Sample Chapter



Government in America People Politics And Policy 2016 Presidential Election 17th Ed By George C. Edwards – Test Bank 





Introducing Government in America



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. What are the institutions that make public policy decisions for a society collectively known as?


  1. political culture
  2. the courts
  3. government
  4. Congress

Consider This: Congress is one of the institutions that make public policy decisions that influence how we live.



  1. How does government usually protect its national sovereignty?


  1. by maintaining armed forces
  2. by maintaining schools, libraries, hospitals, and highways

Consider This: Providing goods and services is an essential function of government, but it does not protect national sovereignty.

  1. by collecting taxes
  2. by politically socializing the young


  1. What determines whom we select as our governmental leaders and what policies these leaders pursue?


  1. the media

Consider This: The media focuses on the who of this term, usually the candidates, voters, and parties.

  1. public opinion
  2. politics
  3. public policy



  1. The ways in which people get involved in politics make up their political __________.


  1. ideology
  2. participation
  3. party

Consider This: Individual citizens get involved in politics because they understand that public policy choices made by governments affect them in significant ways and joining a party is just one way to get involved.

  1. opinions


  1. How does our government respond to the priorities of its people?


  1. through linkage institutions

Consider This: While linkage institutions are channels through which people’s concerns reach policymakers, these institutions on their own do not address the priorities of the people because they do not create policy.

  1. through political science
  2. through political tolerance
  3. through a policymaking system



  1. What best describes a linkage institution?


  1. a channel through which people’s concerns become part of the political agenda
  2. a location to express a political opinion

Consider This: Linkage institutions provide avenues for political participation and transmit Americans’ preferences to policymakers.

  1. the formation of a special interest group
  2. an environment where one learns about the political process



  1. What makes up the government’s policy agenda?


  1. all of the issues that candidates talk about on the campaign trail

Consider This: Candidates are likely to campaign only on the issues that voters care about, but these issues may not be of national concern and so they may not appear on the policy agenda.

  1. the issues that attract the serious attention of public officials and other political actors
  2. the issues that are asked about on public opinion polls
  3. the issues that concern single-issue interest groups
  4. What are policy impacts?


  1. issues that attract serious attention of public officials

Consider This: Translating people’s desires into effective public policy is the goal of public officials, and analyzing the impact the policy has had determines whether the policy is effective.

  1. government institutions that are charged with taking action on political issues
  2. the effects that a policy has on people and on society’s problems
  3. systems of selecting policymakers and of organizing government so that policy represents and responds to the public’s preferences



  1. What is democracy?


  1. a system that ensures freedom, justice, and peace to all citizens

Consider This: The term democracy is often used alongside other terms like freedom, justice, and peace because citizens are involved in forming the government.

  1. a system that perpetuates the status quo and upholds the values of the party in power
  2. a system that selects policymakers and organizes government so that policy represents and responds to the public’s preferences
  3. a system that grants a status of privilege to the most active and informed voters



  1. What most closely exemplifies equality in voting?


  1. inclusion

Consider This: The government must extend rights of citizenship to all people subject to its laws. Voting is one of these rights.

  1. freedom of speech and of the press
  2. one person, one vote
  3. universal citizenship



  1. The __________ principle is that, in a democracy, policies should reflect the will of more than half of the voters.


  1. enlightened rule
  2. pluralism

Consider This: Pluralism emphasizes that all groups with shared interests have a voice in policymaking with no single group dominating.

  1. representation
  2. majority rule



  1. What is the theory that argues that group competition results in a rough approximation of the public interest in public policy?


  1. pluralism
  2. elitism

Consider This: This theory emphasizes that an upper-class elite holds power and makes policy.

  1. balance-of-power theory
  2. elite-and-class theory



  1. Which theory contends that American society is divided along class lines?


  1. pluralism
  2. policy gridlock

Consider This: The diversity of the American people is reflected in the diversity of the interests represented in the political system. When interests conflict and no majority exists, policy gridlock occurs.

  1. balance of power
  2. elitism



  1. Which theory argues that special interest groups have essentially become sovereign, and the government is merely their servant?


  1. pluralism
  2. hyperpluralism
  3. majority rule

Consider This: Majority rule says that the interests of the majority must be represented in government, but the government system is fragmented, making it difficult for the majority to be represented.

  1. federalism




  1. What condition occurs when interests conflict and no coalition is strong enough to form a majority and establish policy, yet each may be strong enough to thwart the will of the others?


  1. divided government
  2. Hyperpluralism

Consider This: Government is weakened because of the plethora of groups.

  1. policy gridlock
  2. separation of powers



  1. A set of values widely shared within a society is referred to as which of the following?


  1. government
  2. politics

Consider This: Democracy depends on the people to function, and shared values are essential for effective governance.

  1. public policy
  2. political culture


  1. The U.S. preference for __________ economic policies helps to explain why we have a smaller and more limited government than do most other advanced industrialized countries.


  1. laissez-faire
  2. populist

Consider This: Populism isn’t directly related to economic policies, but it does champion the political legitimacy of the “little people” over the elite.

  1. pluralist
  2. egalitarian



Difficulty Level: Moderate


  1. A law passed by Congress and the adoption of a regulation by an agency are examples of which of the following?


  1. collective action

Consider This: Congress passes laws and agencies adopt regulations in response to problems or political issues.

  1. red tape
  2. public policies
  3. government rule



  1. What is an example of a collective good?


  1. clean air
  2. medical care
  3. a college education

Consider This: A collective good is a good or service provided by the government that all receive and cannot be denied to anyone person or groups. By this definition, a college education is not a collective good.

  1. food stamps



  1. The withdrawal of American troops from Iraq resulted from which of the following?


  1. a regulation
  2. a budgetary choice
  3. a congressional statute

Consider This: Congress does have significant foreign and defense policymaking papers but determining troop movement and withdrawal, or say bombing ISIS targets, is usually conducted by the Executive branch.

  1. a presidential action



  1. What kind of public policy involves the legislative enactment of taxes and expenditures?


  1. budgetary choice
  2. regulation
  3. court decision
  4. congressional statute

Consider This: A congressional statute refers to a law passed by Congress that impacts the public, such as the Affordable Care Act’s requirement to obtain health insurance.



  1. Which principle of traditional democracy theory is violated in circumstances in which the wealthy have influence over the government’s policy agenda that far exceeds what would be expected based on their numbers?


  1. citizen control of the agenda
  2. effective participation

Consider This: Effective participation means that citizens have equal means for political participation, but it does not refer to which groups of people the government will most influence the policy agenda.

  1. enlightened understanding
  2. equality in voting




  1. What is public policy?


  1. all government decisions
  2. the root causes of political culture
  3. the public’s political issues

Consider This: Public policies are responses to political issues, actions which address various problems.

  1. only legislation enacted by Congress


  1. Free speech and a free press are essential to which principle of traditional democratic theory?


  1. inclusion

Consider This: Rights such as free speech and free press are necessary for a marketplace of ideas.

  1. effective participation
  2. enlightened understanding
  3. equality in voting



  1. In the United States, pluralism suggests which of the following?


  1. Because most citizens fail to pay attention to serious issues, government has become an elite institution.
  2. Congress is stronger and more influential than the presidency.
  3. Many groups vie for power with no one group dominating politics.
  4. Too many influential groups cripple government’s ability to govern.

Consider This: Hyperpluralism suggests that the fragmented nature of our government, with overlapping jurisdictions, finds itself serving too many group interests.



  1. Who is at the center of all theories of elitism?


  1. big business
  2. Congress
  3. ordinary citizens
  4. political parties

Consider This: While pluralism argues that political parties are available for all to join to influence government, elitism argues that an upper-crust elite pulls the strings of government.








The Constitution



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. At the Constitutional Convention, the delegates agreed that __________ of slaves would be counted for determining population for representation in the House of Representatives.


  1. one-third
  2. three-fifths
  3. two-thirds

Consider This: This famous constitutional compromise led to slaves being counted in terms of representation for the House of Representatives.

  1. four-fifths



  1. What is the name given to the rights that are inherent in all human beings and not dependent on government?


  1. natural rights
  2. positive rights
  3. intrinsic laws

Consider This: These rights were described in John Locke’s Second Treatise of Civil Government.

  1. Constitutional law




  1. In what year was the Declaration of Independence signed?


  1. 1776
  2. 1787

Consider This: The Declaration of Independence preceded both the Constitution and the Articles of Confederation.

  1. 1789
  2. 1805



  1. How many constitutions or governing documents have the United States had in its history?


  1. one

Consider This: The government established by the Constitution was not the colonies’ first attempt at self-government.

  1. two
  2. three
  3. four


  1. The U.S. Constitution was adopted in response to the weaknesses of which document?


  1. Declaration of the Rights of Man
  2. Magna Carta
  3. the Declaration of Independence

Consider This: While the Declaration of Independence was a critical foundational document, the document in question served as the legal organizing document for the early United States.

  1. the Articles of Confederation


  1. The colonists rebelled against the imposition by the British government of which of the following?


  1. taxes
  2. a military draft

Consider This: One instance of the colonists’ rebellion was the Boston Tea Party.

  1. curfews
  2. religious laws



  1. Who was the author of the Declaration of Independence?


  1. James Madison

Consider This: Officially the Declaration of Independence was written by a committee but one author from Virginia is considered the primary author.

  1. Thomas Paine
  2. Thomas Jefferson
  3. George Washington



  1. Which of the following debated and drafted the Declaration of Independence?


  1. the Common Sense Committee
  2. the Continental Congress
  3. the Committees of Correspondence
  4. the Constitutional Convention

Consider This: The Constitutional Convention would meet some years later in order to consider changes to the Articles of Confederation.



  1. While working on the Constitution, what aspect of the new government most concerned James Madison?


  1. foreign affairs
  2. slavery
  3. elitist control

Consider This: Checks and balances and separation of powers were established to deal with this issue.

  1. tyranny of the majority



  1. Who of the following generally favored a stronger national government and supported the proposed U.S. Constitution?


  1. Daniel Shays
  2. Federalists
  3. Anti-Federalists

Consider This: This group supported the work of the Constitutional Convention and included James Madison.

  1. Constitutionalists



  1. How many amendments have been made to the Constitution since its ratification?


  1. 10

Consider This: The first ten amendments to the Constitution are known as the Bill of Rights but the Constitution has been amended beyond the Bill of Rights.

  1. 15
  2. 27
  3. 36



  1. In what year was the U.S. Constitution ratified?


  1. 1776

Consider This: The Declaration of Independence was adopted in 1776 but the Constitution followed several years later.

  1. 1788
  2. 1791
  3. 1797




  1. Which of the following is a form of government in which the people select representatives to govern them and make laws?


  1. republic
  2. monarchy
  3. theocracy
  4. oligarchy

Consider This: This form of government is considered to be more workable than one where citizens make all of decisions directly.



  1. Which branch of government is responsible for passing laws?


  1. bureaucratic
  2. judicial
  3. executive

Consider This: The executive branch is responsible for implementing laws but relies on another branch to create laws.

  1. legislative


  1. Burning the flag is generally considered to be __________ that is protected by the Constitution.


  1. free speech
  2. a private action

Consider This: Although flag burning is an unpopular action, the Supreme Court has generally protected it on these grounds.

  1. a form of due process
  2. a commercial act


  1. Which of the following philosophers greatly influenced the colonists’ views on the role of government?


  1. Daniel Shays

Consider This: This author was known for the highly influential Second Treatise of Civil Government.

  1. John Locke
  2. John Boehner
  3. Gramm Rudman


Difficulty Level: Easy


  1. In Federalist 10, who wrote, “The most common and durable source of factions has been the various and unequal distribution of property”?


  1. Alexander Hamilton

Consider This: In this work, the author warned of factions, which we might today call interest groups.

  1. Thomas Jefferson
  2. John Jay
  3. James Madison



  1. In what year was the Bill of Rights added to the Constitution?


  1. 1776

Consider This: These amendments were proposed in the First Congress and went into effect a few years later.

  1. 1781
  2. 1786
  3. 1791



  1. The Constitution limits the government’s ability to suspend writs of habeas corpus. What does this protect individuals against?


  1. free speech infringement
  2. taxation of private property
  3. unlawful detention
  4. infringement of religious freedom

Consider This: This is a major civil liberty as it limits the power of government in peacetime.




  1. What did the Connecticut Compromise help to establish?


  1. the Senate and the House of Representatives
  2. the federalist system

Consider This: This compromise was designed to reconcile the differences between the Virginia and the New Jersey plans.

  1. an independent judiciary
  2. universal male suffrage



  1. __________ was a protest by Massachusetts farmers to stop foreclosures by state courts.


  1. Whiskey Rebellion

Consider This: This protest played a major role in undermining support for the Articles of Confederation.

  1. Boston Tea Party
  2. Marbury v. Madison
  3. Shays’s Rebellion


  1. The Articles of Confederation required __________ consent from the states for ratification.


  1. majority

Consider This: Under the Articles of Confederation, states retained most political power, leaving the national government weak.

b three-fifths

  1. two-thirds
  2. unanimous



  1. What type of legislature did the United States have under the Articles of Confederation?


  1. a single chamber with membership based on a state’s population
  2. a single chamber with each state receiving equal power
  3. a single chamber whose members were appointed by the president
  4. two chambers

Consider This: The Constitution would significantly change the form of the legislature.



  1. Under the Constitution, the president is elected by which of the following?


  1. King Caucus

Consider This: This institution gives greater relative weight to smaller states.

  1. People’s Plebiscite
  2. electoral college
  3. direct popular election




  1. What is the feature of the Constitution that allows each branch of government to limit the power of the other branches?


  1. weights and measures
  2. checks and balances
  3. oversight and influence
  4. privileges and immunities

Consider This: This feature is designed to prevent tyranny but also tends to protect the status quo and creates the potential for gridlock.



  1. Which of the following specifies the procedure for amending the Constitution?


  1. Article I

Consider This: The process for amending the Constitution has two stages: proposal and ratification.

  1. Article III
  2. Article V
  3. Article VI


  1. Which of the following concepts most directly helps to make American government legitimate?


  1. the right to bear arms

Consider This: This concept was described in John Locke’s Second Treatise of Civil Government.

  1. the divine right
  2. consent of the governed
  3. executive privilege


  1. How did the Constitution differ from the Articles of Confederation?


  1. The Constitution was based on democratic principles; the Articles of Confederation was based on tyrannical principles.
  2. The Constitution contained strong protections for individual rights; the Articles of Confederation contained strong protections for collective rights.
  3. The Constitution created a stronger national government than did the Articles of Confederation.
  4. The Constitution contained stronger safeguards for states’ rights than did the Articles of Confederation.

Consider This: Under the Articles, states had all of the political power.



  1. Which of the following most directly protects individuals’ civil liberties?


  1. Second Treatise of Civil Government
  2. The Federalist Papers
  3. the Bill of Rights
  4. the Declaration of Independence

Consider This: These were added to the Constitution in order to allay the fears of the Anti-Federalists.


  1. Which constitutional plan called for representation in Congress to be based on state population?


  1. Republican Plan
  2. Democratic Plan
  3. Virginia Plan
  4. New Jersey Plan

Consider This: This state was, at the time, one of the largest and most wealthy.



  1. What was the subject of the Connecticut Compromise?


  1. the legality of slavery

Consider This: This compromise was designed to reconcile the differences between the Virginia and the New Jersey plans.

  1. the form and membership of the legislative branch
  2. the number of Supreme Court justices
  3. the form of the executive branch



  1. __________ was/were most likely to support a strong state government and a weak national government.


  1. Whigs
  2. Anti-Masons
  3. The Federalists

Consider This: This group also worried that the Constitution did not do enough to protect personal freedoms.

  1. The Anti-Federalists




  1. Which of the following urged for the colonies to become independent from Britain?


  1. Common Sense
  2. Revolution
  3. Federalist 10

Consider This: This pamphlet, written by Thomas Paine, encouraged the colonists to separate from Britain.

  1. Our American Cousin



  1. Which of the following was a problem under the Articles of Confederation?


  1. The national government was too strong compared to the states.
  2. Amendments were too easy to ratify.
  3. Congress imposed excessive taxes.

Consider This: Under the Articles, each state was largely independent and could generally establish their own policies.

  1. Congress lacked the authority to regulate commerce.





  1. Which of the following accurately describes the Constitutional Convention?


  1. The delegates spent more of their time trying to figure out how to revise the Articles of Confederation.

Consider This: By the time the delegates met at the Constitutional Convention, dissatisfaction with the Articles was widespread.

  1. Many of the delegates were economic elites.
  2. The Convention was free of significant disagreement.
  3. The Convention lasted only one week.



  1. John Locke’s belief that government derives its authority from the people influenced the Declaration of Independence, which says, “Governments are instituted among men, deriving their just powers from __________.”


  1. the consent of the governed
  2. the right to revolt
  3. the divine right of kings

Consider This: Thomas Jefferson was significantly influenced by the work of John Locke, who described individuals as having natural rights.

  1. government itself



  1. How is eligibility for voting determined under the Constitution?


  1. Congress determines eligibility.
  2. States determine eligibility.
  3. Counties determine eligibility.
  4. The Constitution establishes universal suffrage.

Consider This: In the early republic, only a small number of people were eligible to vote.


  1. Which of the following is a reason for the separation of powers?


  1. to ensure the power of the executive
  2. to promote the general welfare
  3. to prevent tyranny by any one branch
  4. to prevent gridlock in government

Consider This: Many scholars believe that the system of separation of powers contributes to gridlock in Washington.


  1. Which of the following was part of both the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution?


  1. a congress
  2. the presidency

Consider This: The government under the Articles did not have an executive branch, one of the sources of inefficiency in that system.

  1. the federal judiciary
  2. the right of taxation by the federal government



  1. The Federalists preferred __________ than did the Anti-Federalists.


  1. stronger state governments
  2. a stronger national government
  3. stronger protections of individual liberties

Consider This: The Anti-Federalists were concerned that the Constitution did not do enough to protect individual liberties.

  1. shorter terms of office



  1. How is a constitutional amendment ratified?


  1. either by a majority of state legislatures or by special state conventions in a majority of the states

Consider This: Amending the U.S. Constitution in a very difficult process, where super majorities are required throughout.

  1. either by three-fourths of state legislatures or by special state conventions in three-fourths of the states
  2. either by a majority of state governors or by a majority of the U.S. Senate
  3. either by three-fourths of state governors or by three-fourths of the U.S. Senate



  1. The Constitution prohibits having __________ qualifications for holding public office.


  1. residency
  2. competency
  3. religious
  4. citizenship

Consider This: Similar freedoms are protected within the Bill of Rights.



  1. Which of the following were most likely to oppose the proposed Constitution?


  1. lawyers
  2. merchants
  3. small farmers
  4. large landowners

Consider This: The Federalists were generally drawn from the economic elite.



  1. Which of the following was written to encourage passage of the Constitution and remains a compelling source for determining the intent of the Framers?


  1. the Declaration of Independence
  2. The Federalist Papers
  3. Common Sense

Consider This: These 85 essays, largely written by James Madison and Alexander Hamilton, provide a spirited and detailed defense of the Constitution.

  1. Two Treatises on Government




  1. What was a fear of the Anti-Federalists during the Constitutional Convention and subsequent debate?


  1. that a weak national government would undermine the survival of the United States

Consider This: The Constitution was designed to expand the power of the national government while protecting the power of states and the liberties of individuals.

  1. that a strong national government would infringe on the rights of the states
  2. that a powerful judiciary would restrict freedom of religion
  3. that powerful state governments would infringe on individual liberties



  1. Which of the following is a method for proposing constitutional amendments?


  1. by a majority of voting-age citizens

Consider This: A national convention could propose constitutional amendments, but requests from two-thirds of the states are needed to convene the convention.

