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Forensic Psychology 4th edition by Joanna Pozzulo Craig Bennell – TEST BANK

 

Chapter 1: Multiple Choice

 

1) Alfred Binet conducted a series of studies to examine how question style influenced the accuracy of child eyewitnesses. He found that:

  1. moderately leading questions result in the most accurate answers
  2. free recall results in the most accurate answers
  3. highly leading questions result in the most accurate answers
  4. free recall results in the least accurate answers
  5. eyewitness accuracy did not vary across question type

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 3

 

2) A researcher arranges for a confederate to enter his classroom, steal his wallet, and run out. The researcher then asks the students to provide a description of the “offender” in an effort to study eyewitness recall. This is an example of:

  1. a verifiable experiment
  2. a virtual experiment
  3. a reality experiment
  4. a misinformation test
  5. a subjective recall test

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 4

 

3) Stern’s 1901 “reality experiment” involved a bogus quarrel between two students in which a gun was involved. Stern concluded that:

  1. racial discrimination is common
  2. pre-trial media has a strong influence on eyewitness accuracy
  3. retroactive memory-falsification tends to occur
  4. emotional arousal influences accuracy of recall
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 4

 

4) Place the following events in chronological order:

1-Cattell conducts some of the first experiments in North America on the psychology of testimony

2-APA recognizes forensic psychology as a specialty discipline

3-Hugo Munsterberg publishes On the Witness Stand

4-The U.S. Supreme courts lays out the Daubert criteria for determining when scientific evidence should be admitted in courta. 4, 2, 3, 1

  1. 3, 4, 2, 1
  2. 4, 3, 2, 1
  3. 1, 2, 3, 4
  4. 1, 3, 4, 2

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 3-10, 22

 

5) Which scholar conducted some of the first experiments in eyewitness testimony in the U.S. examining memory for everyday events?

  1. Wundt
  2. Cattell
  3. Binet
  4. Stern
  5. von Schrenck-Notzing

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 4

 

6) In his studies on suggestibility and testimony in children, Binet found that what type of technique lead to the most accurate recall?

  1. Prompted recall
  2. Mildly leading
  3. Free recall
  4. Highly misleading
  5. Recognition

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 4

 

7) According to von Schrenck-Notzing, extensive pretrial press coverage could influence the testimony of people by causing what he called:

  1. post-event misinformation
  2. memory contamination
  3. source monitoring errors
  4. exposure distortion
  5. retroactive memory falsification

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 5

 

8) The following psychologist was the first to propose a testable theory of criminal behaviour:

  1. Bandura
  2. Freud
  3. Munsterberg
  4. Eysenck
  5. Marston

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

9) Which of the following psychologists would be most interested in the expert testimony provided by von Schrenck-Notzing in 1896?

  1. a psychologist interested in the diagnosis of juvenile delinquents
  2. a psychologist interested in the effect of pre-trial press coverage
  3. a psychologist interested in the problems with hypnotic interviewing
  4. a psychologist interested in the accuracy of child eyewitnesses
  5. a psychologist interested in lie detection

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 4-5

 

10) Which of the following individuals would be most interested to hear about research showing that child eyewitnesses can be highly inaccurate?

  1. Varendonck
  2. Bandura
  3. Marston
  4. Von Schrenck-Notzing
  5. Eysenck

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 5

 

11) Which of the following psychologists would be most interested in the expert testimony provided by Varendonck in 1911?

  1. a psychologist interested in the diagnosis of juvenile delinquents
  2. a psychologist interested in the effect of pre-trial press coverage
  3. a psychologist interested in the problems with hypnotic interviewing
  4. a psychologist interested in the accuracy of child eyewitnesses
  5. a psychologist interested in factors that influence jury decision making

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 5

 

12) Who is generally considered the father of forensic psychology?

  1. John Henry Wigmore
  2. Wilhelm Wundt
  3. James Ogloff
  4. James Cattell
  5. Hugo Munsterberg

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 5-6

 

13) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to their work?

  1. Munsterberg – On the Witness Stand
  2. Varendonck – La Suggestibilite
  3. Von Schrenck-Notzing – Measurements of Accuracy of Recollection
  4. Cattell – retroactive memory falsification
  5. Wigmore – Kriminal Psychologie

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 5-6

 

14) According to Sheldon’s (1949) constitutional theory, which of the following are most likely to become involved with crime?

  1. ectomorphs
  2. mesomorphs
  3. those with lesions in the temporal lobe
  4. those having experienced maternal deprivation
  5. men with two Y chromosomes

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

15) John Bowlby’s (1944) theory of crime suggests that the primary cause of antisocial behaviour is:

  1. low self-control
  2. poverty
  3. inappropriate role models
  4. maternal deprivation
  5. chromosomal abnormalities

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

16) According to Sutherland’s (1939) differential association theory, crime is the result of?

  1. poverty
  2. labelling
  3. learning
  4. socio-economic strain
  5. high levels of extraversion and neuroticism

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

17) Which of the following theorists is most closely associated with labelling theories of crime?

  1. Merton
  2. Becker
  3. Sutherland
  4. Bowlby
  5. Bandura

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

18) According to Eysenck, which of the following would be at risk for criminal behaviour?

  1. someone with good conditionability
  2. someone with low levels of extraversion and neuroticism
  3. someone with high levels of extraversion and neuroticism
  4. someone who is easy to socialize
  5. someone with low self-control

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

19) Which of the following is the correct pairing of psychologist to theory?

  1. Sheldon – strain theory
  2. Eysenck – chromosomal theory
  3. Akers – social learning theory
  4. Hirschi – biosocial theory
  5. Sutherland – dyscontrol theory

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 7-8

 

20) The case of Brown v. Board of Education (1954) has been cited as a significant case in the development of psychology and the law. On what issue in this case did psychologists submit a brief to the Supreme Court?

  1. prejudice and discrimination
  2. intelligence
  3. aggression
  4. inclusion of mitigating factors in death penalty decisions
  5. gender differences in treatment readiness

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 8-9

 

21) The issue in the case of Jenkins v. United States (1962) that is of most interest to forensic psychologists is?

