
    D. both Barack Obama and John McCain accepted public funds for the general election, but not in the primary.
    E. neither Barack Obama nor John McCain accepted public funds for the general election, but they did accept public funding during their primaries.

 

  1. “Bundlers” collect money from __________, while “super bundlers” can also funnel unlimited contributions from __________ to Super PACs.
    A. individuals; corporations
    B. interest groups; individuals
    C. corporations; political parties
    D. political parties; interest groups
    E. Options C and D are true.

 

  1. In February 2012, Republican presidential hopeful Ron Paul raised the second-most amount of money ($26 million) after Mitt Romney ($56 million) chiefly by using
    A. television advertising.
    B. the Internet.
    C. the Democratic Party fundraising machine.
    D. media infomercials.
    E. a negative campaign strategy.

 

  1. Campaigns use polls to
    A. get feedback about the success or failure of various campaign tactics.
    B. discover voters’ perceptions of candidates.
    C. devise adjusted strategies.
    D. discover voters’ opinions about certain issues.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. It is said that __________ have made news organizations their “unwitting adjuncts.”
    A. political parties
    B. members of Congress
    C. members of the president’s cabinet
    D. state judges
    E. lobbyists

 

  1. The first objective of campaign advertising is to
    A. raise the social consciousness of voters.
    B. give voters a detailed biography of a candidate.
    C. ensure that a candidate has a high level of name recognition among voters.
    D. get across to voters some basic issue stands.
    E. define the challenger.

 

  1. An ad that criticizes an opponent and advocates policies of the sponsoring candidate is an example of a(n) __________ ad.
    A. negative
    B. dilatory
    C. flip-flop
    D. contrast
    E. attack

 

  1. Research suggests that “negative ads” appear to
    A. benefit incumbents more than challengers.
    B. benefit challengers more than incumbents.
    C. benefit no one.
    D. increase voter turnout.
    E. Options A and D are true.

 

  1. A national survey in January 2012 found that people were most likely to say they “learned something” about the presidential campaign or candidates from
    A. cable news.
    B. local TV news.
    C. network news.
    D. the Internet.
    E. newspapers.

 

  1. Early studies of Super PAC ads during the 2012 Republican nomination found that they
    A. spent over 80 percent of their money on positive ads supporting their most aligned Republican candidates.
    B. spent over 70 percent of their money on negative ads attacking other candidates.
    C. split about 50–50 between ads supporting candidates and negative advertising.
    D. were highly idiosyncratic and showed no consistent pattern of positive or negative spending.
    E. began by spending heavily on positive ads in favor of candidates, but then moved to overwhelmingly negative attack ads by the middle of February.

 

  1. A voter who determines which candidate he or she will vote for very early in the campaign most likely has based that decision on
    A. the media’s perception of the front-runner.
    B. the candidate’s stand on a particular issue of importance.
    C. party identification.
    D. the candidate’s foreign policy experience.
    E. the candidate’s projected image.

 

  1. The authors suggest that Democrats have not fared well in presidential elections despite their having higher levels of identification among the electorate because
    A. Republicans are more likely to vote.
    B. Democrats are not as organized as Republicans.
    C. Democrats are less loyal to their party.
    D. Republicans have far more money than Democrats.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. According to democratic theory, the most important factor in determining voter choice in an election should be
    A. believability and reliability of the candidate.
    B. party identification.
    C. polling results.
    D. amount of media coverage.
    E. past performance and proposed policies.

 

  1. In 2008, direct remarks from the two major presidential candidates on network news programs averaged about
    A. 9 seconds.
    B. one minute.
    C. 90 seconds.
    D. three minutes.
    E. four minutes 30 seconds.

 

  1. Studies of the party identification and ideological orientation of voters show that
    A. voters often align with parties that contradict their ideological leanings.
    B. voters tend to identify with the party that most reflects their ideological orientation.
    C. there appears to be no consistent relationship between party identification and ideology.
    D. parties have no consistent ideological positions.
    E. most voters do not have a solid party identification.

 

  1. Entering the general election, Obama and Romney both focused on 9 states that voted for Bush in 2004 but for Obama in 2008. Closely contested states like these are known as
    A. swing states.
    B. battleground states.
    C. consultant states.
    D. leverage states.
    E. Options A and B are true.

 

  1. Which of the following would be most consistent with the pluralist model of government?
    A. Political parties become better at selecting their favorite party nominees.
    B. Political parties play a more important role coordinating government policies after elections.
    C. Different parties control different branches of government.
    D. Organized groups outside the parties diminish in their power to influence elections.
    E. Options C and D are true.

 

  1. Compare and contrast national elections in Britain and the United States.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the difference between a party-centered campaign and a candidate-centered campaign, and why the United States has moved from the former to the latter.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain how aspects of party primaries in the United States may support either the pluralist or the majoritarian model.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss how the 1968 Democratic convention has changed the nature of all future presidential nominating processes.

 

 

  1. In the 2010 congressional election, the Republican party
    A. captured the U.S. House of Representatives and the Senate.
    B. did not capture either the U.S. House of Representatives or the Senate.
    C. captured the Senate but not the U.S. House of Representatives.
    D. captured the U.S. House of Representatives but not the Senate.
    E. captured the U.S. House of Representatives and won a 50-50 tie in the Senate.