  1. by a majority of state governors
  2. by a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress
  3. by a two-thirds vote in a special election called for the purpose of voting on the amendment



  1. The meaning of the Constitution can change through __________.


  1. judicial interpretation
  2. national referendum

Consider This: A national referendum would not be legal under the Constitution.

  1. congressional inaction
  2. natural law












p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Although federalism is not unique to the United States, it is not a common method of governing. Only __________ of the 190 or so nations of the world have federal systems like that of the United States.


  1. five
  2. 11

c.. 22

  1. 50

Consider This: While federalism is increasingly popular as a form of government, at the current rate of adoption it will not be until the year 2400 that we could expect 50 federal systems.



  1. Prior to the ratification of the Constitution, the United States was governed by the Articles of __________.


  1. Confederation
  2. Declaration
  3. Federalism

Consider This: The first government of the United States granted supremacy to the individual states, rather than the national government.

  1. Independence



  1. In a(n) __________ system, local and regional governments derive authority from the national government.


  1. unitary
  2. bicameral
  3. confederate

Consider this: In a confederate system, the national government derives its authority from the sovereign states.

  1. federal



  1. What are the two types of federal powers derived from Article I, section 8 of the U.S. Constitution?


  1. enumerated; implied
  2. enumerated; suggested

Consider This: While individuals have frequented suggested new rights to the Supreme Court, the Court has never formally adopted a suggested right – instead preferring to carve out new rights from constitutional sources.

  1. disguised; explicit
  2. suggested; explicit


  1. Article VI of the U.S. Constitution establishes that federal law is __________ in conflicts between federal and state law.


  1. illustrative
  2. dissuasive
  3. secondary

Consider This: During the Obama presidency, we’ve witnessed an increase in conflicts between the national and state governments with the national government typically prevailing.

  1. supreme



  1. The __________ Amendment says that those powers not given to the federal government and not prohibited to the states by the Constitution are reserved for the states and the people.


  1. Eighth
  2. Tenth
  3. Eleventh
  4. Fourteenth

Consider This: The Fourteenth Amendment extends these rights to all Americans rather than defining rights reserved to the people or to the states.



  1. In __________, powers are shared by the federal and state governments in a marble-cake fashion.


  1. cooperative federalism
  2. constitutional government

Consider This: While some constitutions require sharing power amongst the different layers of government, some, like Germany for example, concentrate power primarily at the national level.

  1. a federal government system
  2. unified government



  1. Which clause in the Constitution ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding and enforceable in another?


  1. commerce
  2. full faith and credit
  3. due process
  4. equal protection

Consider This: Equal protection guarantees similar treatment regardless of state of residence but does not require states to maintain identical laws or recognize the laws of other states.



  1. A __________ grant is given to a state by the federal government with only general spending guidelines.


  1. block
  2. business
  3. commerce

Consider This: While many grants stimulate, or produce commerce some do more practical things like restructure debt or modify already existing programs.

  1. credit



  1. In the 1994 elections, the Republican Party advocated for a(n) __________ of national government authority to state governments.


  1. excavation
  2. devolution
  3. evolution

Consider This: Rather than being a new proposal for restructuring the relationship between the states and national government, the 1994 Republicans were arguing for a return to the relationship that existed prior to cooperative federalism and the New Deal.

  1. redevelopment



  1. Which of the following was the earliest major Supreme Court decision to define the relationship between the federal and state governments?


  1. Marbury v. Madison
  2. Dred Scott v. Sanford

Consider This: The Dred Scott decision redefined the relationship between free states and slave states but had relatively little impact on the relationship between the states and national government.

  1. Fletcher v. Peck
  2. McCulloch v. Maryland


  1. Education and transportation policies are primarily state responsibilities. However, under __________ the federal government has also been making policy in these areas.


  1. cooperative federalism
  2. constitutional government
  3. a federal government system
  4. unified government

Consider This: While unified government is frequently credited with expanding the role of the national government, the reality is that growth varies from administration-to-administration and depending on party in charge does not always impact education and/or transportation.



  1. In Gibbons v. Ogden, the Supreme Court held that Congress has broad authority to regulate __________.


  1. interstate commerce
  2. education

Consider This: It was not until the 1940s that the Supreme Court actively recognized that the national government had a role to play in public education.

  1. interest rates
  2. religion



  1. The Constitution says that states are required to return a person charged with a crime in another state to that state for trial or imprisonment, a practice called __________.




  1. voir dire

Consider This: The term voir dire refers to the ability of an individual to question witnesses at a trial.

  1. sequestration
  2. change of venue
  3. extradition



  1. Which amendment prohibits federal and state courts and federal administrative agencies from hearing cases in which a private party names a state as a defendant without the state’s consent?


  1. Third
  2. Sixth

Consider This: The Sixth Amendment establish the rights individuals experience in the court system but fails to place a prohibition on a court hearing a case involving a state without the consent of that state.

  1. Eleventh
  2. Twelfth



  1. The Framers adopted a federal system of government partly because they feared __________.


  1. centralizing power in the federal government
  2. limiting the national government

Consider This: The United States rebelled from Great Britain, a country with a strong and heavily centralized national government and the debate over the merits of strong central government facilitated many early disagreements involving politics and the role of government.

  1. regulating interstate commerce
  2. challenging the power of the states



  1. Which clause of the U.S. Constitution did the Supreme Court interpret in McCulloch v. Maryland as allowing Congress to create a national bank?


  1. commerce

Consider This: While many have argued that the Court could have relied on commerce powers in McCulloch, the Court ultimately chose to use look elsewhere to justify the power.

  1. necessary and proper
  2. due process
  3. equal protection



  1. __________ grants typically allocate federal dollars based on population.


  1. Block

Consider This: While some block grants are dependent on population, many are dependent on goods, services, crops, or products provided regardless of population served.

  1. Formula
  2. Commerce
  3. Diversified



  1. __________ helped establish the preeminence of the federal government over the states.


  1. The Revolutionary War

Consider This: After the Revolutionary War, most politicians and citizens favored strong state government over national government power.

  1. The Civil War
  2. World War I
  3. The Vietnam War



  1. Before the ratification of the Constitution, the United States was organized as a(n) __________.


  1. confederation
  2. direct democracy
  3. oligarchy – Consider This: An oligarchy is a form of government wherein a small group of people have control of country.
  4. conglomeration



  1. What model of federalism is sometimes described metaphorically as a marble cake?


  1. cooperative federalism
  2. dual federalism

Consider This: Dual federalism involves the strict separation of powers and is typically associated with layer cake.

  1. progressive federalism
  2. new federalism



  1. Which type of federalism is characterized by a system of state and national governments with separate but distinct authority?


  1. combined
  2. cooperative

Consider This: Cooperative federalism is generally associated with overlapping powers and authority rather than a separation of both.

  1. dual
  2. progressive



  1. Which of the following is an example of fiscal federalism?


  1. a blue-ribbon task force on education
  2. gas mileage requirements
  3. grants-in-aid
  4. minimum wage legislation

Consider This: While minimum wage laws are fiscal by definition, they require no distribution or allocation of funds from the national government to the states.


  1. What is a mandate?


  1. an order from the federal government requiring the states to take a certain action
  2. an order from a state government requiring a federal action
  3. an order from the federal government prohibiting the states to take a certain action

Consider This: Mandates involve or require a positive government action such as spending or creating a program.

  1. an order from a state government prohibiting a federal action



  1. Of the following, which is a power denied to states by the Constitution?


  1. establishment of criminal laws
  2. the power to enter into treaties
  3. imposing taxes

Consider This: Prior to the Sixteenth Amendment, a vast majority of taxing power belong to the state governments.

  1. supervision of contracts between individuals



  1. The preemption of state and local laws by federal laws is based on which clause of the U.S. Constitution?


  1. supremacy
  2. due process
  3. equal protection
  4. full faith and credit

Consider This: Full faith and credit applies to states respecting the laws of other states but does not include a language establishing preemption of state laws.



  1. The Constitution denies the states the power to __________.


  1. coin money
  2. create courts
  3. establish schools

Consider This: Education was never seriously debated by the framers since public education at the time was virtually non-existent.

  1. operate prisons



  1. Which of the following is an example of a formula grant?


  1. Medicaid
  2. the Clean Air Act

Consider This: While the Clean Air Act does provide some funding, a formula grant specifically allocates for an established program at rates established by the federal government.

  1. military funding
  2. congressional salaries



  1. Which of the following grants minimizes the paperwork that must be filled out and the strings attached to using the grant?


  1. block grants
  2. business grants
  3. categorical grants

Consider This: Because of the broad nation of a categorical grant, it has a high level of paperwork since agencies must justify and explain where the money is going.

  1. programmatic requests



  1. Which of the following best exemplifies devolution?


  1. New Deal legislation
  2. No Child Left Behind Act

Consider This: The No Child Left Behind Act removed power from the states and increased the role of the national government in regulating public K-12.

  1. welfare policy
  2. Troubled Asset Recovery Program



  1. Many local school districts complained that the No Child Left Behind Act did not provide enough funding to implement the law. If this is the case, the law is was a(n) __________.


  1. block grant

Consider This: While a block grant can potentially be underfunded, in most instances we would not consider a block grant to be a mandate.

  1. unfunded mandate
  2. categorical grant
  3. programmatic request


  1. 32. Which of the following is a confederation?


  1. the United States
  2. the United Nations
  3. Great Britain

Consider This: While Great Britain has several components, namely Wales, Northern Ireland, Scotland, and Wales; those components receive powers from the national parliament as opposed to giving the national parliament its powers as it would in a confederation.

  1. China



  1. The Constitution is more specific about the __________ states do not have than about those they possess.


  1. grants
  2. entitlements

Consider This: Entitlements date back to the late nineteenth and twentieth centuries, the Constitution was more concerned with concrete rules and functions.

  1. powers
  2. authorities


  1. 34. Which of the following is a shared power between states and the federal government?


  1. controlling money supply

Consider This: While states possess the power to borrow, collect and spend money, thy lack the authority to actually print money.

  1. raising and maintaining an army
  2. establishing a post office
  3. the power to tax



  1. 35. The power of both the state and federal governments to influence education policy is an example of __________ federalism.


  1. layer-cake

Consider This: In dual or layer cake federalism there is little overlap in policy areas handled by the states and national government, this is in stark contrast to cooperative federalism.

  1. marble-cake
  2. pineapple-upside-down-cake
  3. cupcake



  1. 36. Which of the following cases involved the commerce clause?


  1. Gibbons v. Ogden
  2. Roe v. Wade
  3. Brown v. Board of Education

Consider This: Brown v. Education involved civil rights in public education, as opposed to issues of banking and finance typically associated with the commerce clause.

  1. Marbury v. Madison


  1. In United States v. Lopez, the U.S. Supreme Court scrutinized the use of which of the following powers as related to the possession of firearms in public schools?


  1. educational
  2. national defense
  3. taxing

Consider This: The Court in Lopez evaluated the impact of firearms in public school in relationship to the impact on the national economy but did not include discussion of taxation.

  1. commerce



  1. 38. Which of the following is an implied power of the federal government?


  1. admitting new states
  2. establishing a national bank
  3. declaring war

Consider This: Implied powers are powers not explicitly granted in the Constitution, the power to declare war is plainly vested to the Congress.

  1. establishing federal courts



  1. 39. Which of the following is the best definition of federalism?


  1. A constitutional arrangement by which two or more levels of government share formal authority over the same area and people.
  2. A constitutional arrangement concentrating power in a central government.

Consider This: While the current configuration of American government might lead us to believe that federalism concentrated power in the hands of the national government, the formal definition requires only different levels of government.

  1. A loose association of states constitutionally created by a strong central government.
  2. A loose association of states with mutually recognized compacts but no central government.



  1. 40. Which is an example of a federal mandate?


  1. The Supreme Court upholds a federal law requiring all citizens to wear a seatbelt while operating a motor vehicle.
  2. Congress passes a law requiring all states to adopt a sex offender registry system.
  3. The Environmental Protection Agency sends money to Louisiana to help with cleanup from the gulf oil spill.
  4. The Nevada legislature passes a law requiring all public school teachers to spend 20 hours per week preparing students for the state achievement test.

Consider This: While this is an example of a mandate, since it originates from the state of Nevada it cannot be considered a federal mandate.





  1. 41. Proponents of devolution argue that the authority of __________.


  1. the military should be expanded
  2. state governments should be expanded
  3. the federal government should be expanded

Consider This: Devolution typically exists as an alternative to continued expansion of federal power.

  1. Congress should be expanded



  1. 42. Which of the following is an example of a categorical grant?


  1. Funds provided by Congress to the states for education in general.
  2. Funds provided by Congress to the states for substance abuse prevention. Consider This: A categorical grant requires specific and detailed spending provisions as opposed to a block grant that is more general in nature.
  3. Funds provided by Congress to the states for transportation infrastructure.
  4. Funds provided by Congress to the states to enhance science instruction in a low-income area.



  1. 43. The power to regulate immigration is best described as a(n) __________ power.


  1. federal
  2. state

Consider This: While states can take minor steps in promoting immigration, formally, the Constitution does not provide immigration and naturalization powers to the states.

  1. implied
  2. reserved



  1. 44. The goal of the privileges and immunities clause is to keep states from discriminating against which of the following?


  1. the poor
  2. the federal government
  3. minority citizens

Consider This: Minority protections are generally guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment, privileges and immunities protects the rights and liberties of all citizens.

  1. citizens of other states



  1. An advantage of federalism is that it allows states to __________.


  1. restrict civil rights for members of disliked groups
  2. be policy innovators
  3. have uniform policies

Consider This: By definition, federalism allows states to pursue their own policies in areas where power is delegated or reserved for the states.

  1. be supreme over the national government



  1. A disadvantage of federalism is that __________.


  1. the quality of policies can vary from state to state.
  2. states can figure out which policies work best for them

Consider This: While states can identify, and implement policies that work best for them, there is no guarantee that every policy will be successful.

  1. citizens can choose to live in those areas that have the policies they prefer
  2. the state governments can nullify laws passed by Congress



  1. Which of the following best describes the death penalty in the United States?


  1. All death penalty cases are handled by the federal government.

Consider This: While the federal government can impose the death penalty for federal crimes, states also have the power to execute individuals for state level crimes.

  1. Some states allow the death penalty and others do not.
  2. All states allow the death penalty.
  3. In 2013, the Supreme Court ruled that all death penalty statutes are unconstitutional.



  1. Which of the following is a reason why the Framers created a federal system?


  1. The Framers wanted to ensure that there was a centralized policymaking system.
  2. The Framers believed that federalism best ensured economic equality.
  3. The Framers could not conceive of the federal government providing most of the services to states and localities.
  4. The Framers wanted to re-create the successes they experienced under the Articles of Confederation.

Consider This: The failures of the confederation government required replacement with a different system rather than revisions, per nearly all the framers.


  1. Federalism generally allows citizens significantly more opportunities to __________.


  1. invest in the stock market

Consider This: While many democracies are capitalist in nature, not all are, and there is no inherent relationship between federalism and access to markets.

  1. become a civil engineer
  2. find gainful employment
  3. participate in politics



  1. How does federalism contribute to democracy?


  1. It increases citizens’ access to government.
  2. It increases the gross domestic product.
  3. It lowers voter turnout.

Consider This: Federalism typically increases voter turnout and participatory levels in government.

  1. It lowers overall tax rates.







Civil Liberties and Public Policy



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. The Bill of Rights is made up of the first __________ amendments to the U.S. Constitution.


  1. three
  2. five
  3. eight — Consider This: While the first eight amendments contain the provisions applying to federal government, the Bill of Rights also includes those that grant powers to the people and to the states.
  4. ten



  1. Which clause prevents the national government from sanctioning an official religion?


  1. establishment
  2. due process
  3. full faith and credit
  4. equal protection — Consider This: While equal protection might protect individuals in regards to their religion, it does not prevent the government from establishing an official religion



  1. Which rule bars the use of illegally seized evidence at trial?


  1. double jeopardy — Consider This: Double jeopardy protects an individual from being tried twice for the same crime rather than excluding wrongfully obtained evidence.
  2. right to pay
  3. prior restraint
  4. exclusionary



  1. Which U.S. Supreme Court case found that a woman’s right to have an abortion is protected by the implied constitutional right to privacy?


  1. US v. Morrison
  2. Lawrence v. Texas — Consider This: Lawrence v. Texas protected the rights of individuals in same sex relationships but did not touch on the right to an abortion.
  3. New York Times v. Sullivan
  4. Roe v. Wade



  1. In Roth v. United States, the U.S. Supreme Court held that material must be utterly without social importance in order to be considered __________.


  1. illegal
  2. obscene
  3. hate speech — Consider This: While hate speech might be considered obscene in some cases, the court has upheld that unless it incites violence it is difficult to ban or infringe upon.
  4. fighting words



  1. The incorporation doctrine makes the protections of the Bill of Rights applicable to the states through which of the following amendments?


  1. Fourth
  2. Fifth
  3. Tenth — Consider This: The Tenth Amendment grants power to the states and to the people but contains no provision that the states must accept or incorporate the Bill of Rights.
  4. Fourteenth



  1. When a defendant in a criminal case agrees to plead guilty in exchange for concessions from the prosecutor, the case has been resolved by what?


  1. a civil trial — Consider This: While individuals a come to a pre-trial agreement in a civil trial, this example refers to a specific bargain made prior to resolution in a criminal case.
  2. peremptory challenges
  3. plea bargaining
  4. the exclusionary rule



  1. A false and malicious written statement could be considered __________; the same statement spoken aloud could be considered __________.


  1. slander; defamation
  2. slander; libel
  3. libel; defamation — Consider This: While libel is correct, definition is part of the concept of a malicious and false statement but is not defined as being exclusively spoken aloud.
  4. libel; slander



  1. Which amendment protects the right to bear arms in a well-regulated militia?


  1. Second
  2. Third — Consider This: The Third Amendment disallows the quartering of soldiers in an individual’s home but does not involve the right to bear arms.
  3. Fourth
  4. Fifth



  1. The Fourth Amendment of the Constitution protects against unreasonable __________.


  1. litigation
  2. limits on free speech — Consider This: While free speech during a trial might be part of the protections provided by the Fourth Amendment, it does not help a defendant protect against unlawful obtainment of evidence.
  3. searches and seizures
  4. prior restraint


  1. What does the Sixth Amendment guarantee to those accused of a crime?


  1. assistance of counsel
  2. the right to parole
  3. reasonable bail — Consider This: The Court in Gideon v. Wainwright established the right to an attorney for all individuals accused of a crime.
  4. a written indictment



  1. Gitlow v. New York, in which the Supreme Court held that freedom of speech and of the press are fundamental liberties protected by the Fourteenth Amendment from impairment by the states, began the development of the __________ doctrine.


  1. eminent domain
  2. free exercise
  3. establishment — Consider This: Gitlow started the process of forcing the states to accept Bill of Rights protections for all individuals, including those accused of violating state level crimes.
  4. incorporation



  1. What did the Supreme Court find to be unconstitutional under the Abington School District v. Schempp ruling?


  1. state-mandated Bible recitations
  2. forced sterilization
  3. segregated education — Consider This: in the Schempp case, students were forced to read Bible verses collectively; the case did not involve the issue of segregation.
  4. imprisonment without a trial



  1. The free exercise clause states that the national government will not interfere with which of the following?


  1. education — Consider This: While historically, the national government had avoided interference with education, such a provision was not included in the Constitution.
  2. business
  3. speech
  4. religion



  1. Since the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of the death penalty in Gregg v. Georgia, how many people have been executed in the United States?


