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Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition By McMurray – Peterson
Sample  Questions      

 

Fundamentals of General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 8e (McMurry)

Chapter 1   Matter and Measurements 

 

1) Which of the following is a chemical property?

  1. A) melting point
  2. B) mass
  3. C) flammability
  4. D) volume
  5. E) temperature

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

 

2) All of the following are examples of matter except

  1. A) heat.
  2. B) air.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) salt.
  5. E) plants.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

 

3) Which of the following is a physical property?

  1. A) flammability
  2. B) conductivity
  3. C) ability to support combustion
  4. D) corrosiveness
  5. E) inertness

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

 

 

4) Which of the following is a chemical property of aspirin?

  1. A) It does not decompose when protected from moisture.
  2. B) It does not readily dissolve in water.
  3. C) It can be compressed into tablets when mixed with cornstarch.
  4. D) It melts at 135°C.
  5. E) It is a white crystalline solid in pure form at room temperature.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

5) Which of the following is a physical change?

  1. A) the rusting of iron
  2. B) the condensation of water vapor
  3. C) the baking of a potato
  4. D) the explosion of nitroglycerin
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G2

 

6) Which statement describes a physical change?

  1. A) winding an alarm clock
  2. B) turning on a flashlight
  3. C) digesting your lunch
  4. D) burning the morning toast
  5. E) lighting a match

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

 

7) Which of the following causes a chemical change?

  1. A) winding an alarm clock
  2. B) metabolizing fat
  3. C) slicing a tomato
  4. D) digging a hole
  5. E) pumping gasoline

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G2

 

8) A chemist is given an unknown gas sample. Which observation describes a chemical property of the sample?

  1. A) It extinguishes a glowing splint.
  2. B) It has a sharp, stinging odor.
  3. C) It is colorless.
  4. D) Its density is greater than that of air.
  5. E) It weighs 11.2 grams.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G1

9) A chemist is given an unknown sample. Which of her observations is not a physical property?

  1. A) The sample is a colorless liquid.
  2. B) The sample has an odor similar to gasoline.
  3. C) The sample is flammable.
  4. D) The sample size is 55 mL.
  5. E) The density of the liquid is 0.789 g/mL.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G1

 

10) Which of the following is a physical property of aspirin?

  1. A) Aspirin can moderate some heart disorders when ingested.
  2. B) Aspirin does not decompose when tightly sealed in a bottle.
  3. C) Aspirin yields carbon dioxide and water vapor when burned.
  4. D) Aspirin can be pressed into tablets when mixed with cornstarch.
  5. E) Aspirin reacts with water to produce salicylic acid and acetic acid.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  1.1

LO:  1.1

Global LO:  G1

 

 

11) Which of the following is an example of matter?

  1. A) light
  2. B) clothing
  3. C) forgiveness
  4. D) jealousy
  5. E) wisdom

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G2

 

12) Which is an example of matter?

  1. A) electrical current
  2. B) conductivity
  3. C) reactivity
  4. D) plastic
  5. E) anxiety

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G2

13) Which best describes the size and shape of a sample of gas?

  1. A) It has definite volume and definite shape.
  2. B) It has definite volume, but shape is determined by the container.
  3. C) Its volume is determined by the container, but it has a definite shape.
  4. D) Volume and shape are both determined by the container.
  5. E) Volume and shape cannot be described.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G1

 

14) Which term does not describe a conversion between states of matter?

  1. A) condensation
  2. B) evaporation
  3. C) freezing
  4. D) melting
  5. E) mixing

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G2

 

15) 1-butanethiol, one of the compounds giving skunks their distinctive odor, freezes at -115.7°C and boils at 98.5°C. What is its phase at 37°C, the normal body temperature of humans?

  1. A) solid
  2. B) liquid
  3. C) gas
  4. D) a mixture of solid and liquid
  5. E) a mixture of liquid and gas

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G9

 

16) Malic acid, a compound used to increase the acidity of fruit-flavored products, freezes at 128°C and boils at 150°C. What is its phase at 100°C, a temperature used in food processing applications?

  1. A) solid
  2. B) liquid
  3. C) gas
  4. D) a mixture of solid and liquid
  5. E) a mixture of liquid and gas

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G9

17) Which factor determines the state of matter in which a substance exists?

  1. A) amount
  2. B) color
  3. C) density
  4. D) odor
  5. E) temperature

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G2

 

 

18) Which of the following are states of matter?

  1. A) solid
  2. B) suspension
  3. C) solution
  4. D) precipitate
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G2

 

19) Barium sulfate is described as a white crystalline solid that melts at 1580°C and decomposes at 1600°C. At a temperature of 500°C, you would expect a sample of barium sulfate to be a

  1. A) colorless liquid.
  2. B) white crystalline solid.
  3. C) yellow liquid.
  4. D) white cloud of vapor.
  5. E) form that cannot be determined.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.2

LO:  1.2

Global LO:  G9

 

20) Which of the following is a pure substance?

  1. A) root beer
  2. B) bleach
  3. C) eggs
  4. D) gasoline
  5. E) neon

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

21) Which of the following observations demonstrates that a solid sample is a compound?

  1. A) It cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical methods.
  2. B) It cannot be broken down into simpler substances by physical methods.
  3. C) Heating the substance causes it to melt, then to boil.
  4. D) Heating the substance causes no visible color change.
  5. E) Crushing the sample does not affect its other properties.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

22) A pure substance

  1. A) always has the same elemental composition.
  2. B) is composed of more than one element.
  3. C) can be broken into its components by physical means.
  4. D) is chemically inert.
  5. E) changes color when placed in bright sunlight.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

23) Which of the following is a mixture?

  1. A) cough syrup
  2. B) iron
  3. C) helium
  4. D) sodium hydrogen carbonate
  5. E) steam

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

 

24) Which of the following can be classified as a pure compound?

  1. A) alcohol in water, OH in O
  2. B) sugar,
  3. C) carbon, C
  4. D) iodine,
  5. E) Sulfur, S8

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

25) List and describe two differences between pure substances and mixtures.

Answer:  1. The composition of a pure substance is always the same, regardless of the source, but the composition of a mixture can vary.

  1. Mixtures can be separated into their components by physical changes; some pure substances can be separated into components by chemical change.

Diff: 1

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

26) Vegetable oil is a(an) ________, and is found in the ________ phase.

  1. A) element; liquid
  2. B) compound; solid
  3. C) mixture; liquid
  4. D) compound; gas
  5. E) mixture; solid

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

 

27) A reddish powder is heated gently in a loosely covered container. After the heating a silvery metal remains in the container, and a glowing wooden splint placed into the container bursts into flame. The original substance is a(an) ________, and the solid and gas produced are ________.

  1. A) element; compounds
  2. B) compound; elements
  3. C) mixture; compounds
  4. D) compound; compounds
  5. E) mixture; elements

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.3

LO:  1.3

Global LO:  G1

 

28) Each symbol denotes an element except

  1. A) Co.
  2. B) CO.
  3. C) Cu.
  4. D) C.
  5. E) Cl.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G1

29) Which of the following is an element?

  1. A) fire
  2. B) iron
  3. C) salt
  4. D) water
  5. E) wine

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G1

 

 

30) What is the chemical symbol for chlorine?

  1. A) C
  2. B) Ca
  3. C) Cl
  4. D) Cr
  5. E) Cu

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

31) What is the chemical symbol for calcium?

  1. A) C
  2. B) Ca
  3. C) Cl
  4. D) Cr
  5. E) Cu

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

32) The most common element by mass percent in the human body is

  1. A) carbon.
  2. B) hydrogen.
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) sulfur.
  5. E) phosphorus.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

33) Xylene, a compound with the formula C8H10, is composed of

  1. A) any combination of atoms of carbon and hydrogen in a four to five ratio.
  2. B) eight atoms of carbon and ten atoms of hydrogen.
  3. C) eight atoms of calcium and ten atoms of helium.
  4. D) ten atoms of carbon and eight atoms of hydrogen.
  5. E) any combination of atoms of carbon and hydrogen that add up to 18 total.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

34) Which symbol does not denote a compound?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) Cr
  5. E) Ca

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

35) Which element is not essential for human life?

  1. A) C
  2. B) H
  3. C) P
  4. D) Pb
  5. E) Ca

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

36) What is the symbol for tungsten?

  1. A) W
  2. B) Tu
  3. C) Sn
  4. D) St
  5. E) Ti

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

37) What element is represented by the chemical symbol K?

