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General, Organic, And Biological Chemistry Structures of Life 5th Edition – Test Bank 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 1   Chemistry in Our Lives

 

1.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Water, H2O, is an example of a(n)

  1. A) chemical.
  2. B) solid.
  3. C) wave.
  4. D) electric charge.
  5. E) element.

 

 

 

 

2) In this list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?

  1. A) salt
  2. B) sleep
  3. C) cold
  4. D) heat
  5. E) temperature

 

 

 

 

3) One example of a chemical used in toothpaste is

  1. A) chlorine.
  2. B) sulfur.
  3. C) carbon dioxide.
  4. D) calcium carbonate.
  5. E) sugar.

 

 

 

 

4) Which of the following is not a chemical?

  1. A) salt
  2. B) water
  3. C) light
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) sugar

 

 

 

 

5) Sodium fluorophosphate is a chemical used in toothpaste to

  1. A) make the paste white.
  2. B) disinfect the toothbrush.
  3. C) keep the paste from spoiling.
  4. D) remove plaque.
  5. E) strengthen tooth enamel.

 

 

 

 

6) Titanium dioxide is a chemical used in toothpaste to

  1. A) make the paste white.
  2. B) disinfect the toothbrush.
  3. C) keep the paste from spoiling.
  4. D) remove plaque.
  5. E) strengthen tooth enamel.

 

 

 

 

7) When a part of the body is injured, substances called ________ are released.

  1. A) aspirins
  2. B) pain relievers
  3. C) nitrogen oxides
  4. D) chlorofluorocarbons
  5. E) prostaglandins

 

 

 

 

8) Which of the following is a chemical?

  1. A) sugar
  2. B) heat
  3. C) light
  4. D) noise
  5. E) a wave

 

 

 

 

9) You notice that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n)

  1. A) observation.
  2. B) hypothesis.
  3. C) experiment.
  4. D) theory.
  5. E) all the above

 

 

 

10) There is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning because most people start work at 9. This would be a(n)

  1. A) observation.
  2. B) hypothesis.
  3. C) experiment.
  4. D) theory.
  5. E) all the above

 

 

 

 

11) One way to enhance your learning in chemistry is to

  1. A) study a little every day.
  2. B) form a study group.
  3. C) go to office hours.
  4. D) be an active learner.
  5. E) all the above

 

 

 

 

12) In order to enhance your learning in chemistry, you should not

  1. A) study a little every day.
  2. B) form a study group.
  3. C) go to office hours.
  4. D) be an active learner.
  5. E) wait until the night before the exam to study.

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the following would not be part of a study plan to learn chemistry?

  1. A) study a little every day
  2. B) skip your instructor’s office hours
  3. C) form a study group
  4. D) read the chapter before class
  5. E) work the sample problems

 

 

 

 

 

14) In the number 12.345, the 4 is in the ________ place.

  1. A) tens
  2. B) ones
  3. C) tenths
  4. D) hundredths
  5. E) thousandths

 

 

 

15) In the number 12.345, the 1 is in the ________ place.

  1. A) tens
  2. B) ones
  3. C) tenths
  4. D) hundredths
  5. E) thousandths

 

 

 

 

16) In the number 12.345, the 3 is in the ________ place.

  1. A) tens
  2. B) ones
  3. C) tenths
  4. D) hundredths
  5. E) thousandths

 

 

 

 

17) The product of (-4) × (-5) is

  1. A) -20.
  2. B) +20.
  3. C) -1.
  4. D) +1.
  5. E) 0.

 

 

 

 

18) For the equation 4x + 2 = 10 , x equals

  1. A) 8.
  2. B) 12.
  3. C) 3.
  4. D) 2.
  5. E) -2.

 

 

 

 

19) For the equation -10 – (-4) =

  1. A) 6.
  2. B) -6.
  3. C) 14.
  4. D) -14.
  5. E) 4.

 

 

 

20) 12 is what percent of 36?

  1. A) 3%
  2. B) 30%
  3. C) 33%
  4. D) 330%
  5. E) 12%

 

 

 

 

21) 16 is what percent of 80?

  1. A) 200%
  2. B) 20%
  3. C) 2%
  4. D) 5%
  5. E) 50%

 

 

 

 

22) Written in scientific notation, 540 000 is

  1. A) 0.54 × 106.
  2. B) 54 × 108.
  3. C) 5.4 × 10-5.
  4. D) 5.4 × 105.
  5. E) 5.4.

 

 

 

 

 

23) Written in scientific notation, 8300 is

  1. A) 8.3 × 102.
  2. B) 8.3 × 103.
  3. C) 8.3 × 104.
  4. D) 8.3 × 10-3.
  5. E) 8.3 × 10-2.

 

 

 

 

24) Written in scientific notation, 0.000 000 33 is

  1. A) 3.3 × 107.
  2. B) 3.3 × 10-7.
  3. C) 3.3 × 10-8.
  4. D) 3.3 × 108.
  5. E) 3.3.

 

 

 

25) Written in scientific notation, 0.000 004 03 is

  1. A) 4.03 × 10-7.
  2. B) 4.03 × 10-6.
  3. C) 4.03 × 106.
  4. D) 0.403 × 10-5.
  5. E) 4.03.

 

 

 

 

1.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Titanium dioxide in toothpaste is used as a detergent.

 

 

 

 

2) Calcium carbonate is used to sweeten toothpaste.

 

 

 

 

3) Paracelsus was a Greek philosopher.

 

 

 

 

 

4) The first step in the scientific method is to draw a conclusion.

 

 

 

 

5) Doing experiments to test your hypothesis is part of the scientific method.

 

 

 

 

6) Working with a group of students can help you learn chemistry.

 

 

 

 

7) Keeping a problem notebook will help you do well in your chemistry class.

 

 

 

 

8) It is a good idea to wait until the night before an exam to start to study.

 

 

 

9) In the number 123.45, the digit 5 is in the hundreds place.

 

 

 

 

10) When -7 is added to -5 the answer is 12.

 

 

 

 

11) If a negative number is divided by another negative number, the answer will be a positive number.

 

 

 

 

12) 3.5 × 103 is equal to 3500.

 

 

 

 

13) 2.25 × 10-4 is equal to 22500.

 

 

 

 

 

1.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) A substance that consists of one type of matter and always has the same composition and properties is called a ________.

 

 

 

2) Any material used in or produced by a chemical reaction is a ________.

 

 

3) An abrasive used in toothpaste is ________.

 

 

 

4) The substances released when tissues are injured are ________.

 

5) Substances which prevent spoilage are called ________.

 

 

6) The chemical used to make cans and foil is ________.

 

 

7) The first step in the scientific method is to ________.

 

 

8) The second step in the scientific method is to ________.

 

 

9) In the number 45.678, the digit 6 is in the ________ place.

 

 

Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.

 

10) 351 000 000 000

 

 

11) 0.000 860

 

 

12) 5 207 000

 

 

13) 0.000 000 050

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 2   Chemistry and Measurements

 

2.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The metric base unit for length is the

  1. A) meter.
  2. B) inch.
  3. C) millimeter.
  4. D) kilometer.
  5. E) foot.

 

 

 

 

2) The metric unit for volume is the

  1. A) meter.
  2. B) quart.
  3. C) liter.
  4. D) pint.
  5. E) centimeter.

 

 

 

 

3) Which of the following is the basic unit of mass in the SI?

  1. A) pound
  2. B) kilogram
  3. C) milligram
  4. D) microgram
  5. E) gram

 

 

 

 

4) Which of the following is a measurement of mass in the metric system?

  1. A) milliliter
  2. B) centimeter
  3. C) kilogram
  4. D) Celsius
  5. E) meter

 

 

 

 

5) Which of the following is a measurement of temperature in the metric system?

  1. A) oz
  2. B) lb
  3. C) Celsius
  4. D) kilogram
  5. E) meter

 

 

 

 

6) A value of 25 °C is a measurement of

  1. A) distance.
  2. B) volume.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) mass.
  5. E) density.

 

 

 

 

7) A value of 36 mL is a measure of

  1. A) density.
  2. B) mass.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) volume.
  5. E) distance.

 

 

 

 

8) A value of 345 cm is a measure of

  1. A) density.
  2. B) mass.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) volume.
  5. E) distance.

 

 

 

 

9) The amount of space occupied by a substance is its

  1. A) mass.
  2. B) density.
  3. C) weight.
  4. D) length.
  5. E) volume.

 

 

 

10) The measurement of the gravitational pull on an object is its

  1. A) volume.
  2. B) weight.
  3. C) mass.
  4. D) length.
  5. E) size.

 

 

 

 

11) Significant figures are important because they indicate

  1. A) the accuracy of a measurement.
  2. B) the number of digits on a calculator.
  3. C) the number of measurements.
  4. D) the precision of a measurement.
  5. E) the accuracy of the conversion factor.

 

 

 

 

12) Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?

  1. A) 0.005 m
  2. B) 510 m
  3. C) 0.510 m
  4. D) 0.051 m
  5. E) 5100 m

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the following measured numbers contains the designated CORRECT number of significant figures?

  1. A) 0.04300 5 significant figures
  2. B) 0.00302 2 significant figures
  3. C) 156 000 3 significant figures
  4. D) 1.04 2 significant figures
  5. E) 3.0650 4 significant figures

 

 

 

 

 

14) The number of significant figures in the measurement of 45.030 mm is

  1. A) none.
  2. B) three.
  3. C) four.
  4. D) five.
  5. E) six.

 

 

 

 

15) How many significant figures are in the measured number 0.00208 m?

  1. A) six
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

 

 

 

16) Which of the following examples illustrates a number that is correctly rounded to three significant figures?

  1. A) 4.05438 grams to 4.054 grams
  2. B) 0.03954 grams to 0.040 grams
  3. C) 103.692 grams to 103.7 grams
  4. D) 109,526 grams to 109 500 grams
  5. E) 20.0332 grams to 20.0 grams

 

 

 

 

17) A calculator answer of 423.6059 must be rounded off to three significant figures. What answer is reported?

  1. A) 423
  2. B) 424
  3. C) 420
  4. D) 423.6
  5. E) 423.7

 

 

 

 

 

18) Which of the answers for the following conversions contains the correct number of significant figures?

  1. A) 2.543 m × = 100.1942 in
  2. B) 2 L × = 2.12 qt
  3. C) 24.95 min × = 0.4158 hr
  4. D) 12.0 ft × × = 370 cm
  5. E) 24.0 kg × = 11 lb

 

 

 

 

19) What is the correct answer for the calculation of a volume (in mL) with measured numbers ?

  1. A) 0.22 mL
  2. B) 0.223 mL
  3. C) 57 mL
  4. D) 14 mL
  5. E) 14.3 mL

 

 

 

 

20) A researcher added three samples of sodium chloride solution; the volumes were: 0.351 mL, 0.350 mL and 0.349 mL. The total volume should be reported as

  1. A) 1.05 mL.
  2. B) 1.0 mL.
  3. C) 11 mL.
  4. D) 1.050 mL.
  5. E) 1.0500 mL.

 

 

 

 

21) When 2610 + 11.7 + 0.22 are added, the answer to the correct number of decimal places is

  1. A) 2621.92.
  2. B) 2621.9.
  3. C) 2621.
  4. D) 2620.
  5. E) 2600.

 

 

 

 

 

22) What is the answer, with the correct number of decimal places, for this problem?

 

4.392 g + 102.40 g + 2.51 g =

 

  1. A) 109.302 g
  2. B) 109 g
  3. C) 109.3 g
  4. D) 109.30 g
  5. E) 110 g

 

 

 

23) The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is

  1. A) 13.071 g.
  2. B) 13 g.
  3. C) 13.0 g.
  4. D) 10 g.
  5. E) 13.1 g.

 

 

 

 

24) What is the correct answer for the calculation ?

  1. A) 0.65645
  2. B) 0.656
  3. C) 0.66
  4. D) 1.52
  5. E) 1.5

 

 

 

 

25) 5.21 cm is the same distance as

  1. A) 0.0521 m.
  2. B) 52.1 dm.
  3. C) 5.21 mm.
  4. D) 0.00521 km.
  5. E) 5210 m.

 

 

 

 

 

26) Which of the following measurements are NOT equivalent?

  1. A) 25 mg = 0.025 g
  2. B) 183 L = 0.183 kL
  3. C) 150. ms = 0.150 s
  4. D) 84 cm = 8.4 mm
  5. E) 24 dL = 2.4 L

 

 

 

 

27) In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?

  1. A) microgram / mg
  2. B) milliliter / mL
  3. C) centimeter / km
  4. D) kilogram / cg
  5. E) gram / gm

 

 

 

 

28) Which of the following is the largest unit?

  1. A) millimeter
  2. B) micrometer
  3. C) meter
  4. D) decimeter
  5. E) kilometer

 

 

 

 

29) What is the metric relationship between grams and micrograms?

  1. A) 1 g = 100 μg
  2. B) 1 g = 1 000 000 μg
  3. C) 1 g = 0.000 001 μg
  4. D) 1 g = 1000 μg
  5. E) 1 g = 0.001 μg

 

 

 

 

30) Which of the following is the smallest unit?

  1. A) gram
  2. B) milligram
  3. C) kilogram
  4. D) decigram
  5. E) microgram

 

 

 

 

31) The cubic centimeter (cm3 or cc) has the same volume as a

  1. A) cubic inch.
  2. B) cubic liter.
  3. C) milliliter.
  4. D) centimeter.
  5. E) cubic decimeter.

 

 

 

 

32) 9.31 g is the same mass as

  1. A) 931 μg.
  2. B) 931 kg.
  3. C) 93.1 cg.
  4. D) 9310 mg.
  5. E) 0.0931 dg.

 

 

 

 

33) What is the conversion factor for the relationship between millimeters and centimeters?

  1. A) 1 mm/1 cm
  2. B) 10 mm/1 cm
  3. C) 1 cm/1 mm
  4. D) 100 mm/1 cm
  5. E) 10 cm/1 mm

 

 

 

 

34) A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeters is

  1. A) 100 cm/1 m.
  2. B) 1 inch/2.54 cm.
  3. C) 1 cm/10 mm.
  4. D) 2.54 cm/1 inch.
  5. E) 10 cm/1 inch.

 

 

 

 

 

35) Which of the following conversion factors is a measured number?

  1. A) 10 cm/dm
  2. B) 12 in/ft
  3. C) 16 oz/lb
  4. D) 25 miles/gallon
  5. E) 12 eggs/dozen

 

 

 

 

36) According to the United States Food and Drug Administration, the recommended daily requirement of protein is 44 g. This is ________ oz of protein.

  1. A) 1248.5
  2. B) 320 000
  3. C) 1.6
  4. D) 0.0605
  5. E) 150 000

 

 

 

 

37) Which of the following setups would convert centimeters to feet?

  1. A) cm × ×
  2. B) cm × ×
  3. C) cm × ×
  4. D) cm × ×
  5. E) cm × ×

 

 

 

 

38) The EPA limit for lead in the soil of play areas is 400 ppm. This is the same as

  1. A) 400 mg lead in each gram of soil.
  2. B) 400 g lead in each kilogram of soil.
  3. C) 400 mg lead in each kilogram of soil.
  4. D) 400 µg lead in each kilogram of soil.
  5. E) 400 µg lead in each milligram of soil.

 

 

 

 

 

39) How many pounds are in 3.5 kg?

  1. A) 7.7 lb
  2. B) 1.59 lb
  3. C) 0.629 lb
  4. D) 1.6 lb
  5. E) 7.70 lb

 

 

 

 

40) How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in.?

  1. A) 22 cm
  2. B) 0.0445 cm
  3. C) 145 cm
  4. D) 22.4 cm
  5. E) 140 cm

 

 

 

 

41) How many kilograms are in 30.4 lb?

  1. A) 13.8 kg
  2. B) 14 kg
  3. C) 67 kg
  4. D) 66.88 kg
  5. E) 66.9 kg

 

 

 

 

42) How many liters of soft drink are there in 5.25 qt?

  1. A) 4950 L
  2. B) 55.7 L
  3. C) 4.95 L
  4. D) 5.57 L
  5. E) 5.0 L

 

 

 

 

43) What is 6.5 m converted to inches?

  1. A) 1700 in
  2. B) 1651 in
  3. C) 39 in
  4. D) 260 in
  5. E) 255.9 in

 

 

 

 

44) 1.00 pint of milk has a volume of how many milliliters? (2 pints = 1 quart)

  1. A) 472 mL
  2. B) 530. mL
  3. C) 1000 mL
  4. D) 1890 mL
  5. E) 106 mL

 

 

 

 

45) What is the volume of a cube that measures 4.00 cm on each side?

  1. A) 16.0 mL
  2. B) 64.0 L
  3. C) 64.0 mL
  4. D) 64.00 mL
  5. E) 0.640 L

 

 

 

 

46) Grapes are $1.49 per pound. What is the cost of 1.20 kg of grapes?

  1. A) $3.93
  2. B) $2.73
  3. C) $1.79
  4. D) $0.81
  5. E) $0.56

 

 

 

 

47) A driver is traveling at 60 km/h. Is the driver speeding if the speed limit is 45 mph?

  1. A) Yes
  2. B) No

 

 

 

 

48) How many kilograms are in 30.4 lb?

  1. A) 13.8 kg
  2. B) 14 kg
  3. C) 67 kg
  4. D) 66.88 kg
  5. E) 66.9 kg

 

 

 

 

 

49) A dose of aspirin of 5.0 mg per kilogram of body weight has been prescribed to reduce the fever of an infant weighing 8.5 pounds. The number of milligrams of aspirin that should be administered is

  1. A) 19 mg.
  2. B) 53 mg.
  3. C) 1.6 mg.
  4. D) 5.0 mg.
  5. E) 0.59 mg.

 

 

 

 

50) A doctor’s order is 0.125 g of ampicillin. The liquid suspension on hand contains 250 mg/5.0 mL. How many milliliters of the suspension are required?

  1. A) 0.0025 mL
  2. B) 3.0 mL
  3. C) 2.5 mL
  4. D) 6.3 mL
  5. E) 0.0063 mL

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

51) A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold?

  1. A) 10.4 g/mL
  2. B) 6.77 g/mL
  3. C) 1.00 g/mL
  4. D) 0.0518 g/mL
  5. E) 19.3 g/mL

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

52) Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a density of 0.66 g/mL?

  1. A) table salt (density = 2.16 g/mL)
  2. B) balsa wood (density = 0.16 g/mL)
  3. C) sugar (density = 1.59 g/mL)
  4. D) aluminum (density = 2.70 g/mL)
  5. E) mercury (density = 13.6 g/mL)

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

 

53) What is the mass of 2.00 L of an intravenous glucose solution with a density of 1.15 g/mL?

  1. A) 0.023 kg
  2. B) 2.30 kg
  3. C) 1.15 kg
  4. D) 0.015 kg
  5. E) 0.58 kg

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

54) Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?

  1. A) 0.0257 mL
  2. B) 0.026 mL
  3. C) 25.7 mL
  4. D) 26 mL
  5. E) 4760 mL

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

55) What is the density of a substance with a mass of 45.00 g and a volume of 26.4 mL?

  1. A) 1.70 g/mL
  2. B) 1.7 g/mL
  3. C) 0.59 g/mL
  4. D) 0.587 g/mL
  5. E) 45.0 g/mL

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

56) A liquid has a volume of 34.6 mL and a mass of 46.0 g. What is the density of the liquid?

  1. A) 1.00 g/mL
  2. B) 1.33 g/mL
  3. C) 0.752 g/mL
  4. D) 1330 g/mL
  5. E) 0.663 g/mL

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

57) What is the mass of 53 mL of ethanol, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL?

  1. A) 67.1 g
  2. B) 41.9 g
  3. C) 42 g
  4. D) 67 g
  5. E) 53 g

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

58) The density of a solution is 0.847 g/mL. Its specific gravity is

  1. A) 11.8.
  2. B) 0.118.
  3. C) 0.847.
  4. D) 1.18.
  5. E) 1.2.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

59) The specific gravity of a solution is 1.18. Its density is

  1. A) 11.8 g/mL.
  2. B) 0.118 g/mL.
  3. C) 0.847 g/mL.
  4. D) 1.18 g/mL.
  5. E) 1.2 g/mL.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

60) Diamond has a density of 3.52 g/mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a diamond with a mass of 15.1 g?

  1. A) 4.3 cm3
  2. B) 4.29 cm3
  3. C) 0.233 cm3
  4. D) 53 cm3
  5. E) 53.2 cm3

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

61) The ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume is its

  1. A) specific gravity.
  2. B) density.
  3. C) buoyancy.
  4. D) weight.
  5. E) conversion factor.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

 

62) Which of the following is often used to determine an individual’s percentage of body fat?

  1. A) temperature
  2. B) height
  3. C) weight loss
  4. D) weight gain
  5. E) density

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

63) A 50.0 mL urine sample has a mass of 50.7 g. The specific gravity of the urine is

  1. A) 1.014 g/mL.
  2. B) 0.986 g/L.
  3. C) 1.01.
  4. D) 0.986.
  5. E) 50.7.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

2.2   Short Answer Questions

 

Round off each of the following to three significant figures.

 

1) 504.85

 

 

2) 8.3158

 

 

3) 25 225

 

 

4) 58.5422

 

 

 

5) 6.3477 × 104

 

 

6) 399870

 

 

7) 0.003 408 8

 

 

State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.

 

8) 0.008 090 cm

 

 

9) 680 000 km

 

 

10) 28.050 km

 

 

 

11) 0.0005 L

 

 

 

12) 75.00 m

 

 

13) 2.043 × 104 mm

 

 

14) 6.1 × 10-5 mL

 

 

 

15) 9.00 ×  106 g

 

 

 

2.3   True/False Questions

 

1) The basic unit of mass in the metric system is the pound.

 

 

 

 

2) The liter is a unit of volume in the metric system.

 

 

 

 

3) The number 0.0500 has four significant figures.

 

 

 

 

4) The number 650 000 has two significant figures.

 

 

 

 

5) When the measured number 0.0090 is multiplied by the measured number 87.10, the answer has two significant figures.

 

 

 

 

6) When the measured number 675 is added to the measured number 87.10, the answer should be rounded to the ones place.

 

 

 

 

7) A μg is larger than a mg.

 

 

 

 

8) There are 1000 μg in a mg.

 

 

 

 

9) A cubic centimeter is a unit of length.

 

 

 

 

10) 1 kilogram is the same as 1000 mg.

 

 

 

 

11) 1 milliliter is the same as 1000 L.

 

 

 

 

12) The density of water is 1 kg/mL.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

13) Specific gravity has no units.

 

Objective:  2.7

 

 

2.4   Matching Questions

 

Are the numbers in each of the following statements measured or exact?

 

  1. A) measured
  2. B) exact

 

1) In the U.S. system there are 5280 feet in one mile.

 

 

 

2) The patient’s blood sugar level is 350 mg/dL.

 

 

 

3) There are 452 pages in a book.

 

 

 

4) The rabbit weighs 2.5 pounds.

 

 

 

5) There are 100 capsules in the bottle.

 

 

 

6) I lost 14 pounds on my diet last month.

 

 

 

7) 1 liter is equal to 1.06 quarts.

 

 

 

8) The patient’s temperature is 100.1 °F.

 

 

 

Match the type of measurement to the unit given below.

 

  1. A) volume
  2. B) mass
  3. C) temperature
  4. D) distance
  5. E) density

 

9) milliliter

 

 

 

10) mm

 

 

 

11) gram

 

 

 

12) 125 K

 

 

 

13) kilometer

 

 

 

14) milligram

 

 

 

Select the correct prefix to complete the equality.

 

  1. A) 1 × 1012
  2. B) 1000
  3. C) 1
  4. D) 0.1
  5. E) 0.01
  6. F) 0.001
  7. G) 1 × 10-12
  8. H) 10
  9. I) 100

 

15) 1 g = ________ kg

 

 

 

16) 1 m = ________ mm

 

 

 

17) 1 cm = ________ mm

 

 

 

18) 1 dL = ________ mL

 

 

 

19) 1 kg = ________ g

 

 

 

20) 1 pg = ________ g

 

 

 

21) 1 g = ________ pg

 

 

 

22) 1 mL = ________ cc

 

 

====================================================================

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 3   Energy and Matter

 

3.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Helium is a(n)

  1. A) compound.
  2. B) heterogeneous mixture.
  3. C) element.
  4. D) homogeneous mixture.
  5. E) electron.

 

 

 

 

2) Air is a(n)

  1. A) compound.
  2. B) heterogeneous mixture.
  3. C) element.
  4. D) homogeneous mixture.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

3) Coins in a piggy bank is a(n)

  1. A) compound.
  2. B) heterogeneous mixture.
  3. C) element.
  4. D) homogeneous mixture.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

4) Gold in a wedding ring is a(n)

  1. A) compound.
  2. B) heterogeneous mixture.
  3. C) element.
  4. D) homogeneous mixture.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

5) The primary substances of which all other things are composed are

  1. A) molecules.
  2. B) compounds.
  3. C) elements.
  4. D) electrons.
  5. E) protons.

 

 

 

 

6) Which of the following is a property of a solid?

  1. A) It takes the shape of the container.
  2. B) It fills the volume of the container.
  3. C) The particles move at a rapid rate.
  4. D) The interactions between its particles are very weak.
  5. E) The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

 

 

 

 

7) Which of the following is a physical property of both liquids and gases?

  1. A) has its own shape
  2. B) has a definite volume
  3. C) has strong interactions between its particles
  4. D) has randomly arranged particles
  5. E) has large spaces between molecules

 

 

 

 

8) Which one of the following properties describes a liquid?

  1. A) has its own shape
  2. B) particles are close together and move randomly
  3. C) particles move very rapidly
  4. D) fills the entire volume of the container
  5. E) There is essentially no interaction between the particles.

 

 

 

 

9) In a gas, the distance between the particles is

  1. A) very close relative to the size of the molecules.
  2. B) close relative to the size of the molecules.
  3. C) fixed relative to the size of the molecules.
  4. D) small relative to the size of the molecules.
  5. E) very large relative to the size of the molecules.

 

 

 

10) Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

  1. A) grinding coffee beans
  2. B) baking a cake
  3. C) converting water to hydrogen and oxygen
  4. D) digesting a cheeseburger
  5. E) burning coal

 

 

 

 

11) Which of the following would NOT be a physical change?

  1. A) freezing water to make ice cubes
  2. B) tearing a piece of aluminum foil
  3. C) boiling water for soup
  4. D) burning gasoline in a lawnmower
  5. E) melting gold to make jewelry

 

 

 

 

12) Which of the following is a chemical change?

  1. A) cutting a rope
  2. B) bending a steel rod
  3. C) making a snowman
  4. D) burning sugar
  5. E) melting gold

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the following is a physical change?

  1. A) baking a cake
  2. B) dry ice subliming
  3. C) fermenting grapes to produce wine
  4. D) digesting a meal
  5. E) a tomato ripening

 

 

 

 

14) A temperature of 41 °F is the same as

  1. A) 5 °C.
  2. B) 310 °C.
  3. C) -9 °C.
  4. D) 16 °C.
  5. E) 42 °C.

 

 

 

15) If the temperature is 20 °C, what is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?

  1. A) -22 °F
  2. B) 68 °F
  3. C) 43 °F
  4. D) 239 °F
  5. E) 94 °F

 

 

 

 

16) If the temperature is – 55 °C, what is the corresponding temperature on the Kelvin scale?

  1. A) 225 K
  2. B) 218 K
  3. C) 55 K
  4. D) 273 K
  5. E) 328 K

 

 

 

 

17) A patient has a temperature of 38.5 °C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

  1. A) 70.5 °F
  2. B) 311 °F
  3. C) 126.9 °F
  4. D) 101.3 °F
  5. E) 11.7 °F

 

 

 

 

18) The temperature of liquid nitrogen is – 196 °C. What is the corresponding reading on the Kelvin scale?

  1. A) 77 K
  2. B) -127 K
  3. C) -91 K
  4. D) 48 K
  5. E) 146 K

 

 

 

 

19) On a hot day, the thermometer read 95 °F. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

  1. A) 77 °C
  2. B) 113 °C
  3. C) 35 °C
  4. D) 63 °C
  5. E) 178 °C

 

 

 

20) Absolute zero is

  1. A) the freezing point of water using the Celsius scale.
  2. B) the boiling point of liquid nitrogen.
  3. C) the temperature on the Kelvin scale corresponding to 32 °F.
  4. D) the coldest temperature possible.
  5. E) the freezing point of liquid nitrogen.

 

 

 

 

21) 650. J is the same amount of energy as

  1. A) 155 cal.
  2. B) 2720 cal.
  3. C) 650 cal.
  4. D) 1550 cal.
  5. E) 2.72 cal.

 

 

 

 

22) The energy associated with the motion of particles in a substance is called

  1. A) temperature.
  2. B) electrical energy.
  3. C) heat.
  4. D) chemical energy.
  5. E) potential energy.

 

 

 

 

23) An example of kinetic energy is

  1. A) a coiled spring.
  2. B) running water.
  3. C) a tree.
  4. D) natural gas.
  5. E) chemical energy.

 

 

 

 

24) Which of the following is an example of potential energy?

  1. A) chewing food
  2. B) water stored in a reservoir
  3. C) burning wood
  4. D) a fan blade turning
  5. E) riding an exercise bike

 

 

 

25) The phrase “ability to do work” is a definition of

  1. A) specific heat.
  2. B) energy.
  3. C) calorie.
  4. D) heating.
  5. E) cooling.

 

 

 

 

26) The energy stored in the chemical bonds of a carbohydrate molecule is

  1. A) specific heat.
  2. B) kinetic energy.
  3. C) potential energy.
  4. D) work.
  5. E) a calorie.

 

 

 

 

27) The energy of motion is referred to as

  1. A) work.
  2. B) freezing.
  3. C) specific heat.
  4. D) potential energy.
  5. E) kinetic energy.

 

 

 

 

28) In which of the following would the particles move most rapidly?

  1. A) ice at -20 °C
  2. B) water at 20 °C
  3. C) steam at 110 °C
  4. D) boiling water
  5. E) ice at 0 °C

 

 

 

 

29) 3.25 kcal is the same amount of energy as

  1. A) 3.25 J.
  2. B) 0.777 J.
  3. C) 777 J.
  4. D) 13600 J.
  5. E) 13.6 J.

 

 

 

30) Global warming is believed to result from all of the following except

  1. A) burning of fossil fuels.
  2. B) increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
  3. C) deforestation.
  4. D) movement of the Earth closer to the Sun.
  5. E) carbon dioxide trapping the heat produced by the Sun.

 

 

 

 

31) A 2.5 g sample of french fries is placed in a calorimeter with 500.0 g of water at an initial temperature of 21 °C. After combustion of the french fries, the water has a temperature of 48 °C. What is the caloric value (kcal/g) of the french fries?

  1. A) 14 kcal/g
  2. B) 11 kcal/g
  3. C) 0.14 kcal/g
  4. D) 4.2 kcal/g
  5. E) 5.4 kcal/g

 

 

 

 

32) A potato contains 20 g of carbohydrate. If carbohydrate has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g, how many kcal are obtained from the carbohydrate in the potato?

  1. A) 5 kcal
  2. B) 20 kcal
  3. C) 40 kcal
  4. D) 60 kcal
  5. E) 80 kcal

 

 

 

 

33) The dietary calorie (Cal) is equal to

  1. A) 1000 kilocalories.
  2. B) 1000 calories.
  3. C) 100 calories.
  4. D) 10 calories.
  5. E) 1 calorie.

 

 

 

 

34) A cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant contains 19 g of fat, 20. g of carbohydrate, and 28 g of protein. How many kcal of energy does the cheeseburger contain? (The accepted caloric values for foods are 4.0 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9.0 kcal/g for fat, and 4.0 kcal/g for protein.) Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

  1. A) 70. kcal
  2. B) 360 kcal
  3. C) 17 kcal
  4. D) 630 kcal
  5. E) 280 kcal

 

 

 

 

35) A serving of fish contains 50.g of protein and 4.0 g of fat. If protein has a caloric value of 4.0 kcal/g and fat has 9.0 kcal/g, how many kcal are in the serving? Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

  1. A) 240 kcal
  2. B) 54.0 kcal
  3. C) 470 kcal
  4. D) 220 kcal
  5. E) 490 kcal

 

 

 

 

36) A slice of pizza contains 29 g of carbohydrate, 13 g of protein and an unknown amount of fat. If the pizza contains 280 kcal, how many grams of fat are present? Report the answer to 2 significant figures.

  1. A) 10. g
  2. B) 12 g
  3. C) 25 g
  4. D) 55 g
  5. E) 250 g

 

 

 

 

37) A diet has a total caloric intake of 1400 kcal. If the protein in the diet provides 35% of the kcal, the number of kcal of protein in the diet is

  1. A) 700 kcal.
  2. B) 490 kcal.
  3. C) 210 kcal.
  4. D) 460 kcal.
  5. E) 1200 kcal.

 

 

 

 

38) One cup of kidney beans contains 15 g of protein, 1.0 g of fat, and 42 g of carbohydrate. How many kilocalories, to two significant figures, does this sample contain?

  1. A) 60 kcal
  2. B) 88 kcal
  3. C) 230 kcal
  4. D) 240 kcal
  5. E) 520 kcal

 

 

 

 

39) The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat needed to

  1. A) change 1 g of the substance from the solid to the liquid state.
  2. B) raise the temperature of 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.
  3. C) change 1 g of the substance from the liquid to the solid state.
  4. D) convert 1 g of a liquid to gas.
  5. E) convert 1 g of a solid to a gas.

 

 

 

 

40) A kilocalorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of

  1. A) 1 g of water from 14 °C to 15 °C.
  2. B) 1 g of water by 10 °C.
  3. C) 10 g of water by 10 °C.
  4. D) 100 g of water by 10 °C.
  5. E) 100 g of water by 100 °C.

 

 

 

 

41) How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 35.0 g sample of iron from 25 °C to 35 °C? Iron has a specific heat of 0.108 cal/g °C.

  1. A) 38 cal
  2. B) 1.1 cal
  3. C) 3.8 cal
  4. D) 93 cal
  5. E) 130 cal

 

 

 

 

 

42) How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 13 g of alcohol from 11 °C to 23 °C? The specific heat of alcohol is 0.588 cal/g °C.

  1. A) 83 cal
  2. B) 0.63 cal
  3. C) 92 cal
  4. D) 0.54 cal
  5. E) 170 cal

 

 

 

43) How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 150. g sample of gold from 25 °C to 175 °C? The specific heat of gold is 0.0308 cal/g °C.

  1. A) 4.62 cal
  2. B) 116 cal
  3. C) 22500 cal
  4. D) 693 cal
  5. E) 130 cal

 

 

 

 

44) Raising the temperature of 10.0 g of water from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 100.0 cal of energy, while raising the temperature of 10.0 g of aluminum from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 22 cal. More calories are required to heat the water because

  1. A) water is a liquid and aluminum is a solid at 10.0 °C.
  2. B) ten grams of water occupies a larger volume than 10.0 g of aluminum.
  3. C) water has a greater potential energy than aluminum.
  4. D) water has a larger specific heat than aluminum.
  5. E) 10.0 °C is closer to the melting point of water than to the melting point of aluminum.

 

 

 

 

45) The number of calories needed to raise the temperature of 32 g of water from 12 °C to 54 °C is

  1. A) 384 cal.
  2. B) 1.3 cal.
  3. C) 1300 cal.
  4. D) 1700 cal.
  5. E) 0.76 cal.

 

 

 

 

 

46) The specific heat of copper is 0.0920 cal/g °C, and the specific heat of silver is 0.0562 cal/g °C. If 100 cal of heat is added to one g of each metal at 25 °C, what is the expected result?

  1. A) The copper will reach a higher temperature.
  2. B) The silver will reach a higher temperature.
  3. C) The two samples will reach the same temperature.
  4. D) The copper will reach a temperature lower than 25 °C.
  5. E) The silver will soften.

 

 

 

47) A burn from steam at 100 °C is expected to be more severe than a burn from boiling water at 100 °C because

  1. A) the steam is hotter than the boiling water.
  2. B) there is more steam than water.
  3. C) the steam will give off a large amount of heat as it condenses.
  4. D) you are more likely to come into contact with the steam than with the boiling water.
  5. E) All of these answers are correct.

 

 

 

 

48) The physical state(s) present when a substance is melting is (are)

  1. A) solid.
  2. B) liquid.
  3. C) gas.
  4. D) solid + liquid.
  5. E) liquid + gas.

 

 

 

 

49) The formation of a gas resulting from the escape of high-energy particles from the surface of a liquid is known as

  1. A) evaporation.
  2. B) deposition.
  3. C) boiling.
  4. D) melting.
  5. E) sublimation.

 

 

 

 

 

50) When a solid is converted directly to a gas, the change of state is called

  1. A) freezing.
  2. B) melting.
  3. C) boiling.
  4. D) condensation.
  5. E) sublimation.

 

 

 

 

51) Which of the following does NOT involve a change of state?

  1. A) melting ice
  2. B) freezing water
  3. C) vaporization of alcohol
  4. D) sublimation of dry ice
  5. E) pouring water into a vacuum-insulated bottle

 

 

 

52) A heating curve illustrates

  1. A) what a substance looks like as it is heated.
  2. B) what happens to the particles of a substance as it is heated.
  3. C) what happens to the heat applied as the temperature is increased.
  4. D) the changes in the temperature and physical state of a substance as it is heated.
  5. E) the chemical changes that occur as the substance is heated.

 

 

 

 

53) Which of the following does NOT represent a step on the heating curve of water?

  1. A) The temperature of steam cannot exceed 100 °C.
  2. B) The temperature of ice remains at 0 °C as it melts.
  3. C) The temperature of liquid water increases linearly as it is heated.
  4. D) The temperature of liquid water remains at 100 °C as it boils.
  5. E) Both liquid water and ice are present at 0 °C.

 

 

 

 

 

3.2   Short Answer Questions

 

1) The simplest type of pure substance is an ________.

 

 

 

2) A mixture which has uniform properties is a ________ mixture.

 

 

 

3) A color of a substance is an example of a ________ property.

 

 

4) A reaction of a substance with water is an example of a ________ property.

 

 

5) The lowest temperature on the Kelvin scale is ________ kelvin.

 

 

 

6) The boiling point of water on the Celsius scale is ________ °C.

 

7) The energy of motion is called ________ energy.

 

 

8) The nutritional calorie (Cal) is the same as ________ cal.

 

 

9) Will the caloric value of a 100. g hamburger be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100. g of sugar?

 

 

 

10) Will the caloric value of a 100.g hamburger be higher or lower than the caloric value of 100. g of cooking oil?

 

 

11) The units of specific heat are ________.

 

 

12) The change of state from solid to gas is termed ________.

 

 

13) When a liquid boils, the process by which the molecules leave its surface is called ________.

 

 

Bromine ) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C.

Indicate the state or change of state occurring at each temperature.

 

14) 30 °C

 

 

15) 60 °C

 

16) -7 °C

 

 

17) -15 °C

 

 

18) 70 °C

 

 

 

3.3   True/False Questions

 

1) Gold is an element.

 

 

 

 

2) Black coffee is a homogeneous mixture.

 

 

 

 

3) A solid has a constant shape and volume.

 

 

 

 

4) Molecules of a gas are very close together.

 

 

 

 

5) Water vapor is a gas.

 

 

 

 

6) Water freezes at 100 °C.

 

 

 

 

7) 32 °F is the same temperature as 100 °C.

 

 

 

8) The energy in chemical bonds is kinetic energy.

 

 

 

 

9) Carbohydrates and proteins have the same caloric value per gram.

 

 

 

 

10) The units of specific heat are cal g/°F.

 

 

 

 

11) Condensation occurs when a liquid is converted to a solid.

 

 

 

 

12) As heat is removed from a solid, its temperature decreases.

 

 

 

 

13) When a liquid is boiling, its temperature does not change.

 

 

 

 

14) Condensation occurs when a liquid is converted to a solid.

 

 

 

 

15) As a solid melts, its temperature does not change.

 

 

 

 

16) The temperature at which water melts and freezes is the same.

 

 

 

 

3.4   Matching Questions

 

Identify the physical state(s) corresponding to the regions on the cooling curve below.

 

  1. A) liquid and gas
  2. B) liquid and solid
  3. C) solid and gas
  4. D) gas
  5. E) solid
  6. F) liquid

 

1) A

 

 

 

2) B

 

 

 

3) C

 

 

 

4) D

 

 

 

5) E

 

 

 

 

Match the state of matter with each of the following descriptions of a substance.

 

  1. A) liquid
  2. B) solid
  3. C) liquid + gas
  4. D) gas
  5. E) solid + liquid

 

6) Particles are held close together in a random pattern.

 

 

 

7) Great distances exist between the particles.

 

 

 

8) This substance is boiling.

 

 

 

9) This material has a definite volume, and a definite shape.

 

 

 

10) This substance is melting.

 

 

 

 

Identify each of the following transformations as a chemical or physical change

 

  1. A) physical
  2. B) chemical

 

11) water evaporating

 

 

 

12) a button falling off of a shirt

 

 

 

13) silver tarnishing

 

 

 

14) cutting the grass

 

 

 

15) a nail rusting

 

 

 

16) baking a cake

 

 

 

17) placing photographs in a scrapbook

 

 

 

18) formation of green leaves on a plant

 

 

 

19) burning leaves

 

 

 

20) melting ice

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 4   Atoms

 

4.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The primary substances of which all other things are composed are

  1. A) molecules.
  2. B) compounds.
  3. C) elements.
  4. D) electrons.
  5. E) protons.

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

2) Au is the symbol for

  1. A) gold.
  2. B) silver.
  3. C) argon.
  4. D) aluminum.
  5. E) sodium.

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

Select the correct symbol for the element.

 

3) aluminum

  1. A) Al
  2. B) Am
  3. C) Au
  4. D) Sn
  5. E) Ag

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

4) iron

  1. A) Ir
  2. B) Fs
  3. C) Fe
  4. D) In
  5. E) FE

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

5) sodium

  1. A) So
  2. B) Na
  3. C) No
  4. D) Sm
  5. E) Au

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

6) potassium

  1. A) P
  2. B) Po
  3. C) Pt
  4. D) K
  5. E) Ko

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

7) silver

  1. A) S
  2. B) Si
  3. C) Ag
  4. D) Au
  5. E) AG

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

8) Ca is the symbol for

  1. A) calcium.
  2. B) carbon.
  3. C) cobalt.
  4. D) copper.
  5. E) cadmium.

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

9) What elements are in hydroxyapatite, Ca5 (PO4)3OH, a major compound in human bones and teeth?

  1. A) carbon, potassium, oxygen, hydrogen
  2. B) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, hydrogen
  3. C) carbon, phosphorus, oxygen, helium
  4. D) calcium, phosphorus, oxygen, helium
  5. E) carbon, potassium, oxygen, helium

 

Objective:  4.1

 

10) Which of the following is a characteristic of the modern periodic table?

  1. A) A group is a horizontal row on the periodic table.
  2. B) A period is a column on the periodic table.
  3. C) The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.
  4. D) The B groups contain the representative elements.
  5. E) The A groups contain the transition elements.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

11) Which of the following properties is NOT a characteristic of the Group 1A(1) elements (alkali metals)?

  1. A) They are shiny.
  2. B) They are good conductors of heat.
  3. C) They react vigorously with water.
  4. D) Most of them are liquids at room temperature.
  5. E) They are good conductors of electricity.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

12) The Group 8A(18) elements

  1. A) are unreactive and are rarely found in combination with other elements.
  2. B) are good conductors of electricity.
  3. C) melt at high temperatures.
  4. D) are liquids at room temperature.
  5. E) react vigorously with water.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

13) Which of the following elements is a metal?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) fluorine
  3. C) argon
  4. D) strontium
  5. E) phosphorus

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

14) Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals?

  1. A) shiny
  2. B) malleable
  3. C) good conductors of heat
  4. D) low melting points
  5. E) good conductors of electricity

 

Objective:  4.2

 

15) Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) sodium
  3. C) iron
  4. D) silver
  5. E) calcium

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

16) Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) chlorine
  3. C) bromine
  4. D) argon
  5. E) nitrogen

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

17) Which element would have physical and chemical properties similar to chlorine?

  1. A) Ar
  2. B) Br
  3. C) S
  4. D) O
  5. E) P

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

18) What is the symbol of the element in Group 4A(14) and Period 2?

  1. A) Be
  2. B) Mg
  3. C) Ca
  4. D) C
  5. E) Si

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

19) What is the symbol of the element in Period 4 and Group 2?

  1. A) Be
  2. B) Mg
  3. C) Ca
  4. D) C
  5. E) Si

 

Objective:  4.2

 

20) Identify the noble gas in the following list.

  1. A) helium
  2. B) nitrogen
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) gold
  5. E) chlorine

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

21) Identify the metalloid in the following list.

  1. A) sulfur
  2. B) fluorine
  3. C) silver
  4. D) copper
  5. E) germanium

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

22) Semiconductors are located in the periodic table on (or in) the

  1. A) left side of the table.
  2. B) right side of the table.
  3. C) line dividing metals from nonmetals in the table.
  4. D) first period of the table.
  5. E) last period of the table.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

23) The element in this list with chemical properties similar to magnesium is

  1. A) sodium.
  2. B) boron.
  3. C) carbon.
  4. D) strontium.
  5. E) chlorine.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

24) The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n)

  1. A) electron.
  2. B) neutron.
  3. C) proton.
  4. D) atom.
  5. E) nucleus.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

25) According to the Atomic Theory,

  1. A) all atoms are different.
  2. B) atoms are neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction.
  3. C) atoms of the same element combine to form compounds.
  4. D) all matter is made up of tiny particles called electrons.
  5. E) a compound can contain different numbers of atoms as long as it has the same kinds of atoms.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

 

26) Which of the following descriptions of a subatomic particle is correct?

  1. A) A proton has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
  2. B) An electron has a negative charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
  3. C) A neutron has no charge and its mass is negligible.
  4. D) A proton has a positive charge and a negligible mass.
  5. E) A neutron has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

 

27) In an atom, the nucleus contains

  1. A) an equal number of protons and electrons.
  2. B) all the protons and neutrons.
  3. C) all the protons and electrons.
  4. D) only neutrons.
  5. E) only protons.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

 

28) The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of

  1. A) nuclei.
  2. B) neutrons.
  3. C) neutrons plus protons.
  4. D) electrons plus protons.
  5. E) protons.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

29) The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to

  1. A) the atomic number.
  2. B) the mass number.
  3. C) the mass number + the atomic number.
  4. D) the mass number – the atomic number.
  5. E) the number of protons.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

30) The mass number of an atom can be calculated from

  1. A) the number of electrons.
  2. B) the number of protons plus neutrons.
  3. C) the number of protons.
  4. D) the number of electrons plus protons.
  5. E) the number of neutrons.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

31) What is the mass number of an atom of potassium that has 20 neutrons?

  1. A) 15
  2. B) 19
  3. C) 35
  4. D) 39
  5. E) 59

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

32) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is

  1. A) 30.
  2. B) 32.
  3. C) 34.
  4. D) 64.
  5. E) 94.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

33) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The mass number for this atom is

  1. A) 30.
  2. B) 32.
  3. C) 34.
  4. D) 64.
  5. E) 94.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

34) Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is

  1. A) 30.
  2. B) 32.
  3. C) 34.
  4. D) 64.
  5. E) 94.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

35) How many protons are in an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25?

  1. A) 11
  2. B) 14
  3. C) 15
  4. D) 25
  5. E) 32

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

36) Consider an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25. The number of neutrons in this isotope of sodium is

  1. A) 11.
  2. B) 14.
  3. C) 16.
  4. D) 25.
  5. E) 32.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

37) Which of the following gives the correct numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of Sn?

  1. A) 118 protons, 50 neutrons, 118 electrons
  2. B) 118 protons, 118 neutrons, 50 electrons
  3. C) 50 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons
  4. D) 68 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons
  5. E) 50 protons, 50 neutrons, 50 electrons

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

38) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have

  1. A) different atomic numbers.
  2. B) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of protons.
  3. C) the same atomic numbers but different numbers of electrons.
  4. D) the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons.
  5. E) the same atomic mass but different numbers of protons.

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

39) The correct symbol for the isotope of potassium with 22 neutrons is

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

40) Given the following: X, X, X, and X. Which are isotopes of each other?

  1. A) X andX are isotopes of each other; and X and X are isotopes of each other.
  2. B) X and X are isotopes of each other.
  3. C) X, X, X, and X are isotopes of each other.
  4. D) None are isotopes of each other.

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

41) The atomic mass of an element is equal to

  1. A) its mass number.
  2. B) its atomic number.
  3. C) one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
  4. D) a weighted average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.
  5. E) the average mass of all of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

 

42) A sample of chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes. The isotope Cl-35 (mass 35.0 amu) makes up 75.8% of the sample, and the isotope Cl-37 (mass = 37.0 amu) makes up 24.3% of the sample. What is the average atomic mass for chlorine?

  1. A) 36.0 amu
  2. B) 35 amu
  3. C) 36.6 amu
  4. D) 35.5 amu
  5. E) 35.521 amu

 

Objective:  4.5

 

43) A sample of silicon has three naturally occurring isotopes: Si-28 (mass 28.0 amu); Si-29 (mass 29.0 amu) and Si-30 (mass = 30.0 amu). If the average atomic mass of silicon is 28.1 amu, which isotope is the most abundant?

  1. A) Si-28
  2. B) Si-29
  3. C) Si-30
  4. D) All isotopes have the same natural abundance.

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

44) Which of the following is NOT true for the atoms 13N, 14N, and 15N?

  1. A) They all have the same mass number.
  2. B) They are isotopes.
  3. C) They all have the same atomic number.
  4. D) They all have 7 protons.
  5. E) They all have 7 electrons.

 

Objective:  4.5

 

 

45) The elements lithium, sodium, and potassium

  1. A) are isotopes of each other.
  2. B) are in the same period of elements.
  3. C) have the same number of neutrons.
  4. D) are in the same group.
  5. E) have the same mass number.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

 

46) The elements sodium, magnesium, and silicon

  1. A) are isotopes of each other.
  2. B) are in the same period of elements.
  3. C) have the same number of neutrons.
  4. D) are in the same group.
  5. E) have the same mass number.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

47) The electron arrangement of any particular atom shows

  1. A) the number of isotopes possible.
  2. B) a description of the shape of each energy level.
  3. C) the number of electrons in each energy level.
  4. D) a diagram of an atomic nucleus.
  5. E) the maximum number of electrons each energy level can hold.

 

Objective:  4.6

 

48) The number of electron levels in a magnesium atom is

  1. A) 1.
  2. B) 2.
  3. C) 3.
  4. D) 4.
  5. E) 5.

 

Objective:  4.6

 

 

49) The maximum number of electrons that may occupy the third energy level is

  1. A) 2.
  2. B) 8.
  3. C) 10.
  4. D) 18.
  5. E) 32.

 

Objective:  4.6

 

 

50) What is the element with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p5?

  1. A) Be
  2. B) Cl
  3. C) F
  4. D) S
  5. E) Ar

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

51) What is the electron configuration for aluminum?

  1. A) 1s22s22p63s23p1
  2. B) 1s22s22p63s23p3
  3. C) 1s22s22p63s23p5
  4. D) 1s22s22p63s23p6
  5. E) 1s22s22p63s23p8

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

52) Which of the following electron configurations is impossible?

  1. A) 1s22s22p63s23p1
  2. B) 1s22s42p63s23p3
  3. C) 1s22s22p63s23p5
  4. D) 1s22s22p63s23p6
  5. E) 1s22s22p63s23p3

 

Objective:  4.7

 

53) What is the electron configuration for potassium (atomic number 19)?

  1. A) 1s22s22p63s23p7
  2. B) 1s22s22p63s23p53d2
  3. C) 1s22s22p83s23p5
  4. D) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
  5. E) 1s22s22p63s23p54s1

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

54) What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p2?

  1. A) carbon
  2. B) oxygen
  3. C) sulfur
  4. D) iron
  5. E) silicon

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

 

55) The number of electrons in the outer energy level of a neutral atom of boron (atomic number 5) is

  1. A) 2.
  2. B) 3.
  3. C) 5.
  4. D) 8.
  5. E) 10.

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

56) What is the correct electron configuration for the lithium atom?

  1. A) 1s3
  2. B) 2s1
  3. C) 1s12s2
  4. D) 1s22s1
  5. E) 1s22s5

 

Objective:  4.7

 

57) What is the abbreviated electron configuration for nickel (atomic number 28)?