  1. the right for a defendant to plead not guilty by reason of insanity
  2. the duty to inform a third party of potential risks
  3. the duty to report suspected cases of child abuse
  4. the admissibility of expert testimony from psychologists on mental disorders
  5. the use of psychology in civil trials

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 9

 

22) Historically, psychologists in Canada have made the most significant contributions in what area of forensic psychology?

  1. Eyewitness testimony
  2. Jury decision making
  3. Deception detection
  4. Risk assessment and treatment
  5. Police selection and training

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 9

 

23) The first federal correctional psychologist was hired in what province or territory?

  1. British Columbia
  2. Ontario
  3. Quebec
  4. Northwest Territories
  5. Alberta

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 10

 

24) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada first define the criteria for determining when the testimony of expert witnesses, including psychologists, would be admitted in court?

  1. R. v. Daubert
  2. R. v, Mohan
  3. R. v. Gladue
  4. R. v. Oickle
  5. R. v. Hubbert

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 10

 

25) Which of the following indicators demonstrates that forensic psychology has established itself as a field?

  1. the development of professional associations that represent the interests of forensic psychologists
  2. a consensus on the definition of forensic psychology
  3. the fact that forensic psychologists now regularly take on the role of legal scholar
  4. the fact that criteria for admitting expert testimony from forensic psychologists have become more lenient
  5. widespread prescription privileges for forensic psychologists

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 12

 

26) According to the narrow definition of forensic psychology, which of the following specialists would not be considered a forensic psychologist?

  1. A psychologist who provides risk assessments to the parole board
  2. A psychologist who studies how psychopathy influences patterns of offending
  3. A psychologist who treats victims and perpetrators of intimate partner violence
  4. A psychologist who consults with lawyers concerning whether their clients are fit to stand trial
  5. A psychologist who provides court-mandated treatment to offenders

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 12-13

 

27) Which of the following is not a likely activity of a clinical forensic psychologist?

  1. studying the effects of lighting conditions on eyewitness recall
  2. evaluating the parents of a troubled teen for custody and access recommendations
  3. delivering treatment programs to high risk sex offenders
  4. assessing juvenile delinquents in detention centres for behavioural problems
  5. practising relaxation techniques with police officers on leave due to burnout

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 13

 

28) What is the main difference between a clinical forensic psychologist and a forensic psychiatrist?

  1. Forensic psychiatrists cannot provide expert testimony in court.
  2. Clinical forensic psychologists can prescribe medication.
  3. Forensic psychiatrists aren’t concerned with mental health issues.
  4. Clinical forensic psychologists rely more on a medical model of mental illness.
  5. Forensic psychiatrists are medical doctors.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 13-15

 

29) Which task is likely to be performed by an experimental forensic psychologist?

  1. examining the effects of judges’ instructions on jury verdicts
  2. providing expert testimony
  3. examining the effects of correctional programs on reoffending rates
  4. studying the effects of police stress on job satisfaction
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 13-15

 

30) Which forensic discipline is concerned with examining the remains of dead bodies in an attempt to determine time and cause of death through autopsy?

  1. Forensic anthropology
  2. Forensic odontology
  3. Forensic entomology
  4. Forensic pathology
  5. Forensic podiatry

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 15

 

31) Dr. Marlon works with the police to determine time of death by examining insect activity surrounding a dead body. Which of the following disciplines does Dr. Marlon work in?

  1. Forensic anthropology
  2. Forensic odontology
  3. Forensic entomology
  4. Forensic pathology
  5. Forensic podiatry

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 15

 

32) Which of the following is an example of “psychology in the law”?

  1. a psychologist providing expert testimony in court on the accuracy of eyewitness identification
  2. examining how we can improve the assessment of fitness to stand trial
  3. validating a tool for predicting risk of violence
  4. a researcher examining factors that affect police decision making in a lab setting
  5. studying the impact of a new interrogation technique to see if it decreases the likelihood that people will make false confessions

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 16-18

 

33) Judges currently use findings from psychological research to decide whether a witness on the stand is lying or not. This is a good example of:

  1. psychology and the law
  2. psychology in the law
  3. informational influence
  4. Normalization
  5. psychology of the law

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 16-18

 

34) Which of the following is an example of studying “psychology and the law”:

  1. Providing expert testimony on child witnesses
  2. Studying “are eyewitnesses accurate?”
  3. Police using proper interviewing techniques
  4. Studying how judicial discretion influences future criminal behaviour
  5. Examining how court rulings influence forensic psychologists

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 16-18

 

35) Which of the following statements concerning our criminal justice system is true?

  1. Police officers are good at detecting deception
  2. Getting “tough on crime” works to reduce future criminal behaviour.
  3. Police officers are less likely to get divorced than the general population.
  4. Sex offender treatment doesn’t work.
  5. Clinicians can accurately predict whether offenders will commit new offences.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 17-18

 

36) Which of the following statements concerning our criminal justice system is false?

  1. Police officers are good at detecting deception
  2. Sex offender treatment can be effective at reducing reoffending.
  3. Clinicians who use actuarial risk assessments are better at predicting risk of reoffending relative to those who rely on unstructured professional judgment.
  4. Police officers have comparable rates of suicide to the general population.
  5. Eyewitnesses can make mistakes when presented with police lineups.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 17-18

 

37) What is the main difference between an expert witness and other witnesses in court?

  1. Expert witnesses are not cross-examined.
  2. Expert witnesses can only testify about what they directly observed.
  3. Expert witnesses are able to offer their opinion to the court.
  4. Expert witnesses are only available for the prosecution.
  5. Expert witnesses do not have to meet any criteria before they are allowed to testify.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 19-20

 

38) What would be considered the most ethical behaviour for a psychologist who is hired as an expert witness?

  1. provide testimony consistent with the party that hired you
  2. ensure that both the defence and the prosecution have an expert witness
  3. provide testimony relevant to the case as you understand it
  4. discuss your testimony with both the defence team and the prosecution team
  5. provide only a written report rather than testify in person

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 19-21

 

39) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada set the guidelines for when, and how, expert testimony should be used in cases involving battered woman syndrome?