  1. 40
  2. 1,400
  3. 4,000 — Consider This: As of November 2016, the United States has executed approximately 47 individuals a year since Gregg v. Georgia was upheld.
  4. 400,000



  1. Freedom of assembly is guaranteed by which constitutional amendment?


  1. First
  2. Second
  3. Third
  4. Fourth — Consider This: Freedom of assembly is housed with freedom of speech, freedom press, and free exercise of religion in this constitutional amendment.



  1. New York Times v. Sullivan held that there must be proof of which of the following in order to find libel against a public figure?


  1. property loss
  2. actual malice
  3. witnesses
  4. a written record — Consider This: By definition, a written record is necessary, however, what is specifically needed is the intent to cause harm.




  1. Which of the following generally is unconstitutional in school?


  1. political speech
  2. learning about religion — Consider This: Theological study of religion is classified as an academic exercise and is constitutionally permissible in comparison to mandatory involvement in religious practice.
  3. free speech
  4. mandatory prayer



  1. According to Roe v. Wade, what could a state do if it wanted to limit a woman’s right to an abortion during her first trimester?


  1. The state could do very little to limit a woman’s right to an abortion.
  2. The state could regulate it if the mother’s life were in danger.
  3. The state could ban the abortion unless the mother’s life was in danger.
  4. The state could ban it. — Consider This: The Court gave no definitive answer as to when the states could ban abortion, rather it set expectations of access based on the trimester of the pregnancy with the first having the least leeway for regulation and the third having the most.



  1. In 2008, in Boumediene v. Bush, the Supreme Court ruled that detainees have a right to which of the following?


  1. a bill of attainder
  2. the assistance of counsel — Consider This: While the Bush administration had taken extraordinary measures related to detainees, it has always allowed for a general access to a lawyer in some capacity.
  3. equal protection
  4. habeas corpus



  1. The doctrine of prior restraint says that the government cannot prevent speech or publication __________.


  1. that is critical of the government
  2. that is illegal
  3. after the fact — Consider This: Prior restraint by definition cannot occur after the fact.
  4. before the fact



  1. Near v. Minnesota was a landmark Supreme Court case involving which of the following?


  1. exclusionary rule — Consider This: Near v. Minnesota involved the prohibition of publishing of sensitive material, prior to the actual publication.
  2. due process clause
  3. prior restraint
  4. free exercise clause



  1. Which test examines the constitutionality of religious establishment issues?


  1. Orange
  2. Lemon
  3. Free Exercise — Consider This: The free exercise clause protects individual rights to practice a religion or non-religion of their choosing, it fails to provide a test to determine when individual rights are infringed upon.
  4. Prior Restraint



  1. Miranda rights require that the police inform suspects of which of the following rights?


  1. a phone call — Consider This: While individuals almost always have the ability to make at least a single phone call, Miranda rights extend arrest protections.
  2. quick and speedy trial
  3. a jury trial
  4. speak to an attorney


  1. The USA Patriot Act enhances the government’s ability to do which of the following?


  1. examine private records
  2. take personal property — Consider This: While the Patriot Act increased the government’s ability to obtain and investigate private materials, it contained no provisions increasing the government’s ability to seize personal property.
  3. imprison citizens without trial
  4. issue pardons for those accused of war crimes



  1. Which Supreme Court case developed the exclusionary rule?


  1. Parker v. Gideon
  2. New York Times v. Sullivan — Consider This: New York Times v. Sullivan involved a speech issue rather than an issue relating to the collection of evidence.
  3. Mapp v. Ohio
  4. Wolf v. Colorado



  1. The Supreme Court has ruled that states can limit abortions if the regulations do not pose which of the following?


  1. an inconvenient truth
  2. any additional constraints — Consider This: Justice O’Connor established this standard for evaluating restraints on access to abortions in Casey v. Planned Parenthood of Pennsylvania.
  3. a prior restraint
  4. an undue burden



  1. In the 1960s, the Supreme Court aroused the wrath of many Americans with rulings like that in Engel v. Vitale regarding which controversial religious issue?


  1. displays of religious symbols on government buildings
  2. teaching of evolution in school
  3. displays of religious symbols during holidays — Consider This: While holiday displays inspire some controversy today, the initial cases dealt with issues like creationism and more basic religious practices.
  4. recitation of prayer and Bible passages in school



  1. Which of the following best describes the concept of entrapment, which is interpreted as being constitutionally prohibited under the Fifth Amendment?


  1. When an individual is not read their due process rights.
  2. When an individual is coerced into making statements during interrogations. – Consider This: A person coerced into making statements during interrogation that is considered to be a false confession, not entrapment.
  3. When an individual is coerced to commit crimes.
  4. When an individual is not notified of their right to remain silent.



  1. The Supreme Court has used incorporation to __________ the authority of states.


  1. protect
  2. limit
  3. expand
  4. enforce — Consider This: When the Court elects to incorporate, it restricts powers conflicting with the Constitution rather than enforcing or creating any new powers.



  1. The Supreme Court addressed the constitutionality of a Connecticut law that prohibited the use of contraception by relying on the implied right to __________.


  1. sexual freedom — Consider This: While the Court has moved away from regulating sexual activity, it relies on this right, rather creating a right to sexual freedom.
  2. family
  3. commerce
  4. privacy



  1. In Zelman v. Simmons-Harris, the Supreme Court ruled that a state program providing families with vouchers could be used to __________.


  1. pay tuition at religious schools
  2. get birth control — Consider This: Zelman established the right for the government to subsidize religion in public service, not in private act or purpose.
  3. attend the doctor
  4. receive free or reduced price meals



  1. The USA Patriot Act allows the government to __________.


  1. read any documents sent via the mail — Consider This: While there is some ability to read documents sent through the mail, the Patriot Act largely dealt with surveillance of emerging technologies.
  2. collect blood and saliva samples
  3. spy on American citizens more easily
  4. make audio recordings at all private residences that receive public utilities



  1. Which Supreme Court case upheld an individual’s right to have a gun in his or her home for self-defense?


  1. Griswold v. Connecticut — Consider This: While Griswold established the right of privacy, the Court did not utilize privacy to uphold the right to secure a firearm in your own home.
  2. Gideon v. Wainwright
  3. Miranda v. Arizona
  4. D.C. v. Heller



  1. If a police officer has a reasonable belief that someone is engaged in criminal activity, that officer can stop and frisk the suspect __________.


  1. only if that person gives consent — Consider This: The controversy over stop and frisk is largely not whether it is permissible under some circumstances, the controversy stems over the lack of judicial oversight.
  2. only if the officer plans to arrest that person
  3. without getting a warrant
  4. only if there are three witnesses



  1. The double jeopardy clause prevents an individual who is acquitted of a crime from which of the following?


  1. seeking the assistance of an attorney — Consider This: Double jeopardy involves the issue of trial, not the issue of counsel.
  2. being tried again for the same crime
  3. asserting innocence
  4. benefiting financially from that crime



  1. Opponents of the death penalty have argued that it violates which amendment to the Constitution?


  1. Third
  2. Eighth
  3. Tenth — Consider This: Specifically, opponents argue that it violates the cruel and unusual prohibitions of this Amendment not that the states lack the authority to carry out death sentences.
  4. Fifteenth



  1. Which of the following created the right to privacy?


  1. the judiciary
  2. the bureaucracy
  3. the president
  4. the legislature — Consider This: The lack of the involvement of the legislature and executive branch in the creation of the right to privacy has historically raised questions about the democratic legitimacy of such a right.



  1. In Barron v. Baltimore, the Supreme Court held that the Bill of Rights limits __________, not __________, activity.


  1. federal; state
  2. state; federal — Consider This: Barron held that the City of Baltimore was not liable for the destruction of private property.
  3. commercial; noncommercial
  4. noncommercial; commercial


Difficulty Level: Difficult


  1. The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from which of the following?


  1. double jeopardy — Consider This: The Fourth Amendment regulates the collection of evidence not elements of the jury trial or criminal law process.
  2. unreasonable search and seizure
  3. self-incrimination
  4. trials without a jury



  1. The controversial 2008 amendments to the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act allow government officials to use broad warrants for surveillance of which of the following?


  1. text messages on employer-paid devices — Consider This: The impact of these amendments were publicly disclosed by Edward Snowden’s revelations of American surveillance outside the United States.
  2. locations of automobiles
  3. the communications of foreign suspects
  4. the hard drives of personal computers and laptops



  1. Which of the following statements best expresses the outcome of conflicts between civil liberties in the United States?


  1. When individuals or groups attempt to express themselves and the government tries to constrain them, the individuals or groups will usually win.
  2. Individuals and groups must be prepared to make sacrifices so that government can protect civil liberties. — Consider This: While this might be true during wartime or times of duress, generally, individuals stand a fair chance of defeating prohibitions on individual liberties.
  3. Because civil liberties are essential to democracy, the majority’s wishes must take the front seat in any debate involving civil liberties.
  4. Individuals or groups are free to express themselves in any way they wish; the government cannot constrain or otherwise restrict them.



  1. Which of the following best represents the reasoning used by the Supreme Court in Church of the Lukumi Babalu Aye, Inc. v. City of Hialeah, in which the Court overturned a city ordinance prohibiting the ritual killing of animals as part of religious ceremonies?


  1. Any law banning a religious practice must be passed at the state level, not at the local level. — Consider This: The issue was not whether the city could prevent the killing of animals but rather the targeting of this particular religion.
  2. People must be free to practice their religion, no matter what it involves.
  3. A government that permits other forms of killing animals may not ban sacrifices.
  4. The establishment clause prevents the city from having such an ordinance.



  1. Which of the following Supreme Court cases demonstrates how reluctant the courts are to exercise prior restraint even when national security issues are involved?


  1. Barron v. Baltimore
  2. Roe v. Wade
  3. Near v. Minnesota — Consider This: While Near v. Minnesota did involve the issue of prior restraint, it did not involve sensitive material relating to national security as did this case.
  4. New York Times v. United States



  1. Which of the following rights has the Supreme Court found to be one of the penumbras of unstated liberties linked to explicitly stated rights?


  1. right to marry
  2. right to travel
  3. right to vote — Consider This: The Court has interpreted the right to vote as being primarily guaranteed by the Fourteenth Amendment, since it is explicit in that sense, there’s no need to utilize penumbras.
  4. right to privacy



  1. Which of the following would most likely be considered obscene under the Roth test?


  1. explicit pornography
  2. black and white nude scene photographs
  3. lifelike nude statutes — Consider This: A lifelike nude statute would typically be considered art, and therefore, would fall far outside of the content evaluated by the Roth Test.
  4. profane language



  1. Prohibiting a newspaper from publishing a story critical of the government is an example of __________.


  1. probable cause
  2. prior restraint
  3. the Roth test — Consider This: The Roth test involves the issue of obscenity rather than restraining the publication of information or commentary.
  4. symbolic speech



  1. During World War I, the Supreme Court upheld the conviction of Charles T. Schenck, ruling that government can limit speech that __________.


  1. is critical of the government — Consider This: Schenck established that during times of War, the government can regulate speech that it considers dangerous because of the extenuating circumstances.
  2. is a prior restraint
  3. creates a clear and present danger
  4. qualifies as hate speech



  1. The Military Commissions Act of 2006 was ruled unconstitutional because it violated detainees’ rights to __________.


  1. an appeal
  2. habeas corpus
  3. bills of attainder — Consider This: It was ruled unconstitutional because individuals were not being told why they were being detained, this is also known as this.
  4. motions for summary judgment



  1. In Engel v. Vitale, the Supreme Court found it unconstitutional to require schoolchildren to do which of the following?


  1. pray
  2. take standardized tests
  3. be bused
  4. desegregate — Consider This: The issue in Engel surrounded non-voluntary forms of religious express rather than a specific academic interest or context










Civil Rights and Public Policy



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. The Thirteenth Amendment bans slavery. When was it passed?


  1. when the South seceded from the Union
  2. during the Civil War
  3. immediately after the Civil War
  4. during the civil rights movement – Consider This: The Thirteenth, Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments are known as the Civil War amendments as they were passed as a result of the war.



  1. The Fourteenth Amendment attempted to guarantee which of the following to former slaves?


  1. forty acres of farmland and a mule
  2. debt forgiveness
  3. economic equality with whites – Consider This: One of the main battles of the civil rights movement has been to fully implement the Fourteenth Amendment.
  4. citizenship rights




  1. The provision of the Fourteenth Amendment that prohibits any state from denying any person within its jurisdiction “the equal protection of the laws” is known as the __________ clause.


  1. due process – Consider This: The due process clause is also a major component of the Fourteenth Amendment.
  2. jurisdiction
  3. privileges and immunities
  4. equal protection



  1. The Fifteenth Amendment guarantees citizens the right to vote regardless of __________.


  1. race
  2. economic status
  3. involvement in insurrection
  4. property ownership – Consider This: The primary purpose of the Civil War amendments (the Thirteenth, Fourteenth and Fifteenth amendments) was to provide legal equality to former slaves.



  1. What was the primary objective of the women’s suffrage movement?


  1. broad gender equality – Consider This: Advocates had hoped this would be included in the Fifteenth Amendment but they were ultimately disappointed by Congress.
  2. the right to own property
  3. equal pay for equal work
  4. the right to vote



  1. When did women across the country achieve the constitutionally guaranteed right to vote?


  1. during the Civil War
  2. immediately after the Civil War – Consider This: Advocates had hoped this would be included in the Fifteenth Amendment but they were ultimately disappointed by Congress.
  3. at the same time that black males won the right to vote
  4. decades after black males won the right to vote


  1. Which of the following does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 ban?


  1. poll taxes and grandfather clauses – Consider This: Poll taxes in federal elections were ultimately banned by the Twenty-Fourth Amendment.
  2. racial discrimination in public accommodations
  3. nonviolent resistance
  4. discrimination based on sexual orientation



  1. The modern civil rights movement pushed for an end to both de jure and de facto discrimination. When did this movement begin?


  1. when the Civil War ended – Consider This: The initial civil rights efforts in the United States focused primarily on de jure discrimination but later focused on de facto as well.
  2. during Reconstruction with the passage of the 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments
  3. in the 1950s with an increase in public policies seeking to foster racial equality
  4. immediately prior to the passage of the Equal Rights Amendment



  1. What was the primary goal of the 1848 Seneca Falls Convention?


  1. the prohibition of alcohol
  2. women’s rights
  3. rights for former slaves – Consider This: This meeting was primarily organized by Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Lucretia Mott.
  4. ending the Civil War



  1. What did Jim Crow laws mandate?


  1. property qualifications
  2. racial segregation
  3. poll taxes – Consider This: The Supreme Court affirmed Jim Crows laws in the nineteenth century by interpreting the Fourteenth Amendment very narrowly.
  4. grandfather clauses



  1. What was Reconstruction?


  1. the struggle for newly freed slaves to gain the right to vote, especially in the South
  2. the gradual elimination of both Black Codes and Jim Crow laws
  3. the refusal of Southern states to abide by the Fourteenth Amendment until forced to do so by the Supreme Court – Consider This: Reconstruction was ultimately ended due to the contested election of 1876.
  4. the period after the Civil War when the South was occupied by the federal government


  1. What rationale did the Supreme Court rely on when deciding that segregation in transportation was permissible in Plessy v. Ferguson?


  1. Segregation in public facilities was not unconstitutional as long as the separate facilities were substantially equal.
  2. Segregation was important for maintaining social order, a prerequisite for racial equality.
  3. Jim Crow laws helped African Americans to achieve equality by building character through overcoming adversity.
  4. The equal protection clause applied only to the actions of the federal government, not to actions of private businesses and individuals. – Consider This: The Court had previously limited the Fourteenth Amendment to the actions of the government in the Civil Rights Cases.



  1. Women were guaranteed the right to vote by __________.


  1. Korematsu v. United States
  2. Reed v. Reed
  3. the Nineteenth Amendment
  4. the 1965 Voting Rights Act – Consider This: The Voting Rights Act was largely focused on providing voting rights to African Americans and other racial and ethnic minorities.



  1. Who had to pay poll taxes?


  1. winning candidates – Consider This: Poll taxes were part of a broad attempt to prevent African Americans from exercising their rights.
  2. losing candidates
  3. voters
  4. nonvoters




  1. In Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court determined that __________ were unconstitutional.


  1. racial quotas in university admissions
  2. grandfather clauses
  3. all forms of affirmative action – Consider This: While the Court limited the range of acceptable policies, it has allowed some affirmative action policies to continue.
  4. Jim Crow laws



  1. In Dred Scott v. Sandford, the Supreme Court declared that African Americans were __________.


  1. separate but equal
  2. citizens – Consider This: This major pre-Civil War decision restricted the rights of African Americans.
  3. eligible to vote
  4. property or chattel



  1. School busing policies were designed to overcome __________.


  1. the refusal of African Americans to attend school with whites
  2. freedom rides
  3. de facto segregation
  4. de jure segregation – Consider This: De jure segregation was made illegal by Brown v. Board of Education.



  1. What did the Supreme Court determine was unconstitutional in Brown v. Board of Education?


  1. school integration
  2. school busing – Consider This: This major decision overturned the precedent set by Plessy.
  3. school segregation
  4. unequal school funding



  1. The freedom riders used civil disobedience to help end which form of discrimination in the South?


  1. lynchings by the Ku Klux Klan
  2. racial segregation
  3. racial quotas
  4. voter discrimination – Consider This: These activists put themselves at risk by challenging local laws and regulations.





  1. What provision of the Fourteenth Amendment serves as a cornerstone of struggles to win equality for certain groups?


  1. the all men are created equal clause – Consider This: Initially the Court interpreted this provision narrowly, limiting its application.
  2. the equal protection clause
  3. the privileges and immunities clause
  4. the Equal Rights Amendment



  1. Which of the following happened during Reconstruction?


  1. Most African American men were banned from political offices because they did not own property.
  2. Many former Confederate soldiers and officers held public office and restricted the rights of former slaves. – Consider This: During Reconstruction, people who held office in the Confederacy or served in the Confederate Army were banned from holding elected office.
  3. Most African Americans moved to northern cities.
  4. Many African American men held state and federal offices.



  1. What did the Supreme Court decide in Korematsu v. United States (1944) regarding the internment of American citizens of Japanese ancestry living on the west coast of the United States?


  1. It was legally permissible.
  2. It was unconstitutional, and Japanese Americans must be duly compensated.
  3. It did not pass the strict scrutiny test, and the internment was promptly terminated. – Consider This: The Congress eventually offered reparations after years of debate.
  4. It was unconstitutional, but it was too late to do anything about it.



  1. What strategy did the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) successfully use to fight against school segregation?


  1. boycotts – Consider This: The civil rights movement used a variety of methods to combat discrimination but the NAACP was very effective using this tactic.
  2. protests
  3. litigation
  4. marches and rallies



  1. What was the basis for the Supreme Court’s decision in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that upheld the constitutionality of a state law requiring segregated railroad facilities?


  1. Former slaves are not entitled to full citizenship rights because they did not immigrate to the United States willingly.
  2. Former slaves are not entitled to full citizenship rights because they were considered property under the law. – Consider This: The Court’s decision in this case permitted legal, racial segregation for more than fifty years.
  3. The Constitution does not prohibit segregation; it only mandates equal protection under the law.
  4. Railroad transportation involves interstate commerce, which is regulated by Congress; there is no provision in federal law that prohibits segregation.



  1. The Supreme Court’s decision in Lawrence v. Texas (2003) primarily enhanced the civil liberties of __________.


  1. disabled Americans
  2. Asian Americans – Consider This: Liberties for this group were further expanded following the Obergefell v. Hodges decision.
  3. American Indians
  4. gays and lesbians



  1. After Reconstruction, which of the following was used to prevent African Americans from having a meaningful impact on the outcome of elections?