  1. A) kaolin
  2. B) phosphorus
  3. C) potassium
  4. D) silver
  5. E) sodium

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

38) Of the elements listed, the most abundant by mass percent in the earth’s crust is

  1. A) silicon.
  2. B) aluminum.
  3. C) hydrogen.
  4. D) iron.
  5. E) sodium.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G2

 

39) The formula for ammonia, , represents a compound composed of

  1. A) one atom of nickel and three atoms of hydrogen.
  2. B) one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen.
  3. C) three atoms of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen.
  4. D) three atoms of nitrogen and one atom of hydrogen.
  5. E) one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of helium.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G4

 

40) The formula for sodium carbonate, , represents a compound composed of

  1. A) two atoms of sodium, three atoms of carbon, and three atoms of oxygen.
  2. B) two atoms of sodium, one atom of carbon, and three atoms of oxygen.
  3. C) six atoms of sodium, two atoms of carbon, and six atoms of oxygen.
  4. D) one atom of sodium and one atom of carbonate.
  5. E) two atoms of sodium and three atoms of carbonate.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G4

41) The formula for glucose, C6H12O6, represents a compound composed of

  1. A) six atoms of carbon, twelve atoms of hydrogen, and six atoms of oxygen.
  2. B) six atoms of carbon, ten atoms of hydrogen, and four atoms of oxygen.
  3. C) one atom of carbon, two atoms of hydrogen, and one atom of oxygen.
  4. D) six atoms of carbon and six atoms of water.
  5. E) six atoms of carbon and two atoms of water.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G4

 

42) Amphetamine, a commonly abused drug, is composed of nine atoms of carbon, 13 atoms of hydrogen, and one atom of nitrogen. The chemical formula of amphetamine is written

  1. A) C9H13N
  2. B) C9H
  3. C) C9H13
  4. D) C13H93N
  5. E) C9H1N

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G4

 

43) Caffeine, the active ingredient in coffee, is composed of eight atoms of carbon, ten atoms of hydrogen, and four atoms of nitrogen, and two atoms of oxygen. The chemical formula of caffeine is written

  1. A) CHNO
  2. B) C8H10N4O2
  3. C) C8H10N4
  4. D) C8H12N4O4
  5. E) C8H10N4O

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.4

LO:  1.4

Global LO:  G4

 

44) Consider the chemical reaction described as

 

mercury(II) oxide  mercury + oxygen.

 

Identify the reactant(s) in this example.

  1. A) heat
  2. B) mercury + oxygen
  3. C) mercury(II) oxide
  4. D) mercury
  5. E) oxygen

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.5

LO:  1.5

Global LO:  G2

 

45) Identify the product(s) in the following reaction:

 

calcium carbonate → calcium oxide + carbon dioxide

 

  1. A) calcium carbonate
  2. B) calcium oxide + carbon dioxide
  3. C) calcium carbonate + calcium oxide
  4. D) carbon dioxide + calcium carbonate
  5. E) calcium carbonate + calcium oxide + carbon dioxide

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.5

LO:  1.5

Global LO:  G2

 

46) Which of the following is an indication that a chemical reaction has taken place?

  1. A) change in color
  2. B) production of a gas
  3. C) release of heat
  4. D) formation of a solid
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  1.5

LO:  1.5

Global LO:  G2

 

47) When the prefix milli is used in the metric or SI system, a fundamental unit of measurement is multiplied by what factor?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

48) The number 5.320 ×  in conventional notation is

  1. A) 532.0.
  2. B) 53.20.
  3. C) 5.320.
  4. D) 0.5320.
  5. E) 0.005320.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

49) In scientific notation, the number 185,000,000 is

  1. A) 185 × .
  2. B) 1.85 × .
  3. C) 1.85 × .
  4. D) 185 × .
  5. E) 1.85 × .

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

 

50) In scientific notation, the number 0.0046 is expressed as

  1. A) 46 × .
  2. B) 4.6 × .
  3. C) 4.6 × .
  4. D) 4.6 × .
  5. E) 46 × .

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

51) What is 2.1 ×  written in decimal notation?

  1. A) 2,100,000
  2. B) 210,000
  3. C) 210
  4. D) 0.000 21
  5. E) 0.000 021

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

52) What is 0.0970 written in scientific notation?

  1. A) 970 ×
  2. B) 97 ×
  3. C) 9.70 ×
  4. D) 97.0 ×
  5. E) 0.97 ×

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

 

53) When the prefix centi is used in the metric system, a fundamental unit of measurement is multiplied by what factor?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

54) How many meters are there in one kilometer?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

55) How long is 1 cm?

  1. A) 0.01 mm
  2. B) 1 mm
  3. C) 10 mm
  4. D) 100 mm
  5. E) 1000 mm

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.6

Global LO:  G4

 

 

56) Which value is closest to the mass of a 2-pound box of laundry detergent?

  1. A) 200 g
  2. B) 2.0 × 10-4cg
  3. C) 9 × 109mg
  4. D) 1 kg
  5. E) 4.5 × 103ng

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  1.6

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

57) The abbreviation for the metric unit used to measure mass is

  1. A) g
  2. B) g/cm3
  3. C) K
  4. D) L
  5. E) m

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

58) A student weighed a solid sample. The units for this measurement are most likely to be recorded as

  1. A) grams.
  2. B) grams per cubic centimeter.
  3. C) Kelvins.
  4. D) liters.
  5. E) meters.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

59) The amount of matter in an object is its

  1. A) density.
  2. B) mass.
  3. C) specific gravity.
  4. D) volume.
  5. E) weight.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

60) The measurement most likely to describe the amount of pain reliever in a headache tablet is

  1. A) 1.5 kg.
  2. B) 500 mg.
  3. C) 1.00 mL.
  4. D) 325 mg/mL.
  5. E) 0.25 L.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

61) Which measurement represents the largest quantity?

  1. A) 4730 ng
  2. B) 4.73 × 10-4g
  3. C) 4.73 × 103μg
  4. D) 4.73 × 10-6kg
  5. E) 47.3 mg

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

 

62) Which measurement represents the smallest quantity?

  1. A) 2950 ng
  2. B) 2.95 × 10-4g
  3. C) 2.95 × 103μg
  4. D) 2.95 × 10-6kg
  5. E) 29.5 mg

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

63) The metric unit used to measure volume is the

  1. A) gram.
  2. B) gram per cubic centimeter.
  3. C) Kelvin.
  4. D) liter.
  5. E) meter.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

64) Which of the following represents the largest unit?

  1. A) deciliter
  2. B) dekaliter
  3. C) kiloliter
  4. D) megaliter
  5. E) milliliter

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

 

65) The units most likely to be used to measure the amount of alcohol to be added to a small test tube are

  1. A) g.
  2. B) mL.
  3. C) cm.
  4. D) kg.
  5. E) L.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

66) In an introductory laboratory exercise, a student was asked to measure the volume of soda in a partially filled can in metric units. Which value below is most likely to be correct?

  1. A) 1.0 kL
  2. B) 2.5 L
  3. C) 325 mL
  4. D) 550 μL
  5. E) 6.0 × nL

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

67) The SI unit for volume is ________ and the metric unit for volume is ________.

  1. A) cc; L
  2. B) L; m3
  3. C) m3; L
  4. D) mL; cc
  5. E) m3; cm3

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

 

68) Which value is closest to the amount of gasoline in a small car with a full tank (which contains about 13 gallons)?

  1. A) 450 mL
  2. B) 50 L
  3. C) 85 μL
  4. D) 12 kL
  5. E) 3.5 × 102dL

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

69) 125 cL is the same as all of these except

  1. A) 125 centiliter.
  2. B) 125 cubic liter.
  3. C) 1.25 liter.
  4. D) 1250 milliliter.
  5. E) 12.5 deciliter.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.7

LO:  1.7

Global LO:  G4

 

70) Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?

  1. A) 1207 g
  2. B) 4.250 g
  3. C) 0.006 g
  4. D) 0.0250 g
  5. E) 0.03750 g

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

71) What is the numerical value of 1.2 × 1.222? Express your answer using the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A) 1.5
  2. B) 1.47
  3. C) 1.466
  4. D) 1.4664
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

72) A laboratory technician reports that the mass of a growth removed from a patient is 274.06 g. How many significant figures does this measurement contain?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 5
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

73) Which of the following numbers contains four significant figures?

  1. A) 230,110
  2. B) 23,011.0
  3. C) 0.23010
  4. D) 0.0230100
  5. E) 0.002301

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

 

74) Which of the following numbers contains five significant figures?

  1. A) 0.04910
  2. B) 0.4910
  3. C) 4.9100
  4. D) 49,100
  5. E) 4,910,000

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

75) Which choice best describes the degree of uncertainty in the measurement 16.30 g?

  1. A) The uncertainty cannot be determined without additional information.
  2. B) The quantity is exact.
  3. C) ±1.00 g
  4. D) ±0.10 g
  5. E) ±0.01 g

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

76) Which choice best describes the degree of uncertainty in the measurement 4.0032 g?

  1. A) The uncertainty cannot be determined without additional information.
  2. B) The quantity is exact.
  3. C) The measurement is between 4.002 and 4.004 g.
  4. D) The measurement is between 4.0031 and 4.0033 g.
  5. E) The measurement is between 3.99 and 4.01 g.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

77) In which of the following numbers are all of the zeros not significant?