  1. A) [He]2s22p3
  2. B) [Ar]4s23d8
  3. C) [Kr]4s23d8
  4. D) [Ar]4s24p4
  5. E) [Ar]3d8

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

58) What is the element with the abbreviated electron configuration [Kr]5s24d8?

  1. A) Ni
  2. B) Pd
  3. C) Pt
  4. D) Kr
  5. E) Xe

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

 

59) The number of valence electrons found in an atom of a Group A element is equal to

  1. A) its atomic number.
  2. B) its mass number.
  3. C) its group number.
  4. D) eight.
  5. E) eight minus the group number.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

60) Valence electrons are electrons located

  1. A) in the outermost energy level of an atom.
  2. B) in the nucleus of an atom.
  3. C) in the innermost energy level of an atom.
  4. D) throughout the atom.
  5. E) in the first three shells of an atom.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

61) In an electron-dot structure of an element, the dots are used to represent

  1. A) all of the electrons in the atom.
  2. B) the valence electrons.
  3. C) the electron arrangement.
  4. D) only the electrons that will participate in bond formation.
  5. E) the electrons that the element will gain when it forms a compound.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

62) How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot structures for the elements in group 3A(13)?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 6

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

63) The number of dots in the electron dot structure of nitrogen is

  1. A) one.
  2. B) two.
  3. C) three.
  4. D) four.
  5. E) five.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

64) The number of dots in the electron dot structure of carbon is

  1. A) one.
  2. B) two.
  3. C) three.
  4. D) four.
  5. E) five.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

65) Which of the following is the correct electron-dot structure for carbon?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  4.8

 

66) The atomic size of atoms

  1. A) increases going across a period.
  2. B) decreases going across a period.
  3. C) decreases going down within a group.
  4. D) does not change going across a period.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

67) The ionization energy of atoms

  1. A) decreases going across a period.
  2. B) decreases going down within a group.
  3. C) increases going down within a group.
  4. D) does not change going down within a group.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

 

68) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na., the element with the largest atomic radius is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

69) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na, the element with the smallest atomic radius is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

70) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na. The element with the highest ionization energy is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

71) Ionization energy is

  1. A) the energy an ion acquires from an electron.
  2. B) the energy needed to remove the least tightly bound electron.
  3. C) highest for metals in Group 1A (1).
  4. D) higher for potassium than for lithium.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

72) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na. The element with the smallest ionization energy is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

73) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na. The element with the most metallic character is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

74) Of the elements: B, C, F, Li, and Na. The element with the least metallic character is

  1. A) B.
  2. B) C.
  3. C) F.
  4. D) Li.
  5. E) Na.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

4.2   Short Answer Questions

 

Write in the electronic configuration for the atom shown.

 

1) Sodium

 

2) Chlorine

 

 

3) Argon

 

 

4) Sulfur

 

 

5) Magnesium

 

 

6) Phosphorus

 

 

 

4.3   True/False Questions

 

1) The symbol for potassium is P.

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

2) The symbol for gold is Au.

 

Objective:  4.1

 

 

3) Sulfur is a nonmetal.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

4) Chromium is a metal.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

5) Radon is a metal.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

6) Mercury is a metal.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

7) Iodine is a metal.

 

Objective:  4.2

 

 

8) An electron has a positive charge.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

 

 

9) Protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom.

 

Objective:  4.3

 

 

10) Sulfur has 16 valence electrons.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

11) Isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

12) Potassium has one valence electron.

 

Objective:  4.4

 

 

13) The electron configuration of potassium is 1s22s22p63s1.

 

Objective:  4.7

 

 

14) A lithium atom is larger than a potassium atom.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

15) A sodium atom is larger than a silicon atom.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

16) Chlorine has a higher ionization energy than aluminum.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

17) Chlorine has a higher ionization energy than fluorine.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

18) Ionization energy increases going down a group.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

 

19) Atomic size decreases going from left to right within a period.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

20) Chlorine has more metallic character than fluorine.

 

Objective:  4.8

 

 

4.4   Matching Questions

 

Do the following represent elements in a group, a period, or neither?

 

  1. A) period
  2. B) group
  3. C) neither

 

1) Li, C, F

Objective:  4.2

 

 

2) F, S, P

Objective:  4.2

 

 

3) O, S, Se

Objective:  4.2

 

 

4) He, H, I

Objective:  4.2

 

 

Match the correct symbols with the names of elements.

 

  1. A) Co
  2. B) Cl
  3. C) C
  4. D) Ca
  5. E) Cu

 

5) calcium

Objective:  4.1

 

 

6) copper

Objective:  4.1

 

 

7) carbon

Objective:  4.1

 

 

8) chlorine

Objective:  4.1

 

 

9) cobalt

Objective:  4.1

 

 

Give the correct number of electrons.

 

  1. A) seven
  2. B) five
  3. C) eight
  4. D) one
  5. E) two

 

10) in the second energy level of magnesium

Objective:  4.6

 

 

11) in the highest occupied energy level of chlorine

Objective:  4.6

 

 

12) in the outer energy level of nitrogen

Objective:  4.6

 

 

13) in the first energy level of chlorine

Objective:  4.6

 

 

14) in the third energy level of sodium

Objective:  4.6

 

Classify the following elements.

 

  1. A) halogen
  2. B) alkaline earth metal
  3. C) alkali metal
  4. D) noble gas
  5. E) nonmetal
  6. F) transition element

 

15) sodium

Objective:  4.2

 

 

16) argon

Objective:  4.2

 

 

17) bromine

Objective:  4.2

 

 

18) copper

Objective:  4.2

 

 

19) magnesium

Objective:  4.2

 

 

20) phosphorus

Objective:  4.2

 

 

Classify the following elements as metals, nonmetals or metalloids.

 

  1. A) metalloid
  2. B) nonmetal
  3. C) metal

 

21) chlorine

Objective:  4.2

 

 

22) cobalt

Objective:  4.2

 

 

23) sulfur

Objective:  4.2

 

 

24) silicon

Objective:  4.2

 

 

25) nickel

Objective:  4.2

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 5   Nuclear Chemistry

 

5.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) What is the nuclear symbol for a radioactive isotope of copper with a mass number of 60?

  1. A) Cu
  2. B) Cu
  3. C) 29Cu
  4. D) Cu
  5. E) Cu

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

2) The nuclear symbol of helium, He, is also the symbol for designating a(n)

  1. A) proton.
  2. B) neutron.
  3. C) gamma ray.
  4. D) beta particle.
  5. E) alpha particle.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

3) The symbol e is a symbol used for a(n)

  1. A) proton.
  2. B) neutron.
  3. C) gamma ray.
  4. D) beta particle.
  5. E) alpha particle.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

4) The symbol e is a symbol used for a(n)

  1. A) proton.
  2. B) positron.
  3. C) gamma ray.
  4. D) beta particle.
  5. E) alpha particle.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

5) A positron is a particle emitted from the nucleus that has the same mass as a(n)

  1. A) electron but has a positive charge.
  2. B) neutron but has a positive charge.
  3. C) alpha particle.
  4. D) beta particle.
  5. E) proton emitted from the nucleus.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

6) Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?

  1. A) α-particles
  2. B) β-particles
  3. C) γ-rays
  4. D) visible light
  5. E) All of these have the same energy.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

7) The damaging effects of radiation on the body are a result of

  1. A) the formation of unstable ions or radicals.
  2. B) the formation of radioactive atoms in the body.
  3. C) transmutation reactions in the body.
  4. D) extensive damage to nerve cells.
  5. E) the production of radioactive sodium ions in the body.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

 

8) Which of the following is suitable as a minimum shielding for beta particles?

  1. A) air
  2. B) 1 m of water
  3. C) gloves
  4. D) 1 m of concrete
  5. E) 1 cm of lead

 

Objective:  5.1

 

9) For Sr, there are

  1. A) 85 protons and 38 neutrons.
  2. B) 47 protons and 38 neutrons.
  3. C) 38 protons and 47 neutrons.
  4. D) 38 protons and 85 neutrons.
  5. E) 85 protons and 47 neutrons.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

10) Which is NOT a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?

  1. A) wearing a lead apron
  2. B) keeping a good distance
  3. C) standing behind a thick concrete wall
  4. D) wearing lead-lined gloves
  5. E) staying a longer time

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

11) The process in which a nucleus spontaneously breaks down by emitting radiation is known as

  1. A) transmutation.
  2. B) transformation.
  3. C) fusion.
  4. D) a chain reaction.
  5. E) radioactive decay.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

 

12) Gamma rays require the heaviest shielding of all the common types of nuclear radiation because gamma rays have the

  1. A) highest energy.
  2. B) most intense color.
  3. C) lowest energy.
  4. D) largest particles.
  5. E) heaviest particles.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

13) If absorbed internally, alpha particle emitters are the most damaging because alpha particles

  1. A) have the largest charge.
  2. B) have the greatest energy.
  3. C) have the greatest mass.
  4. D) consist of high energy electrons.
  5. E) consist of pure energy.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

14) A nuclear equation is balanced when

  1. A) the same elements are found on both sides of the equation.
  2. B) the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.
  3. C) the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.
  4. D) different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation.
  5. E) the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

15) The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of process?

 

Th → Rn + He

 

  1. A) fusion
  2. B) fission
  3. C) translation
  4. D) alpha decay
  5. E) betadecay

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

16) When a positron is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, the nuclear mass

  1. A) increases by two units.
  2. B) decreases by one unit.
  3. C) increases by one unit.
  4. D) decreases by two units.
  5. E) remains the same.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

17) When an alpha particle is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, the nuclear mass

  1. A) increases by two units.
  2. B) decreases by four units.
  3. C) increases by one unit.
  4. D) decreases by two units.
  5. E) remains the same.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

18) When a gamma ray is emitted from the nucleus of an atom, the nuclear mass

  1. A) increases by two units.
  2. B) decreases by one unit.
  3. C) increases by one unit.
  4. D) decreases by two units.
  5. E) remains the same.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

19) In the nuclear equation of a beta emitter

  1. A) the new nucleus contains 2 fewer protons.
  2. B) the new nucleus contains 2 more protons.
  3. C) the mass number of the new nucleus is 4 less than that of the original nucleus.
  4. D) the new nucleus contains 1 more proton.
  5. E) the new nucleus contains 1 less proton.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

20) The product from the alpha decay of U is

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

 

Objective:  5.2

 

21) Nitrogen-17 is a beta emitter. What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay?

  1. A) C
  2. B) B
  3. C) N
  4. D) F
  5. E) O

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

22) The nuclear reaction

 

Sn → Sb + ?

 

is an example of

  1. A) fusion.
  2. B) fission.
  3. C) translation.
  4. D) alpha decay.
  5. E) beta decay.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

23) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

 

Sr → Y + ?

 

  1. A) alpha particle
  2. B) beta particle
  3. C) gamma ray
  4. D) proton
  5. E) neutron

 

Objective:  5.2

 

24) What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?

 

W → Hf + ?

 

  1. A) alpha particle
  2. B) beta particle
  3. C) gamma ray
  4. D) proton
  5. E) neutron

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

25) What is missing in the nuclear reaction shown below?

 

B + He → N + ________

 

  1. A) gamma radiation
  2. B) a positron
  3. C) a neutron
  4. D) an alpha particle
  5. E) a beta particle

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

26) What is missing in the nuclear reaction shown below?

 

B + He → ________ + n

 

  1. A) a neutron
  2. B) B
  3. C) N
  4. D) N
  5. E) N

 

Objective:  5.2

 

27) What is missing in the nuclear reaction shown below?

 

Zn + p → ________

 

  1. A) a proton
  2. B) Ga
  3. C) Ga
  4. D) Zn
  5. E) Cu

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

28) What is the radiation particle used in the bombardment of nitrogen-14?

 

N + ? → C + H

 

  1. A) alpha particle
  2. B) beta particle
  3. C) gamma ray
  4. D) proton
  5. E) neutron

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

29) When aluminum-27 is bombarded with a neutron, a gamma ray is emitted. What radioactive isotope is produced?

  1. A) silicon-27
  2. B) silicon-28
  3. C) aluminum-28
  4. D) magnesium-27
  5. E) magnesium-28

 

Objective:  5.2

 

30) Radium-226 decays by alpha decay to

  1. A) barium-131.
  2. B) cobalt-60.
  3. C) carbon-14.
  4. D) polonium-218.
  5. E) radon-222.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

31) Iodine-131 decays by beta decay to

  1. A) iodine-132.
  2. B) tellurium-131.
  3. C) iodine-130.
  4. D) bromine-131.
  5. E) xenon-131.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

 

32) A sample of cerium-141 for a diagnostic test was dissolved in saline solution to an activity of 4.5 mCi/mL. If the patient undergoing the test needs a dose of 10. mCi, how much of the solution should be injected into the patient?

  1. A) 45 mL
  2. B) .45 mL
  3. C) 2.2 mL
  4. D) 22 mL
  5. E) 4.5 mL

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

33) The unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a gram of material is called then

  1. A) rad.
  2. B) RBE.
  3. C) curie.
  4. D) rem.
  5. E) MPD.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

34) A patient receives 4.2 × 103 mrads of iodine-131, which emits β-particles. If the factor that adjusts for biological damage is 1 for β-particles, how many rems did the patient receive?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 0.4
  3. C) 0.3
  4. D) 2
  5. E) 40

 

Objective:  5.3

 

35) A patient receives 10 mrads of gamma radiation. If the factor that adjusts for biological damage for for gamma radiation is 1, how many mrems did the patient receive?

  1. A) 2 mrem
  2. B) 5 mrem
  3. C) 10 mrem
  4. D) 20 mrem
  5. E) 200 mrem

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

 

36) Gamma rays may be detected using

  1. A) a Geiger counter.
  2. B) a film badge.
  3. C) X-ray film.
  4. D) all of the above devices.
  5. E) none of the above devices.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

37) A sample of technetium-99m has an activity of 1.5 Ci. How many disintegrations occur in the technetium-99m sample in 5.0 sec?

  1. A) 5.6 × 1010
  2. B) 2.8 × 1011
  3. C) 1.1 × 1010
  4. D) 7.5
  5. E) 2.0 × 10-10

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

38) A person begins to suffer radiation sickness at an exposure level of

  1. A) 25 rem.
  2. B) 5 rem.
  3. C) 500 rem.
  4. D) 100 rem.
  5. E) 600 rem.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

39) The recommended dosage of I-131 for a test is 4.2 microcuries per kg of body weight. How many mCi should be given to a 55 kg patient? (1 mCi = 1000 μCi)

  1. A) 230 mCi
  2. B) 0.23 mCi
  3. C) 0.076 mCi
  4. D) 760 mCi
  5. E) 13.8 mCi

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

 

40) One symptom of mild radiation sickness is

  1. A) a lowered white cell count.
  2. B) a raised white cell count.
  3. C) a lowered red blood cell count.
  4. D) a raised red blood cell count.
  5. E) a white cell count of zero.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

41) Why is it important that radioisotopes used in diagnostic tests have short half-lives?

  1. A) These radioisotopes have a greater activity so they are easier to monitor.
  2. B) This minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.
  3. C) This is necessary so the radioisotopes will have high energy.
  4. D) These radioisotopes are less expensive.
  5. E) These radioisotopes are more abundant in nature.

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

42) Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 hours. How many hours is three half-lives?

  1. A) 60 hours
  2. B) 45 hours
  3. C) 30 hours
  4. D) 15 hours
  5. E) 7.5 hours

 

Objective:  5.4

 

43) The half-life of a radioisotope is

  1. A) one-half of the time it takes for the radioisotope to completely decay to a nonradioactive isotope.
  2. B) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half of the atomic weight of the original radioisotope.
  3. C) the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half the atomic number of the original radioisotope.
  4. D) the time it takes for the radioisotope to lose one-half of its neutrons.
  5. E) the time it takes for one-half of the sample to decay.

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

 

44) Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 hours. If 50.0 mg of I-123 were prepared at 8:00 a.m. on Monday, how many mg remain at 10:00 a.m. on the following day?

  1. A) 50.0 mg
  2. B) 25.0 mg
  3. C) 12.5 mg
  4. D) 6.25 mg
  5. E) 3.13 mg

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

45) A wooden object from a prehistoric site has a carbon-14 activity of 10 counts per minute (cpm) compared to 40 cpm for new wood. If carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years, what is the age of the wood?

  1. A) 1430 yr
  2. B) 5730 yr
  3. C) 11,500 yr
  4. D) 17,200 yr
  5. E) 22,900 yr

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

46) Krypton-79 has a half-life of 35 hours. How many half-lives have passed after 105 hours?

  1. A) 1 half-life
  2. B) 2 half-lives
  3. C) 3 half-lives
  4. D) 4 half-lives
  5. E) 5 half-lives

 

Objective:  5.4

 

47) The half-life of bromine-74 is 25 min. How much of a 4.0 mg sample is still active after 75 min?

  1. A) 0.50 mg
  2. B) 1.0 mg
  3. C) 2.0 mg
  4. D) 0.25 mg
  5. E) 4.0 mg

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

 

48) An imaging technique in which a computer monitors the degree of absorption of X-ray beams is known as

  1. A) positron emission tomography (PET).
  2. B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
  3. C) computerized tomography (CT).
  4. D) radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU).
  5. E) a scan.

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

49) An imaging technique that detects the energy emitted by hydrogen atoms in a magnetic field is known as

  1. A) positron emission tomography (PET).
  2. B) computerized tomography (CT).
  3. C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
  4. D) radioactive tracer study.
  5. E) supermagnetic tomography (SMT).

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

50) The most widely used medical isotope in nuclear medicine is

  1. A) Tc-99m.
  2. B) I-131.
  3. C) P-32.
  4. D) I-125.
  5. E) Co-60.

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

51) The dosage of technetium-99m for myocardial imaging is 280 μCi/kg of body weight. How many mCi should be given to a patient weighing 65 kg? (1 mCi = 1000 μCi)

  1. A) 0.0043 mCi
  2. B) 4.3 mCi
  3. C) 18 mCi
  4. D) 230 mCi
  5. E) 1.8 × 104mCi

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

52) A patient receives 3.0 mL of a solution containing technetium-99m for a breast image. If the activity of the technetium-99m is 9.5 mCi/mL, what is the dose received by the patient?

  1. A) 3.2 mCi
  2. B) 29 mCi
  3. C) 320 μCi
  4. D) 9.5 mCi
  5. E) 28.5 mCi

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

53) When an atom of uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits into smaller nuclei and produces a great amount of energy. This nuclear process is called

  1. A) fission.
  2. B) fusion.
  3. C) decomposition.
  4. D) chain reaction.
  5. E) ionization.

 

Objective:  5.6

 

 

54) In the Sun, nuclei of hydrogen combine to form a larger nucleus and release a great amount of energy. The process is known as

  1. A) fission.
  2. B) fusion.
  3. C) metathesis.
  4. D) chain reaction.
  5. E) ionization.

 

Objective:  5.6

 

 

 

5.2   Short Answer Questions

 

1) One symbol for the β particle is β. Another symbol for the same particle is ________.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

2) Tc → Tc + ________

 

3) U + n → ________ + Kr + 3n + energy

 

 

4) Sr → ________ + e + energy

 

 

5) The radiation dose required to produce death in one-half of the exposed subject animals is termed the ________.

 

6) A sample of phosphorus-32 with an activity of 2.0 mCi produces ________ disintegrations per second.

(1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations/sec).

 

 

7) The common unit of radioactivity which is used to measure the biological damage is the ________.

 

 

 

8) The time needed for a radioactive sample to decay to one-half of its original activity is called the ________.

 

 

9) The radioisotope used as a diagnostic tool to measure thyroid function is ________.

 

 

10) The diagnostic imaging technique that depends on magnetic fields and radio waves, not radioactivity, is called ________.

 

11) The process by which a large nucleus breaks into smaller pieces, releasing large amounts of energy is called nuclear ________.

 

 

5.3   True/False Questions

 

1) The production of nitrogen-13 and a neutron from boron-10 by bombardment with a helium-4 nucleus is an example of radioactive decay.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

2) The correct symbol for hydrogen-3 is He.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

3) An alpha particle is emitted when Am-241 decays to Np-237.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

4) A beta particle is emitted when Co-60 decays to Fe-60.

 

Objective:  5.1

 

 

 

5) Exposure to radiation is unavoidable because some radioactive elements occur naturally.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

6) One symptom of radiation sickness is an increased production of red blood cells.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

7) Irradiation of food for sterilization is usually carried out using gamma irradiation.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

 

8) Irradiated food contains small amounts of added radioactive isotopes.

 

Objective:  5.3

 

9) One mCi of a radioactive substance emits more radiation than one μCi of the same substance.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

10) Medical radioisotopes used for diagnostic purposes typically have short half-lives.

 

Objective:  5.2

 

 

11) If the half-life of hydrogen-3 is 11.8 years, after two half-lives the radioactivity of a sample will be reduced to one-half of the original amount.

 

Objective:  5.4

 

 

12) One type of radiation that is not usually used for medical procedures is the cosmic ray.

 

Objective:  5.5

 

 

13) Nuclear fission as used in nuclear power plants produces radioactive waste with long half-lives.

 

Objective:  5.6

 

 

14) Nuclear fusion does not occur naturally.

 

Objective:  5.6

 

5.4   Matching Questions

 

Indicate whether each of the following is characteristic of the fission or fusion process.

 

  1. A) both fission and fusion
  2. B) fusion
  3. C) fission

 

1) A large nucleus is split into smaller nuclei.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

2) Very high temperatures must be achieved to initiate the reaction.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

3) This nuclear process provides the energy of the Sun.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

4) This process produces radioactive by-products.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

5) Large amounts of energy are released.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

6) Two small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus.

Objective:  5.6

 

 

Choose the type of radiation from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

 

  1. A) beta particle
  2. B) positron
  3. C) alpha particle
  4. D) proton
  5. E) neutron
  6. F) gamma ray

 

7) α        

Objective:  5.1

 

 

8) β        

Objective:  5.1

 

 

9) γ        

Objective:  5.1

 

 

10) H

Objective:  5.1

 

 

11) n

Objective:  5.1

 

 

12) e

Objective:  5.1

 

 

13) e

Objective:  5.1

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 6   Ionic and Molecular Compounds

 

6.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The number of valence electrons found in an atom of a Group A element is equal to

  1. A) its atomic number.
  2. B) its mass number.
  3. C) its group number.
  4. D) eight.
  5. E) eight minus the group number.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

2) Valence electrons are electrons located

  1. A) in the outermost energy level of an atom.
  2. B) in the nucleus of an atom.
  3. C) in the innermost energy level of an atom.
  4. D) throughout the atom.
  5. E) in the first three shells of an atom.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

3) In an electron-dot structure of an element, the dots are used to represent

  1. A) all of the electrons in the atom.
  2. B) the valence electrons.
  3. C) the electron arrangement.
  4. D) only the electrons that will participate in bond formation.
  5. E) the electrons that the element will gain when it forms a compound.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

4) How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot structures for the elements in group 3A(13)?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 6

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

5) How many valence electrons does nitrogen have?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

6) How many valence electrons does carbon have?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

7) The octet rule indicates that

  1. A) all of the noble gases have eight total electrons.
  2. B) all of the shells in an atom hold a maximum of 8 electrons.
  3. C) all of the Group A elements have 8 valence electrons.
  4. D) atoms lose, gain, or share valence electrons to have 8 valence electrons.
  5. E) the noble gases react with other compounds to get 8 valence electrons.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

8) In ionic compounds, ________ lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ________. (5,2)

  1. A) metals; anions
  2. B) nonmetals; cations
  3. C) metals; polyatomic ions
  4. D) nonmetals; anions
  5. E) metals; cations

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

9) How many electrons will aluminum gain or lose when it forms an ion?

  1. A) lose 1
  2. B) gain 5
  3. C) lose 2
  4. D) lose 3
  5. E) gain 1

 

Objective:  6.1

 

10) What is the symbol for the ion with 19 protons and 18 electrons?

  1. A) F+
  2. B) F-
  3. C) Ar+
  4. D) K-
  5. E) K+

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

11) To form an ion, a sodium atom

  1. A) gains one electron.
  2. B) gains two electrons.
  3. C) loses seven electrons.
  4. D) loses one electron.
  5. E) loses two electrons.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

12) An anion always

  1. A) has a positive charge.
  2. B) contains a group of two or more atoms with a positive charge.
  3. C) contains a metal and a nonmetal.
  4. D) forms covalent bonds.
  5. E) has a negative charge.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

13) What is the ionic charge of an ion with 13 protons and 10 electrons?

  1. A) 1+
  2. B) 2+
  3. C) 3+
  4. D) 2-
  5. E) 3-

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

 

14) The number of electrons in an ion with 20 protons and an ionic charge of 2+ is

  1. A) 24.
  2. B) 22.
  3. C) 20.
  4. D) 18.
  5. E) 16.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

15) Elements in group 2A(2) of the periodic table form ions with a charge of

  1. A) 1+.
  2. B) 1-.
  3. C) 2+.
  4. D) 3+.
  5. E) 0.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

16) The ion of aluminum is

  1. A) Al+.
  2. B) Al2+.
  3. C) Al3+.
  4. D) Al3-.
  5. E) Al2-.

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

17) How many electrons will chlorine gain or lose when it forms an ion?

  1. A) lose 1
  2. B) gain 1
  3. C) lose 7
  4. D) gain 2
  5. E) lose 3

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

 

18) What is the correct formula for the oxide ion?

  1. A) O2-
  2. B) O-
  3. C) O+
  4. D) O2+
  5. E) O3+

 

Objective:  6.1

 

19) What is the formula of the nitride ion?

  1. A) N3-
  2. B) NO2-
  3. C) NO33-
  4. D) NO32-
  5. E) NO3-

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

20) How many electrons will lithium gain or lose when it forms an ion?

  1. A) lose 1
  2. B) gain 5
  3. C) lose 2
  4. D) lose 3
  5. E) gain 1

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

21) How many electrons will iodine gain or lose when it forms an ion?

  1. A) lose 1
  2. B) gain 5
  3. C) lose 2
  4. D) lose 3
  5. E) gain 1

 

Objective:  6.1

 

 

 

22) An ionic compound

  1. A) has a net positive charge.
  2. B) has a net negative charge.
  3. C) contains only cations.
  4. D) contains only anions.
  5. E) has a net charge of zero.

 

Objective:  6.2

 

 

23) The correct formula for a compound formed from the elements Al and O is

  1. A) AlO.
  2. B) Al2
  3. C) Al3O2.
  4. D) AlO3.
  5. E) Al2O3.

 

Objective:  6.2

 

24) The correct formula for the compound formed from Mg and S is

  1. A) MgS.
  2. B) MgS2.
  3. C) Mg2
  4. D) Mg2S2.
  5. E) Mg2S3.

 

Objective:  6.2

 

 

25) Which one of the following compounds contains an ion with a 3+ charge?

  1. A) KCl
  2. B) Na2O
  3. C) FeCl3
  4. D) CuCl
  5. E) MgCl2

 

Objective:  6.2

 

 

 

26) The compound MgCl2 is named

  1. A) magnesium chlorine.
  2. B) magnesium dichloride.
  3. C) magnesium(II) chloride.
  4. D) magnesium chloride.
  5. E) dimagnesium chloride.

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

27) Which one of the following elements forms two or more ions with different ionic charges?

  1. A) K
  2. B) F
  3. C) Ca
  4. D) O
  5. E) Fe

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

28) What is the correct formula for the iron(II) ion?

  1. A) Fe+
  2. B) Fe2+
  3. C) Fe3+
  4. D) Fe2-
  5. E) Fe3-

 

Objective:  6.3

 

29) The name of the Cu+ ion is

  1. A) copper(II).
  2. B) copper(I).
  3. C) cobalt.
  4. D) copper.
  5. E) cuprum.

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

 

30) What is the correct formula for iron(III) sulfide?

  1. A) Fe2S2
  2. B) Fe2S
  3. C) FeS
  4. D) FeS2
  5. E) Fe2S3

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

31) The name of Al2(SO4)3 is

  1. A) aluminum(III) sulfate.
  2. B) dialuminum trisulfate.
  3. C) dialuminum sulfate.
  4. D) dialuminum trisulfide.
  5. E) aluminum sulfate.

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

32) The name of PbO2 is

  1. A) lead dioxide.
  2. B) lead(II) oxide.
  3. C) lead(IV) oxide.
  4. D) plumbum oxide.
  5. E) lead oxygen.

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

33) The formula of copper(I) sulfide is

  1. A) CuS.
  2. B) Cu2
  3. C) Cu2(SO4)3.
  4. D) CuSO4.
  5. E) CuS2.

 

Objective:  6.3

 

 

34) A group of covalently bonded atoms that has an overall electrical charge is called a(n)

  1. A) ionic compound.
  2. B) anion.
  3. C) polyatomic ion.
  4. D) cation.
  5. E) molecule.

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

35) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a positive charge?

  1. A) hydroxide
  2. B) sulfate
  3. C) hydrogen carbonate
  4. D) ammonium
  5. E) nitrate

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

36) The name of the HSO4- ion is

  1. A) sulfate.
  2. B) hydrogen sulfate.
  3. C) sulfite.
  4. D) hydrogen sulfite.
  5. E) sulfide.

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

37) What is the formula of a compound that contains Na+ and PO43- ions?

  1. A) Na3PO4
  2. B) NaPO4
  3. C) Na2PO3
  4. D) Na3PO3
  5. E) Na3P

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

 

38) Fe2(SO4)3 is called

  1. A) iron sulfate.
  2. B) iron(II) sulfate.
  3. C) iron(III) sulfate.
  4. D) diiron trisulfate.
  5. E) iron trisulfate.

 

Objective:  6.4

 

39) What is the formula for aluminum nitrite?

  1. A) Al2NO2
  2. B) AlNO3
  3. C) Al(NO2)3
  4. D) Al2(NO3)3
  5. E) Al2(NO2)2

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

40) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a 3- ionic charge?

  1. A) hydroxide
  2. B) nitrate
  3. C) sulfate
  4. D) phosphate
  5. E) bicarbonate

 

Objective:  6.4

 

 

41) A(n) ________ is the smallest neutral unit of two or more atoms held together by a covalent bond.

  1. A) ionic compound
  2. B) nucleus
  3. C) molecule
  4. D) formula
  5. E) unit

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

 

42) In a molecule with covalent bonding

  1. A) oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrical attractions.
  2. B) atoms of metals form bonds to atoms of nonmetals.
  3. C) atoms of different metals form bonds.
  4. D) atoms are held together by sharing electrons.
  5. E) atoms of noble gases are held together by attractions between oppositely charged ions.

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

43) The correct name of the compound  is

  1. A) nitrogen chloride.
  2. B) trinitrogen chloride.
  3. C) nitrogen(III) chloride.
  4. D) nickel chloride.
  5. E) nitrogen trichloride.

 

Objective:  6.5

 

44) The formula for a molecule formed from N and Cl would be

  1. A) NCl.
  2. B) NCl2.
  3. C) NCl3.
  4. D) N3
  5. E) NCl5.

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

45) The types of compounds that use prefixes in their names are

  1. A) ionic compounds.
  2. B) ionic compounds involving transition metals.
  3. C) polyatomic ions.
  4. D) covalent compounds.
  5. E) compounds that contain polyatomic ions.

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

 

46) The correct name for the compound N2O3 is

  1. A) nitrogen oxide.
  2. B) nitrogen trioxide.
  3. C) dinitride trioxide.
  4. D) dinitrogen oxide.
  5. E) dinitrogen trioxide.

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

47) What is the formula of carbon tetraiodide?

  1. A) CI
  2. B) CI4
  3. C) C4I
  4. D) CI3
  5. E) C2I4

 

Objective:  6.5

 

 

48) Which of the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule?

  1. A) hydrogen
  2. B) nitrogen
  3. C) chlorine
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) carbon

 

Objective:  6.6

 

49) In a covalently bonded molecule, the number of electrons that an atom shares with others is usually equal to the number of electrons

  1. A) in the atom.
  2. B) in its nucleus.
  3. C) in all the atoms.
  4. D) in its ion.
  5. E) needed to give it a stable electron configuration.

 

Objective:  6.6

 

 

 

50) Double and triple bonds form because

  1. A) the atoms involved have high electronegativities.
  2. B) single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons.
  3. C) one of the atoms in the molecule has more than eight valence electrons.
  4. D) the ions involved have charges larger than one.
  5. E) there is at least one hydrogen atom involved in the bond.

 

Objective:  6.6

 

 

51) How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot structure of H2O?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 10

 

Objective:  6.6

 

 

52) How many lone pairs of electrons are in the electron-dot structure of H2O?

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 2
  4. D) 3
  5. E) 4

 

Objective:  6.6

 

53) Choose the best electron-dot structure for OCl2.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  6.6

 

 

 

54) Choose the best electron-dot structure for CH2Cl2.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  6.6

 

 

55) How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot structure of CCl4?

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 82
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 32

 

Objective:  6.6

 

56) The ability of an atom to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond is its

  1. A) electronegativity.
  2. B) bonding ability.
  3. C) polarity.
  4. D) ionic character.
  5. E) nonpolarity.

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

 

57) Which of the following substances contains a nonpolar covalent bond?

  1. A) H2O
  2. B) NaCl
  3. C) NH3
  4. D) MgF2
  5. E) N2

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

58) Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?

  1. A) Li
  2. B) C
  3. C) N
  4. D) O
  5. E) F

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

59) Which of the following compounds contains a polar covalent bond?

  1. A) NaF
  2. B) HCl
  3. C) Br2
  4. D) MgO
  5. E) O2

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

60) Which of the following compounds contains an ionic bond?

  1. A) NH3
  2. B) H2O
  3. C) CaO
  4. D) H2
  5. E) CH4

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

61) If the electronegativity difference between elements X and Y is 2.1, the bond between the elements X-Y is

  1. A) ionic.
  2. B) nonpolar ionic.
  3. C) nonpolar covalent.
  4. D) polar covalent.
  5. E) impossible.

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

62) Ionic bonding is expected in which of these compounds?

  1. A) Cl2
  2. B) KF
  3. C) OF2
  4. D) HF
  5. E) H2

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

63) A polar covalent bond is found in which of these compounds?

  1. A) H2O
  2. B) F2
  3. C) NaCl
  4. D) H2
  5. E) N2

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

64) The bond in Cl2 is a(n)

  1. A) ionic bond.
  2. B) nonpolar covalent bond.
  3. C) metallic bond.
  4. D) polar ionic bond.
  5. E) no bond.

 

Objective:  6.7

 

 

 

65) The VSEPR theory allows us to determine the most favorable

  1. A) shape of a molecule.
  2. B) charge on an ion.
  3. C) color of a compound.
  4. D) bond type for a molecule.
  5. E) formula for a compound.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

66) The shape of the carbon tetrachloride molecule is

  1. A) linear.
  2. B) square.
  3. C) pyramidal.
  4. D) tetrahedral.
  5. E) octagonal.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

67) The water molecule has a dipole with the negative portion

  1. A) localized between the hydrogen atoms.
  2. B) pointing toward the oxygen atom.
  3. C) localized on one of the hydrogens.
  4. D) pointing from the oxygen through the hydrogen atoms.
  5. E) surrounding the molecule.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

68) The shape of the ammonia molecule ( NH3) is

  1. A) linear.
  2. B) square.
  3. C) pyramidal.
  4. D) hexagonal.
  5. E) octagonal.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

69) The shape of the carbon dioxide (CO2) is

  1. A) linear.
  2. B) square.
  3. C) pyramidal.
  4. D) hexagonal.
  5. E) bent.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

70) The shape of the water molecule ( H2O) is

  1. A) linear.
  2. B) tetrahedral.
  3. C) pyramidal.
  4. D) bent.
  5. E) octagonal.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

71) The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl4, has the shape of a

  1. A) tetrahedron.
  2. B) square.
  3. C) cube.
  4. D) circle.
  5. E) sphere.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

72) Hydrogen sulfide, H2S, has a shape similar to

  1. A) carbon dioxide.
  2. B) carbon monoxide.
  3. C) hydrogen chloride.
  4. D) water.
  5. E) carbon tetrachloride.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

73) The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl4, is

  1. A) a polar molecule with polar bonds.
  2. B) a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds.
  3. C) a nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds.
  4. D) a polar molecule with nonpolar bonds.
  5. E) a polar molecule with ionic bonds.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

 

74) The ammonia molecule ( NH3) is

  1. A) a polar molecule with polar bonds.
  2. B) a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds.
  3. C) a nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds.
  4. D) a polar molecule with nonpolar bonds.
  5. E) a polar molecule with ionic bonds.

 

Objective:  6.8

 

 

75) The strongest interactions between molecules of ammonia ( NH3) are

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) polar covalent.
  4. D) dipole-dipole.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

76) The strongest interactions between molecules of hydrogen ( H2) are

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) polar covalent.
  4. D) dipole-dipole.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

 

77) The strongest interactions between molecules of hydrogen chloride are

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

 

78) The strongest interactions between molecules of iodine I2 are examples of

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

 

79) The strongest interactions in the compound sodium fluoride, NaF, are examples of

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

 

80) The strongest interactions between atoms of helium He are examples of

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions.
  5. E) dispersion forces.

 

Objective:  6.9

 

6.2   Short Answer Questions

 

Identify each of the following molecules as polar or nonpolar.

 

1) carbon tetrachloride

 

 

2) water

 

 

3) carbon dioxide

 

 

4) hydrogen sulfide

 

 

5) hydrogen fluoride

 

 

6) carbon monoxide

 

 

 

Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.

 

7) nitrogen trichloride

 

 

8) carbon tetrachloride

 

 

9) potassium oxide

 

10) carbon dioxide

 

 

11) sodium fluoride

 

 

 

12) hydrogen sulfide

 

 

 

13) The weakest type of force between particles of a substance is termed ________.

 

 

14) Are hydrogen bonds stronger or weaker than covalent bonds?

 

 

15) Are dipole-dipole interactions weak or strong compared to ionic bonds?

 

 

16) What is the name of Na2S?

 

 

17) What is the name of FeCl3?

 

 

18) What is the name of SF6?

 

 

6.3   Matching Questions

 

Match the correct name of the polyatomic ions with the formulas given.

 

  1. A) hydrogen sulfate
  2. B) nitrite
  3. C) hydroxide
  4. D) carbonate
  5. E) phosphite
  6. F) sulfate
  7. G) oxide
  8. H) hydrogen carbonate
  9. I) nitrate
  10. J) hydrogen sulfite
  11. K) phosphate
  12. L) carbonite
  13. M) sulfite

 

1) NO3-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

2) CO32-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

3) SO42-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

4) SO32-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

5) PO43-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

6) NO2-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

7) HCO3-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

 

8) HSO4-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

9) OH-

Objective:  6.4

 

 

Give the correct charge for ions of the following elements.

 

  1. A) 1-
  2. B) 2-
  3. C) 1+
  4. D) 0
  5. E) 2+
  6. F) 3+

 

10) Ca

Objective:  6.1

 

 

11) Cl

Objective:  6.1

 

 

12) O

Objective:  6.1

 

 

13) Al

Objective:  6.1

 

 

14) K

Objective:  6.1

 

 

Indicate the type of bonding you would expect between the following elements.

 

  1. A) none
  2. B) polar covalent
  3. C) nonpolar covalent
  4. D) ionic

 

15) Na and F

Objective:  6.7

 

 

16) N and F

Objective:  6.7

 

 

17) F and F

Objective:  6.7

 

 

18) He and F

Objective:  6.7

 

 

19) H and F

Objective:  6.7

 

 

Match the chemical name with the correct formula.

 

  1. A) MgSO3
  2. B) MgSO4
  3. C) MgS
  4. D) Mg(HSO4)2
  5. E) Mg(HSO3)2

 

20) magnesium sulfate

Objective:  6.4

 

 

21) magnesium hydrogen sulfate

Objective:  6.4

 

 

22) magnesium sulfide

Objective:  6.4

 

 

23) magnesium sulfite

Objective:  6.4

 

 

24) magnesium hydrogen sulfite

Objective:  6.4

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 7   Chemical Reactions and Quantities

 

7.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) A chemical equation is balanced when

  1. A) the total number of molecules is the same in reactants and products.
  2. B) the total number of ions is the same in reactants and products.
  3. C) the sum of the coefficients of the reactants is equal to the sum of the coefficients of the products.
  4. D) the number of atoms of each element is the same in reactants and products.
  5. E) the charge on each atom is the same in reactants and products.

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

2) In any balanced chemical equation, the number of each type of atom on both sides of the equation is

  1. A) doubled.
  2. B) the same.
  3. C) decreased by one.
  4. D) increased by one.
  5. E) dependent on the temperature.

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

3) Which of the following gives the balanced equation for this reaction?

 

K3PO4 + Ca(NO3)2 → Ca3(PO4)2 + KNO3

 

  1. A) KPO4+ CaNO3+ KNO3
  2. B) K3PO4+ Ca(NO3)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + 3KNO3
  3. C) 2K3PO4+ Ca(NO3)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KNO3
  4. D) 2K3PO4+ 3Ca(NO3)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + 6KNO3
  5. E) K3PO4+ Ca(NO3)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + KNO3

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

4) Which of the following correctly gives the best coefficients for the reaction below?

 

N2H4 + H2O2 → N2 + H2O

 

  1. A) 1, 1, 1 ,1
  2. B) 1, 2, 1, 4
  3. C) 2, 4, 2, 8
  4. D) 1, 4, 1, 4
  5. E) 2, 4, 2, 4

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

5) What coefficient is placed in front of O2 to complete the balancing of the following equation?

 

C5H8 + ? O2 → 5CO2 + 4H2O

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 9

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

6) What is the coefficient of hydrogen, H2, when the following equation is balanced?

 

Al + H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + ? H2

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

 

7) In this reaction, what is the coefficient for calcium oxide?

 

CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

8) In the following reaction, when the equation is correctly balanced, what is the correct coefficient for sodium chloride?

 

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + NaCl(aq) → PbCl2(s) + NaNO3(aq)

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

9) In the following reaction, when the equation is correctly balanced, what is the correct coefficient for H2?

 

Fe(s) + HCl(aq) → FeCl3(aq) + H2(g)

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

 

10) In the following reaction, when the equation is correctly balanced, what is the correct coefficient for aluminum chloride?

 

Al(s) + Cl2(g) → AlCl3(s)

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

Pentane (C5H12) reacts with oxygen (O2) to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) according to the following reaction. Answer the question(s) that follow about this reaction.

 

C5H12 + ? O2 → ? CO2 + ? H2O

 

11) What is the coefficient for oxygen in the balanced equation?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 8

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

12) What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced equation?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 8

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

13) What is the coefficient for water in the balanced equation?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 8

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

14) In a ________ reaction, two or more elements or compounds form one product.

  1. A) decomposition
  2. B) single replacement
  3. C) dehydration
  4. D) double replacement
  5. E) combination

 

Objective:  7.2

 

15) The following reaction takes place when an electric current is passed through water. It is an example of a ________ reaction.

 

2H2O → 2H2 + O2

 

  1. A) combination
  2. B) single replacement
  3. C) dehydration
  4. D) decomposition
  5. E) double replacement

 

Objective:  7.2

 

 

16) What is the classification for this reaction?

 

SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4(l)

 

  1. A) decomposition
  2. B) combination
  3. C) replacement
  4. D) double replacement
  5. E) oxidation reduction

 

Objective:  7.2

 

 

 

17) The reaction of carbon with oxygen to produce carbon monoxide is an example of which class of reaction?

 

2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)

 

  1. A) single replacement
  2. B) double replacement
  3. C) combination
  4. D) catalytic
  5. E) endothermic

 

Objective:  7.2

 

18) What is the classification for this unbalanced reaction?

 

Fe + HCl → FeCl3 + H2

 

  1. A) dehydration
  2. B) combination
  3. C) decomposition
  4. D) single replacement
  5. E) double replacement

 

Objective:  7.2

 

 

19) The reaction of methane with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water is an example of which class of reaction?

 

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

 

  1. A) single replacement
  2. B) double replacement
  3. C) combination
  4. D) oxidation
  5. E) endothermic

 

Objective:  7.2

 

 

 

20) Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

  1. A) CaCl2+ Na2SO4→ CaSO4 + 2NaCl
  2. B) KOH + HNO3→ H2O + KNO3
  3. C) N2+ O2→ 2NO
  4. D) AgNO3+ NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
  5. E) Al2(SO4)3 + 6KOH → 2Al(OH)3+ 3K2SO4

 

Objective:  7.3

 

 

21) What is oxidized and what is reduced in the following reaction?

 

2Al(s) + 3Br2(g) → 2AlBr3(s)

 

  1. A) Al is oxidized and Br2is reduced.
  2. B) AlBr3is reduced and Br2is oxidized.
  3. C) Al is reduced and Br2
  4. D) AlBr3is reduced and Al is oxidized.
  5. E) AlBr3is oxidized and Al is reduced.

 

Objective:  7.3

 

22) Which of the following describes an oxidation reaction?

  1. A) loss of electrons or loss of oxygen
  2. B) loss of electrons or gain of oxygen
  3. C) loss of electrons or gain of hydrogen
  4. D) gain of electrons or gain of oxygen
  5. E) gain of electrons or loss of H

 

Objective:  7.3

 

 

23) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance oxidized always

  1. A) takes on oxygen atoms.
  2. B) shows a loss of electrons.
  3. C) gives up hydrogen atoms.
  4. D) shows a gain of electrons.
  5. E) becomes a charged species.

 

Objective:  7.3

 

 

 

24) In this reaction, what is the substance oxidized?

 

Zn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

 

  1. A) chlorine
  2. B) zinc chloride
  3. C) hydrogen
  4. D) zinc
  5. E) oxygen

 

Objective:  7.3

 

 

25) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance reduced always

  1. A) takes on oxygen atoms.
  2. B) shows a loss of electrons.
  3. C) gives up hydrogen atoms.
  4. D) shows a gain of electrons.
  5. E) becomes a charged species.

 

Objective:  7.3

 

26) How many moles of iron are present in 3.15 × 1024 atoms of iron?

  1. A) 5.23 moles
  2. B) 1.90 moles
  3. C) 292 moles
  4. D) 0.523 moles
  5. E) 1.90 × 1048moles

 

Objective:  7.4

 

 

27) How many atoms of neon are present in 1.30 moles of neon?

  1. A) 3.15 × 1023atoms
  2. B) 4.63 × 1023atoms
  3. C) 7.83 × 1023atoms
  4. D) 6.02 × 1023atoms
  5. E) 7.83 × 1024atoms

 

Objective:  7.4

 

 

 

28) One mole of particles of any substance contains how many particles?

  1. A) 106
  2. B) 3 × 10-10
  3. C) 3 × 1010
  4. D) 6.02 × 1023
  5. E) 6.02 × 10-23

 

Objective:  7.4

 

 

29) Avogadro’s number is the number of

  1. A) particles in 1 mole of a substance.
  2. B) amu in 1 mole of a substance.
  3. C) grams in 1 mole of a substance.
  4. D) moles in 6.02 × 1023grams of an element.
  5. E) moles in 6.02 × 1023amu of an element.

 

Objective:  7.4

 

 

30) How many molecules of water, H2O, are present in 75.0 g of H2O?

  1. A) 75.0 molecules
  2. B) 4.17 molecules
  3. C) 7.53 × 1024molecules
  4. D) 2.51 × 1024molecules
  5. E) 5.02 × 1024molecules

 

Objective:  7.5

 

31) How many hydrogen atoms are present in 75.0 g of H2O?

  1. A) 75.0 atoms
  2. B) 4.17 atoms
  3. C) 7.53 × 1024atoms
  4. D) 2.51 × 1024atoms
  5. E) 5.02 × 1024atoms

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

 

32) The molar mass of potassium is

  1. A) 19 g.
  2. B) 31.0 g.
  3. C) 6.02 × 1023
  4. D) 39.1 g.
  5. E) 15g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

33) One mole of helium gas has a mass of

  1. A) 1.00 g.
  2. B) 2.00 g.
  3. C) 3.00 g.
  4. D) 4.00 g.
  5. E) 8.00 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

34) How many moles of water, H2O, are present in 75.0 g of H2O?

  1. A) 4.41 moles
  2. B) 4.16 moles
  3. C) 75.0 moles
  4. D) 7.50 moles
  5. E) 1.35 × 103moles

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

35) 0.100 mole of lithium has a mass of

  1. A) 3.00 g.
  2. B) 0.300 g.
  3. C) 6.94 g.
  4. D) 0.694 g.
  5. E) 0.700 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

36) Calculate the molar mass of potassium chloride, KCl.

  1. A) 74.6 g
  2. B) 54.5 g
  3. C) 6.74 g
  4. D) 67.4 g
  5. E) 19.0 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

37) What is the molar mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO4?

  1. A) 16.0 g
  2. B) 63.6 g
  3. C) 111.6 g
  4. D) 159.6 g
  5. E) 319.2 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

38) Calculate the molar mass of magnesium chloride, MgCl2.

  1. A) 24.3 g
  2. B) 95.2 g
  3. C) 125.9 g
  4. D) 59.8 g
  5. E) 70.0 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

39) What is the molar mass of sodium phosphate, Na3PO4?

  1. A) 119 g
  2. B) 308 g
  3. C) 164 g
  4. D) 226 g
  5. E) 354 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

40) How many moles of carbon atoms are there in 0.500 mole of C2H6?

  1. A) 0.500 moles
  2. B) 1.00 moles
  3. C) 3.00 moles
  4. D) 6.02 × 1023moles
  5. E) 4.00 moles

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

41) What is the molar mass of sucrose (C12H22O11)?

  1. A) 29.0 g
  2. B) 50.2 g
  3. C) 210 g
  4. D) 342 g
  5. E) 182 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

42) One mole of neon atoms has a mass of

  1. A) 6.02 × 1023
  2. B) 14.0 g.
  3. C) 10.0 g.
  4. D) 20.2 g.
  5. E) 30.2 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

43) The molar mass of C3H8O2 is

  1. A) 76.0 g.
  2. B) 60.0 g.
  3. C) 29.0 g.
  4. D) 69.0 g.
  5. E) 52.0 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

44) The molar mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)2, is

  1. A) 58.1 g.
  2. B) 57.1 g.
  3. C) 74.1 g.
  4. D) 114.2 g.
  5. E) 38.0 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

 

45) What is the molar mass of Mg3(PO4)2, a substance formerly used in medicine as an antacid?

  1. A) 71.3 g
  2. B) 118 g
  3. C) 150. g
  4. D) 214 g
  5. E) 263 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

46) 4.00 moles of sodium have a mass of

  1. A) 4.60 g.
  2. B) 11.0 g.
  3. C) 23.0 g.
  4. D) 44.0 g.
  5. E) 92.0 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

47) How many moles of K2SO4 are in 15.0 g of K2SO4?

  1. A) 0.172 moles
  2. B) 2.61 × 103moles
  3. C) 0.111 moles
  4. D) 0.0861 moles
  5. E) 0.119 moles

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

48) 3.00 moles of NO2 have a mass of

  1. A) 138 g.
  2. B) 46.0 g.
  3. C) 30.0 g.
  4. D) 90.0 g.
  5. E) 45.0 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

 

49) 1.25 moles of PbO2 have a mass of

  1. A) 191 g.
  2. B) 279 g.
  3. C) 178 g.
  4. D) 239 g.
  5. E) 299 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

50) How many grams of Fe2O3 are there in 0.500 mole of Fe2O3?

  1. A) 79.9 g
  2. B) 35.9 g
  3. C) 63.8 g
  4. D) 51.9 g
  5. E) 160. g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

51) How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) are in 3.55 moles of glucose?

  1. A) 180. g
  2. B) 639 g
  3. C) 103 g
  4. D) 426 g
  5. E) 50.7 g

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

 

52) Given the following equation, what is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of O2 to the number of moles of Fe2O3 produced?

 

4Fe(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Fe2O3(s)

 

A)

  1. B)
  2. C)
  3. D)
  4. E)

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following equation.

 

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

 

53) The number of moles of oxygen gas needed to react with 4.0 moles of Mg is

  1. A) 1.0 mole.
  2. B) 2.0 moles.
  3. C) 3.0 moles.
  4. D) 4.0 moles.
  5. E) 6.0 moles.

 

Objective:  7.6

 

54) The number of moles of MgO produced when 0.20 mole of O2 reacts completely is

  1. A) 0.10 mole.
  2. B) 0.20 mole.
  3. C) 0.40 mole.
  4. D) 0.60 mole.
  5. E) 0.80 mole.

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

 

55) How many moles of magnesium are needed to react with 0.50 mole of O2?

  1. A) 0.50 mole
  2. B) 1.0 moles
  3. C) 2.0 moles
  4. D) 3.0 moles
  5. E) 4.0 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

56) When 4 moles of aluminum are allowed to react with an excess of chlorine gas, Cl2, how many moles of aluminum chloride are produced?