 

  1. In early 2011, majoritarian rule by the Republican party was undercut by
    A. internal divisions within the Republican members of Congress.
    B. the need of elected Republicans to be responsive to their constituents as well as to party leadership.
    C. the separation of powers between the House and Senate.
    D. the unwillingness of Republican leadership to be seen as responsible for a government shutdown.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. The key feature of the Great Compromise was its provision for
    A. population-based representation for states in the House and equal representation for states in the Senate.
    B. equal representation for all states in both houses.
    C. proportional representation based on electoral votes in the Senate and equal representation in the House.
    D. population-based representation in both legislative bodies.
    E. election of senators by state legislatures.

 

  1. Each state has __________ Senators.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. four
    D. five
    E. ten

 

  1. Every two years, _________ of the Senate must stand for reelection.
    A. one-fourth
    B. one-half
    C. one-third
    D. all
    E. two-thirds

 

  1. All U.S. Senators were no longer chosen by state legislatures after the passage of the
    A. Thirteenth Amendment.
    B. Sixteenth Amendment.
    C. Seventeenth Amendment.
    D. Nineteenth Amendment.
    E. Twenty-first Amendment.

 

  1. Every two years, how many of the 435 House seats are up for reelection at the same time?
    A. All
    B. One-third
    C. Two-thirds
    D. Three-fourths
    E. One-half

 

  1. The redistribution of seats among the states every ten years after a census is known as
    A. redistricting.
    B. reapportionment.
    C. reallocation.
    D. gerrymandering.
    E. impeachment.

 

  1. Each of the 435 congressional districts in the House of Representatives must be
    A. contested in elections every 6 years.
    B. gerrymandered every 2 years.
    C. contested by only Democrats and Republicans.
    D. equal in population.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A president can be impeached by the _________ and tried and removed from office by the __________.
    A. House and Senate; Supreme Court
    B. House; House
    C. Senate; House
    D. House; Senate
    E. Senate; Senate

 

  1. Only __________ presidents have been impeached by the House of Representatives.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. four
    D. five
    E. six

 

  1. Which of the following powers is the exclusive power of the Senate?
    A. To approve treaties
    B. To impeach
    C. To redistrict
    D. To originate revenue bills
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Shortly after World War I, President Woodrow Wilson submitted to the Senate the Treaty of Versailles, which contained the charter for the proposed League of Nations. The Senate
    A. sent the proposed treaty to the House of Representatives for ratification.
    B. rejected the proposed treaty.
    C. ratified the proposed treaty.
    D. sent the proposed treaty to the states for ratification.
    E. allowed the proposed treaty to be voted on by the people in a national referendum.

 

  1. The power to declare war resides with the
    A. Senate only.
    B. president only.
    C. House of Representatives alone.
    D. Armed Services Committee.
    E. House and Senate together.

 

  1. Since 1950, __________ of all House incumbents running for office have been reelected.
    A. approximately 50 percent
    B. approximately 90 percent
    C. 100 percent
    D. less than 50 percent
    E. approximately 80 percent

 

  1. The American public generally
    A. holds Congress as an institution in higher regard than it holds individual members of Congress.
    B. holds individual members of Congress in higher regard than it holds Congress as an institution.
    C. holds Congress in higher regard than it holds the president.
    D. holds neither Congress nor its members in high regard.
    E. holds the Supreme Court and Congress in equally high regard.

 

  1. Recent ratings for Congress have fallen to less than __________ of the public approving of its performance.
    A. sixty percent
    B. fifty percent
    C. thirty percent
    D. fifteen percent
    E. five percent

 

  1. The practice of altering district lines for partisan advantage after the census is also known as
    A. redistricting.
    B. reapportionment.
    C. gerrymandering.
    D. impeachment.
    E. cloture.

 

  1. Representatives elected from new districts after reapportionment tend to exhibit __________ than representatives from older districts.
    A. less polarized voting partisans
    B. more polarized voting patterns
    C. the same amount of polarized voting
    D. higher name recognition
    E. Options A and D are true.

 

  1. Gerrymandering contributes to the
    A. increasing pattern of polarization between the two parties in the House.
    B. more compromise and bipartisan behavior in Congress.
    C. fewer advantages for incumbents.
    D. politics driven by ideology.
    E. Options A and D are true.

 

  1. An incumbent advantage that permits members of Congress to keep in touch with constituents by sending mailings at the taxpayer’s expense is known as
    A. casework.
    B. reciprocity.
    C. postal privilege.
    D. communication allowance.
    E. the franking privilege.

 

  1. In the congressional setting, casework refers to
    A. members being honest with their constituents.
    B. challengers demanding honesty of incumbents.
    C. members helping constituents with problems.
    D. members’ right to send mail free of charge.
    E. legislative research.

 

  1. Information about a representative’s personal life cannot be included in __________, but can be on __________.
    A. official mailings; congressional websites
    B. YouTube videos; Twitter accounts
    C. Facebook posts; congressional websites
    D. official mailings; Twitter accounts
    E. Twitter accounts; Facebook

 

  1. When making contributions to candidates for Congress, PACs tend to show a preference for
    A. Democrats.
    B. incumbents.
    C. candidates who are challenging incumbents.
    D. Republicans.
    E. Independents.

 

  1. The advantage of incumbency may be less in the Senate than in the House because
    A. PACs are more likely to contribute to House incumbents than to Senate incumbents.
    B. Senate districts are not affected by gerrymandering.
    C. Senate seats attract better-known challengers than do House seats.
    D. Senators do not do casework.
    E. the public pays less attention to the Senate.