  1. A) 3300
  2. B) 0.0450
  3. C) 45.060
  4. D) 607.80
  5. E) 5408

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.8

LO:  1.8

Global LO:  G4

 

78) What is the total length of two pieces of tubing which measure 4.5 cm and 3.222 cm? Express the answer to the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A) 3.722 cm
  2. B) 4.722 cm
  3. C) 7.722 cm
  4. D) 7.7 cm
  5. E) 8 cm

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.9

Global LO:  G4

79) Find the difference between two masses measured as 123.6 grams and 115.972 grams. Express the answer to the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A) 7.6 grams
  2. B) 7.63 grams
  3. C) 7.628 grams
  4. D) 8.0 grams
  5. E) 8 grams

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

80) What is the area of a piece of metal foil that measures 43.9 cm by 29.21 cm? Express the answer to the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A) 128
  2. B) 1280
  3. C) 1282.3
  4. D) 1282.32
  5. E) 1282.319

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

 

81) The numerical value for (5.6 × 104) ÷ (7.89 × 102) is equal to, with the proper number of significant figures:

  1. A) 70.976
  2. B) 71
  3. C) 7.098 × 101
  4. D) 71.0
  5. E) 70.98

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.8, 1.9

Global LO:  G4

82) What is the numerical value of ? Express your answer using the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A)
  2. B) 1 ×
  3. C) 1.2 ×
  4. D) 1.23 ×
  5. E) 1.227 ×

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.8, 1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

83) How many significant figures should be retained in the result of the following calculation?

 

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.8, 1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

 

84) What is the total length of two pieces of rubber tubing which are 7.69 cm and 4.028 cm in length? Express this answer to the correct number of significant figures.

  1. A) 11.7 cm
  2. B) 11.69 cm
  3. C) 11.718 cm
  4. D) 11.72 cm
  5. E) 12 cm

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.5

Global LO:  G4

85) What is the numerical value of (2.1 × )(4.0 × ) expressed to the correct number of significant figures?

  1. A) 8.4
  2. B) 8.4 ×
  3. C) 8.4 ×
  4. D) 8.4 ×
  5. E) None of the above.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.8, 1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

86) What is the numerical value of ?

  1. A) 1.2
  2. B) 1.2 ×
  3. C) 1.2 ×
  4. D) 1.2 ×
  5. E) 1.2 ×

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  1.9

LO:  1.8, 1.9

Global LO:  G4

 

 

87) How many centimeters are contained in 12.5 inches?

  1. A) 4.92 cm
  2. B) 5.10 cm
  3. C) 31.8 cm
  4. D) 492 cm
  5. E) None of the above.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

88) How many grams are contained in 1.20 pounds?

  1. A) 545 g
  2. B) 378 g
  3. C) 264 g
  4. D) 2.2 g
  5. E) 1.20 g

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

89) How many inches are contained in 25.4 cm?

  1. A) 100 inches
  2. B) 64.5 inches
  3. C) 25.4 inches
  4. D) 10.0 inches
  5. E) 0.10 inches

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

90) How many centimeters are there in one kilometer?

  1. A) cm
  2. B) cm
  3. C) cm
  4. D) cm
  5. E) cm

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

91) An analysis showed a sample to contain 0.00471 grams of lead. How many micrograms is this?

  1. A) 0.471 μg
  2. B) 4.71 × μg
  3. C) 4.71 × μg
  4. D) 4.71 × μg
  5. E) 4.71 × μg

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

92) The conversion factor used to convert 15.0 inches to cm is

  1. A) .
  2. B) .
  3. C) .
  4. D) .
  5. E) .

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

 

93) The conversion factor used to convert 55.6 km to miles is

  1. A) .
  2. B) .
  3. C) .
  4. D) .
  5. E) .

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

94) An extra-strength aspirin contains 0.500 g of aspirin. How many grains is this?

  1. A) 7.72 grains
  2. B) 13.0 grains
  3. C) 32.4 grains
  4. D) 65.3 grains
  5. E) 3.24 × 104grains

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

95) How many quarts are contained in 450. mL?

  1. A) 0.426 quart
  2. B) 2.10 quarts
  3. C) 426 quarts
  4. D) 475 quarts
  5. E) 0.475 quarts

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

 

96) How many pounds are contained in 84.0 kg?

  1. A) 0.038 lb
  2. B) 0.084 lb
  3. C) 38.0 lb
  4. D) 185 lb
  5. E) 380 lb

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

97) A sample of an experimental medication was calculated to contain 0.392 g of active drug. How many milligrams is this?

  1. A) 392 mg
  2. B) 0.0392 mg
  3. C) 3.92 × mg
  4. D) 3.92 × mg
  5. E) 3.92 × mg

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

98) How many ng are there in 5.2 mg?

  1. A) 1.9 × ng
  2. B) 1.9 × ng
  3. C) 5.2 × ng
  4. D) 5.2 × ng
  5. E) 5.2 × ng

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

99) The dosage of quinine when a 145-lb adult takes a 200.-mg tablet is ________ μg drug per kg of body weight.

  1. A) 1.38 × 106
  2. B) 1.60 × 103
  3. C) 3.04 × 103
  4. D) 4.41 × 105
  5. E) 15.2

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

100) An object weighs 37.4 kg.  What does the object weigh in the English system?

 

1 lb = 453.6 g

 

  1. A) 82.5 lb
  2. B) 16,965 lb
  3. C) 0.0825 lb
  4. D) 169.65 lb
  5. E) 370.0 lb

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

101) If gasoline sells for 95.4 cents per liter, what is its cost on a per gallon basis?

 

1 L = 1.06 qt

 

  1. A) $3.60
  2. B) $4.04
  3. C) $3.82
  4. D) $404.50
  5. E) $36.00

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

 

102) Is 25 kilometers per liter good gas mileage for a VW Rabbit diesel? Hint: How do we measure mileage in the English system?

Answer:  It’s good: 59 miles/gal.

Diff: 3

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

103) If an automobile gets 24.5 miles to the gallon and the cost of gasoline is $2.75 a gallon, how much will it cost to drive 975 km?

Answer:  $68.00

Diff: 3

Section:  1.10

LO:  1.10

Global LO:  G4

 

104) 68°C is the same as

  1. A) 341 K.
  2. B) 321 K.
  3. C) 285 K.
  4. D) 205 K.
  5. E) 158 K.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

105) What temperature is 325 K on the Celsius scale?

  1. A) 52°C
  2. B) 126°C
  3. C) 344°C
  4. D) 598°C
  5. E) 617°C

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

 

106) 95.0°F is the same as

  1. A) 21.0°C.
  2. B) 35.0°C.
  3. C) 85.0°C.
  4. D) 171°C.
  5. E) 203°C.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

107) What temperature is -10.°C on the Fahrenheit scale?

  1. A) 263°F
  2. B) 26°F
  3. C) 14°F
  4. D) -6.0°F
  5. E) -18°F

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

108) What temperature is 75°F on the Kelvin scale?

  1. A) 24 K
  2. B) 43 K
  3. C) 215 K
  4. D) 297 K
  5. E) 348 K

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

109) What is the temperature at which the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales read the same?

  1. A) -40
  2. B) 100
  3. C) 25
  4. D) -100
  5. E) Never

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

110) Why is the number 32 (and not some other value) used in the formula for converting between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures?

Answer:  The 32 compensates for the fact that the Celsius scale uses zero as its reference point for the freezing point of water, but the Fahrenheit scale uses 32 as this reference point.

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

111) Why is the number 1.8 (and not some other value) used in the formula for converting between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures?

Answer:  This value compensates for the different size of the two degrees. In the Celsius scale there are 100 degrees between the freezing point and the boiling point of water, but in the Fahrenheit scale there are 180 degrees to cover the same interval. The ratio of 180 to 100 is 1.8, so this correction factor is used in the formula.

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

112) Why is the number 273.15 (and not some other value) used in the formula for converting between Celsius and Kelvin temperatures?

Answer:  This value compensates for the fact that the freezing point of water on the Celsius scale is 273.15 degrees lower than on the Kelvin scale. Since kelvins are the same size as Celsius degrees, no other correction factors are needed.

Diff: 2

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.11

Global LO:  G4

 

113) How many calories are released when 500 g of water cools from 95.0°C to 25.0°C?

  1. A) 35.0 cal
  2. B) 70.0 cal
  3. C) 1.25 × cal
  4. D) 3.50 × cal
  5. E) 4.75 × cal

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.12

Global LO:  G4

 

 

114) If 55.0 g of olive oil has 877 cal of heat added to it at a room temperature of 26.0°C, what will be the final temperature of the olive oil?  The specific heat of olive oil is 2.19 cal/g°C.

  1. A) 33.3°C
  2. B) 7.3°C
  3. C) 19.0°C
  4. D) 26.0°C
  5. E) 3.3 °C

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.12

Global LO:  G4

115) If 75.0 g of water at 30.0°C absorbs 900 calories, the new temperature will be

  1. A) 18.0°C.
  2. B) 22.0°C.
  3. C) 42.0°C.
  4. D) 105°C.
  5. E) 160°C.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.12

Global LO:  G4

 

116) What is the specific heat of a metal if it takes 26.5 calories to raise the temperature of a piece weighing 50.0 g by 5.00 degrees Celsius?