  1. A) 1 mole
  2. B) 2 moles
  3. C) 3 moles
  4. D) 4 moles
  5. E) 5 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

57) In the reaction of nitrogen gas, N2, with hydrogen gas, H2, to form ammonia gas, NH3 , how many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with two moles of nitrogen?

  1. A) 2 moles
  2. B) 4 moles
  3. C) 6 moles
  4. D) 8 moles
  5. E) 10 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following balanced equation.

 

Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3Mg (OH)2(s) + 2NH3(g)

 

58) What is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of H2O to the number of moles of NH3 produced?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

59) When 2 moles of Mg3N2 are allowed to react, how many moles of H2O also react?

  1. A) 1 mole
  2. B) 4 moles
  3. C) 6 moles
  4. D) 8 moles
  5. E) 12 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following equation.

 

2Mg + O2 → 2MgO

 

60) How many grams of MgO are produced when 40.0 grams of O2 react completely with Mg?

  1. A) 30.4 g
  2. B) 50.4 g
  3. C) 60.8 g
  4. D) 101 g
  5. E) 201 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

For the question(s) that follow, consider the following balanced equation.

 

Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) → 3Mg (OH)2(s) + 2NH3(g)

 

61) How many grams of H2O are needed to produce 150 g of Mg(OH)2?

  1. A) 46 g
  2. B) 18 g
  3. C) 130 g
  4. D) 93 g
  5. E) 23 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

62) When 36.0 g of H2O react, how many grams of NH3 are produced?

  1. A) 34.0 g
  2. B) 10.0 g
  3. C) 5.67 g
  4. D) 11.3 g
  5. E) 102 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

63) How many grams of hydrogen are needed to produce 1.80 g of water according to this equation?

 

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

 

  1. A) 0.100 g
  2. B) 0.180 g
  3. C) 0.200 g
  4. D) 2.00 g
  5. E) 4.00 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

64) In the reaction of silver nitrate with sodium chloride, how many grams of silver chloride will be produced from 100. g of silver nitrate when it is mixed with an excess of sodium chloride? The equation for the reaction is below.

 

AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

 

  1. A) 107.9 g
  2. B) 169.9 g
  3. C) 84.4 g
  4. D) 0.589 g
  5. E) 58.9 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

65) Find the mass of AlCl3 that is produced when 25.0 grams of Al2O3 react with excess HCl according to the following equation.

 

Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O(l)

 

  1. A) 155 g
  2. B) 72.9 g
  3. C) 65.4 g
  4. D) 32.6 g
  5. E) 16.3 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

66) How many grams of NO are required to produce 145 g of N2 in the following reaction?

 

4NH3(g) + 6NO(g) → 5N2(g) + 6H2O(l)

 

  1. A) 186 g
  2. B) 155 g
  3. C) 125 g
  4. D) 129 g
  5. E) 145 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

67) How many grams of N2 are produced from 100. g of NH3 in the following reaction?

 

4NH3(g) + 6NO(g) → 5N2(g) + 6H2O(l)

 

  1. A) 165 g
  2. B) 132 g
  3. C) 125 g
  4. D) 206 g
  5. E) 7.35 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

68) How many grams of CO2 are produced from 125 g of O2 and excess CH4?

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) 125 g of CO2
  2. B) 62.5 g of CO2
  3. C) 172 g of CO2
  4. D) 85.9 g of CO2
  5. E) 250. g of CO2

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

69) When 3.05 moles of CH4 are mixed with 5.03 moles of O2 the limiting reactant is

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) CH4.
  2. B) O2.
  3. C) CO2.
  4. D) H2

 

Objective:  7.8

 

 

70) When 85.0 g of CH4 are mixed with 160. g of O2 the limiting reactant is

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) CH4.
  2. B) O2.
  3. C) CO2.
  4. D) H2

 

Objective:  7.8

 

 

71) When 10.0 g of NH3 reacts, the actual yield of N2 is 8.50 g. What is the percent yield?

 

4NH3(g) + 6NO(g) → 5N2(g) + 6H2O(l)

 

  1. A) 85.0%
  2. B) 51.5%
  3. C) 20.6%
  4. D) 41.3%
  5. E) 8.5%

 

Objective:  7.8

 

 

72) When 85.0 g of CH4 are mixed with 160. g of O2 what is the maximum amount of CO2 that can be produced?

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) 2.50 moles
  2. B) 5.00 moles
  3. C) 5.31 moles
  4. D) 7.81 moles

 

Objective:  7.8

 

 

 

73) When 60.0 g of CH4 reacts with excess O2, the actual yield of CO2 is 112 g. What is the percent yield?

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) 53.6 %
  2. B) 187 %
  3. C) 67.9 %
  4. D) 46.4 %

 

Objective:  7.8

 

74) Find the mass of AlCl3 that is produced when 10.0 grams of Al2O3 react with 10.0 g of HCl according to the following equation.

 

Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O(aq)

 

  1. A) 16.2 g
  2. B) 20.0 g
  3. C) 12.2 g
  4. D) 10.0 g
  5. E) 6.10 g

 

Objective:  7.8

 

 

75) What type of reaction is: CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + 218 kcal?

  1. A) an endothermic reaction
  2. B) an exothermic reaction
  3. C) a single replacement reaction
  4. D) a combination reaction
  5. E) a decomposition reaction

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

76) How many kcal are produced when 32.0 g of CH4 react?

 

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O + 218 kcal

 

  1. A) 218 kcal
  2. B) 109 kcal
  3. C) 436 kcal
  4. D) 6.81 kcal
  5. E) 698 kcal

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

77) For the reaction: 2H2O(l) + 137 kcal → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g), how many kcal are needed to form 2.00 moles O2 (g)?

  1. A) 68.5 kcal
  2. B) 137 kcal
  3. C) 274 kcal
  4. D) 190. kcal
  5. E) 548 kcal

 

Objective:  7.9

 

78) For the reaction: 2H2O(l) + 137 kcal → 2H2 (g) + O2 (g), how many kcal are needed to react 50.0 g H2O(l)?

  1. A) 380. kcal
  2. B) 137 kcal
  3. C) 274 kcal
  4. D) 190. kcal
  5. E) 760. kcal

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

79) If the reaction shown below is exothermic, the energy level of the reactants is

 

H2 + O2  → 2H2O

 

  1. A) lower than that of the products.
  2. B) higher than that of the products.
  3. C) the same as that of the products.
  4. D) possibly lower, possibly higher than that of the products.
  5. E) higher than the activation energy of the reaction.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

80) In an endothermic reaction

  1. A) heat flows out of the system.
  2. B) energy is absorbed by the system.
  3. C) the temperature of the system increases.
  4. D) the products have less energy that the reactants.
  5. E) the products have the same energy that the reactants.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

 

81) Any reaction that absorbs 150 kcal of energy can be classified as

  1. A) endothermic.
  2. B) exothermic.
  3. C) activated.
  4. D) reduction.
  5. E) oxidation.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

82) The ________ is the energy difference between reactants and products in a chemical reaction.

  1. A) transition energy
  2. B) activation energy
  3. C) product energy
  4. D) overall energy
  5. E) heat of reaction

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

83) The ________ is the minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to begin.

  1. A) reaction energy
  2. B) activation energy
  3. C) energy of reactants
  4. D) energy of products
  5. E) heat of reaction

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

84) A reaction that releases energy as it occurs is classified as a(n)

  1. A) endothermic reaction.
  2. B) exothermic reaction.
  3. C) oxidation-reduction reaction.
  4. D) catalyzed reaction.
  5. E) decomposition reaction.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

 

7.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for hydrogen gas?

 

? H2 + ? O2 → ? H2O

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  7.1

 

Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the following equation.

 

BaCl2 + Na2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl

 

Answer the question(s) that follow about this reaction.

 

2) How many moles of barium sulfate are produced from 0.100 mole of barium chloride?

  1. A) 0.0100 mole
  2. B) 0.100 mole
  3. C) 0.200 mole
  4. D) 1.00 mole
  5. E) 2.00 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

3) How many grams of barium sulfate can be produced from 20.8 g of barium chloride?

  1. A) 1.37 g
  2. B) 2.33 g
  3. C) 23.3 g
  4. D) 137 g
  5. E) 233 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

 

4) How many grams of barium chloride are needed to make 100. grams of barium sulfate?

  1. A) 44.9 g
  2. B) 89.2 g
  3. C) 208.3 g
  4. D) 233.3 g
  5. E) 46.6 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

Answer the question(s) that follow about the following reaction.

 

2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2

 

5) How many moles of oxygen gas can 0.88 mole of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) produce, if decomposition is complete?

  1. A) 0.50 mole
  2. B) 0.88 mole
  3. C) 1.8 moles
  4. D) 2.0 moles
  5. E) 0.44 mole

 

Objective:  7.6

 

6) How many grams of water will 100. grams of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) produce?

  1. A) 3600 g
  2. B) 360. g
  3. C) 5.88 g
  4. D) 52.9 g
  5. E) 106 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

7) How many grams of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) are needed to produce 25.0 g of oxygen?

  1. A) 106 g
  2. B) 26.6 g
  3. C) 5.88 g
  4. D) 25.0 g
  5. E) 53.1 g

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

 

8) How many moles of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) are needed to produce 5.0 moles of water?

  1. A) 1.0 mole
  2. B) 2.0 moles
  3. C) 4.0 moles
  4. D) 5.0 moles
  5. E) 8.0 moles

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

7.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) What type of reaction is the following?

 

2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

 

 

2) What type of reaction is the following?

 

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

 

3) What type of reaction is the following?

 

2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

 

 

4) What type of reaction is the following?

 

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

 

 

5) The number of particles in 1 mole of hydrogen gas is ________.

 

 

 

6) The molar mass of copper(II) nitrate, Cu(NO3)2 is ________.

 

 

7) What is the mass of 1 mole of argon gas?

 

 

8) What is the mass of 1 mole of helium gas?

 

 

9) Acetylene gas, C2H2, reacts with oxygen according to the following equation. If 1.00 mole of acetylene reacts completely with sufficient oxygen, how many moles of carbon dioxide are produced?

 

2C2H2 + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O

 

7.4   True/False Questions

 

1) The following reaction is balanced.

 

KClO3 → KCl + O2

 

Objective:  7.1

 

 

2) The following is a decomposition reaction.

 

2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

 

Objective:  7.2

 

 

3) Loss of electrons is an oxidation.

 

Objective:  7.3

 

 

4) Avogadro’s number is the number of grams in a mole.

 

Objective:  7.4

 

 

5) The molar mass of silver is 47 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

6) The molar mass of magnesium is 24.3 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

7) The mass of one mole of water is 18.0 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

8) The molar mass of chlorine gas is 35.5 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

 

9) The molar mass of copper(II) chloride is 134.5 g.

 

Objective:  7.5

 

10) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 1 mole of oxygen gas can produce 2 moles of water, given sufficient hydrogen available.

 

Objective:  7.6

 

 

11) In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 16.0 g of oxygen gas can produce

9.00 g of water, given sufficient hydrogen available.

 

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

 

Objective:  7.7

 

 

12) The % yield is the ratio of the theoretical yield to the actual yield multiplied by 100.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

13) In an exothermic reaction, heat is a product.

 

Objective:  7.9

 

 

7.5   Matching Questions

 

Identify the energy associated with each of the labeled parts of the following diagram.

 

 

  1. A) energy of reactants
  2. B) heat of reaction
  3. C) activation energy
  4. D) energy of products

 

1) Region A

Objective:  7.9

 

 

2) Region B

Objective:  7.9

 

 

3) Region C

Objective:  7.9

 

 

4) Region D

Objective:  7.9

 

 

Identify the letter of the diagram corresponding to the given type of reaction.

 

 

                                              A

 

 

                                               B

 

  1. A) Diagram A
  2. B) Diagram B

 

5) endothermic reaction

Objective:  7.9

 

 

6) exothermic reaction

Objective:  7.9

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 8   Gases

 

8.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following is NOT part of the kinetic theory of gases?

  1. A) A gas is composed of very small particles.
  2. B) There is very little empty space in a gas.
  3. C) Gas particles move rapidly.
  4. D) Gas particles do not attract or repel one another.
  5. E) Gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

2) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the assumption is made that gas molecules

  1. A) move rapidly in random directions.
  2. B) are attracted to each other by strong forces.
  3. C) are close together in their container.
  4. D) move with a kinetic energy equal to their centigrade temperature.
  5. E) occasionally come to rest.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

3) According to the kinetic theory of gases, a gas can be compressed much more than a liquid or solid because

  1. A) a gas is composed of very small particles.
  2. B) the particles of a gas are very far apart.
  3. C) gas particles move rapidly.
  4. D) gas particles do not attract or repel one another.
  5. E) gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

4) According to the kinetic theory of gases, particles of a gas

  1. A) are very large.
  2. B) are very far apart.
  3. C) lose their valence electrons.
  4. D) move slowly.
  5. E) decrease kinetic energy as temperature increases.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

5) In a gas, the distance between the particles is

  1. A) very close relative to the size of the molecules.
  2. B) close relative to the size of the molecules.
  3. C) fixed relative to the size of the molecules.
  4. D) small relative to the size of the molecules.
  5. E) very large relative to the size of the molecules.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

6) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, particles of a gas tend to move ________ and collisions between them are ________.

  1. A) rapidly; rare
  2. B) slowly; rare
  3. C) rapidly; elastic
  4. D) slowly; elastic
  5. E) slowly; unusual

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

7) The force of gas particles against the walls of a container is called

  1. A) pressure.
  2. B) volume.
  3. C) temperature.
  4. D) quantity of gas.
  5. E) density.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

8) Which measurement describes the pressure of a gas?

  1. A) 315 K
  2. B) 1.2 g/L
  3. C) 2.5 L
  4. D) 725 mmHg
  5. E) 0.45 moles

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

 

9) The unit of 1 atmosphere used to describe the pressure of a gas is equal to

  1. A) 1 mmHg .
  2. B) 100 mmHg.
  3. C) 200 mmHg.
  4. D) 600 mmHg.
  5. E) 760 mmHg.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

10) A 5.00-L tank contains helium gas at 1.50 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in mmHg?

  1. A) 1.50 mmHg
  2. B) 507 mmHg
  3. C) 760 mmHg
  4. D) 1140 mmHg
  5. E) 7.5 mmHg

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

11) A 5.00-L tank contains helium gas at 1.50 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in torr?

  1. A) 1.50 torr
  2. B) 507 torr
  3. C) 760 torr
  4. D) 1140 torr
  5. E) 7.5 torr

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

12) The atmospheric pressure in Denver, CO is 633 mmHg. What is this pressure in atm?

  1. A) 1.20 atm
  2. B) 633 atm
  3. C) 0.833 atm
  4. D) 1.00 atm
  5. E) 127 atm

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

13) As you rise higher in Earth’s atmosphere, the atmospheric pressure

  1. A) increases.
  2. B) decreases.
  3. C) remains the same.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

 

14) The air pressure on a rainy day is usually ________ air pressure on a sunny day.

  1. A) higher than
  2. B) lower than
  3. C) the same as

 

Objective:  8.1

 

15) At constant temperature, a sample of helium at 760. torr in a closed container was compressed from 5.00 L to 3.00 L, with no change in moles or temperature. What was the new pressure exerted by the helium on its container?

  1. A) 800. torr
  2. B) 2280 torr
  3. C) 15.0 torr
  4. D) 3800 torr
  5. E) 1270 torr

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

16) According to Boyle’s Law, the pressure of a gas increases as the volume decreases because

  1. A) the gas particles get bigger.
  2. B) the kinetic energy of the gas particles increases.
  3. C) the temperature of the gas increases.
  4. D) the gas particles strike the walls of the container with more force.
  5. E) the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often.

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

17) Which of the following correctly describes the process of inspiration (air entering the lungs)?

  1. A) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to decrease.
  2. B) The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to increase.
  3. C) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to decrease.
  4. D) The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to increase.
  5. E) There is no change in the internal pressure in the lungs.

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

 

18) The volume of a gas with a pressure of 1.2 atm increases from 1.0 L to 4.0 L. What is the final pressure of the gas, assuming no change in moles or temperature?

  1. A) 1.2 atm
  2. B) 0.30 atm
  3. C) 3.3 atm
  4. D) 4.8 atm
  5. E) 1.0 atm

 

Objective:  8.2

 

19) The volume of a gas with an initial pressure of 380 mmHg atm increases from 5.0 L to 8.0 L. What is the final pressure of the gas,in atm, assuming no change in moles or temperature?

  1. A) 238 atm
  2. B) 2.4 atm
  3. C) 0.31 atm
  4. D) 0.80 atm
  5. E) 8.0 atm

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

20) The pressure of 5.0 L of gas increases from 1.50 atm to 1240 mmHg. What is the final volume of the gas, assuming no change in moles or temperature?

  1. A) 4100 L
  2. B) 5.0 L
  3. C) 0.0060 L
  4. D) 5.4 L
  5. E) 4.6 L

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

 

A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the question(s) that follow, select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the given change in conditions.

21) The balloon is put into a chamber whose pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure and at atmospheric temperature.

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) A and B
  5. E) B and C

 

Objective:  8.2

 

22) The temperature is changed from 50 °C to -150 °C at constant pressure.

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) A and B
  5. E) B and C

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

23) Complete the following statement: In Charles’s Law, the volume of a gas ________ when the ________ decreases.

  1. A) increases; temperature
  2. B) increases; quantity of gas
  3. C) increases; pressure
  4. D) decreases; temperature
  5. E) decreases; pressure

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

 

24) What unit of temperature is used in gas law calculations?

  1. A) degrees Fahrenheit
  2. B) degrees Celsius
  3. C) Kelvin
  4. D) either degrees Celsius or degrees Fahrenheit
  5. E) either degrees Celsius or Kelvin

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

25) The temperature of a 500. mL sample of gas increases from 150. K to 350. K. What is the final volume of the sample of gas, if the pressure and moles in the container is kept constant?

  1. A) 210. mL
  2. B) 1170 mL
  3. C) 0.0095 mL
  4. D) 0.0470 mL
  5. E) 110. mL

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

26) The volume of a sample of gas, initially at 25 °C and 158 mL, increases to 450. mL. What is the final temperature of the sample of gas, if the pressure in the container is kept constant?

  1. A) 8.8 °C
  2. B) 71 °C
  3. C) 105 °C
  4. D) -168 °C
  5. E) 576 °C

 

Objective:  8.3

 

27) The temperature of a 350. mL sample of gas increases from 27 °C . to 227 °C . What is the final volume of the sample of gas, if the pressure and moles in the container is kept constant?

  1. A) 583 mL
  2. B) 210. mL
  3. C) 2940 mL
  4. D) 41.6 mL
  5. E) 110. mL

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

 

28) As the temperature of a gas increases, the density of the gas will

  1. A) increase.
  2. B) decrease.
  3. C) remain constant.

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

29) A gas sample in a closed, expandable container of initial volume 5.00 L was allowed to warm from   25 °C to 35 °C, at constant moles and pressure. What was its new volume?

  1. A) 4.84 L
  2. B) 5.17 L
  3. C) 7.00 L
  4. D) 3.57 L
  5. E) 4380 L

 

Objective:  8.3

 

 

30) A gas at 5.00 atm pressure was stored in a tank during the winter at 5.0 °C. During the summer, the temperature in the storage area reached 40.0 °C. What was the pressure in the gas tank then?

  1. A) 0.625 atm
  2. B) 4.44 atm
  3. C) 5.63 atm
  4. D) 40.0 atm
  5. E) 69.5 atm

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

31) In Gay-Lussac’s Law, the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because

  1. A) the molecules strike the walls of the container less often.
  2. B) the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.
  3. C) the molecules get bigger.
  4. D) there is a decrease in the volume of the container.
  5. E) there is an increase in the number of gas particles.

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

32) A gas contained in a steel tank has a pressure of 1.5 atm at a temperature of 320 K. What will be the gas pressure when the temperature changes to 450 K, at constant moles and volume?

  1. A) 1.5 atm
  2. B) 0.94 atm
  3. C) 0.47 atm
  4. D) 2.1 atm
  5. E) 1.1 atm

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

33) A sample of argon gas at 300. °C and 50.0 atm pressure is cooled in the same container to a temperature of 0.00 °C. What is the new pressure?

  1. A) 105 atm
  2. B) 45.5 atm
  3. C) 54.9 atm
  4. D) 23.8 atm
  5. E) 42.7 atm

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

34) A sample of helium gas at 27.0 °C and 3.60 atm pressure is cooled in the same container to a temperature of -73.0 °C. What is the new pressure?

  1. A) 3.12 atm
  2. B) 2.40 atm
  3. C) 5.40 atm
  4. D) 2.38 atm
  5. E) 4.15 atm

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

35) The boiling point of water at sea level is 100 °C. At higher altitudes, the boiling point of water will be

  1. A) lower, because temperatures are lower.
  2. B) lower, because the atmospheric pressure is lower.
  3. C) higher, because the altitude is greater.
  4. D) higher, because there are fewer water molecules in the air.
  5. E) the same, because water always boils at 100 °C.

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

36) Vapor pressure can be described as

  1. A) the temperature at which bubbles of vapor appear in a liquid.
  2. B) the pressure exerted on the Earth by the particles in the air.
  3. C) the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure.
  4. D) the pressure exerted by a gas above the surface of its liquid.
  5. E) the pressure within the lungs during inhalation.

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

37) An autoclave is used to sterilize surgical equipment because

  1. A) it allows water to boil at temperatures less than 100 °C.
  2. B) it allows water to boil at 100 °C at pressures less than 1 atm.
  3. C) it allows water to boil at 100 °C at pressures greater than 1 atm.
  4. D) it allows water to boil at temperatures above 100 °C.
  5. E) it provides very high temperatures and very low pressures.

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

38) When the combined gas law is rearranged to solve for V2, the following is the correct expression: V2 =

  1. A) T2T1V1/P2P1.
  2. B) P1V1T2/P2T1.
  3. C) P1V1T1/P2T2.
  4. D) P2T2/P1V1T1.
  5. E) P1V1/T1- P2/T2.

 

Objective:  8.5

 

 

39) At 570. mm Hg and 25 °C, a gas sample has a volume of 2270 mL. What is the final pressure (in mmHg) at a volume of 1250 mL and a temperature of 175 °C, if the moles are constant?

  1. A) 1560 mmHg
  2. B) 210. mmHg
  3. C) 700. mmHg
  4. D) 690. mmHg
  5. E) 470. mmHg

 

Objective:  8.5

 

 

40) A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250 mL at a pressure of 2.4 atm and a temperature of 15 °C. What is the volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface where the pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature is 27 °C, if the moles are constant?

  1. A) 580 mL
  2. B) 630 mL
  3. C) 100 mL
  4. D) 110 mL
  5. E) 1100 mL

 

Objective:  8.5

 

 

41) A sample of nitrogen gas had a volume of 500. mL, a pressure in its closed container of 740 torr, and a temperature of 25 °C. What was the new volume of the gas when the temperature was changed to 50 °C and the new pressure was 760 torr, if the moles are constant?

  1. A) 530 mL
  2. B) 450 mL
  3. C) 970 mL
  4. D) 240 mL
  5. E) 400 mL

 

Objective:  8.5

 

 

42) At STP, what is the volume of 4.50 moles of nitrogen gas?

  1. A) 167 L
  2. B) 3420 L
  3. C) 101 L
  4. D) 60.7 L
  5. E) 1230 L

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

43) At STP, how many moles of helium gas would occupy 1.00 L?

  1. A) 2.24 moles
  2. B) 224 moles
  3. C) 22.4 moles
  4. D) 0.446 moles
  5. E) 0.0446 moles

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

44) At STP, what is the mass of 11.2 liters of O2 gas?

  1. A) 16.0 g
  2. B) 32.0 g
  3. C) 64.0 g
  4. D) 128 g
  5. E) 8.00 g

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

45) According to Avogadro’s law

  1. A) the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.
  2. B) the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at standard temperature and pressure.
  3. C) the volume of a gas depends only on the temperature and pressure.
  4. D) the volume of a gas depends only on the number of moles in the sample.
  5. E) the volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure.

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

46) At STP, temperature and pressure have the values of

  1. A) 0 K and 1 atm.
  2. B) 273 K and 1 mmHg.
  3. C) 273 K and 760 mmHg.
  4. D) 0 K and 760 mmHg.
  5. E) 760 K and 273 atm.

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

47) How many moles of neon occupy a volume of 14.3 L at STP?

  1. A) 36.7 moles
  2. B) 32.0 moles
  3. C) 6.45 moles
  4. D) 0.638 moles
  5. E) 1.57 moles

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

48) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is directly proportional to

  1. A) the volume of the container.
  2. B) the mass of the individual gas molecules.
  3. C) the centigrade temperature of the gas.
  4. D) the number of moles of gas in the sample.
  5. E) the Fahrenheit temperature of the gas.

 

Objective:  8.6

 

49) At STP conditions, 11 g of SO2 has a volume of

  1. A) 250 L.
  2. B) 3.8 L.
  3. C) 22 L.
  4. D) 0.0076 L.
  5. E) 130 L.

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

50) At STP, what is the volume of 1.00 mole of carbon dioxide?

  1. A) 1.00 L
  2. B) 44.0 L
  3. C) 273 L
  4. D) 22.4 L
  5. E) 12.2 L

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

51) The mathematical expression of the ideal gas law is

  1. A) P1V1 = P2V2.
  2. B) = .
  3. C) = .
  4. D) PV = nRT.
  5. E) PT= P1+ P2 + P3.

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

52) What volume would a 0.250 mole sample of H2 gas occupy, if it had a which has a pressure of 1.70 atm, and a temperature of 35 °C?

  1. A) 0.269 L
  2. B) 0.423 L
  3. C) 1.25 L
  4. D) 3.72 L
  5. E) 283 L

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

53) What is the mass of a sample of O2 gas, which has a pressure of 740.mmHg, at a temperature of 25 °C, in a volume of 250. mL?

  1. A) 0.318 g
  2. B) 3.82 g
  3. C) 201 g
  4. D) 292 g
  5. E) 320. g

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

54) What is the pressure, in mmHg, of a 4.00 g sample of O2 gas, which has a temperature of 30.0 °C, and a volume of 3000 mL?

  1. A) 0.788 mmHg
  2. B) 1.04 mmHg
  3. C) 78.0 mmHg
  4. D) 7880 mmHg
  5. E) 788 mmHg

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

55) What is the mass of neon that exerts a pressure of 720. mmHg,with a temperature of -15.0 °C , when the volume of the container is 760. mL?

  1. A) 0.0340 g
  2. B) 0.686 g
  3. C) 0.615 g
  4. D) 517 g
  5. E) 25.8 g

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

56) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq)

 

When 25.0 g of Zn reacts, how many L of H2 gas are formed at STP?

  1. A) 4.28 L
  2. B) 0.0171 L
  3. C) 8.56 L
  4. D) 22.4 L
  5. E) 0.382 L

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

57) Zn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq)

 

When 25.0 g of Zn reacts, how many L of H2 gas are formed at 25 °C and a pressure of 854 mmHg?

  1. A) 8.56 L
  2. B) 0.120 L
  3. C) 8.32 L
  4. D) 22.4 L
  5. E) 0.382 L

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

58) Which of the following is NOT a potential use for a hyperbaric chamber?

  1. A) treatment for burns and infections
  2. B) counteracting carbon monoxide poisoning
  3. C) increasing the rate at which a broken bone heals
  4. D) treating a diver with the bends
  5. E) treating some cancers

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

59) The total pressure in a mixture of gases is equal to the partial pressure(s) of

  1. A) the gas with the greatest number of moles.
  2. B) the gas with the smallest number of moles.
  3. C) the gas with the highest molecular weight.
  4. D) the gas that occupies the largest volume.
  5. E) all the gases added together.

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

60) A cyclopropane-oxygen mixture is used as an anesthetic. If the partial pressure of cyclopropane in the mixture is 330 mmHg and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 1.0 atm, what is the total pressure of the mixture in torr?

  1. A) 330 torr
  2. B) 430 torr
  3. C) 760 torr
  4. D) 1.4 torr
  5. E) 1100 torr

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

61) A tank contains helium gas at 490 mmHg, nitrogen gas at 0.75 atm, and neon at 520 torr. What is the total pressure in atm?

  1. A) 2.1 atm
  2. B) 0.55 atm
  3. C) 1.0 × 103atm
  4. D) 1.5 atm
  5. E) 1600 atm

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

62) A tank contains a mixture of helium, neon, and argon gases. If the total pressure in the tank is

  1. mmHg and the partial pressures of helium and argon are 215 mmHg and 102 mmHg, respectively, what is the partial pressure of neon?
  2. A) 0.228 mmHg
  3. B) 603 mmHg
  4. C) 377 mmHg
  5. D) 807 mmHg
  6. E) 173 mmHg

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

63) Which of the following correctly describes the partial pressures of gases in the body?

  1. A) high O2, low CO2, oxygenated blood
  2. B) high O2, low CO2, deoxygenated blood
  3. C) high O2, high CO2, oxygenated blood
  4. D) high O2, high CO2, tissue
  5. E) low O2, low CO2, deoxygenated blood

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

64) If atmospheric pressure on a certain day is 749 mmHg, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen, given that nitrogen is about 78% of the atmosphere?

  1. A) 170 mmHg
  2. B) 580 mmHg
  3. C) 600 mmHg
  4. D) 750 mmHg
  5. E) 760 mmHg

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

65) A gas sample contains 4.0 g of CH4 and 2.0 g of He. What is the volume of the sample at STP?

  1. A) 130 L
  2. B) 11 L
  3. C) 17 L
  4. D) 30. L
  5. E) 5.6 L

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

8.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the distance between gas molecules is assumed to be ________ the diameter of the gas molecules.

  1. A) 22.4 times
  2. B) small relative to
  3. C) dependent on
  4. D) approximately the same as
  5. E) large relative to

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

2) A barometer is a device for measuring ________.

  1. A) atmospheric pressure
  2. B) blood pressure
  3. C) gas pressure in a container
  4. D) gas pressure in the lung
  5. E) vapor pressure

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

3) The pressure exerted by the particles of vapor above a liquid is called the ________.

  1. A) vapor pressure
  2. B) barometric pressure
  3. C) standard pressure
  4. D) molar pressure
  5. E) atmospheric pressure

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

 

4) The relationship P1V1 = P2V2 is called ________.

  1. A) Boyle’s Law
  2. B) Charles’s Law
  3. C) Gay-Lussac’s Law
  4. D) The Combined Gas Law
  5. E) Avogadro’s Law

 

Objective:  8.2

 

5) The relationship P1/T1 = P2/T2 is called ________.

  1. A) Boyle’s Law
  2. B) Charles’s Law
  3. C) Gay-Lussac’s Law
  4. D) The Combined Gas Law
  5. E) Avogadro’s Law

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

6) The relationship V1/n1 = V2/n2 is called ________.

  1. A) Boyle’s Law
  2. B) Charles’s Law
  3. C) Gay-Lussac’s Law
  4. D) The Combined Gas Law
  5. E) Avogadro’s Law

 

Objective:  8.6

 

 

8.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) A barometer is usually filled with ________.

 

 

2) One atmosphere is the same as ________ mmHg.

 

 

3) The pressure unit 1 mmHg is the same pressure unit as the pressure unit ________.

 

 

 

4) Nitrogen makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.

 

 

5) Oxygen makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.

 

 

6) Boyle’s Law is usually written as ________.

 

7) Gay-Lussac’s Law is usually written as ________.

 

 

8) Avogadro’s Law is usually written as ________.

 

 

9) At STP, the molar volume of a gas is ________.

 

 

10) The use of high-pressure chambers to control disease processes is known as ________.

 

 

11) The Ideal Gas Law is usually written as ________.

 

 

 

8.4   True/False Questions

 

1) The kinetic energy of a gas sample is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

2) 1 mmHg is the same as 760 atm.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

3) The air we breathe is about 21% oxygen.

 

Objective:  8.1

 

 

4) According to Boyle’s, when volume increases, pressure decreases.

 

Objective:  8.2

 

 

5) Gas law calculations normally require the use of the Kelvin temperature scale.

 

Objective:  8.3

 

6) The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is inversely related to its Kelvin temperature.

 

Objective:  8.4

 

 

7) In the combined gas law, temperatures are given in °C.

 

Objective:  8.5

 

 

8) STP stands for 25 °C and 760 mmHg.

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

9) STP stands for 0 °C and 760 mmHg.

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

10) The volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L.

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

11) Ideal Gas Law calculations require the pressure to be in units of atm.

 

Objective:  8.7

 

 

12) Carbon dioxide and water vapor together account for about 5% of the air we breathe.

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

13) During inspiration, we actually make use of 100% of the oxygen in the air we breathe.

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

14) In deoxygenated blood, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen left.

 

Objective:  8.8

 

 

8.5   Matching Questions

 

Indicate the effect on the pressure of the following change.

 

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) increases
  3. C) no change

 

1) There is a decrease in volume (n, T constant).

Objective:  8.1

 

 

2) Some molecules of gas are removed (V, T constant).

Objective:  8.6

 

 

3) The temperature is doubled (V, n constant).

Objective:  8.4

 

 

4) The volume and the Kelvin temperature are reduced by one-half (n constant).

Objective:  8.5

 

 

5) A leak occurs and gas escapes (V, T constant).

Objective:  8.5

 

 

Match the correct formula with the gas law name given.

 

  1. A) =
  2. B) PT= P1+ P2 + P3 …
  3. C) =
  4. D) PV = nRT
  5. E) mass/volume
  6. F) =
  7. G) P1V1= P2V2
  8. H) =

 

6) Boyle’s Law

Objective:  8.1

 

 

7) Combined Gas Law

Objective:  8.5

 

 

8) Charles’s Law

Objective:  8.3

 

 

9) Ideal Gas Law

Objective:  8.7

 

 

10) Avogadro’s Law

Objective:  8.6

 

 

11) Gay-Lussac’s Law

Objective:  8.4

 

 

12) Dalton’s Law

Objective:  8.8

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 9   Solutions

 

9.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The O-H bond in water is polar because

  1. A) it is an ionic bond.
  2. B) oxygen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.
  3. C) oxygen occupies more space than hydrogen.
  4. D) hydrogen is much more electronegative than oxygen.
  5. E) it is a hydrogen bond.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

2) A hydrogen bond is

  1. A) an attraction between a hydrogen atom attached to N, O, or F and an N, O, or F atom on another molecule.
  2. B) a covalent bond between H and O.
  3. C) an ionic bond between H and another atom.
  4. D) a bond that is stronger than a covalent bond.
  5. E) the polar O-H bond in water.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

3) Hydrogen bonds are a major factor in the structure of

  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) hydrogen chloride.
  3. C) dry ice.
  4. D) air.
  5. E) table salt.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

4) In a solution, the solvent

  1. A) is a liquid.
  2. B) can be a liquid or gas.
  3. C) can be a solid, liquid, or gas.
  4. D) is never a solid.
  5. E) is the substance present in the smallest concentration.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

5) Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds?

  1. A) CH4
  2. B) NaH
  3. C) NH3
  4. D) BH3
  5. E) HI

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

6) A solution is prepared by dissolving 2 g of KCl in 100 g of H2O. In this solution, H2O is the

  1. A) solute.
  2. B) solvent.
  3. C) solution.
  4. D) solid.
  5. E) ionic compound.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

7) Oil does not dissolve in water because

  1. A) oil is polar.
  2. B) oil is nonpolar.
  3. C) water is nonpolar.
  4. D) water is saturated.
  5. E) oil is hydrated.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

8) When KCl dissolves in water

  1. A) the Cl-ions are attracted to dissolved K+
  2. B) the Cl-ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecule.
  3. C) the K+ions are attracted to Cl-ions on the KCl crystal.
  4. D) the K+ions are attracted to the partially negative oxygen atoms of the water molecule.
  5. E) the K+ions are attracted to the partially positive hydrogen atoms of the water molecule.

 

Objective:  9.1

 

 

 

9) Water is a polar solvent and hexane (C6H14) is a nonpolar solvent. Which of the following correctly describes the solubility of the solute?

  1. A) mineral oil, soluble in water
  2. B) CaCl2, soluble in hexane
  3. C) NaHCO3, soluble in water
  4. D) CCl4, soluble in water
  5. E) octane, soluble in water

 

Objective:  9.1

 

10) In water, a substance that ionizes completely in solution is called a

  1. A) weak electrolyte.
  2. B) nonelectrolyte.
  3. C) semiconductor.
  4. D) nonconductor.
  5. E) strong electrolyte.

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

11) In water, a substance that partially ionizes in solution is called a

  1. A) weak electrolyte.
  2. B) nonelectrolyte.
  3. C) semiconductor.
  4. D) nonconductor.
  5. E) strong electrolyte.

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

12) An equivalent is

  1. A) the amount of ion that has a 1+
  2. B) the amount of ion that has a 1-
  3. C) the amount of ion that carries 1 mole of electrical charge.
  4. D) 1 mole of any ion.
  5. E) 1 mole of an ionic compound.

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

 

13) How many equivalents are present in 5.0 g of Al3+?

  1. A) 15 Eq
  2. B) 0.56 Eq
  3. C) 0.19 Eq
  4. D) 0.37 Eq
  5. E) 3 Eq

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

14) How many equivalents are present in 5.0 moles of Al3+?

  1. A) 15 Eq
  2. B) 1.3 Eq
  3. C) 5.0 Eq
  4. D) 0.67 Eq
  5. E) 3.0 Eq

 

Objective:  9.2

 

15) An intravenous replacement solution contains 4.0 mEq/L of Ca2+ ions. How many grams of Ca2+ are in 3.0 L of the solution?

  1. A) 0.24 g
  2. B) 0.80 g
  3. C) 0.40 g
  4. D) 240 g
  5. E) 4.0 g

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

16) How many equivalents are present in 0.40 moles of SO42-?

  1. A) 0.10 Eq
  2. B) 0.20 Eq
  3. C) 0.40 Eq
  4. D) 0.80 Eq
  5. E) 1.2 Eq

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

 

17) When some of the sugar added to iced tea remains undissolved at the bottom of the glass, the solution is

  1. A) dilute.
  2. B) polar.
  3. C) nonpolar.
  4. D) saturated.
  5. E) unsaturated.

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

18) The solubility of KI is 50 g in 100 g of H2O at 20 °C. If 110 grams of KI are added to 200 grams of H2O

  1. A) all of the KI will dissolve.
  2. B) the solution will freeze.
  3. C) the solution will start boiling.
  4. D) a saturated solution will form.
  5. E) the solution will be unsaturated.

 

Objective:  9.3

 

19) An increase in the temperature of a solution usually

  1. A) increases the boiling point.
  2. B) increases the solubility of a gas in the solution.
  3. C) increases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.
  4. D) decreases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution.
  5. E) decreases the solubility of a liquid solute in the solution.

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

20) Which one of the following compounds will NOT be soluble in water?

  1. A) NaOH
  2. B) PbS
  3. C) K2SO4
  4. D) LiNO3
  5. E) MgCl2

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

 

21) Which one of the following compounds will NOT be soluble in water?

  1. A) LiOH
  2. B) K2S
  3. C) BaSO4
  4. D) NaNO3
  5. E) MgCl2

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

22) Which one of the following compounds will be soluble in water?

  1. A) AgCl
  2. B) Cu(OH)2
  3. C) LiCl
  4. D) CaSO4
  5. E) PbCO3

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

23) Which one of the following compounds will be soluble in water?

  1. A) AgBr
  2. B) Cu(OH)2
  3. C) NH4Cl
  4. D) CaCO3
  5. E) PbS

 

Objective:  9.3

 

24) Which one of the following compounds will be insoluble in water?

  1. A) AgNO3
  2. B) CaCl2
  3. C) NH4Cl
  4. D) CaCO3
  5. E) Pb(C2H3O2)2

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

 

25) When solutions of KCl and Pb(NO3)2 are mixed, a precipitate forms. Which of the following is the balanced equation for the double replacement reaction that occurs?

  1. A) KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s)
  2. B) KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s) → KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq)
  3. C) K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(aq)
  4. D) 2KCl (aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + PbCl2 (s)
  5. E) KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → KNO3(aq) + PbCl(s)

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

26) When solutions of NaCl and AgNO3 are mixed,

  1. A) a precipitate of AgCl forms.
  2. B) a precipitate of NaNO3
  3. C) no precipitate forms.
  4. D) precipitate of NaNO3and AgCl form.
  5. E) a precipitate of AgCl2

 

Objective:  9.3

 

 

27) According to Henry’s law, the solubility of a gas in a liquid

  1. A) decreases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.
  2. B) increases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases.
  3. C) remains the same as the temperature increases.
  4. D) depends on the liquid polarity.
  5. E) depends on the liquid density.

 

Objective:  9.3

 

28) The mass percent concentration refers to

  1. A) grams of solute in 1 kg of solvent.
  2. B) grams of solute in 1 kg of solution.
  3. C) grams of solute in 100 g of solvent.
  4. D) grams of solute in 100 g of solution.
  5. E) grams of solvent in 100 g of solution.

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

 

29) The mass/volume percent concentration refers to

  1. A) grams of solute in 1 L of solvent.
  2. B) grams of solute in 1 L of solution.
  3. C) grams of solute in 100 mL of solvent.
  4. D) grams of solute in 100 mL of solution.
  5. E) grams of solvent in 100 mL of solution.

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

30) What is the concentration, in mass percent, of a solution prepared from 50.0 g NaCl and 150.0 g of water?

  1. A) 0.250%
  2. B) 33.3%
  3. C) 40.0%
  4. D) 25.0%
  5. E) 3.00%

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

31) Rubbing alcohol is 70.% isopropyl alcohol by volume. How many mL of isopropyl alcohol are in a 1 pint (473 mL) container?

  1. A) 70. mL
  2. B) 0.15 mL
  3. C) 680 mL
  4. D) 470 mL
  5. E) 330 mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

32) What is the concentration, in m/v percent, of a solution prepared from 50. g NaCl and 2.5 L of water?

  1. A) 5.0%
  2. B) 2.0%
  3. C) 0.020%
  4. D) 0.050%
  5. E) 20.%

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

33) How many grams of glucose are needed to prepare 400. mL of a 2.0%(m/v) glucose solution?

  1. A) 800. g
  2. B) 0.0050 g
  3. C) 8.0 g
  4. D) 2.0 g
  5. E) 200. g

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

34) A patient needs to receive 85 grams of glucose every 12 hours. What volume of a 5.0%(m/v) glucose solution needs to be administered to the patient each 12 hours?

  1. A) 1700 mL
  2. B) 60 mL
  3. C) 6000 mL
  4. D) 17 mL
  5. E) 204 mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

35) What volume (mL) of a 15% (m/v) NaOH solution contains 120 g NaOH?

  1. A) 18 mL
  2. B) 0.13 mL
  3. C) 13 mL
  4. D) 120 mL
  5. E) 8.0 × 102mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

36) How many milliliters of a 25% (m/v) NaOH solution would contain 75 g of NaOH?

  1. A) 25 mL
  2. B) 75 mL
  3. C) 33 mL
  4. D) 19 mL
  5. E) 3.0 × 102mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

 

37) What is the molarity of a solution that contains 17 g of NH3 in 0.50 L of solution?

  1. A) 34 M
  2. B) 2.0 M
  3. C) 0.50 M
  4. D) 0.029 M
  5. E) 1.0 M

 

Objective:  9.4

 

38) What is the molarity of a solution that contains 3.25 moles of NaNO3 in 250. mL of solution?

  1. A) 3.25 M
  2. B) 6.50 M
  3. C) 0.0130 M
  4. D) 13.0 M
  5. E) 2.60 M

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

39) When 200. mL of water are added to 100. mL of 12% KCl solution the final concentration of KCl is (Assume the volumes add.)

  1. A) 12%.
  2. B) 4.0%.
  3. C) 36%.
  4. D) 6.0%.
  5. E) 8.0%.

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

40) The molarity (M) of a solution refers to

  1. A) moles of solute/L of solution.
  2. B) moles of solute/L of solvent.
  3. C) moles of solute/100 mL of solution.
  4. D) grams of solute/100 mL of solution.
  5. E) grams of solute/L of solution.

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

 

41) What is the molarity of a solution containing 5.0 moles of KCl in 2.0 L of solution?

  1. A) 2.5 M
  2. B) 1.0 M
  3. C) 5.0 M
  4. D) 10. M
  5. E) 2.0 M

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

42) What is the molarity of a solution which contains 58.5 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 0.500 L of solution?

  1. A) 0.500 M
  2. B) 1.00 M
  3. C) 1.50 M
  4. D) 2.00 M
  5. E) 4.00 M

 

Objective:  9.4

 

43) How many moles of CaCl2 are in 250 mL of a 3.0 M of CaCl2 solution?

  1. A) 750 moles
  2. B) 1.3 moles
  3. C) 83 moles
  4. D) 0.75 mole
  5. E) 3.0 moles

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

44) What volume of a 1.5 M KOH solution is needed to provide 3.0 moles of KOH?

  1. A) 3.0 L
  2. B) 0.50 L
  3. C) 2.0 L
  4. D) 4.5 L
  5. E) 0.22 L

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

 

45) How many grams of PbCl2 are formed when 25.0 mL of 0.654 M KCl react with Pb(NO3)2?

 

2KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s)

 

  1. A) 22.7 g
  2. B) 1.64 g
  3. C) 2.27 g
  4. D) 4.54 g
  5. E) 9.08 g

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

46) How many mL of 0.246 M Pb(NO3)2 are needed to react with 36.0 mL of 0.322 M KCl ?

 

2KCl(aq) + Pb(NO3) 2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + PbCl2(s)

 

  1. A) 36.0 mL
  2. B) 18.0 mL
  3. C) 72.0 mL
  4. D) 47.1 mL
  5. E) 23.6 mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

47) Use the reaction: 2AgNO3(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Ag2SO4(s) + 2H2O(l).

 

What volume of 0.123 M AgNO3(aq) is needed to form 0.657 g of Ag2SO4(s)?

  1. A) 34.2 L
  2. B) 17.1 mL
  3. C) 34.3 mL
  4. D) 10.7 mL
  5. E) 53.4 mL

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

48) During the process of diluting a solution to a lower concentration,

  1. A) the amount of solute does not change.
  2. B) the amount of solvent does not change.
  3. C) there is more solute in the concentrated solution.
  4. D) the volume of the solution does not change.
  5. E) water is removed from the concentrated solution.

 

Objective:  9.5

 

 

49) What is the molarity of a KCl solution made by diluting 75.0 mL of a 0.200 M solution to a final volume of 100. mL?

  1. A) 0.267 M
  2. B) 0.150 M
  3. C) 0.200 M
  4. D) 6.67 M
  5. E) 0.100 M

 

Objective:  9.5

 

 

50) What volume of 2.5% (m/v) KOH can be prepared from 125 mL of a 5.0% KOH solution?

  1. A) 0.0040 mL
  2. B) 63 mL
  3. C) 0.10 mL
  4. D) 125 mL
  5. E) 250 mL

 

Objective:  9.5

 

 

51) What volume of 0.10 M NaOH can be prepared from 250. mL of 0.30 M NaOH?

  1. A) 0.075 L
  2. B) 0.25 L
  3. C) 0.75 L
  4. D) 0.083 L
  5. E) 750 L

 

Objective:  9.5

 

52) What volume of a 2.00 M KCl solution is required to prepare 500. mL of a 0.100 M KCl solution?

  1. A) 0.0400 mL
  2. B) 25.0 mL
  3. C) 2.00 mL
  4. D) 1.00 × 104mL
  5. E) 5.00 × 102mL

 

Objective:  9.5

 

 

 

53) What is the new mass/volume (m/v)% of a KOH solution that is prepared by diluting 110 mL of a 6% (m/v) KOH solution to 330 mL?

  1. A) 2%
  2. B) 1%
  3. C) 6%
  4. D) 12%
  5. E) 18%

 

Objective:  9.5

 

 

54) A homogeneous mixture that does not settle out upon standing is

  1. A) an element.
  2. B) a colloid.
  3. C) a suspension.
  4. D) homogeneous.
  5. E) hydrated.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

55) In the process known as osmosis, ________ moves through a semipermeable membrane into an area of ________ concentration.

  1. A) solute; lower solute
  2. B) solute; higher solute
  3. C) solvent; lower solute
  4. D) solvent; lower solvent
  5. E) solvent; higher solvent

 

Objective:  9.6

 

For the question(s) that follow, consider a 4% starch solution and a 10% starch solution separated by a semipermeable membrane.

 

56) Which starch solution will decrease in volume as osmosis occurs?

  1. A) 4%
  2. B) 10%
  3. C) Neither exerts osmotic pressure.
  4. D) They exert equal osmotic pressures.
  5. E) They exert opposite osmotic pressures.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

 

57) The process that occurs in this system is

  1. A) filtration.
  2. B) hydration.
  3. C) neutralization.
  4. D) dialysis.
  5. E) osmosis.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

58) Which of the following occurs in this system?

  1. A) Water flows equally in both directions.
  2. B) There is a net flow of water from the 4% starch solution into the 10% starch solution.
  3. C) There is a net flow of water from the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.
  4. D) Water does not cross the membrane at all.
  5. E) Starch moves out of the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

59) A solution with the same osmotic pressure as the blood is

  1. A) isotonic to the blood.
  2. B) hypotonic to the blood.
  3. C) hypertonic to the blood.
  4. D) nontonic to the blood.
  5. E) molar to the blood.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

60) A solution that has an osmotic pressure less than that of red blood cells is called

  1. A) saturated.
  2. B) hypertonic.
  3. C) isotonic.
  4. D) hypotonic.
  5. E) unsaturated.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

61) A red blood cell will undergo crenation in

  1. A) water.
  2. B) 0.5% NaCl.
  3. C) 3% glucose.
  4. D) 5% glucose.
  5. E) 7% NaCl.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

62) Which solution is isotonic to a red blood cell?

  1. A) water
  2. B) 0.5% NaCl
  3. C) 2% glucose
  4. D) 0.9% NaCl
  5. E) 10% glucose

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

63) A red blood cell will undergo hemolysis in

  1. A) water.
  2. B) 0.9% NaCl.
  3. C) 5% glucose.
  4. D) 5% NaCl.
  5. E) 10% glucose.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

64) The process by which a semipermeable membrane allows water molecules, small molecules, and ions to pass through while retaining large particles is called

  1. A) osmotic pressure.
  2. B) dialysis.
  3. C) solvation.
  4. D) dilution.
  5. E) hydration.

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

65) An aqueous mixture containing starch (a colloid), NaCl, glucose, and albumin (a colloid) is placed in a dialyzing bag and immersed in distilled water. Which of the following correctly describes the location of the indicated substance after dialysis?

  1. A) albumin, inside
  2. B) starch outside
  3. C) albumin inside and outside
  4. D) water inside only
  5. E) starch inside and outside

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

66) 1.0 mole of NaCl is added to 1.0 kg of water. The freezing point of the solution will be ________ the freezing point of pure water.

  1. A) higher than
  2. B) lower than
  3. C) the same as

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

67) 0.50 mole of KCl is added to 2.0 kg of water. The boiling point of the solution will be ________ the boiling point of pure water.

  1. A) higher than
  2. B) lower than
  3. C) the same as

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

68) 0.50 mole of NaCl is added to 1.0 kg of water. The freezing point of the solution will be ________.

  1. A) 0.00 °C
  2. B) 0.93 °C
  3. C) 1.86 °C
  4. D) -0.93 °C
  5. E) -1.86 °C

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

69) What is the osmolarity of a solution made by dissolving 0.50 mole of the strong electrolyte CaCl2 in 1.0 L of solution?

  1. A) 0.50 Osm
  2. B) 1.0 Osm
  3. C) 1.5 Osm
  4. D) 2.0 Osm
  5. E) 0.0 Osm

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

70) What is the osmolarity of a solution made by dissolving 25.0 g of the strong electrolyte KCl in 1.0 L of solution?

  1. A) 0.168 Osm
  2. B) 0.335 Osm
  3. C) 0.250 Osm
  4. D) 0.670 Osm
  5. E) 1.34 Osm

 

Objective:  9.6

 

9.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) Acetic acid can be classified as a(n) ________.

  1. A) gas
  2. B) solid
  3. C) weak electrolyte
  4. D) strong electrolyte
  5. E) ionic compound

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

2) NaCl can be classified as a ________.

  1. A) gas
  2. B) liquid
  3. C) weak electrolyte
  4. D) strong electrolyte
  5. E) nonelectrolyte

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

3) Methanol, CH3OH, can be classified as a ________.