  1. Jim Crow laws – Consider This: While Jim Crow laws were used to limit the rights of African Americans, a more specific mechanism was used to limit their electoral strength.
  2. white primaries
  3. majority-minority districts
  4. affirmative action






  1. Majority rule is most likely to conflict with which of the following?


  1. the principle of equality – Consider This: One risk of majority rule is that the majority can use their power to deprive the minority of certain freedoms.
  2. individual liberty
  3. consent of the governed
  4. natural law


  1. The NAACP fights against __________.


  1. racism
  2. affirmative action – Consider This: The NAACP was preceded by the Niagara Movement.
  3. women’s rights
  4. sodomy



  1. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 was designed to overturn which of the following?


  1. integration
  2. Jim Crow laws
  3. nonviolent resistance
  4. Reconstruction – Consider This: This major piece of legislation followed the Brown v. Board of Education decision.



  1. In Adarand Constructors v. Peña, the Supreme Court determined that __________.


  1. affirmative action policies must be scrutinized using the same suspect standard that is used for other policies classifying people by race
  2. affirmative action policies are subject to an intermediate standard whereby they are presumed to be permissible
  3. affirmative action policies may be broadly tailored to accomplish a compelling government interest
  4. affirmative action policies must be designed to address past discrimination without taking into account race, ethnicity, religion, or creed – Consider This: This decision made it more difficult for the federal government to implement affirmative action programs.



  1. If a group of people were systematically discriminated against in the past, which of the following would constitute an affirmative action policy designed as a remedy to help the members of this group overcome this legacy of discrimination?


  1. a hiring policy that favors those with relatives working in government
  2. a college admissions policy that gives preferential treatment to members of the group
  3. a color-blind job application process to give members of this group an equal chance – Consider This: The Court has narrowed the scope of affirmative action policies but allows them if they are ‘narrowly tailored’ and needed for a ‘compelling governmental interest.’
  4. requiring that all job applicants have at least two years of prior experience



  1. Which of the following accommodations would an employer most likely need to implement in order to be in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act?


  1. hiring a disabled person instead of an equally qualified person without a disability – Consider This: The main purpose of the Americans with Disabilities Act was to prevent discrimination against persons with disabilities.
  2. providing better medical insurance for employees who have a disability
  3. lowering expectations for the quality of work performed by employees with disabilities
  4. installing a ramp and other physical accommodations for someone who uses a wheelchair



  1. According to the Supreme Court’s decisions in the Civil Rights Cases (1883), in which of the following areas could racial discrimination occur?


  1. juries
  2. hotels
  3. post offices – Consider This: In these cases, the Court found discrimination by individuals and businesses to be acceptable.
  4. running for office



  1. For which of the following would the Supreme Court most likely apply an “intermediate scrutiny” standard of review to determine whether the policy is an unconstitutional violation of the equal protection clause?


  1. preventing whites from attending schools designed to serve African American students – Consider This: The Court adopted this standard in the case of Craig v. Boren.
  2. prohibiting Jewish people from becoming members of a club
  3. refusing to promote a Latina when she is the most qualified candidate
  4. having different minimum ages for men and women to marry



  1. In the 1857 Dred Scott v. Sandford decision, the Supreme Court held that __________.


  1. only Congress could ban slavery – Consider This: The Court’s decision in this case helped push the country towards a civil war.
  2. black men were citizens but black women were not
  3. the Missouri Compromise was unconstitutional
  4. slavery was immoral but necessary



  1. Which of the following is an example of de jure segregation?


  1. Jim Crow laws
  2. the tendency for churches to be racially homogeneous – Consider This: Recall that de jure discrimination is contrasted with de facto discrimination.
  3. the small number of African American senators
  4. sequestering the jury in order to ensure a fair trial


  1. Which of the following affirmative action programs would be a clear violation of the Supreme Court’s decision in Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978)?


  1. considering race as a factor in university admissions decisions
  2. considering how an applicant would contribute to the diversity of the university
  3. setting aside a certain percentage of admissions slots for African American students
  4. admitting some minority applicants with lower academic achievement than some rejected white applicants – Consider This: The Court’s decision in this case limited some affirmative action policies but did not ban them outright.



  1. Which of the following laws would be the most likely to be examined by the Supreme Court using the inherently suspect standard to determine its constitutionality?


  1. Male and female student athletes cannot compete on the same basketball team at the university level.
  2. Businesses cannot discriminate against gays and lesbians in hiring and promotion decisions. – Consider This: The Court finds discrimination along these lines to be inherently suspect and it is held to the highest possible standard of review.
  3. Those without a college degree are not eligible for upper-level civil service jobs.
  4. Government contracts must be awarded to a contractor who is a racial minority whenever at least 10 percent of the bidders are minority-owned businesses.





  1. Which of the following situations would most likely be a violation of Title IX?


  1. an election jurisdiction that does not provide bilingual ballots when there is a large bilingual community
  2. a legal prohibition on hiring women for positions that are known to be hazardous to women’s reproductive health
  3. a college that spends significantly more on sports programs for men than for women
  4. an employer who systematically pays women less than men for doing comparable work – Consider This: The focus of Title IX is on discrimination in education.



  1. If you thought you were getting an inferior public education because of your ethnicity, which part of the Constitution would you rely on most heavily to justify your case?


  1. the Equal Rights Amendment – Consider This: This amendment, passed shortly after the Civil War, is the cornerstone of modern civil rights law.
  2. the Thirteenth Amendment
  3. the Fourteenth Amendment
  4. the Nineteenth Amendment



  1. Based on the Supreme Court’s decision in Reed v. Reed, which of the following laws would most likely be overturned?


  1. Twenty percent of university admissions slots are reserved for Latinos. – Consider This: This decision found that ‘arbitrary’ discrimination violated the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
  2. Police officers must retire at 70 years old.
  3. Men can vote at 17 years of age; women cannot vote until 18.
  4. Pilots must have perfect vision to receive a license.


  1. How has the Equal Rights Amendment affected women’s civil rights?


  1. It has ensured that men and women are treated equally in the workplace. – Consider This: The Equal Rights Amendment was initially proposed in Congress in 1923.
  2. It has ensured that the courts evaluate gender discrimination using the inherently suspect test.
  3. It has eliminated gender discrimination in the military.
  4. It has had little effect because it was not formally adopted.



  1. What is the status of affirmative action in college admissions after the Supreme Court decisions in the two cases involving the University of Michigan, Gratz v. Bollinger (2003) and Grutter v. Bollinger (2003)?


  1. Affirmative action policies are generally permissible, but they cannot involve race-based quotas or numerical point systems.
  2. Affirmative action policies are assumed to be unconstitutional unless the university can demonstrate the need to promote racial tolerance.
  3. Affirmative action policies must ensure that all racial and ethnic groups are represented in accordance with the population of the nation as a whole.
  4. All forms of affirmative action are unconstitutional because they unfairly favor some people over others based on the color of their skin. – Consider This: The Court has ruled that promoting diversity is a legitimate government objective.



  1. How are the Supreme Court decisions in Korematsu v. United States (1944) and Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) similar?


  1. Both decisions upheld important constitutional principles. – Consider This: It is unlikely that the modern Court would uphold either decision today.
  2. Both decisions were positive turning points in the history of American jurisprudence.
  3. Both decisions limited the civil rights of racial or ethnic minorities.
  4. Both decisions were important early victories in the struggle for civil rights.



  1. Why did states enact poll taxes?


  1. to raise revenue for the government
  2. to ensure that only people who really want to vote would do so
  3. to get around the Fifteenth Amendment
  4. to enfranchise former slaves – Consider This: To enfranchise means to give a person or a group the right to vote.



  1. Why did Congress pass the Voting Rights Act of 1965?


  1. the Supreme Court had determined that only the national government could regulate elections – Consider This: Despite the Voting Rights Act, each state is still largely in control of the voting rules within that state.
  2. because it was clear that many areas in the South had no intention of living up to the spirit of the Fifteenth Amendment
  3. because Congress was afraid the Reverend Martin Luther King Jr. would lead a boycott of white businesses if the legislation was not passed
  4. to prevent the race riots from spreading from African American neighborhoods into traditionally white neighborhoods



  1. How are the Fourteenth Amendment and the Civil Rights Act of 1964 similar?


  1. They both were enacted quickly and easily. – Consider This: Both policies are now considered essential parts of civil rights law.
  2. They both passed the inherently suspect test administered by the Supreme Court.
  3. They both sought equal rights for African Americans.
  4. They both sought equal rights for women.



  1. How do the inherently suspect and reasonableness standards differ?


  1. The inherently suspect standard relies on observation; the reasonableness standard relies on data.
  2. Under the inherently suspect standard the law is presumed to be valid; under the reasonableness standard the law is presumed to be invalid.
  3. The inherently suspect standard is a higher threshold for determining whether the law is constitution.
  4. The inherently suspect standard evaluates whether it is rationally connected to a legitimate government goal; the reasonableness standard evaluates whether it is the least restrictive way to achieve that goal. – Consider This: The former standard deals with race and ethnicity, while the latter deals with age and wealth.



  1. What was the Supreme Court’s justification in Brown v. Board of Education?


  1. The Supreme Court did not have all of the facts when it adopted the separate-but-equal doctrine. – Consider This: In this case, the Legal Defense Fund of the NAACP was trying to get the Court to overturn Plessy.
  2. The separate-but-equal doctrine was never intended to apply to people.
  3. The quality of life for African Americans in the South had deteriorated considerably since the adoption of the separate-but-equal doctrine.
  4. School segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment’s guarantee of equal protection.



  1. Which of the following arguments would most likely be made by an opponent of affirmative action policies?


  1. Unaddressed past discrimination causes perpetual inequality.
  2. Discrimination is a natural part of the human experience.
  3. Affirmative action discriminates on the basis of race.
  4. Diversity helps Americans better understand each other. – Consider This: The Court in recent decisions has both affirmed and rejected affirmative action policies.






Public Opinion and Political Action



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. What is demography?


  1. the science of population changes
  2. an “actual enumeration” of the population— Consider This: Studying human populations is more than just counting human populations.
  3. the distribution of the population’s beliefs about politics and policy issues
  4. an accounting of what the American people believe



  1. Which group makes up the smallest percentage of the minority population in the United States?


  1. white, non-Hispanic
  2. Hispanic—Consider This: Hispanics are currently the fastest growing population demographic in the United States.
  3. Native American
  4. African American



  1. What three socializing agents are discussed in the textbook?


  1. the family, the media, and religious institutions
  2. the family, the schools, and political parties—Consider This: Political parties aggregate the political interest of citizens.
  3. the media, the schools, and the family
  4. the schools, the family, and politicians



  1. How do Internet polling companies like Knowledge Networks ensure participation in its Web-based surveys?


  1. Respondents are paid a small sum every time they participate.
  2. Respondents are selected from the cell-phone-only segment of the population.—Consider This: The polling company does originally contact potential participants by phone but they do not restrict this to cell-phones.
  3. Respondents are randomly sampled.
  4. Respondents are provided a free computer.



  1. Why does the United States have a relatively restrained scope of government compared to most European nations?


  1. the predominance of conservatives in the United States
  2. the predominance of liberals in the United States—Consider This: While there are slightly more liberals among younger voters, liberal ideology does not dominate.
  3. the absence of moderates in the United States
  4. the absence of pluralist thinking in the United States



  1. Approximately what percentage of adult citizens voted in the 2014 midterm elections?


  1. less than 50 percent
  2. 60 percent—Consider This: Voter turnout in midterm elections is significantly lower than it is during a presidential election.
  3. 70 percent
  4. more than 80 percent



  1. What was Henry David Thoreau protesting in the 1840s when he refused to pay his taxes?


  1. high tariffs
  2. compulsory education
  3. economic inequality—Consider This: Protest as a form of participation often involves taking action against specific government policies.
  4. the Mexican War


Difficulty Level: Moderate


  1. Of the following, which form of participation are Americans most likely to engage in?


  1. volunteering with a campaign
  2. protesting—Consider This: While protests are important they are not a primary means of nonconventional political participation.
  3. writing letters to the editor
  4. contacting government officials



  1. Why were the first immigration restrictions adopted by the United States?


  1. no poor immigrants
  2. no uneducated immigrants
  3. no Chinese immigrants—Consider This: The Chinese Exclusion act was adopted in 1882.
  4. no criminals or prostitutes



  1. What is a principal provision of the 1986 Simpson-Mazzoli Act?


  1. Employers must document the citizenship of their employees.
  2. State and local police must perform roadside immigration checks.
  3. The president must apprehend and deport legal and illegal immigrants if their home country is at war with the United States.—Consider This: In spite of political rhetoric by both the Bush and Obama administrations there has been no comprehensive action on immigration.
  4. A diversity admissions category was created for legal permanent residents.


  1. Which of the following statements about political news consumption is accurate?


  1. Working-class people consume more political news than do wealthier people.
  2. Older people consume more political news than do younger people.
  3. Men consume considerably more political news than do women. — Consider This: The advertisements that support television news program often feature various prescription drugs.
  4. West Coast residents consume more political news than do East Coast residents.



  1. What technique is the key to the accuracy of public opinion polls?


  1. indexing
  2. font selection
  3. random sampling
  4. in-person interviews—Consider This: In-person interviews are just one method of conducting public opinion polls.



  1. The role of religion in influencing political ideology is most closely related to __________.


  1. religiosity
  2. baptism
  3. denomination
  4. –Christianity — Consider This: It is not only the Christian faith that has an influence on political ideology.



  1. “Letter from a Birmingham Jail,” penned by Martin Luther King, Jr., in 1963, is a classic defense of __________.


  1. civil disobedience
  2. conscientious objection
  3. political violence—Consider This: Martin Luther King, Jr. was an advocate of nonviolent resistance.
  4. tax resistance



  1. According to Ronald Reagan, what was the main cause of society’s problems?


  1. urban decay—Consider This: Reagan was deeply concerned about the scope of government in the lives of American citizens.
  2. tax evasion
  3. government overreach
  4. scofflaws and miscreants


  1. Why is participation in the census so important?


  1. participation indicates the legitimacy of government and of laws passed by Congress
  2. changes in the U.S. population affect membership in political parties—Consider This: The Census does not count or track political affiliation.
  3. information the census collects helps to determine how more than $400 billion in federal funding is spent each year
  4. information from the census determines tax rates



  1. Conservatives generally favor the __________ sector.


  1. service
  2. government—Consider This: Liberals tend to believe that government is well-positioned to solve problems in society.
  3. private
  4. public



  1. How does lower voter turnout among young citizens affect the composition of those who show up at the polls?


  1. Conservatives are overrepresented at the polls.
  2. Young citizens are overrepresented at the polls.
  3. Democrats are overrepresented at the polls. — Consider This: Younger voters often embrace the policies of the Democratic Party.
  4. Liberals are overrepresented at the polls.



  1. How is political participation defined?


  1. all the activities used by citizens to socialize their children to the political process
  2. all the activities used by citizens to influence the selection of political leaders or the policies they pursue
  3. a measure of the minimum requirements needed to vote
  4. the capacity of individuals (or groups) to exert their own political will—Consider This: Participation can be overt or subtle.


  1. What are the two broad classifications on political participation?


  1. elitist and pluralist—Consider This: One form of political participation might include writing a letter to the editor.
  2. productive and unproductive
  3. conventional and unconventional
  4. casual and formal



  1. Which of the following is considered conventional political participation?


  1. running for public office
  2. burning the American flag
  3. blocking the entrance to a military installation
  4. staging a sit-in on campus—Consider This: Civil disobedience is not a conventional form of participation.


  1. Political protests are often described as __________.


  1. conventional and illegal—Consider This: Protests often try to attract the attention of the news media.
  2. dramatic and unconventional
  3. subtle and effective
  4. casual and violent



  1. What is the typical aim of protests in the United States?


  1. affecting public policy change
  2. overthrowing the government
  3. influencing voting behavior—Consider This: The message of protests are not generally aimed at voters.
  4. informing the public about the candidates



  1. What was the effect of the 1924 immigration law that established official quotas for immigrants based on national origin?


  1. The flow of immigrant families with children decreased.
  2. The flow of low-income immigrant families from Mexico increased.—Consider This: Quotas were abolished in 1965.
  3. Most new immigrants were being reunited with family in the United States.
  4. Most new immigrants were from northwestern Europe.



  1. Why do seats in the House of Representatives need to be reapportioned?


  1. The number of seats each state has in the House is based on a state’s population, which changes over time.
  2. The majority party in the House of Representatives is determined by each state’s proportion of party-affiliated voters.
  3. The Constitution requires that each state’s taxes be proportional to the size of its population.
  4. Each congressional district must be redrawn to reflect changes in the state’s population. —Consider This: This process is known as redistricting.



  1. Which of the following generally increase with age?


  1. liberalism and political tolerance—Consider This: Because political behavior is a learned behavior, there is often more learning to do.
  2. candidate loyalty and authoritarianism
  3. political participation and suspicion of out-groups
  4. political participation and strength of party attachment



  1. Which of the following statements about the 1936 Literary Digest poll that predicted Roosevelt’s reelection defeat is true?


  1. The poll oversampled those with higher income.
  2. The poll oversampled groups heavily Democratic in orientation.
  3. The poll excluded owners of automobiles. —Consider This: The Literary Digest poll relied on motor vehicle registration lists to increase the size of the sample.
  4. The poll undersampled middle-class voters who owned telephones.


Difficulty Level: Moderate


  1. According to research by Jacobs and Shapiro, politicians use public opinion polls to __________.


  1. tell them how to vote on legislation
  2. determine what policies to pursue—Consider This: The common view of politicians pandering to the results of public opinion may be mistaken.
  3. identify centrist approaches to public policy
  4. shape their messages to the public



  1. According to Russell Neuman, the “paradox of mass politics” is that the American political system works as well as it does despite __________.


  1. the public’s lack of knowledge about politics
  2. the public’s lack of consensus on matters of public policy
  3. the growing polarization of public opinion—Consider This: If political knowledge were to increase overall, it would in all likelihood be good for American democracy.
  4. politicians’ overreliance on public opinion polls



  1. Which of the following viewpoints is more likely to be held by a political liberal than by a political conservative?


  1. The United States should stop letting criminals hide behind the law.
  2. Prayer belongs in school.
  3. Taxes and spending should be kept low. —Consider This: Liberals tend to support a broad and activist federal government.
  4. Government should regulate the economy in the public interest.



  1. Which of the following is unconventional political participation?


  1. running for public office as a third party candidate
  2. signing a petition in a school parking lot—Consider This: Conventional participation includes many widely accepted methods of influencing outcomes in government.
  3. gathering signatures for a proposed ballot measure
  4. staging a sit-in




  1. Which of the following statements about American attitudes toward the scope of government is true?


  1. A majority of Americans favor having unlimited government.
  2. A majority of Americans think that the government should do more rather than do less. —Consider This: Americans have a long history of favoring limited government.
  3. A majority of Americans think the federal government should be streamlined.
  4. A majority of Americans never think about the scope of government.



  1. Assume that Howard and Javier used proper sampling techniques to draw two samples of Hispanic Floridians. Each sample will be surveyed about proposed immigration policy reform and its impact on Hispanics living in the state. The samples were selected identically, but one includes 1,000 respondents and the other consists of 2,000 respondents. Given the information presented in this scenario, which of the following statements is true?


  1. Howard and Javier will likely underestimate the impact of immigration reform on Florida’s Hispanic population, given the size of their samples.—Consider This: Polling requires not only an accurate representation of the population but a reliable sample size.
  2. Howard and Javier will likely overestimate the impact of immigration reform on Florida’s Hispanic population, given the size of their samples.
  3. Howard and Javier can correctly assume that the sampling error for both surveyed samples will be the same.
  4. Howard and Javier can be more confident of the results of the 2,000-person sample.