  1. R. v. Lavallee
  2. R. v, Mohan
  3. R. v. Gladue
  4. R. v. Oickle
  5. R. v. Hubbert

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 19

 

40) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that police interrogation techniques using psychological coercion were an acceptable way to extract confessions and were admissible in court?

  1. R. v. Swain
  2. R. v. L.T.H.
  3. R. v. Gladue
  4. R. v. Oickle
  5. R. v. Hubbert

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 19

 

41) In what legal case did the Supreme Court of Canada formally acknowledge that jurors can be biased by numerous sources of information, ranging from direct involvement in a case to pretrial publicity or community sentiment?

  1. R. v. Swain
  2. R. v. L.T.H.
  3. R. v. Williams
  4. R. v. Oickle
  5. R. v. Hubbert

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 19

 

42) Hess (1987, 1999) describes seven dimensions along which law and psychology differ. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Psychology is nomothetic and law is idiographic.
  2. Psychology is prescriptive and law is descriptive.
  3. Psychological knowledge is gained through research and legal knowledge is gained through precedent.
  4. A psychologist’s behaviour is severely limited within the court while the behaviour of a lawyer is less restricted.
  5. Psychology believes in the quest for objective truths whereas the law defines truth subjectively.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 20

 

43) According to Hess (1987, 1999), which of the following accurately represents a dimension along which law and psychology can be contrasted?

  1. Law is idiographic while psychology is nomothetic.
  2. Law is descriptive while psychology is prescriptive.
  3. Law is proactive while psychology is reactive.
  4. Law is academic while psychology is operational.
  5. Law defines truth objectively while psychology defines truth subjectively.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 20

 

44) Which of the following was not identified by Hess (1987, 1999) as a dimension along which law and psychology differ?

  1. latitude
  2. principles
  3. criteria
  4. purpose
  5. epistemology

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 20

 

45) The “general acceptance test” relates to:

  1. eyewitness recall
  2. child witnesses
  3. aggression and segregation in schools
  4. suggestive questioning techniques
  5. the admissibility of expert testimony

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 21-22

 

46) Which of the following is not specified by the Daubert criteria, which are used to determine the validity of scientific evidence?

  1. the research adheres to professional standards
  2. the research is falsifiable
  3. the research has been peer reviewed
  4. the research has a recognized rate of error
  5. the research has been conducted in real-world (i.e., non-lab) settings

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 22

 

47) Why is the case of R. v. Mohan (1994) so important to forensic psychologists?

  1. It stressed the duty to protect a third party.
  2. It dealt with the admissibility of expert evidence.
  3. It established guidelines for reporting child abuse.
  4. It highlighted the importance of client confidentiality.
  5. It dealt with the issue of racial segregation.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 22-23

 

48) According to R. v. Mohan (1994), which is not a consideration when determining the admissibility of expert testimony?

  1. The expert must be qualified.
  2. The testimony must provide information that goes beyond the jurors’ common understanding.
  3. The evidence provided must be necessary for assisting the trier of fact.
  4. The testimony must have been allowed into evidence by a higher court.
  5. The evidence must not violate any rules of exclusion.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 22-23

 

49) What is the significance of the case of R. v. McIntosh and McCarthy (1997)?

  1. It dealt with racial segregation.
  2. It raises potential problems with the Mohan criteria.
  3. It dealt with issues associated with the insanity defence.
  4. It highlighted the importance of voluntary (i.e., non-coercive) confessions.
  5. It established guidelines for cross-examination.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 23-25

 

Chapter 4: Multiple Choice

 

1) Methods of detecting deception in Ancient China required suspects to do which of the following tasks?

  1. Putting their hand on a hot iron
  2. Walking across hot coals
  3. Putting their arm in a cauldron of boiling water
  4. Chewing dry rice powder
  5. Chewing a piece of bread

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

2) The first polygraph test was developed by:

  1. John Larson
  2. William Marston
  3. a group of FBI researchers
  4. James Frye
  5. Hugo Munsterberg

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

3) Which of the following is not measured by the polygraph test?

  1. heart rate
  2. galvanic skin response
  3. micro facial expressions
  4. breathing
  5. the polygraph measures all of these things

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

4) The polygraph measures

  1. changes in emotional arousal associated specifically with deception
  2. changes in blood pressure, voice modulation, and perspiration
  3. changes in blood pressure, respiration, and skin conductance
  4. increases in emotional arousal in response to the control question compared to the relevant question, indicative of deception
  5. changes in blood pressure, brain-wave activity, and respiration

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

5) Which of the following are potential applications of the polygraph in Canada?

  1. Polygraph testing is used to screen prospective employees in certain agencies.
  2. Polygraph results are used to pressure individuals to confess to a crime.
  3. A polygraph test may be administered to the alleged victim of a crime to help determine whether the crime has indeed occurred.
  4. A polygraph test may be administered to verify insurance claims.
  5. All of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95-96

 

6) In Canada the polygraph is used primarily in which context?

  1. police investigations
  2. employment screening
  3. treatment of sexual offenders
  4. management of sexual offenders
  5. court to assess the credibility of witnesses

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 95

 

7) Which of the following organizations would not be permitted to use the polygraph to screen or test employees?

  1. Intelligence agencies
  2. Police services
  3. Government agencies
  4. Private management companies
  5. All of the above would be permitted to use the polygraph

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96

 

8) What type of test is used to uncover information about an offender’s past behaviour?

  1. Concealed information test
  2. Guilty knowledge test
  3. Polygraph disclosure test
  4. Control question test
  5. Historical assessment test

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96

 

9) “During the first 20 years of your life, did you ever think of seriously hurting someone?” This is an example of what type of polygraph question?

  1. a relevant question
  2. an irrelevant question
  3. a concealed information question
  4. a comparison question
  5. a suppressed question

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

10) Most polygraph examiners using the Comparison Question Test (CQT) score according to the:

  1. suspect’s demeanour during the test
  2. information from the case file
  3. physiological responses
  4. suspect’s past criminal record
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

11) The Comparison Question Test has been criticized for:

  1. being susceptible to countermeasures
  2. having a high false-false rate
  3. using subjective methods of scoring
  4. assuming that innocent suspects will show larger responses to the comparison questions as compared to the relevant
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-97

 

12) Which polygraph test does not assess deception but seeks to determine whether the suspect knows details about a crime that only the person who committed the crime would know?