  1. A) gas
  2. B) solid
  3. C) weak electrolyte
  4. D) strong electrolyte
  5. E) nonelectrolyte

 

Objective:  9.2

 

 

4) The molarity of a solution of 5.0 g of KCl in 100. mL of solution is ________.

  1. A) 0.038 M
  2. B) 0.067 M
  3. C) 0.67 M
  4. D) 0.13 M
  5. E) 1.3 M

 

Objective:  9.4

 

 

 

5) If 100. mL of water is added to 25 mL of 5.0 M NaCl, the final concentration is ________.

  1. A) 25 M
  2. B) 1.0 M
  3. C) 5.0 M
  4. D) 2.0 M
  5. E) 1.3 M

 

Objective:  9.5

 

6) Using a kidney machine to remove waste products from the blood is known as ________.

  1. A) osmosis
  2. B) osmolysis
  3. C) autolysis
  4. D) hemolysis
  5. E) hemodialysis

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

7) A mixture in which one component settles is called a(n) ________.

  1. A) solution
  2. B) colloid
  3. C) suspension
  4. D) electrolyte
  5. E) nonelectrolyte

 

Objective:  9.6

 

 

9.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) A substance that carries an electric current when dissolved in water is called a(n) ________.

lectrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

2) A substance that produces only a small number of ions in solution is known as a ________ electrolyte.

 

 

3) A solution of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3,  that has a molarity of 0.0100 M contains ________ equivalents of carbonate per liter of the solution.

 

 

 

4) A solution of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3,  that has a molarity of 0.0100 M contains ________ equivalents of sodium ions per liter of the solution.

 

 

5) Is barium sulfate, BaSO4, soluble or insoluble in water?

 

6) In the following equation, ________ will form a precipitate.

 

NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3

 

 

7) In the following equation, ________ will form a precipitate.

 

BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

 

 

8) The number of moles of a compound dissolved in one liter of a solution is called the ________.

 

 

9) If 25.0 mL of a 0.800 M KCl solution is diluted to a final volume of 100. mL, the new concentration is ________.

 

 

10) Substances whose particles in solution scatter light and pass through filters but cannot pass through semipermeable membranes are called ________.

 

 

9.4   Matching Questions

 

Identify the term defined in each description.

 

  1. A) hypotonic
  2. B) hydrogen bonding
  3. C) unsaturated
  4. D) hypertonic
  5. E) saturated
  6. F) hydration

 

1) a solution that contains the highest amount of solute that dissolves at a given temperature

Objective:  9.3

 

 

2) the major attraction between water molecules

Objective:  9.1

 

 

3) the association of several water molecules with ions produced in a solution

Objective:  9.1

 

 

4) a solution in which more solute can be dissolved

Objective:  9.3

 

 

5) a solution that has a higher osmotic pressure than the red blood cells of the body

Objective:  9.6

 

 

Match the type of mixture with the appropriate characteristics.

 

  1. A) suspension
  2. B) colloid
  3. C) solution

 

6) a mixture of sodium chloride in water

Objective:  9.6

 

 

7) a mixture whose particles settle on standing

Objective:  9.6

 

 

8) a homogeneous mixture in which suspended particles cannot pass through a semipermeable membrane

Objective:  9.6

 

 

9) a mixture whose particles cannot be separated by filters or semipermeable membranes

Objective:  9.6

 

 

10) a mixture whose particles can be separated by filters

Objective:  9.6

 

 

Compare the osmotic pressure of these solutions to the osmotic pressure of red blood cells.

 

  1. A) hypertonic
  2. B) isotonic
  3. C) hypotonic

 

11) water

Objective:  9.6

 

 

12) 0.5% NaCl

Objective:  9.6

 

 

13) 7% glucose

Objective:  9.6

 

 

14) 5% glucose

Objective:  9.6

 

 

15) 0.9% NaCl

Objective:  9.6

 

 

Indicate whether each of the following compounds dissolves in water to give ions, molecules, or both.

 

  1. A) both
  2. B) ions
  3. C) molecules

 

16) NaCl, a strong electrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

17) HI, a strong electrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

18) CH3CH2OH, a nonelectrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

19) KNO3, a strong electrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

20) glucose, a nonelectrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

21) H2CO3, a weak electrolyte

Objective:  9.2

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 10   Reaction Rates and Chemical Equilibrium

 

10.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) A catalyst is

  1. A) a reactant in a chemical reaction.
  2. B) a product in a chemical reaction.
  3. C) a substance that speeds up a reaction without being consumed in the reaction.
  4. D) a substance that increases the energy of the products.
  5. E) a substance that decreases the energy of the products.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

2) The activation energy of a chemical reaction is the energy that

  1. A) must be removed from the mixture.
  2. B) must be released from the mixture.
  3. C) initiates the reaction.
  4. D) activates the catalyst.
  5. E) is the difference in the energies of the starting materials and products.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

3) In a catalyzed chemical reaction, one function of a catalyst is to

  1. A) increase the number of successful reactant collisions.
  2. B) decrease the concentration of reactants.
  3. C) change the equilibrium concentrations of the products and reactants.
  4. D) increase the energy given off during the reaction.
  5. E) increase the temperature at which the reaction is carried out.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

4) The rate of any chemical reaction can be determined by observing

  1. A) the amount of product formed in a unit of time.
  2. B) the ratio of product concentration to reactant concentration.
  3. C) the percent composition of the final product.
  4. D) the theoretical yield of the reaction.
  5. E) the number of chemical bonds broken and remade.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

5) In any chemical reaction, the rate of the reaction can be increased by

  1. A) decreasing the temperature.
  2. B) changing the size of the container.
  3. C) adding water to the reaction.
  4. D) adding product molecules to the reaction mixture.
  5. E) increasing the concentrations of the reactants.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

6) Refrigerating perishable foods affects biochemical reactions by

  1. A) increasing concentrations of antioxidants.
  2. B) removing bacteria.
  3. C) decreasing the rate of reactions affecting spoilage.
  4. D) catalyzing the removal of harmful chemicals from the foods.
  5. E) improving the appearance of the foods.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

7) In a catalytic converter in an automobile, the reaction of carbon monoxide with oxygen produces

  1. A) carbon dioxide.
  2. B) carbon and more oxygen.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) methane.
  5. E) nitrogen oxide.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

8) One metal that is used as a catalyst in a catalytic converter in an automobile is

  1. A) carbon.
  2. B) iron.
  3. C) copper.
  4. D) platinum.
  5. E) plutonium.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

9) In the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia, all the reactants and products are

  1. A) gases.
  2. B) liquids.
  3. C) solids.
  4. D) boiling.
  5. E) frozen.

 

Objective:  10.2

 

10) A reaction that can proceed in either the forward or the reverse direction as written is called a ________ reaction.

  1. A) reversible
  2. B) miniscule
  3. C) microscopic
  4. D) solid phase
  5. E) favored

 

Objective:  10.2

 

 

11) A chemical reaction has reached equilibrium when

  1. A) the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.
  2. B) all reactants have been converted to products.
  3. C) all products have been removed from the reaction mixture.
  4. D) the catalyst has been used up.
  5. E) the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

 

Objective:  10.2

 

 

12) When a reaction is at equilibrium,

  1. A) all reaction stops.
  2. B) no more reactants are converted to products.
  3. C) the reaction is no longer reversible.
  4. D) the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.
  5. E) the products and reactants have the same energy content.

 

Objective:  10.2

 

 

13) The equation for the formation of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is shown below. What is the form of the equilibrium constant?

 

3H2(g) + N2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

 

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

14) The reaction for the decomposition of PCl5 to chlorine and PCl3 is shown below.

 

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

 

If the equilibrium concentrations are [PCl5] = 1.0 M, [PCl3] = 0.10 M, [Cl2] = 0.10 M, what is the value of the equilibrium constant?

  1. A) 1.0 × 10-2
  2. B) 1.0 × 10-4
  3. C) 10 × 10-2
  4. D) 1.0 × 102
  5. E) 2.0 × 10-2

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

15) What is the correct form for the equilibrium constant expression for this reaction?

 

H2(g) + F2(g) ⇌ 2HF(g)

 

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

16) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for the reaction of hydrogen and oxygen to form water? The equation is:

 

2H2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ H2O(g)

 

  1. A) Kc=
  2. B) Kc=
  3. C) Kc=
  4. D) Kc=
  5. E) Kc=

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

17) An equilibrium in which all the components are gases is a ________ equilibrium.

  1. A) heterogeneous
  2. B) liquid
  3. C) catalytic
  4. D) homogeneous
  5. E) reversible

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

18) For the following reaction, the equilibrium concentration of NO2 is 0.38 M and equilibrium concentration of N2O4 is 1.0M. What is the value of the equilibrium constant?

 

2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g)

 

  1. A) 0.14
  2. B) 2.6
  3. C) 6.9
  4. D) 0.38
  5. E) 1.0

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

19) The equilibrium for the reaction for the decomposition of PCl5 to chlorine and PCl3 is 0.042.

 

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g)+ Cl2(g)

 

If the equilibrium concentrations are [PCl3] = 0.010 M, [Cl2] = 0.10 M, what is the value of [PCl5]?

  1. A) 0.010 M
  2. B) 0.0020 M
  3. C) 0.042 M
  4. D) 0.024 M
  5. E) 0.0010 M

 

Objective:  10.2

 

 

20) In the following gas phase reaction, Kc is much less than 1. At equilibrium, which of the following statements is true?

 

COCl2(g) ⇌ CO(g) + Cl2(g)

 

  1. A) The concentration of reactant is much greater than the concentration of products.
  2. B) The concentration of products is much greater than the concentration of reactants.
  3. C) The concentrations of products and reactants are approximately equal.
  4. D) A catalyst will increase the concentration of products formed.
  5. E) At equilibrium, the concentrations of reactants and products are equal.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

21) The equilibrium constant for the production of carbon dioxide from carbon monoxide and oxygen is

Kc = 2 × 1011. This means that the reaction mixture at equilibrium is likely to consist of

  1. A) mostly starting materials.
  2. B) an equal mixture of products and reactants.
  3. C) twice as much starting material as product.
  4. D) twice as much product as starting material.
  5. E) mostly products.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

22) Which of the following equilibrium constants indicates the reaction that gives the smallest amount of product?

  1. A) Kc= 5 × 10-10
  2. B) Kc= 5 × 10-1
  3. C) Kc= 5 × 100
  4. D) Kc= 5 × 101
  5. E) Kc= 5 × 1010

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

23) The value of the equilibrium constant for the combination of nitrogen and oxygen to make NO is 2 × 10-9. What does this tell you about the concentrations of materials in the equilibrium mixture?

  1. A) The concentration of products exceeds the concentration of reactants.
  2. B) The concentrations of reactants and products are equal.
  3. C) The reactants are solids.
  4. D) The concentration of reactants exceeds the concentration of products.
  5. E) The products are solids.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

24) Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin 140 times more strongly than oxygen does. What does this tell you about the equilibrium constants for the two reactions of hemoglobin with carbon monoxide and oxygen?

  1. A) The equilibrium constant for the binding of CO is greater.
  2. B) The equilibrium constant for the binding of oxygen is greater.
  3. C) The concentration of carbon monoxide at equilibrium is twice that of oxygen.
  4. D) Oxygen and carbon monoxide have the same formula mass.
  5. E) Oxygen and carbon monoxide react with hemoglobin in different fashions.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

25) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. If the concentration of both products is 0.10 M at equilibrium, what is the concentration of the starting material, NOBr?

 

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

 

  1. A) 5 × 10-4 M
  2. B) 2.2 × 10-4M
  3. C) 5 × 10-2M
  4. D) 2.2 × 10-2M
  5. E) 2.2 M

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

26) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 0.60 at a certain temperature. If the concentration of NO(g) and NOBr(g) are both 0.50 M,at equilibrium, what is the concentration of Br2(g)?

 

2NO(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2NOBr(g)

 

  1. A) 1.7 M
  2. B) 0.60 M
  3. C) 0.36 M
  4. D) 2.8 M
  5. E) 1.0 M

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

27) For the following equilibrium reaction, which cause and effect are correctly matched?

 

CO(g) + 2H2(g) ⇌ CH3OH(g) + heat

 

  1. A) add heat, shift right
  2. B) add CO, shift left
  3. C) remove CH3OH, shift left
  4. D) remove heat, no change
  5. E) remove H2, shift left

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

28) In the following gas phase reaction, what is the effect of adding more NO2 to the starting reaction mixture?

 

2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g)

 

  1. A) It would make the reaction more endothermic.
  2. B) It would make the reaction more exothermic.
  3. C) It would slow the reaction down.
  4. D) It would decrease the final quantity of products.
  5. E) It would increase the final quantity of products.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

29) The physiological equilibrium system that keeps the temperature of the body constant is called

  1. A) stimulation.
  2. B) regulation.
  3. C) metabolism.
  4. D) homeostasis.
  5. E) catalysis.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

30) When you open a bottle of a soft drink and leave it open, the drink eventually goes flat. This happens because the equilibrium between carbonic acid and carbon dioxide shifts to produce

  1. A) more carbonic acid.
  2. B) more water.
  3. C) more oxygen.
  4. D) more carbon dioxide.
  5. E) more hydrogen ions.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

31) Iron metal reacts with oxygen gas to produce iron(III) oxide. What will be the effect of increasing the pressure of oxygen gas in a closed reaction vessel?

  1. A) Less reaction will take place.
  2. B) More iron oxide will be produced.
  3. C) The reaction mixture will catch fire.
  4. D) There is no effect; a catalyst is needed.
  5. E) The rate of production of iron oxide will slow down.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

32) In the following gas phase reaction, what is the effect on the direction of the reaction if more SO3 is added to the reaction mixture?

 

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

 

  1. A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more products.
  2. B) The position of the equilibrium remains unchanged.
  3. C) The rate of formation of products is increased.
  4. D) The equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants.
  5. E) The catalyst for the reaction is used up.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

33) In the reaction of nitrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce nitrogen oxide, what is the effect of adding more oxygen gas to the initial reaction mixture? The reaction is shown below.

 

N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

 

  1. A) The equilibrium shifts to produce more N2.
  2. B) The equilibrium shifts to produce more NO.
  3. C) The equilibrium is not affected.
  4. D) Extra catalyst is required to reach equilibrium.
  5. E) The temperature of the reaction mixture is raised.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

34) The reaction of hemoglobin with oxygen can be written as follows.

 

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2

 

If the amount of oxygen available to the blood decreases significantly, what happens to the individual involved?

  1. A) Hypoxia results.
  2. B) Anemia results.
  3. C) Nitrogen narcosis results.
  4. D) Oxygen poisoning results.
  5. E) Acclimatization results.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

35) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

 

For the reaction at equilibrium, if the volume of the container is decreased, the amount of NO present will

  1. A) decrease.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) double.
  4. D) stay the same.
  5. E) triple.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

36) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

 

For the reaction at equilibrium, if O2 is added, the amount of SO2 present will

  1. A) decrease.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) stay the same.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

 

37) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g)+ Cl2 (g)

 

For the reaction at equilibrium, if the volume of the container is increased, the amount of PCl5 present will

  1. A) decrease.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) double.
  4. D) stay the same.
  5. E) triple.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

38) Treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning can be accomplished by the use of pure oxygen for breathing. This is an example of the use of ________ in a clinical setting.

  1. A) the ideal gas law
  2. B) Le Châtelier’s principle
  3. C) Henry’s law
  4. D) conservation of mass
  5. E) a precipitation reaction

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

39) In the reaction of carbon dioxide with water to give carbonic acid, the only gaseous component is the carbon dioxide. What will happen to the equilibrium concentration of carbonic acid if the pressure of carbon dioxide is increased in the container?

  1. A) The concentration of carbonic acid will increase.
  2. B) The carbonic acid concentration will decrease.
  3. C) The carbonic acid concentration will stay the same.
  4. D) There will be twice as much carbonic acid as carbon dioxide.
  5. E) There will be more water available for the reaction.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

40) In an exothermic reaction, heat can be considered a

  1. A) reactant.
  2. B) product.
  3. C) rate.
  4. D) catalyst.
  5. E) determinant.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

 

41) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. The reaction is endothermic. What do you expect to happen to the concentration of NO if the temperature is doubled?

 

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

 

  1. A) The concentration of NO will increase.
  2. B) The concentration of NO will decrease.
  3. C) There will be no change in [NO].
  4. D) A catalyst will be needed to make a change in concentration.
  5. E) The change in concentration of [NO] will depend on the size of the vessel.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

42) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. Bromine can be liquefied easily and removed from the reaction vessel as it is formed. If this is done, how will it affect the equilibrium reaction?

 

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

 

  1. A) More products will be made as Br2is removed.
  2. B) There will be a larger proportion NOBr in the vessel when equilibrium is reached.
  3. C) Less NO will be made.
  4. D) The pressure in the vessel will increase.
  5. E) The equilibrium constant will change.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

43) 3H2(g) + N2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat

 

For the reaction at equilibrium, if the temperature is raised, the amount of N2 will

  1. A) decrease.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) stay the same.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

 

10.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) The ________ is the energy difference between reactants and products in a chemical reaction.

  1. A) transition energy
  2. B) activation energy
  3. C) product energy
  4. D) overall energy
  5. E) heat of reaction

 

Objective:  10.1

 

2) What is the correct form of the equilibrium constant for this reaction?

 

2H2O2 (g) ⇌ 2H2O (g) + O2 (g)

 

A)

B)

C)

D)

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

 

3) For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant Kc is 2.0 at a certain temperature. Write the equilibrium constant expression of the equilibrium constant, Kc.

 

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g)

 

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

 

For the reaction at equilibrium, if O2 is removed, the amount of SO2 present will

  1. A) decrease
  2. B) increase
  3. C) stay the same

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

10.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Write the equilibrium constant expression for the reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to give ammonia,

NH3.

 

 

2) The equilibrium between hemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin in the blood can be represented by the following reaction. Write the form of the equilibrium constant expression.

 

Hb + O2 ⇌ HbO2

 

 

3) A mixture at equilibrium that contains less product than reactant has a Kc that is ________ than 1.

 

 

4) An equilibrium constant with a value greater than 1 means the reaction favors the ________.

 

 

5) The rule or principle that describes the effect of changing reaction conditions on an equilibrium is known as ________ principle.

 

 

10.4   True/False Questions

 

1) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

2) Activation energy is always a large amount of energy.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

3) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on temperature.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

4) The rate of a chemical reaction is not affected by the concentration of reactants.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

5) A catalyst for a chemical reaction affects the magnitude of the equilibrium constant.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

6) One of the substances acted upon by a catalytic converter in an automobile is carbon dioxide.

 

Objective:  10.1

 

 

7) At equilibrium, the concentrations of the reactants and products are always equal.

 

Objective:  10.2

 

 

8) The equilibrium constant is the ratio of the concentrations of the reactants over the concentrations of the products.

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

9) The equilibrium constant for the reaction of H2 and F2 to form HF, the concentration of HF is raised to the second power.

 

 

Objective:  10.3

 

 

10) An equilibrium constant Kc = 1 × 107 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors product formation.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

11) An equilibrium constant greater than 1 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors formation of the products.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

12) An equilibrium constant Kc = 1 × 10-3 for a reaction indicates that the reaction favors product formation.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

13) If the equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 × 10-5, this means that the equilibrium mixture contains mostly reactants.

 

Objective:  10.4

 

 

14) The equilibrium constant for a reaction does not change with temperature.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

15) An example of a stress on an equilibrium is the increase of pressure in a closed system when the pressure of a reactant gas is increased from 1.0 atm to 2.0 atm.

 

Objective:  10.5

 

 

 

10.5   Matching Questions

 

Indicate the effect of each change upon the rate of a reaction.

 

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) increases

 

1) adding a catalyst

 

 

 

2) removing some reactant

 

 

 

3) The temperature is doubled.

 

 

 

4) The concentration of a reactant is decreased.

 

 

 

5) More collisions between molecules occur.

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 11   Acids and Bases

 

11.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) According to the Arrhenius concept, if NaOH were dissolved in water, it would act as

  1. A) a base.
  2. B) an acid.
  3. C) a source of hydronium ions.
  4. D) a source of H-
  5. E) a proton donor.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

2) According to the Arrhenius concept, if HNO3 were dissolved in water, it would act as

  1. A) a base.
  2. B) an acid.
  3. C) a source of hydroxide ions.
  4. D) a source of H-
  5. E) a proton acceptor.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

3) The name given to an aqueous solution of HBr is

  1. A) hydrogen bromide.
  2. B) hydrobromic acid.
  3. C) bromic acid.
  4. D) bromous acid.
  5. E) hypobromous acid.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

4) The name given to an aqueous solution of HNO3 is

  1. A) nitric acid.
  2. B) nitrous acid.
  3. C) hydrogen nitrate.
  4. D) hydronitrogen acid.
  5. E) hyponitric acid.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

5) The name given to an aqueous solution of HClO3 is

  1. A) chlorous acid.
  2. B) hypochlorous acid.
  3. C) chloric acid.
  4. D) hydrochloric acid.
  5. E) hypochloric acid.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

6) Which one of the following is characteristic of a base?

  1. A) produces H3O+ in water
  2. B) has a sour taste
  3. C) has a slippery, soapy feel
  4. D) turns blue litmus red
  5. E) is insoluble in water

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

7) The correct formula for sulfuric acid is

  1. A) H2SO4.
  2. B) H2SO3.
  3. C) H2SO4-.
  4. D) H2SO3-.
  5. E) SO42-.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

8) The name of Al(OH)3 is

  1. A) aluminum trihydroxide.
  2. B) monoaluminum trihydroxide.
  3. C) aluminum hydroxide.
  4. D) aluminum(III) hydroxide.
  5. E) aluminum oxygen hydride.

 

Objective:  11.1

 

 

 

9) According to the Brønsted-Lowry definition,

  1. A) an acid is a proton acceptor.
  2. B) a base produces H+ions in aqueous solutions.
  3. C) a base is a proton donor.
  4. D) a base is a proton acceptor.
  5. E) an acid acts as the solvent.

 

Objective:  11.2

 

10) Identify the Brønsted-Lowry acids in the following reaction.

 

H2O + CO32- → HCO3- + OH-

 

  1. A) H2O/HCO3-
  2. B) CO32-/HCO3-
  3. C) OH-/HCO3-
  4. D) CO32-/OH-
  5. E) H2CO3/H2O

 

Objective:  11.2

 

 

11) The conjugate base of HClO3 is

  1. A) HClO2.
  2. B) ClO3-.
  3. C) Cl(OH)2.
  4. D) ClO3.
  5. E) HClO.

 

Objective:  11.2

 

 

12) The conjugate acid of HSO4- is

  1. A) SO42-.
  2. B) HSO4.
  3. C) H2SO4.
  4. D) H2SO4-.
  5. E) HSO3-.

 

Objective:  11.2

 

 

 

13) Which of the following is the strongest acid?

  1. A) H3PO4
  2. B) NH4+
  3. C) NaOH
  4. D) H2CO3
  5. E) HCl

 

Objective:  11.3

 

14) The stronger the acid, the ________ the conjugate base.

  1. A) stronger
  2. B) weaker

 

Objective:  11.3

 

 

15) Which of the following is the strongest base?

  1. A) H3PO4
  2. B) NH3
  3. C) NaOH
  4. D) NaCl
  5. E) HCl

 

Objective:  11.3

 

 

16) Which of the following is correctly identified?

  1. A) NH3, strong acid
  2. B) NaOH, strong base
  3. C) HCl, weak acid
  4. D) H2CO3, strong acid
  5. E) Ca(OH)2, weak base

 

Objective:  11.3

 

 

17) Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base because

  1. A) it is a dilute solution.
  2. B) it is only slightly soluble in water.
  3. C) it cannot hold on to its hydroxide ions.
  4. D) it dissociates only slightly in water.
  5. E) it is completely ionized in aqueous solution.

 

Objective:  11.3

 

 

 

18) Which of the following is the strongest acid?

  1. A) HF (Kafor HF is 7.2 × 10-4)
  2. B) HCN (Kafor HCN is 4.9 × 10-10)
  3. C) HCNO (Kafor HCNO is 2 × 10-4)
  4. D) H3BO3(Kafor H3BO3 is 5.4 × 10-10)

 

Objective:  11.4

 

19) Which of the following is the weakest acid?

  1. A) HF (Kafor HF is 7.2 × 10-4)
  2. B) HCN (Kafor HCN is 4.9 × 10-10)
  3. C) HCNO (Kafor HCNO is 2 × 10-4)
  4. D) H3BO3(Kafor H3BO3 is 5.4 × 10-10)

 

Objective:  11.4

 

 

20) The Ka for hydrofluoric acid is 7.2 × 10-4. This means that HF is

  1. A) neutral in water solution.
  2. B) able to react with HCl.
  3. C) a weak acid.
  4. D) a strong acid.
  5. E) ionic.

 

Objective:  11.4

 

 

21) Predict whether the equilibrium of the following reaction favors reactants or products:

 

NH4+ + H2O ⇌ NH3 + H3O+

 

  1. A) Reactants are favored.
  2. B) Products are favored.
  3. C) Neither side is favored.

 

Objective:  11.4

 

 

 

22) For Kw, the product of [ H3O+] and [OH-] is

  1. A) 1.0 × 10-14.
  2. B) 1.0 × 10-7.
  3. C) 1.0 × 10-1.
  4. D) 1.0.
  5. E) 1.0 × 1014.

 

Objective:  11.5

 

23) Which of the following statements correctly describes the hydronium-hydroxide balance in the given solution?

  1. A) In acids, [OH-] is greater than [ H3O+].
  2. B) In bases, [OH-] = [ H3O+].
  3. C) In neutral solutions, [ H3O+] = [ H2O].
  4. D) In bases, [OH-] is greater than [ H3O+].
  5. E) In bases, [OH-] is less than [ H3O+].

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

24) What is the [ H3O+] in a solution with [OH-] = 1 × 10-12 M?

  1. A) 1 × 10-12 M
  2. B) 1 × 102 M
  3. C) 1 × 10-7 M
  4. D) 1 × 10-8 M
  5. E) 1 × 10-2 M

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

25) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a [ H3O+] = 1 × 10-6 M?

  1. A) 1 × 10-2 M
  2. B) 1 × 10-6 M
  3. C) 1 × 10-8 M
  4. D) 1 × 10-10 M
  5. E) 1 × 10-12 M

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

 

26) What is the [OH-] in a solution that has a [ H3O+] = 2.0 × 10-4 M?

  1. A) 2.0 × 10-10 M
  2. B) 5.0 × 10-10 M
  3. C) 1.0 × 10-10 M
  4. D) 2.0 × 10-4 M
  5. E) 5.0 × 10-11 M

 

Objective:  11.5

 

27) What is the [ H3O+] in a solution that has a [OH-] = 5.0 × 10-2 M?

  1. A) 2.0 × 10-12 M
  2. B) 2.0 × 10-2 M
  3. C) 1.0 × 10-14 M
  4. D) 2.0 × 10-4 M
  5. E) 5.0 × 10-12 M

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

28) A solution which has [ H3O+] = 6.7 × 10-8 M is

  1. A) acidic.
  2. B) basic.
  3. C) neutral.

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

29) A solution which has [OH-] = 4.6 × 10-6 M is

  1. A) acidic.
  2. B) basic.
  3. C) neutral.

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

30) A solution which has [OH-] = 3.4 × 10-12 M is

  1. A) acidic.
  2. B) basic.
  3. C) neutral..

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

 

31) A solution with a pH of 4 is

  1. A) extremely acidic.
  2. B) moderately acidic.
  3. C) neutral.
  4. D) slightly basic.
  5. E) extremely basic.

 

Objective:  11.6

 

32) What is the pH of a solution with [ H3O+] = 1 × 10-9 M?

  1. A) 1.0 × 10-5 M
  2. B) -9.0
  3. C) 5.0
  4. D) -5.0
  5. E) 9.0

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

33) What is the pH of a solution with [ H3O+] = 3.0 × 10-3 M?

  1. A) 3.0 × 10-3
  2. B) 2.52
  3. C) 3.0
  4. D) -2.52
  5. E) 9.0

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

34) What is the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 1 × 10-4 M?

  1. A) 10.0
  2. B) -10.0
  3. C) 4.0
  4. D) -4.0
  5. E) 1.0 × 10-10

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

 

35) What is the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 2.0 × 10-10 M?

  1. A) 9.70
  2. B) -9.70
  3. C) 4.30
  4. D) -4.30
  5. E) 2.0 × 10-10

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

36) The [ H3O+] of a solution with pH = 2 is

  1. A) 10 M.
  2. B) -10 M.
  3. C) 1 × 102
  4. D) 1 × 10-2
  5. E) 1 × 10-12

 

Objective:  11.6

 

37) In which of the following are the pH values arranged from the most basic to the most acidic?

  1. A) 1, 3, 6, 8, 11, 14
  2. B) 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11
  3. C) 14, 10, 7, 4, 3, 1
  4. D) 14, 10, 7, 1, 3, 5
  5. E) 7, 10, 14, 4, 3, 1

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

38) In which of the following are the pH values arranged from the most acidic to the most basic?

  1. A) 1, 3, 6, 8, 11, 14
  2. B) 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 1.1
  3. C) 14, 10, 7, 4, 3, 1
  4. D) 14, 10, 7, 1, 3, 5
  5. E) 7, 10, 14, 4, 3, 1

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

 

39) In a sulfuric acid solution, where the  [ H3O+] is 0.01 M, what is the pH?

  1. A) pH = 12.0
  2. B) pH = 2.0
  3. C) pH = 3.0
  4. D) pH = 11.0
  5. E) pH = 5.0

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

40) The [ H3O+] of a solution with pH = 5.60 is

  1. A) 3 × 10-6
  2. B) 2.5 × 10-8
  3. C) 2.5 × 10-6
  4. D) 4.0 × 10-6
  5. E) 4.0 × 10-9

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

41) The  [OH-] of a solution with pH = 8.34 is

  1. A) 5 × 10-9
  2. B) 4.6 × 10-9
  3. C) 2.2 × 10-9
  4. D) 3 × 10-6
  5. E) 2.2 × 10-6

 

Objective:  11.6

 

42) When a piece of magnesium metal is added to hydrochloric acid, what gas is produced?

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) chlorine
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) hydrogen

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

 

43) An acid and base react to form a salt and water in a(n) ________ reaction.

  1. A) ionization
  2. B) dissociation
  3. C) oxidation
  4. D) neutralization
  5. E) reduction

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

44) In a neutralization reaction

  1. A) two acids react to form water.
  2. B) water and a salt react to form an acid and a base.
  3. C) an acid and a salt react to form water and a base.
  4. D) a base and a salt react to form water and an acid.
  5. E) an acid and a base react to form a salt and water.

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

45) Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the complete neutralization of H3PO4 with Ca(OH)2?

  1. A) H3PO4+ Ca(OH)2→ CaHPO4 + 2H2O
  2. B) 3H3PO4+ Ca(OH)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + 5H2O
  3. C) H3PO4+ Ca(OH)2→ Ca3(PO4)2+ H2O
  4. D) 2H3PO4+ 3Ca(OH)2→ Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H2O
  5. E) 4H3PO4+ 6Ca(OH)2→ 2Ca3(PO4)2 + 12H2O

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

46) The neutralization reaction between Al(OH)3 and HNO3 produces the salt with the formula

  1. A) H2
  2. B) AlNO3.
  3. C) AlH2.
  4. D) Al(NO3)3.
  5. E) NO3

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

47) How many moles of H2O are produced when 1 mole of Mg(OH)2 reacts with 1 mole of H2SO4?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

48) In a neutralization reaction, how many moles of HClO4 react with 1 mole of  Al(OH)3?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

49) Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?

  1. A) KCl + NaNO3→ KNO3+ NaCl
  2. B) HNO3+ KOH → H2O + KNO3
  3. C) H2O + SO3→ H2SO4
  4. D) 4Na + O2→ 2Na2O
  5. E) 2NO2→ 2NO + O2

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

50) 25.0 mL of 0.212 M NaOH is neutralized by 13.6 mL of an HCl solution. The molarity of the HCl solution is

  1. A) 0.212 M.
  2. B) 0.115 M.
  3. C) 0.500 M.
  4. D) 0.390 M.
  5. E) 0.137 M.

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

51) What is the molarity of a KOH solution if 25.0 mL neutralizes 35.0 mL of a 0.200 M HCl solution?

  1. A) 0.267 M
  2. B) 0.143 M
  3. C) 0.200 M
  4. D) 0.280 M
  5. E) 0.100 M

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

52) A 25.0 mL sample of H3PO4 requires 50.0 mL of 1.50 M NaOH for complete neutralization. What is the molarity of the acid?

 

H3PO4 + 3NaOH →Na3PO4 + 3H2O

 

  1. A) 0.333 M
  2. B) 3.00 M
  3. C) 1.50 M
  4. D) 1.00 M
  5. E) 0.750 M

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

53) A 25.0 mL sample of H2SO4 requires 20.0 mL of 2.00 M KOH for complete neutralization. What is the molarity of the acid?

 

H2SO4 + 2KOH → K2SO4 + 2H2O

 

  1. A) 2.00 M
  2. B) 2.50 M
  3. C) 0.800 M
  4. D) 1.60 M
  5. E) 1.25 M

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

54) A 10.0 mL of 0.121 M H2SO4 is neutralized by 17.1 mL of KOH solution. The molarity of the KOH solution is

  1. A) 0.207 M.
  2. B) 0.4141 M.
  3. C) 0.0708 M.
  4. D) 0.428 M.
  5. E) 0.142 M.

 

Objective:  11.8

 

55) How many milliliters of 0.400 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.200 M HCl?

  1. A) 50.0 mL
  2. B) 40.0 mL
  3. C) 0.100 mL
  4. D) 20.0 mL
  5. E) 10.0 mL

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

56) How many milliliters of 0.200 M NaOH are required to completely neutralize 5.00 mL of 0.100 M H3PO4?

  1. A) 7.50 mL
  2. B) 2.50 mL
  3. C) 0.833 mL
  4. D) 5.00 mL
  5. E) 15.0 mL

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

57) How many milliliters of 0.100 M Ba(OH)2 are required to neutralize 20.0 mL of 0.250 M HCl?

  1. A) 100. mL
  2. B) 50.0 mL
  3. C) 25.0 mL
  4. D) 0.250 mL
  5. E) 0.50 mL

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

For the problem(s) that follow, consider the reaction in which magnesium reacts with an HCl solution .

 

Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2(g)

 

58) If 2.00 g of Mg reacts completely with 50.0 mL of HCl solution, what is the molarity of the HCl solution?

  1. A) 1.65 M
  2. B) 80.0 M
  3. C) 8.00 M
  4. D) 0.823 M
  5. E) 3.29 M

 

Objective:  11.8

 

 

59) The function of a buffer is to

  1. A) change color at the end point of a titration.
  2. B) maintain the pH of a solution.
  3. C) be a strong base.
  4. D) maintain a neutral pH.
  5. E) act as a strong acid.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

60) The normal blood pH is about

  1. A) 6.8.
  2. B) 7.0.
  3. C) 7.2.
  4. D) 7.4.
  5. E) 7.6.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

61) In a buffer system of HF and its salt, NaF,

  1. A) the HF neutralizes added acid.
  2. B) the HF neutralizes added base.
  3. C) the HF is not necessary.
  4. D) the F-neutralizes added H2
  5. E) the F-neutralizes added base.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

62) Which of the following is a buffer system?

  1. A) NaCl and NaNO3
  2. B) HCl and NaOH
  3. C) H2CO3and KHCO3
  4. D) NaCl and NaOH
  5. E) H2O and HCl

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

 

63) Which of the following could be a buffer?

  1. A) NaF
  2. B) HF + NaF
  3. C) HF + H2O
  4. D) NaF + H2O
  5. E) NaCl + HF

 

Objective:  11.9

 

64) What is the name of the medical condition of an asthmatic patient with a blood pH of 7.30?

  1. A) respiratory acidosis
  2. B) respiratory alkalosis
  3. C) metabolic acidosis
  4. D) metabolic alkalosis
  5. E) diabetes mellitus

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

65) If a condition of hyperventilation occurs, the blood pH of the patient is expected to

  1. A) saturate.
  2. B) increase.
  3. C) decrease.
  4. D) stay the same.
  5. E) concentrate.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

66) When hyperventilation (rapid breathing) causes a patient to exhale large amounts of CO2, the blood pH rises in a condition called

  1. A) metabolic acidosis.
  2. B) metabolic alkalosis.
  3. C) respiratory acidosis.
  4. D) respiratory alkalosis.
  5. E) pulmonary distress.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

 

67) Which solution has the highest pH?

  1. A) a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate
  2. B) a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.10 M sodium acetate
  3. C) a buffer made with 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.10 M sodium acetate
  4. D) a buffer made with 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate
  5. E) All of the buffers have the same pH since they are all made with acetic acid and sodium acetate.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

68) Which solution has the lowest pH?

  1. A) a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate
  2. B) a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.10 M sodium acetate
  3. C) a buffer made with 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.10 M sodium acetate
  4. D) a buffer made with 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate
  5. E) All of the buffers have the same pH since they are all made with acetic acid and sodium acetate.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

11.2   Short Answer Questions

 

1) The name of HCl is________.

 

 

2) The conjugate acid of H2PO42- is ________.

 

 

3) Identify the conjugate acid-base pairs in the following reaction:

 

HCl + NH3 → NH4+ + Cl-

 

 

4) Write the proper Ka expression for the ionization of acetic acid, HC2H3O2.

 

 

5) If an acid has a Ka << 1, is it classified as a weak acid or a strong acid?

 

 

6) The pH of 0.0010 M HCl is ________.

 

 

7) The pH of 0.0001 M KOH is ________.

 

 

8) In a titration experiment, a student used 24.13 mL of 0.111 M sodium hydroxide to neutralize 20.00 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution. What was the molarity of the acid solution?

 

9) A student had 2.0 L of a sodium hydroxide solution that had a concentration of 0.4000 M. The student needed to make 500 mL of a 0.1000 M solution. How many mL of the concentrated solution was needed?

 

 

10) A student had 25.0 mL of 0.100 M H2SO4 solution. How many mL of a 0.100 M NaOH solution will the sulfuric acid neutralize?

 

 

11) What is the pH of a buffer made with 0.10 M acetic acid and 0.01 M sodium acetate?

 

 

11.3   True/False Questions

 

1) HCl is hydrochlorous acid.

 

 

2) The conjugate base of HCl is Cl-.

 

Objective:  11.2

 

 

3) HCl is a strong acid.

 

Objective:  11.2

 

 

4) A strong acid is completely dissociated in water.

 

Objective:  11.3

 

 

5) In any water solution, [H3O+][OH-] = 1.0 × 10-7.

 

Objective:  11.5

 

 

6) The pH of 0.001 M HCl is 12.0.

 

Objective:  11.6

 

7) A solution with a pH of 4.0 is more acidic than a solution with a pH of 6.0.

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

8) A solution with a pH of 4.0 is basic.

 

Objective:  11.6

 

 

9) Magnesium metal is not attacked by sulfuric acid solutions.

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

10) For most reactions of acids with bases, the resulting products are a salt and water.

 

Objective:  11.7

 

 

11) If the carbon dioxide level in the blood is too high, more carbonic acid is produced, and this results in the condition termed acidosis.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

12) Alkalosis is the blood condition in which the blood pH is higher than normal.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

 

13) A buffer is a solution that tends to maintain a neutral pH.

 

Objective:  11.9

 

11.4   Matching Questions

 

Identify each of the following compounds as an acid, a base, or neither.

 

  1. A) acid
  2. B) base
  3. C) neither

 

1) HCl

Objective:  11.1

 

 

2) NaOH

Objective:  11.1

 

 

3) NH3

Objective:  11.1

 

 

4) H2SO4

Objective:  11.1

 

 

5) CO32-

Objective:  11.1

 

 

6) NaCl

Objective:  11.1

 

 

7) CN-

Objective:  11.1

 

 

8) H2CO3

Objective:  11.1

 

 

In the following solutions, is the [OH-] greater than, less than, or equal to the [H3O+]?

 

  1. A) less than
  2. B) greater than
  3. C) equal to

 

9) acid

Objective:  11.5

 

 

10) base

Objective:  11.5

 

 

11) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-6 M

Objective:  11.5

 

 

12) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-10 M

Objective:  11.5

 

 

13) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-7 M

Objective:  11.5

 

 

14) pH = 2

Objective:  11.5

 

 

15) pH = 9

Objective:  11.5

 

 

Identify the following as acids, bases, or neutral solutions.

 

  1. A) neutral
  2. B) acid
  3. C) base

 

16) has a sour taste

 

 

 

17) has a pH = 4.5

 

 

 

18) turns blue litmus paper red

 

 

 

19) contains more hydronium ions than hydroxide ions

 

 

 

20) H2O

 

 

 

21) [H3O+] = 3.4 × 10-5 M

 

 

 

22) [OH-] = 2.8 × 10-2 M

 

 

 

23) Ca(OH)2

 

 

 

24) pH =9.0

 

 

 

25) [H3O+] = 1.0 × 10-7 M

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 12   Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Hydrocarbons

 

12.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) In the three-dimensional structure of methane, CH4, the hydrogen atoms attached to a carbon atom are aligned

  1. A) in a straight line.
  2. B) at the corners of a square.
  3. C) at the corners of a tetrahedron.
  4. D) at the corners of a rectangle.
  5. E) at the corners of a cube.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

2) In a molecule with a symmetrical arrangement of polar bonds, the overall molecule is

  1. A) highly polar.
  2. B) somewhat polar.
  3. C) nonpolar.
  4. D) reverse polar.
  5. E) strongly reverse polar.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

3) Generally, a solution of an organic compound in water will be electrically

  1. A) highly conductive.
  2. B) highly ionized.
  3. C) nonconductive.
  4. D) insulated.
  5. E) charged.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

4) VSEPR theory predicts that simple carbon compounds will form bonds that are

  1. A) as far apart as possible.
  2. B) as close together as possible.
  3. C) arranged in a straight line.
  4. D) pointed to the corners of a cube.
  5. E) pointed to the corners of a triangle.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

5) A molecule containing a carbon atom bonded to four chlorine atoms has the shape of a

  1. A) triangle.
  2. B) rhombus.
  3. C) square.
  4. D) cube.
  5. E) tetrahedron.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

6) The bond angles of tetravalent carbon are all approximately

  1. A) 90°.
  2. B) 109°.
  3. C) 60°.
  4. D) 100°.
  5. E) 45°.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

7) As carbon bonds with atoms of increasingly higher electronegativities, the polarity of the bond

  1. A) decreases.
  2. B) increases.
  3. C) stays the same.
  4. D) reverses.
  5. E) becomes inverted.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

8) Carbon tetrachloride has a polar C-Cl bond. What is the overall polarity of the carbon tetrachloride molecule?

  1. A) weakly polar
  2. B) strongly polar
  3. C) reversed polarity
  4. D) nonpolar
  5. E) inverse polarity

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

 

9) Which of the following is NOT typical of most organic compounds?

  1. A) high melting point
  2. B) poor solubility in water
  3. C) low boiling point
  4. D) covalent bonding
  5. E) high flammability

 

Objective:  12.1

 

10) Which one of the following is NOT an organic substance?

  1. A) an antibiotic
  2. B) nylon
  3. C) coal
  4. D) silk
  5. E) salt, sodium chloride

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

11) A hydrocarbon contains only the elements

  1. A) hydrogen and oxygen.
  2. B) carbon and oxygen.
  3. C) carbon and hydrogen.
  4. D) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
  5. E) carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

12) Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of compounds of

  1. A) oxygen.
  2. B) hydrogen.
  3. C) living things.
  4. D) polymers.
  5. E) carbon.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

 

13) How does a molecule of a vitamin synthesized in the laboratory behave when compared to the behavior of the same vitamin isolated from a natural source (e.g., vitamin C synthesized, compared to vitamin C from rose hips)?

  1. A) identical in every way
  2. B) usually identical
  3. C) Some effects are the same.
  4. D) Few effects are the same.
  5. E) The natural vitamin is better.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

14) How many valence electrons does carbon have?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  12.1

 

15) Carbon atoms always have how many covalent bonds?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

16) An organic compound composed of carbon and hydrogen connected only by single bonds is an

  1. A) alkane.
  2. B) alkene.
  3. C) alkyne.
  4. D) aromatic compound.
  5. E) alcohol.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

 

17) In a condensed structural formula, each carbon atom is

  1. A) shown with all individual atoms and bonds drawn.
  2. B) shown with only the other carbon atoms.
  3. C) grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms.
  4. D) not explicitly shown.
  5. E) written in lowercase letters.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

18) A formula that shows the arrangement of all bonds in a molecule is called a(n)

  1. A) molecular formula.
  2. B) complete structural formula.
  3. C) condensed structural formula.
  4. D) condensed molecular formula.
  5. E) isomeric formula.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

19) Which of these formulas is the expanded structural formula for an alkane with three carbon atoms?

  1. A) C3H6
  2. B) C3H8
  3. C) CH3-CH2-CH3
  4. D) C – C – C
  5. E) H H    H

|      |      |

H – C – C –  C – H

|      |      |

H    H    H

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

20) What is the condensed structural formula for an alkane with four carbon atoms?

  1. A) CH3-CH=CH-CH3
  2. B) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
  3. C) C4H10
  4. D) C – C – C – C
  5. E) H H    H    H

|      |      |      |

H – C –  C –  C –  C – H

|      |      |      |

H    H    H    H

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

21) What is the name of the continuous chain alkane with six carbon atoms?

  1. A) butane
  2. B) pentane
  3. C) hexane
  4. D) heptane
  5. E) octane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

22) What is the name of this compound?

 

CH3- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH3

 

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) butane
  5. E) pentane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

23) What is the name of this compound?

 

CH3- CH2- CH2- CH2- CH3

 

  1. A) pentane
  2. B) hexane
  3. C) heptane
  4. D) octane
  5. E) methylbutane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

24) What is the name of CH3- CH2- CH2- CH3?

  1. A) ethane
  2. B) propane
  3. C) butane
  4. D) pentane
  5. E) hexane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

 

25) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

  1. A) ethane
  2. B) propane
  3. C) butane
  4. D) pentane
  5. E) hexane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

26) What is the name for a four-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) methane
  2. B) ethane
  3. C) propane
  4. D) butane
  5. E) pentane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

27) What is the name for a five-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) methane
  2. B) ethane
  3. C) propane
  4. D) butane
  5. E) pentane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

28) What is the mame for a six-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) nonane
  5. E) decane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

 

29) What is the name for a seven-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) nonane
  5. E) decane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

30) What is the name for an eight-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) nonane
  5. E) decane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

31) What is the name for a nine-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) nonane
  5. E) decane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

32) What is the name for a ten-carbon continuous-chain alkane?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) heptane
  3. C) octane
  4. D) nonane
  5. E) decane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

 

33) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

 

  1. A) cyclopentane
  2. B) cyclohexane
  3. C) cycloheptane
  4. D) cyclooctane
  5. E) hexane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

34) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

 

  1. A) cyclopentane
  2. B) cyclohexane
  3. C) cycloheptane
  4. D) cyclooctane
  5. E) pentane

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

35) The IUPAC name for CH3 -Cl is

  1. A) methyl chloride.
  2. B) chloromethane.
  3. C) methanechlorine.
  4. D) chloroethane.
  5. E) methane chloride.

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

36) Which of the following pairs of compounds are structural isomers?

 

  1. A) Cl Cl

|                                                               |

CH3 C HCH2 CH3     and        CH3CH2 C HCH3

  1. B) ClCH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
  2. C) CH3CHCH3 and CH3CHCH2Cl

|                                     |

CH2Cl                          CH3

  1. D) Cl

|

CH3CHCH3      and      CH3 C CH3

|                                           |

CH2Cl                              CH3

E)

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

37) What is the IUPAC name for the following?

 

CH3

CH3-CH2-CH2-CH- CH2-CH3

 

  1. A) 4-methylhexane
  2. B) 3-methylhexane
  3. C) heptane
  4. D) methylhexane
  5. E) 2-methylhexane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

38) What is the IUPAC name for the following?

 

CH3

CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3

 

  1. A) 1-methylbutane
  2. B) 4-methylbutane
  3. C) pentane
  4. D) butane
  5. E) hexane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

39) What is the IUPAC name for the following?

 

 

  1. A) 1-chlorobutane
  2. B) 2-chlorobutane
  3. C) 3-chlorobutane
  4. D) 2-chloropropane
  5. E) chlorobutane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

40) What is the IUPAC name for Cl-CH2 -CH2 – CH2-Cl?

  1. A) 1,3-dichloropropane
  2. B) 1,1-dichloropropane
  3. C) dichloropropane
  4. D) 1,3-dichlorobutane
  5. E) propane dichloride

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

41) What is the name of ?

  1. A) pentane
  2. B) methylpentane
  3. C) 2-methylpentane
  4. D) 4-methylpentane
  5. E) hexane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

42) What is the name for the following?

 

 

 

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) dimethylbutane
  3. C) 3,3-dimethylbutane
  4. D) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  5. E) 2-dimethylbutane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

43) What is the IUPAC name for the following?

 

 

  1. A) 1,2-dichloro-3-methylpentane
  2. B) 1,2-dichloro-3-methylcyclopentane
  3. C) 1-methyl-2,3-dichlorocyclopentane
  4. D) 3-methyl-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane
  5. E) 1,2-dichloro-3-methylcyclobutane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

44) What is the IUPAC name of this alkane?

 

 

  1. A) 4-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
  2. B) 2-ethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane
  3. C) 2,2,4-trimethylhexane
  4. D) 2-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
  5. E) 3,5,5-trimethylhexane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

45) Which of the following compounds could have the molecular formula C7H16?

  1. A) hexane
  2. B) pentane
  3. C) 2-methylheptane
  4. D) 2,3-dimethylpentane
  5. E) 3-ethylhexane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

46) What is the name of this compound?

 

  1. A) 1,1-dichlorobutane
  2. B) 1,2,-dichlorobutane
  3. C) 1,3-dichlorobutane
  4. D) 1,4-dichlorobutane
  5. E) dichlorobutane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

47) What is the name of the alkyl group CH3-CH2-CH2-?

  1. A) propane
  2. B) methyl
  3. C) ethane
  4. D) ethyl
  5. E) propyl

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

48) What is the IUPAC name for this alkane?

 

 

  1. A) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
  2. B) 4-ethyl-3-methylpentane
  3. C) 3, 4-dimethylhexane
  4. D) 2, 3-diethylbutane
  5. E) octane

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

49) What is the name for a one-carbon alkyl substituent?

  1. A) methyl
  2. B) ethyl
  3. C) propyl
  4. D) butyl
  5. E) pentyl

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

50) What is the name for a two-carbon alkyl group?

  1. A) methyl
  2. B) ethyl
  3. C) propyl
  4. D) butyl
  5. E) pentyl

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

51) What is the name for a three-carbon alkyl group?

  1. A) methyl
  2. B) ethyl
  3. C) propyl
  4. D) butyl
  5. E) pentyl

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

52) What is the name for this three-carbon alkyl group?

 

CH3 – CH – CH3

|

 

  1. A) n-propyl
  2. B) iso-propyl
  3. C) butyl
  4. D) iso-butyl
  5. E) ethyl

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

53) According to the IUPAC convention for chemical naming, which part of a hydrocarbon is selected as the main chain for a hydrocarbon chain?

  1. A) the most highly branched chain
  2. B) the shortest chain
  3. C) the longest chain drawn in a straight line
  4. D) the longest continuous chain, regardless of bends
  5. E) the chain with the most substituted carbons in it

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

54) According to the IUPAC convention, alkyl group names should be located ________ of the name of the main chain.

  1. A) in front
  2. B) at the end
  3. C) in the middle

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

55) According to the IUPAC convention, alkyl substituents on a hydrocarbon chain should be listed in which order?

  1. A) alphabetical including prefixes
  2. B) alphabetical without considering prefixes
  3. C) in order with the substituent having the highest number of carbons first
  4. D) in order with the substituent having the lowest number of carbons first
  5. E) in order with the substituent having the highest total number of carbons first

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

56) When drawing a structural formula, the first step is to draw

  1. A) the substituents.
  2. B) the most highly substituted carbons.
  3. C) the saturated carbons.
  4. D) the main carbon chain.
  5. E) the functional group.

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

57) In the equation for the combustion of pentane, the coefficient of carbon dioxide is

  1. A) one
  2. B) two.
  3. C) three.
  4. D) four.
  5. E) five.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

58) The reaction for the combustion of heptane is

 

C7H16 + 11O2 → 7CO2 + 8H2O.