  1. A) 250 cal/g °C
  2. B) 133 cal/g °C
  3. C) 6.63 cal/g °C
  4. D) 1.89 cal/g °C
  5. E) 0.106 cal/g °C

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.12

Global LO:  G4

 

 

117) What is the specific heat of a metal if it takes 48.4 calories to raise the temperature of a 45.0 g sample by 5.0°C?

  1. A) 0.186 cal/g °C
  2. B) 0.215 cal/g °C
  3. C) 5.34 cal/g °C
  4. D) 225 cal/g °C
  5. E) 242 cal/g °C

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  1.11

LO:  1.12

Global LO:  G4

 

118) What is the density of a 6.0 × 102 mL liquid sample that weighs 450 g?

  1. A) 1050 g/mL
  2. B) 270 g/mL
  3. C) 1.33 g/mL
  4. D) 0.75 g/mL
  5. E) 0.37 g/mL

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

119) Calculate the density of cyclohexane if a 50.0 g sample has a volume of 64.3 mL.

  1. A) 114.3 g/mL
  2. B) 14.3 g/mL
  3. C) 1.29 g/mL
  4. D) 0.778 g/mL
  5. E) 0.322 g/mL

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

 

120) A 35.0 mL sample of a liquid weighs 27.2 g. What is the density of the liquid?

  1. A) 62.2 g/mL
  2. B) 7.80 g/mL
  3. C) 1.29 g/mL
  4. D) 0.952 g/mL
  5. E) 0.777 g/mL

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

121) What is the specific gravity of a liquid sample with a mass of 35.0 g and a volume of 14.00 mL?

  1. A) 14.0 g/mL
  2. B) 2.50 g/mL
  3. C) 21.0
  4. D) 14.0
  5. E) 2.50

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

122) What is the volume of a gold nugget that weighs 2.20 kg? The density of gold is

  1. A) 8.60 ×
  2. B) 116
  3. C) 11.6
  4. D) 8.60
  5. E) 0.116

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

123) What is the mass of 30.0 mL of a solution with a density of 1.60 g/mL?

  1. A) 53.3 g
  2. B) 48.0 g
  3. C) 31.6 g
  4. D) 18.8 g
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

124) A 2.36  sample of an unknown metal weighs 18.5 g.  What is the sample’s density?

  1. A) 7.84 g/
  2. B) 0.127 /g
  3. C) 15.75 g/
  4. D) 0.784 g/
  5. E) 1.27 /g

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

125) Gasoline has a density of about 0.65 g/mL.  How much does 34.0 L weigh in pounds?

Answer:  Convert 34.0 L to mL then multiply by the density to obtain the grams.

Convert grams to pounds:  34,000 mL × 0.65 g/mL × 1 lb/454 g = 48.7 lbs.

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

126) A gas at 25°C exactly fills a container previously determined to have a volume of 1.05 × 103 cm3. The container plus gas are weighed and found to have a mass of 837.6 g. The container, when emptied of all gas, has a mass of 836.2 g. What is the density of the gas at 25°C?

Answer:  1.3 × 10-3 g/cm3

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

127) Which of the following statements is true of specific gravity?

  1. A) It has the units of g/cm3.
  2. B) Specific gravity is constant at any temperature.
  3. C) Specific gravity is unitless because it is the density of one substance divided by the density of water.
  4. D) Specific gravity is a measure of the reactivity index of a substance.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

 

128) Explain how density can be used to determine the volume of carbon tetrachloride (which is a liquid at room temperature) needed to make a mixture using 37.2 of carbon tetrachloride.

Answer:  Notice that the student is not asked to solve the problem, but to explain the reasoning. Density can be used as a conversion factor because the definition essentially states that x g of substance is equivalent to y mL of the substance. Therefore, the two conversion factors,  and , can be written and the appropriate one used to make the desired conversion.

Diff: 3

Section:  1.12

LO:  1.13

Global LO:  G4

Fundamentals of General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 8e (McMurry)

Chapter 3   Ionic Compounds

 

1) A positively charged particle formed by loss of one or more electrons from an atom is called a(an)

  1. A) anion.
  2. B) cation.
  3. C) isotope.
  4. D) nucleus.
  5. E) proton.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.1

LO:  3.1

Global LO:  G2

 

2) A small negatively charged particle formed when an atom gains one or more electrons is called a(an)

  1. A) anion.
  2. B) cation.
  3. C) isotope.
  4. D) nucleus.
  5. E) proton.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.1

LO:  3.1

Global LO:  G2

 

3) When an atom donates an electron, that electron

  1. A) is lost for all time.
  2. B) is acquired by another atom which becomes an anion.
  3. C) is acquired by another atom which becomes a cation.
  4. D) neutralizes a proton to form a neutron.
  5. E) pairs with another electron to form a covalent bond.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.1

LO:  3.1

Global LO:  G2

 

 

4) One characteristic of a cation is that

  1. A) it has more protons than electrons.
  2. B) it has equal numbers of protons and electrons.
  3. C) it has more electrons than protons.
  4. D) the number of neutrons is related to the number of electrons.
  5. E) the relationship between protons and electrons varies with the cation in question.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.1

LO:  3.1

Global LO:  G2

 

5) Which of the following ions does not have the same electron configuration as the noble gas neon?

  1. A) O-2
  2. B) F-
  3. C) Al+3
  4. D) S-2
  5. E) Mg+2

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

6) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?

Answer:  Noble gases, except helium, illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet). These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled. Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.

Diff: 1

Section:  3.2

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G8

 

7) Briefly explain how the octet rule determines the charge, both sign and magnitude, of an ion.

Answer:  The octet rule states that main group elements will do chemistry in order to have eight electrons in their outer shell. If an atom has one or two electrons past an octet, it will lose the appropriate number to have a full outer shell, resulting in a positively charged ion. If an atom is one or two electrons away from having an octet, it will gain the appropriate number, resulting in a negatively charged ion.

Diff: 2

Section:  3.2

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G8

 

 

8) What is the most likely charge on an ion formed by an element with a valence electron configuration of ns2np4?

  1. A) 2-
  2. B) 1-
  3. C) 2+
  4. D) 4+
  5. E) 6+

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

9) What is the most likely charge on an ion formed by an element with a valence electron configuration of ns1?

  1. A) 7-
  2. B) 1-
  3. C) 0
  4. D) 1+
  5. E) 7+

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

10) What is the most likely charge on an ion formed by an element with a valence electron configuration of ns2np5?

  1. A) 5-
  2. B) 1-
  3. C) 1+
  4. D) 2+
  5. E) 5+

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

 

11) What is the most likely charge on an ion formed by an element with a valence electron configuration of ns2np1?

  1. A) 3-
  2. B) 1-
  3. C) 1+
  4. D) 3+
  5. E) 5+

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

12) What is the valence shell electron configuration of the ion formed from an atom of the halogen family?

  1. A) ns2
  2. B) ns2 np2
  3. C) ns2 np4
  4. D) ns2 np6
  5. E) ns2 np8

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G2

 

13) Main group elements that are metals usually ________ one or more electrons to form ________, which have a ________ charge.

  1. A) lose; anions; negative
  2. B) lose; cations; negative
  3. C) lose; cations; positive
  4. D) gain; cations; positive
  5. E) gain; anions; negative

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.3

Global LO:  G2

 

 

14) Main group elements that are non-metals usually ________ one or more electrons to form ________, which have a ________ charge.

  1. A) lose; anions; negative
  2. B) lose; cations; negative
  3. C) lose; cations; positive
  4. D) gain; cations; positive
  5. E) gain; anions; negative

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.3

Global LO:  G2

 

15) An atom with three valence electrons will most likely ________ to attain an octet of valence electrons.

  1. A) lose three electrons
  2. B) gain three electrons
  3. C) gain five electrons
  4. D) gain one electron
  5. E) lose one electron

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.3

Global LO:  G2

 

16) Predict the charge that would be found on a carbide ion and on a nitride ion. Explain why these ions are seldom found in compounds.

Answer:  The names of both ions end in “ide,” suggesting that they have gained electrons to form anions. In order to achieve an octet, carbon would have to gain four electrons, forming C4-. Likewise for nitride, the ion would be N3-. Both of these ions are less common because it is extremely difficult to add additional electrons to an ion that already has a -2 charge.

Diff: 3

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G8

 

17) Which element will form an ion with the greatest positive charge?

  1. A) Al
  2. B) Na
  3. C) Mg
  4. D) Sr
  5. E) P

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G7

 

18)  In order to form an octet, an atom of selenium will

  1. A) lose 6 electrons.
  2. B) gain 6 electrons.
  3. C) lose 2 electrons.
  4. D) gain 2 electrons.
  5. E) gain 3 electrons

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G7

 

19) The charge on a sulfide ion is

  1. A) 3+.
  2. B) 2+.
  3. C) 0.
  4. D) 2-.
  5. E) 3-.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G7

 

20) Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ion with a +2 charge?