  1. Polygraph disclosure test
  2. Comparison question test
  3. Concealed information test
  4. Ground truth test
  5. Truth evasion test

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

13) Which of the following is a criticism of the Concealed Information Test?

  1. It requires full disclosure from the suspect.
  2. The test will only work if the suspect remembers the details of the crime.
  3. Reactions to relevant questions may be the same for an anxious but innocent person as a guilty party,
  4. Arousal to crime-related questions decreases over time the more a suspect is asked about them.
  5. It frequently returns inconsistent results relative to other questioning methods.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

14) According to your textbook, what is the most common physiological response measured when administering the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?

  1. palmar sweating
  2. heart rate
  3. blood pressure
  4. eye blinks
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98

 

15) Several types of studies may be used to validate polygraph techniques. Which type of study would likely involve a comparison of the accuracy between original examiners and blind evaluators, using actual criminal suspects?

  1. field analogue study
  2. laboratory study
  3. ground truth study
  4. guilty knowledge study
  5. field study

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98-99

 

16) One advantage of using laboratory studies to test the accuracy of the polygraph is that __________; one disadvantage is __________ as compared to field studies.

  1. you have better control over the variables; ground truth cannot be established
  2. ground truth is known; the motivational level of the subject
  3. you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; you have more control over the variables
  4. university students are used; the motivational level of the subject
  5. you can randomly assign subjects to innocent and guilty conditions; it is unethical

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 98-99

 

17) One disadvantage of using field studies to study deception in criminal suspects is that:

  1. the ground truth cannot be established.
  2. most are guilty reflecting a lie-bias.
  3. many suspects are able to fool the polygraph.
  4. suspects are often not motivated to be truthful.
  5. suspects rarely agree to be a part of a research study.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99

 

18) In laboratory studies of the accuracy of polygraph tests, it has been found that the Comparison Question Test is _______ effective at detecting ________ suspects, whereas the Concealed Information Test is ______ effective at detecting ________ suspects.

  1. more, guilty / more, innocent
  2. less, guilty / more, guilty
  3. more, innocent / less, guilty
  4. less, innocent / less, guilty
  5. more, guilty / less, innocent

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99-100

 

19) What has been identified as a major problem particular to the Comparison Question Test (CQT)?

  1. high false-negative rate
  2. high false-positive rate
  3. the use of extra-polygraph cues by the examiner
  4. falsely classifying guilty suspects as innocent
  5. difficult to tell, because no North American studies have been conducted on the CQT

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

20) What sorts of decision errors are problematic when using the Concealed Information Test (CIT)?

  1. false-positive errors
  2. false-negative errors
  3. true-positive errors
  4. true-negative errors
  5. false-true errors

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

21) You have been falsely accused of stealing a laptop computer from a professor’s office. The police have requested that you take a polygraph test to prove your innocence. In light of your knowledge of the types of errors most likely to be made by different types of polygraph exams, you agree to do so only if the examiner uses the:

  1. comparison question test
  2. relevant/irrelevant test
  3. zone of comparison format of scoring
  4. statement validity procedure
  5. concealed information test

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 99-100

 

22) Which of the following statements concerning the use of thermal imaging to detect deception is accurate?

  1. Thermal imaging of faces only is useful for identifying truth-tellers.
  2. Thermal imaging is no better than chance at identifying liars and truth-tellers.
  3. Trained interviewers perform better than thermal imaging to detect deception.
  4. Thermal imaging is highly effective at determining both liars and truth-tellers.
  5. Thermal imaging often misidentifies truth-tellers as liars, but accurately detects liars.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 100

 

23) Which of the following has not been found effective as a countermeasure to “beat” the polygraph test?

  1. tongue-biting
  2. pressing toes on the floor
  3. counting backwards
  4. anti-anxiety drugs
  5. all of the above have been found effective as countermeasures

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 101

 

24) Which of the following is true of the polygraph?

  1. Polygraph results are regularly admitted as evidence in Canadian courts.
  2. The most common polygraph method used currently is the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
  3. The polygraph directly measures whether a person is lying.
  4. Research indicates that physical countermeasures are largely ineffective in “beating” the polygraph.
  5. Research conducted thus far indicates the polygraph is highly accurate at detecting deception.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 101-102

 

25) In what case did the Supreme Court of Canada rule that polygraph evidence should not be admitted in court to help determine truthfulness?

  1. R. v. Hubbert
  2. R. v. Mohan
  3. R. v. Swain
  4. R. v. Beland
  5. R. v. Frye

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 102-103

 

26) When using brain-based polygraph techniques, what does ERP stand for?

  1. emotional response pattern
  2. event response pattern
  3. event-related brain potential
  4. emotional-related brain potential
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 103

 

27) Which of the following techniques has not been proposed as a method of detecting deception?

  1. ERPs
  2. fMRI
  3. “facial temperature”
  4. polygraph
  5. TAT

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 96-100, 103-104

 

28) When using an ERP to detect deception, guilty suspects should respond to crime-relevant events and details with a large __________ relative to noncrime-relevant events.

  1. P300 response
  2. N100 response
  3. increase in blood flow
  4. rise in facial temperature
  5. activation of the frontal lobe

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 103-104

 

29) Testing using fMRI procedures has indicated that the areas of the brain most commonly associated with lying are:

  1. the temporal and frontal lobes
  2. the frontal lobe and the limbic system
  3. the amygdala and the posterior cingulate cortex
  4. the association cortex and temporal lobe
  5. the prefrontal lobe and anterior cingulate cortex

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 104

 

30) In a study by McCabe, Castel, and Rhodes (2011), which type of lie detection test was associated with the greatest number of guilty verdicts returned by mock jurors?

  1. The polygraph
  2. Thermal imaging
  3. Voice stress analysis
  4. fMRI lie detection
  5. ERP brain fingerprinting

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 104

 

31) Which verbal indicator has been most strongly associated with deception?