  1. How do liberals differ from conservatives?


  1. Liberals are more likely than conservatives to envision a wide scope for the central government, often involving policies that aim to promote military intervention.
  2. Liberals are more likely than conservatives to envision a wide scope for the central government, often involving policies that aim to promote equality.
  3. Among people over the age of 30, slightly more are liberal than conservative.
  4. Conservatives are more likely than liberals to want to tax our way out of debt and deficit problems. —Consider This: Liberals have tended to embrace the idea of a broad, expansive, and activist federal government.



  1. You agree with Darrell M. West, who argues that the United States needs to reorient its immigration policy toward enhancing economic development. Which of the following potential immigrants do you think is most deserving of an immigrant visa?


  1. a Turkish national with a promising new manufacturing process
  2. the parents of neurobiologist L. S. Chung, a permanent legal resident from South Korea
  3. a former Syrian army officer, now a refugee
  4. a student-athlete from New Zealand who plays basketball and hopes to coach professionally in the future—Consider This: West maintains that immigration policies should be based on what you know not who you know.


  1. To determine if families with children would use school vouchers to send their children to charter schools, from which of the following populations should you select a sample?


  1. women with children
  2. citizens in the school district—Consider This: Accurate representation of the sample is more important than the size of the sample.
  3. parents
  4. parents of children under age 18



  1. In a random sample of 1,000 high school students, 29 percent indicated that they had read the Declaration of Independence at least once, with a sampling error of 4 percent. Which of the following statements is true?


  1. It is likely that more than 33 percent of the population have read the Declaration of Independence.—Consider This: A sampling error reflects the level of confidence found in a poll and that is related to sample size.
  2. It is likely that fewer than 25 percent of the population have read the Declaration of Independence.
  3. It is likely that between 25 and 33 percent of the population have read the Declaration of Independence.
  4. It is likely that 29 percent of the population have read the Declaration of Independence between zero and five times.



  1. Politicians tend to ignore __________.


  1. those who participate—Consider This: Political participation is specifically designed to grab the attention of voters.
  2. the wealthy
  3. nonvoters
  4. business interests



  1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of conducting a public opinion survey over the phone?


  1. Unlisted numbers cannot be reached by pollsters using telephones.
  2. Federal law prohibits the use of automated random-digit-dialing programs to unlisted numbers.
  3. People are substantially less willing to participate in polls over the telephone than in person.
  4. Independents are less willing to participate in polls over the telephone than are partisans. —Consider This: Citizens often suffer from polling fatigue, which affects their desire to answer polls.



  1. Women are more likely than men to cast their ballots for which type of candidate?


  1. Democratic candidates who support higher levels of spending on the military as opposed to spending on social services
  2. Republican candidates who support higher levels of spending on the military as opposed to spending on social services
  3. Democratic candidates who support higher levels of spending on social services as opposed to spending on the military
  4. Republican candidates who support higher levels of spending on social services as opposed to spending on the military—Consider This: The gender gap in American politics tends to favor the Democratic Party.



  1. Of the following, which is a form of political participation?


  1. donating money to a charity for homeless veterans—Consider This: Donating money to a charity has no effect on political outcomes.
  2. working as a caseworker in a social services agency
  3. compiling a statistical analysis on the demographic factors of students enrolled at a local community college
  4. calling your representative to express your opinion about upcoming legislation



  1. If the poor participated at higher levels in the political process, what might happen?


  1. government workers would likely unionize
  2. government-run services would likely be privatized—Consider This: Privatization of government-run services often harm the recipients of those services.
  3. government programs to help individuals invest their Social Security income would likely be higher on the political agenda
  4. government programs to alleviate economic inequality would likely be higher on the political agenda



  1. How does civil disobedience differ from a protest?


  1. Civil disobedience involves violence; a protest is peaceful.
  2. Civil disobedience is involuntary; a protest is voluntary.
  3. Civil disobedience involves intentionally breaking a law; a protest involves getting attention from the media.
  4. Civil disobedience involves unintentionally breaking a law; a protest involves intentionally breaking a law. —Consider This: Protests are dramatic and often designed to engage the media.



  1. Which of the following statements about immigration in the United States is true?


  1. At current rates non-Hispanic whites will represent less than half of the population by the middle of the 21st century.
  2. In recent years, illegal immigrants have outnumbered legal immigrants.
  3. The Department of Homeland Security estimates that 5 percent of the nation’s illegal immigrants are from Mexico.—Consider This: While these levels have flattened out the percentage of illegal immigrants in the U.S. from Mexico is roughly 59%.
  4. The U.S. Census Bureau estimates that immigrants represent 30 percent of the nation’s population.



  1. Politicians who believe that America’s competitiveness in the globalized economy would be best served by allocating a substantial percentage of immigrant visas to people with special talents would be more likely than other politicians to substantially revise the __________.


  1. Hart-Celler Immigration and Nationality Act
  2. Civil Rights Act
  3. Affordable Care Act—Consider This: The Affordable Care Act provided a mechanism that required all Americans have health insurance or face a fine.
  4. Simpson-Mazzoli Act



  1. Many of the commercials that air during the nightly news broadcasts of ABC, CBS, and NBC seem to be for various prescription drugs. What is the most plausible explanation for this fact?


  1. Today’s generation of young adults is significantly more likely to read newspapers than their elders. —Consider This: Different sources of news are often favored by specific demographics.
  2. Political socialization is more important to governments than to individuals.
  3. The age of the demographic that consumes television news is much higher on average than those that consume alternative sources of news.
  4. Children who develop positive feelings toward political authorities grow into adults who are not easily disenchanted with politics.








The Mass Media and the Political Agenda



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Differences in press coverage between the initial speeches given to Congress by President Reagan and by President Obama show __________.


  1. a diminishing audience for national news and presidential messages
  2. that presidential addresses receive higher Nielsen ratings today than they did several decades ago
  3. more Americans read presidential addresses in newspapers, while fewer view coverage on TV—Consider This: American’s consumption of the news seems to be in decline.
  4. that more than 50 percent of Americans can be expected to tune in to watch presidential addresses to Congress



  1. Television, radio, newspapers, magazines, the Internet, and other forms of communication are collectively referred to as the __________.


  1. mass media
  2. media conglomeration—Consider This: In the United States it is the private ownership of media that leads to this outcome.
  3. partisan press
  4. fifth estate


  1. Trial balloons are used for which of the following?


  1. avoiding a political reaction
  2. assessing a political reaction
  3. exposing media bias
  4. limiting media bias—Consider This: The Clinton administration used a trial balloon to leak that President Clinton had engaged in an inappropriate relationship with White House intern Monica Lewinsky.




  1. In 1960, one newspaper was sold for every two adults; by 2014, one paper was sold for every __________.


  1. adult
  2. three adults—Consider This: American newspaper subscription rates have been in serious decline.
  3. six adults
  4. ten adults



  1. In 1934, Congress created which body to regulate the use of the airwaves?


  1. Federal Trade Commission—Consider This: The airwaves are owned by the public.
  2. Equal Opportunity Commission
  3. Federal Communications Commission
  4. Department of Media Communications



  1. Over 80 percent of the nation’s daily newspaper circulation is published by massive media conglomerates called __________.


  1. narrowcasters
  2. chains
  3. broadcasters
  4. associated press outlets—Consider This: Journalism has long been big business in the United States.



  1. In democracies, the primary interest of publicly owned media is __________.


  1. reducing recidivism
  2. serving the public interest
  3. promoting the government—Consider This: In countries like China, the government controls the media and often promotes the government.
  4. entertaining viewers



  1. The primary interest of privately owned media is __________.


  1. making a profit
  2. serving the public interest—Consider This: Private media outlets must attract an audience for paid advertising.
  3. spreading propaganda
  4. informing the public



  1. How does the increasing focus of media conglomerates on making a profit affect television news?


  1. The quality of news reporting has increased considerably in an attempt to sway more viewers and more advertisers.
  2. A study of a set of major newspapers found that the total number of foreign news stories in U.S. newspapers doubled between 1985 and 2014.—Consider This: Many foreign news bureaus are costly to staff and run.
  3. Media organizations have cut back on their foreign bureaus and on international news.
  4. Television news is increasingly viewed as a public service that benefits the media conglomerate by generating goodwill with viewers.



  1. __________ is the tendency for viewers to seek news that aligns with their existing ideas.


  1. Narrowcasting
  2. Investigative journalism
  3. Selective exposure
  4. Logrolling—Consider This: Liberals prefer to watch MSNBC while conservatives prefer to get their news from FOX.



  1. An intentional news leak for the purpose of assessing the political reaction it generates is called a(n) __________.


  1. talking head
  2. press release
  3. earmark—Consider This: Earmarks are part of the legislative process.
  4. trial balloon



  1. What do network executives blame for the superficiality in media reporting?


  1. cable news
  2. social media—Consider This: Many citizens prefer their news to be more entertaining than informational.
  3. the Internet
  4. the public



  1. What are the specific locations from which news frequently emanates called?


  1. trial balloons—Consider This: Most reporters become specialists in specific areas of news coverage.
  2. news houses
  3. reporters’ clubs
  4. beats



  1. Increasing public attention to specific problems is a core feature of the media’s __________ power.


  1. watchdog—Consider This: The media can be useful in shaping what government discusses.
  2. investigative
  3. agenda-setting
  4. score-keeping



  1. Research suggests that the overriding bias in the news is one toward stories that __________.


  1. favor liberals—Consider This: There is little evidence that suggests a consistent liberal bias in the media.
  2. favor conservatives
  3. draw the largest audience
  4. put the president in a good light



  1. People who invest their political capital in an issue are called __________.


  1. agenda setters
  2. policy entrepreneurs
  3. lobbyists—Consider This: Lobbyists seek to directly influence an political outcome.
  4. gatekeepers


  1. The issues that attract serious attention from public officials and other people actively involved in politics at the time collectively make the __________ agenda.


  1. news
  2. policy
  3. media—Consider This: Political actors are seeking to have their priorities take precedence over other groups in society in terms of outcomes.
  4. entrepreneurial


  1. Which of the following is a consequence of the rise of television broadcasting?


  1. The news consumed by the American public is more entertaining than educational.
  2. Individuals have a greater need for political parties to help them make decisions.
  3. Groups have greater access to spread their issues and messages to the public.—Consider This: Individual interest groups have little control over what is aired on corporate television networks.
  4. The American public is better informed about politics and Congress is basing its opinions more on public opinion.



  1. What is an event called that is purposely staged for the media and that is significant just because the media are there?


  1. a think tank
  2. a pork-barrel project—Consider This: In the last four weeks of a presidential campaign 80 percent of the stories involve tightly scripted appearances by candidates.
  3. a media event
  4. a round-robin event



  1. The cozy relationship between politicians and the press in the twentieth century lasted until when?


  1. the Iran Hostage Crisis
  2. World War II
  3. the beginning of Franklin Roosevelt’s presidency—Consider This: The media treated Roosevelt with a great deal of deference.
  4. the Vietnam War and Watergate



  1. The use of in-depth reporting to unearth scandals, scams, and schemes, at times putting reporters in adversarial relationships with political leaders, is referred to as __________ journalism.


  1. beat
  2. gatekeeping—Consider This: The story about the Watergate break in is a prime example of this type of journalism.
  3. investigative
  4. law-and-order



  1. The increased number of news and infotainment options has resulted in __________ in which media outlets focus on a particular interest and aim at a particular audience.


  1. investigative journalism—Consider This: In the early days of media news story were transmitted to a wide audience.
  2. watchdog journalism
  3. narrowcasting
  4. selective exposure



  1. Thomas Patterson’s careful analysis of campaign reporting has shown that since 1960, its emphasis has changed dramatically from __________.


  1. negative information about the candidates to negative assessments about the parties—Consider This: Much of the news coverage during a campaign is dedicated to questions about who is ahead and who is behind.
  2. the candidates’ policy statements to the campaign as a horse race
  3. covering events to covering ideas
  4. sensational information about the candidates to substantive information about the issues



  1. As technology has enabled the media to pass along information with greater speed, news coverage has become __________.


  1. more homogenous
  2. less thorough
  3. more objective
  4. less biased—Consider This: While there has been a proliferation of news sources since the rise of the Internet there has been little appreciable increase in the quality of the news consumed by citizens.



  1. Public officials often leak __________ to reporters to see what the political reaction will be.


  1. trial balloons
  2. sound bites—Consider This: A sound bite, averaging about 10 seconds, is all that is usually seen of a politician’s speech on the nightly television news.
  3. beats
  4. oiled news



  1. Which of the following is a consequence of the rise of narrowcasting?


  1. Young adults are more likely than other age groups to use newspapers and broadcast media as news and information sources.—Consider This: Younger citizens are more likely to rely on infotainment that other age groups for their news coverage.
  2. Young adults are less likely than other age groups to use newspapers and broadcast media as news and information sources.
  3. Most Americans follow politics more frequently and with greater intensity than they follow popular culture.
  4. Narrowcasting has encouraged less repetition of stories on cable news programs.


  1. Epstein’s News From Nowhere suggests which of the following about newsworthiness?


  1. TV networks define news as what is entertaining to average viewers.
  2. The media strive for quality of story rather than ratings.—Consider This: The corporate structure of the American media demands that news programming attract an audience for advertising.
  3. The media tend to report only the most important stories.
  4. The media tend to pitch stories to a relatively high level of viewer sophistication.



  1. Research by Miller and Krosnick demonstrates that the effects of agenda-setting by media are particularly strong among which group?


  1. politically knowledgeable citizens who trust the media
  2. politically knowledgeable citizens who distrust the media—Consider This: Agenda setting reflects a deliberate process on the part of knowledgeable citizens.
  3. younger citizens who trust the media
  4. older citizens who distrust the media



  1. Iyengar and Kinder’s research found that TV news __________.


  1. can alter the priorities Americans attach to problems depending on which stories are covered
  2. has minimal effects on the public opinion of viewers—Consider This: Conservatives are more likely to watch a news story if they believe it came from FOX.
  3. discourages citizens from voting by focusing on the imperfections of the democratic system
  4. selects stories that are especially important to business interests



  1. The “minimal effects hypothesis” suggested that the media have a minimal effect on __________.


  1. public opinion
  2. policymakers’ issue positions—Consider This: Most of the early scholarship on media affects focused on how the media affected what people think and not what they think about.
  3. Americans’ consumption of newspapers
  4. Americans who do not watch TV



  1. Policy entrepreneurs are people who invest __________ in an issue.


  1. their life savings—Consider This: Policy entrepreneurs often trade on personal contacts to achieve their policy goals.
  2. financial expertise
  3. political capital
  4. scant attention



  1. The media act as a __________ between the people and policymakers.


  1. key linkage institution
  2. general adversary
  3. stakeholder—Consider This: Citizens can use the media to remain connected to and vigilant over government.
  4. dividing institution



  1. Which of these is an example of a major television network?


  1. ABC
  2. Knight-Ridder
  3. Associated Press—Consider This: The major networks send their signals out to a very wide audience.
  4. Gannett



  1. Television, radio, and the Internet are __________ media; newspapers and magazines are __________ media.


  1. electronic; print
  2. public; private—Consider This: Much of the American media is privately owned.
  3. private; public
  4. liberal; conservative



  1. Which president practically invented media politics?


  1. Franklin D. Roosevelt
  2. Herbert Hoover—Consider This: Hoover’s successor is credited with inventing media politics.
  3. Ronald Reagan
  4. John F. Kennedy



  1. Top aides to President Clinton leaked his admission of an “inappropriate relationship” to the New York Times in order to gauge the public response to the revelation. Based on the public’s response to this __________, Clinton went ahead and admitted the “inappropriate relationship” to the grand jury.


  1. beat
  2. trial balloon
  3. talking head
  4. sound bite—Consider This: A sound bite is short snippet of a politician’s speech that is shown on the television news.



  1. In covering military conflicts, the majority of TV news stories usually originate from correspondents posted at __________ including the White House, the Pentagon, and the State Department.


  1. associated presses—Consider This: Most top reporters are specialists because of the locations at which they work.
  2. networks
  3. trial balloons
  4. beats



  1. Politicians and journalists have a(n) __________ relationship: Politicians rely on journalists to get out their message, and journalists rely on politicians to keep them in the know.


  1. parasitic
  2. symbiotic
  3. cooperative
  4. antagonistic—Consider This: While the press and political actors are often at odds with one another they both need each other as well.



  1. Which of these would a major TV network be least likely to show for very long?


  1. ambassadors fighting at the United Nations
  2. talking heads discussing a major news event
  3. the aftermath of a major natural disaster
  4. footage of a domestic terrorist attack—Consider This: T.V. news is little more than a headline service with news compressed into thirty second segments.


  1. During a 1976 presidential debate, President Ford made a mistake by saying that the Soviet Union was not the dominant force in Eastern Europe. The statement was given much press coverage, and polls indicated that most viewers did not recognize the error until they learned of it on the news. What effect did this reporting have on public opinion?


  1. It made Ford more personally likable.—Consider This: Most people did not realize that Ford had made an error until the press told them so.
  2. It made Ford seem less vulnerable.
  3. It made Ford seem more qualified.
  4. It made Ford seem less qualified.



  1. Civil rights activists in the 1960s used the media to show Americans the injustice of the treatment of minorities, successfully placing the civil rights issue onto the __________.


  1. policy entrepreneur
  2. policy agenda
  3. press conference
  4. news beat—Consider This: Protesters have learned that they can capture the media’s attention by staging an interesting or controversial event.





Political Parties



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. A core function of political parties is __________.


  1. dividing the electorate
  2. narrowing voter choice — Consider This: Voters can choose among the candidates.
  3. nominating candidates
  4. reducing accountability mechanisms




  1. Which statement best describes the functioning of party machines in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries?


  1. Parties provided policy support to rural electorates in exchange for votes.
  2. Parties provided jobs to rural electorates in exchange for votes.
  3. Parties provided patronage jobs to loyal supporters, especially in urban areas.
  4. Parties provided cash handouts to rural electorates in exchange for jobs. — Consider This: Job was awarded for political reason after election..



  1. What best explains the demise of party machines?


  1. congressional reforms that prevented private party meetings in “smoke-filled rooms”
  2. Keynesian economic reforms that increased individual wealth
  3. judicial reforms that ended the “pay to play” system of assigning public defenders — Consider This: Party machine weakened after it gave jobs based on the ability to perform the job.
  4. progressive reforms that instituted a merit-based hiring system



  1. One of the consequences of two-party government is __________.


  1. greater fluidity of representation
  2. the increased likelihood of coalition government — Consider This: If America has multiple parties, there may be a coalition government in order to reduce the political conflicts.
  3. the increased likelihood of proportional representation
  4. the moderation of political conflict



  1. What important role do third parties play in American democracy?


  1. They bring new voters into the electorate.
  2. They frequently win elections in crucial swing states.
  3. They simplify citizens’ choices on Election Day. — Consider This: America has a two party system most of the time.
  4. They draft most legislation that is eventually enacted by one of the major parties.


  1. The __________ is the formal structure of the political party that sets rules for party operations, pursues electoral victories, and keeps the party running between elections.


  1. party as an organization
  2. party as provider
  3. party in the electorate — Consider This: Political Party is the group of the people that tries to win the election.
  4. party in government



  1. The responsible party model implies that parties should __________.


  1. adhere to the party platform
  2. make the best decisions for the country despite what public opinion suggests — Consider This: In order to win the election, the party should appeal to as many voters as possible.
  3. use more patronage
  4. be more accountable to interest group demands





  1. A major party realignment occurred during the initial election of President _________.


  1. Barack Obama
  2. George W. Bush
  3. Franklin Roosevelt
  4. Herbert Hoover — Consider This: Party realignment is a long term shift of party allegiance by individuals and groups.