 

How many liters of CO2 at STP are produced from the complete combustion of 2.00 moles of heptane?

  1. A) 44.8 L
  2. B) 22.4 L
  3. C) 157 L
  4. D) 246 L
  5. E) 314 L

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

59) Which of the following is true of nonane, C9H20, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL, melts at -51 °C, and boils at 157 °C?

  1. A) Nonane is soluble in water.
  2. B) Nonane is a gas at room temperature.
  3. C) Nonane is a solid at room temperature.
  4. D) Nonane does not undergo combustion.
  5. E) Nonane floats on the surface of water.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

60) Organic compounds that are poorly soluble in water behave that way because they are

  1. A) highly polar.
  2. B) moderately polar.
  3. C) covalently bonded.
  4. D) generally nonpolar.
  5. E) ionically bonded.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

61) Hydrocarbons are the primary constituents of

  1. A) drugs.
  2. B) food flavors.
  3. C) fossil fuels.
  4. D) fruit juices.
  5. E) disinfectants.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

62) The reaction of butane with oxygen is called

  1. A) substitution.
  2. B) addition.
  3. C) neutralization.
  4. D) combustion.
  5. E) titration.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

 

63) What is(are) the product(s) of the complete combustion of any hydrocarbon?

  1. A) CO only
  2. B) CO2only
  3. C) CO + H2O
  4. D) CO2+ H2O
  5. E) H2O only

 

Objective:  12.4

 

64) The balanced equation for the complete combustion of C5H12 will give which of these product(s)?

  1. A) CO2only
  2. B) C5H12O5only
  3. C) 5CO2+ 5H2O
  4. D) 5CO2+ 6H2O
  5. E) 10CO + 12H2O

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

65) What type of compound is CH3-CH2-CH3?

  1. A) alkane
  2. B) branched alkane
  3. C) cycloalkane
  4. D) haloalkane
  5. E) isomer

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

66) An alkene is always a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.

  1. A) single
  2. B) double
  3. C) triple
  4. D) aromatic
  5. E) hydrogen

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

 

67) An alkyne is always a carbon compound that contains a ________ bond.

  1. A) single
  2. B) double
  3. C) triple
  4. D) aromatic
  5. E) hydrogen

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

68) A hydrocarbon with a double bond is a(n)

  1. A) alkane.
  2. B) alkene.
  3. C) alkyne.
  4. D) alcohol.
  5. E) saturated compound.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

69) The carbon atoms in saturated hydrocarbons

  1. A) have only single bonds.
  2. B) contain at least one double bond.
  3. C) contain at least one triple bond.
  4. D) contain a benzene ring.
  5. E) contain both a double and a triple bond.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

 

70) Which of the compounds is a cycloalkene?

  1. A) CH2= CH-CH = CH2

 

B)

  1. C) CH3-C = CH2

 

D)

 

E)

 

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

71) An unsaturated compound always

  1. A) is a cycloalkane.
  2. B) contains a double bond.
  3. C) contains a triple bond.
  4. D) contains at least one double or triple bond.
  5. E) is aromatic.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

72) Which of the following compounds is an alkyne?

  1. A) CH3-CH2-CH3
  2. B) C3H6
  3. C) CH3-CH2-C ≡ CH
  4. D) H2C = CH-CH = CH2
  5. E) 2-pentene

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

 

73) The IUPAC name of CH3-CH = CH-CH3 is

  1. A) 2-butene.
  2. B) 2-butane.
  3. C) 1-butene.
  4. D) butene.
  5. E) 2-butyne.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

74) When naming an alkene, the parent chain is the longest carbon chain

  1. A) that does not contain the double bond.
  2. B) regardless of whether or not it contains the double bond.
  3. C) that contains at least one of the carbon atoms of the double bond.
  4. D) that contains both atoms of the double bond.
  5. E) that contains a branch.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

75) The IUPAC name for CH3-CH2-C ≡ C-CH3 is

  1. A) 3-pentyne.
  2. B) 2-pentyne.
  3. C) pentyne.
  4. D) 1-methylbutyne.
  5. E) 2-propene.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

76) The IUPAC name for ethylene is

  1. A) ethane.
  2. B) cycloethane.
  3. C) ethyne.
  4. D) ethanene.
  5. E) ethene.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

77) What is the condensed structural formula of the compound propene?

  1. A) CH3-CH2-CH3
  2. B) H3C = CH2-CH3
  3. C) H2C = C = CH2
  4. D) CH3-CH = CH2
  5. E) HC ≡ C-CH3

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

78) What is the condensed structural formula for the compound 3-hexene?

  1. A) CH3

|

CH3-CH2-C H-CH2-CH3

  1. B) CH2 = CH-CH2 -CH2 -CH2 -CH3
  2. C) CH3-CH2-CH = CH-CH2-CH3
  3. D) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH = CH-CH3
  4. E) CH3-CH = CH-CH2-CH2-CH3

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

79) The compound 1-butyne contains

  1. A) all single bonds.
  2. B) a double bond.
  3. C) a triple bond.
  4. D) a ring structure.
  5. E) a bromine atom.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

80) What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?

 

  1. A) 1-pentene
  2. B) 2-pentene
  3. C) 3-pentene
  4. D) 1-methylbutene
  5. E) 2-pentyne

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

81) What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?

 

 

  1. A) 3-methyl-4-pentene
  2. B) 4-methyl-3-pentene
  3. C) 2-methyl-2-pentene
  4. D) 2-methyl-3-pentene
  5. E) hexene

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

82) What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?

 

  1. A) 6-chloro-2-pentyne
  2. B) 6-chloro-1-pentyne
  3. C) 1-chloro-5-hexyne
  4. D) 6-chloro-1-heptyne
  5. E) 6-chloro-1-hexyne

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

83) Which of the following compounds have cis-trans isomers?

  1. A) CH2 = CH – CH3
  2. B) CCl2 = CBr2
  3. C) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
  4. D) CCl2 = CHBr
  5. E) All of the above have cis-trans isomers.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

84) Some alkenes have cis-trans isomers because

  1. A) the carbon atoms in the double bond cannot rotate.
  2. B) each of the carbon atoms in the double bond has four different groups attached to it.
  3. C) one of the carbon atoms in the double bond has two identical groups attached to it.
  4. D) the carbon atoms in the double bond are free to rotate.
  5. E) all of the carbon atoms in the compound are rigid and cannot rotate.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

85) Which of the following pairs of compounds are cis-trans isomers?

A)

B)

  1. C) HC ≡ C – CH3and CH3- C ≡ CH

D)

E)

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

86) What is the name of the compound shown below?

 

  1. A) 2-pentene
  2. B) trans-2-pentene
  3. C) trans-3-pentene
  4. D) cis-2-pentene
  5. E) cis-3-pentene

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

87) The reaction of hydrogen (H2) and propene using a platinum catalyst is called

  1. A) combustion.
  2. B) substitution.
  3. C) addition.
  4. D) neutralization.
  5. E) condensation.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

88) The hydrogenation of an alkene gives a(n)

  1. A) alkane.
  2. B) alkene.
  3. C) alkyne.
  4. D) benzene.
  5. E) isomer.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

89) What is the condensed structural formula for the product of the hydrogenation of 2-butene using a platinum catalyst?

  1. A) CH3-CH= CH-CH3
  2. B) Cl

|

CH3-CH2- CH-CH3

  1. C) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
  2. D) CH3

|

CH3- CH-CH3

  1. E) OH

|

CH3- CH-CH3

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

90) According to Markovnikov’s rule, the hydrogen in HOH (water) adds to the carbon in the double bond

  1. A) attached to the end carbon.
  2. B) that has the smaller number of hydrogen atoms attached.
  3. C) that has the greater number of hydrogen atoms attached.
  4. D) that has the smaller number of carbon atoms attached.
  5. E) that has the greater number of carbon atoms attached.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

91) The reaction of an alkene and water in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce an alcohol is called

  1. A) hydrolysis.
  2. B) alkoholysis.
  3. C) halogenation.
  4. D) hydration.
  5. E) hydrohydration.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

92) What is the major product of the reaction shown below?

 

CH3- CH2- CH = CH2 + HOH

 

  1. A) OH OH

|         |

CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2

  1. B) OH

|

CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3

  1. C) CH3- CH2- CH2 – CH2 OH
  2. D) OH OH

|         |

CH3 – CH – CH – CH3

  1. E) OH

|

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

93) Long-chain molecules that consist of many repeating units are called

  1. A) polymers.
  2. B) monomers.
  3. C) organic compounds.
  4. D) alkenes.
  5. E) alkanes.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

94) Small molecules that make up the repeat unit in polymers are called

  1. A) monomers.
  2. B) alkenes.
  3. C) alkynes.
  4. D) minipolymers.
  5. E) synthetic polymers.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

95) What is the starting monomer for the polymer Teflon®?

 

F      F      F      F

|      |      |      |

– C –  C –  C  – C –

|      |      |      |

F      F      F      F

 

  1. A) F

|

F – C – F

|

F

  1. B) F

|

H – C – H

|

F

 

  1. C) F F

|      |

F – C –  C – F

|      |

F      F

  1. D) C F
  2. E) F F

|      |

F – C  C – F

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

96) Which of the following would result from the polymerization of ethene?

  1. A) CH3 CH3

|                     |

–    C   – CH2 –  C – CH2 –

|                     |

CH3              CH3

  1. B) CH3 CH3 CH3   CH3

|        |         |          |

–   C  –    C  –     C  –      C  –

|        |         |          |

H      H        H         H

  1. C) H H H    H

|     |      |      |

– C = C – C = C –

  1. D) = C = C = C = C =
  2. E) – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 –

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

97) The structural formula of benzene is often represented as a

  1. A) ring of five carbon atoms.
  2. B) ring of six carbon atoms with six double bonds.
  3. C) ring of six carbon atoms with a circle in the center.
  4. D) cycloalkane.
  5. E) cycloalkyne.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

98) A compound that contains the ring structure of benzene is called a(n)

  1. A) alkane.
  2. B) cycloalkane.
  3. C) alkyl group.
  4. D) aromatic compound.
  5. E) hydrocarbon.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

99) The compound below is named

 

 

  1. A) cyclohexane.
  2. B) cyclohexene.
  3. C) cyclohexyne.
  4. D) benzene.
  5. E) cyclobenzene.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

100) What is the molecular formula of benzene?

  1. A) C6H4
  2. B) C6H6
  3. C) C6H8
  4. D) C6H10
  5. E) C6H12

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

101) All of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene are

  1. A) composed of only two types, single and double.
  2. B) identical.
  3. C) double bonds.
  4. D) single bonds.
  5. E) circular bonds.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

102) What is the name of the compound below?

 

 

  1. A) 1-chlorotoluene
  2. B) 2-chlorotoluene
  3. C) 3-chlorotoluene
  4. D) 4-chlorotoluene
  5. E) 5-chlorotoluene

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

12.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of carbon compounds.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

2) There are millions of organic compounds.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

3) Carbon has six valence electrons.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

4) Methane has a tetrahedral structure.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

5) The bond angles in a tetrahedral molecule are 90°.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

6) Organic compounds are always highly water soluble.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

7) Most organic compounds are flammable.

 

Objective:  12.1

 

 

8) Organic compounds can only be made by living things because a “vital force” is needed for their creation.

 

 

 

 

9) Most prescription drugs are organic molecules.

 

 

 

 

10) Pentane contains six carbon atoms.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

11) The name of this alkane is pentane.

 

 

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

12) Octane is a seven-carbon continuous chain alkane.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

13) Octane is a seven-carbon linear alkane.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

14) In a condensed structural formula, the carbon and attached hydrogens are written as a group.

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

15) The first four linear alkyl substituent groups are named methyl, ethyl, propyl, and butyl.

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

16) When naming an alkane, the main chain is the longest continuous carbon chain regardless of bends.

 

Objective:  12.3

 

 

17) The name of this alkane is 3,4-dimethylhexane.

 

 

 

Objective:  12.2

 

 

18) The products of complete combustion are carbon dioxide and water.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

19) Organic liquids are often less dense than water.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

20) Mineral oil is a liquid hydrocarbon used as a laxative and lubricant in medical practice.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

21) Solid alkanes are found on the surface of many fruits and vegetables.

 

Objective:  12.4

 

 

22) Propylene is used to induce ripening in fruits.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

23) Alkynes contain double bonds.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

24) An alkyne containing three carbons is named propyne.

 

Objective:  12.5

 

25) Light-induced cis-trans isomerization is an important step in vision.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

26) In a cis alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

27) In a trans alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

28) All alkenes show cis-trans isomerism.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

29) Alkynes can show cis-trans isomerism.

 

Objective:  12.6

 

 

30) Hydrogenation is used to convert alkenes to alkanes.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

31) Hydration is used to convert alkenes to alkanes.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

32) Hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils raises the melting point and makes them more solid.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

33) Water can be added to alkenes to produce acids.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

34) Polymers are large molecules consisting of repeating units.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

35) Nylon, polyester, and most other plastics are carbon compounds.

 

Objective:  12.7

 

 

36) One essential building block of aspirin, ibuprofen, and acetaminophen is the benzene ring.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

37) All polycyclic aromatic compounds cause cancer.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

38) The chemical formula for benzene is C6H12.

 

Objective:  12.8

 

 

12.3   Matching Questions

 

Identify the following as more characteristic of an organic compound or an inorganic compound.

 

  1. A) organic
  2. B) inorganic

 

1) high melting point

Objective:  12.1

 

 

2) flammable

Objective:  12.1

 

 

3) covalent bonds

Objective:  12.1

 

 

4) insoluble in water

Objective:  12.1

 

 

5) ionic bonds

Objective:  12.1

 

 

Match the following organic structures with the appropriate classification.

 

  1. A) aromatic compound
  2. B) alkene aromatic
  3. C) alkane
  4. D) cycloalkane
  5. E) cycloalkene

 

6)

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

7) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

Objective:  12.5

 

 

8)

Objective:  12.5

 

 

9)

Objective:  12.5

 

 

Choose the type of compound from Column 2 that best matches each item in Column 1.

 

  1. A) cycloalkene
  2. B) cycloalkane
  3. C) alkane
  4. D) haloalkane
  5. E) alkene

 

10) CH3- CH = CH – CH3

Objective:  12.5

 

 

11) CH4

Objective:  12.5

 

 

12)

 

Objective:  12.5

 

 

13) CH3-CH2-Cl

Objective:  12.5

 

 

14)

Objective:  12.5

 

 

15)  CH3

|

CH2

|

CH3

Objective:  12.5

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 13   Alcohols, Phenols, Thiols, and Ethers

 

13.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which one of the following compounds is an alcohol?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – CH – CH3

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH

  1. C) CH3- CH = CH – CH2- CH3
  2. D) CH3- CH2- O – CH2 – CH3
  3. E) CH3- SH

 

 

 

 

2) The compound CH3 – CH2 – SH is in the organic family known as

  1. A) ethers.
  2. B) thiols.
  3. C) alcohols.
  4. D) sulfides.
  5. E) amino acids.

 

 

 

 

3) Alcohols contain which functional group?

  1. A) amine
  2. B) amide
  3. C) hydroxyl
  4. D) thiol

 

 

 

 

4) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

 

 

  1. A) 3-methyl-1-hexanol
  2. B) 3-methyl-1-pentanol
  3. C) 3-methyl-5-pentanol
  4. D) 3-methyl-6-hexanol
  5. E) 3-methylpentanol

 

 

 

 

5) Which of the following is the IUPAC name for the compound below?

 

 

  1. A) 5-methyl-4-hexanol
  2. B) 5-methyl-4-pentanol
  3. C) 2-methyl-3-hexanol
  4. D) 2-methyl-3-pentanol
  5. E) 2-methyl-3-heptanol

 

 

 

 

6) The condensed structural formula for 2,3-dichloro-4-methylcyclohexanol is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

 

7) What is the IUPAC name of this compound?

 

OH

|

CH3 – C – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. A) butanol
  2. B) propanol
  3. C) 2-propanol
  4. D) 2-methylbutanol
  5. E) 2-methyl-2-propanol

 

 

 

 

8) Which one of the following compounds is a thiol?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – CH – CH3

 

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH

 

  1. C) CH3- CH = CH – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. D) CH3- CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. E) CH3- SH

 

 

 

 

9) What is the name for this compound?

 

 

  1. A) 2-bromo-5-ethylcyclohexanol
  2. B) 2-bromo-5-ethylphenol
  3. C) 4-bromo-1-ethyl-5-phenol
  4. D) 6-bromo-3-ethylphenol
  5. E) 2-bromo-5-methylphenol

 

 

 

 

10) What is the name for this compound?

 

 

  1. A) cyclopentanol
  2. B) cyclohexanol
  3. C) cyclobenzenol
  4. D) phenol
  5. E) glycerol

 

 

 

 

11) A phenol has an -OH group bonded to a(n)

  1. A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.
  2. B) disubstituted carbon.
  3. C) trisubstituted carbon.
  4. D) aromatic carbon.
  5. E) tetrasubstituted carbon.

 

 

 

 

12) Thiols have structures similar to alcohols except that they contain

  1. A) three alcohol groups.
  2. B) more than one carbon.
  3. C) sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group.
  4. D) lithium in place of oxygen in the functional group.
  5. E) nitrogen in place of oxygen in the functional group.

 

 

 

 

13) Methanol is used in all the following except

  1. A) making plastics.
  2. B) racing fuel.
  3. C) alcoholic beverages.
  4. D) solvents.
  5. E) paint remover.

 

 

 

 

14) 1,2-ethanediol (ethylene diol) has uses that include

  1. A) antifreeze.
  2. B) solvent for paint.
  3. C) production of synthetic fibers.
  4. D) solvent for ink.
  5. E) All of the above.

 

 

 

 

15) What is the IUPAC name for CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – SH?

  1. A) 1-propanethiol
  2. B) 2-propanethiol
  3. C) 1-butanethiol
  4. D) 2-butanethiol
  5. E) propyl thiol

 

 

 

 

16) Thiols are strong-smelling compounds responsible for

  1. A) fruity odors.
  2. B) sharp odors.
  3. C) flowery odors.
  4. D) skunky or bad smelling odors.
  5. E) salty odors.

 

 

 

17) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

  1. A) cyclopentyl propyl ether
  2. B) cyclopentyl propyl ketone
  3. C) 1-cyclopropyl-1-propylalcohol
  4. D) propylcyclopentanol
  5. E) 3-cyclopentylpropanol

 

 

 

 

18) The common name for the compound CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 is

  1. A) 3-pentanol.
  2. B) ethyl propyl ether.
  3. C) 3-hexanol.
  4. D) 3-ether pentane.
  5. E) ethyl propyl ketone.

 

 

 

 

19) The common name of CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3 is

  1. A) dimethyl ether.
  2. B) diethyl ether.
  3. C) 2-etherbutane.
  4. D) butyl ether.
  5. E) dibutyl ether.

 

 

 

 

20) Why has diethyl ether been replaced as a general anesthetic?

  1. A) It causes unpleasant side effects in many patients.
  2. B) It is slightly polar.
  3. C) It can hydrogen bond to water.
  4. D) It is not very reactive.
  5. E) It is slightly soluble in water.

 

 

 

 

21) What is the common name of the ether that is an isomer of 2-propanol?

  1. A) isopropyl ether
  2. B) diethyl ether
  3. C) dimethyl ether
  4. D) ethyl methyl ether
  5. E) 1-propanol

 

 

 

 

22) What is the common name of the ether that is an isomer of 1-butanol?

  1. A) isopropyl ether
  2. B) diethyl ether
  3. C) dimethyl ether
  4. D) ethyl methyl ether
  5. E) butyl ether

 

 

 

 

23) The alcohol in this list that would be most soluble in water is

  1. A) ethanol.
  2. B) 1-butanol.
  3. C) 1-pentanol.
  4. D) 1-hexanol.
  5. E) 1-heptanol.

 

 

 

 

24) Which of the following compounds is a weak acid?

  1. A) ethanol
  2. B) ethanal
  3. C) phenol
  4. D) cyclohexanol
  5. E) acetone

 

 

 

 

25) Which of the following compounds is a secondary alcohol?

  1. A) CH3- CH – O – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. B) CH3OH

 

  1. C) OH

|

CH3 – CH2 –  C – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. D) CH3

|

CH3 – C – CH3

|

OH

 

  1. E) CH3- CH – OH

|

CH3

 

 

 

 

26) In a tertiary alcohol, how many alkyl groups are attached to the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group?

  1. A) none
  2. B) one
  3. C) two
  4. D) three
  5. E) four

 

 

 

 

27) A primary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)

  1. A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.
  2. B) disubstituted carbon.
  3. C) trisubstituted carbon.
  4. D) aromatic carbon.

 

 

 

 

28) A secondary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)

  1. A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.
  2. B) disubstituted carbon.
  3. C) trisubstituted carbon.
  4. D) aromatic carbon.

 

 

 

 

29) A tertiary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n)

  1. A) singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon.
  2. B) disubstituted carbon.
  3. C) trisubstituted carbon.
  4. D) triple-bonded carbon.
  5. E) double bonded carbon.

 

 

 

 

30) What kind of bonds do alcohols form between individual molecules?

  1. A) oxygen bonds
  2. B) hydrogen bonds
  3. C) single bonds
  4. D) carbon bonds
  5. E) ionic bonds

 

 

 

 

31) The dehydration of an alcohol in the presence of a strong acid yields

  1. A) an alkane.
  2. B) an alkene.
  3. C) a ketone.
  4. D) an alcohol.
  5. E) an aldehyde.

 

 

 

 

32) The dehydration product of CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH in the presence of acid is

  1. A) CH2= C = CH2.
  2. B) cyclopropane.
  3. C) cyclopropene.
  4. D) propene.
  5. E) propyne.

 

 

 

33) When 2-methyl-2-butanol undergoes dehydration in acid, one product is

  1. A) 2-methyl-2-butene.
  2. B) 2-methylbutanone.
  3. C) 2-pentanone.
  4. D) 2-methylbutanal.
  5. E) hexene.

 

 

 

 

34) In the oxidation of an alcohol to a ketone, there is

  1. A) a loss of hydrogen.
  2. B) a loss of oxygen.
  3. C) a loss of carbon.
  4. D) a gain of hydrogen.
  5. E) a gain of oxygen.

 

 

 

 

35) What is the product when this compound undergoes oxidation?

 

CH3

|

CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – OH

|

CH3

 

  1. A) hexanal
  2. B) 2,2-dimethylbutanal
  3. C) 2,2-dimethyl-4-butanone
  4. D) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanone
  5. E) 3,3-dimethylbutanal

 

 

 

 

36) What type of alcohol undergoes oxidation to yield a ketone?

  1. A) primary alcohol
  2. B) both primary and secondary alcohols
  3. C) secondary alcohol
  4. D) all classes of alcohols
  5. E) both secondary and tertiary alcohols

 

 

 

 

37) Tertiary alcohols cannot be oxidized because

  1. A) there are no oxygen atoms to remove from the alcohol carbon.
  2. B) there are no hydrogen atoms attached to the alcohol carbon.
  3. C) the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no oxygen can be added to it.
  4. D) the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no hydrogen can be added to it.
  5. E) the alcohol carbon is too electronegative to have hydrogen removed from it.

 

 

 

 

38) What type of alcohol is resistant to oxidation?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
  5. E) none

 

 

 

 

39) What is the product when the following compound is oxidized?

 

 

 

  1. A) a ketone
  2. B) an alkene
  3. C) an aldehyde
  4. D) an ether
  5. E) an alkane

 

 

 

 

 

40) Which compound will undergo oxidation to yield the following?

 

  1. A) pentanol
  2. B) cyclopentane
  3. C) cyclopentanol
  4. D) methylcyclobutanol
  5. E) cyclopentene

 

 

 

41) In the dehydration of an alcohol to an alkene, what is produced in addition to the alkene?

  1. A) water
  2. B) hydrogen
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) carbon monoxide

 

 

 

 

42) When a primary alcohol is completely oxidized, the product is

  1. A) another alcohol.
  2. B) a carboxylic acid.
  3. C) an aldehyde.
  4. D) an alkane.
  5. E) a ketone.

 

 

 

 

43) Methanol is toxic because it is ________ by the liver to carboxylic acids.

  1. A) reduced
  2. B) protonated
  3. C) oxidized
  4. D) conjugated
  5. E) hydrated

 

 

 

 

 

44) Secondary alcohols are oxidized to

  1. A) carboxylic acids.
  2. B) ketones.
  3. C) aldehydes.
  4. D) esters.
  5. E) ethers.

 

 

 

 

45) Tertiary alcohols are oxidized to

  1. A) secondary alcohols.
  2. B) ketones.
  3. C) aldehydes.
  4. D) carboxylic acids.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

46) Thiols can be gently oxidized to

  1. A) disulfides.
  2. B) aldehydes.
  3. C) ketones.
  4. D) carboxylic acids.
  5. E) thioethers.

 

 

 

 

47) The dehydration product of        OH     in the presence of acid is

CH3 – CH- CH3

 

  1. A) CH2= C = CH2.
  2. B) cyclopropane.
  3. C) cyclopropene.
  4. D) propene.
  5. E) propyne.

 

 

 

 

 

13.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Alcohols, ethers, and phenols contain oxygen with only single bonds.

 

 

 

 

2) Alcohols, ethers, and thiols contain oxygen atoms.

 

 

 

 

3) Thiols usually have sweet odors.

 

 

 

 

4) 1,2,3-propanetriol is obtained during the manufacture of soap.

 

 

 

 

5) Glycerin strongly attracts and holds water, a property that makes it useful as a skin softener in cosmetics.

 

 

 

6) Diethyl ether has been replaced by halogenated anesthetics, which have fewer side effects.

 

 

 

 

7) Ethers can only be straight chain compounds.

 

 

 

 

8) The following compound is ethyl propyl ether.

 

 

 

 

 

 

9) Alcohols form hydrogen bonds; this accounts for their higher boiling points when compared to similar-sized alkanes.

 

 

 

 

10) The oxygen atom in alcohols decreases water solubility of the molecule.

 

 

 

 

11) Phenols behave as weak acids in water.

 

 

 

 

12) Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds.

 

 

 

 

13) Heptanol is a water soluble alcohol.

 

 

 

 

14) A secondary alcohol can be easily oxidized to a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

15) Cycloalkanols are straight chain alcohols.

 

 

 

 

16) Alcohols can be dehydrated to form alkenes.

 

 

 

 

17) Primary alcohols can be oxidized to either aldehydes or ketones.

 

 

 

 

18) Secondary alcohols can be oxidized to ketones.

 

 

 

 

19) Tertiary alcohols are easily oxidized.

 

 

 

 

13.3   Matching Questions

 

Identify the product, if any, that would form in each of the following reactions.

 

  1. A) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH3

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH

 

1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

 

 

 

2) CH3 – CH2 – CH – OH

|

CH3

 

 

 

Match the structural formula with the correct functional group.

 

  1. A) thiol
  2. B) alcohol
  3. C) ether

 

3) CH3 – CH2 – OH

 

 

 

4) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH3

 

 

 

5) CH3 – CH2 – SH

 

 

 

 

Select the correct name for the following.

 

  1. A) propanethiol
  2. B) 1-ethyl-3- hydroxycyclohexene
  3. C) propane sulfide
  4. D) 3-ethylphenol
  5. E) diethyl ether

 

6) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – SH

 

 

 

7) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3

 

 

 

8)

 

 

 

 

Classify the alcohols shown in column 1 as primary, secondary, or tertiary.

 

  1. A) secondary
  2. B) primary
  3. C) tertiary

 

9) CH3 – CH2 – OH

 

 

 

10)        CH3

|

CH3 – C – CH2 – OH

|

CH3

 

 

 

11)        OH

|

CH3 – CH – CH3

 

 

 

12)

 

 

 

13)        CH3

|

CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3

|

OH

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 14   Aldehydes, Ketones, and Chiral Molecules

 

14.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which one of the following compounds is an aldehyde?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – CH – CH3

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH

  1. C) CH3- CH = CH – CH2- CH3
  2. D) CH3- CH2- O – CH2 – CH3
  3. E) CH3- SH

 

 

 

 

2) What are the bond angles in a typical carbonyl group?

  1. A) 45°
  2. B) 90°
  3. C) 109.5°
  4. D) 120°
  5. E) 135°

 

 

 

 

3) How many carbonyl-containing isomers does the formula C3H6O have?

  1. A) two
  2. B) three
  3. C) five
  4. D) seven
  5. E) eight

 

 

 

 

 

4) The compound 2-propanone is also known as

  1. A) acetone.
  2. B) 2-propanone.
  3. C) dimethyl ketone.
  4. D) β-propanone.
  5. E) propylone.

 

 

 

5) The common name for 2-butanone, a readily available solvent, is

  1. A) methyl acetone.
  2. B) methyl ethyl ketone.
  3. C) β-butanone.
  4. D) butyl ketone.
  5. E) butyl ether.

 

 

 

 

6) Formaldehyde is used industrially to make

  1. A) polymers.
  2. B) insulating materials.
  3. C) carpeting.
  4. D) All of the above.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

7) Acetone can be produced by the body when a person is

  1. A) exercising.
  2. B) dieting with high protein diets.
  3. C) ill with a flu.
  4. D) recovering from surgery.
  5. E) sleeping.

 

 

 

 

8) Which of the following compounds contains a ketone functional group?

  1. A) CH3

|

CH3 – C – OH

|

CH3

 

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH

 

  1. C) CH3- CH2- O – CH2 -CH3

 

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH3

 

  1. E) CH3- O – CH

|

CH3

 

 

 

 

9) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

 

O

 

CH3 – CH

 

  1. A) methyl aldehyde
  2. B) 1-ethanaldehyde
  3. C) 1-ethanone
  4. D) ethanal
  5. E) methanal

 

 

 

 

10) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

 

 

  1. A) methylcyclohexanone
  2. B) 2,5-dimethylcyclohexanone
  3. C) 1,4-dimethyl-2-cyclohexanone
  4. D) cyclohexyl methyl ketone
  5. E) 1,4-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanone

 

 

 

 

11) What is the name of this compound?

 

O

 

CH3 – C – CH – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. A) 2-pentanone
  2. B) methyl propyl ketone
  3. C) 3-methyl-2-butanone
  4. D) 2-methyl-3-butanone
  5. E) 2-methyl-3-ketone butane

 

 

 

 

12) Three functional groups found in this compound are

 

 

  1. A) alcohol, aromatic, and ether.
  2. B) alcohol, aldehyde, and ether.
  3. C) alcohol, ether, and ketone.
  4. D) aldehyde, ether, and carboxylic acid.
  5. E) cycloalkene, alcohol, and carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the following pairs of compounds are isomers?

  1. A) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3OCH3
  2. B) O                                     O

 

CH3CH2 C CH3     and     CH3 C CH2CH3

  1. C)                                           OH

|

CH3CH2 OCH2CH3   and    CH3 C CH3

|

CH3

  1. D)                                    OH

|

CH3CH2CHOH    and    CH3 C HCH2CH3

|

CH3

  1. E) O

 

CH3CH2OH     and    H C CH3

 

 

 

 

14) In all aldehydes except formaldehyde, how many hydrogen atoms is the carbonyl group bonded to?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four

 

 

 

 

15) How many hydrogen atoms is the carbonyl group in a ketone bonded to?

  1. A) none
  2. B) one
  3. C) two
  4. D) three
  5. E) four

 

 

 

 

16) The carbonyl group consists of

  1. A) a carbon-oxygen-hydrogen structure.
  2. B) a carbon-oxygen single bond.
  3. C) a carbon-oxygen double bond.
  4. D) a carbon-oxygen triple bond.
  5. E) a carbon-oxygen-carbon structure.

 

 

 

 

17) The oxygen atom in a carbonyl group is ________ the carbon atom.

  1. A) more electronegative than
  2. B) less electronegative than
  3. C) identical in electronegativity to
  4. D) more electropositive than
  5. E) more soluble than

 

 

 

 

18) How many lone pairs of electrons does the oxygen in a carbonyl group have?

  1. A) None, they’re all bonded.
  2. B) one
  3. C) two
  4. D) three
  5. E) four

 

 

 

 

19) In the IUPAC naming system, a ketone is named by replacing the -e in the corresponding alkane name with

  1. A) yne.
  2. B) ene.
  3. C) al.
  4. D) one.
  5. E) ol.

 

 

 

 

20) In the IUPAC naming system, an aldehyde is named by replacing the -e of the name of the corresponding alkane with

  1. A) yne.
  2. B) ene.
  3. C) al.
  4. D) one.
  5. E) ol.

 

 

 

 

21) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

  1. A) 2-methylbutanone
  2. B) 3-methyl-2-butanone
  3. C) 2-methyl-3-butanone
  4. D) 3-methylbutanone
  5. E) pentanone

 

 

 

 

22) Formalin is

  1. A) another name for formaldehyde.
  2. B) a plastic.
  3. C) an aqueous solution of formaldehyde.
  4. D) an excellent solvent.
  5. E) a polymer.

 

 

 

 

23) Acetone is a ketone commonly used as a

  1. A) preservative.
  2. B) flavoring agent.
  3. C) fuel.
  4. D) solvent.
  5. E) drain cleaner.

 

 

 

 

24) The flavoring agent found in vanilla is

  1. A) an aldehyde.
  2. B) a ketone.
  3. C) a hydrocarbon.
  4. D) an ester.
  5. E) a thiol.

 

 

 

 

25) Aldehydes have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar mass because of

  1. A) hydrogen bonding.
  2. B) dipole-dipole interactions.
  3. C) ionic bonding.
  4. D) covalent bonding.
  5. E) oxygen bonding.

 

 

 

 

26) The increased boiling point of ketones compared to alkanes and ethers of similar mass is due to

  1. A) hydrogen bonding.
  2. B) dipole-dipole interactions.
  3. C) a bent chain structure.
  4. D) resonance.
  5. E) ionic interactions.

 

 

 

 

 

27) Low-molecular-weight ketones are soluble in water. What is the shortest length of the carbon chain where insolubility becomes important?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) four
  4. D) five
  5. E) eight

 

 

 

28) Which of the following would not be water soluble?

  1. A) acetone
  2. B) propanal
  3. C) 3-heptanone
  4. D) formaldehyde
  5. E) 2-butanone

 

 

 

 

29) Which of the following ketones is the most soluble in water?

  1. A) O

 

CH3 C CH3

  1. B) O

 

CH3 – CH – C – CH3

|

CH3

  1. C) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. E) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3

 

 

 

 

 

30) The reduction of 3-pentanone with hydrogen in the presence of a nickel catalyst will yield

  1. A) pentane.
  2. B) 2-pentene.
  3. C) diethyl alcohol.
  4. D) 3-pentanol.
  5. E) pentanaldehyde.

 

 

 

31) The addition of hydrogen to an organic compound or the loss of oxygen is called

  1. A) reduction.
  2. B) oxidation.
  3. C) dehydration.
  4. D) halogenation.
  5. E) hydration.

 

 

 

 

32) The hydrogenation of 2-methylpropanal gives the product

  1. A) 1-butanol.
  2. B) 2-methylpropanoic acid.
  3. C) 2-methyl-3-propanol.
  4. D) 2-methyl-1-propanol.
  5. E) 2-methyl-2-propanol.

 

 

 

 

33) The Tollens’ test may be used to distinguish

  1. A) acids from amines.
  2. B) esters from acids.
  3. C) ketones from alcohols.
  4. D) aldehydes from ketones.
  5. E) alcohols from alkenes.

 

 

 

 

34) Benedict’s test requires an aldehyde and an adjacent

  1. A) saturated carbon.
  2. B) ketone.
  3. C) alcohol.
  4. D) phenyl ring.
  5. E) acid.

 

 

 

 

35) Aldehydes and ketones may be reduced to

  1. A) acids.
  2. B) alkanes.
  3. C) ethers.
  4. D) alcohols.
  5. E) esters.

 

 

 

36) Which of the compounds would give a positive Tollens’ test?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

37) An acetal is formed from two molecules of an alcohol and a(n)

  1. A) aldehyde.
  2. B) ether.
  3. C) carboxylic acid.
  4. D) alkyl ether.
  5. E) ester.

 

 

 

 

38) How many moles of an alcohol are needed to react with 1 mole of an aldehyde to

form a hemiacetal?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 1.5
  3. C) 2
  4. D) 3
  5. E) 3.5

 

 

 

 

 

39) How do sugars form cyclic hemiacetals?

  1. A) Two molecules of a sugar react with one another.
  2. B) A molecule of sugar reacts with an added alcohol.
  3. C) A molecule of sugar reacts with itself.
  4. D) A molecule of sugar reacts with an added aldehyde.
  5. E) A sugar molecule decomposes.

 

 

 

40) The product of adding two molecules of an alcohol to an aldehyde in the presence of acid is a(n)

  1. A) acetal.
  2. B) ether.
  3. C) hemiacetal.
  4. D) hemiether.
  5. E) hydroxyl group.

 

 

 

 

 

41) Which of these compounds is the hemiacetal that forms when ethanol reacts with propanal?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – CH2 C – O – CH2 – CH3

|

H

 

  1. B) OH

|

CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH3

|

H

 

  1. C) O – CH2– CH2

|

CH3 – CH2 – C – O – CH2 – CH3

|

H

 

  1. D) O – CH2- CH3

|

CH3 – C – O – CH3

|

H

 

  1. E) O – CH2- CH2 – CH3

|

CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

|

CH2 – CH2 – CH3

 

 

 

 

42) What is the acetal formed when propanone reacts with two molecules of methanol?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – C – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. B) O – CH3

|

CH3 – C – CH3

|

O – CH3

 

  1. C) O – CH3

|

CH3 – CO – CH3

|

O – CH3

 

  1. D) CH3 CH3

|             |

CH3 – C – O – C – CH3

|             |

H            H

 

  1. E) OH

|

CH3 – C – CH3

|

O – CH3

 

 

 

 

43) An enantiomer is

  1. A) a stereoisomer that is not a mirror image of another molecule.
  2. B) a stereoisomer that is a mirror image of another molecule.
  3. C) a diastereoisomer.
  4. D) a structural isomer.
  5. E) a cis-trans isomer.

 

 

 

 

44) Chirality occurs when stereoisomers have mirror images that are

  1. A) superimposable.
  2. B) the same.
  3. C) not superimposable.
  4. D) not visible to one another.
  5. E) identical.

 

 

 

 

45) How many different substituents are required on a carbon atom for it to be chiral?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) Any number from 1 to 4; chiralty does not depend on substitution.

 

 

 

 

46) Which molecule below has stereoisomers with different biological effects?

  1. A) carvone
  2. B) nicotine
  3. C) LSD
  4. D) epinephrine
  5. E) All of the above.

 

 

 

 

47) Chiral drugs consist of only one enantiomer. The benefits of using a pure enantiomer, rather than a mixture, include

  1. A) higher potency (lower total dose of drug).
  2. B) elimination of side effects.
  3. C) reduced chances of drug interactions.
  4. D) All of the above.
  5. E) None of the above.

 

 

 

 

 

48) Achiral compounds are those which

  1. A) have no “handedness.”
  2. B) have different mirror images.
  3. C) are non-superimposable.
  4. D) have the same formula but different structures.
  5. E) are a racemic mixture.

 

 

 

49) Use the structures below to answer:

 

 

  1. A) A is chiral and B is achiral
  2. B) A is achiral and B is chiral
  3. C) both A and B are chiral
  4. D) both A and B are achiral

 

 

 

 

50) Use the structures below to answer:

 

 

  1. A) A is chiral and B is achiral
  2. B) A is achiral and B is chiral
  3. C) both A and B are chiral
  4. D) both A and B are achiral

 

 

 

 

 

14.2   True/False Questions

 

1) All aldehydes have a carbonyl carbon bonded to at least two hydrogens.

 

 

 

 

2) Many odors from solvents, paint removers, and perfumes are derived from aldehydes or ketones.

 

 

 

3) In a ketone, the carbonyl group is bonded to two other carbon atoms.

 

 

 

 

4) The carbonyl group consists of a carbon-oxygen single bond, and a second bond to hydrogen.

 

 

 

 

5) The carbonyl group does not have a dipole.

 

 

 

 

6) The suffix -one indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.

 

 

 

 

7) The suffix -al indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.

 

 

 

 

8) Acetone is a three-carbon aldehyde.

 

 

 

 

9) Acetone is sometimes produced in pathological conditions such as diabetes.

 

 

 

 

10) Formaldehyde is used in solution as a germicide and preservative.

 

 

 

 

11) Excessive exposure to formaldehyde can irritate the eyes and respiratory tract.

 

 

 

 

12) A major flavor component of vanilla is an aldehyde.

 

 

 

13) The name of this compound is 3-butanone.

 

 

 

 

14) The carbonyl group gives aldehydes higher boiling points than alkanes of similar mass.

 

 

 

 

15) The carbonyl group gives ketones lower boiling points than alkanes of similar mass.

 

 

 

 

16) Carbonyl compounds having fewer than four carbon atoms are very water soluble.

 

 

 

 

17) Hexanal would be soluble in water.

 

 

 

 

18) Propanal is more soluble than pentanal.

 

 

 

 

19) Acetone would give a positive Tollens’ test.

 

 

 

 

 

20) The Tollens’ test is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones.

 

 

 

 

21) Primary alcohols are oxidized to ketones.

 

 

 

22) Ketones are reduced to secondary alcohols.

 

 

 

 

23) Benedict’s test can be used to determine whether an α-hydroxyaldehyde functional group is present.

 

 

 

 

24) An acetal is formed from an aldehyde or ketone and one molecule of alcohol.

 

 

 

 

25) A hemiacetal has alkoxy and hydroxyl functional groups bonded to the same carbon.

 

 

 

 

26) Glucose forms a cyclic hemiacetal.

 

 

 

 

27) This compound is an acetal.

 

 

 

 

 

28) Enantiomers are mirror images of each other.

 

 

 

 

29) A chiral carbon atom can have fewer than four different groups bonded to it.

 

 

 

 

30) Enantiomers may have very different tastes or smells.

 

 

 

31) 2-butanol is a chiral molecule.

 

 

 

 

32) 1-butanol is a chiral molecule.

 

 

 

 

33) Enantiomers have superimposable mirror images.

 

 

 

 

34) The biological activity of one of a set of enantiomers may be very different from the biological activity of the other optical isomers.

 

 

 

 

35) This compound is chiral.

 

 

 

 

 

 

14.3   Matching Questions

 

Select the correct name for the following.

 

  1. A) 3-propanone
  2. B) 1-propanone
  3. C) diethyl ketone
  4. D) propanal

 

1)                O

 

CH3CH2 C CH2CH3

 

 

 

2)                O

 

CH3CH2 C H

 

 

 

Match the structural formula with the correct functional group.

 

  1. A) aldehyde
  2. B) ether
  3. C) ketone

 

3)      O

 

CH3CH

 

 

 

4)       O

 

CH3 C CH2CH3

 

 

 

5) CH3CH2OCH3

 

 

 

6)                O

 

CH3CH2 C H

 

 

 

Identify the product, if any, that would form in each of the following reactions.

 

  1. A) CH3CH3
  2. B) CH3CH2CH3
  3. C) OH

|

CH3 C HCH3

  1. D) O

 

CH3 C OH

  1. E) CH3CH2OH

 

7)       O

 

CH3 C H

 

 

 

8)      O

 

CH3 C CH3 + H2

 

 

 

9)       O

 

CH3 C H + H2

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 15   Carbohydrates

 

15.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) A carbohydrate that gives two molecules when it is completely hydrolyzed is known as a

  1. A) monosaccharide.
  2. B) disaccharide.
  3. C) polysaccharide.
  4. D) starch.
  5. E) trisaccharide.

 

 

 

 

2) Which group of carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed to give smaller molecules?

  1. A) monosaccharides
  2. B) disaccharides
  3. C) trisaccharides
  4. D) oligosaccharides
  5. E) polysaccharides

 

 

 

 

3) A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is in a ketone group, is classified as a(n)

  1. A) aldotetrose.
  2. B) aldopentose.
  3. C) aldohexose.
  4. D) ketotetrose.
  5. E) ketopentose.

 

 

 

 

4) A monosaccharide that contains 4 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n)

  1. A) aldopentose.
  2. B) aldohexose.
  3. C) ketopentose.
  4. D) aldotetrose.
  5. E) ketotetrose.

 

 

 

 

5) Which of the following is an example of an aldopentose?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

 

6) Ribulose has the following structural formula. To what carbohydrate class does ribulose belong?

 

CH2OH

C = O

H – C – OH

H – C – OH

CH2OH

 

  1. A) aldotetrose
  2. B) aldopentose
  3. C) ketotetrose
  4. D) ketopentose
  5. E) ketohexose

 

 

 

 

7) During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen by

  1. A) large animals.
  2. B) insects.
  3. C) mushrooms.
  4. D) green plants.
  5. E) earthworms.

 

 

 

 

8) The breakdown of carbohydrates to carbon dioxide and water in the body is called

  1. A) reduction.
  2. B) respiration.
  3. C) photosynthesis.
  4. D) anabolism.
  5. E) mutarotation.

 

 

 

 

9) Which of the following is an example of a ketopentose?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

 

10) Which of the following is an example of an aldohexose?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

11) The breakdown of glucose to chemical energy for the cells to do work is an example of

  1. A) oxidation.
  2. B) respiration.
  3. C) reduction.
  4. D) anabolism.
  5. E) mutarotation.

 

 

 

 

12) Photosynthesis uses ________ as an energy source.

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) chlorophyll
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) sunlight

 

 

 

 

13) Fructose does not undergo hydrolysis because it is a

  1. A) aldose.
  2. B) hexose.
  3. C) reducing sugar.
  4. D) monosaccharide.
  5. E) disaccharide.

 

 

 

14) Galactosemia is the name of a metabolic disorder. In this disorder, an enzyme is missing that is needed to

  1. A) make galactose from lactose.
  2. B) make lactose from galactose.
  3. C) convert galactose to glycogen.
  4. D) convert galactose to glucose.
  5. E) convert α-galactose to β-galactose.

 

 

 

 

15) Which Fischer projection is the mirror image of the structure given below?

 

Br

HO — Cl

CH3

 

  1. A) Br

HO — CH3

Cl

 

  1. B) Br

Cl — OH

CH3

 

  1. C) OH

CH3 — Cl

Br

 

  1. D) CH3

Br — Cl

OH

 

  1. E) Br

CH3 — Cl

OH

 

 

 

 

16) In the L- isomer of a Fischer projection of a monosaccharide, the -OH group furthest from the carbonyl is written

  1. A) on the left of the top chiral carbon.
  2. B) on the right of the top chiral carbon.
  3. C) on the left of the middle chiral carbon.
  4. D) on the left of the bottom chiral carbon.
  5. E) on the right of the bottom chiral carbon.

 

 

 

 

17) One difference between D-glucose and L-glucose is

  1. A) the open-chain form of L-glucose does not exist.
  2. B) it is not possible to make L-glucose.
  3. C) L-glucose has a 5-membered ring, and D-glucose has a 6-membered ring.
  4. D) only D-glucose is found in disaccharides and polysaccharides.
  5. E) L-glucose cannot form a closed structure.

 

 

 

 

18) Hyperglycemia is a condition in which

  1. A) the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL.
  2. B) the amount of glucose in the urine is lower than normal.
  3. C) the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal.
  4. D) the glucose level in the pancreas is lower than normal.
  5. E) the glucose level in the liver is lower than normal.

 

 

 

 

19) Hypoglycemia is a condition in which

  1. A) the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL.
  2. B) the amount of glucose in the urine is higher than normal.
  3. C) the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal.
  4. D) the glucose level in the pancreas is higher than normal.
  5. E) the glucose level in the blood is lower than normal.

 

 

 

 

 

20) The sugar also known as dextrose and blood sugar is

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) galactose.
  3. C) fructose.
  4. D) lactose.
  5. E) sucrose.

 

 

 

21) Galactose has the structure shown below.  It can be classified as a(n)

 

  1. A) ribose.
  2. B) ketose.
  3. C) disaccharide.
  4. D) monosaccharide.
  5. E) ketone.

 

 

 

 

22) Galactose has the structure shown below.  Which anomer is shown?

 

  1. A) the α anomer
  2. B) the β anomer
  3. C) the D anomer
  4. D) the L anomer
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

 

23) Mannose has the structure shown below.  Which anomer is shown?

 

 

  1. A) the α anomer
  2. B) the β anomer
  3. C) the D anomer
  4. D) the L anomer
  5. E) none of the above

 

 

 

 

24) The conversion between α and β anomers is called

  1. A) oxidation.
  2. B) reduction.
  3. C) glycoside.
  4. D) mutarotation.
  5. E) hydrolysis.

 

 

 

 

25) The reduction of monosaccharides produces

  1. A) sugar alcohols.
  2. B) disaccharides.
  3. C) trisaccharides.
  4. D) sugar acids.
  5. E) polysaccharides.

 

 

 

 

26) The oxidation of monosaccharides produces

  1. A) sugar alcohols.
  2. B) disaccharides.
  3. C) trisaccharides.
  4. D) sugar acids.
  5. E) polysaccharides.

 

 

 

 

27) A glycosidic bond between two monosaccharides can also be classified as a(n)

  1. A) double bond.
  2. B) ester bond.
  3. C) ether bond.
  4. D) achiral bond.
  5. E) alcohol bond.

 

 

 

 

28) In a disaccharide, two monosaccharides are joined by what kind of bond?

  1. A) double
  2. B) anomeric
  3. C) alcohol
  4. D) glycosidic
  5. E) rotational

 

 

 

 

29) Which of the following contains a β-1,4-glycosidic bond?

  1. A) galactose
  2. B) lactose
  3. C) maltose
  4. D) sucrose
  5. E) amylose

 

 

 

 

30) Which sugar is NOT a reducing sugar?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) fructose
  3. C) galactose
  4. D) maltose
  5. E) sucrose

 

 

 

 

31) Aspartame® and Saccharin® are two examples of

  1. A) disaccharides.
  2. B) polysaccharides.
  3. C) chlorosaccharides.
  4. D) alcohol sweeteners.
  5. E) noncarbohydrate sweeteners.

 

 

 

Refer to the disaccharides below to answer the question(s) that follow.

 

32) In the figure above, the monosaccharide unit at the top is a(n)

  1. A) aldopentose.
  2. B) ketopentose.
  3. C) aldohexose.
  4. D) aldoheptose.
  5. E) ketohexose.

 

 

 

 

33) In the figure above, the monosaccharide unit on the bottom is a(n)

  1. A) aldopentose.
  2. B) ketopentose.
  3. C) aldohexose.
  4. D) aldoheptose.
  5. E) ketohexose.

 

 

 

 

34) Hydrolysis of the disaccharide above gives the monosaccharides

  1. A) fructose and ribose.
  2. B) fructose and galactose.
  3. C) ribose and glucose.
  4. D) ribose and galactose.
  5. E) fructose and lactose.

 

 

 

 

 

35) The disaccharide above contains a(n) ________-glycosidic linkage.

  1. A) α-1,4
  2. B) β-1,4
  3. C) α-2,4
  4. D) β-2,4
  5. E) α-2,6

 

 

 

36) Maltose is a

  1. A) monosaccharide.
  2. B) disaccharide.
  3. C) trisaccharide.
  4. D) polysaccharide.
  5. E) phosphosaccharide.

 

 

 

 

37) Galactose is a product of enzymatic hydrolysis of

  1. A) lactose.
  2. B) glucose.
  3. C) maltose.
  4. D) erythrose.
  5. E) sucrose.

 

 

 

 

38) Maltose can be classified as a(n)

  1. A) disaccharide.
  2. B) polysaccharide.
  3. C) ketose.
  4. D) pentose.
  5. E) oligosaccharide.

 

 

 

 

39) Which of the following contains α-1,6-branches?

  1. A) amylose
  2. B) glycogen
  3. C) cellulose
  4. D) sucrose
  5. E) maltose

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

40) Cellulose is not digestible by humans because it contains glucose units linked by ________-glycosidic bonds.