  1. speech fillers
  2. voice pitch
  3. speech pauses
  4. speech errors (e.g., slips of the tongue)
  5. rate of speech

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 107-108

 

32) Which nonverbal cue has consistently been found to indicate deception?

  1. smiling
  2. gaze aversion
  3. self-manipulations (e.g., fidgeting)
  4. blinking
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 106-108

 

33) Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Liars consistently provide fewer details than truth-tellers.
  2. Truth-tellers are less likely to change their stories.
  3. Liars are less likely to admit to lack of memory.
  4. Liars’ stories are less fluent than the stories of truth-tellers.
  5. Liars tell less compelling stories than truth-tellers.

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 108

 

34) Recent research by Matsumoto, Hwang, Skinner, and Frank (2011) has recommended that during interrogations, investigators should pay attention not only to what a suspect says but also the suspect’s face. Why was this recommendation made?

  1. Evidence suggests facial temperature increases when suspects are lying.
  2. Studies have found that eye movements and gaze aversion are indicative of deception.
  3. Research suggests that micro facial expressions reflect the true emotions someone is feeling
  4. Truth tellers have been found to display greater facial movements relative to liars
  5. An increase in mouth and forehead movements have been linked to telling a lie.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 106-107

 

35) A study by Hillman, Vrij, and Mann (2012) found that _____________ were more associated with truth-telling relative to lying.

  1. illustrators
  2. shrugs and indications of “I don’t know”
  3. head nodding
  4. rhythmic hand gestures
  5. smiling

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 107-108

 

36) Research on the accuracy of online dating profiles has found the following is true.

  1. Online daters are most likely to lie about whether they are married, divorced, or single.
  2. Online daters are most likely to lie about the number of children they have.
  3. Online daters provide most accurate information about their height and weight.
  4. Online daters are most accurate about whether they had children.
  5. Online daters always include a photo of themselves in order to increase their odds of finding a match.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109

 

37) In general, how accurate do people tend to be when using verbal and non-verbal behaviour to detect deception (where a value of 100% indicates that they can accurately discriminate between truthful people and deceptive people all of the time)?

  1. under 10%
  2. between 25% and 35%
  3. between 45% and 65%
  4. around 25%
  5. around 90%

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109-110

 

38) Which of the following statements is true regarding the detection of deception?

  1. People can be trained to improve their ability to detect deception in others.
  2. People are generally better at detecting truth than detecting lies.
  3. High-stake lies are easier to detect than low-stake lies.
  4. Many professionals (e.g., police officers) are no better than detecting deception than the general population.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 109-113

 

39) In a study on beliefs about lying, what was the most common stereotype about liars?

  1. Liars avoid eye contact.
  2. Gut instincts are reliable indicators of deception.
  3. People telling the truth never say they don’t remember.
  4. Liars often fidget and blink excessively.
  5. Liars speak with a higher pitch of voice.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 110

 

40) Melissa is participating in a deception detection study. She is given a set of 12 videos to watch and is required to indicate whether the person in the video is telling the truth or lying. She indicates that she believes 10 of the 12 to be telling the truth. Her results demonstrate what phenomenon in deception detection studies?

  1. A lie bias
  2. The challenge of determining ground truth
  3. A truth bias
  4. Wizard-like detection ability
  5. The cognitive complexity hypothesis

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 110

 

41) Which one of the following statements concerning deception detection is accurate?

  1. Deception judgments depend more on the liar than the judge.
  2. Professionals are consistently better than laypersons at detecting deception.
  3. Relatives lying about killing their loved ones are more likely to smile than innocent suspects.
  4. Judgments of truthfulness are dependent upon the personality of the judge.
  5. Complex lies are associated with fewer cues to deception relative to simple lies.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 111-112

 

42) Recommendations concerning training programs for improving deception detection abilities in professionals include:

  1. Utilizing new techniques such as thermal imaging and voice stress analysis.
  2. Teaching professionals how to elicit cues to deception in interviewing.
  3. Focusing on teaching both deception cues and truthfulness cues to counteract lie biases in professional populations.
  4. Instructing police officers to go “back to the basics” and rely on their gut instincts in determining truthfulness.
  5. Focusing on behavioural cues to deception and debunking myths about verbal cues.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 113

 

43) What disorder consists of symptoms that are intentionally produced or falsified in the absence of obvious external rewards?

  1. Munchausen syndrome
  2. malingering disorder
  3. factitious disorder
  4. somatoform disorder
  5. non-deceptive disorder

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 114

 

44) Susan gives her infant son various medications to make him appear like he is suffering from an unknown illness, and takes him regularly to doctors and the emergency room to assess these fake symptoms. This is an example of what disorder of deception?

  1. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  2. Malingering disorder
  3. Factitious disorder
  4. Somatoform disorder
  5. Non-deceptive disorder

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 114-115

 

45) What is one of the key components to malingering?

  1. Symptoms are not intentionality produced.
  2. There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.
  3. There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.
  4. Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.
  5. There is an absence of external incentives.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 115

 

46) The incidence of malingering in the general population is:

  1. less than 1%
  2. about 5%
  3. about 10%
  4. about 20%
  5. unknown

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 115

 

47) A patient who actually has schizophrenia denies his auditory hallucinations when questioned by doctors. This patient is likely exhibiting:

  1. defensiveness
  2. Munchausen syndrome by proxy
  3. factitious disorder
  4. somatoform disorder
  5. malingering

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116

 

48) Which model postulates that offenders with antisocial personality disorder are more likely to malinger than other offenders?

  1. criminological model
  2. pathogenic model
  3. adaptational model
  4. antisocial personality model
  5. DSM-5 model

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

49) Samson is believed to be faking symptoms of physical and psychological illnesses because he has another underlying mental disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder. Which model of malingering is most applicable to this example?

  1. criminological model
  2. pathogenic model
  3. adaptational model
  4. antisocial personality model
  5. DSM-5 model

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

50) According to research findings, the most probable explanation of malingering is captured by:

  1. a pathogenic model
  2. a criminological model
  3. an adaptational model
  4. an antisocial model
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 116-117

 

51) Most research on malingering uses a ___________ design.