  1. Which is not a true statement on congressional voting on Presidential agendas?


  1. party -line voting is very common
  2. bi-partisan voting is possible
  3. president opposition party sometimes vote for the legislation — Consider This: President sometimes gets more support from the opposition party rather than his own party.
  4. a president’s wish is always respected by his party



  1. What is the most basic task of a political party?


  1. reflect people’s wish on public policy — Consider This: Parties can do this after they become a government.
  2. develops a new policy according to the social change
  3. winning elections
  4. guarantees the freedom of religion



  1. The __________ is the official statement of a political party’s policy alternatives.


  1. articles of incorporation
  2. party constitution — Consider This: Party’s official statement on various policy is adopted every 4 years at the convention.
  3. platform
  4. gavel



  1. Who are most likely to engage in ticket splitting?


  1. nonvoters
  2. Democrats — Consider This: Ticket splitting occurs when a voter does not have a strong party affiliation.
  3. Independents
  4. Republicans



  1. Which of these is an electoral “earthquake” where new issues emerge, new coalitions replace old ones, and the majority party may be displaced by the minority party?


  1. a critical election
  2. a midterm election
  3. a coalition election — Consider This: Party realignment is usually followed after these elections.
  4. a seismological election



  1. The New Deal coalition fell apart after nearly four decades of political control with the movement of __________ from the Democratic Party to the Republican Party.


  1. urbanites
  2. Catholics and Jews
  3. Asians and Hispanics — Consider This: Ethnic minorities are still more likely to vote for Democrat.
  4. Southern conservatives



  1. Which of the following is a potential danger associated with open primaries?


  1. The other party can “raid” the primary to vote for the least viable candidate.
  2. Open primaries may result in the election of more extreme candidates.
  3. The presence of too many candidates on the ballot can confuse voters. — Consider This: Primary election is the process to select the best candidate among the many potential candidates..
  4. Open primaries give too much power to those who reside outside of the district.




  1. Part of Anthony Downs’s rational-choice model is that __________.


  1. voters want to maximize the chance that their preferred policies will be adopted by government
  2. logic and reason always prevail in the American electorate
  3. party identity will lose its importance over the next 100 years
  4. voters are acting rationally when they vote against their self-interest — Consider This: Rational choice assumes that individuals act in their own best interest.



  1. How is the national chair of the president’s party selected?


  1. elected in the primary during midterm election years
  2. selected by the president and routinely ratified by the national committee
  3. selected by the governors belonging to the president’s party
  4. elected by the president’s party’s congressional delegation — Consider This: The head of the political party that controls the white house is the president.



  1. What is the party in the electorate?


  1. party officers who seek to educate the public on key party stances
  2. public officials who are registered with a political party
  3. voters active in the business of the party — Consider This: About 60 percent of people identify themselves as a Democrat or Republican.
  4. all citizens who claim to be a member of a political party



  1. Critics of the responsible party model claim that __________.


  1. it has contributed to the vilification of the word compromise
  2. it causes unneeded tension between Democrats and Republicans — Consider This: It is almost impossible to make a policy that satisfies everyone..
  3. it is unwise because it is not subject to constitutional constraints
  4. it is too simple for the complexity and diversity of American society



  1. The years 1860–1928 saw the dominance of which party?


  1. Democratic-Republicans
  2. Democrats — Consider This: President Lincoln was elected as president in 1860.
  3. Federalists
  4. Republicans



  1. Today’s youngest voters are most likely to identify as __________.


  1. partisans
  2. Democrats — Consider This: Younger voters are less partisan than older voters.
  3. Independents
  4. Republicans



  1. How are critical elections and party realignments interrelated?


  1. A party realignment is a larger version of a critical election.
  2. A party realignment is a smaller version of a critical election.
  3. A party realignment occurs before one or more critical elections and may be characterized by gradual or dramatic change. — Consider This: Party realignment is a long term shift of party allegiance after certain political and social changes.
  4. A party realignment occurs as a result of one or more critical elections and may be associated with a national crisis.



  1. The national __________ is the supreme power of the national party organization.


  1. assembly
  2. convention
  3. delegation — Consider This: It meets every four years to nominate the candidate and write a party platform..
  4. legislature




  1. Which president forged the New Deal coalition?
  2. Lyndon Johnson — Consider This: The New Deal was proposed to overcome the Great Depression.
  3. William McKinley
  4. Franklin Roosevelt
  5. Harry Truman




  1. Richard Nixon’s __________ attempted to bring conservatives over to the Republican Party in what was a Democratic stronghold at the time.


  1. Southern strategy
  2. Western strategy
  3. suburban strategy
  4. urban strategy — Consider This: Former Confederate states remain as conservative states.



  1. What does Ralph Nader’s 2000 presidential election bid illustrate regarding the role of third parties?


  1. third parties’ ineffective organization — Consider This: Third parties rarely win the election, but is capable of getting a small portion of electorate’s support.
  2. third parties’ absence of media attention
  3. third parties’ poor candidate choices
  4. third parties’ potential to affect the outcome of the election



  1. A key component of Anthony Downs’s rational-choice model is that __________.


  1. voters want to maximize the country’s well-being — Consider This: The Rational Choice model assumes that individuals act in their own interest.
  2. voters want to maximize party-line victories
  3. parties want to have meaningful policy debates
  4. parties want to win office



  1. Who runs the national party organizations between conventions?


  1. the parties in the electorate
  2. the state party organizations — Consider This: States send representatives to compose this group.
  3. the party’s congressional caucus
  4. the party’s national committee




  1. Party dealignment is associated with __________.


  1. an increase in labor unions
  2. increasingly politicized evangelical congregations
  3. an increase in divided government
  4. a rising number of Democrats — Consider This: Party dealignment encourages ticket splitting voting choices.



  1. Advocates of the responsible party model believe parties should craft a platform, candidates should run on that platform, and the majority party should __________.
  2. implement it
  3. refine it according to officeholders’ preferences
  4. set it aside and craft a new platform that it will attempt to enact
  5. do whatever is necessary to stay in the majority — Consider This: Political party is supposed to carry out what they promised to do during the campaign.




  1. The shift in political coalitions that stemmed from the 1896 presidential election resulted in __________.


  1. a critical election — Consider This: The 1896 election was an electoral earthquake.
  2. a party dealignment
  3. a party realignment
  4. the New Deal coalition



  1. The loyal opposition in the era of Democratic President Andrew Jackson was __________.


  1. Republican party — Consider This: The Republican party rose in the 1850s.
  2. Federalist
  3. the Whig Party
  4. the progressive party



  1. The late 1960s marked the start of __________.


  1. dealignment
  2. the New Deal coalition — Consider This: The New Deal coalition was created after the Great Recession and lasted until the 1960s.
  3. the era of good feelings
  4. the third-party era




  1. When can a party change its platform?


  1. after the census
  2. at the start of each fiscal year
  3. during its national party convention
  4. every two years — Consider This: Party platform is adopted every four years.



  1. Of the following, who is most likely to split their ticket?
  2. younger voters
  3. older voters
  4. angry voters — Consider This: Independent voters usually split their tickets.
  5. minorities




  1. According to the Downs model, candidates are ideologically likely to place themselves __________.


  1. at the center — Consider This: If political parties stand at the center, there is no difference between parties..
  2. near the center
  3. somewhat close to the extremes
  4. as far to the left or right as possible



  1. What is a disadvantage of divided government?


  1. It acts as a check and balance across institutions. — Consider This: Gridlock is the usual consequence of divided government.
  2. It often expands the scope of government.
  3. It does not allow for clear accountability on policy.
  4. It often stunts economic growth.



  1. European democracies have more parties in positions of political power than does the United States because of their use of __________.


  1. party platforms
  2. winner-take-all systems — Consider This: Winner-take-all-system usually creates two party system.
  3. critical elections
  4. proportional representation



  1. Which demographic group was a key part of the New Deal coalition?


  1. African Americans
  2. rural voters
  3. the wealthy — Consider This: The New deal coalition supported the Democratic party.
  4. Protestants



  1. Why are coalition governments so prevalent in parliamentary systems?


  1. Parliamentary systems are nonpartisan, but coalition governments can often act much like parties.
  2. The winner-take-all system that is used in parliamentary systems encourages coalition governments. — Consider This: Winner-take-all-system usually creates two party system.
  3. Coalition governments discourage third parties.
  4. In a multiparty system with proportional representation, single parties usually do not win a majority of the seats.



  1. Which has partly filled the void left by the decline of the urban party machine?


  1. labor unions — Consider This: Local party organizations help state and local candidates.
  2. corporations
  3. family farmers and small business owners
  4. county parties







Campaigns and Voting Behavior



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. The Democratic and Republican candidates for president are formally nominated at the __________.


  1. national party committees
  2. presidential primaries and caucuses — Consider This: Primary and Caucuses are done by state to select delegates.
  3. Electoral College
  4. national party conventions



  1. A campaign might use __________ to solicit campaign contributions from those who have supported candidates with similar views in the past.


  1. soft money — Consider This: Soft money is the campaign contribution to the political party.
  2. caucuses
  3. direct mail
  4. frontloading




  1. In 2016, the amount an individual could legally contribute to a candidate’s campaign was __________.


  1. $100
  2. $1,000
  3. $2,700
  4. $25,000 — Consider This: An individual contribution is called hard money, which is limited to reduce political influence by money.



  1. Prior to being banned in 2002 by the McCain-Feingold Act, unlimited monetary contributions that were earmarked for party-building expenses at the grassroots level or for generic party advertising were known as __________.


  1. hard money — Consider This: Hard money is a campaign contribution which is made directly to a specific candidate.
  2. soft money
  3. matching funds
  4. support funds




  1. Researchers studying campaigns stress that campaigns can have what three effects on voters?


  1. selection, application, and alteration — Consider This: Campaign mobilizes previous and new supporters as well as encourages them to participate in the campaign.
  2. reinforcement, alteration, and adaptation
  3. activation, fortification, and collection
  4. reinforcement, activation, and conversion



  1. If no candidate receives an Electoral College majority, the election is decided in the __________.


  1. Senate — Consider This: The Senate chooses the vice president.
  2. House of Representatives
  3. Elections and Campaigns Committee
  4. Supreme Court



  1. Because there is barely any time between the end of one campaign and the beginning of the next, some people have called the American electoral process __________.


  1. “the endless commercial” — Consider This: A campaign begins right after the previous election is over.
  2. “the permanent campaign”
  3. “the road to nowhere”
  4. “quadruple overtime”



  1. In which of the following countries is voter turnout lowest?


  1. Australia — Consider This: European and other democratic countries’ turnout rate is pretty high.
  2. Belgium
  3. United States
  4. Denmark


  1. Which group is more likely to vote?


  1. low income people
  2. young age group
  3. ethnic minorities — Consider This: Who votes is closely related with socioeconomic status.
  4. a college degree holders



  1. Which of the following is a cost of voting?


  1. political efficacy
  2. civic duty
  3. becoming informed
  4. paying money to vote — Consider This: The poll tax was eliminated.




  1. The 2012 election was the first time that __________ voted at a higher rather than_________________.


  1. Hispanics, non-Hispanic whites
  2. Asians Hispanics
  3. Hispanics, African Americans — Consider This: Minorities’ turnout rate is typically lower than that of whites.
  4. African Americans, non-Hispanic whites



  1. According to exit poll data, which of the following group’s members were most likely to vote for Donald Trump in 2016?


  1. Jews
  2. Hispanics – Consider This: While Trump did not do as poorly with Hispanics as estimated, this group of people were not most likely to vote for Trump.
  3. younger voters
  4. Non-Hispanic whites



  1. Why do presidential candidates tend to focus their efforts on battleground states?


  1. Battleground states have the most Electoral College votes. — Consider This: A handful of states will decide the election result.
  2. Battleground states have more electors than they would deserve if electors were allocated by population.
  3. Candidates focus on battleground states in order to increase their media exposure.
  4. The winner-take-all system makes battleground states more relevant to a campaign.



  1. Which of the following is true about states with caucuses?


  1. Voters attend open meetings where they express their presidential preferences.
  2. The state legislature selects the state’s delegates to the national conventions. — Consider This: Voters will select the preferred candidate directly.
  3. Party officials select delegates according to their own preferences.
  4. Candidates appoint supporters to serve as delegates who will attend the national convention



  1. How did the McGovern–Fraser Commission make the delegate selection process of the Democratic Party more representative and open to input from the public?


  1. by requiring delegate selection procedures to be open to all party members
  2. by increasing the number of delegates chosen
  3. by weakening the power of registered party members to choose convention delegates — Consider This: The American party system has developed more democratic ways.
  4. by encouraging the use of presidential caucuses rather than primaries



  1. One impact of the Internet on political campaigns is that __________.


  1. Most people are using the Internet as their only source of campaign information — Consider This: Traditional media is still the major source of campaign information for the general public.
  2. Most people are receiving direct mail from candidates
  3. more people are making small political donations
  4. more people are becoming highly and accurately informed about the candidates



  1. Which of the following was one of the requirements of the Federal Election Campaign Act?


  1. All campaign funds must be spent within the state where the candidate is running for election (or in any state for presidential candidates).
  2. Candidates for Congress must contribute at least 10 percent of their net worth to the campaign.
  3. Congressional campaigns cannot accept contributions of more than $100 from individual citizens. — Consider This: The current limit on hard money is $2,500, but it has to be disclosed.
  4. All candidates for federal office must disclose who contributed money to their campaigns.



  1. Donations to __________ do not have to be disclosed unless a donor gives money specifically for a political ad.


  1. 527 groups — Consider This: There is no contribution limit on this group, but it has to be disclosed.
  2. 501(c) groups
  3. political action committees (PACs)
  4. candidates’ campaigns



  1. What is the phenomenon that people’s beliefs often guide what they pay attention to and how they interpret events?


  1. scorekeeping
  2. agenda setting — Consider This: People will regard the issue as more important if the media repeatedly reports it as important.
  3. selective perception
  4. frontloading



  1. How many U.S. states employ a winner-take-all presidential election system in which all their electors are awarded to the presidential candidate who wins the most votes statewide?


  1. five
  2. 26
  3. 48
  4. all 50 — Consider This: Nebraska and Maine do not adopt the winner-take-all-system.



  1. The Electoral College introduces a bias into the campaign and electoral process because __________.


  1. all states get the same number of electoral votes
  2. each state has as many electoral votes as it has representatives
  3. less populated states are overrepresented
  4. more populous states are overrepresented — Consider This: Each state gets two electors equally. Then additional electors are allocated based on the population.



  1. Why do winning candidates claim a mandate even though political scientists generally discredit the mandate theory of elections?


  1. Politicians think that political scientists do not understand how things actually work.
  2. Voters do not necessarily prefer all of the winning candidate’s issue positions. — Consider This: Election promises should be carried out by the winning party or candidate.
  3. Winning candidates want to justify their policy proposals by claiming that the public supports them.
  4. Winning candidates are not well versed in the political science literature.



  1. Of the following, who would be most likely to vote?


  1. someone who thinks that both candidates are moderate
  2. someone who thinks that both candidates are very conservative
  3. someone with a high sense of political efficacy
  4. someone who sees few differences between the candidates — Consider This: If you believe you can influence the government, you will be more likely to vote.


  1. Which of the following makes it harder to vote?


  1. vote-by-mail laws
  2. the Motor Voter Act
  3. Election Day voter registration laws — Consider This: Many new election laws have raised concerns that it may prevent certain groups from voting.
  4. voter ID laws



  1. Which states tend to have higher voter turnout?


  1. States with photo ID laws
  2. States with Election Day voter registration
  3. States with a lot of low education level voters
  4. States with a lot of young voters — Consider This: The easier to register, the more voters vote.



  1. Which of the following groups is overrepresented among voters?


  1. government workers
  2. people who are single
  3. younger citizens
  4. minorities — Consider This: Non-voters are underrepresented.



  1. Which of the following helps to explain why voter turnout is lower in the United States than in other democracies?


  1. The United States hold fewer elections — Consider This: The United States has many elections to elect many officeholders from only two parties.
  2. The United States elects fewer officeholders.
  3. The United States hold elections midweek.
  4. The United States has a multiple partisan election system.


  1. A floating voter is someone who __________.


  1. is elated at the outcome of an election
  2. votes based on the candidates and not party loyalty
  3. registers to vote on Election Day — Consider This: A floating voter is virtually similar to an independent voter.
  4. votes in presidential elections but not in midterm elections



  1. Which of the following has made it easier for contemporary voters to choose the best person for the office, regardless of party?


  1. advances in information technology
  2. increased polarization in Congress
  3. the media’s tendency to focus on policy issues — Consider This: Contemporary voters are able to access the information they want.
  4. candidate ID laws



  1. The Founders created the Electoral College because they wanted the president to be selected by __________.


  1. Congress
  2. ordinary Americans — Consider This: The Founders did not believe in allowing ordinary, uneducated Americans to select the president.
  3. elites
  4. the Supreme Court



  1. If you were running a campaign for a relatively unknown presidential candidate, you would want to allow plenty of time for your candidate to __________.


  1. travel extensively in Iowa before the caucuses
  2. visit major cities in California during the election campaign — Consider This: Building up early momentum is very important for the candidate.
  3. meet the people in small towns in Texas
  4. go door-to-door greeting voters



  1. A serious presidential candidate must invest in __________.


  1. newspaper ads aimed at the 55-65 age group
  2. staff to handle high-tech and computer technologies
  3. television ads aimed at the 18–29 age group — Consider This: The Internet now plays a major role in political campaign.
  4. an international relations specialist to solicit campaign contributions from foreign nations and multinational corporations



  1. Research suggests that political campaigns are most likely to successfully convert voters when they __________.


  1. use “wedge” issues on which the other party is divided
  2. make appeals based on party affiliation
  3. make unrealistic promises
  4. buy radio and Internet advertisements — Consider This: A candidate can convert the opponent’s supporters when those supporters are not satisfied with their candidate.



  1. Which states should a presidential campaign focus on in the general election?


  1. states with a higher percentage of registered voters
  2. states with strong economies
  3. large states — Consider This: A handful of states will decide the election result.
  4. battleground states



  1. One of the downsides to the American system of presidential campaigns and elections is that __________.


  1. party leaders select a candidate in the smoke-filled room decision
  2. a person who might be an excellent president could be discouraged from running because the process is so onerous
  3. the candidate who wins the popular vote is not always the candidate who received the most votes — Consider This: If you win the popular vote, you will receive the most votes too.
  4. winning candidates are legally required to keep their campaign promises or face a fine levied by the Federal Elections Commission according to the veracity of the violation



  1. Of the following people, who is most likely to participate in a presidential caucus?


  1. someone who works two jobs
  2. a single mom
  3. someone who is an independent — Consider This: Caucus is a primary election, which usually have a very low turnout rate.
  4. a party activist



  1. Which of the following would be the most likely to increase voter turnout in the United States?
  2. holding more elections
  3. making registration automatic for all citizens rather than compelling them to register
  4. electing more officeholders
  5. minimizing the differences between the parties — Consider This: The easier to register, the more voters vote.



  1. Which of the following statements indicates a high level of political efficacy?


  1. “I should vote to honor those who sacrificed their lives to make America free.”
  2. “Voting in the United States is so easy that there is no excuse for not voting.”
  3. “People like me can influence what the government does.”
  4. “Democracy is only democratic if citizens participate in the process.” — Consider This: A high level of political efficacy makes an individual believe that he/she can influence the government.



  1. Which of the following is consistent with the mandate theory of elections?


  1. the idea that voter turnout is higher when citizens are required to vote and are fined if they fail to do so
  2. the belief that a functional democracy mandates electoral participation by a large number of voters — Consider This: Election promises should be carried out by the winning party or candidate).
  3. Mitt Romney’s claim that Obama won the 2012 presidential election because he had given gifts to various constituency groups
  4. Barack Obama’s claim that his victory in 2012 meant that the public wanted to raise taxes on the wealthy



  1. If the president were selected by popular vote instead of by the Electoral College, which of the following cities would a presidential campaign be least likely to visit?