 

  1. In the 2011–2012 session, there were __________ women in the U. S. Senate.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. nine
    D. seventeen
    E. twenty-three

 

  1. Before the 2012 election, about __________ of Congress were millionaires.
    A. 5 percent
    B. 10 percent
    C. 15 percent
    D. 25 percent
    E. 50 percent

 

  1. An underlying assumption of the concept of descriptive representation is that
    A. elected representatives should follow their own consciences.
    B. any citizen can be represented by any congressional representative.
    C. minorities can be effectively represented only by people of their own kind.
    D. representatives should carefully heed public opinion polls.
    E. the more outspoken people are regarding the type of representative they want, the closer the representative will be to voter preference.

 

  1. Efforts to draw boundaries to promote the election of minorities
    A. have been equally effective for blacks as for Hispanics.
    B. have been more effective for Hispanics than for blacks.
    C. have been more effective for blacks than for Hispanics.
    D. were more effective for blacks in the 1980s, but more effective for Hispanics in the 1990s.
    E. have been equally ineffective for blacks as for Hispanics.

 

  1. The Supreme Court has made all but which of the following rulings concerning race and redistricting?
    A. Use of racial gerrymandering to protect incumbents can violate the Voting Rights Act.
    B. Race is not an illegitimate consideration in drawing boundaries, so long as it is not the dominant factor.
    C. Use of gerrymandering to increase minority representation can violate the rights of whites.
    D. Excessive racial gerrymandering violates the First Amendment’s right of political association.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. In 2011, the __________ was introduced in the House that would expand federal prosecution of “acts of electronic monitoring, including spyware, bugging and video surveillance.”
    A. Online Security Act
    B. Harold Sassen Anti Online Bullying Act
    C. Online Harassment Act
    D. STALKERS Act
    E. Cyber Privacy Act

 

  1. Congress can overturn a presidential veto with a
    A. majority vote.
    B. three-fifths vote.
    C. two-thirds vote.
    D. three-fourths vote.
    E. majority vote in the House and 60 votes in the Senate.

 

  1. A key difference between the House and the Senate concerning bill procedures is the
    A. Senate Appropriations Committee.
    B. House Rules Committee.
    C. Senate Ways and Means Committee.
    D. pre-filed bill requirement in the Senate.
    E. House floor procedure.

 

  1. If the president neither signs nor vetoes a bill within 10 days while Congress is in session, the bill
    A. becomes law.
    B. is sent back to Congress.
    C. is recalled by Congress for further action.
    D. has been pocket-vetoed.
    E. is killed.

 

  1. A dispute over floor debate procedure in the House would be settled by
    A. the House Ways and Means Committee.
    B. the bill’s author.
    C. unanimous consent.
    D. the Rules Committee.
    E. the standing committee from which the bill originated.

 

  1. The content of a proposed bill in Congress can be changed
    A. only in committee.
    B. only during floor deliberation.
    C. at any stage of the legislative process in either the House or the Senate.
    D. only in conference committee.
    E. up to three times.

 

  1. Stressing the importance of congressional committees, Woodrow Wilson stated,
    A. “In the U.S. Congress, it’s never over until it’s over. And when it’s over, it’s still not over.”
    B. “Congress in its committee-rooms is Congress at work.”
    C. “Congress is the most anti-democratic institution in Western history.”
    D. “Congressional committees are the soul of Congress. And a corrupted soul it is.”
    E. “The president is to congressional committees as impeachment is to the courts.”

 

  1. The House Judiciary Committee and the Senate Foreign Relations Committee are examples of
    A. select committees.
    B. standing committees.
    C. subcommittees.
    D. ad hoc committees.
    E. conference committees.

 

  1. The majority party gives the minority a percentage of seats on standing committees based on
    A. seniority.
    B. recommendations from the Rules Committee in both chambers.
    C. the level of cooperation the minority leadership offers in passing legislation.
    D. the minority party’s percentage of seats held in each house.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A __________ is a committee composed of legislators from both houses that works out legislative differences between the Senate and House and develops a compromise version.
    A. subcommittee
    B. select committee
    C. conference committee
    D. joint committee
    E. makeshift committee

 

  1. The so-called “supercommittee” created in 2011 to issue recommendations for reducing the deficit, which included members from both the House and Senate, is an example of a(n)
    A. standing committee.
    B. subcommittee.
    C. joint committee.
    D. conference committee.
    E. select committee.

 

  1. A __________ is a temporary committee established to deal with issues that either overlap or fall outside the areas of expertise of standing committees.
    A. subcommittee
    B. select committee
    C. conference committee
    D. joint committee
    E. makeshift committee

 

  1. Meetings in which legislation is debated and amended are called _________ sessions.
    A. ex nihilo nihil fit
    B. markup
    C. brainstorming
    D. skull
    E. war

 

  1. The minority counterpart to a committee chairperson is called a
    A. ranking majority member.
    B. vice chairperson.
    C. minority whip.
    D. ranking minority member.
    E. ranking assistant chair.

 

  1. The 2011 congressional hearings on whether a federal program allowed guns to fall into the hands of Mexican drug cartels are an example of
    A. gerrymandering.
    B. congressional review.
    C. oversight.
    D. standing reports.
    E. cloture.

 

  1. Congressional oversight is often stereotyped as an opportunity for lawmakers to lash out at executive branch officials because of some scandal or mistake, but many lawmakers are advocates of the programs they oversee given these programs benefit their constituents back home. Thus, most oversight
    A. is done in formal public hearings.
    B. is aimed at trying to find ways to improve programs.
    C. is aimed to mobilize voters.
    D. is designed to influence committee chairmen.
    E. is about demonstrating effectiveness to key executive branch officials.