  1. known-groups
  2. simulation
  3. case study
  4. cross-sequential
  5. cross-sectional

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 117

 

52) Which statement is true of the ethical aspects of research on malingering?

  1. Studies on malingering most often provide negative incentives to participants.
  2. Ethics boards have disallowed the use of deception by experimenters in the study of malingering.
  3. While deception by experimenters has been used in research on malingering, the participants usually remain unmotivated by the made-up incentives.
  4. Researchers must often balance ethical concerns with attempts to increase the internal validity of their study.
  5. None of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 118

 

53) Dr. Parsons conducted a study comparing a group of individuals diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder to a group of individuals believed to be faking post-traumatic stress disorder in order to obtain worker’s compensation. What type of study design is Dr. Parsons using to investigate malingering?

  1. known-groups
  2. simulation
  3. case study
  4. cross-sequential
  5. cross-sectional

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119

 

54) Research has found that feigning psychosis often was associated with diagnosis of what other mental disorder?

  1. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
  2. Hypochondriasis
  3. Antisocial personality disorder
  4. Borderline personality disorder
  5. Bipolar depression

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119

 

55) What was the major conclusion drawn by Rosenham (1973) on the research involving the hospitalization of pseudo-patients?

  1. All pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  2. None of the pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  3. About half the pseudo-patients were correctly identified by hospital staff.
  4. Pseudo-patients came to internalize their symptoms to such an extent that their condition progressively worsened during their hospital stay.
  5. None of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 120

 

56) Which of the following is an indicator of malingered psychosis?

  1. report of blunted affect
  2. reported ability to “make the voices go away”
  3. reporting negative symptoms of psychosis
  4. eagerness to discuss delusions
  5. hallucinations in colour

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119-121

 

57) Which of the following is not a cue to malingered psychosis in criminal defendants?

  1. hallucinations with delusions
  2. understandable motive for committing crime
  3. absence of subtle signs of psychosis
  4. presence of a partner in the crime
  5. visual hallucinations in black and white

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 119-121

 

58) The Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms includes which of the following scales?

  1. suggestibility
  2. criminal motivation for offending
  3. sudden emergence of psychotic symptoms
  4. blatant symptoms
  5. compliance symptoms

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 122-123

 

59) Which malingering measure has been extensively validated using both simulation and known-group design studies?

  1. Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)
  2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
  3. M Test
  4. F Scale Test
  5. Symptom Validity Test

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 122-123

 

60) What self-report questionnaire has been most widely utilized in studies of malingering by examining validity scales (i.e., faking bad)?

  1. Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)
  2. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
  3. Trauma Symptom Inventory (TSI-2)
  4. Test of Memory Malingering (TOMM)
  5. NEO Five Factor Personality Inventory Revised (NEO-PI-R)

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 123

 

Chapter 12: Multiple Choice

 

1) What age range did the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA) cover?

  1. 2 to 12 years
  2. 2 to 18 years
  3. 4 to 14 years
  4. 6 to 12 years
  5. 7 to 16 years (18 years in some jurisdictions)

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 328

 

2) Current law in Canada dictates that anyone younger than age 12 who engages in a criminal act is processed through ________________.

  1. the civil court system.
  2. youth courts.
  3. family and social service agencies.
  4. hospitals.
  5. sentencing circles.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 328

 

3) A separate youth court system was first established with the introduction of:

  1. the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA)
  2. the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA)
  3. the Youth Diversion Act (YDA)
  4. the Young Offenders Act (YOA)
  5. none of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 328

 

4) What disposition was available for delinquents under the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA)?

  1. sentenced to an industrial school
  2. adjournment without penalty
  3. probation
  4. foster care
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 328

 

5) According to the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA), what was the minimum age set for which a child could be charged with a criminal offence?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 11
  4. 12
  5. 14

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 328

 

6) Which of the following statements is not a criticism of the Young Offenders Act?

  1. Youths were sometimes denied rights such as right to counsel and right to appeal.
  2. Violent offences carried relatively “light” sentences.
  3. Disagreements existed concerning raising the minimum age from 7 to 12 years.
  4. Discrepancies existed with factors leading to youth transfer to adult court.
  5. All of the above are criticisms of the Young Offenders Act.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 329-330

 

7) What is not an objective of the Youth Criminal Justice Act?

  1. to prevent youth crime
  2. to provide meaningful consequences and encourage responsibility of behaviour
  3. to improve rehabilitation and reintegration of youth into the community
  4. to keep young offenders out of court and in the community
  5. all of the above are objectives

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 330

 

8) The Youth Criminal Justice Act introduced a new form of custodial sentence called:

  1. Intensive Rehabilitative Custody and Supervision Order
  2. Youth Forensic Community Treatment Programs
  3. Extrajudicial Sentence Program
  4. Reintegrative Secure and Community Custody Order
  5. Graduated Sentencing Program

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 330

 

9) Under the Youth Criminal Justice Act, under what condition can the name of the youth be reported to the public?

  1. if the defendant is between the ages of 14 and 17 and is convicted of serious, violent offences
  2. if the youth is considered dangerous
  3. if the youth has not yet been apprehended
  4. All of the above are conditions where the name of the youth can be reported to public.
  5. Under no circumstances can a youth’s name be reported in the media.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 330

 

10) What is not a sentencing option under the Youth Criminal Justice Act?

  1. reprimand
  2. intensive support and supervision order
  3. attendance order
  4. deferred custody and supervision order
  5. All of the above are sentencing options.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 331

 

11) Under the Criminal Justice Act, what is the minimum age a judge can impose an adult sentence?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16
  5. 18

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 331-332

 

12) Generally, the total number of crimes committed by youth has been:

  1. increasing
  2. decreasing
  3. no change
  4. decreasing for those under 10
  5. increasing for those over 10

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 332

 

13) What is the most frequent sentence imposed in youth court?

  1. fine
  2. incarceration
  3. probation
  4. reprimand
  5. absolute discharge

 

Answer: c

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 332

 

14) Which category of criminal code offence showed the greatest percentage decrease in the number of cases completed in youth court between 2009-2010 and 2010-2011?