  1. A) α-1,2
  2. B) α-1,4
  3. C) α-1,6
  4. D) β-1,2
  5. E) β-1,4

 

Objective:  15.6

 

41) Amylose is a polysaccharide which has

  1. A) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  2. B) only α-1,4-links bonds glucose units.
  3. C) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  4. D) hemiacetal links joining glucose units.
  5. E) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

42) Humans cannot digest cellulose because they

  1. A) lack the necessary enzymes to digest β-glycosides.
  2. B) are allergic to β-glycosides.
  3. C) are poisoned by β-glycosides.
  4. D) have intestinal flora which use up β-glycosides.
  5. E) cannot digest chlorophyll.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

43) Under acid hydrolysis conditions, starch is converted to

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) xylose.
  3. C) maltose.
  4. D) galactose.
  5. E) fructose.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

 

44) Amylopectin is a polysaccharide which has

  1. A) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  2. B) only α-1,4-links bonds glucose units.
  3. C) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  4. D) both α-1,4-and α-1,6-bonds between glucose units.
  5. E) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

45) Glycogen is a polysaccharide which has

  1. A) only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  2. B) only α-1,4-links bonds glucose units.
  3. C) both α-1,4-and β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.
  4. D) both α-1,4-and α-1,6-bonds between glucose units.
  5. E) carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

15.2   Short Answer Questions

 

State whether each of these structures is the α- or β-form.

 

1)

 

 

2)

 

 

 

3)

 

4)

 

5)

 

 

 

Identify each Fischer projection as the D- or L-isomer.

 

6)

 

 

 

 

7)

 

8)

 

 

 

9)

 

 

10)

 

 

 

 

15.3   True/False Questions

 

1) A monosaccharide can be hydrolyzed to smaller units.

 

 

 

 

2) Fructose is also known as dextrose.

 

 

 

3) Fructose is a ketohexose.

 

 

 

 

4) In the D- isomer, the -OH farthest from the carbonyl is to the left.

 

 

 

 

 

5) In the α anomer of glucose, the OH on carbon 1 is above the plane of the ring.

 

 

 

 

6) This anomer is the α anomer

 

 

 

 

7) A reducing sugar gives a precipitate of silver metal with Benedict’s reagent.

 

 

 

 

8) Cellulose will give a positive Benedict’s test.

 

 

 

 

9) The product of oxidation of an aldose is a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

10) The product of reduction of mannose is mannic acid.

 

 

 

 

11) Sucrose is a reducing sugar.

 

 

 

12) Maltose is a reducing sugar.

 

 

 

 

13) The product of reduction of xylose is xylitol.

 

 

 

 

14) Sucrose is made up of glucose units only.

 

 

 

 

15) Galactose is a disaccharide.

 

 

 

 

16) Sucrose is a disaccharide.

 

 

 

 

17) The iodine test is used to detect the presence of a reducing sugar.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

18) Glucose is stored in animals as glycogen.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

19) Amylopectin is a straight-chain polysaccharide.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

20) Cellulose is a polysaccharide with only β-1,4-bonds between glucose units.

 

Objective:  15.6

 

 

15.4   Matching Questions

 

Select the correct carbohydrate for each description.

 

  1. A) amylose
  2. B) fructose
  3. C) lactose
  4. D) cellulose
  5. E) galactose
  6. F) glycogen
  7. G) maltose
  8. H) sucrose

 

1) a carbohydrate that cannot be digested by humans

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

2) a disaccharide that occurs as a breakdown product of starch

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

3) a carbohydrate that stores energy in the human body

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

4) a carbohydrate that is used to build cell walls in plants

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

5) a monosaccharide that combines with glucose to form lactose

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

6) a disaccharide found in milk and milk products

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

7) a disaccharide consisting of glucose and fructose

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

8) a disaccharide consisting of two glucose molecules

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

9) a monosaccharide found in fruit juices and honey, the sweetest carbohydrate

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

10) an unbranched carbohydrate that stores glucose in plants

, 15.5, 15.6

 

 

 

Indicate the monosaccharide(s) produced upon hydrolysis of each carbohydrate.

 

  1. A) glucose + fructose
  2. B) glucose
  3. C) glucose + galactose

 

11) amylopectin

, 15.6

 

 

12) lactose

, 15.6

 

 

13) glycogen

, 15.6

 

 

14) maltose

, 15.6

 

 

15) sucrose

, 15.6

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 16   Carboxylic Acids and Esters

 

16.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which functional group is a carboxylic acid?

  1. A) – OH

 

  1. B) O

 

– C – OH

 

  1. C) O

 

– C – O –

 

  1. D) OH

|

–  C – OH

|

 

  1. E) – CH2- OH

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

2) The functional group in acetic acid is called the

  1. A) hydroxyl group.
  2. B) aldehyde group.
  3. C) carbonyl group.
  4. D) carboxyl group.
  5. E) ester group.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

3) Which of the following is found in vinegar?

  1. A) nitric acid
  2. B) formic acid
  3. C) acetic acid
  4. D) propionic acid
  5. E) butyric acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

4) What is the common name of the compound?

 

O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH is

 

  1. A) acetic acid
  2. B) propanoic acid
  3. C) propionic acid
  4. D) butanoic acid
  5. E) butyric acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

5) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

 

 

 

  1. A) propyl butanoate
  2. B) butanoic acid
  3. C) 1-butanal
  4. D) 1-butanoate
  5. E) propyl methanoate

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

6) In the compound below, the hydroxyl group is in which position?

 

O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH – C – OH

|

OH

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

7) The compound below is named

 

 

  1. A) benzoic acid amine.
  2. B) 3-aminobenzoic acid.
  3. C) 2-acid aniline.
  4. D) benzamide.
  5. E) 2-aminobenzoic acid.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

8) Which of these functional groups is likely to give a sour taste to a food?

  1. A) ester
  2. B) ether
  3. C) ketone
  4. D) carboxylic acid
  5. E) thiol

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

9) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

 

CH3               O

|

CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OH

 

  1. A) pentanoic acid
  2. B) γ-methylbutanoic acid
  3. C) 3-methylbutanoic acid
  4. D) γ-methyl butyric acid
  5. E) 2-methyl-4-butanoic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

10) What is the IUPAC name for this compound?

 

CH3               O

|

CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – OH

 

  1. A) pentanoic acid
  2. B) 2-methylbutanoic acid
  3. C) 3-methylbutanoic acid
  4. D) 2-methyl butyric acid
  5. E) 2-methyl-4-butanoic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

11) What kind of taste do carboxylic acids have?

  1. A) sweet
  2. B) sour
  3. C) fruity
  4. D) slippery
  5. E) oily

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

12) W hat is the common name for ethanoic acid?

  1. A) butyric acid
  2. B) formic acid
  3. C) citric acid
  4. D) stearic acid
  5. E) acetic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

13) What is the irritating acid found in ant and bee stings?

  1. A) acetic acid
  2. B) formic acid
  3. C) citric acid
  4. D) butyric acid
  5. E) stearic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

14) Which organic acid accounts for the odor of rancid butter?

  1. A) propionic acid
  2. B) acetic acid
  3. C) formic acid
  4. D) butyric acid
  5. E) ethanoic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

15) In the common naming convention for carboxylic acids, what is the correct Greek letter used for the carbon adjacent to the carboxyl group?

  1. A) α
  2. B) β
  3. C) γ
  4. D) δ
  5. E) ε

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

16) What therapeutic use is made of α-hydroxy acids?

  1. A) ulcer treatment
  2. B) fever reduction
  3. C) antibiotic
  4. D) reduction of skin pigmentation
  5. E) sunscreen

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

17) What significant side effect is seen with α-hydroxy acid use?

  1. A) UV sensitivity
  2. B) increased thirst
  3. C) nausea
  4. D) increased susceptibility to infection
  5. E) gastric irritation

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

 

18) What α-hydroxy acid is found predominantly in grapes?

  1. A) tartaric acid
  2. B) citric acid
  3. C) lactic acid
  4. D) glycolic acid
  5. E) benzoic acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

19) What is the method of preparing carboxylic acids from alcohols or aldehydes?

  1. A) reduction
  2. B) hydration
  3. C) oxidation
  4. D) saponification
  5. E) hydrolysis

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

20) A carboxylic acid is prepared from an aldehyde by

  1. A) oxidation.
  2. B) reduction.
  3. C) hydrolysis.
  4. D) neutralization.
  5. E) hydrogenation.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

21) The structural formula of the carboxylic acid produced by the oxidation of

2,2-dimethyl-1-propanol is

  1. A) CH3 O

|

CH3 C   –   CH

|

CH3

 

  1. B) CH3 O         CH3

|                   |

CH3 C   –   C – O  C CH3

|                      |

CH3                CH3

 

  1. C) O

 

CH3CH2CH2CH2 C OH

 

  1. D) CH3 O

|

CH3 C   –   C OH

|

CH3

 

  1. E) CH3

|

CH3 C –  OH

|

CH3

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

22) A carboxylic acid is named in the IUPAC system by replacing the -e in the name of the parent alkane with

  1. A) -oic acid.
  2. B) -oic.
  3. C) -carboxylic acid.
  4. D) acid.
  5. E) -oate.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

23) Which carboxylic acid in the list below is an aromatic carboxylic acid?

  1. A) acetic acid
  2. B) benzoic acid
  3. C) butyric acid
  4. D) benzene
  5. E) citric acid

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

24) What kind of intermolecular bonding occurs between carboxylic acids?

  1. A) ionic bonding
  2. B) nonpolar bonding
  3. C) covalent bonding
  4. D) hydrogen bonding
  5. E) charge-transfer bonding

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

25) Why do carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than similar alcohols or aldehydes?

  1. A) They form dimers that are relatively stable.
  2. B) They are more water soluble.
  3. C) They have higher molecular weights.
  4. D) They have an additional oxygen atom.
  5. E) The carboxylic acid chain is not linear.

 

 

 

 

26) What happens to water solubility as chain length increases in carboxylic acids?

  1. A) It increases.
  2. B) It decreases.
  3. C) It stays the same.

 

 

 

 

27) What is the common use of monosodium glutamate?

  1. A) as a preservative
  2. B) as a disinfectant
  3. C) as an anti-pyretic
  4. D) as a flavor enhancer
  5. E) as a spoilage inhibitor

 

 

 

 

28) What common use is made of sodium propionate and sodium benzoate?

  1. A) flavor enhancer
  2. B) preservative
  3. C) pH adjuster
  4. D) disinfectant
  5. E) decongestant

 

 

 

 

29) What metabolic product of pyruvic acid is formed anaerobically during exercise?

  1. A) lactic acid
  2. B) citric acid
  3. C) malic acid
  4. D) acetic acid
  5. E) β-ketoglutaric acid

 

 

 

 

30) Which of these is an acid formed in the citric acid cycle?

  1. A) acetic acid
  2. B) propionic acid
  3. C) α-ketoglutaric acid
  4. D) benzoic acid
  5. E) palmitic acid

 

 

 

 

31) When compared to sulfuric acid, how strong are carboxylic acids?

  1. A) stronger
  2. B) just as strong
  3. C) weaker
  4. D) not acidic at all

 

 

 

 

32) In water solution, how does dilute acetic acid behave?

  1. A) as a strong acid
  2. B) as a weak acid
  3. C) as a strong base
  4. D) as a weak base
  5. E) as a neutral compound

 

 

 

 

33) Which of the following is the reaction for the ionization of β-hydroxypropanoic acid in water?

  1. A) O OH

|

HO – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH + H2O       ↔   HO – CH2 – CH2 – CH – OH + H+

 

  1. B) O O

 

HO – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH + H2O      ↔   HO – CH2 – CH2 – C – O- + H3O+

 

  1. C) O O

 

CH3 – CH – C – OH + H2O       ↔   CH3 – CH – C – O- + H3O+

|                                                            |

OH                                                        OH

 

  1. D) O O

 

HO – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH + 2 H2O        ↔    -OCH2CH2 C O- + 2 H3O+

 

  1. E) O O

 

CH3 CH C OH + H2O    ↔    CH3 – CH – C – OH + H3O+

|                                                      |

OH                                                  O-

 

 

 

 

34) The neutralization of formic acid by NaOH produces

  1. A) sodium formate as the only product.
  2. B) formate ion and hydronium ion.
  3. C) sodium formaldehyde.
  4. D) methyl alcohol.
  5. E) sodium formate and H2

 

 

 

 

35) Which of the following compounds is most soluble in water?

  1. A) CH3- CH2- CH3

 

  1. B) CH3- CH2- CH2 – O – CH3

 

  1. C) CH3- CH2- CH2 – CH2 – OH

 

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – OH

 

  1. E) O

 

CH3 – C – OH

 

 

 

 

36) Which of the following is the reaction for the neutralization of β-hydroxybutyric acid with NaOH?

  1. A) OH O                                                  OH                  O

|                                                                           |

CH3 – CH – CH2 – C- OH + NaOH       →   CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – O- Na+ + H2O

 

  1. B) OH O                                                           OH      O

|                                                                                  |

CH3 – CH – CH2 – C- OH + NaOH       →   CH3 – C – CH2 – C – OH + NaH

|

OH

 

  1. C) OH     O                                                             OH     O

|                                                                         |

CH3 – CH2 – CH – C- OH + NaOH      →   CH3 – CH2 – CH – C – O- Na+ + H2O

 

  1. D) OH                  O                                                        O- Na+          O

|                                                                               |

CH3 – CH – CH2 – C- OH + 2 NaOH       →    CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – O- Na+ + 2 H2O

 

  1. E)                       O                                                                               O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH – C- OH + 2 NaOH       →    CH3 – CH2 – CH – C – O- Na+ + 2 H2O

|                                                                                 |

OH                                                                            OH

 

 

 

37) Which compound below contains an ester functional group?

  1. A) OH

|

CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. B) CH3- CH2- O – CH2- CH3

 

  1. C) O

 

H – C – O – CH2- CH3

 

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. E) O

 

CH3 – C – OH

 

 

 

 

 

38) What is the product of the reaction of pentanoic acid with ethanol in the presence of a strong acid?

  1. A) pentyl ethanoate
  2. B) ethyl pentanoate
  3. C) pentyl acetate
  4. D) heptanoic acid

 

 

 

 

39) This functional group is known as a(n)

 

O

 

– C – O – C

 

  1. A) ester.
  2. B) carboxylic acid.
  3. C) alcohol.
  4. D) aldehyde.
  5. E) acetal.

 

 

 

 

40) The reactants that will form an ester in the presence of an acid catalyst are

  1. A) two carboxylic acids.
  2. B) two alcohols.
  3. C) a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
  4. D) an aldehyde and an alcohol.
  5. E) two aldehydes.

 

 

 

 

41) Which of these compounds is the ester formed from the reaction of acetic acid and 1-propanol?

  1. A) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – O – CH2- CH3

 

  1. B) OH

|

CH3 – C – OH

|

O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. C) OH

|

CH3 – CH2 – C – OH

|

O – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. E) O

 

CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH2- C – OH

 

 

 

 

 

42) The alcohol and carboxylic acid required to form propyl ethanoate are

  1. A) methanol and propionic acid.
  2. B) ethanol and propionic acid.
  3. C) propanol and propanoic acid.
  4. D) 1-propanol and ethanoic acid.
  5. E) 2-propanol and ethanoic acid.

 

 

 

43) What is the product of the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid when reacted together under acidic conditions?

  1. A) an ether
  2. B) an ester
  3. C) a salt
  4. D) a ketone
  5. E) an aldehyde

 

 

 

 

44) Derivatives of which aromatic carboxylic acid have been used as analgesics, antipyretics, and anti-inflammatory agents?

  1. A) benzoic acid
  2. B) anthranilic acid
  3. C) naphthenic acid
  4. D) p-toluenesulfonic acid
  5. E) salicylic acid

 

 

 

 

45) Many of the fragrances of flowers and the flavors of fruits are due to

  1. A) ethers.
  2. B) carboxylic acids.
  3. C) esters.
  4. D) amines.
  5. E) amides.

 

 

 

 

46) What is the common name of this compound?

 

O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. A) ethyl methyl ester
  2. B) diethyl ester
  3. C) ethyl methanoate
  4. D) 2-ether-2-butanone
  5. E) ethyl acetate

 

 

 

 

47) Give the IUPAC name for the following compound.

 

 

 

  1. A) ethyl propyl ether
  2. B) ethyl propanoate
  3. C) ethyl butanoate
  4. D) hexanoic acid
  5. E) 4-hexanal

 

 

 

 

48) Give the IUPAC name for the following compound.

 

 

  1. A) methyl formyl ether
  2. B) methyl methanoate
  3. C) methyl ethanoate
  4. D) methyl formate
  5. E) ethanoate

 

 

 

 

49) From what component is the first part of the IUPAC name of an ester (such as methyl acetate) derived?

  1. A) the carboxylic acid
  2. B) the alcohol
  3. C) the ether
  4. D) the ester
  5. E) the amide

 

 

 

 

 

50) The splitting apart of an ester in the presence of a strong acid and water is called

  1. A) hydrolysis.
  2. B) saponification.
  3. C) neutralization.
  4. D) esterification.
  5. E) reduction.

 

 

 

51) Which of the following is the reaction for the acid hydrolysis of ethyl formate?

  1. A) O O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3 + NaOH       →     CH3 – C – O- Na+ + CH3 – OH

 

  1. B) O O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3 + H2O        →    CH3 – C – OH + CH3 – OH

 

  1. C) O O

 

H – C – O – CH3 + H2O       →  H – C – OH + CH3 – OH

 

  1. D) O O

 

H – C – O – CH2 – CH3  + H2O        →    H – C – OH + CH3 – CH2 – OH

 

  1. E) O OH

|

H – C – O – CH2 – CH3  + H2O       →     H – C – O – CH2 – CH3

|

OH

 

 

 

 

52) Which of the following is the reaction for the saponification of methyl acetate?

  1. A) O O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3 + NaOH       →     CH3 – C – OH + CH3 – O- Na+

 

 

  1. B) O O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3 + NaOH       →     CH3 – C – O- Na+ + CH3 – OH

 

  1. C) O O

 

H – C – O – CH3 + H2O       →   H – C – O- + CH3 – OH

 

  1. D) O O

 

H – C – O – CH3 + NaOH        →      H – C – O- Na+ + CH3 – OH

 

 

 

  1. E) O O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3 + H2O        →     CH3 – C – O- + CH3 – OH

 

 

 

 

53) The reaction of an ester with NaOH is known as

  1. A) esterification.
  2. B) neutralization.
  3. C) saponification.
  4. D) reduction.
  5. E) oxidation.

 

 

 

 

54) What chemical process is responsible for the smell of vinegar in an old bottle of aspirin?

  1. A) reduction
  2. B) hydration
  3. C) hydrolysis
  4. D) esterification
  5. E) dissolution

 

 

 

55) Which part of a soap is responsible for its ability to dissolve fats and oily dirt?

  1. A) the hydrophilic end
  2. B) the hydrophobic end
  3. C) the carboxylate
  4. D) the ionized oxygen
  5. E) the carbonyl group

 

 

 

 

56) What is the name of the structure formed when a soap coats an oily particle to make it water soluble?

  1. A) micelle
  2. B) cluster
  3. C) liposome
  4. D) dimer
  5. E) lipid

 

 

 

 

16.2   True-False Questions

 

1) Carboxylic acids are responsible for the sweet taste of fruits and vegetables.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

2) The major acidic component of vinegar is formic acid.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

3) Alpha-hydroxy acids should be used at concentrations under 10% in skin care products.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

4) It is always safe to use any commercial skin care product without doing a test patch first.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

5) Benzoic acid is an aromatic carboxylic acid.

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

6) The IUPAC name of this compound is propanoic acid.

 

 

Objective:  16.1

 

 

7) Carboxylic acids with more than five carbons are very water soluble.

 

 

 

 

8) The boiling points of carboxylic acids are lower than the corresponding alcohols.

 

 

 

 

9) Carboxylic acids with four or fewer carbons are very water soluble.

 

 

 

 

10) Sodium propionate is a common disinfectant.

 

 

 

 

11) When in solution, carboxylic acids are mostly in their ionized forms.

 

 

 

 

12) Sodium benzoate is a common preservative.

 

 

 

 

13) Citric acid is an important part of glycolysis.

 

 

 

 

14) The Krebs cycle is a process that the cell uses to produce energy.

 

 

 

 

15) The Krebs cycle and the citric acid cycle are different processes.

 

 

 

 

16) Carboxylic acids are strong acids.

 

 

 

 

17) When benzoic acid is neutralized by sodium hydroxide, sodium benzoate is formed.

 

 

 

 

18) Esters are formed from the reaction of an ether with a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

19) An ester is derived from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

20) Methyl salicylate (oil of wintergreen) is used therapeutically as a counter-irritant.

 

 

 

 

21) Polyesters are plastics that are used to make fabrics, bottles, and medical devices such as heart valves.

 

 

 

 

22) Butyl alcohol is one of the reactants used to make methyl butyrate.

 

 

 

 

23) The ester formed from butyl alcohol and acetic acid is called butyl acetate.

 

 

 

 

24) The IUPAC name of this compound is methyl butanoate.

 

 

 

 

 

25) Long chain carboxylic acids are also known as fatty acids.

 

 

 

 

26) Aspirin that has a smell of vinegar has broken down by hydrolysis.

 

 

 

 

27) Soaps are salts of long chain fatty acids.

 

 

 

 

 

16.3   Matching Questions

 

Identify the family for each of the following compounds.

 

  1. A) ketone
  2. B) carboxylic acid
  3. C) ester

 

1)          O

 

CH3 – C – CH3

Objective:  16.1, 16.3

 

 

2)                       O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – OH

Objective:  16.1, 16.3

 

 

3)                       O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – O – CH3

Objective:  16.1, 16.3

 

 

Select the correct name for the following.

 

  1. A) ethyl formate
  2. B) sodium formate
  3. C) formic acid

 

4)    O

 

H – C – OH

Objective:  16.1, 16.4

 

 

5)    O

 

H – C – O – CH2 – CH3

Objective:  16.1, 16.4

 

 

6)    O

 

H – C – O- Na+

Objective:  16.1, 16.4

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 17   Lipids

 

17.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which statement is NOT true?

  1. A) Lipids are found in cell membranes.
  2. B) Lipids are soluble in organic solvents.
  3. C) There are many different types of lipids.
  4. D) All lipids contain fatty acids.
  5. E) Some hormones are lipids.

 

 

 

 

For the question(s) that follow, identify the class of lipid to which each of the following molecules belongs.

 

2)

 

  1. A) wax
  2. B) triacylglycerol
  3. C) glycerolphospholipid
  4. D) glycosphingolipid
  5. E) steroid

 

 

 

 

3)

 

  1. A) triacylglycerol
  2. B) wax
  3. C) glycerolphospholipid
  4. D) bile salt
  5. E) steroid

 

 

 

 

4)

 

  1. A) glycerophospholipid
  2. B) triacylglycerol
  3. C) glycosphingolipid
  4. D) steroid
  5. E) wax

 

 

 

 

5)

  1. A) sphingolipid
  2. B) simple lipid
  3. C) bile salt
  4. D) triacylglycerol
  5. E) prostaglandin

 

 

 

 

6)

  1. A) steroid
  2. B) glycerophospholipid
  3. C) wax
  4. D) bile salt
  5. E) prostaglandin

 

 

 

 

 

7) Lipids are compounds that are soluble in

  1. A) distilled water.
  2. B) normal saline solution.
  3. C) glucose solution.
  4. D) chloroform.
  5. E) oxygen.

 

 

 

8) Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in the human body?

  1. A) energy storage
  2. B) insulation
  3. C) protection
  4. D) emulsification
  5. E) pH regulation

 

 

 

 

9) Which of the following lipids will give no fatty acid when hydrolyzed?

  1. A) wax
  2. B) fat
  3. C) phospholipid
  4. D) glycolipid
  5. E) cholesterol

 

 

 

 

10) Which of the following is NOT a lipid?

  1. A) oleic acid
  2. B) cholesterol
  3. C) carnuba wax
  4. D) DNA
  5. E) lecithin

 

 

 

 

 

11) A polyunsaturated fatty acid contains more than one

  1. A) carboxyl group.
  2. B) hydroxyl group.
  3. C) carbonyl group.
  4. D) long carbon chain.
  5. E) double bond.

 

 

 

 

12) Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids because

  1. A) they have fewer hydrogen atoms.
  2. B) they have more hydrogen atoms.
  3. C) their molecules fit closely together.
  4. D) the cis double bonds give them an irregular shape.
  5. E) the trans double bonds give them an irregular shape.

 

 

 

13) Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

  1. A) myristic
  2. B) oleic
  3. C) palmitic
  4. D) stearic
  5. E) lauric

 

 

 

 

14) Which of the following fatty acids is a solid at room temperature?

  1. A) palmitoleic
  2. B) oleic
  3. C) stearic
  4. D) linoleic
  5. E) linolenic

 

 

 

 

 

15) Compared to saturated fatty acids, unsaturated fatty acids have

  1. A) longer carbon chains.
  2. B) shorter carbon chains.
  3. C) higher melting points.
  4. D) lower melting points.
  5. E) greater intermolecular attraction.

 

 

 

16) Choose the polyunsaturated fatty acid from the compounds below.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

 

17) Choose the saturated fatty acid from the compounds below.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

18) Which of the following is a fatty acid which is a solid at room temperature?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

19) Which of the following fatty acids is most likely to be a liquid at room temperature?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

20) A double cheeseburger with bacon contains 640 kcal and 39 g of fat.  Calculate the number of kilocalories from fat (1 gram of fat = 9 kcal).

  1. A) 4.3 kcal from fat
  2. B) 39 kcal from fat
  3. C) 71 kcal from fat
  4. D) 350 kcal from fat
  5. E) 640 kcal from fat

 

 

 

 

21) A double cheeseburger with bacon contains 640 kcal and 39 g of fat.  Calculate the percentage of total kilocalories due to fat (1 gram of fat = 9 kcal).

  1. A) 0.68% of total kilocalories
  2. B) 6.1% of total kilocalories
  3. C) 11% of total kilocalories
  4. D) 55% of total kilocalories
  5. E) 100% of total kilocalories

 

 

 

22) Which of the following lipids will give a single molecule of fatty acid when hydrolyzed?

  1. A) wax
  2. B) fat
  3. C) phospholipid
  4. D) glycolipid
  5. E) cholesterol

 

 

 

 

23) Choose the polyunsaturated triacylglycerol from the compounds below.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

24) Choose the saturated triacylglycerol from the compounds below.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

25) Waxes are lipids derived from

  1. A) a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid.
  2. B) glycerol and three fatty acids.
  3. C) glycerol, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.
  4. D) sphingosine, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol.
  5. E) terpenes and steroids.

 

 

 

 

26) A triacylglycerol that is solid at room temperature is called a(n)

  1. A) cephalin.
  2. B) lecithin.
  3. C) oil.
  4. D) wax.
  5. E) fat.

 

 

 

 

27) Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fat?

  1. A) triolein
  2. B) tripalmitin
  3. C) tristearin
  4. D) trimyristin
  5. E) trilinolein

 

 

 

 

28) Commercially, liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid fats such as margarine by

  1. A) hydrogenation.
  2. B) hydrolysis.
  3. C) hydration.
  4. D) oxidation.
  5. E) saponification.

 

 

 

 

29) Margarine containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil is solid because

  1. A) it contains only saturated fats.
  2. B) it contains only trans fatty acids.
  3. C) some of its double bonds have been converted to single bonds.
  4. D) it contains only cis double bonds.
  5. E) it contains only polyunsaturated fatty acids.

 

 

 

 

30) Palmitic acid is a 16 carbon acid. In a balanced equation, the products of the saponification of glyceryl tripalmitate (tripalmitin) are

  1. A) O

 

CH2 – OH + 3 CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – OH

|

CH – OH

|

CH2 – OH

 

  1. B) O

 

CH2 – O- Na+ + 3 CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – OH

|

CH – O- Na+

|

CH2 – O- Na+

 

  1. C) O

 

CH2 – OH + 3 CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – O- Na+

|

CHOH

|

CH2 – OH

 

  1. D) O

 

CH2 – OH + CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – O- Na+

|

3 CHOH

|

CH2 – OH

 

  1. E) O

 

CH2 – OH + 2 CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – O- Na+

|

CHOH                                              O

|

CH2 – OH +  CH3 – (CH2)14 – C – O- Na+

 

 

 

31) The products of the acid catalyzed hydrolysis of a fat are

  1. A) the esters of fatty acids.
  2. B) fatty acids and glycerol.
  3. C) salts of fatty acids.
  4. D) salts of fatty acids and glycerol.
  5. E) phospholipids.

 

 

 

 

32) The products of the saponification of a fat are

  1. A) the esters of fatty acids.
  2. B) fatty acids and glycerol.
  3. C) salts of fatty acids.
  4. D) salts of fatty acids and glycerol.
  5. E) phospholipids.

 

 

 

 

33) The products of this reaction is

 

  1. A) glyceryl trioleate
  2. B) glyceryl trisrearate
  3. C) glyceryl tripalmitate
  4. D) fat.
  5. E) glyceryl tricaprate.

 

 

 

 

 

34) Glycerophospholipids can interact both with other lipids and water because they contain both ________ and ________.

  1. A) single bonds; double bonds
  2. B) polar regions; nonpolar regions
  3. C) glycerol; sphingosine
  4. D) saturated fatty acids; unsaturated fatty acids
  5. E) bile salts; cholesterol

 

 

 

35) The components in the following glycerophospholipid are

 

 

  1. A) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and choline.
  2. B) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and serine.
  3. C) glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.
  4. D) glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and galactose.
  5. E) sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.

 

 

 

 

36) In the list below, which lipid type is most soluble in water?

  1. A) triacylglycerols
  2. B) glycerophospholipids
  3. C) oils
  4. D) steroids
  5. E) waxes

 

 

 

 

 

37) What phospholipid contains fatty acids but NOT glycerol?

  1. A) lecithin
  2. B) glycolipid
  3. C) sphingolipid
  4. D) cephalin
  5. E) corticosteroid

 

 

 

38) Which of the following compounds is a glycerolphospholipid?

  1. A) jojoba wax
  2. B) estrogen
  3. C) lecithin
  4. D) triolein
  5. E) cerebroside

 

 

 

 

39) Which of the following is NOT a function of glycerophospholipids?

  1. A) transport of triacylglycerols
  2. B) regulation of cellular permeability
  3. C) protect nerve cells
  4. D) aid in digestion
  5. E) transport of cholesterol

 

 

 

 

40) A lecithin contains which of the following components?

  1. A) glycerol and three fatty acids
  2. B) glycerol, two fatty acids and choline
  3. C) glycerol, two fatty acids, phosphate and an amino alcohol
  4. D) sphingosine, two fatty acids, phosphate and an amino alcohol
  5. E) sphingosine, one fatty acid, phosphate and an amino alcohol

 

 

 

 

 

41) The most common type of gallstones is composed of almost pure

  1. A) cholesterol.
  2. B) bile salts.
  3. C) glycerophospholipids.
  4. D) calcium salts of fatty acids.
  5. E) anabolic steroids.

 

 

 

 

42) A lipoprotein particle functions to

  1. A) dissolve polar lipids for excretion.
  2. B) metabolize lipids into new substances.
  3. C) dissolve polar lipids in urine.
  4. D) transport nonpolar lipids to body cells.
  5. E) store lipids in the tissues.

 

 

 

43) Synthesis of cholesterol and bile salts takes place in the

  1. A) liver.
  2. B) gall bladder.
  3. C) small intestine.
  4. D) large intestine.
  5. E) pancreas.

 

 

 

 

44) Which of the following is NOT a lipoprotein that carries nonpolar lipids through the bloodstream?

  1. A) sphingosine
  2. B) LDL
  3. C) HDL
  4. D) VLDL
  5. E) chylomicron

 

 

 

 

 

45) The steroid hormone that increases the blood glucose and glycogen levels from fatty acids and amino acids is

  1. A) aldosterone.
  2. B) progesterone.
  3. C) cortisone.
  4. D) estrogen.
  5. E) prednisone.

 

 

 

 

46) The steroid hormone present in birth control pills is

  1. A) aldosterone.
  2. B) progesterone.
  3. C) cortisone.
  4. D) estrogen.
  5. E) norethindrone.

 

 

 

 

47) Which of the following is a lipid?

  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) nicotine
  3. C) aniline
  4. D) lactose
  5. E) collagen

 

 

 

48) The main lipid components in cellular membranes are

  1. A) glycerolphospholipids.
  2. B) terpenes.
  3. C) steroids.
  4. D) triacylglycerols.
  5. E) waxes.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

 

49) In the fluid-mosaic model that describes plasma membranes,

  1. A) there are three layers of glycerophospholipid molecules.
  2. B) two layers of glycerophospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections oriented to the inside of the membrane.
  3. C) two layers of glycerophospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections along the outer surface of the membrane.
  4. D) A single row of glycerophospholipid molecules forms a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell.
  5. E) two layers of proteins separate the contents inside a cell from the surrounding fluids.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

50) Channel proteins in cell membranes serve what function?

  1. A) They add strength and rigidity to the membrane.
  2. B) They provide pathways for water and electrolytes to move through cell membranes.
  3. C) They form the bilayer portion of the membrane.
  4. D) They allow nonpolar substances to move through the membrane.
  5. E) They prevent interactions between the nonpolar tails of the phospholipids which gives the membrane its fluidity.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

51) According to the fluid-mosaic model of a cell membrane, the main component of a membrane is

  1. A) a lipid bilayer.
  2. B) a membrane protein.
  3. C) a glycoprotein.
  4. D) a steroid.
  5. E) a prostaglandin.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

52) The type of lipid that gives a cell membrane its shape is a

  1. A) triacylglycerol.
  2. B) glycerophospholipid.
  3. C) prostaglandin.
  4. D) bile salt.
  5. E) wax.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

 

53) One inner component of a typical cell membrane is

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) cholesterol.
  3. C) glycine.
  4. D) palmitic acid.
  5. E) glycerol.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

Answer the question(s) that follow about the diagram shown below.

 

 

 

54) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the small branched object labeled (A) is part of a

  1. A) steroid.
  2. B) hydrophobic region.
  3. C) membrane protein.
  4. D) glycerophospholipid.
  5. E) carbohydrate side chain.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

55) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the objects labeled (E) are

  1. A) steroids.
  2. B) hydrophobic regions.
  3. C) proteins.
  4. D) phospholipids.
  5. E) carbohydrate side chains.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

 

56) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (C) is a

  1. A) steroid.
  2. B) hydrophobic region.
  3. C) phospholipid.
  4. D) mitochondrion.
  5. E) glycolipid.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

57) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (B) is a

  1. A) steroid.
  2. B) hydrophobic region.
  3. C) membrane protein.
  4. D) glycerophospholipid bilayer.
  5. E) carbohydrate side chain.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

58) In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (D) is part of a

  1. A) steroid.
  2. B) hydrophobic region.
  3. C) cholesterol.
  4. D) glycerophospholipid.
  5. E) glycosphingolipid.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

59) In the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane

  1. A) the hydrophobic heads are on the inner and outer surface and the hydrophilic tails in the middle.
  2. B) the hydrophilic heads are on the inner and outer surface and the hydrophobic tails in the middle.
  3. C) there is a random arrangement of phospholipids.
  4. D) the hydrophilic heads are on the inner and outer surface and cholesterol is in the middle.
  5. E) cholesterol is on the inner and outer surface and phospholipids are in the middle.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

17.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) A precursor of prostaglandins is ________ acid.

  1. A) oleic
  2. B) linoleic
  3. C) arachidonic
  4. D) tauric
  5. E) palmitic

 

 

 

 

2) The structure is that of ________ acid.

 

  1. A) oleic
  2. B) linoleic
  3. C) arachidonic
  4. D) stearic
  5. E) palmitic

 

 

 

 

3) The name of the reaction that occurs when a fat reacts with sodium hydroxide and water is ________.

  1. A) hydrogenation
  2. B) reduction
  3. C) hydration
  4. D) oxidation
  5. E) saponification

 

 

 

 

4) Bile salts are synthesized from ________.

  1. A) cephalin
  2. B) triacylglycerols
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) cholesterol
  5. E) lecithin

 

 

 

 

5) Cholesterol belongs to the ________ group of lipids.

  1. A) phospholipid
  2. B) steroid
  3. C) prostaglandin
  4. D) triacylglycerol
  5. E) wax

 

 

 

 

6) Bile salts are stored in the ________.

  1. A) liver
  2. B) pancreas
  3. C) stomach
  4. D) gall bladder
  5. E) small intestine

 

 

 

 

7) Bile salts are among the lipid class known as ________.

  1. A) sphingosides
  2. B) prostaglandins
  3. C) cerebrosides
  4. D) triacylglycerols
  5. E) steroids

 

 

 

 

8) In a simple model of atherosclerosis and heart disease, the compound that forms plaques that adhere to the walls of the blood vessels is ________.

  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) carnauba wax
  3. C) stearic acid
  4. D) glycerol
  5. E) sphingosine

 

 

 

 

 

17.3   True/False Questions

 

1) DNA is a lipid.

 

 

 

 

2) Steroids do not contain fatty acids.

 

 

 

3) Most plant lipids are saturated lipids.

 

 

 

 

4) Palmitic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.

 

 

 

 

5) Oleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.

 

 

 

 

6) Stearic acid is a polyunsaturated fatty acid.

 

 

 

 

7) The tail of a triacylglycerol is the nonpolar end.

 

 

 

 

8) Hydrogenation of the double bonds in unsaturated fats requires a catalyst.

 

 

 

 

9) The catalyst needed for saponification is H+ ion.

 

 

 

 

 

10) The saponification of a fat gives fatty acid salts and glycerol.

 

 

 

 

11) One function of phospholipids is to provide structure to biomembranes.

 

 

 

 

12) Sphingolipids contain fatty acids.

 

 

 

13) Many sex hormones are steroids.

 

 

 

 

14) Excess cholesterol in the blood can lead to a build up of plaque.

 

 

 

 

15) Bile salts help in the digestion of proteins.

 

 

 

 

16) In the fluid-mosaic model of cell membranes, the lipid molecules are oriented with their heads to the outside of the membrane.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

17) Glycoproteins are components of cell membranes.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

18) The interior of a lipid bilayer is the hydrophilic region.

 

Objective:  17.7

 

 

17.4   Matching Questions

 

Match the following.

 

  1. A) sphingolipids
  2. B) hydrogenation
  3. C) higher
  4. D) animals
  5. E) insoluble in water
  6. F) plants
  7. G) fatty acids
  8. H) hydrolysis
  9. I) lower
  10. J) glycerin
  11. K) ester
  12. L) unsaturated
  13. M) soap
  14. N) cholesterol

 

1) The second component of triacylglycerols beside glycerol.

 

 

 

2) a lipid that cannot be hydrolyzed

 

 

 

3) the functional group of triacylglycerols

 

 

 

4) a fatty acid with at least one double bond

 

 

 

5) phospholipids that do not contain glycerol

 

 

 

6) the process of converting unsaturated fats into saturated fats

 

 

 

7) the melting points of saturated fats compared to unsaturated fats

 

 

 

8) a source of most saturated fats

 

 

 

9) a characteristic common to most lipids

 

 

10) the product of reacting a triacylglycerol with a strong base and water

 

 

 

 

Select the type of lipid that matches the description.

 

  1. A) glycerophospholipid
  2. B) steroid
  3. C) triacylglycerol

 

11) triolein

 

 

 

12) aldosterone

 

 

 

13) testosterone

 

 

 

14) lecithin

 

 

 

Identify each of the specified regions on this phospholipid as polar or nonpolar.

 

  1. A) nonpolar
  2. B) neither
  3. C) polar

 

15) Region A

 

 

 

16) Region B

 

 

 

17) Region C

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 18   Amines and Amides

 

18.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The compound CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3 is classified as a

  1. A) primary amine.
  2. B) secondary amine.
  3. C) tertiary amine.
  4. D) quaternary amine.
  5. E) hydrated amine.

 

 

 

 

2) The compound CH3 – CH2 – NH2  is classified as a

  1. A) primary amine.
  2. B) secondary amine.
  3. C) tertiary amine.
  4. D) quaternary amine.
  5. E) hydrated amine.

 

 

 

 

3) Which of the following compounds is an amine?

  1. A) (CH3- CH2)2NH
  2. B) CH3- CH2- CH2 – CH2 – CO2 – CH3
  3. C) CH3- CH2- CH2 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
  4. D) CH3- CH = O
  5. E) CH3- CO – CH3

 

 

 

 

4) What is the name of this compound?

 

 

  1. A) 1-methyl-5-bromoaniline
  2. B) N-methyl-3-bromoaniline
  3. C) N-methyl-p-bromoaniline
  4. D) 1-bromo-3-N-methylamine benzene
  5. E) 1-bromo-3-N-methyl aniline

 

 

 

 

5) Aminobenzene is properly known as

  1. A) toluene.
  2. B) aniline.
  3. C) amidine.
  4. D) histidine.
  5. E) phenylamine.

 

 

 

 

6) What is the name of this compound?

 

CH3 – N – CH2 – CH3

|

CH3

 

  1. A) trimethylamine
  2. B) diethylamine
  3. C) ethylmethylamine
  4. D) ethylmethylnitride
  5. E) ethyldimethylamine

 

 

 

 

7) Name the following compound.

 

 

  1. A) ethyl amine
  2. B) dimethyl ether
  3. C) methanal
  4. D) 1-methanoate
  5. E) dimethyl amine

 

 

 

 

8) Amines contain the element

  1. A) nitrogen.
  2. B) oxygen.
  3. C) sulfur.
  4. D) astatine.
  5. E) arginine.

 

 

 

 

9) In what kind of amine is the nitrogen directly bonded to two carbon atoms?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
  5. E) amide

 

 

 

 

10) When naming amines according to the IUPAC system, the -e in the corresponding alkane is replaced with

  1. A) -amide.
  2. B) -amine.
  3. C) -ine.
  4. D) -ide.
  5. E) -ane.

 

 

 

 

11) Aniline is a(n)

  1. A) primary aromatic amine.
  2. B) secondary aromatic amine.
  3. C) heterocyclic amine.
  4. D) aliphatic amine.
  5. E) tertiary amine.

 

 

 

 

12) What prefix is used to show that a small alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen of aniline and not to the aromatic ring?

  1. A) N-
  2. B) C-
  3. C) Roman numerals
  4. D) Greek letters
  5. E) iso-

 

 

 

 

13) How many alkyl substituents does N-ethyl-N-methylaniline have?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) eight
  5. E) none

 

 

 

 

14) What is the common name of the following compound?

 

  1. A) ethyl propyl amine
  2. B) diethyl amine
  3. C) trimethyl amine
  4. D) propyl amino
  5. E) dipropyl amine

 

 

 

 

15) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

 

 

  1. A) propyl amine
  2. B) butyl amine
  3. C) amine butane
  4. D) 1-aminobutane
  5. E) 1-aminopropane

 

 

 

 

16) Which of the following compounds CANNOT form hydrogen bonds with water?

  1. A) CH3- CH2- CH3

 

  1. B) CH3- CH2- OH

 

  1. C) O

 

CH3 – C – OH

 

  1. D) O

 

CH3 – C – O – CH3

 

  1. E) CH3- CH2- NH2

 

 

 

 

17) Which of the following compounds CANNOT form hydrogen bonds with water?

  1. A) (CH3- CH2)2NH
  2. B) CH3- CH2- OH
  3. C) (CH3- CH2)3N
  4. D) CH3- CH2 – NH2
  5. E) All of the compounds above are capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water.

 

 

 

 

18) Which of the following represents the complete neutralization of N,N-dimethylamine?

  1. A) CH3NH + H2O → CH3NH2+ + OH-

|                                              |

CH3                                       CH3

 

  1. B) CH3NH + NaOH → CH3N-Na+ + H2O

|                                                    |

CH3                                             CH3

 

  1. C) CH3NH + HCl → CH3NH2 + CH3Cl

|

CH3

 

  1. D) CH3NH + H2O → CH3OH + CH3NH2

|

CH3

 

  1. E) CH3NH + HCl → CH3NH2++ Cl-

|                                                  |

CH3                                           CH3

 

 

 

 

19) When ethylamine dissolves in water, a solution of ________ is produced.

  1. A) ammonia
  2. B) ethylammonium hydroxide
  3. C) ethylamine
  4. D) ethylhydroxide
  5. E) ethylhydroxylate

 

 

 

 

20) Diethylamine and HCl react to produce

  1. A) diethyl chloride.
  2. B) diethylammonium chloride.
  3. C) ethylammonium chloride.
  4. D) ammonium chloride.
  5. E) butylammonium chloride.

 

 

 

 

21) What relation does the boiling point of an amine have to a similar hydrocarbon?

  1. A) higher
  2. B) lower
  3. C) very similar

 

 

 

 

22) Amines can form ________ bonds with other molecules.

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) hydrogen
  3. C) nonpolar
  4. D) metallic
  5. E) triple

 

 

 

 

23) What kind of amine can NOT form hydrogen bonds?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) aromatic
  5. E) substituted

 

 

 

 

24) Amines are

  1. A) Bronsted-Lowry bases.
  2. B) Bronsted-Lowry acids.
  3. C) neutral in water solution.
  4. D) unreactive.

 

 

 

 

25) The odor of an amine can be neutralized with

  1. A) water.
  2. B) acids.
  3. C) bases.
  4. D) detergents.
  5. E) solvents.

 

 

 

 

26) Choline is a quaternary ammonium compound with a ________ charge on the nitrogen.

  1. A) positive
  2. B) negative
  3. C) zero
  4. D) neutral
  5. E) double

 

 

 

 

27) In what form are amine-containing drugs often administered?

  1. A) free base
  2. B) sodium salt
  3. C) ammonium salt
  4. D) water solution
  5. E) oil solution

 

 

 

 

28) What kind of pharmacologic activity is found in the amines Procaine and Lidocaine?

  1. A) stimulant
  2. B) anesthetic
  3. C) local anesthetic
  4. D) disinfectant
  5. E) fungicide

 

 

 

 

29) What are alkaloids?

  1. A) physiologically active nitrogen compounds derived from plants
  2. B) anesthetics found in plants
  3. C) flavoring agents found in fruits and vegetables
  4. D) preservatives found in animal tissue
  5. E) natural steroids

 

 

 

 

30) Identify the heterocyclic amine in the choices below.

  1. A) diphenhydramine
  2. B) pyrrolidine
  3. C) adrenaline
  4. D) methylamine
  5. E) cholesterol

 

 

 

31) Among the choices below, identify the heterocyclic amine found in DNA.

  1. A) piperidine
  2. B) pyridine
  3. C) pyrrole
  4. D) purine
  5. E) imidazole

 

 

 

 

32) Nicotine, coniine, quinine, atropine, and morphine are all examples of

  1. A) ethers.
  2. B) esters.
  3. C) carboxylic acids.
  4. D) alkaloids.
  5. E) amides.

 

 

 

 

33) Procaine and Lidocaine were developed by modifying the structure of

  1. A) cocaine.
  2. B) nicotine.
  3. C) harmaline.
  4. D) meperidine.
  5. E) caffeine.

 

 

 

 

34) Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are called

  1. A) aromatics.
  2. B) alkaloids.
  3. C) esters.
  4. D) polymers.
  5. E) ethers.

 

 

 

 

35) Which of the following is NOT an alkaloid?

  1. A) nicotine
  2. B) caffeine
  3. C) diethylamine
  4. D) quinine
  5. E) cocaine

 

 

 

36) What functional group is always found in alkaloids (such as caffeine, nicotine, and digitalis)?

  1. A) amide
  2. B) acid
  3. C) ether
  4. D) amine
  5. E) ester

 

 

 

 

37) Cyclic compounds that contain a nitrogen atom are called

  1. A) carbocyclic compounds.
  2. B) aromatic compounds.
  3. C) heterocyclic compounds.
  4. D) homocyclic compounds.

 

 

 

 

38) The amide formed in the reaction of benzoic acid and ethylamine is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

39) When acetic acid reacts with ammonia, NH3, the reaction called amidation yields

  1. A) acetamine.
  2. B) ammonium acetate.
  3. C) ethylammonium hydroxide.
  4. D) amino acetate.
  5. E) acetamide.

 

 

 

 

40) What is the major functional group in the following compound?

 

O

 

CH3 – C – NH – CH3

 

  1. A) ketone
  2. B) carboxylic acid
  3. C) ester
  4. D) amine
  5. E) amide

 

 

 

 

41) What is the name of this compound?

 

  1. A) 1-ethylbenzamide
  2. B) N,N-dimethylbenzamide
  3. C) 2-ethylbenzamide
  4. D) N-ethylbenzamide
  5. E) ethylaminobenzoic acid

 

 

 

 

42) One name for this compound is

 

O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – NH – CH2 – CH3

 

  1. A) N-ethylpropanamide.
  2. B) N-ethylacetamide.
  3. C) pentanamide.
  4. D) N,N-diethylacetamide.
  5. E) ethylpropionamide.

 

 

 

 

43) In the formation of N-ethylacetamide, the reactant(s) is(are)

  1. A) acetic acid and dimethylamine.
  2. B) diethylamine.
  3. C) acetamide and ethanol.
  4. D) acetic acid and ethylamine.
  5. E) ethanol and ethylamine.

 

 

 

 

44) The reaction of butanoic acid and dimethylamine gives

  1. A) N-methylbutanamide.
  2. B) N-ethylbutanamide.
  3. C) N,N-dimethylbutanamide.
  4. D) N,N-methylbutanamine.
  5. E) N-methylbutanamine.

 

 

 

 

45) Which chemical class does phenobarbital belong to?

  1. A) ester
  2. B) amine
  3. C) amide
  4. D) alkane
  5. E) ether

 

 

 

 

46) Amides are derivatives of ________ and ________.

  1. A) amines; esters
  2. B) amines; carboxylic acids
  3. C) alkanes; amines
  4. D) carboxylic acids; alcohols
  5. E) alcohols; carboxylic acids

 

 

 

 

47) What kind of compound is urea?

  1. A) ester
  2. B) acid
  3. C) amide
  4. D) ketone
  5. E) amine

 

 

 

 

48) What is the chemical classification of the barbiturate sedatives?

  1. A) cyclic amides
  2. B) cyclic ethers
  3. C) cyclic amines
  4. D) cyclic esters
  5. E) cyclic acids

 

 

 

 

49) Amides having fewer than ________ carbons are generally water soluble.

  1. A) five
  2. B) six
  3. C) ten
  4. D) eleven
  5. E) twelve

 

 

 

 

50) Which of the following is the reaction for the acid hydrolysis of N-methylacetamide?

  1. A) O O

 

CH3 – C – NH – CH3 + H2O        →    CH3 – C – NH2 + CH3OH

 

  1. B) O O

 

H C – NH – CH3 + H2O       →      H C – NH2 + CH3OH

 

  1. C) O O

 

CH3 – C – NH – CH3 + H2O + HCl       →     CH3 – C – NH3+Cl- + CH3OH

 

D)O                                                                      O

 

H C – NH – CH3 + H2O + HCl      →      H C – NH3+Cl- + CH3OH

 

  1. E) O O

 

CH3 – C – NH – CH3 + H2O + HCl       →     CH3 – C OH + CH3NH3+Cl-

 

 

 

 

 

 

51) Which of the following is the reaction for the base hydrolysis of N-ethylformamide?

A)O                                                                     O

 

H C – NH – CH2CH3 + NaOH      →      H C OH + CH3CH2 – NH2-Na+

 

  1. B) O O

 

H C – NH – CH2CH3 + NaOH      →      H C O-Na+ + CH3CH2 – NH2

 

  1. C) O O

 

H C – NH – CH2CH3 + NaOH      →      H C O-Na+ +  NH3 + CH3CH3

 

D)O                                                                     O

 

H C – NH – CH2CH3 + NaOH      →      H C O-Na+ +  CH3 – NH – CH3

 

  1. E) O

 

H C – NH – CH2CH3 + NaOH      →    CH3CH2 – NH2 + NaHCO2

 

 

 

52) With the correct choice of acid, acid hydrolysis of acetamide could produce

  1. A) acetic acid and ammonium chloride.
  2. B) acetic acid and methylamine.
  3. C) ethanol and ammonia.
  4. D) acetaldehyde and ammonium hydroxide.
  5. E) formic acid and ethylamine.

 

 

 

 

53) With the correct choice of acid, the product(s) of the acid hydrolysis of N-methylbenzamide could be

  1. A) formic acid and aniline.
  2. B) methanol and benzoic acid.
  3. C) benzoic acid and ethylamine.
  4. D) benzoic acid and methylammonium chloride.
  5. E) formic acid, phenol, and ammonia.

 

 

 

 

 

54) What pharmacologically active amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms encountered in an allergic reaction?

  1. A) histamine
  2. B) epinephrine
  3. C) diphenhydramine
  4. D) phenylephrine
  5. E) dopamine

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

55) Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?