 

  1. All but which of the following are consistent with the pluralist model of democracy?
    A. The content of a bill can be changed at any stage of the process.
    B. At least some members of a committee are advocates of the programs they oversee.
    C. Representatives are elected by voters from particular districts and states.
    D. Party leadership rewards congressmen who vote a party line with better committee assignments.
    E. The president controls the use of filibusters.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the Speaker of the House is incorrect?
    A. The Speaker is the majority party’s leader.
    B. The Speaker is a constitutional officer.
    C. The Speaker’s duties are listed in the Constitution.
    D. The Speaker chairs sessions from the rostrum with gavel in hand.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The most powerful office in the House of Representatives is the _________ and in the Senate it is the __________.
    A. majority leader; Speaker of the Senate
    B. Speaker of the House; majority leader
    C. majority whip; president pro tempore
    D. majority leader; president pro tempore
    E. Speaker of the House; Senate whip

 

  1. The vice president
    A. has no formal constitutional title over the United States Senate.
    B. has the ability to select Senate committee chairmen.
    C. can break tie votes in the Senate.
    D. frequently visits the Senate to lobby on behalf of the president.
    E. can veto Senate resolutions.

 

  1. A vote on a bill in the Senate results in a tie. What would likely be the official outcome of the vote on the bill?
    A. The bill would be withdrawn and submitted at a later time, when one additional vote could be secured.
    B. The bill would be killed.
    C. The president’s party would prevail.
    D. The parties would reach a compromise in the conference committee.
    E. The leadership would canvass members to change the one vote needed for passage.

 

  1. The most powerful person in the Senate is the
    A. majority leader.
    B. majority whip.
    C. vice president.
    D. president pro tempore.
    E. sergeant-at-arms.

 

  1. It is often difficult for congressional party leaders to control rank-and-file members of Congress because
    A. members of Congress have independent electoral bases in their districts and states.
    B. members of Congress receive the vast bulk of their campaign funds from nonparty sources.
    C. members of Congress don’t spend much time in Washington.
    D. Options A and B are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. In the Senate, the starting time, length, and conditions of debate on legislation are set by
    A. the vice president, as presiding officer.
    B. the majority party leadership.
    C. the Senate Rules Committee.
    D. unanimous consent agreements.
    E. the bill’s author.

 

  1. The rules that govern floor debate in the House of Representatives
    A. must be agreed upon by all members.
    B. are a tool the majority party uses to help it control the legislative process.
    C. are neutral and assure a fair hearing for all sides.
    D. encourage the development of partisan hostilities.
    E. often result in deadlocked legislation that the leadership must negotiate.

 

  1. The Senate delay tactic of talking a bill to death is called
    A. cloture.
    B. logrolling.
    C. filibustering.
    D. gerrymandering.
    E. muckraking.

 

  1. When the Senate votes to invoke cloture, it
    A. limits the amount of time that may be spent debating a bill.
    B. means a bill must either pass or fail without any amendments.
    C. sends a bill back to its originating committee for amendment.
    D. forwards a bill to a conference committee so that differences between the House and Senate versions may be worked out.
    E. will result in a bill’s failure.

 

  1. The current record for the longest filibuster, by Republican Strom Thurmond, is
    A. six hours, fifteen minutes.
    B. nine hours, ten minutes.
    C. twelve hours, forty-one minutes.
    D. eighteen hours, thirty-five minutes.
    E. twenty-four hours, eighteen minutes.

 

  1. In today’s Congress, the mere threat of a Senate filibuster is extremely common, which means that a bill often needs the support of
    A. 60 Senators.
    B. the president.
    C. a plurality vote of the Senate.
    D. all Senate Committee Chairman.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A letter requesting that a bill be held from Senate floor debate is also known as a(n)
    A. cloture request.
    B. gerrymander.
    C. hold.
    D. Senatorial veto.
    E. sequestration.

 

  1. The national parties continue to be strong forces in the legislative process because
    A. they control the nomination of House and Senate candidates.
    B. they provide most of the funding for House and Senate campaigns.
    C. they determine who will get prime office space in the Capitol buildings.
    D. party leaders can help rank-and-file members get on preferred committees and climb the leadership ladder.
    E. they often write and initiate proposed legislation.

 

  1. The text identifies __________ as an important “external source of influence” on Congress.
    A. parties
    B. the president
    C. constituents
    D. interest groups
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Which scholar studied the interaction between members of the House and their constituents in order to write the book Home Style?
    A. David Mayhew
    B. Henry Glick
    C. Richard Neustadt
    D. Richard Fenno
    E. Glendon Schubert

 

  1. A survey of House members during a nonelection year showed that each lawmaker made an average of _________ trips back to his or her district, spending an average of 138 days there.
    A. 35
    B. 10
    C. 5
    D. 15
    E. 100

 

  1. The “trustee” role of congressional voting is commonly associated with the political philosopher
    A. John Rawls.
    B. Hegel.
    C. David Hume.
    D. J. S. Mill.
    E. Edmund Burke.

 

  1. A congressional representative is following the trustee philosophy when he or she
    A. takes instructions from party leaders on how to vote.
    B. votes in accordance with the perceived wishes of the citizens back home.
    C. votes according to his or her conscience, even if doing so means going against the wishes of the majority back home.
    D. consults the president before an important vote.
    E. polls members of the district prior to a vote.