  1. Miami, Florida
  2. Green Bay, Wisconsin
  3. New York, New York — Consider This: If the president is selected by popular vote, candidates will skip or ignore the rural areas and small towns.
  4. Chicago, Illinois



  1. An examination of the number of campaign visits by Hillary Clinton and Barack Obama in the 2008 Democratic presidential nomination contests suggests that __________.


  1. geographically larger states receive the most attention from the candidates during the nomination campaign
  2. states with more electoral votes receive more attention from the candidates during the nomination campaign — Consider This: For the primary election, building early momentum by winning early elections is very important.
  3. states with early caucuses and primaries receive a disproportionate amount of attention from candidates during the nomination campaign
  4. Obama won the election because he visited more states than did Clinton



  1. Thomas Patterson’s observation that “today’s presidential campaign is essentially a mass media campaign” suggests that __________.
  2. voters have very little understanding of the campaign apart from what they see and hear in the media
  3. the media exercise little influence over a vast number of citizens’ votes
  4. campaigns are for the masses and are mediated by political elites
  5. the media control electoral outcomes — Consider This: The media provides the tools for voters to understand the world and candidates.



  1. __________ was an unintended result of changes to the Federal Election Campaign Act that allowed parties to raise and spend money on voter registration and other campaign materials without limits on spending or the size of contributions that they could accept.


  1. Party discretionary funding
  2. Party expenditure exemption — Consider This: A contribution made to a candidate directly is referred to as “hard money”.
  3. Soft money
  4. Walking-around money



  1. How would switching to direct election of the president affect non-battleground states like Texas?


  1. Texas would receive more attention from candidates trying to win votes in major population centers like Houston, Dallas, and San Antonio.
  2. Texas would receive less attention from candidates because it would no longer be a battleground state.
  3. Texas would receive very little attention from candidates because it is currently a safe state.
  4. Texas would become a safe state for the other party. — Consider This: Direct election is not a winner-take-all system.




  1. Why are people with higher-than-average education more likely to vote?


  1. Education depresses political efficacy, which then encourages turnout.
  2. Education increases intolerance, which then encourages turnout.
  3. Education helps voters recognize differences between the candidates.
  4. Education enables voters to calculate the probability that their vote will decide the election. — Consider This: Educated people tend to be more capable of discerning the major difference between the candidates.



  1. Why is it sometimes difficult for citizens to engage in policy voting?


  1. Competing candidates usually have the same positions on issues.
  2. Candidates are often intentionally vague about their issue stances.
  3. The media tend to overwhelm voters with policy information. — Consider This: Candidates sometimes present unclear issue positions to avoid a controversial issue.
  4. Election officials prevent using policy-based voter guides in the voting booth.



  1. How does party identification simplify the voting process?


  1. It enables voters to select from a wider array of candidates.
  2. It provides a cue as to which candidate a voter is more likely to prefer.
  3. It eliminates the need to produce a photo ID in order to vote.
  4. It reduces the policy differences between the candidates. — Consider This: Party identification provide a regular perspective through which voters can view the political world.






Interest Groups



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. James Madison described how a government could be designed to control the effects of __________.


  1. monarchies
  2. factions
  3. representative government
  4. aristocracies Consider This: Madison wanted to design a government that could control the influence of interest groups, not political parties.



  1. When a case that an interest group is interested in comes before the Supreme Court, the group can __________.


  1. meet with judges to explain the group’s policy preferences
  2. file an amicus curiae brief in support of one side of the case
  3. appeal the case to a higher court. — Consider This: There is no higher court than the Supreme Court.
  4. legally offer monetary incentives to the justices as long as the interest group is not a party to the case



  1. Elitists generally argue that __________.


  1. all legitimate groups are able to affect public policy by one means or another. — Consider This: Actually pluralism argues this, elitism argues that one group holds the power.
  2. corporations hold tremendous power
  3. the American political terrain is characterized by a dispersion of power
  4. the government is run for the benefit of all the people


  1. Which of the following raise money from individuals and then distribute it in the form of contributions to political candidates?


  1. 527 organizations. — Consider This: 527’s cannot advocate for specific candidates, coordinate with any candidate’s campaign contribute directly to candidates.
  2. coordinating committees
  3. iron triangles
  4. Political Action Committees (PACs)



  1. According to James Madison, a __________ is a group of individuals concerned more with their self-interest than with the rights of individuals outside the group or with the needs of society as a whole.


  1. faction
  2. political party. — Consider This: Political parties advocate the interests of multiple groups and the needs of society as a whole.
  3. single-issue organization
  4. special interest group



  1. Generally speaking, Political Action Committee (PAC) and Super PAC contributions have __________.


  1. become increasingly important in congressional elections
  2. decreased for incumbents but increased for challengers and open seats. — Consider This: PAC contributions tend to go to incumbents because they are the strongest candidates.
  3. become less important in federal elections and more important in state elections
  4. become less important



  1. A(n) __________ refers to an organization of people with shared policy goals entering the policy process at several points to try to achieve those goals.


  1. corporation. — Consider This: A corporation is a business entity that is formed to maximize profits in a sector of the economy.
  2. interest group
  3. iron triangle.
  4. faction



  1. What is lobbying?


  1. communication as a representative of a group with government officials to persuade them to support a particular policy
  2. conducting surveys to gauge public opinion on a policy issue
  3. convincing potential members to join an interest group by offering them material benefits. — Consider This: This is what interest groups to increase their membership but this not lobbying.
  4. fundraising for political candidates and educating the public about the activities of government



  1. The __________ problem occurs when people fail to join a group because they can get the benefits the group offers without contributing to the group’s efforts.


  1. free-rider
  2. pluralist
  3. collective goods. — Consider This: This is the aim of many interest groups and is not considered a problem.
  4. group coordination




  1. What is a trade association?


  1. an organization that represents the federal government during the negotiation of international trade agreements
  2. an organization that coordinates exchanges of information and resources among multiple interest groups
  3. a type of labor union. — Consider This: A labor union represents the interest of the union members and not management or company interests.
  4. an organization that represents businesses within a specific industry



  1. What is a public interest lobby?


  1. a group that conducts research and analysis on public policy issues
  2. a group that expresses its political views publicly
  3. a group that believes it is working to benefit society as a whole
  4. a group that represents workers within a particular industry. — Consider This: This is what labor unions do, not public interest lobbies.



  1. In order to overcome the free-rider problem, many interest groups offer selective benefits. What are selective benefits?


  1. the policies that interest groups help to bring about
  2. gifts given to members of Congress in return for their support on legislation. — Consider This: Interest groups cannot give members of Congress gifts in exchange for votes. This is illegal.
  3. benefits given only to group members
  4. campaign contributions to elected officials




  1. What is an amicus curiae brief?


  1. a written argument submitted to a court in support of one side of a case
  2. an internal memo circulated among interest group leaders, briefing them on the details of a court case
  3. a petition submitted to Congress in support of or opposition to a judicial nominee
  4. a petition submitted to an executive branch agency, requesting a review of the agency’s decision. — Consider This: The amicus curiae brief is a request made to the courts, not an executive agency.



  1. Which of the following is the main type of organization that lobbies on behalf of workers?


  1. public interest group
  2. trade association. — Consider This: This type of organization lobbies in support of business groups.
  3. union shop
  4. labor union



  1. What is an iron triangle?


  1. a joining together of interest groups or individuals to achieve common goals
  2. a form of sub government composed of leaders of interest groups, government agencies, and congressional committees
  3. a nonprofit, tax-free policy planning organization that concentrates on policy development
  4. an organization that solicits and receives campaign contributions from corporations, unions, trade associations, and other groups. — Consider This: This is a political action committee and not an iron triangle.



  1. What is a Political Action Committee (PAC)?


  1. an organization within a political party that coordinates campaign events. — Consider This: Political action committees are groups outside a political party and are not supposed to coordinate activities with a political party.
  2. an organizations that focuses on grassroots lobbying
  3. an organization that conducts voter registration drives
  4. an organization that solicits campaign contributions from like-minded individuals and distributes them to political candidates



  1. Which of the following is hyperpluralists’ main criticism of the interest group system?


  1. Government is too deferential to interest groups’ demands.
  2. Interest groups are too weak to have much influence in government. — Consider This: This theory argues that interest groups have too much influence over government.
  3. Elected officials are unresponsive to requests from interest groups.
  4. Labor unions tend to dominate over other types of interest groups.



  1. Which of the following is an example of a public interest lobby?


  1. a consumer rights group
  2. a trade association
  3. a labor union. — Consider This: A labor union advocates for the interest of union member and not the general public.
  4. a group representing alpaca ranchers



  1. Which of the following statements best represents the hyperpluralist view?


  1. All legitimate interests in the political system can get a hearing from government once they are organized. — Consider This: This view argues that some interest groups have a lot more power than others.
  2. Awesome power is held by the largest corporations.
  3. There are too many special interest groups getting too much of what they want.
  4. When one group throws its weight around too much, its opponents are likely to intensify their organization and thus restore balance to the system.



  1. What do right-to-work laws uphold?


  1. amicus curiae briefs
  2. workers’ rights to collective goods
  3. the requirement that workers in a union shop must join the union. — Consider This: Union membership is not required in all states.
  4. workers’ freedom to decline the opportunity to join a union



  1. Which of the following is an example of a business interest group?


  1. the National Rifle Association
  2. the American Association of Retired People (AARP). — Consider This: The AARP advocates for the interest of retired Americans.
  3. the Chamber of Commerce
  4. the National Education Association



  1. What type of group is a trade association?


  1. an economic interest group
  2. a public interest group
  3. a public sector interest group
  4. a labor union. — Consider This: A labor union advocates for the interest of union member, not the industry that they are employed in.



  1. How did James Madison propose to overcome the problem of factions in Federalist No. 10?


  1. by adopting a system of direct democracy. — Consider This: Direct democracy would make the issue a factions worse.
  2. by banning the formation of interest groups
  3. by discouraging citizens from expressing their political views in public
  4. by expanding their sphere of participation



  1. Critics of pluralism have noted that __________.
  2. government decisions reflect the balance of competing interests in society. — Consider This: This is actually an argument of pluralism and not a criticism.
  3. power is concentrated in the hands of the few
  4. individuals with shared grievances usually form interest groups to press their demands upon government
  5. the formation of one group typically stimulates the formation of an opposing group



  1. Which of the following is a typical way for lobbyists to seek to influence members of Congress?


  1. by offering them money to vote a particular way. — Consider This: This is bribery and is illegal.
  2. by filing amicus curiae briefs
  3. by organizing protests and demonstrations on Capitol Hill
  4. by providing specialized expertise


Difficulty Level: Moderate


  1. How do interest groups lobby the courts?


  1. through letter-writing campaigns addressed to particular judges
  2. by publishing editorials in major newspapers stating their views on cases
  3. by bringing lawsuits to the courts on behalf of classes of citizens
  4. by meeting with judges to express their views on cases. — Consider This: Judges do not meet with outside parties to discuss their views on cases.



  1. Which of the following argue that the formation of so many influential interest groups has made it increasingly difficult to accomplish major policy change in Washington?


  1. Elitists — Consider This: This theory argues that only a few groups control the actions of government.
  2. Federalists
  3. hyperpluralists
  4. labor unions



  1. Which of the following is an example of the free-rider problem?


  1. a political action committee contributing to candidates from both major political parties. — Consider This: This is a common practice of interest groups and is not an example of the free-rider problem.
  2. an elected official relying on information from lobbyists
  3. an environmentalist deciding not to join an environmental group but appreciating the group’s environmental stewardship
  4. an environmental group disagreeing on what policy goals to pursue



  1. Which of the following is a pluralist belief?


  1. Only wealthy interests have influence over government decisions.
  2. Government decisions reflect the preferences of elites. — Consider This: This is an argument of the elitist theory and not the pluralist theory.
  3. A rough approximation of the public interest emerges from competition between groups.
  4. Policymakers care more about public opinion than interest groups’ preferences.



  1. What are Political Action Committees (PACs) seeking when they give campaign contributions?


  1. illegal kickbacks.
  2. public recognition for their contributions to society
  3. access to the officeholder
  4. publicity for their favorite charities and nonprofit organizations. — Consider This: PACs are not looking to get publicity for their contributions to candidates. If anything, they are looking to avoid too much publicity.



  1. An interest group filing an amicus curiae brief is an example of __________.


  1. grassroots lobbying. — Consider This: Grassroots lobbying is when interest are trying to influence an elected official by conducting interest groups activities in his home district or state. It is not aimed at influencing the other two branches of government.
  2. how interest groups influence elections
  3. lobbying an executive branch agency
  4. lobbying the judicial branch




  1. Which of the following is an activity that lobbyists regularly engage in?


  1. answering e-mails from elected officials’ constituents
  2. speaking on behalf of elected officials at press conferences. — Consider This: Lobbyist do not try to speak for elected officials but try to influence the actions of those officials.
  3. providing elected officials with innovative ideas for addressing a policy problem
  4. providing legal counsel to interest groups in court cases




  1. What is one of the reasons that interest groups have proliferated over the past half century?


  1. Developments in technology made interest group activities easier.
  2. The increasing power of political parties led to more interest group formation.
  3. A decrease in the scope of government brought out interest groups seeking to protect their interests. — Consider This: In reality, the increase in government activity has produced an increase in interest group activities by creating more points of access.
  4. Legal restrictions on lobbying activities were lifted as part of the New Deal.



  1. Which of the following interest groups is an example of an equality interest?


  1. the United Auto Workers
  2. the National Organization for Women
  3. the World Wildlife Fund
  4. Common Cause. — Consider This: This is a public interest group that advocates for the interest of the general public and is not trying to achieve equality for any one group.



  1. What does intensity contribute to the success of an interest group?


  1. Intensity often leads groups to advocate for more than they can realistically get, and the final result is that they get nothing.
  2. Intense interest group members often scare away other potential members with less intense beliefs. — Consider This: Actually intense interest groups try to attract those who are equally intense.
  3. Politicians are more likely to listen to a group showing intensity.
  4. Intensity weeds out the free riders in a group, resulting in a more heterogeneous group.



  1. Why are campaign contributions so important for interest groups seeking to influence government?


  1. Legislators only grant meetings with interest groups that offer campaign contributions.
  2. Members of Congress are better listeners when hearing from interests that financially supported their campaign.
  3. Groups can offer contributions in return for favorable votes on pending legislation.
  4. Organizations seeking to offer input on a political party’s platform are required to make campaign contributions. — Consider This: There is no such requirement. Groups that do contribute to parties are not guaranteed access to the party platform.



  1. You are the leader of an environmental organization working to address the problem of climate change. What would be the most effective way to overcome the free-rider problem?


  1. Describe the harmful consequences of global warming.
  2. Explain how future generations will benefit from enacting climate change legislation.
  3. Offer a T-shirt as an incentive to join the group.
  4. Publicly criticize those who don’t join the group. — Consider This: Publicly criticizing those who don’t join an interest group is likely to reinforce their opposition to joining the group.




  1. What is the main goal of each of the three elements of an iron triangle?


  1. abolishing free-riders
  2. creating more opportunities for collective action. — Consider This: Iron triangles are an example of collective action that is designed to achieve a goal. The question is asking what the goal of the collective action is.
  3. fostering democratic deliberation
  4. protecting their self-interests



  1. How did the Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995 affect lobbyists?


  1. It limited the number of hours each lobbyist could work during a single session of Congress. — Consider This: There is no legal limit on the number of hours a lobbyist can work.
  2. It required all lobbyists to join the Labor Union of American Lobbyists and Government Relations Experts.
  3. It set limits on how many lobbyists could be employed by a PAC.
  4. It required lobbyists to file a report detailing the sources of their lobbying income.




  1. Which of the following is an example of a single-issue interest group?


  1. the National Abortion Rights Action League.
  2. the Chamber of Commerce. — Consider This: The Chamber of Commerce advocates the interest of multiple businesses and industries.
  3. Common Cause
  4. the National Wholesalers Association



  1. Which is a consequence of hyperpluralism?


  1. reduced agency budgets
  2. termination of government programs
  3. contradictory and confusing policies
  4. growth in the number of political parties. — Consider This: Hyperpluralism relates to the increase in interest groups and not political parties.



  1. Which of the following statements about campaign contributions made by corporate PACs to candidates for the U.S. House of Representatives is true?


  1. In each race, corporate PACs direct their donations to support whichever candidate most closely shares their ideological values.
  2. Corporate PACs give most of their contributions to Democrats. — Consider This: Corporate PACs give to each political party.
  3. A majority of corporate PAC contributions to House candidates go to the candidates of the majority party.
  4. Corporate PACs give most of their money to those running for open seats.



  1. What is the main objective of most labor unions?


  1. to protect consumers from unsafe products
  2. to protect the interests of businesses within an industry. — Consider This: Trade associations try to protect the interests of business within an industry.
  3. to promote better working conditions and higher wages
  4. to provide jobs for the unemployed



  1. In which of the following might Political Action Committees (PACs) invest their contributions in order to maximize their political influence?


  1. members of the minority party in Congress. — Consider This: Since the minority party has limited political influence, PAC contributions to them are not likely to result in much gain.
  2. challengers
  3. incumbents
  4. presidential candidates



  1. Which type of organization would find it easiest to overcome the free-rider problem?


  1. an environmental organization working to pass climate change legislation
  2. a labor union in a state where union membership is optional. — Consider This: In states where union membership is optional, the free rider problem is likely to be worse since union benefits can be gained without joining the union.
  3. a trade association for a small industry
  4. a national organization fighting for women’s rights









p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Each state has __________ senators, each of whom serves a __________-year term.


  1. two; four
  2. two; six
  3. four; two – Consider This: House members have a two year term of office.
  4. four; four



  1. The Constitutional Convention decided on what form of legislature?


  1. bicameral
  2. direct
  3. unified
  4. unicameral – Consider This: A unicameral legislature means a one house or branch legislature. We have more than one branch of our legislature.



  1. In the House of Representatives, who is second in authority to the Speaker of the House?


  1. majority leader
  2. majority whip – Consider This: The majority whip is third in command in the House, not the second.
  3. minority leader
  4. president pro tempore


  1. Members of Congress are generally __________ than the general population.


  1. less partisan – Consider This: Congress is highly partisan and becoming more so.
  2. less well paid
  3. happier
  4. wealthier



  1. __________ is a good example of congressional casework.


  1. Analysis of an incumbent’s policy positions prior to a debate
  2. Analysis of water quality within a district – Consider This: This is something that would be done by a federal agency, not a member of Congress.
  3. Helping a constituent with the Veterans Administration
  4. Giving political speeches at a political party


  1. The pork barrel may aid the district of a member of Congress by __________.


  1. diverting unallocated funds to another government agency
  2. increasing jobs and revenue with federally funded projects
  3. increasing revenue through private market investment – Consider This: The government normally does not make investments in the private market. That is done by banks and other financial institutions.
  4. taxing corporations less so they provide health insurance for employees



  1. The English politician and philosopher Edmund Burke advocated the concept of legislators as __________ who use their best judgment to make policy in the interests of the people.