  1. A) histamine
  2. B) epinephrine
  3. C) glutamate
  4. D) pyridine
  5. E) serotonin

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

56) A neurotransmitter

  1. A) transmits neurons.
  2. B) transmits neutrons.
  3. C) transmits a nerve impulse.
  4. D) signals loss of appetite.
  5. E) transmits ideas from person to person.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

57) A deficiency of which amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

  1. A) histamine
  2. B) dopamine
  3. C) epinephrine
  4. D) diphenhydramine
  5. E) methedrine

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

58) In response to allergic reactions or injury to cells, the body increases the production of

  1. A) diphenhydramine.
  2. B) antihistamine.
  3. C) histamine.
  4. D) epinephrine.
  5. E) dopamine.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

18.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Aniline is the IUPAC approved name for aminobenzene.

 

 

 

 

2) Aniline is a primary amine.

 

 

 

 

3) Ethylmethylamine is a tertiary amine.

 

 

 

 

4) The amine functional group is rarely found in pharmacologically active compounds.

 

 

 

 

5) Primary amines contain two carbon-containing groups bonded to the nitrogen atom.

 

 

 

6) The compound shown is a tertiary amine.

 

 

 

 

7) Amines do not form hydrogen bonds.

 

 

 

 

8) Amines with more that six carbon atoms are soluble in water.

 

 

 

 

 

9) Hydrogen bonds in amines are weaker than those in alcohols.

 

 

 

 

10) Amines do not ionize in water.

 

 

 

 

11) Amines act as weak acids by accepting protons from water.

 

 

 

 

12) Amines are mostly ionized in water.

 

 

 

 

13) Ammonium salts are usually liquid at room temperature.

 

 

 

 

14) Ammonium salts are odorless and usually highly water soluble.

 

 

 

15) Crack cocaine is produced by the neutralization and extraction of cocaine from its hydrochloride salt.

 

 

 

 

16) Quinine is an alkaloid used for treatment of malaria.

 

 

 

 

17) Heterocyclic amines contain a nitrogen atom in a ring.

 

 

 

 

18) Caffeine is not an alkaloid.

 

 

 

 

 

19) Atropine and cocaine are used in the diagnosis of eye diseases.

 

 

 

 

20) Pyrimidine derivatives are found in DNA.

 

 

 

 

21) Nicotine is a pharmacologically active aromatic amide.

 

 

 

 

22) Meperidine is a synthetic compound developed from morphine.

 

 

 

 

23) Urea is one end product of protein metabolism in humans.

 

 

 

 

24) Aspartame is a sweetener made from corn.

 

 

 

25) The amide group is often found in pharmacologically active substances.

 

 

 

 

26) Aspirin substitutes may contain amide rather than ester functional groups.

 

 

 

 

27) When amides are hydrolyzed in basic solution, the products are an ammonium salt and a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

28) When amides are hydrolyzed in acidic solution, the products are an amine and a carboxylic acid.

 

 

 

 

29) Amphetamines are arylalkylamines with stimulant activity.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

30) GABA is not a neurotransmitter.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

31) Many important antidepressant drugs are SSRIs.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

32) Neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit a nerve impulse.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

33) Nerve poisons bind to acetylcholine esterase enzyme and inhibit its action.

 

Objective:  18.6

 

 

18.3   Matching Questions

 

Identify the family for each of the following compounds.

 

  1. A) amine
  2. B) amide

 

1) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3

, 18.4

 

 

2)                      O

 

CH3 – CH2 – C – NH – CH3

, 18.4

 

 

 

Select the correct name for the following.

 

  1. A) N-ethyl formamide
  2. B) dimethylethylamine
  3. C) ethylamide
  4. D) ethyldimethylamine

 

3)    O

 

H – C – NH – CH2 – CH3

, 18.4

 

4)                      CH3

|

CH3 – CH2 – N – CH3

 

, 18.4

 

 

Classify the amines shown in column 1 as primary, secondary, or tertiary.

 

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary

 

5)        CH3

|

CH3 – N – CH3

 

 

 

6) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2

 

 

 

7)

 

 

 

8)        H

|

CH3 – N – CH2 – CH3

 

 

 

9)        CH3

|

CH3 – CH – CH2 – NH2

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 19   Amino Acids and Proteins

 

19.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?

  1. A) provide structural components
  2. B) stores the genetic information of a living organism
  3. C) movement of muscles
  4. D) catalyze reactions in the cells
  5. E) transport substances through the bloodstream

 

 

 

 

2) Collagen, a protein found in tendons and cartilage, would be classified as a ________ protein.

  1. A) catalytic
  2. B) structural
  3. C) transport
  4. D) storage
  5. E) hormone

 

 

 

 

3) Wool is primarily made up of

  1. A) protein.
  2. B) carbohydrate.
  3. C) globin.
  4. D) triacylglycerols.
  5. E) enkephalin.

 

 

 

 

4) Sucrase, the protein that facilitates the hydrolysis of sucrose, would be classified as a ________ protein.

  1. A) transport
  2. B) hormonal
  3. C) catalytic
  4. D) structural
  5. E) contractile

 

 

 

 

5) The structural formulas of amino acids are the same EXCEPT for the

  1. A) carboxyl group.
  2. B) alpha carbon.
  3. C) amino group.
  4. D) side (R) group.
  5. E) hydrogen bonding.

 

 

 

 

6) The following amino acid R group chain is

 

– C HCH3

|

CH3

 

  1. A) polar.
  2. B) hydrophobic.
  3. C) hydrophilic.
  4. D) acidic.
  5. E) basic.

 

 

 

 

7) Which of the following would be most likely to be deficient in at least one essential amino acid?

  1. A) eggs
  2. B) milk
  3. C) beans
  4. D) steak
  5. E) ham

 

 

 

 

8) Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body and must be obtained from the diet are called

  1. A) essential.
  2. B) polar.
  3. C) nonpolar.
  4. D) complete.
  5. E) incomplete.

 

 

 

 

9) Methionine is an amino acid that contains

  1. A) a sulfur atom.
  2. B) a chlorine atom.
  3. C) a sodium atom.
  4. D) a phenyl ring.
  5. E) a heterocyclic ring.

 

 

 

 

10) A completely vegetarian diet will contain all the essential amino acids if it includes

  1. A) wheat and rice.
  2. B) rice and beans.
  3. C) almonds and walnuts.
  4. D) corn and beans.
  5. E) wheat and corn.

 

 

 

 

11) Glycine is the only naturally occurring amino acid that is

  1. A) negatively charged.
  2. B) positively charged.
  3. C) neutral.
  4. D) in the L- form.
  5. E) achiral.

 

 

 

 

12) The side chain for histidine is classified as a ________ R group.

  1. A) basic
  2. B) neutral
  3. C) acidic
  4. D) nonpolar
  5. E) polar

 

 

 

 

13) A basic amino acid has an R group that contains

  1. A) an amine group.
  2. B) a carboxyl group.
  3. C) a methyl group.
  4. D) an alcohol group.
  5. E) a thiol group.

 

 

 

14) At a pH > 9, the zwitterion of glycine (pI=6.0) will have

  1. A) a net positive charge.
  2. B) a net negative charge.
  3. C) an overall charge of zero.
  4. D) low solubility in water.
  5. E) a negative charge on the nitrogen.

 

 

 

 

15) At a pH < 5, the zwitterion for alanine (pI = 6) will have

  1. A) a net positive charge.
  2. B) a net negative charge.
  3. C) an overall charge of zero.
  4. D) low solubility in water.
  5. E) a negative charge on the carboxyl group.

 

 

 

 

16) What is the structural formula of glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at pH = 1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

 

 

 

 

17) Consider a mixture of the amino acids lysine (pI = 9.7), tyrosine (pI = 5.7), and glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at a pH 5.7 that is subjected to an electric current. ________ will migrate towards the positive electrode(+).

  1. A) Lysine
  2. B) Tyrosine
  3. C) Glutamic acid
  4. D) All of the amino acids

 

 

 

 

18) Consider a mixture of the amino acids lysine (pI = 9.7), tyrosine (pI = 5.7), and glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at a pH 5.7 that is subjected to an electric current.  ________ will remain stationary.

  1. A) Lysine
  2. B) Tyrosine
  3. C) Glutamic acid
  4. D) All of the amino acids

 

 

 

 

19) In a typical amino acid zwitterion, the carboxylate end is

  1. A) positively charged.
  2. B) negatively charged.
  3. C) neutral.
  4. D) soluble in a nonpolar solvent.
  5. E) attached to an amine.

 

 

 

 

20) The R group for serine is – CH2OH. As a zwitterion, serine has the structural formula

  1. A) CH2OH

|

NH2 C HCOOH

 

  1. B) CH2OH

|

NH2 C HCOO-

 

  1. C) CH2O-

+          |

N H3 C HCOOH

 

 

  1. D) CH2OH

+          |

N H3 C HCOOH

 

  1. E) CH2OH

|

H3 C HCOO-

 

 

 

 

21) Which of the following functional groups of an amino acid would be in the ionized state at high pH?

  1. A) O

 

-COH

 

  1. B) -CH2OH

 

  1. C) -CH3

 

  1. D) O

 

-CNH2

 

E)

 

 

 

 

22) Which of the following is the correct structure for Ser-Ala-Asp?  The appropriate side chains look like this.

O

 

Ala:  -CH3;          Ser:   -CH2OH;           Asp:   -CH2COH

 

  1. A) OH COOH

|                               |

CH3    O               CH2     O                CH2   O

|                           |                             |

H3 N+   C H –   C – NH –   C H –    C – NH –   C H –  C O-

 

  1. B) COOH OH

|                                                               |

CH2    O               CH3     O                CH2   O

|                           |                             |

H3 N+   C H –   C – NH –   C H –    C – NH –   C H –  C O

 

  1. C) OH COOH

|                              |

CH2    O               CH2     O                CH3   O

|                           |                             |

H3 N+   C H –   C – NH –   C H –    C – NH –   C H –  C O

 

  1. D) COOH OH

|                              |

CH2    O               CH2     O                CH3   O

|                           |                             |

H3 N+   C H –   C – NH –   C H –    C – NH –   C H –  C O

 

  1. E) OH COO-

|                                                               |

CH2    O               CH3     O                CH2   O

|                           |                             |

H3 N+   C H –   C – NH –   C H –    C – NH –   C H –  C O-

 

 

 

 

 

23) The peptide bonds that combine amino acids in a protein are

  1. A) ester bonds.
  2. B) ether bonds.
  3. C) amide bonds.
  4. D) glycosidic bonds.
  5. E) sulfide bonds.

 

 

 

24) In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the N-terminal amino acid is

  1. A) alanine.
  2. B) phenylalanine.
  3. C) tryptophan.
  4. D) aspartic acid.
  5. E) glycine.

 

 

 

 

25) In the peptide Ser-Cys-Ala-Gly, the C-terminal end is

  1. A) serine.
  2. B) serotonin.
  3. C) glycine.
  4. D) glycerine.
  5. E) alanine.

 

 

 

 

26) Which of the following shows all of the tripeptides that can be formed from one molecule each of glycine (Gly), valine (Val), and leucine (Leu)?

  1. A) Gly-Val-Leu, Gly-Leu-Val, Val-Leu-Gly, Val-Gly-Leu, Leu-Gly-Val, Leu-Val-Gly
  2. B) Gly-Val-Leu, Gly-Leu-Val, Leu-Gly-Val
  3. C) Val-Gly-Leu, Gly-Val-Leu, Gly-Leu-Val, Leu-Gly-Val
  4. D) Val-Gly-Leu, Gly-Leu-Val
  5. E) Gly-Val-Leu

 

 

 

 

 

27) Which of the following shows all of the tripeptides that can be formed from one molecule each of lysine (Lys), threonine (Thr), and histidine (His)?

  1. A) Lys-Thr-His
  2. B) Lys-Thr-His, Lys-His-Thr, His-Thr-Lys, His-Lys-Thr, Thr-Lys-His, Thr-His-Lys
  3. C) Lys-Thr-His, Lys-His-Thr, His-Lys-Thr, Thr-His-Lys
  4. D) Lys-Thr-His, Lys-His-Thr, His-Lys-Thr
  5. E) Lys-Thr-His, Lys-His-Thr

 

 

 

 

28) A peptide bond contains which kind of functional group?

  1. A) alcohol
  2. B) amine
  3. C) amide
  4. D) carboxylic acid
  5. E) ketone

 

 

 

29) A chain made of more than 50 amino acids is usually referred to as a(n)

  1. A) peptide.
  2. B) protein.
  3. C) enzyme.
  4. D) globulin.
  5. E) hormone.

 

 

 

 

30) Which of the following is an example of a secondary protein structure?

  1. A) dipeptide
  2. B) triglyceride
  3. C) a helix
  4. D) amino acid
  5. E) fatty acid

 

 

 

 

 

31) The α helix of the secondary structure of a protein is held together by ________ between two widely separated parts of a protein chain.

  1. A) hydrogen bonds
  2. B) disulfide bridges
  3. C) salt bridges
  4. D) hydrophilic interactions
  5. E) hydrophobic interactions

 

 

 

 

32) In the β-pleated sheet secondary structure of a protein, two or more amino acid sequences in separate parts of the protein are held together

  1. A) in a coil, by hydrogen bonding.
  2. B) in random order, due to hydrophobic interactions.
  3. C) in a triple helix.
  4. D) in a double helix.
  5. E) in a zig-zag conformation, by hydrogen bonding.

 

 

 

 

33) Enkephalins are polypeptides that have

  1. A) a sweet taste.
  2. B) a bitter taste.
  3. C) extra caloric value.
  4. D) pain-killing properties.
  5. E) hormone activity.

 

 

 

34) Enkephalins, naturally produced opiates in the body, are found in

  1. A) muscles and bone tissue.
  2. B) brain and kidney tissue.
  3. C) thalamus and spinal cord tissue.
  4. D) heart and lung tissue.
  5. E) pancreas and liver tissue.

 

 

 

 

 

35) The interactions that are important in the secondary structure of a protein are

  1. A) hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) hydrophobic interactions.
  3. C) disulfide bonds.
  4. D) salt bridges.
  5. E) peptide bonds.

 

 

 

 

36) Which of the following is a secondary protein structure?

  1. A) α helix
  2. B) Ser-Met-Ala-Gly-Ile
  3. C) disulfide bond
  4. D) salt bridges
  5. E) hydrophobic interactions

 

 

 

 

37) The secondary structure of collagen is distinguished by

  1. A) single α helix strands.
  2. B) double α helix strands.
  3. C) many α helixes wound into fibrils.
  4. D) a braided triple helix.
  5. E) many glycoside links.

 

 

 

 

38) In insulin, two peptide chains are held together in a single unit by

  1. A) disulfide bridges.
  2. B) hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) salt bridges.
  4. D) a prosthetic group.
  5. E) a β-pleated sheet.

 

 

 

39) Hemoglobin is an example of a protein with

  1. A) primary structure only.
  2. B) two protein chains held together.
  3. C) a globular structure.
  4. D) primarily a β-pleated sheet structure.
  5. E) primarily an α helix structure.

 

 

 

 

40) The heme in hemoglobin is a(n)

  1. A) protein chain.
  2. B) small molecule within a protein.
  3. C) helix area in the hemoglobin molecule.
  4. D) pleated sheet area in the hemoglobin molecule.
  5. E) oxygen molecule within the hemoglobin molecule.

 

 

 

 

41) Within hemoglobin, the heme functions as

  1. A) a disulfide bridge.
  2. B) an oxygen carrier.
  3. C) a reducing agent.
  4. D) an α
  5. E) one of the four protein subunits.

 

 

 

 

42) Hemoglobin has a total of ________ protein chains in its quaternary structure.

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

 

 

 

43) The fibrous protein responsible for the structure of hair and wool is

  1. A) keratin.
  2. B) collagen.
  3. C) endorphin.
  4. D) myosin.
  5. E) casein.

 

 

 

 

44) Which R group would most likely be found in a hydrophobic area of the tertiary structure of a globular protein?

  1. A) -CH2OH

 

  1. B) -CH2COO-

 

C)

  1. D) -CH2CH2CH2CH2H3

 

  1. E) O

 

-CH2 C NH2

 

 

 

 

 

45) What type of interaction would you expect between the following R groups in the tertiary structure of a protein?

 

O

 

-CH2 C O-        and     -CH2CH2CH2CH2NH3+

 

  1. A) disulfide bonds
  2. B) salt bridges
  3. C) hydrogen bonds
  4. D) hydrophobic interactions
  5. E) peptide bonds

 

 

 

 

46) Disulfide bonds in a protein chain connect

  1. A) an amine and a carboxylic acid group.
  2. B) an alcohol and a carboxylic acid group.
  3. C) tryptophan and alanine residues.
  4. D) two cysteine residues.
  5. E) two asparagine residues.

 

 

 

 

47) What kinds of interactions are NOT part of tertiary protein structure?

  1. A) peptide bonds
  2. B) disulfide bonds
  3. C) hydrophilic interactions
  4. D) salt bridges
  5. E) hydrophobic interactions

 

 

 

 

48) The function of myoglobin is to

  1. A) carry vitamins in the blood.
  2. B) carry oxygen in the blood.
  3. C) support the skeletal muscles.
  4. D) carry oxygen in the muscle.
  5. E) provide strength in cartilage.

 

 

 

 

49) In sickle-cell anemia, the hemoglobin molecules

  1. A) come apart into separate chains.
  2. B) enlarge to twice normal size.
  3. C) clump together into insoluble fibers.
  4. D) dissolve in the plasma.
  5. E) undergo crenation.

 

 

 

 

50) Acids and bases denature a protein by disrupting

  1. A) peptide bonds and ionic bonds.
  2. B) amide bonds and alkene bonds.
  3. C) hydrophobic interactions and peptide bonds.
  4. D) ionic bonds and hydrophobic interactions.
  5. E) ionic bonds and hydrogen bonds.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

51) Heat denatures a protein by disrupting

  1. A) ionic bonds and peptide bonds.
  2. B) hydrophobic bonds and hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) peptide bonds and hydrophobic bonds.
  4. D) disulfide bonds and peptide bonds.
  5. E) hydrogen bonds and disulfide bonds.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

52) Denaturation of a protein

  1. A) changes the primary structure of a protein.
  2. B) disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein.
  3. C) is always irreversible.
  4. D) hydrolyzes peptide bonds.
  5. E) can only occur in a protein with quaternary structure.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

53) One heavy metal that can cause denaturation of a protein is

  1. A) silver.
  2. B) sodium.
  3. C) barium.
  4. D) iron.
  5. E) calcium.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

54) Heavy metals denature proteins by

  1. A) releasing amino acids.
  2. B) disrupting hydrophobic interactions.
  3. C) changing the pH of the protein solution.
  4. D) changing the temperature of the protein solution.
  5. E) disrupting disulfide bonds.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

55) An acid can denature a protein by

  1. A) agitating the protein chains.
  2. B) disrupting hydrogen bonds between R groups chains.
  3. C) disrupting hydrophobic interactions within a protein chain.
  4. D) removing helping molecules such as heme.
  5. E) breaking disulfide bridges.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

 

19.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) Immunoglobulin, a protein that stimulates immune responses, would be classified as a ________ protein.

  1. A) transport
  2. B) structural
  3. C) storage
  4. D) protection
  5. E) catalytic

 

 

 

2) What amino acids have polar R groups that are attracted to water?

  1. A) hydrophilic
  2. B) hydrophobic
  3. C) nonpolar
  4. D) aromatic
  5. E) hydrocarbon

 

 

 

 

3) At what pH would you expect valine, an amino acid with a neutral R group, to be in the zwitterionic form?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 10
  5. E) 14

 

 

 

 

 

4) Consider the R groups of the following amino acids:

cysteine:  -CH2SH;  alanine:  -CH3;    serine:   -CH2OH

The name for the dipeptide shown below is ________.

 

CH3     O            CH2OH

|                         |

NH2  C H –    C – NH  C HCOOH

 

  1. A) alanyl-cysteine
  2. B) alanyl-serine
  3. C) seryl-alanine
  4. D) seryl-cysteine
  5. E) serine-alanine

 

 

 

 

5) The peptide hormone that regulates uterine contractions during labor is ________.

  1. A) oxytocin
  2. B) vasopressin
  3. C) myoglobin
  4. D) an endorphin
  5. E) an enkephalin

 

 

 

6) In an enzyme, the polypeptide chain folds into a compact shape known as the ________ structure.

  1. A) pleated
  2. B) primary
  3. C) secondary
  4. D) tertiary
  5. E) quaternary

 

 

 

 

7) When two protein chains combine to form an active protein, the structural level is ________.

  1. A) pleated
  2. B) primary
  3. C) secondary
  4. D) tertiary
  5. E) quaternary

 

 

 

 

 

8) Hydrophobic interactions help to stabilize the ________ structure(s) of a protein.

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) secondary and tertiary
  4. D) tertiary and quaternary
  5. E) secondary and quaternary

 

 

 

 

9) What process occurs when heat, acids, bases, and heavy metal ions cause a loss of biological function of a protein?

  1. A) denaturation
  2. B) saponification
  3. C) hydrogenation
  4. D) amidation
  5. E) esterification

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

10) In digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids by a(n) ________ reaction.

  1. A) saponification
  2. B) reduction
  3. C) hydrolysis
  4. D) oxidation
  5. E) denaturation

 

Objective:  19.6

 

19.3   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Collagen can be classified as a ________ protein.

 

 

2) The protein that transports oxygen in the blood is ________.

 

 

3) Proteins that stimulate immune response are known as ________.

 

 

 

4) Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body but must be ingested with the diet are called ________ amino acids.

 

 

5) A zwitterion of any amino acid has a net charge of ________.

 

 

6) The isoelectric point for any amino acid is the pH at which the amino acid has a net charge of ________.

 

 

7) Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique for separating amino acids using their different ________.

 

 

8) Write the zwitterion of glycine.

 

9) Circle the peptide bond in this structure.

 

 

 

 

19.4   True/False

 

1) Hemoglobin is a transport protein.

 

 

 

 

2) Insulin is a transport protein.

 

 

 

 

3) Zwitterions have an overall positive charge.

 

 

 

 

4) The dipeptide abbreviated as Gly-Lys is the same as the dipeptide abbreviated as Lys-Gly.

 

 

 

 

5) Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a change in the primary structure of a subunit of the hemoglobin protein.

 

 

 

 

6) The peptide sequence Gly-Gly-Gly gives the primary structure of a tripeptide.

 

 

 

7) Disulfide bonds stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein.

 

 

 

 

8) Lysine and glutamic acid form hydrophobic interactions.

 

 

 

 

9) Upon hydrolysis the dipeptide abbreviated as Gly-Lys will yield the same products as the dipeptide abbreviated as Lys-Gly.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

 

 

10) Lead ions disrupt hydrophobic interactions.

 

Objective:  19.6

 

19.5   Matching Questions

 

Identify the structural level in each protein.

 

  1. A) quaternary
  2. B) tertiary
  3. C) secondary structure
  4. D) primary structure

 

1) The protein folds into a compact structure stabilized by interactions between R groups.

, 19.5

 

 

2) the combination of two or more protein molecules to form an active protein

, 19.5

 

 

3) pleated sheet

, 19.5

 

 

4) the peptide bonds between the amino acids

, 19.5

 

 

5) the structural level achieved when hydrogen bonds form between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a different amino acid

, 19.5

 

 

Classify each protein by function.

 

  1. A) contractile
  2. B) structural
  3. C) catalytic
  4. D) protection
  5. E) transport

 

6) trypsin for the hydrolysis of protein

 

 

 

7) lipoproteins in the blood

 

 

 

8) collagen in tendons and cartilage

 

 

 

9) antibodies

 

 

 

10) actin in muscle

 

 

 

Would an amino acid with the given R group be most likely to be found in the hydrophobic or hydrophilic region of a protein?

 

  1. A) both
  2. B) hydrophilic
  3. C) hydrophobic

 

11) -CH2 – CH – CH3

|

CH3

 

 

 

12) – CH – CH3

|

OH

 

 

 

13) – CH3

 

 

14) -CH2CH2SCH3

 

 

 

15)        O

 

-CH2 – C – NH2

 

 

 

16)

 

 

 

 

17)

 

 

 

18) -CH – CH2 – CH3

|

CH3

 

 

 

19)

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 20   Enzymes and Vitamins

 

20.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Compared to an uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

  1. A) uses less substrate.
  2. B) produces different products.
  3. C) occurs at a faster rate.
  4. D) requires more energy.
  5. E) requires a higher temperature.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

2) Which of the following is NOT a step in the enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate to product?

  1. A) The substrate binds to the enzyme away from the active site.
  2. B) The substrate binds in the active site to form the E-S complex.
  3. C) The enzyme assists in the conversion of the substrate to product.
  4. D) The product is released from the active site.
  5. E) A new substrate molecule binds to the enzyme for a new cycle.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

3) The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the ________ step in enzyme action.

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third
  4. D) fourth
  5. E) last

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

4) The active site of an enzyme

  1. A) is remote from the site of substrate attachment.
  2. B) is converted to a product.
  3. C) catalyzes the reaction.
  4. D) increases the energy of reaction.
  5. E) includes the entire enzyme.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

5) The general function of an enzyme in the body is to

  1. A) catalyze chemical reactions.
  2. B) maintain a neutral pH.
  3. C) act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage.
  4. D) maintain homeostasis.
  5. E) eliminate waste products from the blood.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

6) Most enzymes are

  1. A) fluid-mosaic proteins.
  2. B) induced proteins.
  3. C) substrate proteins.
  4. D) fibrous proteins.
  5. E) globular proteins.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

7) In any reaction catalyzed by an enzyme, the reacting molecule is called the

  1. A) substrate.
  2. B) cofactor.
  3. C) coenzyme.
  4. D) isozyme.
  5. E) allostere.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

8) When a substance bonds to an enzyme for reaction, its place of binding is the

  1. A) allosteric site.
  2. B) primary pocket.
  3. C) end pocket.
  4. D) primary site.
  5. E) active site.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

9) Substances that react under the influence of an enzyme are usually held to the enzyme by

  1. A) peptide bonds.
  2. B) side chains of amino acids in the enzyme protein.
  3. C) ester bonds.
  4. D) pH changes.
  5. E) competitive inhibition.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

10) Urease catalyzes only the hydrolysis of urea, and no other substrates.  This limited activity is called

  1. A) absolute specificity.
  2. B) extreme specificity.
  3. C) rigid specificity.
  4. D) noncompetitive specificity.
  5. E) hyperspecificity.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

11) The presence of enzymes to catalyze bioreactions in our bodies allows

  1. A) us to eat non-nutritious substances without consequence.
  2. B) the activation energy of a reaction to be raised.
  3. C) the rate of a desired chemical reaction to slow down.
  4. D) bioreactions to occur under extreme conditions of temperature and pH.
  5. E) bioreactions to take place under mild conditions.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

12) Hexokinase catalyzes only the addition of phosphate to any hexose sugar.  This type of activity is called

  1. A) regional specificity.
  2. B) collateral specificity.
  3. C) group specificity.
  4. D) noncompetitive specificity.
  5. E) general specificity.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

13) In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of as

  1. A) a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly.
  2. B) an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape.
  3. C) a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface.
  4. D) a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface.
  5. E) a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

 

14) In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site

  1. A) stays the same shape during substrate binding.
  2. B) adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate.
  3. C) stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate.
  4. D) uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate.
  5. E) uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

15) The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that

  1. A) lowers the energy of the products.
  2. B) lowers the energy of the substrate.
  3. C) changes the concentration of the substrate.
  4. D) decreases the activation energy for the reaction.
  5. E) changes the possible product formed.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

16) How many generalized steps are there in the reaction of an enzyme (E) with a substrate (S) to form and release the product (P)?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

17) An increase in concentration of the enzyme LDH in the blood can be used to detect

  1. A) heart attack.
  2. B) kidney damage.
  3. C) anemia.
  4. D) uremia.
  5. E) bulimia.

 

 

 

 

 

18) Creatine kinase can be used in the diagnosis of

  1. A) hepatitis.
  2. B) rickets.
  3. C) heart attack.
  4. D) prostatitis.
  5. E) cancer.

 

 

 

 

19) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactose to galactose and glucose belong?

  1. A) oxidoreductase
  2. B) transferase
  3. C) hydrolase
  4. D) lyase
  5. E) isomerase

 

 

 

20) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?

 

O                                   OH

|

CH3  C COO-     →    CH3  C HCOO-

 

  1. A) oxidoreductase
  2. B) transferase
  3. C) hydrolase
  4. D) lyase
  5. E) isomerase

 

 

 

 

21) To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?

 

Ser – Ala    →    Ser + Ala

 

  1. A) oxidoreductase
  2. B) transferase
  3. C) hydrolase
  4. D) lyase
  5. E) isomerase

 

 

 

 

22) The hydrolysis of ester bonds in triglycerides is catalyzed by a(n)

  1. A) lipase.
  2. B) lyase.
  3. C) isomerase.
  4. D) hydrolase.
  5. E) oxidoreductase.

 

 

 

 

23) The optimum temperature for sucrase activity is 37 °C.  The hydrolysis of sucrose is slowest at which temperature in the choices below?

  1. A) 0 °C
  2. B) 10 °C
  3. C) 20 °C
  4. D) 25 °C
  5. E) 45 °C

 

 

 

24) “Physiological conditions” for reactions within the body are approximately

  1. A) pH 3 and 37 °C.
  2. B) pH 7 and 37 °C.
  3. C) pH 7 and 37 °F.
  4. D) pH 8 and 273 °C.
  5. E) pH 7 and 273 K.

 

 

 

 

25) “Physiological pH”, the pH for optimum activity for most enzymes, is a pH equal to

  1. A) 3.0.
  2. B) 5.4.
  3. C) 7.4.
  4. D) 8.6.
  5. E) 9.0.

 

 

 

 

 

26) Most enzymes are deactivated permanently above a temperature of about

  1. A) 25 °C.
  2. B) 37 °F.
  3. C) 40 °C.
  4. D) 45 °F.
  5. E) 50 °C.

 

 

 

 

27) The surface of a freshly cut apple turns brown because of

  1. A) inhibition of the surface enzymes by nitrogen.
  2. B) interaction of the surface enzymes with oxygen.
  3. C) a change in pH at the surface.
  4. D) an increase in substrate concentration at the cut surface.
  5. E) the presence of vitamin C in the apple.

 

 

 

 

28) In an enzyme-substrate reaction, when excess substrate is present, increasing the concentration of the enzyme will

  1. A) increase the number of substrate molecules available.
  2. B) inhibit the formation of products.
  3. C) increase the decomposition rate of the enzyme-substrate complex.
  4. D) decrease the turnover rate for the substrate.
  5. E) increase the amount of reaction occurring.

 

 

 

29) Consider an enzymatic reaction in which the initial concentration of substrate is low.  If the amount of enzyme is held constant, but the amount of substrate is increased, the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction will

  1. A) increase in an exponential fashion.
  2. B) decrease at first, then increase in a linear fashion.
  3. C) increase at first in a linear fashion, then remain at a constant high rate.
  4. D) stay the same.
  5. E) be inhibited by the higher concentrations of substrate.

 

 

 

 

 

30) Urea is converted to ammonia and carbon dioxide by the action of urease.  What will be the effect on the rate if the temperature of the reaction is lowered from 37 °C (the optimum temperature) to 27 °C?

 

O

 

NH2 – C – NH2 + H2O      2NH3 + CO2

 

  1. A) There will be no effect.
  2. B) The rate will slow down.
  3. C) The rate will double.
  4. D) The rate will triple.
  5. E) The rate will slow down, then speed up again.

 

 

 

 

31) Pepsinogen is an example of a(n)

  1. A) coenzyme.
  2. B) cofactor.
  3. C) isoenzyme.
  4. D) allosteric enzyme.
  5. E) zymogen.

 

 

 

 

32) When an end product from an enzyme-mediated sequence is also an inhibitor for an earlier step in the reaction sequence, the process is referred to as

  1. A) feedback control.
  2. B) competitive inhibition.
  3. C) irreversible inhibition.
  4. D) negative catalysis.
  5. E) concentration control.

 

 

 

33) Allosteric enzymes can control their output of product by

  1. A) binding the substrate at a site away from the active site.
  2. B) binding an irreversible inhibitor at the active site.
  3. C) binding a positive or negative regulator at a noncompetitive site.
  4. D) changing the pH in the active site.
  5. E) reversible inhibition using the product as the inhibitor.

 

 

 

 

 

34) A competitive inhibitor is one that

  1. A) binds to the enzyme at a site far from the active site.
  2. B) binds to the active site in place of the substrate.
  3. C) destroys the substrate.
  4. D) binds to the allosteric site on an enzyme.
  5. E) forms a complex with the substrate.

 

 

 

 

35) An irreversible inhibitor is one that

  1. A) forms hydrogen bonds with the substrate.
  2. B) binds to the enzyme with hydrophobic interactions.
  3. C) reacts covalently with the substrate.
  4. D) binds covalently to the enzyme active site.
  5. E) reacts covalently with a cofactor.

 

 

 

 

36) A noncompetitive inhibitor has a structure that

  1. A) does not resemble the substrate structure.
  2. B) resembles the active site of the enzyme.
  3. C) can bind to the active site of the enzyme.
  4. D) does not interfere with the enzyme-substrate complex formation.
  5. E) causes a change in the shape of the substrate.

 

 

 

 

37) Penicillin functions as an antibiotic by

  1. A) poisoning bacteria with toxins.
  2. B) raising the temperature of a bacterium.
  3. C) bonding to metal ions in bacterial electron transport systems.
  4. D) inhibiting the enzymes for cell wall formation in bacteria.
  5. E) acting as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

 

 

 

 

38) A compound that binds to the surface of an enzyme, and changes its shape so that a substrate cannot enter the active site, is called a(n)

  1. A) irreversible inhibitor.
  2. B) proenzyme.
  3. C) cofactor.
  4. D) noncompetitive inhibitor.
  5. E) competitive inhibitor.

 

 

 

 

39) Some insecticides kill insects by inhibiting the enzyme

  1. A) alcohol dehydrogenase.
  2. B) acetylcholinesterase.
  3. C) creatine kinase.
  4. D) lipase.
  5. E) penicillinase.

 

 

 

 

40) Penicillin-resistant bacteria can survive treatment with penicillin because they produce the enzyme

  1. A) sucrase.
  2. B) penicillin kinase.
  3. C) penicillinase.
  4. D) bacteriase.
  5. E) phosphate lyase.

 

 

 

 

41) Which of the following is NOT true for a competitive inhibitor?

  1. A) It occupies the active site.
  2. B) It cannot be converted to products.
  3. C) It has a structure similar to the substrate.
  4. D) Increasing the substrate concentration can reverse competitive inhibition.
  5. E) It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site.

 

 

 

 

 

42) A noncompetitive inhibitor

  1. A) binds at the active site of the enzyme.
  2. B) alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme.
  3. C) increases the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
  4. D) has a structure similar to the substrate.
  5. E) has its effect reversed by adding more substrate.

 

 

 

43) Pepsinogen is an example of a(n)

  1. A) coenzyme.
  2. B) cofactor.
  3. C) isoenzyme.
  4. D) allosteric enzyme.
  5. E) zymogen.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

44) When an end product from an enzyme-mediated sequence is also an inhibitor for an earlier step in the reaction sequence, the process is referred to as

  1. A) feedback control.
  2. B) competitive inhibition.
  3. C) irreversible inhibition.
  4. D) negative catalysis.
  5. E) concentration control.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

45) Allosteric enzymes can control their output of product by

  1. A) binding the substrate at a site away from the active site.
  2. B) binding an irreversible inhibitor at the active site.
  3. C) binding a positive or negative regulator at a noncompetitive site.
  4. D) changing the pH in the active site.
  5. E) reversible inhibition using the product as the inhibitor.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

 

46) The water-soluble B and C vitamins supply

  1. A) essential amino acids.
  2. B) substrates necessary for most of the reactions in the body.
  3. C) essential fatty acids.
  4. D) coenzymes required by some enzymes.
  5. E) competitive inhibitors needed to regulate enzyme activity.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

47) Metal ions such as Zn2+ and Fe3+ are often needed by enzymes as

  1. A) isozymes.
  2. B) allosteres.
  3. C) inhibitors.
  4. D) cofactors.
  5. E) substrates.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

48) When a cofactor is a small organic molecule, it is known as a(n)

  1. A) isoenzyme.
  2. B) vitamin.
  3. C) zymogen.
  4. D) coenzyme.
  5. E) regulator.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

49) Iron(II) and iron(III) ions are used in the functioning of

  1. A) urease.
  2. B) alcohol dehydrogenase.
  3. C) creatine kinase.
  4. D) the cytochrome oxidase system.
  5. E) pepsin.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

50) The B vitamins are examples of

  1. A) water-soluble vitamins.
  2. B) essential amino acids.
  3. C) essential minerals.
  4. D) oil soluble vitamins.
  5. E) vitamins that are stored in the liver.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

51) Coenzymes such as water-soluble vitamins are needed in only small amounts because

  1. A) only small amounts of enzymes are present in each cell.
  2. B) only small amounts of substrates are available at any one time.
  3. C) they can be eliminated in the urine.
  4. D) each vitamin molecule can be reused many times as a cofactor.
  5. E) they can be stored in the liver for future use.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

20.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) A biological catalyst is called a(n) ________.

  1. A) lipid
  2. B) enzyme
  3. C) cofactor
  4. D) coenzyme
  5. E) substrate

 

Objective:  20.1

 

2) The names of many enzymes can be recognized by the suffix ________.

  1. A) -ate
  2. B) -ite
  3. C) -ose
  4. D) -ine
  5. E) -ase

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

3) An enzyme that converts a cis double bond to a trans double bond is classified as a(n) ________.

  1. A) oxidoreductase
  2. B) transferase
  3. C) hydrolase
  4. D) lyase
  5. E) isomerase

 

 

 

 

 

4) The full name of the enzyme LDH is ________.

  1. A) lactate dehydrogenase
  2. B) liver decompensation hexase
  3. C) lactate dehydrase
  4. D) liver dihydrogen kinase
  5. E) lipase dehydrogenase

 

 

 

 

5) Enzymes that catalyze the same reactions but have slightly different structures are called ________.

  1. A) coenzymes
  2. B) cofactors
  3. C) isoenzymes
  4. D) competitive
  5. E) noncompetitive

 

 

 

 

6) An enzyme that removes H from a substrate is classified as a(n) ________.

  1. A) oxidoreductase
  2. B) transferase
  3. C) hydrolase
  4. D) lyase
  5. E) isomerase

 

 

 

7) The optimum pH for the activity of pepsin is about ________.

  1. A) 2.0
  2. B) 4.0
  3. C) 6.5
  4. D) 7.4
  5. E) 7.6

 

 

 

 

8) The optimum pH for the activity of trypsin is about ________.

  1. A) 2.0
  2. B) 4.0
  3. C) 6.5
  4. D) 7.4
  5. E) 8.0

 

 

 

 

9) Another name for a zymogen is a(n) ________.

  1. A) cofactor
  2. B) coenzyme
  3. C) prosthetic group
  4. D) isozyme
  5. E) proenzyme

 

 

 

 

10) One deficiency disease that can be traced to insufficient intake of vitamin D is ________.

  1. A) scurvy
  2. B) rickets
  3. C) beriberi
  4. D) pellagra
  5. E) pernicious anemia

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

11) A diet very low in vitamin C can lead over time to the condition ________.

  1. A) rickets
  2. B) scurvy
  3. C) cancer
  4. D) carpal tunnel syndrome
  5. E) anorexia nervosa

 

Objective:  20.6

 

20.3   Short Answer Questions

 

Indicate whether each of the following is fat soluble or water soluble.

 

1) vitamin B6

 

 

2) vitamin A

 

 

3) pantothenic acid

 

 

4) ascorbic acid

 

 

5) vitamin E

 

 

6) vitamin K

 

 

7) niacin

 

 

8) folic acid

 

 

9) vitamin D

 

10) riboflavin

 

 

20.4   True/False Questions

 

1) The active site is a large part of an enzyme.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

2) In the induced fit model of enzyme activity, both the enzyme and the substrate change shape.

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

3) Alanine transaminase is an example of a transferase enzyme.

 

 

 

 

4) Pyruvate carboxylase is an example of a ligase enzyme.

 

 

 

 

5) Urease is an example of an oxidoreductase enzyme.

 

 

 

 

6) The optimum pH of most cellular enzymes is about 7.4.

 

 

 

 

7) Phosphorylation is a common form of covalent modification.

 

 

 

 

8) Insulin and digestive enzymes are produced as inactive forms called zymogens.

 

 

 

 

9) Enzymes always require a cofactor.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

10) Enzyme cofactors are always metal ions, such as Zn2+ and Fe3+.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

11) Vitamins are often cofactors.

 

Objective:  20.6

 

 

 

20.5   Matching Questions

 

Identify each of the designated regions on the energy diagram for the conversion of a substrate to product with and without an enzyme.

 

1) energy of the substrate

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

2) energy of the product

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

3) activation energy without the enzyme

 

Objective:  20.1

 

4) activation energy with the enzyme

 

Objective:  20.1

 

 

 

Match the correct term in enzyme action with each description.

 

  1. A) coenzyme
  2. B) lock-and-key theory
  3. C) cofactor
  4. D) active site
  5. E) enzyme-substrate complex

 

5) the temporary combination of an enzyme with the compound on which it acts

Objective:  20.1, 20.6

 

 

6) an organic compound that is sometimes needed to complete an enzyme

Objective:  20.1, 20.6

 

 

7) the portion of an enzyme molecule where catalytic activity occurs

Objective:  20.1, 20.6

 

 

8) an inorganic substance such as Mg2+ required by some enzymes for activity

Objective:  20.1, 20.6

 

 

9) one theory that accounts for the unusual specificity of an enzyme

Objective:  20.1, 20.6

 

 

Identify the effect of the following on the activity of maltase, an enzyme that hydrolyzes maltose.

 

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) increases
  3. C) has no effect

 

10) decreasing the concentration of maltose

 

 

 

11) adjusting the temperature to the optimum temperature

 

 

 

12) raising the pH to 11.0

 

 

 

13) increasing the concentration of maltase (enzyme) when the enzyme is saturated with substrate

 

 

 

14) lowering the pH to 1.0

 

 

 

Identify the type of inhibition in each description.

 

  1. A) competitive
  2. B) noncompetitive

 

15) an inhibitor that resembles the structure of the substrate

 

 

 

16) an inhibitor that forms a covalent bond with a side chain in the active site

 

 

 

17) Adding more substrate does not reverse the effect of this inhibitor.

 

 

 

18) The inhibition can be reversed by increasing the concentration of substrate.

 

 

 

19) The inhibitor does not resemble the substrate.

 

 

 

Match the vitamin name with its corresponding chemical name.

 

  1. A) thiamine
  2. B) cobalamin
  3. C) niacin
  4. D) cholecalciferol
  5. E) ascorbic acid
  6. F) riboflavin
  7. G) pyridoxine

 

20) vitamin B3

Objective:  20.6

 

 

21) vitamin B2

Objective:  20.6

 

 

22) vitamin B1

Objective:  20.6

 

 

23) vitamin C

Objective:  20.6

 

 

24) vitamin B12

Objective:  20.6

 

 

25) vitamin B6

Objective:  20.6

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 21   Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

 

21.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing a base and a sugar.

  1. A) nucleoside
  2. B) base pair
  3. C) nucleotide
  4. D) complementary base
  5. E) pyrimidine

 

 

 

 

2) A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.

  1. A) nucleoside
  2. B) base pair
  3. C) nucleotide
  4. D) complementary base
  5. E) purine

 

 

 

 

3) Which of the following can NOT be found in a nucleotide of RNA?

  1. A) purine
  2. B) pyrimidine
  3. C) phosphate
  4. D) ribose
  5. E) deoxyribose

 

 

 

 

4) Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

  1. A) thymine
  2. B) uracil
  3. C) guanine
  4. D) cytosine
  5. E) deoxyribose

 

 

 

 

5) Which of the following will not be found in DNA?

  1. A) adenine
  2. B) thymine
  3. C) guanine
  4. D) cytosine
  5. E) ribose

 

 

 

 

6) Which of the following can be found in DNA?

  1. A) ribose
  2. B) GMP
  3. C) uracil
  4. D) deoxyadenosine
  5. E) FMN

 

 

 

 

7) Guanine is one example of a nitrogen base that is a

  1. A) cofactor.
  2. B) 5-carbon sugar.
  3. C) phosphodiester.
  4. D) pyrimidine.
  5. E) purine.

 

 

 

 

8) The nucleotides in the backbone of DNA are held together by ________ bonds.

  1. A) hydrogen
  2. B) peptide
  3. C) phosphodiester
  4. D) glycosidic
  5. E) ionic

 

 

 

 

9) The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix are

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) peptide bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) hydrophobic bonds.
  5. E) ester bonds.

 

 

 

10) Which of the following hold two strands of DNA in an a helix?

  1. A) ester linkages
  2. B) disulfide linkages
  3. C) peptide bonds
  4. D) hydrogen bonds
  5. E) glycosidic linkages

 

 

 

 

11) The base sequence of the strand of DNA complementary to the segment

5′ T-G-G-C-A-A-C 3′ is

  1. A) 3′ T-G-G-C-A-A-C 5′.
  2. B) 3′ A-C-C-G-T-T-G 5′.
  3. C) 3′ A-C-C-G-U-U-G 5′.
  4. D) 3′ U-C-C-G-T-T-G 5′.
  5. E) 3′ A-C-G-C-T-U-G 5′.

 

 

 

 

12) When DNA duplicates itself, the correct placement of the nucleotides is accomplished by

  1. A) complementary base pairing.
  2. B) polymerase.
  3. C) enzyme matching.
  4. D) base matching.
  5. E) transcription.

 

 

 

 

13) When DNA replicates, a guanine forms a base pair with

  1. A) uracil.
  2. B) adenine.
  3. C) guanine.
  4. D) thymine.
  5. E) cytosine.

 

 

 

 

 

14) Which one of the following base pairs is found in DNA?

  1. A) adenine-thymine
  2. B) adenine-guanine
  3. C) cytosine-thymine
  4. D) adenine-uracil
  5. E) guanine-uracil

 

 

 

15) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. A) Cytosine and Thymine are a complementary base pair that forms 3 hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) Thymine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms 3 hydrogen bonds.
  3. C) Cytosine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms 2 hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) Thymine and Adenine are a complementary base pair that forms 2 hydrogen bonds.
  5. E) Thymine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms 2 hydrogen bonds.

 

 

 

 

16) The two strands of the double helix of DNA are held together by

  1. A) hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) dipole-dipole interactions.
  4. D) ionic bonds.
  5. E) sugar-to-phosphate bonds.

 

 

 

 

17) Which of the following is NOT a step in DNA replication?

  1. A) mRNA sends a message to form a new strand of DNA.
  2. B) A base on the DNA pairs with its complementary base free in solution.
  3. C) DNA polymerase forms bonds between a 5′-phosphate of one nucleotide and a 3′-hydroxyl of another.
  4. D) On one strand the DNA is synthesized continuously.
  5. E) DNA ligase connects short segments of DNA on one strand.

 

 

 

 

18) The two new DNA molecules formed in replication

  1. A) are complementary to the original DNA.
  2. B) both contain only two new daughter DNA strands.
  3. C) both contain only the parent DNA strands.
  4. D) contain one parent and one daughter strand.
  5. E) are identical, with one containing both parent strands, and the other containing both daughter strands.

 

 

 

 

19) What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds, and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand?

  1. A) transcription
  2. B) complementation
  3. C) translation
  4. D) replication
  5. E) restriction

 

 

 

20) The backbone of the helix of DNA is held together by

  1. A) hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) dipole-dipole interactions.
  4. D) ionic bonds.
  5. E) sugar-to-phosphate bonds.

 

 

 

 

21) Which of the following types of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein synthesis?

  1. A) mRNA
  2. B) histone RNA
  3. C) rRNA
  4. D) tRNA
  5. E) sRNA

 

 

 

 

22) In transcription

  1. A) the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA.
  2. B) a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced.
  3. C) uracil pairs with thymine.
  4. D) both strands of the DNA are copied.
  5. E) the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA.

 

 

 

 

 

23) Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?

 

3′ A-T-A-G-C-T-A 5′

 

  1. A) 5′ A-T-A-G-C-T-A 3′
  2. B) 5′ A-U-A-G-C-U-A 3′
  3. C) 5′ U-A-U-C-G-A-U 3′
  4. D) 5′ U-U-U-G-C-U-U 3′
  5. E) 5′ T-A-T-C-G-A-T 3′

 

 

 

24) Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?

 

3′ A-A-G-C-G-A-A 5′

 

  1. A) 5′ A-T-A-G-C-T-A 3′
  2. B) 5′ A-U-A-G-C-U-A 3′
  3. C) 5′ U-A-U-C-G-A-U 3′
  4. D) 5′ U-U-U-G-C-U-U 3′
  5. E) 5′ T-A-T-C-G-A-T 3′

 

 

 

 

25) Which one of these base pairs is found in RNA?

  1. A) guanine-cytosine
  2. B) adenine-cytosine
  3. C) adenine-thymine
  4. D) adenine-guanine
  5. E) guanine-thymine

 

 

 

 

26) In the synthesis of mRNA, an adenine in the DNA pairs with

  1. A) uracil.
  2. B) adenine.
  3. C) guanine.
  4. D) thymine.
  5. E) cytosine.

 

 

 

 

 

27) A DNA template having the base sequence 3′ A-G-A-T-G-A 5′ would produce a mRNA with a base sequence of

  1. A) 5′ A-G-A-T-G-A 3′.
  2. B) 5′ U-C-U-A-C-U 3′.
  3. C) 5′ T-C-T-U-C-T 3′.
  4. D) 5′ T-C-T-A-C-A 3′.
  5. E) 5′ A-C-A-U-C-A 3′.

 

 

 

28) When mRNA is synthesized using the information from DNA, the process is called

  1. A) transportation.
  2. B) transposition.
  3. C) transcription.
  4. D) translation.
  5. E) transliteration.

 

 

 

 

29) The anticodon is

  1. A) identical to the codon on DNA.
  2. B) complementary to the codon on DNA.
  3. C) identical to the codon on mRNA.
  4. D) complementary to the codon on mRNA.
  5. E) complementary to the codon on tRNA.

 

 

 

 

30) A set of directions in the DNA base sequence for the synthesis of a protein is a(n)

  1. A) structural gene.
  2. B) promotor.
  3. C) operator.
  4. D) codon.
  5. E) regulatory gene.

 

 

 

 

 

31) Which of the following types of RNA has a large subunit and a small subunit?

  1. A) mRNA
  2. B) histone RNA
  3. C) rRNA
  4. D) tRNA
  5. E) sRNA

 

 

 

 

32) Some sections of a DNA molecule do not code for protein synthesis.  These segments are called

  1. A) codons.
  2. B) anticodons.
  3. C) Okazaki fragments.
  4. D) introns.
  5. E) exons.

 

 

 

33) Codons are base pair sequences that

  1. A) signal the start of DNA synthesis.
  2. B) signal the end of DNA synthesis.
  3. C) code for amino acids.
  4. D) signal the start of RNA synthesis.
  5. E) code for one or more bases in mRNA.

 

 

 

 

34) The codon is found on ________, and the anticodon is found on ________.

  1. A) mRNA; tRNA
  2. B) tRNA; mRNA
  3. C) rRNA; tRNA
  4. D) ribosomes; tRNA
  5. E) mRNA; rRNA

 

 

 

 

35) Translation is the process whereby

  1. A) DNA is synthesized from DNA.
  2. B) DNA is synthesized from mRNA.
  3. C) protein is synthesized from DNA.
  4. D) protein is synthesized from mRNA.
  5. E) mRNA is synthesized from DNA.

 

Objective:  21.7

 

 

36) Which of the following is not a step in protein synthesis?

  1. A) activation of tRNA
  2. B) initiation
  3. C) elongation
  4. D) termination
  5. E) unwinding of two strands of mRNA

 

Objective:  21.7

 

 

37) A tRNA is activated when it

  1. A) attaches to mRNA.
  2. B) attaches to its specific amino acid.
  3. C) attaches to the ribosome.
  4. D) leaves the ribosome.
  5. E) releases its specific amino acid.

 

Objective:  21.7

 

38) During protein synthesis, the codon for an amino acid is found on

  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) rRNA.
  3. C) tRNA.
  4. D) mRNA.
  5. E) sRNA.

 

Objective:  21.7

 

 

39) The anticodon of U-A-G is

  1. A) A-T-C.
  2. B) U-A-G.
  3. C) A-A-C.
  4. D) A-U-C.
  5. E) G-A-U.

 

Objective:  21.7

 

 

40) Mutations are the result of

  1. A) alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone.
  2. B) exposure to water in utero.
  3. C) physical trauma in the mother’s childhood.
  4. D) alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone.
  5. E) alterations in the DNA base sequence.