 

  1. Which voting behavior by a representative indicates delegate behavior?
    A. Voting with the representative’s party on an issue
    B. Voting with the president on a bill if the president promises to campaign for that representative at reelection time
    C. Voting the way the representative thinks best, even if the vote is against the wishes of a large number of constituents, because the representative knows that no matter which way the vote is cast, a large number of constituents will be offended
    D. Trading votes on an issue of low importance with another House member to gain a voting favor on another bill
    E. Voting according to the results of a telephone survey regarding the preference of district constituents

 

  1. One reason there may be no delegate position for members of Congress to take is that
    A. many issues are of great concern to their constituents.
    B. sometimes what constituents really want is not clear.
    C. technology has made most congressional issues highly visible back home.
    D. congressional issues rarely cut across a constituency in the same way.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. On issues of high visibility and great concern to constituents, members of Congress are most likely to behave as
    A. tribunes.
    B. trustees.
    C. advertisers.
    D. delegates.
    E. insiders.

 

  1. If legislators tend to act as delegates, congressional policymaking
    A. is more pluralistic.
    B. is less tied to narrower interests of districts and states.
    C. reflects bargaining among lawmakers.
    D. always reflects majority interests.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. Parliamentary governments most closely fit the _________ model of democracy.
    A. pluralist
    B. pure
    C. direct
    D. separation-of-powers
    E. majoritarian

 

  1. Most democracies outside the United States have a(n)
    A. parliamentary system.
    B. executive-legislative system.
    C. congressional system.
    D. constitutional monarchy.
    E. legislative oversight system.

 

  1. In 2011 congressional parties formally banned _________, which are pork-barrel projects that benefit specific districts or states.
    A. categorical funds
    B. by-lines
    C. redactions
    D. delineations
    E. earmarks

 

  1. Which of these developments in Congress would not reflect a trend toward greater majoritarianism?
    A. Congress sees growing partisanship in voting.
    B. Both parties become more ideologically homogenous.
    C. Members of Congress focus less on casework and pork barrel spending.
    D. Members of Congress become more concerned about winning reelection.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Explain why despite their stunning takeover of the House of Representatives in the 2010 Congressional elections, Republicans in the House were unable to enact many changes in line with their ideology.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain three of the advantages incumbents have over challengers in congressional elections.

 

 

  1. In the 2010 congressional election, the Republican party
    A. captured the U.S. House of Representatives and the Senate.
    B. did not capture either the U.S. House of Representatives or the Senate.
    C. captured the Senate but not the U.S. House of Representatives.
    D. captured the U.S. House of Representatives but not the Senate.
    E. captured the U.S. House of Representatives and won a 50-50 tie in the Senate.

 

  1. In early 2011, majoritarian rule by the Republican party was undercut by
    A. internal divisions within the Republican members of Congress.
    B. the need of elected Republicans to be responsive to their constituents as well as to party leadership.
    C. the separation of powers between the House and Senate.
    D. the unwillingness of Republican leadership to be seen as responsible for a government shutdown.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. The key feature of the Great Compromise was its provision for
    A. population-based representation for states in the House and equal representation for states in the Senate.
    B. equal representation for all states in both houses.
    C. proportional representation based on electoral votes in the Senate and equal representation in the House.
    D. population-based representation in both legislative bodies.
    E. election of senators by state legislatures.

 

  1. Each state has __________ Senators.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. four
    D. five
    E. ten

 

  1. Every two years, _________ of the Senate must stand for reelection.
    A. one-fourth
    B. one-half
    C. one-third
    D. all
    E. two-thirds

 

  1. All U.S. Senators were no longer chosen by state legislatures after the passage of the
    A. Thirteenth Amendment.
    B. Sixteenth Amendment.
    C. Seventeenth Amendment.
    D. Nineteenth Amendment.
    E. Twenty-first Amendment.

 

  1. Every two years, how many of the 435 House seats are up for reelection at the same time?
    A. All
    B. One-third
    C. Two-thirds
    D. Three-fourths
    E. One-half

 

  1. The redistribution of seats among the states every ten years after a census is known as
    A. redistricting.
    B. reapportionment.
    C. reallocation.
    D. gerrymandering.
    E. impeachment.

 

  1. Each of the 435 congressional districts in the House of Representatives must be
    A. contested in elections every 6 years.
    B. gerrymandered every 2 years.
    C. contested by only Democrats and Republicans.
    D. equal in population.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A president can be impeached by the _________ and tried and removed from office by the __________.
    A. House and Senate; Supreme Court
    B. House; House
    C. Senate; House
    D. House; Senate
    E. Senate; Senate

 

  1. Only __________ presidents have been impeached by the House of Representatives.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. four
    D. five
    E. six

 

  1. Which of the following powers is the exclusive power of the Senate?
    A. To approve treaties
    B. To impeach
    C. To redistrict
    D. To originate revenue bills
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Shortly after World War I, President Woodrow Wilson submitted to the Senate the Treaty of Versailles, which contained the charter for the proposed League of Nations. The Senate
    A. sent the proposed treaty to the House of Representatives for ratification.
    B. rejected the proposed treaty.
    C. ratified the proposed treaty.
    D. sent the proposed treaty to the states for ratification.
    E. allowed the proposed treaty to be voted on by the people in a national referendum.