  1. Violent offences
  2. Property offences
  3. Administration of justice offences
  4. Traffic offences
  5. Federal statute offences

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 333-334

 

15) Which category of criminal code offence showed the smallest percentage decrease in the number of cases completed in youth court between 2009-2010 and 2010-2011?

  1. Violent offences
  2. Property offences
  3. Administration of justice offences
  4. Traffic offences
  5. Federal statute offences

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 333-334

 

16) What is the maximum sentence that can be given to youth under the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA)?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 5 years
  4. 10 years
  5. 15 years

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 334

 

17) Prior to commencing a court-ordered assessment of a child or adolescent, a clinician must legally:

  1. obtain consent from the youth’s parents or guardians
  2. obtain consent from the youth
  3. obtain assent from the youth
  4. obtain consent from the youth’s lawyer
  5. court-ordered assessments do not legally require consent or assent.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 335-336

 

18) Which is an example of an internalizing disorder?

  1. depression
  2. anxiety
  3. obsessions
  4. All of the above are examples of an internalizing disorder.
  5. None of the above are examples of an internalizing disorder.

 

Answer: d

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

19) Which is not an example of an externalizing disorder?

  1. bullying
  2. lying
  3. fighting
  4. destructive behaviour
  5. All are examples of an externalizing disorder.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

20) Which of the following statements is false regarding externalizing problems in youth?

  1. They are more difficult to treat than internalizing problems.
  2. They are more likely to be experienced by males.
  3. They are not very stable.
  4. They focus on behavioural difficulties.
  5. Internalizing problems might co-occur with externalizing difficulties.

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

21) Which type of problems in youth are considered to be more difficult to treat?

  1. Emotional problems
  2. Internalizing problems
  3. Attention problems
  4. Externalizing problems
  5. Cognitive problems

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

22) What is the ratio of males to females likely to have externalizing difficulties?

  1. 10:1
  2. 5:1
  3. 2:1
  4. 20:1
  5. 30:1

 

Answer: a

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

23) What is not true regarding assessing externalizing problems in children?

  1. Parents, teachers and peers may be interviewed.
  2. Behaviour should be considered within a developmental context.
  3. The duration, severity, and frequency of troublesome behaviours should be measured.
  4. The child/youth may not be aware of his/her behaviour.
  5. All of the above are true.

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

24) Approximately what percentage of children with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) go on to develop conduct disorder (CD)?

  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 40%
  5. 50%

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

25) Approximately ________ of youth diagnosed with conduct disorder (CD) will receive a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder (APD) in adulthood.

  1. 10%
  2. 25%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
  5. 75%

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

26) Which diagnosis is often a precursor to antisocial personality disorder?

  1. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
  2. oppositional defiant disorder
  3. conduct disorder
  4. depression
  5. anxiety

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

27) Which of the following is not a characteristic of conduct disorder (CD)?

  1. difficulty with organization
  2. sets fires
  3. initiates fights
  4. is physically cruel to animals
  5. lies for personal gain

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

28) Spencer is a 13 year old boy who is frequently irritable, argumentative, and acts in a vindictive and revengeful fashion any time anyone “wrongs” him. He often is angry and refuses to obey his parents and teachers. If you were a clinician assessing Spencer’s behaviour, which is the most likely diagnosis you would give him?

  1. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
  2. Oppositional defiant disorder
  3. Conduct disorder
  4. Antisocial personality disorder
  5. Psychopathy

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

29) Monty is a 15 year old youth who constantly breaks the rules, has been fined many times by the police for repeated property and assaultive offences, engages in bullying, and believes that “rules were made to be broken”. He is well-known to local law enforcement as a “future long-term offender” and was recently mandated to a community treatment program following an attack on a female student involving sexual exploitation. If you were a clinician assessing Monty’s behaviour, which is the most likely diagnosis you would give him?

  1. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
  2. Oppositional defiant disorder
  3. Conduct disorder
  4. Antisocial personality disorder
  5. Psychopathy

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 336

 

30) Which of the following statements is true regarding identifying risk factors for young offenders?

  1. History of behaviour is limited and ambiguous for young offenders
  2. Adolescent behaviour may be more influenced by context than enduring characteristics
  3. Adolescents experience more developmental and character changes than adults
  4. It is a challenge to separate developmental issues from persistent personality and character
  5. All of the above are true

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 337

 

31) According to the Ontario Child Health Study, approximately what percentage of children between the ages of 4 and 16 were found to experience conduct disorder, hyperactivity, emotional disturbance, or a combination of these?

  1. 1%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 40%
  5. 50%

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 337

 

32) Which of the following risk assessment measures is not used with young offenders in Canada?

  1. HCR-20
  2. ORAMS
  3. SAVRY
  4. VRAG
  5. ACDI

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 338

 

33) Which of the following risk assessment measures is used primarily to assess substance use and abuse in young offenders?

  1. HCR-20
  2. YLS-CMI
  3. SAVRY
  4. YO-LSI
  5. ACDI

 

Answer: e

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 338

 

34) Craig is a youth in secure custody, and is assessed for his level of risk through use of an Inmate Security Assessment and a Primary Risk Assessment. Which of the following risk assessment tools is being utilized in Craig’s case?

  1. HCR-20
  2. YLS-CMI
  3. SAVRY
  4. ORAMS
  5. ACDI

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 338

 

35) Which of the following statements is true regarding the developmental trajectory of youthful offenders?

  1. Early onset of antisocial behaviour is usually more treatable and less persistent than a later onset of antisocial behaviour.
  2. Most young offenders begin committing antisocial acts in adolescence rather than childhood.
  3. Most children with behavioural problems go on to become adult offenders.
  4. Generally, levels of aggression exhibited in childhood and adolescence remain fairly stable with age.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339

 

36) According to Moffitt’s developmental pathways to youthful offending, which type of trajectory is most strongly associated with serious persistent antisocial behaviour in adulthood?