  1. A) Mg
  2. B) Si
  3. C) S
  4. D) K
  5. E) Br

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.3

LO:  3.2

Global LO:  G7

21) An element belonging to the halogen family would be expected to have a ________ ionization energy and a ________ electron affinity.

  1. A) large; large
  2. B) large; small
  3. C) small; small
  4. D) small; large
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

22) An element belonging to the alkaline earth family would be expected to have a ________ ionization energy and a ________ electron affinity.

  1. A) large; large
  2. B) large; small
  3. C) small; small
  4. D) small; large
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

23) The property that describes the ease with which an atom gives up an electron to form a positive ion is

  1. A) atomic number.
  2. B) electron affinity.
  3. C) electronegativity.
  4. D) ionization energy.
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

 

24) The property defined as the energy released on adding an electron to an isolated gas phase atom is

  1. A) atomic number.
  2. B) electron affinity.
  3. C) electronegativity.
  4. D) ionization energy.
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

25) Which of the following has the largest ionization energy?

  1. A) Ne
  2. B) Br
  3. C) P
  4. D) Al
  5. E) Ca

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

26) The property defined as the energy required to remove one electron from an atom in the gaseous state is

  1. A) atomic number.
  2. B) electron affinity.
  3. C) ionization energy.
  4. D) electronegativity.
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.4

LO:  3.4

Global LO:  G3

 

 

27) Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ion with a -2 charge?

  1. A) Mg
  2. B) Si
  3. C) S
  4. D) K
  5. E) Ti

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

28) Which of the following elements is most likely to form an ion with a -1 charge?

  1. A) Mg
  2. B) Si
  3. C) S
  4. D) Cl
  5. E) Sc

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

29) The name of Cl- is

  1. A) chlorine ion.
  2. B) chloride ion.
  3. C) chlorate ion.
  4. D) chlorite ion.
  5. E) diatomic chlorine.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

30) The name of S2- is

  1. A) sulfur.
  2. B) sulfate ion.
  3. C) sulfite ion.
  4. D) sulfide ion.
  5. E) sulfurous ion.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

31) The name of Cu2+ is ________ ion or ________ ion.

  1. A) copper; cupric
  2. B) copper(I); cupric
  3. C) copper(II); cupric
  4. D) copper(I); cuprous
  5. E) copper(II); cuprous

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

32) The name of Sn2+ is ________ ion or ________ ion.

  1. A) tin; stannous
  2. B) tin(IV); stannic
  3. C) tin(II); stannic
  4. D) tin(IV); stannous
  5. E) tin(II); stannous

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.5

LO:  3.5

Global LO:  G7

 

33) What is the formula of the ammonium ion?

  1. A) Am-
  2. B) Am+
  3. C) NH41+
  4. D) NH4+
  5. E) N4H1+

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

 

34) What is the formula of the carbonate ion?

  1. A) CO23-
  2. B) CO32-
  3. C) C2O42-
  4. D) C2O41-
  5. E) C2H3O21-

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

35) What is the formula of the nitrate ion?

  1. A) NO32-
  2. B) NO3-
  3. C) NO21-
  4. D) NO31-
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

36) What is the formula of the sulfite ion?

  1. A) SO32-
  2. B) SO42-
  3. C) HSO42-
  4. D) S2-
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

37) The formula PO43- means that this ion is composed of

  1. A) one atom of phosphorus, one atom of oxygen, and three extra electrons.
  2. B) four atoms of phosphorus, four atoms or oxygen, and three extra electrons.
  3. C) one atom of phosphorus,four atoms of oxygen, and three electrons have been lost.
  4. D) one atom of phosphorus, four atoms of oxygen, and three extra electrons.
  5. E) four atoms of phosphorus, four atoms of oxygen, and three electrons have been lost.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

38) The permanganate ion is composed of

  1. A) one atom of magnesium, four atoms of oxygen, and one extra electron.
  2. B) one atom of manganese, four atoms of oxygen, and one extra electron.
  3. C) four atoms of magnesium, four atoms of oxygen, and one extra electron.
  4. D) four atoms of manganese, four atoms of oxygen, and one extra electron.
  5. E) one manganese(II) ion, four oxide ions, and two extra electrons.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

39) The HCO31-ion is called

  1. A) hydrogen carbonate.
  2. B) hydrogen carbide.
  3. C) carbide.
  4. D) carbonate.
  5. E) carbonite.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.6

LO:  3.6

Global LO:  G7

 

 

40) Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic?

  1. A) SrBr2
  2. B) NO2
  3. C) CBr4
  4. D) H2O
  5. E) All of these are ionic.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.7

LO:  3.7

Global LO:  G2

 

41) Which of the following pairs will form ionic bonds with one another?

  1. A) N, C
  2. B) Na, Ca
  3. C) Cs, Br
  4. D) S, Cl
  5. E) F, F

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.7

LO:  3.7

Global LO:  G2

 

42) Which pair of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound if allowed to react together?

  1. A) Al and Si
  2. B) Fe and Ca
  3. C) C and F
  4. D) K and Br
  5. E) H and N

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

 

43) The correct Roman numeral for the chromium ion in the compound CrCl3 is

  1. A) I.
  2. B) II.
  3. C) III.
  4. D) IV.
  5. E) V.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

44) Which of the following formulas is incorrect for a cobalt(III) compound?

  1. A) CoCO3
  2. B) CoCl3
  3. C) Co2O3
  4. D) CoPO4
  5. E) Co(NO3)3

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

45) Which is the correct formula for the ionic compound containing iron(III) ions and oxide ions?

  1. A) FeO
  2. B) FeO2
  3. C) Fe2O2
  4. D) Fe2O3
  5. E) Fe3O2

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

 

46) What is the formula for the ionic compound formed between lithium and bromide?

  1. A) LiB
  2. B) LiBr
  3. C) Li2Br
  4. D) LiBr2
  5. E) Li+Br-

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

47) What is the formula for the ionic compound formed between calcium and sulfur?

  1. A) CaS
  2. B) CaSi
  3. C) Ca2S
  4. D) CaS2
  5. E) CaSi2

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

48) What is the formula of a compound formed by the ions M2+ and X3-?

  1. A) M2X3
  2. B) M3X2
  3. C) MX3
  4. D) M2X
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

49) If an element G could react with sulfur to form an ionic compound with formula GS2, the charge on the ion formed by G would be

  1. A) 4-.
  2. B) 2-.
  3. C) 1+.
  4. D) 2+.
  5. E) 4+.

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  3.8

LO:  3.8

Global LO:  G7

 

50) A formula unit of the ionic compound copper(II) carbonate consists of ________ copper(II) ions and ________ carbonate ions.

  1. A) one; one
  2. B) one; two
  3. C) two; one
  4. D) two; two
  5. E) some other combination of ions

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

51) A formula unit of ammonium sulfate consists of ________ ammonium ions and ________ sulfate ions.

  1. A) one; two
  2. B) two; one
  3. C) two; three
  4. D) three; two
  5. E) four; four

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

 

52) The formula Ca(NO3)2 tells us that one formula unit of this compound is composed of ________ calcium atoms, ________ nitrogen atoms, and ________ oxygen atoms.

  1. A) one; two; six
  2. B) two; two; six
  3. C) one; two; five
  4. D) one; one; five
  5. E) one; one; six

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

 

Match the following.

 

  1. A) HCl
  2. B) (C
  3. C) S
  4. D) S
  5. E) CaS
  6. F) NaCC
  7. G) NaN
  8. H) Fe(OH
  9. I) (NH4)2CO3
  10. J) Cr
  11. K) AlP
  12. L) NCC

 

53) chromium(II) hydroxide

Diff: 1

Section: 3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

54) calcium sulfate

Diff: 1

Section: 3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO: G7

 

55) aluminum phosphate

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO: 3.8, 3.9

Global LO: G7

 

56) potassium sulfide

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

57) sodium acetate

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

58) ammonium acetate

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

59) ammonium carbonate

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

60) aluminum carbonate

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

61) potassium sulfite

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

62) hydrogen chloride

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

63) sodium nitrite

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

64) iron(II) hydroxide

Diff: 1

Section:  3.8, 3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

Answers: 53) J 54) E 55) K 56) C 57) F 58) L 59) I 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) G 64) H

 

 

65) The formula for potassium dichromate is

  1. A) KCr2O
  2. B) K2Cr2O
  3. C) K2CrO
  4. D) PCr2O
  5. E) PCrO

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

66) The formula for the compound chromium(II) nitrate is

  1. A) C2NO
  2. B) Cr2NO
  3. C) CrNO
  4. D) Cr(NO3)
  5. E) CrNO

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

67) What is the formula for calcium phosphate?

  1. A) Ca3(PO4)2
  2. B) Ca2PO4
  3. C) Ca3PO4
  4. D) Ca2(PO3)3
  5. E) Ca4(PO3)3

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

 

68) What is the name of Mg3(PO4)2?