 

  1. The power to declare war resides with the
    A. Senate only.
    B. president only.
    C. House of Representatives alone.
    D. Armed Services Committee.
    E. House and Senate together.

 

  1. Since 1950, __________ of all House incumbents running for office have been reelected.
    A. approximately 50 percent
    B. approximately 90 percent
    C. 100 percent
    D. less than 50 percent
    E. approximately 80 percent

 

  1. The American public generally
    A. holds Congress as an institution in higher regard than it holds individual members of Congress.
    B. holds individual members of Congress in higher regard than it holds Congress as an institution.
    C. holds Congress in higher regard than it holds the president.
    D. holds neither Congress nor its members in high regard.
    E. holds the Supreme Court and Congress in equally high regard.

 

  1. Recent ratings for Congress have fallen to less than __________ of the public approving of its performance.
    A. sixty percent
    B. fifty percent
    C. thirty percent
    D. fifteen percent
    E. five percent

 

  1. The practice of altering district lines for partisan advantage after the census is also known as
    A. redistricting.
    B. reapportionment.
    C. gerrymandering.
    D. impeachment.
    E. cloture.

 

  1. Representatives elected from new districts after reapportionment tend to exhibit __________ than representatives from older districts.
    A. less polarized voting partisans
    B. more polarized voting patterns
    C. the same amount of polarized voting
    D. higher name recognition
    E. Options A and D are true.

 

  1. Gerrymandering contributes to the
    A. increasing pattern of polarization between the two parties in the House.
    B. more compromise and bipartisan behavior in Congress.
    C. fewer advantages for incumbents.
    D. politics driven by ideology.
    E. Options A and D are true.

 

  1. An incumbent advantage that permits members of Congress to keep in touch with constituents by sending mailings at the taxpayer’s expense is known as
    A. casework.
    B. reciprocity.
    C. postal privilege.
    D. communication allowance.
    E. the franking privilege.

 

  1. In the congressional setting, casework refers to
    A. members being honest with their constituents.
    B. challengers demanding honesty of incumbents.
    C. members helping constituents with problems.
    D. members’ right to send mail free of charge.
    E. legislative research.

 

  1. Information about a representative’s personal life cannot be included in __________, but can be on __________.
    A. official mailings; congressional websites
    B. YouTube videos; Twitter accounts
    C. Facebook posts; congressional websites
    D. official mailings; Twitter accounts
    E. Twitter accounts; Facebook

 

  1. When making contributions to candidates for Congress, PACs tend to show a preference for
    A. Democrats.
    B. incumbents.
    C. candidates who are challenging incumbents.
    D. Republicans.
    E. Independents.

 

  1. The advantage of incumbency may be less in the Senate than in the House because
    A. PACs are more likely to contribute to House incumbents than to Senate incumbents.
    B. Senate districts are not affected by gerrymandering.
    C. Senate seats attract better-known challengers than do House seats.
    D. Senators do not do casework.
    E. the public pays less attention to the Senate.

 

  1. In the 2011–2012 session, there were __________ women in the U. S. Senate.
    A. two
    B. three
    C. nine
    D. seventeen
    E. twenty-three

 

  1. Before the 2012 election, about __________ of Congress were millionaires.
    A. 5 percent
    B. 10 percent
    C. 15 percent
    D. 25 percent
    E. 50 percent

 

  1. An underlying assumption of the concept of descriptive representation is that
    A. elected representatives should follow their own consciences.
    B. any citizen can be represented by any congressional representative.
    C. minorities can be effectively represented only by people of their own kind.
    D. representatives should carefully heed public opinion polls.
    E. the more outspoken people are regarding the type of representative they want, the closer the representative will be to voter preference.

 

  1. Efforts to draw boundaries to promote the election of minorities
    A. have been equally effective for blacks as for Hispanics.
    B. have been more effective for Hispanics than for blacks.
    C. have been more effective for blacks than for Hispanics.
    D. were more effective for blacks in the 1980s, but more effective for Hispanics in the 1990s.
    E. have been equally ineffective for blacks as for Hispanics.

 

  1. The Supreme Court has made all but which of the following rulings concerning race and redistricting?
    A. Use of racial gerrymandering to protect incumbents can violate the Voting Rights Act.
    B. Race is not an illegitimate consideration in drawing boundaries, so long as it is not the dominant factor.
    C. Use of gerrymandering to increase minority representation can violate the rights of whites.
    D. Excessive racial gerrymandering violates the First Amendment’s right of political association.
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. In 2011, the __________ was introduced in the House that would expand federal prosecution of “acts of electronic monitoring, including spyware, bugging and video surveillance.”
    A. Online Security Act
    B. Harold Sassen Anti Online Bullying Act
    C. Online Harassment Act
    D. STALKERS Act
    E. Cyber Privacy Act

 

  1. Congress can overturn a presidential veto with a
    A. majority vote.
    B. three-fifths vote.
    C. two-thirds vote.
    D. three-fourths vote.
    E. majority vote in the House and 60 votes in the Senate.

 

  1. A key difference between the House and the Senate concerning bill procedures is the
    A. Senate Appropriations Committee.
    B. House Rules Committee.
    C. Senate Ways and Means Committee.
    D. pre-filed bill requirement in the Senate.
    E. House floor procedure.

 

  1. If the president neither signs nor vetoes a bill within 10 days while Congress is in session, the bill
    A. becomes law.
    B. is sent back to Congress.
    C. is recalled by Congress for further action.
    D. has been pocket-vetoed.
    E. is killed.