  1. Psychopathic pathway
  2. Childhood-onset
  3. Externalizing pathway
  4. Adolescent-onset
  5. Internalizing pathway

 

Answer: b

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339

 

37) Youth regularly engaging in antisocial acts are more likely than non-antisocial youth to:

  1. have a greater degree of frontal lobe inhibition
  2. have a biological mother that engaged in antisocial behaviour
  3. misattribute hostile intent to negative situations
  4. demonstrate cognitive deficits
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: d

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339-340

 

38) Observations of aggression and violence amongst a youth’s parents, peers, and siblings has been found to lead to greater aggressive tendencies in the youth, especially if the observed aggression was rewarded. This pattern of findings is consistent with what theory of youth antisocial behaviour?

  1. Biological theory
  2. Genetic theory
  3. Social learning theory
  4. Cognitive theory
  5. Attention theory

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339-341

 

39) Marcus attacked his grade 8 classmate during the lunch hour so that he could steal his test notes for the upcoming quiz. According to Dodge and colleagues, what type of aggression is Marcus displaying?

  1. Proactive aggression
  2. Reactive aggression
  3. Social aggression
  4. Cognitive aggression
  5. Situational aggression

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339-341

 

40) Juanita shoved Amber down the stairs at school after she caught Amber trying to kiss her boyfriend. According to Dodge and colleagues, what type of aggression is Juanita displaying?

  1. Proactive aggression
  2. Reactive aggression
  3. Social aggression
  4. Cognitive aggression
  5. Situational aggression

 

Answer: b

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 339-341

 

41) What is not considered an individual risk factor for behavioural problems in youth?

  1. impulsivity
  2. parent’s history of ADHD
  3. mother’s use of drugs or alcohol during pregnancy
  4. resilience
  5. difficult temperament

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 341-344

 

42) Which of the following familial risk factors is associated with behavioural problems in youth?

  1. parental alcohol use
  2. divorce
  3. inconsistent discipline
  4. child neglect
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 342

 

43) Erickson and Butters (2006) examined the relationship between gangs, guns, and drugs in Toronto and Montreal. What did they find?

  1. As gang presence in schools increased so did the number of guns and the amount of drugs.
  2. Gang presence in schools did not influence the number of guns or the amount of drugs.
  3. As gang presence in schools increased, the number of guns and the amount of drugs decreased.
  4. Gang presence in schools increases the number of guns but decreases the amount of drugs.
  5. Gang presence in schools decreases the number of guns but increases the amount of drugs.

 

Answer: a

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 343

 

44) Which of the following is considered one of the greatest school and social factors in risk for reoffending amongst youth?

  1. Having trouble reading
  2. Children with early CD symptoms
  3. Social rejection
  4. Being a member of a gang
  5. Low intelligence

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 343-344

 

45) _______________ is a general term used to describe the ability to overcome stress and adversity.

  1. Prosocial tendency
  2. Resilience
  3. Social competence
  4. Self-efficacy
  5. Self-esteem

 

Answer: b

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 344

 

46) In what way(s) are protective factors effective?

  1. They reduce negative outcomes by changing the risk level of the child’s exposure to a risk factor.
  2. They change the negative chain reaction following exposure to risk.
  3. They help to develop and maintain self-esteem and self-efficacy.
  4. They provide opportunities to children that they would not otherwise have.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 344-345

 

47) Tyson is a youth who has a good relationship with his parents and seems to have little interest in becoming involved in criminal activities, although he lives in a poor neighbourhood and often witnesses violence at school. What category of protective factors would his good parent-child relationship be classified as?

  1. Individual protective factors
  2. Biological protective factors
  3. Familial protective factors
  4. Social/external protective factors
  5. Relational protective factors

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 344-345

 

48) Strategies that attempt to reduce the frequency of violence are known as:

  1. primary intervention strategies
  2. class-one intervention strategies
  3. secondary intervention strategies
  4. class-two intervention strategies
  5. tertiary intervention strategies

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 345-346

 

49) The SNAP Under 12 Outreach Project (ORP) is an example of what type of strategy?

  1. family-oriented strategy
  2. secondary intervention strategy
  3. school-oriented strategy
  4. community-wide strategy
  5. tertiary intervention strategy

 

Answer: d

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 347

 

50) Project Head Start and the Incredible Years Parenting Program are both examples of what type of intervention strategy?

  1. family-oriented strategy
  2. secondary intervention strategy
  3. primary intervention strategy
  4. community-wide strategy
  5. tertiary intervention strategy

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 346-347

 

51) The following therapy considers the influence of the family, peers, school, neighbourhood, and community environment:

  1. parent training
  2. cognitive training
  3. dual systems approach
  4. social-skills training
  5. multisystemic therapy

 

Answer: e

Diff: Easy

Type: MC

Page Reference: 348-349

 

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding multisystemic therapy (MST) with young offenders?

  1. The youth’s case manager is accessible 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
  2. Treatment outcome studies show that MST is more effective than the usual services available in Ontario.
  3. MST proposes that delinquency is multi-determined and that treatment should occur in institutions.
  4. MST focuses solely on the youth’s relationship with his/her primary caregiver.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: a

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 348-349

 

53) A study in Ontario found that multisystemic therapy (MST) was not more effective at reducing recidivism than providing usual services for high-risk youth. According to your text, which of the following statements was suggested as a potential explanation for this unexpected finding?

  1. The study did not include a follow-up period.
  2. The usual services group was at much lower risk to reoffend at the beginning of the study.
  3. MST may have benefited youths on factors that were not included in the study.
  4. The researchers failed to include a control group, so no explanation is possible.
  5. all of the above

 

Answer: c

Diff: Hard

Type: MC

Page Reference: 348-349

 

54) What is the goal of tertiary intervention strategies?

  1. to prevent violence from occurring in the first place
  2. to reduce the frequency of violence
  3. to reduce the likelihood that the at-risk adolescent will engage in future offending
  4. to punish
  5. to include the school to reduce the frequency of violence

 

Answer: c

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 349, 351

 

55) Which of the following is an example of a tertiary intervention strategy?

  1. Project Head Start
  2. Multisystemic Therapy
  3. SNAP Outreach Project
  4. Project Restart
  5. Rap in Prison Project

 

Answer: e

Diff: Moderate

Type: MC

Page Reference: 351