  1. A) trimagnesium diphosphate
  2. B) magnesium diphosphate
  3. C) trimagnesium phosphate
  4. D) magnesium phosphate
  5. E) magnesium phosphorus oxide

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

69) What is the name of AlCl3?

  1. A) aluminum chloride
  2. B) aluminum(III) chloride
  3. C) aluminum carbide
  4. D) aluminum trichloride
  5. E) aluminum tricarbide

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

70) What is the name of SnCl2?

  1. A) ditin chloride
  2. B) tin dichloride
  3. C) tin(II) chloride
  4. D) tin chloride
  5. E) strontium chloride

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

 

71) Iron pyrite (fool’s gold) is iron(II) sulfide.  What is its formula?

  1. A) FeS
  2. B) FeSO3
  3. C) FeSO4
  4. D) Fe2S3
  5. E) Fe2(SO3)3

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

72) What is the name of K2S?

  1. A) dipotassium sulfide
  2. B) potassium disulfide
  3. C) potassium(II) sulfide
  4. D) potassium sulfide
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

73) The name of the compound with formula NaMnO4 is

  1. A) sodium magnesium oxide.
  2. B) sodium magnesium tetraoxide.
  3. C) sodium manganate.
  4. D) sodium permanganate.
  5. E) sodium manganese tetraoxide.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

 

74) The formula for ammonium hydroxide is

  1. A) OHNH
  2. B) NH4NO
  3. C) NH4
  4. D) NH4
  5. E) Al(OH)

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.9

LO:  3.8, 3.9

Global LO:  G7

 

75) All of the following are properties typical of ionic compounds except

  1. A) exist as crystalline solids at room temperature.
  2. B) conduct electrical current if dissolved in water.
  3. C) form distinct molecules by interaction of specific particles.
  4. D) have very high melting points and boiling points.
  5. E) shatter when crystals are struck.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.10

LO:  3.10

Global LO:  G2

 

76) Which of the following compounds would have the highest melting point?

  1. A) NaCl
  2. B) LiCl
  3. C) RbCl
  4. D) KCl
  5. E) CsCl

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  3.10

LO:  3.1

Global LO:  G2

 

 

77) A property of ionic compounds is that they are

  1. A) soft.
  2. B) hard.
  3. C) brittle.
  4. D) both B and C
  5. E) A, B, and C are correct.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.10

LO:  3.10

Global LO:  G2

 

78) What ions are formed when sodium hydroxide dissolves in water?

  1. A) H+and OH-
  2. B) Na+and OH-
  3. C) H+and Na+
  4. D) Only Na+
  5. E) Only OH-

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.10

LO:  3.10

Global LO:  G7

 

79) Which of the following formulas represents a compound that is a base?

  1. A) CaSO4
  2. B) NH4Cl
  3. C) Mg(OH)2
  4. D) H2
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.11

LO:  3.11

Global LO:  G7

 

 

80) One definition of an acid is a substance that provides which ion in water solution?

  1. A) Na+
  2. B) H+
  3. C) OH-
  4. D) NH4+
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  3.11

LO:  3.11

Global LO:  G7

 

81)  One definition of a base is a substance that provides which ion in water solution?

  1. A) Na+
  2. B) H+
  3. C) OH-
  4. D) H3O+
  5. E) NH4+

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  3.11

LO:  3.11

Global LO:  G7

 

82) Which of the following formulas represents a compound that is an acid?

  1. A) CaSO4
  2. B) NH4Cl
  3. C) Mg(OH)2
  4. D) H2O
  5. E) H3PO4

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  3.11

LO:  3.11

Global LO:  G7

 

 

83) When hydrochloric acid dissolves in water what ions are formed?

  1. A) H and Cl
  2. B) OH-and Cl-
  3. C) only Cl-
  4. D) H+and Cl-
  5. E) only H1+

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  3.11

LO:  3.11

Global LO:  G7

Fundamentals of General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 8e (McMurry)

Chapter 11   Nuclear Chemistry

 

1) All of the statements about nuclear reactions are true except

  1. A) nuclear reactions involve changes in the nucleus of an atom.
  2. B) the rate of a nuclear reaction is increased by the addition of a catalyst.
  3. C) a nuclear reaction is unaffected by the chemical state of the atoms involved.
  4. D) nuclear reactions of the same element vary according to which isotope is involved.
  5. E) energy changes in nuclear reactions are much greater than in ordinary chemical reactions.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

LO:  11.1

Global LO:  G2

 

2) List and describe four differences between nuclear reactions and ordinary chemical reactions.

Answer:  1. A nuclear change involves the nucleus, almost always producing a different element; a chemical change involves the valence electrons.

  1. Isotopes of a particular atom differ in their nuclear reactions, but are the same in their chemical reactions.
  2. The rate of nuclear reactions is not changed by temperature, pressure, or catalysts. These factors can affect the rate of an ordinary chemical reaction.
  3. Nuclear reactions are unaffected by the chemical environment of the element; chemical reactions are greatly affected by the chemical state of the element.
  4. The energy changes involved in nuclear reactions are much, much larger than those of ordinary chemical reactions.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.1

LO:  11.1

Global LO:  G2, G8

 

3) The term nucleon refers to

  1. A) electrons belonging to an atom that undergoes nuclear decay.
  2. B) electrons that are emitted from a nucleus in a nuclear reaction.
  3. C) the nucleus of a specific isotope.
  4. D) both protons and neutrons.
  5. E) none of these

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

LO:  11.1

Global LO:  G2

 

4) Which of the following is an example of a subatomic particle?

  1. A) electron
  2. B) proton
  3. C) neutron
  4. D) none of these
  5. E) all of these

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

LO:  11.1

Global LO:  G7

 

5) The rate of a nuclear reaction is affected by which of the following?

  1. A) temperature
  2. B) pressure
  3. C) addition of a catalyst
  4. D) none of these
  5. E) all of these

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.1

LO:  11.1

Global LO:  G2

 

6) Which is the best description of an alpha particle?

  1. A) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; high penetrating power
  2. B) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; low penetrating power
  3. C) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; medium penetrating power
  4. D) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power
  5. E) charge 0; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

 

7) Which is the best description of a beta particle?

  1. A) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; high penetrating power
  2. B) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; low penetrating power
  3. C) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; medium penetrating power
  4. D) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power
  5. E) charge 0; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

8) Which is the best description of gamma radiation?

  1. A) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; high penetrating power
  2. B) charge +2; mass of 4 amu; low penetrating power
  3. C) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; medium penetrating power
  4. D) charge -1; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power
  5. E) charge 0; mass of 0 amu; high penetrating power

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

 

9) Which type of radiation is attracted toward a positive plate?

  1. A) α
  2. B) β
  3. C) γ
  4. D) α and β
  5. E) none of these

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

 

10) Which type of radiation is attracted toward a negative plate?

  1. A) α
  2. B) β
  3. C) γ
  4. D) α and β
  5. E) none of these

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

 

11) Which form of radiation is generally considered the most dangerous?

  1. A) γ
  2. B) β
  3. C) α
  4. D) positron
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

12) Radioactivity is generally associated with which part of the atom?

  1. A) nucleus
  2. B) electrons
  3. C) protons
  4. D) neutrons
  5. E) the entire atom

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.2

LO:  11.2

Global LO:  G2

 

13) This question has three parts:

  1. A) Explain the difference between natural radioactive isotopes and artificial radioactive isotopes.
  2. B) How are these two types of isotopes related to the terms spontaneous decay and artificial transmutation?
  3. C) Give an example of an element that has natural radioactive isotopes and one that has artificial radioactive isotopes.

Answer:  A)    Natural isotopes are nuclei that are unstable due to an unfavorable neutron to proton ratio, and which undergo nuclear decay without any external cause. Artificial isotopes are those produced by bombardment of stable nuclei by smaller, highly accelerated particles.

  1. B) The decay of natural isotopes is said to be spontaneous because it occurs without any apparent external cause. Artificial transmutation is the production of different elements by the intentional bombardment of nuclei by small, fast-moving particles.
  2. C) Almost any element of low atomic number and listed in simple nuclear reactions on this test has natural isotopes; exceptions to this may have been mentioned in class. Elements with artificial isotopes are those whose atomic weights are listed in parentheses on the Periodic Table.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.3

LO:  11.3

Global LO:  G2, G8

 

14) Which of the following is considered to be a radioactive isotope of hydrogen?

  1. A) 1H
  2. B) 2H
  3. C) 3H
  4. D) all of these are unstable
  5. E) none of these are unstable

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.3

LO:  11.3

Global LO:  G2

 

15) An unstable isotope generally has

  1. A) low neutron to proton ratio.
  2. B) high neutron to proton ratio.
  3. C) equal number of protons and neutrons.
  4. D) equal number of protons and electrons.
  5. E) change in the charge of the nucleus.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.3

LO:  11.3

Global LO:  G2

 

16) The emission of a particle from an unstable nucleus is called

  1. A) mutation.
  2. B) nuclear decay.
  3. C) fission.
  4. D) fusion.
  5. E) translocation.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G2

 

17) The change of element into another by the process of nuclear decay is called

  1. A) fission.
  2. B) fusion.
  3. C) transmutation.
  4. D) translocation.
  5. E) radiation.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G2

 

18) Which of these can be considered as the combination of a proton and an electron?