 

  1. A dispute over floor debate procedure in the House would be settled by
    A. the House Ways and Means Committee.
    B. the bill’s author.
    C. unanimous consent.
    D. the Rules Committee.
    E. the standing committee from which the bill originated.

 

  1. The content of a proposed bill in Congress can be changed
    A. only in committee.
    B. only during floor deliberation.
    C. at any stage of the legislative process in either the House or the Senate.
    D. only in conference committee.
    E. up to three times.

 

  1. Stressing the importance of congressional committees, Woodrow Wilson stated,
    A. “In the U.S. Congress, it’s never over until it’s over. And when it’s over, it’s still not over.”
    B. “Congress in its committee-rooms is Congress at work.”
    C. “Congress is the most anti-democratic institution in Western history.”
    D. “Congressional committees are the soul of Congress. And a corrupted soul it is.”
    E. “The president is to congressional committees as impeachment is to the courts.”

 

  1. The House Judiciary Committee and the Senate Foreign Relations Committee are examples of
    A. select committees.
    B. standing committees.
    C. subcommittees.
    D. ad hoc committees.
    E. conference committees.

 

  1. The majority party gives the minority a percentage of seats on standing committees based on
    A. seniority.
    B. recommendations from the Rules Committee in both chambers.
    C. the level of cooperation the minority leadership offers in passing legislation.
    D. the minority party’s percentage of seats held in each house.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A __________ is a committee composed of legislators from both houses that works out legislative differences between the Senate and House and develops a compromise version.
    A. subcommittee
    B. select committee
    C. conference committee
    D. joint committee
    E. makeshift committee

 

  1. The so-called “supercommittee” created in 2011 to issue recommendations for reducing the deficit, which included members from both the House and Senate, is an example of a(n)
    A. standing committee.
    B. subcommittee.
    C. joint committee.
    D. conference committee.
    E. select committee.

 

  1. A __________ is a temporary committee established to deal with issues that either overlap or fall outside the areas of expertise of standing committees.
    A. subcommittee
    B. select committee
    C. conference committee
    D. joint committee
    E. makeshift committee

 

  1. Meetings in which legislation is debated and amended are called _________ sessions.
    A. ex nihilo nihil fit
    B. markup
    C. brainstorming
    D. skull
    E. war

 

  1. The minority counterpart to a committee chairperson is called a
    A. ranking majority member.
    B. vice chairperson.
    C. minority whip.
    D. ranking minority member.
    E. ranking assistant chair.

 

  1. The 2011 congressional hearings on whether a federal program allowed guns to fall into the hands of Mexican drug cartels are an example of
    A. gerrymandering.
    B. congressional review.
    C. oversight.
    D. standing reports.
    E. cloture.

 

  1. Congressional oversight is often stereotyped as an opportunity for lawmakers to lash out at executive branch officials because of some scandal or mistake, but many lawmakers are advocates of the programs they oversee given these programs benefit their constituents back home. Thus, most oversight
    A. is done in formal public hearings.
    B. is aimed at trying to find ways to improve programs.
    C. is aimed to mobilize voters.
    D. is designed to influence committee chairmen.
    E. is about demonstrating effectiveness to key executive branch officials.

 

  1. All but which of the following are consistent with the pluralist model of democracy?
    A. The content of a bill can be changed at any stage of the process.
    B. At least some members of a committee are advocates of the programs they oversee.
    C. Representatives are elected by voters from particular districts and states.
    D. Party leadership rewards congressmen who vote a party line with better committee assignments.
    E. The president controls the use of filibusters.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning the Speaker of the House is incorrect?
    A. The Speaker is the majority party’s leader.
    B. The Speaker is a constitutional officer.
    C. The Speaker’s duties are listed in the Constitution.
    D. The Speaker chairs sessions from the rostrum with gavel in hand.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. The most powerful office in the House of Representatives is the _________ and in the Senate it is the __________.
    A. majority leader; Speaker of the Senate
    B. Speaker of the House; majority leader
    C. majority whip; president pro tempore
    D. majority leader; president pro tempore
    E. Speaker of the House; Senate whip

 

  1. The vice president
    A. has no formal constitutional title over the United States Senate.
    B. has the ability to select Senate committee chairmen.
    C. can break tie votes in the Senate.
    D. frequently visits the Senate to lobby on behalf of the president.
    E. can veto Senate resolutions.

 

  1. A vote on a bill in the Senate results in a tie. What would likely be the official outcome of the vote on the bill?
    A. The bill would be withdrawn and submitted at a later time, when one additional vote could be secured.
    B. The bill would be killed.
    C. The president’s party would prevail.
    D. The parties would reach a compromise in the conference committee.
    E. The leadership would canvass members to change the one vote needed for passage.

 

  1. The most powerful person in the Senate is the
    A. majority leader.
    B. majority whip.
    C. vice president.
    D. president pro tempore.
    E. sergeant-at-arms.

 

  1. It is often difficult for congressional party leaders to control rank-and-file members of Congress because
    A. members of Congress have independent electoral bases in their districts and states.
    B. members of Congress receive the vast bulk of their campaign funds from nonparty sources.
    C. members of Congress don’t spend much time in Washington.
    D. Options A and B are true.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. In the Senate, the starting time, length, and conditions of debate on legislation are set by
    A. the vice president, as presiding officer.
    B. the majority party leadership.
    C. the Senate Rules Committee.
    D. unanimous consent agreements.
    E. the bill’s author.