 

Objective:  21.8

 

 

41) The result of a defective enzyme caused by a mutation in the DNA nucleotide sequence is

  1. A) a genetic disease.
  2. B) AIDS.
  3. C) HIV.
  4. D) recombinant DNA.
  5. E) translocation.

 

Objective:  21.8

 

 

42) When a mutation occurs by elimination of one base in a DNA sequence, this mutation is called a

  1. A) deletion mutation.
  2. B) retrovirus insertion.
  3. C) substitution mutation.
  4. D) translocation mutation.
  5. E) viral mutation.

 

Objective:  21.8

 

43) In the study of genetics, the abbreviation PCR refers to

  1. A) purine chain repression.
  2. B) pyrimidine complement restriction.
  3. C) purine coded ribose.
  4. D) protein combination and replication.
  5. E) polymerase chain reaction.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

44) Recombinant DNA technology requires the use of bacterial

  1. A) plasmids.
  2. B) mitochondria.
  3. C) endoplasmic reticulum.
  4. D) ribosomes.
  5. E) cell walls.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

45) One therapeutic product now available due to recombinant DNA technology is

  1. A) measles vaccine.
  2. B) penicillin.
  3. C) human growth hormone.
  4. D) sulfamethoxazole.
  5. E) tamoxifen.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

46) DNA fingerprinting uses ________ to produce DNA fragments that can be separated and screened for the presence of genetic diseases.

  1. A) extracellular DNA
  2. B) restriction enzymes
  3. C) bacterial plasmids
  4. D) anticodons
  5. E) codons

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

47) The purpose of the human genome project was to

  1. A) identify genes responsible for noninheritable diseases.
  2. B) determine how to clone human DNA.
  3. C) identify substrates for the polymerase chain reaction.
  4. D) learn how to clone bacterial DNA.
  5. E) map the locations of all the genes in human DNA.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

48) Which of the following is used in the preparation of recombinant DNA?

  1. A) RNA polymerase
  2. B) DNA polymerase
  3. C) repressor protein
  4. D) restriction enzyme
  5. E) enzyme induction

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

49) The insertion of new DNA into the plasmid DNA of a bacterium produces

  1. A) viral DNA.
  2. B) DNA fingerprints.
  3. C) recombinant DNA.
  4. D) ribosomes.
  5. E) restriction enzymes.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

 

50) The polymerase chain reaction is used in

  1. A) preparing recombinant DNA.
  2. B) transcription.
  3. C) DNA fingerprinting.
  4. D) translation.
  5. E) replication.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

51) A restriction enzyme functions to

  1. A) prevent the DNA from leaving the nucleus.
  2. B) limit the number of replications a DNA molecule can achieve.
  3. C) cut a large DNA double helix into smaller fragments.
  4. D) stop the elongation step of protein synthesis.
  5. E) eliminate a virus from a cell.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

52) Small living particles, with 3 to 200 genes, that cannot replicate without a host cell are called

  1. A) recombinant DNAs.
  2. B) viruses.
  3. C) bacteria.
  4. D) tumors.
  5. E) plasmids.

 

0

 

53) A virus that contains RNA as its genetic material is a

  1. A) genetically engineered virus.
  2. B) bacteria.
  3. C) recombinant DNA.
  4. D) retrovirus.
  5. E) vaccine.

 

0

 

 

54) Protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-HIV drugs,

  1. A) are nucleoside analogs.
  2. B) prevent reverse transcription.
  3. C) prevent synthesis of viral proteins.
  4. D) prevent mRNA synthesis.
  5. E) prevent activation of tRNA.

 

0

 

 

21.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Adenine is a purine.

 

 

 

 

2) Uracil is a pyrimidine.

 

 

 

 

3) DNA is a protein.

 

 

 

 

4) A nucleotide consists of only a base and a sugar.

 

 

 

 

5) DNA differs from RNA in the sugar it contains.

 

 

 

 

6) The sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is the primary structure.

 

 

 

7) The backbone of a nucleic acid is the nitrogen bases.

 

 

 

 

8) In the DNA double helix, a purine can only bond with a pyrimidine.

 

 

 

 

9) If the DNA double helix in humans contains 20% guanine, then the percent cytosine is 30%.

 

 

 

 

10) If the DNA double helix in humans contains 20% guanine, then the percent adenine is 30%.

 

 

 

 

11) If the DNA double helix in humans contains 20% guanine, then the percent cytosine is 20%.

 

 

 

 

12) Okazaki fragments are short segments formed by DNA polymerase in the daughter DNA strand that runs in the 3′ to 5′ direction.

 

 

 

 

13) The DNA complement of the sequence 5′ G-C-C-A-T 3′ is 3 -G-C-C-A-T 5′.

 

 

 

 

14) The enzyme helicase seperartes the two DNA strands.

 

 

 

 

15) RNA contains no phosphate.

 

 

 

 

16) Human DNA contains many nucleotides that are not used in genes.

 

 

 

17) Messenger RNA carries protein synthesis information from the nucleus to the ribosomes.

 

 

 

 

18) mRNA is the smallest type of RNA.

 

 

 

 

19) The anticodon sequence is found in mRNA.

 

 

 

 

20) The mRNA triplet UUU codes for phenylalanine.

 

 

 

 

21) Down syndrome is an acquired disease, not a genetic disease.

 

Objective:  21.8

 

 

22) Human insulin can be made with the use of recombinant DNA technology.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

23) DNA fingerprinting is not yet used to detect genes for cancer susceptibility.

 

Objective:  21.9

 

 

24) A retrovirus uses DNA as its genetic material.

 

0

 

 

25) AZT is a drug used in the treatment of colds.

 

0

 

 

26) A retrovirus contains DNA as its genetic material and that synthesizes a complementary RNA strand inside a cell.

 

0

 

 

21.3   Matching Questions

 

Match the following.

 

  1. A) mRNA
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) tRNA
  4. D) rRNA

 

1) picks up the specific amino acids for protein synthesis

 

 

 

2) synthesized by the DNA to carry the genetic message to the ribosomes

 

 

 

3) contains within the nucleus of the cell the information for the synthesis of protein

 

 

 

4) the nucleic acid that contains the codons for the amino acids of a protein

 

 

 

5) the most abundant nucleic acid in the ribosomes

 

 

 

6) the nucleic acid that contains a single anticodon for a specific amino acid

 

 

 

Match the correct term with the statement.

 

  1. A) transcription factor
  2. B) operon
  3. C) activators
  4. D) repressor
  5. E) promoter

 

7) the protein complexes that bind to the promoter region of DNA

Objective: 21.5

Global Outcomes: GO2

 

8) a group of genes whose transcription is controlled by the same regulatory gene

 

 

 

9) the portion of the control site that regulates DNA synthesis

 

 

 

10) a protein that interacts with the operator gene to prevent mRNA synthesis

 

 

 

11) proteins that bind to transcription factors to increase the transcription rate

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 22   Metabolic Pathways for Carbohydrates

 

22.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following is true for prokaryotic cells?

  1. A) They are more complex than eukaryotic cells.
  2. B) They are larger than eukaryotic cells.
  3. C) They contain mitochondria.
  4. D) They are found in animals.
  5. E) They do not contain a nucleus.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

2) A compound that is formed in a metabolic oxidation is called a(n)

  1. A) product.
  2. B) enzyme.
  3. C) metabolite.
  4. D) food.
  5. E) cofactor.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

3) Which of the following does not require energy from ATP hydrolysis?

  1. A) digestion
  2. B) muscle contraction
  3. C) transport across cell membranes
  4. D) sending nerve signals
  5. E) synthesis of an enzyme

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

4) The process by which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones for the body’s use is called

  1. A) metabolism.
  2. B) catabolism.
  3. C) anabolism.
  4. D) glucogenesis.
  5. E) gluconeogenesis.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

5) The process of building up new molecules in the cell is called

  1. A) metabolism.
  2. B) catabolism.
  3. C) anabolism.
  4. D) glycolysis.
  5. E) transamination.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

6) Overall, catabolic reactions

  1. A) release energy.
  2. B) take in energy.
  3. C) occur mainly in the liver.
  4. D) occur outside the cell membrane.
  5. E) take place in the nucleus of the cell.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

7) Anabolic reactions are reactions that

  1. A) use oxidation but not reduction.
  2. B) break down large molecules into smaller ones.
  3. C) take place in the mitochondria.
  4. D) use energy.
  5. E) give off energy.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

8) How many main stages of catabolism are there?

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

9) The first stage of catabolism is

  1. A) the citric acid cycle.
  2. B) production of pyruvate.
  3. C) production of acetyl CoA.
  4. D) buildup of macromolecules from monomers.
  5. E) digestion of large molecules.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

10) The middle stage of catabolism is the point at which

  1. A) acetyl CoA is produced.
  2. B) monomers are produced from macromolecules.
  3. C) macromolecules are made from monomers.
  4. D) glycogen is converted to glucose.
  5. E) excess nutrients are stored as fats.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

11) Protein synthesis takes place

  1. A) in the mitochondria.
  2. B) on the endoplasmic reticulum.
  3. C) in the nucleus.
  4. D) on the ribosomes.
  5. E) in the cytosol.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

12) The synthesis of glycogen can be classified as a(n)

  1. A) catabolic reaction.
  2. B) anabolic reaction.
  3. C) digestion reaction.
  4. D) phosphorylation reaction.
  5. E) β-oxidation reaction.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

13) The final products of catabolic reactions are

  1. A) carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia.
  2. B) glucose, lipids, and glycogen.
  3. C) lipids, oxygen, and water.
  4. D) RNA and DNA.
  5. E) lipids and carbohydrates.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

14) The main compound used to release energy for metabolism is

  1. A) sucrose.
  2. B) glucose phosphate.
  3. C) adenosine triphosphate.
  4. D) ribonucleic acid.
  5. E) NAD+.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

15) The components of ATP are

  1. A) adenosine, ribose, and triphosphate.
  2. B) aniline and triphosphate.
  3. C) alanine, ribose, and triphosphate.
  4. D) adenine, ribose, and triphosphate.
  5. E) adenosine, deoxyribose, and triphosphate.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

16) The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is

  1. A) endothermic.
  2. B) exothermic.
  3. C) isothermic.
  4. D) an oxidation.
  5. E) a reduction.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

17) The energy from the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is

  1. A) 31 kcal/mole.
  2. B) 7.3 kcal/mole.
  3. C) 73 kcal/mole.
  4. D) 10. kcal/mole.
  5. E) 4.0 kcal/mole.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

18) The symbol Pi stands for

  1. A) inorganic phosphate.
  2. B) inert pyrophosphate.
  3. C) insoluble phosphate.
  4. D) isomers of phosphate.
  5. E) irreversible phosphorylation.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

19) The hydrolysis of ADP to give AMP and Pi, releases approximately the same amount of energy as

  1. A) sucrose breakdown.
  2. B) protein digestion.
  3. C) glucose oxidation.
  4. D) glycogen production.
  5. E) ATP → ADP + Pi.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

20) Muscle contraction requires

  1. A) copper ion and ATP.
  2. B) iron.
  3. C) calcium ion and ATP.
  4. D) lipid hydrolysis.
  5. E) carbon dioxide.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

21) Muscle contraction is an example of a(n)

  1. A) anabolic process.
  2. B) catabolic process.
  3. C) glucose storage process.
  4. D) protein degradation process.
  5. E) lipid hydrolysis process.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

22) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

 

H      H

|       |

–  C –    C –      →     –  C =  C –

|       |                       |      |

 

  1. A) FAD
  2. B) NAD+
  3. C) FMN
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) FADH2

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

23) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

 

OH                O

|

–   C –    →    –   C –

|

H

 

  1. A) FAD
  2. B) NAD+
  3. C) FMN
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) FADH2

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

24) In biochemical systems, the term reduction often refers to

  1. A) a loss of hydrogen or electrons by a compound.
  2. B) a gain of hydrogen or electrons by a compound.
  3. C) a gain in oxygen.
  4. D) a loss of electrons.
  5. E) an energy-releasing reaction.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

25) NAD+ stands for the coenzyme

  1. A) niacin adenine dinucleotide.
  2. B) nicotinic acid diphosphate.
  3. C) nicotinamide diphosphate.
  4. D) nicotine adenosine dinucleotide.
  5. E) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

26) NAD+ participates in reactions that produce

  1. A) a CH2
  2. B) a C=O bond.
  3. C) phosphorylation.
  4. D) ADP from ATP.
  5. E) a C-C bond.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

27) FAD stands for

  1. A) flavin adenosine dinucleotide.
  2. B) folic acid diphosphate.
  3. C) fumarate alcohol dehydrogenase.
  4. D) folate adenosine diphosphate.
  5. E) flavin adenine dinucleotide.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

28) FAD is a coenzyme which usually participates in

  1. A) oxidation of alcohols to aldehydes.
  2. B) formation of carbon-carbon double bonds.
  3. C) decarboxylation reactions.
  4. D) phosphorylation reactions.
  5. E) β-oxidation reactions.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

29) Coenzyme A is a molecule whose function is to

  1. A) activate enzyme A.
  2. B) undergo phosphorylation.
  3. C) provide energy for the citric acid cycle.
  4. D) produce acyl groups for reaction.
  5. E) help break down macromolecules.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

30) An acyl group contains at least ________ carbon atom(s).

  1. A) one
  2. B) two
  3. C) three
  4. D) four
  5. E) five

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

31) The portion of Coenzyme A that reacts with potential substrates is

  1. A) an acid group.
  2. B) an amino group.
  3. C) a C=O group.
  4. D) an alcohol group.
  5. E) a thiol group.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

32) Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the

  1. A) mouth.
  2. B) stomach.
  3. C) pancreas.
  4. D) small intestine.
  5. E) large intestine.

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

33) An enzyme that can facilitate the breakdown of starch into smaller units is

  1. A) glucose phosphatase.
  2. B) alcohol dehydrogenase.
  3. C) amylase.
  4. D) lactase.
  5. E) maltase.

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

34) The digestion of carbohydrates goes from

  1. A) glucose to dextrins to maltose.
  2. B) maltose to polysaccharides.
  3. C) polysaccharides to dextrins to glucose.
  4. D) polysaccharides to glucose to dextrins.
  5. E) glucose to polysaccharides.

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

35) Glycolysis is a(n) ________ process.

  1. A) aerobic
  2. B) anaerobic
  3. C) anabolic
  4. D) one-step
  5. E) five-step

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

36) In the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted to

  1. A) pyruvate.
  2. B) citrate.
  3. C) sucrose.
  4. D) oxaloacetate.
  5. E) ribose.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

37) The overall process of glycolysis

  1. A) requires oxygen.
  2. B) uses up 4 ATP molecules.
  3. C) requires acetyl CoA.
  4. D) is an anabolic pathway.
  5. E) produces 2 ATP molecules.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

38) The process of glycolysis is regulated by

  1. A) cell requirements for pyruvate.
  2. B) allosteric control.
  3. C) ATP needs.
  4. D) feedback inhibition.
  5. E) All of the above.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

39) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate produced in glycolysis can be converted to

  1. A) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
  2. B) lactic acid.
  3. C) glucose-6-phosphate.
  4. D) fructose-6-phosphate.
  5. E) acetyl CoA.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

40) Which of the following metabolic pathways can occur in the absence of oxygen?

  1. A) electron transport
  2. B) oxidative phosphorylation
  3. C) citric acid cycle
  4. D) glycolysis
  5. E) β-oxidation

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

 

41) In step 7 of glycolysis, ATP is generated when a phosphate group is transferred directly from 1,3-diphosphoglycerate to ADP in a process known as

  1. A) oxidation.
  2. B) direct substrate phosphorylation.
  3. C) reduction.
  4. D) transamination.
  5. E) oxidative phosphorylation.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

42) The compounds formed when fructose-1, 6-diphosphate is split are

  1. A) pyruvic acid and lactic acid.
  2. B) ethanol and acetyl CoA.
  3. C) dihydroxyacetone phosphate and pyruvic acid.
  4. D) dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
  5. E) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and pyruvic acid.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

43) When one glucose molecule undergoes glycolysis it generates

  1. A) 6 ATP.
  2. B) 6 ATP and 2 NADH.
  3. C) 2 ATP and 2 NADH.
  4. D) 2 ATP and 4 NADH.
  5. E) 12 ATP.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

44) Under anaerobic conditions, lactate is produced from

  1. A) acetyl CoA.
  2. B) pyruvate.
  3. C) ATP.
  4. D) carbon dioxide.
  5. E) NAD+.

 

Objective:  22.5

 

 

 

45) Glycogen is normally stored in

  1. A) heart and lung.
  2. B) liver and muscle.
  3. C) spleen and bone.
  4. D) pancreas and muscle.
  5. E) fat cells and muscle.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

46) When as much glycogen is stored as possible in the body, excess glucose is converted to

  1. A) triacylglycerols.
  2. B) fructose.
  3. C) sucrose.
  4. D) Coenzyme A.
  5. E) ATP.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

47) The synthesis of glycogen from glucose is called

  1. A) glyceration.
  2. B) gluconeogenesis.
  3. C) glucogenesis.
  4. D) glycogenesis.
  5. E) glycolysis.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

48) Glycogenesis obtains energy from

  1. A) ADP.
  2. B) UTP.
  3. C) Pi.
  4. D) pyrophosphate.
  5. E) pyruvate.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

49) When glycogen is broken down into glucose, the process is called

  1. A) glycogenesis.
  2. B) glycogenolysis.
  3. C) gluconeogenesis.
  4. D) lactate production.
  5. E) glucagon production.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

50) The primary energy source for the brain is

  1. A) lactate.
  2. B) triacylglycerols.
  3. C) amino acids.
  4. D) fructose.
  5. E) glucose.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

51) When glucose is made from noncarbohydrate sources, the process is called

  1. A) glycogenesis.
  2. B) glycogenolysis.
  3. C) gluconeogenesis.
  4. D) lactate production.
  5. E) glucagon production.

 

Objective:  22.7

 

22.2   Bimodal Questions

 

1) The term that refers to all of the chemical reactions in living cells is ________.

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) β-oxidation
  3. C) metabolism
  4. D) anabolism
  5. E) catabolism

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

2) Most of the energy in the typical animal cell is produced in the ________.

  1. A) cytosol
  2. B) nucleus
  3. C) mitochondria
  4. D) lysosomes
  5. E) endoplasmic reticulum

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

 

3) The energy for most energy-requiring reactions in the cells of the body is obtained by the hydrolysis of ________.

  1. A) ATP
  2. B) ADP
  3. C) AMP
  4. D) cyclic AMP
  5. E) GTP

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

4) Hydrolysis of sucrose takes place primarily in the ________.

  1. A) mouth
  2. B) stomach
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) small intestine
  5. E) large intestine

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

5) The net energy production in anaerobic glycolysis is ________.

  1. A) 2 ATP
  2. B) 4 ATP
  3. C) 6 ATP
  4. D) 8 ATP
  5. E) 12 ATP

 

Objective:  22.4

 

6) The production of ethanol from glucose is termed ________.

  1. A) fermentation
  2. B) glycolysis
  3. C) gluconeogenesis
  4. D) β-oxidation
  5. E) dehydrogenation

 

Objective:  22.5

 

 

 

22.3   True/False Questions

 

1) Energy production in the cell occurs primarily in the nucleus.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

2) The cytosol is an aqueous solution of salts and enzymes.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

3) Reactions in the mitochondria produce most of the cell’s energy.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

4) Lysosomes digest and recycle old cell structures.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

5) Digestion of a polysaccharide is an anabolic process.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

6) The production of carbon dioxide and water in the body is an anabolic process.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

7) Catabolic reactions provide energy to generate ATP in the cell.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

8) ATP is the primary energy source for the cell.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

9) The conversion of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate produces 7.3 kcal/mole of energy.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

10) ATP contains a ribose sugar.

 

Objective:  22.1

 

 

11) Oxidation involves the gain of electrons for a substance.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

12) NAD+ acts as a hydrogen acceptor in metabolic reactions.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

13) FADH2 is the oxidized form of FAD.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

14) Pantothenic acid is a part of NADH.

 

Objective:  22.2

 

 

15) Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth.

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

16) Most of the digestion of carbohydrates occurs in the stomach.

 

Objective:  22.3

 

 

17) In glycolysis, two ATPs are invested and six ATPs are synthesized.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

 

18) The product of glycolysis is glucose.

 

Objective:  22.4

 

19) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to ethanol.

 

Objective:  22.5

 

 

20) In glycogenesis, excess glucose is used to form glycogen.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

21) Glycogen storage disease occurs when an enzyme is deficient and impedes the storage or degradation of glycogen.

 

Objective:  22.6

 

 

22) In gluconeogenesis, glucose is synthesized from noncarbohydrate material.

 

Objective:  22.7

 

 

23) Gluconeogenesis is an anabolic process.

 

Objective:  22.7

 

 

22.4   Matching Questions

 

Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.

 

  1. A) the conversion of pyruviate to ethanol and CO2
  2. B) breaking down of macromolecules
  3. C) the synthesis of glycogen from glucose for storage purposes
  4. D) the conversion of glucose to lactic acid
  5. E) the production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules
  6. F) lipid metabolism
  7. G) the flow of lactate and glucose between muscle and liver

 

1) anaerobic glycolysis

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

2) fermentation

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

3) glycogenesis

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

4) gluconeogenesis

Objective: 22.4, 22.5

 

 

5) the Cori cycle

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

6) digestion

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

7) triacylglycerol hydrolysis

Objective:  22.4, 22.5

 

 

===================================================================

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 23   Metabolism and Energy Production

 

23.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) When combined with electron transport, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________ ATP.

  1. A) 24
  2. B) 12
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 14
  5. E) 2

 

 

 

 

2) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

 

H      H

|       |

–  C –    C –      →     –  C =  C –

|       |                       |      |

 

  1. A) FAD
  2. B) NAD+
  3. C) FMN
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) FADH2

 

 

 

 

3) Which coenzyme is the electron acceptor in the following reaction?

 

OH                O

|

–   C –    →    –   C –

|

H

 

  1. A) FAD
  2. B) NAD+
  3. C) FMN
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) FADH2

 

 

 

4) NAD+ participates in reactions that produce

  1. A) a CH2
  2. B) a C=O bond.
  3. C) phosphorylation.
  4. D) ADP from ATP.
  5. E) a C-C bond.

 

 

 

 

5) FAD is a coenzyme which usually participates in

  1. A) oxidation of alcohols to aldehydes.
  2. B) formation of carbon-carbon double bonds.
  3. C) decarboxylation reactions.
  4. D) phosphorylation reactions.
  5. E) β-oxidation reactions.

 

 

 

 

6) In order to enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is first converted to

  1. A) ate.
  2. B) acetaldehyde.
  3. C) citrate.
  4. D) acetyl CoA.
  5. E) ethanol.

 

 

 

 

7) The citric acid cycle is used in the oxidation of

  1. A) glucose only.
  2. B) glucose and fatty acids only.
  3. C) fatty acids only.
  4. D) glucose, fatty acids, and proteins.
  5. E) proteins only.

 

 

 

 

8) What electron acceptor(s) is(are) used in the citric acid cycle?

  1. A) FAD only
  2. B) NAD+ only
  3. C) NADH + FADH2+ HS – CoA
  4. D) FMN
  5. E) NAD+ + FAD

 

 

 

9) Which of the following compounds in the citric acid cycle undergoes oxidative decarboxylation?

  1. A) citrate
  2. B) isocitrate
  3. C) succinate
  4. D) fumarate
  5. E) succinyl CoA

 

 

 

 

10) Which of the following is the net reaction for one turn of the citric acid cycle?

  1. A) Acetyl CoA + 3 NAD++ FAD + GDP + Pi + 2H2O → 2CO2 + 3 NADH + 3 H+ + FADH2 + HS – CoA + GTP
  2. B) Pyruvate + 3 NAD++ FAD + GDP + Pi + 2H2O → 3 CO2 + 3 NADH + 3 H+ + FADH2 + GTP
  3. C) Acetyl CoA + NAD++ FAD + GDP + Pi→ 2 CO2 + NADH + H+ + FADH2 + HS – CoA + GTP
  4. D) Glucose + 2 NAD++ 2GDP + 2 Pi+ 2H2O → 2Pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + GTP
  5. E) Glucose + 2GDP + 2 Pi→ 2Lactate + 2GTP

 

 

 

 

11) The citric acid cycle operates only under aerobic conditions because

  1. A) oxygen is a reactant in the citric acid cycle.
  2. B) oxygen is a product of the citric acid cycle.
  3. C) CO2is a product of the citric acid cycle.
  4. D) the NADH and FADH2produced by the citric acid cycle can only be reoxidized by the electron transport chain.
  5. E) the NAD+ and FAD produced by the citric acid cycle can only be reduced by the electron transport chain.

 

 

 

 

12) When oxygen is in plentiful supply in the cell, pyruvate is converted to

  1. A) CoA.
  2. B) acetyl CoA.
  3. C) glucose.
  4. D) lactate.
  5. E) fructose.

 

 

 

 

13) Which of the three major stages of metabolism includes the citric acid cycle?

  1. A) Stage one
  2. B) Stage two
  3. C) Stage three

 

 

 

 

14) The citric acid cycle takes place in the

  1. A) mitochondria.
  2. B) cytosol.
  3. C) cytoplasm.
  4. D) Golgi apparatus.
  5. E) endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

 

 

15) Most of the energy released in the citric acid cycle is used to produce

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) acetyl CoA.
  3. C) NADH and FADH2.
  4. D) carbon dioxide and water.
  5. E) citric acid.

 

 

 

 

16) Another name for the citric acid cycle is

  1. A) electron transport.
  2. B) glycolysis.
  3. C) the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle.
  4. D) glucolysis.
  5. E) the transamination pathway.

 

 

 

 

17) Another name for the citric acid cycle is

  1. A) the Krebs cycle.
  2. B) gluconeogenesis.
  3. C) glucose hydrolysis.
  4. D) oxidative phosphorylation.
  5. E) the chemiosmotic pump.

 

 

 

 

18) In the first reaction of the citric acid cycle

  1. A) glucose becomes pyruvate.
  2. B) ATP is produced.
  3. C) NADH is produced.
  4. D) acetyl CoA reacts with oxaloacetate to give citrate.
  5. E) pyruvate becomes CO2and H2

 

 

 

 

19) During the first reaction in the citric acid cycle,

  1. A) HS- CoA is released.
  2. B) acetyl CoA is made.
  3. C) a decarboxylation occurs.
  4. D) a decomposition occurs.
  5. E) ATP is synthesized.

 

 

 

 

20) The transformation of citrate to isocitrate in the citric acid cycle requires two ________ reactions.

  1. A) oxidation
  2. B) reduction
  3. C) hydrolysis
  4. D) decarboxylation
  5. E) dehydration-hydration

 

 

 

 

21) The citric acid cycle step that removes the first CO2 molecule is a(n)

  1. A) oxidative decarboxylation.
  2. B) reduction.
  3. C) carbonylation.
  4. D) hydrolysis.
  5. E) combination.

 

 

 

 

22) In the third major step of the citric acid cycle, NAD+ is converted to

  1. A) NAS-.
  2. B) NAD2+.
  3. C) NADH2.
  4. D) NAD.
  5. E) NADH.

 

 

 

23) Step 5 of the citric acid cycle is the hydrolysis of succinyl CoA.  In this reaction

  1. A) the energy released is used to make GTP.
  2. B) the energy released is used to make ATP.
  3. C) carbon dioxide is released.
  4. D) α-ketoglutarate is released.
  5. E) the enzyme aconitase is needed.

 

 

 

 

24) In the hydrolysis of succinyl CoA in step 5 of the citric acid cycle, CoA is released as

  1. A) HS-CoA.
  2. B) HO-CoA.
  3. C) CoA-O-.
  4. D) CoA-S-.
  5. E) CoA-COO-.

 

 

 

 

25) The GTP formed in step 5 of the citric acid cycle is used to make

  1. A) carbon dioxide.
  2. B) oxygen.
  3. C) water.
  4. D) CoA.
  5. E) ATP.

 

 

 

 

26) In the dehydration of succinate to fumarate in the citric acid cycle, the coenzyme used is

  1. A) CoA.
  2. B) acetyl CoA.
  3. C) NAD+.
  4. D) NADH.
  5. E) FAD.

 

 

 

 

27) In step 7 of the citric acid cycle, fumarate is converted to malate by a ________ reaction.

  1. A) hydrolysis
  2. B) dehydrogenation
  3. C) hydrogenation
  4. D) hydration
  5. E) dehydration

 

 

 

28) The last step in the citric acid cycle converts malate to

  1. A) citrate.
  2. B) isocitrate.
  3. C) succinate.
  4. D) fumarate.
  5. E) oxaloacetate.

 

 

 

 

29) One method of regulation of the citric acid cycle is

  1. A) allosteric control.
  2. B) osmosis.
  3. C) temperature control.
  4. D) carbon dioxide production.
  5. E) water concentration.

 

 

 

 

30) The process which requires oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water is called

  1. A) fermentation.
  2. B) reduction.
  3. C) decomposition.
  4. D) oxidation.
  5. E) respiration.

 

 

 

 

31) Which of the following metabolic pathways can occur in the absence of oxygen?

  1. A) electron transport
  2. B) oxidative phosphorylation
  3. C) citric acid cycle
  4. D) glycolysis
  5. E) β-oxidation

 

 

 

 

32) Under anaerobic conditions, there is a net production of ________ ATP during glycolysis.

  1. A) zero
  2. B) two
  3. C) four
  4. D) six
  5. E) eight

 

 

 

33) Cyanide ion and carbon monoxide inhibit

  1. A) cytochrome c oxidase.
  2. B) ATP production.
  3. C) antibiotic activity.
  4. D) CoQ formation.
  5. E) CoA formation.

 

 

 

 

34) In the chemiosmotic model, protons circulate through a protein complex called

  1. A) Cyt
  2. B) FMN.
  3. C) Complex III.
  4. D) CoQ.
  5. E) ATP synthase.

 

 

 

 

35) The components of the electron transport chain do NOT include

  1. A) oxygen (O2).
  2. B) Cyt
  3. C) Complex III.
  4. D) CoQ.
  5. E) acetyl CoA.

 

 

 

 

36) In the chemiosmotic model of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is synthesized as

  1. A) OH- flows through ATP synthase.
  2. B) electrons flow through ATP synthase.
  3. C) Ca2+ flows through ATP synthase.
  4. D) H+ flows through ATP synthase.
  5. E) Na+ flows through ATP synthase.

 

 

 

 

37) In electron transport, the synthesis of ATP from ADP + Pi is called

  1. A) glycolysis.
  2. B) fermentation.
  3. C) oxidative phosphorylation.
  4. D) isomerization.
  5. E) hydrolysis.

 

 

 

38) In electron transport, the three protein complexes (I, III, and IV)

  1. A) act as proton pumps, which generate a proton gradient.
  2. B) transfer electrons from NAD+to O2.
  3. C) transfer electrons from FAD to O2.
  4. D) act as electron pumps, which generate an electron gradient.
  5. E) act as Ca2+pumps, which generate a Ca2+

 

 

 

 

39) In electron transport, the oxidized product from the reaction of CoQ + NADH + H+ is

  1. A) CoQ.
  2. B) CoQH2.
  3. C) FADH.
  4. D) FAD.
  5. E) NAD+.

 

 

 

 

40) The electron carrier ________ provides 1.5 ATP via electron transport.

  1. A) FADH2
  2. B) NADH
  3. C) NADPH
  4. D) HS-CoA
  5. E) acetyl CoA

 

 

 

 

41) Electron transport is also called

  1. A) the citric acid cycle.
  2. B) β-oxidation.
  3. C) transamination.
  4. D) the respiratory chain.
  5. E) fermentation.

 

 

 

 

 

42) In electron transport, NADH and FADH2 are used to provide

  1. A) oxygen.
  2. B) electrons and hydrogen ions.
  3. C) carbon atoms.
  4. D) water and carbon dioxide.
  5. E) thiol groups.

 

 

 

43) The energy released during electron transport is used to produce

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) citric acid.
  3. C) carbon dioxide.
  4. D) ATP.
  5. E) NADH.

 

 

 

 

44) The compounds in the respiratory chain that remove hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH are classified as

  1. A) oxidative transporters.
  2. B) osmotic carriers.
  3. C) electron carriers.
  4. D) phosphorylators.
  5. E) citrates.

 

 

 

 

45) One example of an electron carrier in the respiratory chain is

  1. A) ATP.
  2. B) GTP.
  3. C) coenzyme Q.
  4. D) citrate.
  5. E) water.

 

 

 

 

 

46) Which is the best choice for the box labeled “Answer” in the illustration below?

 

 

  1. A) oxidized carrier B
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) OH-
  4. D) reduced carrier BH2
  5. E) energy

 

 

 

47) What is the correct coefficient for ATP in the complete combustion of glucose?

 

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + ________ ATP + 6H2O

 

  1. A) 6
  2. B) 12
  3. C) 18
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

 

 

 

 

48) Which of the following is NOT a possible product of pyruvate under anaerobic conditions?

  1. A) lactate
  2. B) acetaldehyde
  3. C) fumarate
  4. D) ethanol
  5. E) CO2

 

 

 

 

49) In stage three of metabolism, the overall result is to release

  1. A) glucose and water.
  2. B) lactate and acetyl CoA.
  3. C) lactate and glucose.
  4. D) glycogen and water.
  5. E) carbon dioxide and energy.

 

 

 

 

50) Overall, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces

  1. A) three CO2
  2. B) three NADH molecules.
  3. C) two FADH2
  4. D) 6 ATP.
  5. E) 2 GTP.

 

 

 

51) In glycolysis, glucose produces 2 pyruvate ions and a total of ________ ATP molecules.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 12

 

 

 

 

52) The complete oxidation of glucose produces ________ ATP molecules.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 12
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

 

 

 

 

23.2   Short Answer Questions

 

In this figure depicting the Stages of Metabolism taken from your text, identify the metabolic substance numbered.

 

 

1) Substance 1

 

 

2) Substance 2

 

 

3) Substance 3

 

 

4) Substance 4

 

 

5) Substance 5

 

 

6) Substance 6

 

 

7) Substance 7

 

 

8) Substance 8

 

 

9) Process 9

 

 

10) Process 10

 

 

11) Process 11

In this figure, depicting part 1 of the Citric Acid Cycle, taken from your text, identify the substances numbered.

 

 

 

12) Substance 12

 

 

13) Substance 13

 

 

14) Substance 14

 

 

15) Substance 15

 

 

16) Substance 16

 

17) Substance 17

 

 

18) Substance 18

 

 

23.3   True/False Questions

 

1) In reaction 4 of the citric acid cycle, α-ketoglutarase, a five-carbon keto acid, is decarboxylated.

 

 

 

 

2) In reaction 1 of the citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA reacts with oxaloacetate.

 

 

 

 

3) Citrate is one of the products of the citric acid cycle.

 

 

 

 

4) NAD+ acts as a hydrogen acceptor in metabolic reactions.

 

 

 

 

5) FADH2 is the oxidized form of FAD.

 

 

 

 

6) Cyt c is a component of complex IV.

 

 

 

 

7) The energy levels of complexes decrease as electron transport progresses.

 

 

 

 

8) 12 ATP are produced when glucose is oxidized to CO2 and H2O.

 

 

 

9) The conversion of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate produces 7.3 kcal/mole of energy.

 

 

 

 

10) The oxidation of NADH yields 2.5 ATP.

 

 

 

 

11) The oxidation of FADH2 yields 1.5 ATP.

 

 

 

23.4   Matching Questions

 

Indicate the amount of ATP produced when each of the following reactions occurs.

 

  1. A) 7 ATP
  2. B) 2 ATP
  3. C) 32 ATP
  4. D) 2.5 ATP
  5. E) 10 ATP

 

1) complete oxidation of glucose

 

 

 

2) acetyl CoA → 2CO2

 

 

 

3) glucose  →  2 pyruvate under aerobic conditions

 

 

 

4) glucose  →  2 lactate

 

 

 

5) pyruvate → acetyl CoA + CO2

 

 

 

Match the terms with the following descriptions.

 

  1. A) oxidative phosphorylation
  2. B) coenzyme A

 

6) the process that makes ATP using energy from the electron transport chain

 

 

 

7) the carrier of acetyl (two-carbon) groups

 

 

 

 

Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.

 

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) electron transport
  3. C) citric acid cycle

 

8) the conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid

 

 

 

9) the series of reactions that converts acetyl CoA to carbon dioxide and water

 

 

 

10) the series of reactions that produces water

 

 

 

11) the series of reactions that uses electron carriers

 

 

 

 

General, Organic & Biological Chemistry, 5e (Timberlake)

Chapter 24   Metabolic Pathways for Lipids and Amino Acids

 

24.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) The digestion of fats begins in the

  1. A) mouth.
  2. B) stomach.
  3. C) small intestine.
  4. D) large intestine.
  5. E) pancreas.

 

 

 

 

2) The digestion of fats begins when the fat globules are

  1. A) emulsified by bile salts.
  2. B) attacked by protease enzymes to form smaller fat globules.
  3. C) converted to lipoproteins for greater solubility.
  4. D) hydrolyzed to glucose and amino acids.
  5. E) hydrolyzed to glycerol and fatty acids.

 

 

 

 

3) Fatty acids and glycerol are produced from the metabolism of

  1. A) lipids.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) carbohydrates.
  4. D) amino acids.
  5. E) glucose.

 

 

 

 

4) Most of the energy stored in the human body is in the form of

  1. A) glycogen.
  2. B) glucose.
  3. C) muscle tissue.
  4. D) triacylglycerols.
  5. E) the amino acid pool.

 

5) Fat cells are known as

  1. A) lysosomes.
  2. B) adipocytes.
  3. C) glycerides.
  4. D) islet cells.
  5. E) monoacylglycerols.

 

 

 

 

6) The small droplets of fat that are the first step in the digestion of dietary fats are called

  1. A) emulsions.
  2. B) detergents.
  3. C) bile drops.
  4. D) lipoproteins.
  5. E) micelles.

 

 

 

 

7) The action of pancreatic lipase on triacylglycerols produces

  1. A) emulsions.
  2. B) micelles.
  3. C) monoacylglycerols and free fatty acids.
  4. D) high-density lipoproteins.
  5. E) low-density lipoproteins.

 

 

 

 

8) A chylomicron is a

  1. A) lipase.
  2. B) digestive enzyme.
  3. C) triacylglycerol.
  4. D) transport lipoprotein.
  5. E) storage protein.

 

 

 

 

9) Fatty acids are not a source of energy for the brain because

  1. A) they cannot diffuse across the blood-brain barrier.
  2. B) the citric acid cycle does not operate in the brain.
  3. C) chylomicrons are too large for absorption by brain cells.
  4. D) they are metabolized before they get as far as the brain.
  5. E) there is no lipase in the brain.

 

 

 

10) The source of energy for red blood cells is

  1. A) amino acids.
  2. B) fatty acids.
  3. C) glycerol.
  4. D) glucose.
  5. E) lactate.

 

 

 

 

11) The heart muscle’s primary source of fuel is

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) fatty acids.
  3. C) amino acids.
  4. D) glycogen.
  5. E) lactate.

 

 

 

 

12) Red blood cells do not metabolize fatty acids because they have

  1. A) no nucleus.
  2. B) a cell wall.
  3. C) a cell membrane.
  4. D) no mitochondria.
  5. E) no DNA.

 

 

 

 

13) Fat stores in the body are mobilized when

  1. A) adipocyte concentrations are high.
  2. B) blood glucose levels are high.
  3. C) glucagon production is low.
  4. D) insulin production is high.
  5. E) glucose and glycogen stores are low.

 

 

 

 

14) The enzymes that break down triacylglycerols into fatty acids and glycerol are called

  1. A) lyases.
  2. B) aconitases.
  3. C) lipases.
  4. D) hydrolases.
  5. E) oxidoreductases.

 

 

 

15) Most of the glycerol produced by fatty acid breakdown goes to the

  1. A) pancreas.
  2. B) gall bladder.
  3. C) liver.
  4. D) small intestine.
  5. E) brain.

 

 

 

 

16) Most of the glycerol produced by fatty acid breakdown is converted eventually to

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) protein.
  3. C) fat.
  4. D) lactate.
  5. E) amino acids.

 

 

 

 

17) The removal of 2-carbon segments of a fatty acid for further metabolism is called

  1. A) β
  2. B) transamination.
  3. C) deglyceration.
  4. D) dehydration.
  5. E) decarboxylation.

 

 

 

 

18) The 2-carbon segments removed from a fatty acid during metabolism are used to form

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) pyruvate.
  3. C) lactate.
  4. D) CoA.
  5. E) acetyl CoA.

 

 

 

 

19) The series of reactions that produces energy by hydrolyzing fats to units of acetyl CoA is called

  1. A) transamination.
  2. B) β
  3. C) hydration.
  4. D) hydrolysis.
  5. E) β

 

 

 

20) Which step is found in the breakdown of a fat?

  1. A) an activation that requires 1 ATP
  2. B) an oxidation with a cytochrome
  3. C) an oxidation with CoQ
  4. D) direct substrate phosphorylation
  5. E) production of pyruvate

 

 

 

 

21) During complete oxidation of the fatty acid CH3(CH2)18COOH, ________ molecules of acetyl CoA are produced, and the fatty acid goes through the β-oxidation cycle ________ times.

  1. A) ten; ten
  2. B) nine; ten
  3. C) nine; nine
  4. D) nine; eight
  5. E) ten; nine

 

 

 

 

22) In the activation of a fatty acid, energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is used to

  1. A) form a double bond in an oxidation reaction.
  2. B) join the fatty acid to CoA.
  3. C) add a molecule of water across a double bond to give a hydroxyl group on the β
  4. D) oxidize the hydroxyl group on the β
  5. E) cause a unit of acetyl CoA to separate from the fatty acid chain.

 

 

 

 

23) The 2-carbon units obtained by degradation of a fatty acid are further metabolized in

  1. A) gluconeogenesis.
  2. B) the citric acid cycle.
  3. C) β
  4. D) glycolysis.
  5. E) transamination.

 

24) The function of fatty acyl CoA is to

  1. A) activate a fatty acid for metabolism.
  2. B) produce a 2-carbon segment for metabolism.
  3. C) isomerize cis fatty acids.
  4. D) cross the blood-brain barrier.
  5. E) produce a lipoprotein.

 

 

 

25) Fatty acyl CoA cannot cross into the mitochondrial matrix until

  1. A) it is cut into 2-carbon segments.
  2. B) the citric acid cycle has begun.
  3. C) β oxidation has taken place.
  4. D) the mitochondrial membrane undergoes a modification.
  5. E) it binds with a charged carrier molecule called carnitine.

 

 

 

 

26) Beta-oxidation takes place in the

  1. A) nucleus.
  2. B) cytosol.
  3. C) cytoplasm.
  4. D) mitochondrial matrix.
  5. E) Golgi body.

 

 

 

 

27) What is the total number of ATP molecules produced from the lauric acid (C12H24O2) found in coconut oil?

  1. A) 78 ATP
  2. B) 90 ATP
  3. C) 100 ATP
  4. D) 97 ATP
  5. E) 95 ATP

 

 

 

 

 

28) The complete oxidation of CH3(CH2)8COOH produces ________ molecules of ATP.

  1. A) 80
  2. B) 78
  3. C) 82
  4. D) 64
  5. E) 76

 

 

 

 

29) Myristic acid, a C14 fatty acid, produces ________ acetyl CoA when completely metabolized.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 14

 

 

 

30) Myristic acid, a C14 fatty acid, undergoes the β-oxidation cycle ________ times.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 14

 

 

 

 

31) The energy released by the β oxidation of a cis fatty acid is

  1. A) slightly more than that obtained from a trans fatty acid.
  2. B) slightly less than that obtained from a trans fatty acid.
  3. C) the same as that obtained from a trans fatty acid.
  4. D) less than that obtained from one glucose molecule.
  5. E) used immediately to form ATP.

 

 

 

 

32) Fats are higher in caloric value than carbohydrates because

  1. A) 1 gram of fat produces significantly more ATP than 1 gram of glucose.
  2. B) fats can make use of the citric acid cycle.
  3. C) fats make use of β
  4. D) 1 gram of glucose weighs more than 1 gram of fat.
  5. E) 1 gram of glucose contains more moles than 1 gram of fat.

 

 

 

 

33) Leptin is

  1. A) a digestive enzyme.
  2. B) a cofactor for fatty acid oxidation.
  3. C) an obesity gene.
  4. D) a zymogen.
  5. E) a hormone stored in fat cells.

 

 

 

 

34) Each acetyl CoA produces ________ ATP in the citric acid cycle.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 24

 

 

 

35) When excess acetyl CoA accumulates in the liver, a pathway called ________ is initiated.

  1. A) transamination
  2. B) glycolysis
  3. C) gluconeogenesis
  4. D) emulsification
  5. E) ketogenesis

 

 

 

 

36) Ketosis is a condition that can occur if

  1. A) ketone bodies cannot be completely metabolized.
  2. B) too many ketones are ingested.
  3. C) too much protein is available in the diet.
  4. D) the brain is starved of glucose.
  5. E) low fat intake occurs.

 

 

 

 

37) In Type II diabetes mellitus,

  1. A) blood glucose levels are too low.
  2. B) glucose intake is too low.
  3. C) birth of a baby restores normal pancreatic function.
  4. D) sufficient insulin is produced, but cannot be used.
  5. E) the pancreas produces insufficient insulin.

 

 

 

 

38) Ketosis can lower the blood pH below 7.4, producing the condition

  1. A) anemia.
  2. B) hyponatremia.
  3. C) hypokalemia.
  4. D) acidosis.
  5. E) alkalosis.

 

 

 

 

39) In Type I diabetes mellitus,

  1. A) blood glucose levels are too low.
  2. B) glucose intake is too low.
  3. C) birth of a baby restores normal pancreatic function.
  4. D) sufficient insulin is produced, but cannot be used.
  5. E) the pancreas produces insufficient insulin.

 

 

 

40) Malonyl CoA contains a 3-carbon compound used in

  1. A) lipogenesis.
  2. B) acetyl CoA formation.
  3. C) gluconeogenesis.
  4. D) glycogenolysis.
  5. E) the citric acid cycle.

 

 

 

 

41) The letters ACP stand for

  1. A) acetyl Coenzyme P.
  2. B) aconitate protein complex.
  3. C) acetyl condensing protein.
  4. D) acyl carrier protein.
  5. E) acetyl CoA-palmitate.

 

 

 

 

42) Fatty acid synthesis takes place primarily in

  1. A) liver cells.
  2. B) intestinal cells.
  3. C) brain cells.
  4. D) muscle cells.
  5. E) adipocytes.

 

 

 

 

43) The production of new fatty acids is called

  1. A) gluconeogenesis.
  2. B) β
  3. C) transesterification.
  4. D) oxidation.
  5. E) lipogenesis.

 

 

 

 

44) Acyl carrier protein is used in

  1. A) β
  2. B) lipogenesis.
  3. C) gluconeogenesis.
  4. D) acetyl CoA production.
  5. E) fatty acid degradation.

 

 

 

45) The coenzyme(s) used in fatty acid synthesis is (are)

  1. A) NADH.
  2. B) FADH2.
  3. C) NADPH.
  4. D) NADH and NADPH.
  5. E) FADH2 and NADH.

 

 

 

 

46) The digestion of protein begins in the

  1. A) mouth.
  2. B) stomach.
  3. C) small intestine.
  4. D) large intestine.
  5. E) pancreas.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

 

47) The initial digestion of protein is catalyzed by an enzyme called

  1. A) chymotrypsin.
  2. B) peptidase.
  3. C) pepsin.
  4. D) amylase.
  5. E) trypsin.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

48) In a(n) ________ reaction, NH4+is produced when glutamate is converted to α-ketoglutarate.

  1. A) dehydrogenation
  2. B) transamination
  3. C) oxidative deamination
  4. D) reduction
  5. E) hydration

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

49) The nitrogen for nucleotide synthesis comes from

  1. A) carbohydrates.
  2. B) fats.
  3. C) proteins.
  4. D) DNA.
  5. E) RNA.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

50) Which of the following does NOT require NAD+?

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) transamination
  3. C) citric acid cycle
  4. D) β oxidation
  5. E) oxidative deamination

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

51) In mammals, the ammonium ion produced in oxidative deamination is

  1. A) excreted in the feces.
  2. B) stored in the liver.
  3. C) converted to uric acid, which is excreted in the urine.
  4. D) converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine.
  5. E) converted to uric acid, which is excreted by the liver.

 

 

 

 

52) In the urea cycle, argininosuccinase synthase catalyzes the reaction of arginosuccunate to

  1. A) citurulline.
  2. B) carbomyl phosphate.
  3. C) orthinine.
  4. D) arginine.
  5. E) arginase.

 

 

 

 

53) Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid lysine?

  1. A) pyruvate
  2. B) succinyl CoA
  3. C) acetoacetyl CoA
  4. D) fumarate

 

Objective:  24.8

 

 

54) Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid phenylalanine?

  1. A) pyruvate
  2. B) succinyl CoA
  3. C) acetoacetyl CoA
  4. D) fumarate

 

Objective:  24.8

 

55) Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid valine?

  1. A) pyruvate
  2. B) succinyl CoA
  3. C) acetoacetyl CoA
  4. D) fumarate

 

Objective:  24.8

 

 

56) All of the nonessential amino acids can be synthesized in the body by transamination, using an amino group from

  1. A) glutamate.
  2. B) α-ketoglutarate.
  3. C) pyruvate.
  4. D) oxaloacetate.
  5. E) lactic acid.

 

Objective:  24.9

 

 

24.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Fatty acids can be used in the brain as an energy source.

 

 

 

 

2) Red blood cells have mitochondria, which serve as an energy production site.

 

 

 

 

3) Chylomicrons consist of bile salts and lipids.

 

 

 

 

4) β oxidation adds two-carbon segments to a fatty acid chain.

 

 

 

 

5) A ten carbon saturated fatty acid will undergo five β oxidation cycles.

 

 

 

 

6) Each acetyl CoA that enters the citric acid cycle yields 10 ATP.

 

 

 

7) A ten carbon saturated fatty acid will produce five acetyl CoAs.

 

 

 

 

8) The production of new triacylglycerols is termed ketogenesis.

 

 

 

 

9) A low level of acetyl CoA in the cell leads to ketogenesis.

 

 

 

 

10) Acyl carrier protein is used in fatty acid synthesis.

 

 

 

 

11) Protein digestion begins in the small intestine.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

12) Some amino acids can be converted into others via transamination.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

13) The overall process of synthesizing and breaking down proteins is called protein turnover.

 

Objective:  24.6

 

 

14) Ammonium ions and carbon dioxide produce urea in the urea cycle.

 

 

 

 

15) The urea cycle is the major pathway for eliminating the excess nitrogen from amino acid degradation.

 

 

 

 

16) The amino acid valine enters the citric acid cycle as succinyl CoA.

 

Objective:  24.8

 

17) Nonessential amino acids can be made by transamination.

 

Objective:  24.9

 

 

24.3   Matching Questions

 

Match the following.

 

  1. A) FAD
  2. B) chylomicrons
  3. C) essential amino acid
  4. D) ATP
  5. E) a ketogenic amino acid
  6. F) Coenzyme A.
  7. G) ketone bodies
  8. H) transaminated amino acid
  9. I) GTP
  10. J) alkalosis
  11. K) acidosis
  12. L) a glucogenic amino acid
  13. M) β oxidation

 

1) compounds produced when there is little or no carbohydrate metabolism and a subsequent increase in fat metabolism

 

 

 

2) a carrier of electrons to the site of ATP production, from oxidation reactions involving carbon-carbon double bonds

 

 

 

3) lipoproteins formed from triacylglycerols and protein

 

 

4) an amino acid that is not synthesized in the body

 

 

5) a major step in fatty acid degradation

 

 

 

6) an amino acid producing carbons for glucose production

 

 

7) a condition of low blood pH

 

 

 

 

8) the products of ketogenesis

 

 

 

9) the main source of energy in the body

 

 

10) a carrier of 2-carbon units in fatty acid degradation

 

 

 

 

Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.

 

  1. A) lipogenesis
  2. B) transamination
  3. C) oxidative deamination
  4. D) β oxidation
  5. E) ketogenesis

 

11) the conversion of fatty acids to 2-carbon units of acetyl CoA

 

 

 

12) the conversion of an amino acid to an α-keto acid

 

 

13) the combination of 2-carbon units of acetyl CoA to form fatty acids

 

 

 

14) the removal of an amino group as NH4+ from glutamate to yield α-ketoglutarate

 

 

15) the production of ketone bodies