  1. A) alpha particle
  2. B) neutron
  3. C) beta particle
  4. D) gamma ray
  5. E) positron

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G2

19) When an atom loses an alpha particle,

  1. A) its atomic number decreases by 2 units and its mass number decreases by 4 units.
  2. B) its atomic number increases by 1 unit but its mass number remains unchanged.
  3. C) its mass number decreases by 1 unit but its atomic number remains unchanged.
  4. D) neither its atomic number nor its mass number changes.
  5. E) its atomic number increases by 2 units and its mass number increases by 4 units.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G2

 

20) Which product is formed by alpha emission from uranium-235? The atomic number of uranium is 92.

  1. A) Th
  2. B) Th
  3. C) Np
  4. D) U
  5. E) U

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

21) Which product is formed by alpha emission from polonium-208? The atomic number of polonium is 84.

  1. A) At
  2. B) Rn
  3. C) Pb
  4. D) Bi
  5. E) Po

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

22) Which product is formed by beta emission from phosphorus-32? The atomic number of phosphorus is 15.

  1. A) Al
  2. B) Al
  3. C) S
  4. D) P
  5. E) P

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

23) Which product is formed by beta emission from arsenic-75? The atomic number of arsenic is 33.

  1. A) Ga
  2. B) Ge
  3. C) Cu
  4. D) Se
  5. E) As

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

24) Which product is formed by gamma emission from technetium-99? The atomic number of technetium is 43.

  1. A) Nb
  2. B) Nb
  3. C) Ru
  4. D) Tc
  5. E) Tc

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

25) Which product is formed by gamma emission from niobium-94? The atomic number of niobium is 41.

  1. A) Y
  2. B) Nb
  3. C) Tc
  4. D) Mo
  5. E) Zr

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

26) Which nuclear reaction is an example of alpha emission?

  1. A) U → He + Th
  2. B) Se → β + Br
  3. C) I → I + energy
  4. D) U + n → Ba + Kr + 3 n
  5. E) N + He → O + H

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

27) Which nuclear reaction is an example of electron capture?

  1. A) Pu + He → Cm
  2. B) Na → Ne + β
  3. C) Cm → Pu + He
  4. D) Ar + β → Cl
  5. E) Ni → Cu + β

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

28) Which nuclear reaction is an example of beta emission?

  1. A) Pu + He → Cm
  2. B) Na → Ne + β
  3. C) Cm → Pu + He
  4. D) Ar + β → Cl
  5. E) Ni → Cu + β

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

29) Which nuclear reaction is an example of positron emission?

  1. A) Pu + He → Cm
  2. B) Na → Ne + β
  3. C) Cm → Pu + He
  4. D) Ar + β → Cl
  5. E) Ni → Cu + β

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

 

30) Which nuclear reaction is not balanced?

  1. A) B + He → N + n
  2. B) U + He → Am + n
  3. C) Ar + H → K + n
  4. D) N + He → O + H
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

31) Which product is formed by alpha emission from gold-185? The atomic number of gold is 79.

  1. A) Tl
  2. B) Au
  3. C) Ir
  4. D) Ir
  5. E) Hg

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

 

32) Which reaction is an example of a gamma emission?

  1. A) Cm → Pu + He
  2. B) B + n → Li + He
  3. C) U + n → Te + Zr + 2 n
  4. D) Ti → V + β
  5. E) Sc → Sc + energy

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

33) What is the missing reactant in the reaction shown?

 

Al + ________ → P + n

 

  1. A) He
  2. B) H
  3. C) H
  4. D) n
  5. E) β

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

 

34) What is the missing reactant in the reaction shown?

 

Cl + ________ → P + He

 

  1. A) He
  2. B) H
  3. C) H
  4. D) n
  5. E) β

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

35) How many neutrons will be produced in the reaction shown?

 

Cm + C → No + ________ n

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) cannot be determined

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

 

36) What other product is formed when one neutron interacts with uranium-235 to form bromine-87 and 3 neutrons?

  1. A) La
  2. B) La
  3. C) La
  4. D) Xe
  5. E) Xe

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

37) What is the product when phosphorous-30 loses a positron?

  1. A) S
  2. B) S
  3. C) P
  4. D) P
  5. E) Si

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

38) Electron capture involves the conversion of a proton to a neutron by

  1. A) emitting an electron.
  2. B) seizing an inner shell electron.
  3. C) seizing an outer shell electron.
  4. D) obtaining a gamma particle.
  5. E) obtaining an electron from a p

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G2

 

39) Write a balanced nuclear equation for a) positron emission of a calcium-38 isotope; b) formation of copper-62 by electron capture.

Answer:  Ca → β + K

Ni + β → Cu

Diff: 3

Section:  11.4

LO:  11.4

Global LO:  G4

 

40) What percentage of a radioactive sample remains after four half-lives have passed?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 6.25%
  3. C) 12.5%
  4. D) 25%
  5. E) 50%

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

41) List and discuss two criteria used to choose appropriate radioisotopes for use as tracers in medical imaging procedures.

Answer:  One criterion is that they have a relatively short half-life, so the patient does not have an unnecessarily long exposure to radiation. The other is that the radioisotope should not produce any other radioisotopes, as this would expose the patient to unnecessary risk. An alternative criterion would be the radioisotope having chemical properties appropriate for the application.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G2, G8

42) When a radioactive isotope decays into a nucleus which is also unstable and undergoes decay, and this process is repeated several times, the succession of reactions is called a

  1. A) decay series.
  2. B) fission reaction.
  3. C) fusion reaction.
  4. D) half-life.
  5. E) none of these

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

43) If the half-life of vanadium-48 is 16 days, it is true that

  1. A) vanadium-48 is a beta emitter.
  2. B) the decay rate would be different if the chemical environment of vanadium-48 is changed.
  3. C) after 32 days a sample of vanadium-48 would have completely decayed.
  4. D) after 16 days 50% of a sample of vanadium-48 would have decayed.
  5. E) vanadium-48 would decay faster in its first half-life than in later half-lives.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

44) Which of the properties of radioisotopes make them useful as tracers in medical or agricultural applications?

 

  1. Their chemical behavior is the same as nonradioactive isotopes.
  2. They emit various types of radiation.

III.   The nuclear reaction is unaffected by the chemical state of the isotope.

 

  1. A) I only
  2. B) I and II
  3. C) I and III
  4. D) none of these
  5. E) all of these

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5

45) The half-life of sodium-24 is 15.0 hours. What percentage of a sample of sodium-24 remains after 75.0 hours?

  1. A) 0.00%
  2. B) 3.13%
  3. C) 6.25%
  4. D) 12.5%
  5. E) 25.0%

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

 

46) The half-life of nickel-65 is 2.50 days. How much of a 100.-g sample remains after 7.50 days?

  1. A) 100. g
  2. B) 50.0 g
  3. C) 25.0 g
  4. D) 12.5 g
  5. E) 6.25 g

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

47) If 75.0 mg of potassium-42 was administered to a patient at 10 AM on Monday, how many mg will remain at 10 AM on Thursday of that same week? The half life of K-42 is 12 hours.

  1. A) 37.5 mg
  2. B) 1.17 mg
  3. C) 18.8 mg
  4. D) 9.38 mg

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

48) You obtain a new sample of cobalt-60, half-life 5.25 years, with a mass of 400. mg.  How much cobalt-60 remains after 15.75 years?

Answer:  50 mg

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

49) Approximately how old is a fossil that contains 3.13% of its original carbon-14? The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.

  1. A) 2870 years
  2. B) 5730 years
  3. C) 11,500 years
  4. D) 22,900 years
  5. E) 28,700 years

Answer:  E

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

 

50) Approximately how old is a fossil that has a little more than 6% of its original radioactivity? The half-life of carbon-14 used in dating artifacts is 5700 years.

  1. A) 57,000 years
  2. B) 34,200 years
  3. C) 20,000 years
  4. D) 11,400 years
  5. E) 5700 years

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

51) Which of the following isotopes can be used to monitor spleen function?

  1. A) 99Tc
  2. B) 14C
  3. C) 3H
  4. D) 131I
  5. E) 60Co

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5

 

52) Which of the following isotopes can be used to monitor thyroid function?

  1. A) 131I
  2. B) 14C
  3. C) 3H
  4. D) 99Tc
  5. E) 60Co

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5

53) Radioisotopes which emit alpha rays make the best diagnostic tracers.

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5

 

 

54) Diagnostic tracers form hot spots when they are prevented from entering diseased tissue.

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5

 

55) Three applications of nuclear chemistry are medical imaging, energy production, and archaeological dating. Describe each of these applications and explain what properties of radioactive elements are used in each one.

Answer:  Medical imaging makes use of all three major characteristics of radioisotopes: they have identical chemical behavior to other atoms of that element; they give off energy that can be easily detected; and their nuclear behavior is the same regardless of the chemical state.