 

  1. The rules that govern floor debate in the House of Representatives
    A. must be agreed upon by all members.
    B. are a tool the majority party uses to help it control the legislative process.
    C. are neutral and assure a fair hearing for all sides.
    D. encourage the development of partisan hostilities.
    E. often result in deadlocked legislation that the leadership must negotiate.

 

  1. The Senate delay tactic of talking a bill to death is called
    A. cloture.
    B. logrolling.
    C. filibustering.
    D. gerrymandering.
    E. muckraking.

 

  1. When the Senate votes to invoke cloture, it
    A. limits the amount of time that may be spent debating a bill.
    B. means a bill must either pass or fail without any amendments.
    C. sends a bill back to its originating committee for amendment.
    D. forwards a bill to a conference committee so that differences between the House and Senate versions may be worked out.
    E. will result in a bill’s failure.

 

  1. The current record for the longest filibuster, by Republican Strom Thurmond, is
    A. six hours, fifteen minutes.
    B. nine hours, ten minutes.
    C. twelve hours, forty-one minutes.
    D. eighteen hours, thirty-five minutes.
    E. twenty-four hours, eighteen minutes.

 

  1. In today’s Congress, the mere threat of a Senate filibuster is extremely common, which means that a bill often needs the support of
    A. 60 Senators.
    B. the president.
    C. a plurality vote of the Senate.
    D. all Senate Committee Chairman.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. A letter requesting that a bill be held from Senate floor debate is also known as a(n)
    A. cloture request.
    B. gerrymander.
    C. hold.
    D. Senatorial veto.
    E. sequestration.

 

  1. The national parties continue to be strong forces in the legislative process because
    A. they control the nomination of House and Senate candidates.
    B. they provide most of the funding for House and Senate campaigns.
    C. they determine who will get prime office space in the Capitol buildings.
    D. party leaders can help rank-and-file members get on preferred committees and climb the leadership ladder.
    E. they often write and initiate proposed legislation.

 

  1. The text identifies __________ as an important “external source of influence” on Congress.
    A. parties
    B. the president
    C. constituents
    D. interest groups
    E. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Which scholar studied the interaction between members of the House and their constituents in order to write the book Home Style?
    A. David Mayhew
    B. Henry Glick
    C. Richard Neustadt
    D. Richard Fenno
    E. Glendon Schubert

 

  1. A survey of House members during a nonelection year showed that each lawmaker made an average of _________ trips back to his or her district, spending an average of 138 days there.
    A. 35
    B. 10
    C. 5
    D. 15
    E. 100

 

  1. The “trustee” role of congressional voting is commonly associated with the political philosopher
    A. John Rawls.
    B. Hegel.
    C. David Hume.
    D. J. S. Mill.
    E. Edmund Burke.

 

  1. A congressional representative is following the trustee philosophy when he or she
    A. takes instructions from party leaders on how to vote.
    B. votes in accordance with the perceived wishes of the citizens back home.
    C. votes according to his or her conscience, even if doing so means going against the wishes of the majority back home.
    D. consults the president before an important vote.
    E. polls members of the district prior to a vote.

 

  1. Which voting behavior by a representative indicates delegate behavior?
    A. Voting with the representative’s party on an issue
    B. Voting with the president on a bill if the president promises to campaign for that representative at reelection time
    C. Voting the way the representative thinks best, even if the vote is against the wishes of a large number of constituents, because the representative knows that no matter which way the vote is cast, a large number of constituents will be offended
    D. Trading votes on an issue of low importance with another House member to gain a voting favor on another bill
    E. Voting according to the results of a telephone survey regarding the preference of district constituents

 

  1. One reason there may be no delegate position for members of Congress to take is that
    A. many issues are of great concern to their constituents.
    B. sometimes what constituents really want is not clear.
    C. technology has made most congressional issues highly visible back home.
    D. congressional issues rarely cut across a constituency in the same way.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. On issues of high visibility and great concern to constituents, members of Congress are most likely to behave as
    A. tribunes.
    B. trustees.
    C. advertisers.
    D. delegates.
    E. insiders.

 

  1. If legislators tend to act as delegates, congressional policymaking
    A. is more pluralistic.
    B. is less tied to narrower interests of districts and states.
    C. reflects bargaining among lawmakers.
    D. always reflects majority interests.
    E. Options A and C are true.

 

  1. Parliamentary governments most closely fit the _________ model of democracy.
    A. pluralist
    B. pure
    C. direct
    D. separation-of-powers
    E. majoritarian

 

  1. Most democracies outside the United States have a(n)
    A. parliamentary system.
    B. executive-legislative system.
    C. congressional system.
    D. constitutional monarchy.
    E. legislative oversight system.

 

  1. In 2011 congressional parties formally banned _________, which are pork-barrel projects that benefit specific districts or states.
    A. categorical funds
    B. by-lines
    C. redactions
    D. delineations
    E. earmarks

 

  1. Which of these developments in Congress would not reflect a trend toward greater majoritarianism?
    A. Congress sees growing partisanship in voting.
    B. Both parties become more ideologically homogenous.
    C. Members of Congress focus less on casework and pork barrel spending.
    D. Members of Congress become more concerned about winning reelection.
    E. None of the above is true.

 

  1. Explain why despite their stunning takeover of the House of Representatives in the 2010 Congressional elections, Republicans in the House were unable to enact many changes in line with their ideology.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain three of the advantages incumbents have over challengers in congressional elections.