 

Energy production takes advantage of the fact that nuclear reactions involve very large amounts of energy, producing a lot of energy for a relatively small mass of fuel (especially compared to fossil fuels!).

 

Archaeological dating takes advantage of the fact that the nuclear behavior of radioisotopes is predictable regardless of the chemical environment.

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G5, G8

 

56) In a radioactive decay series, a radioisotope decays into another radioisotope successively until a stable nucleus is produced.  Th begins a decay series that consists of six alpha decays and four beta decays. What is the final stable isotope produced in this series?

  1. A) plutonium-256
  2. B) thorium-232
  3. C) radon-220
  4. D) lead-208
  5. E) uranium-238

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

57) If a technician is ordered to deliver 30. units of radiation to a patient, at what distance should the source be if it delivers 85 units for a distance of 3.5 m?

  1. A) 9.3 m
  2. B) 1.3 m
  3. C) 35 m
  4. D) 4.3 m
  5. E) 3.15 m

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.5

LO:  11.5

Global LO:  G4

 

58) Which of the following is not an example of ionizing radiation?

  1. A) X-rays
  2. B) gamma rays
  3. C) beta particles
  4. D) alpha particles
  5. E) infrared rays

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  11.6

LO:  11.6

Global LO:  G5

 

59) Ionizing radiation is

  1. A) radiation that only interacts with ions.
  2. B) the same as a proton.
  3. C) a neutron that has acquired a charge, thus forming an ion.
  4. D) high-energy radiation that removes electrons from atoms or molecules.
  5. E) given off by ions and reacts with nuclei.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.6

LO:  11.6

Global LO:  G5

 

 

60) Ionizing radiation is dangerous to living things because

  1. A) it causes nuclear reactions.
  2. B) it causes thermal burns.
  3. C) it alters the chemical structure of atoms or molecules.
  4. D) it causes electrons to be captured by the nucleus.
  5. E) its penetrating power varies with its source.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.6

LO:  11.6

Global LO:  G5

61) Which of the following has the highest ionizing power?

  1. A) alpha
  2. B) gamma
  3. C) beta
  4. D) proton

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.6

LO:  11.6

Global LO:  G5

 

62) Discuss the harmful effects of ionizing radiation on the human body, including the factors affecting the degree of harm and the protective measures that can be used to minimize exposure.

Answer:  The harmful effects of ionizing radiation include disrupting interrelated systems of chemical reactions by converting biomolecules into ions. The degree of harm caused by ionizing radiation depends on the type of radiation, its intensity, and the degree of exposure. Different types of radiation vary in their penetrating power and the amount of energy associated with them. These factors in turn determine the intensity and degree of exposure. In addition, the distance from the body, the amount of time exposed, and the location of the source (whether internal or external) all affect the intensity of the exposure.

 

Exposure to radiation can be minimized by increasing the distance from the source, using shielding appropriate to the penetrating power of the radiation, limiting the time of exposure, and avoiding ingestion of anything radioactive.

Diff: 2

Section:  11.6

LO:  11.6

Global LO:  G5, G8

 

 

63) The amount of a radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second is known as a

  1. A) curie.
  2. B) roentgen.
  3. C) rem.
  4. D) rad.
  5. E) sievert.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

64) A curie is

  1. A) the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 109units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
  2. B) a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
  3. C) a unit that allows both for the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
  4. D) the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
  5. E) the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010disintegrations per second.

Answer:  E

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

65) The amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 109 units of charge in 1 cm3 of air is the

  1. A) curie.
  2. B) roentgen.
  3. C) rem.
  4. D) rad.
  5. E) sievert.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

 

66) A roentgen is

  1. A) the amount of radiation dosage that produces 2.1 × 109units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
  2. B) a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
  3. C) a unit that allows both for the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
  4. D) the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
  5. E) the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010disintegrations per second.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

67) A unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue is the

  1. A) curie.
  2. B) roentgen.
  3. C) rem.
  4. D) rad.
  5. E) sievert.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

68) A rem is

  1. A) the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 109units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
  2. B) a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
  3. C) a unit that that measures both the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
  4. D) the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
  5. E) the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010disintegrations per second.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

 

69) The unit of radiation exposure which allows for the energy and penetrating power of different types of radiation is the

  1. A) curie.
  2. B) roentgen.
  3. C) rem.
  4. D) rad.
  5. E) sievert.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

70) A gray is

  1. A) the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 109units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
  2. B) a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
  3. C) a unit that measures both the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
  4. D) the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
  5. E) the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010disintegrations per second.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

71) A rad is

  1. A) the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 109units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
  2. B) a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
  3. C) a unit that measures both for the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
  4. D) the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
  5. E) the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 1010disintegrations per second.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

 

72) The most important unit for biological doses of radiation is the

  1. A) rem.
  2. B) rad.
  3. C) curie.
  4. D) bozon.
  5. E) roentgen.

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

73) A REM is a biological radiation measurement which is independent of the type of radiation.

Answer:  FALSE

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

74) The SI unit for the energy absorbed is

  1. A) becquerel.
  2. B) gray.
  3. C) rad.
  4. D) sivert.
  5. E) rem.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G2

75) The major source of radiation exposure for the general population is

  1. A) medical sources.
  2. B) nuclear power plants.
  3. C) industrial activities.
  4. D) radon in homes.
  5. E) space.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.7

LO:  11.7

Global LO:  G5

 

 

76) Which reaction illustrates artificial transmutation by alpha bombardment?

  1. A) U → He + Th
  2. B) Se → β + Br
  3. C) I → I + energy
  4. D) U + n → Ba + Kr + 3 n
  5. E) N + He → O + H

Answer:  E

Diff: 2

Section:  11.8

LO:  11.8

Global LO:  G4

 

77) Which reaction illustrates artificial transmutation by bombardment with a neutron?

  1. A) Cm → Pu + He
  2. B) Cm + He → Cf + n
  3. C) N + n → C + H
  4. D) Ti → V + β
  5. E) Sc → Sc + energy

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Section:  11.8

LO:  11.8

Global LO:  G4

 

78) Which reaction is an example of a chain reaction?

  1. A) U → He + Th
  2. B) Se → β + Br
  3. C) I → I + energy
  4. D) U + n → Ba + Kr + 3 n
  5. E) N + He → O + H

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

79) In nuclear fusion

  1. A) an atomic nucleus splits into two fragments, each forming an atom of an element with a smaller atomic number than the original.
  2. B) an atomic nucleus loses two or more alpha particles.
  3. C) positrons and electrons combine to form gamma rays.
  4. D) several small nuclei combine to form an atom of greater atomic number.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

80) The fission of an atom of uranium (or an atom of greater atomic number) can be induced by bombarding it with

  1. A) neutrons.
  2. B) protons.
  3. C) electrons.
  4. D) positrons.
  5. E) gamma rays.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

81) The fusion reaction that supplies the energy of the sun is

  1. A) H + H → He +
  2. B) U + n → Ba + Kr + 3
  3. C) n + N → C +
  4. D) C → N + β.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

82) When a nucleus is bombarded with particles and breaks into two similarly sized nuclei plus one or more small particles, the process is called

  1. A) fission.
  2. B) fusion.
  3. C) spontaneous decay.
  4. D) induced decay.
  5. E) mutation.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

83) Which reaction is an example of a neutron bombardment?

  1. A) Cm → Pu + He
  2. B) Cm + He → Cf + n
  3. C) U + n → Te + Zr + 2 n
  4. D) Ti → V + β
  5. E) Sc → Sc + energy

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G5

 

 

Match the following.

 

  1. A) a unit of measurement of radiation based on the number of radioactive events per unit time
  2. B) atoms which undergo spontaneous nuclear decay
  3. C) a unit of measurement of radiation based on the amount of tissue damage; this unit accounts for the different energies of each type of radiation
  4. D) a unit of measurement of radiation based on the amount of energy absorbed by a specific mass of sample
  5. E) a unit of measurement of radiation based on the amount of ionization caused by the radiation
  6. F) a succession of spontaneous nuclear decays, often resulting in an atom of lead as the final product
  7. G) a nuclear reaction that continues on its own after initiation because the number of neutrons produced is greater than the number of neutrons consumed
  8. H) a nuclear reaction in which a large nucleus is split into two fragments similar in size with additional small particles released
  9. I) a general term which refers to particles found in the nucleus
  10. J) atoms which do not undergo spontaneous nuclear decay
  11. K) the joining of small nuclei into a larger nucleus

 

84) nucleon

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

85) stable isotopes

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

86) unstable isotopes

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

87) decay series

Diff: 1

Section: 11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

 

88) curie

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

89) rem

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

90) rad

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

91) roentgen

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO: G2

 

92) chain reaction

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G2

 

93) fission

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G2

 

94) fusion

Diff: 1

Section:  11.9

LO:  11.9

Global LO:  G2

 

Answers: 84) I 85) J 86) B 87) F 88) A 89) C 90) D 91) E 92) G 93) H 94) K