  1. delegates – Consider This: A delegate is a member of Congress who bases their decision on public opinion or what they think the people want.
  2. trustees
  3. partisans
  4. politicos




  1. Whips serve what function?


  1. to act as official spokespersons for their chambers – Consider This: The spokesperson of the House is the Speaker and the spokesperson for Senate is the majority leader.
  2. to help the Speaker schedule proposed legislation for debate
  3. to meet with members of the executive cabinet
  4. to persuade party members to support the party’s priorities



  1. A filibuster can be ended through __________; it requires the approval of __________ senators.


  1. abrogation; fifty-one
  2. censure; fifty-five – Consider This: To censure means to officially rebuke a member of Congress for their behavior and that only takes a simple majority.
  3. cloture; sixty
  4. discharge; sixty-seven



  1. Which of the following is an advantage congressional incumbents possess in seeking reelection over challengers?


  1. outsider status
  2. financial support from the federal government campaign fund – Consider This:

We currently do not have federal funding for congressional campaigns.

  1. progressive taxes
  2. the franking privilege


  1. Members of the House are apportioned to states based on __________. They serve __________-year terms.


  1. equal representation by state; four – Consider This: Each state has a different number of House members.
  2. equal representation by state; six
  3. population; two
  4. population; four



  1. Which incumbency advantage involves efforts to highlight an incumbent’s service to individuals and to the district?


  1. visibility
  2. credit claiming
  3. lobbying
  4. position taking – Consider This: All candidates highlight their positions on the issues and this does not involve service to the district or individuals.



  1. The __________ makes economic projections about the performance of the economy, the costs of proposed policies, and the economic effects of taxing and spending alternatives.


  1. Congressional Budget Office
  2. Congressional Research Service
  3. House Ways and Means Committee – Consider This: This is the House committee responsible for evaluating tax legislation.
  4. Senate Banking Committee



  1. Over the past three decades, the distance between the political parties in Congress has been growing steadily. As the parties have pulled apart ideologically, they also have become more __________ internally.


  1. libertarian
  2. diverse – Consider This: The differences within in the parties has become smaller not larger so they have become less diverse.
  3. collegial
  4. homogeneous



  1. A __________ is a group of members of Congress who share some interest or characteristic; its goal is to promote the interests around which it is formed.


  1. caucus
  2. colloquium
  3. committee – Consider This: A congressional committee’s job is to process legislation.
  4. conference



  1. __________ committees exist in both the House and Senate, may be temporary or permanent, and usually have a specific focus.


  1. Ways and means
  2. Caucus – Consider This: This is the meeting a member of Congress of the same party that select party leaders.
  3. Select
  4. Steering



  1. Party leaders from the two chambers of Congress sometimes use __________ legislation that addresses numerous and perhaps unrelated issues to create winning coalitions and force members to support the entire bill to obtain the individual parts.


  1. ad hoc
  2. conference – Consider This: The term conference refers to temporary committees that resolve differences in bills between the two branches.
  3. orthodox
  4. omnibus



  1. The vice president of the United States is the ceremonial leader of the Senate, but he or she has little real leadership responsibilities. The leader of the Senate responsible for the brunt of the work of the majority party is the __________.


  1. majority leader
  2. Senate chairperson
  3. president of the Senate – Consider This: The president of the Senate is the vice-president and he plays no formal role in Senate activities.
  4. Speaker




  1. Most of the work of Congress goes on in __________.


  1. recess – Consider This: The term recess means that Congress is not working and is taking a break.
  2. committees
  3. conferences
  4. hearings



  1. To increase turnover in the membership of Congress, some reformers have proposed __________ for representatives and senators.


  1. term limits
  2. credit claiming
  3. franking privileges – Consider This: Franking is the privilege of members of Congress to send mail at government expense. This has nothing to do with member turnover.
  4. incumbency


  1. Of the following groups, which is most underrepresented in Congress?


  1. African Americans
  2. whites – Consider This: Whites are over represented in Congress.
  3. Hispanics
  4. women.



  1. What is the vice president’s only constitutionally defined job?


  1. to look after the “Good and the Welfare of We the People”
  2. to represent the president at official state functions
  3. to preside over the Electoral College – Consider This: The Electoral College does not have a presiding officer as the electors do not meet in the same location to vote.
  4. to serve as president of the Senate



  1. What is substantive representation?


  1. representing groups that provide subsistence for their campaign coffers and not for their policy preferences
  2. representing the interests of groups of which they themselves are not members
  3. representing people and interests that they like personally by voting for legislation that benefits those people
  4. representing constituents by mirroring their personal, politically relevant characteristics – Consider This: Congress does not mirror most citizens as they are less diverse demographically than the general population.



  1. The __________ is the only House official mandated by the Constitution.


  1. majority leader – Consider This: This position is not mandated by the Constitution and is an elected position within each branch of Congress.
  2. majority whip
  3. Sergeant-at-Arms
  4. Speaker of the House



  1. In the House of Representatives, a bill goes to the Rules Committee __________.


  1. after it goes to a conference committee
  2. after it is approved by its full committee
  3. after it is debated in the full House
  4. before it is amended or rewritten in its full committee – Consider This: Subcommittee consideration is what precedes full committee consideration.



  1. One thing that helps incumbents win reelection is __________, which might include federal spending projects benefitting state and local governments, businesses, colleges, and other institutions in a congressional district.


  1. apportionment
  2. casework
  3. the pork barrel
  4. logrolling – Consider This: This is when members of Congress help each other by voting for each other’s legislation. This has nothing to do with re-election.



  1. __________ is defined as the activities of members of Congress that help individual constituents, particularly by cutting through bureaucratic red tape.


  1. Gains from trade
  2. Casework
  3. Logrolling
  4. The pork barrel – Consider This: These are spending projects that create jobs and thus help members of Congress get re-elected. This has nothing to do with cutting re-tape.



  1. A committee created to reconcile differences in versions of a bill passed by the House and Senate is called a(n) __________ committee.


  1. arbitration
  2. conference
  3. standing
  4. appropriations – Consider This: This committee processes spending legislation and does not involve reconciling House and Senate bill differences.


  1. Congress missed the fact that various agencies with responsibility for supervising the banking industry were negligent in identifying looming financial problems that led to the recession of 2008–2009. This suggests a failure of __________.


  1. the seniority system
  2. jurisdiction fragmentation
  3. oversight
  4. the informal organization of Congress – Consider This: Supervision of federal agencies has nothing to do with the organization of Congress.


  1. Because Congress is __________, it is fairly open to interest group influence.


  1. professionalized – Consider This: If it was more professionalized that would make Congress less susceptible to interest group influence.
  2. complex
  3. decentralized
  4. hierarchical


  1. When is lobbying more likely to be successful?


  1. when lobbying against change
  2. when lobbying for an environmental group – Consider This: Lobbying by environmental interest groups tends to be less successful than other groups like labor and industry.
  3. immediately before an election
  4. immediately after an election



  1. Whose job is it to convey the party’s position to rank-and-file congresspersons, keep vote counts, pressure waverers, and report the views and complaints of the House to the party leadership?


  1. committee chairperson
  2. majority leader
  3. whip
  4. Speaker of the House – Consider This: The Speaker of the House is the leader of the House and the presiding officer. They have others do the floor work.



Difficulty Level: Moderate


  1. Which statement about incumbency is most accurate?


  1. Incumbents have a significant reelection advantage.
  2. Incumbents are prohibited from accepting campaign contributions from interest group members. – Consider This: This is just the opposite. They are more likely to receive campaign contributions.
  3. Incumbents only leave office when pressured by party leadership.
  4. Incumbents only leave office when they are involved in a scandal.



  1. Why might incumbents want to deemphasize their policy positions during a reelection campaign?


  1. Voters do not like feeling patronized by discussing policies they are already fully aware of.
  2. Stressing policy positions can make enemies as well as friends.
  3. Stressing policy positions makes voters more uncertain about where the candidate stands on important issues.
  4. Having clear policy positions makes it harder to attract campaign contributions from interest groups. – Consider This: Actually have clear policy positions if they match that of an interest group makes it easier to attract money from the group.


  1. Which example best demonstrates a legislator acting as a trustee of his or her constituency?


  1. A legislator uses his or her best judgment.
  2. A legislator does whatever is best for his or her reelection.
  3. A legislator follows the public opinion of his or her constituency. – Consider This: This would be what a delegate does.
  4. A legislator does what is in the best interest of his or her party.



  1. In the 2011–2012 election cycle, how much money did the average winning House candidate spend?


  1. $1.6 million
  2. $23 million
  3. $200 million
  4. $1 billion – Consider This: This is closer to the amount that is spent by all candidates in any given election cycle.



  1. How are Senate committee chairs generally selected?


  1. by voters – Consider This: Chair positions are leadership positions in Congress and are thus selected according to congressional procedures not by the voters.
  2. according to seniority
  3. according to age
  4. according to tact and decorum



  1. The Constitution specifies that members of the House must be at least __________ years old and American citizens for at least __________ years.


  1. 25; 7
  2. 25; 10
  3. 30; 9
  4. 35; 14 – Consider This: This would be the Constitutional requirements to be President, not House members.



  1. What best represents the trend of party polarization over the last three decades?


  1. The parties have become less polarized because more and more voters are opting to become independents.
  2. Both Republicans and Democrats have become more liberal. – Consider This: Republicans have become more conservative and Democrats more liberal.
  3. While members of Congress have not become more extreme, ordinary citizens have.
  4. Each congressional party has become more homogeneous, and the distance between parties has increased.



  1. Why did the government shut down in 2013?


  1. Congressional Democrats and Republicans could not agree on a budget.
  2. The government shut down because each party wanted to take credit for addressing the ensuing crisis.
  3. The government shut down in order to save money. – Consider This: The government never shuts down to save money. It just borrows more or raises taxes to continue to operate.
  4. Members of Congress forgot to pass the budget.







The Presidency



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Which is a constitutional power that the president shares with the Senate?


  1. making treaties
  2. declaring war — Consider This: While presidents have used executive powers to involve the American military in conflicts abroad, only Congress has the ability to formally declare war.
  3. granting pardons
  4. receiving foreign ambassadors



  1. Which institutional resource is closest and most loyal to the president?


  1. Executive Office of the President (EOP) — Consider This: While the EOP plays a pivotal role in assisting the president, the individuals in these offices are more bureaucratic than personally loyal to any individual president.
  2. White House staff
  3. armed forces
  4. National Security Council



  1. Which citizen is ineligible to become president?


  1. a natural-born citizen
  2. someone who is 37 years old — Consider This: The Constitution only specifies an individual must be older than 35 to serve as president.
  3. someone who has lived in the United States for 20 years
  4. someone who has already been elected president twice



  1. Who breaks a tie in the Senate?


  1. president of the United States — Consider This: The Founders believed in separation of powers; as a result, the president cannot directly participate in the formal legislative process.
  2. vice president of the United States
  3. Speaker of the House
  4. Senate majority leader



  1. Historically, vice presidential candidates have often been chosen to __________.


  1. help set the president’s agenda
  2. mentor the president
  3. placate a symbolic constituency
  4. ensure that the president’s party will have a good chance of winning the next presidential election — Consider This: While there is something to be said for grooming vice presidents to be president, the selection of a vice presidential candidate typically serves a more immediate need.



  1. What does the Twenty-second Amendment do?


  1. requires that presidents be natural-born citizens — Consider This: While this a requirement to be president, it was originally placed in the Constitution and did not require an amendment.
  2. limits the president’s terms of office
  3. requires the president to be a resident of the United States
  4. requires the president to be at least 35 years old



  1. Why do presidents try to gain support for their initiatives instead of simply enacting their policy priorities outright?


  1. because Congress cannot debate legislation without approval from the president
  2. because the Constitution does not give the president any powers to influence public policy — Consider This: While the president may not be able to directly create legislation due to shared powers, he does have substantial opportunity to influence public policy through other means.
  3. because the Constitution establishes a system of shared powers
  4. because the president has diminishing power over the course of his or her administration



  1. Which presidential power is checked by required approval of the Senate with a two-thirds vote?


  1. extending diplomatic recognition to foreign governments
  2. terminating relations with other nations
  3. negotiating treaties with other nations
  4. negotiating executive agreements with foreign heads of state — Consider This: Executive agreements are presidential tools that do not require the consent or approval of any other body; it is the more formal process that involves both the president and the Senate.



  1. Congress can remove a president through __________.


  1. a veto
  2. an executive order
  3. a House impeachment vote — Consider This: The House portion of the impeachment process only determines if another body of Congress will have the opportunity to consider removing the president from office.
  4. a Senate impeachment trial



  1. What has to happen in Congress in order for the president to be impeached and removed from office?


  1. The House must impeach the president by a simple majority; the Supreme Court must convict with a two-thirds vote.
  2. The Senate must impeach the president by a simple majority; the House must convict with a two-thirds vote. — Consider This: The impeachment process actually begins in the House of Representatives before advancing to the Senate.
  3. The House must impeach the president by a simple majority; the Senate must convict with a two-thirds majority.
  4. The Supreme Court must impeach the president with a simple majority; the chief justice presides over a Senate trial that must convict with a two-thirds majority.



  1. Which presidential role includes the State of the Union address?


  1. head of state — Consider This: While the president may touch on foreign relations during this address, it is geared more toward framing the president’s policy agenda (both foreign and domestic) for the coming year.
  2. commander in chief
  3. chief executive
  4. chief legislator



  1. What was intended to give Congress a greater voice in the decision to introduce American troops into hostilities?
  2. the Twenty-second Amendment
  3. executive privilege — Consider This: Executive privilege actually works to assist the president in keeping information from being shared with Congress—or anyone else—under certain circumstances.
  4. the legislative veto
  5. the War Powers Resolution




  1. Which of the following is most likely to constitute an impeachable offense?


  1. a president playing a game of poker in the White House
  2. a president supporting an unpopular policy — Consider This: While such an action may not gain a president much support, it is not serious enough to justify impeachment proceedings.
  3. a president’s decision to invade a country solely to increase his or her public support
  4. a president’s strategy of encouraging interest groups to pressure Congress to pass a bill



  1. How did the expectations for the vice presidency change starting with Walter Mondale?


  1. Presidents are more likely to use their vice presidents as close policy advisers.
  2. Vice presidents started to preside over the Senate. — Consider This: Constitutionally, the vice president is to preside over the Senate. Not since very near the Founding has this power been taken seriously, however.
  3. Presidents are more likely to select ideologically moderate vice presidents to expand their electoral appeal.
  4. Vice presidents started taking the lead in the budgeting process.


  1. Which of the following is an example of a “rally event” as it relates to public approval of the president?


  1. George H. W. Bush’s reelection after the Gulf War — Consider This: If Bush had successfully won reelection, this would have been a rallying event. Unfortunately for Bush, he lost.
  2. Richard Nixon’s approval ratings during Watergate
  3. George W. Bush’s surge in popularity after the 9/11 terrorist attacks
  4. Ronald Reagan’s decision to seek a second term



  1. The use of __________ in foreign matters is an example of the president acting as a chief diplomat.


  1. pocket vetoes
  2. executive privilege
  3. executive agreements
  4. signing statements — Consider This: Signing statements allow a president to influence the bureaucratic implementation of passed laws. They do not relate to agreements with foreign governments.



  1. What is the primary purpose of the Council of Economic Advisers?


  1. to advise the president on economic policy
  2. to assess budget proposals for Congress — Consider This: While the CEA may discuss budget issues with the president, they serve a larger role of examining the economy as a whole.
  3. to enact the president’s budget
  4. to suggest programs that should be scaled back or curtailed because they use tax dollars inefficiently




  1. Which best describes a president’s constitutional duty to Congress?


  1. The president must give Congress an occasional update on the state of the union.
  2. The president must have at least one cabinet member of the opposing party.
  3. The president must maintain party support in Congress.
  4. The president must inform Congress of the reasoning behind a veto. — Consider This: While the president typically does notify Congress of why he is issuing a veto, it is not constitutionally mandated.




  1. Which is one reason why the power and responsibility of the presidency has increased?


  1. The presidents’ use of the line-item veto has increased their power over the Congress.
  2. The budgets for government agencies have decreased, leaving more responsibility to the president.
  3. Modern presidents have to exercise powers as commander in chief, while earlier presidents did not. — Consider This: While the role of commander in chief has changed with time, even our earliest presidents had to contest with the challenges posed by being a military leader.
  4. The United States has increased its prominence on the world stage.



  1. American presidents have a variety of backgrounds. Who was the only political scientist to become president?


  1. Woodrow Wilson
  2. Warren G. Harding
  3. Thomas Jefferson — Consider This: While Jefferson was an admirer of political philosophers, he was not a formally trained academic in the discipline.
  4. John Kennedy



  1. Which of the following reviews potential legislative proposals suggested by executive agencies and assesses their budgetary implications?


  1. secretary of the treasury — Consider This: The secretary of the treasury deals with economic issues, but this individual is not involved in legislative proposals from a budgetary perspective.
  2. Office of Management and Budget
  3. secretary of commerce
  4. chief of staff


  1. Which of the following statements about presidential approval is accurate?
  2. George W. Bush maintained a high approval rating throughout his presidency. — Consider This: George W. Bush saw his numbers ebb and flow over his eight year term. There was little consistency about them.
  3. Bill Clinton’s approval rating was well over 90 percent during his first term.
  4. Barack Obama’s approval rating was lower in 2012 than when he took office.
  5. Ronald Reagan’s approval rating was never higher than 50 percent.



  1. Which of the following is a judicial power given to the president?


  1. determining the Supreme Court’s docket
  2. nominating federal judges
  3. establishing the jurisdiction of the federal courts including the Supreme Court
  4. determining the constitutionality of judicial acts — Consider This: The Framers would have found this to be a violation of separation of powers. Instead, they provided the president with the opportunity to influence the individuals on the Court.



  1. An __________ is the perception that the voters strongly support the president and his or her policies.


  1. electoral mandate
  2. approval rating — Consider This: While approval ratings can demonstrate support, the act of actually voting sends an even stronger indication.
  3. executive order
  4. executive agreement



  1. Many assume that presidents with high __________ are more effective leaders.


  1. approval ratings
  2. levels of executive privilege
  3. debts and deficits
  4. campaign spending — Consider This: Spending more on an election can increase chances for electoral success; but, it does not necessarily equate to being a good president.



  1. Which of the following is a group of 15 presidential advisers that is too large, diverse, and concerned with individual fiefdoms to effectively serve as a collective board of directors, leaving ultimate decision-making authority with the president?


  1. the White House staff
  2. the Executive Office of the President
  3. the chiefs of staff — Consider This: The chiefs of staff focus on military issues rather than broader policy issues.
  4. the cabinet




  1. Which of the following is a collection of executive branch officials who assist the president, but who also fulfill duties required by law and are therefore limited in the extent of their loyalty to the president?


  1. the White House staff — Consider This: The White House staff serves to assist the president on less formal areas than those required by law. These workers tend to be more personally loyal to the president.
  2. the Executive Office of the President
  3. the chiefs of staff
  4. the Court of Executive Assistants




  1. The president’s chief of staff and press secretary are members of which group?


  1. White House staff
  2. Office of Administration
  3. the cabinet
  4. Executive Office of the President — Consider This: While these positions serve important roles, they do not fall into the Executive Office of the President and are more personally loyal to the president.



  1. What is the role of the National Security Council?


  1. to link the president’s foreign and military policy advisers
  2. to keep the president and first family secure
  3. to administer the armed forces
  4. to provide the president with national security policy advice from the opposing party’s perspective — Consider This: The NSC does provide policy advice, but their advice is not designed to be partisan in any way.






  1. Which statement about the news is generally true?


  1. The news is often framed in themes that simplify the issues and provide continuity from story to story.
  2. There is a focus on the positive when covering the president and a focus on the negative when covering Congress and the Supreme Court.
  3. The broadcast media relies solely on facts and avoids speculation, even if it means sitting on a major story until the information can be verified.
  4. Cable news programs present in-depth coverage of political events from a balanced ideological perspective so as to attract the most viewers. — Consider This: Most cable news programs are criticized due to a lack of in-depth coverage and an increasing emphasis on ideologically-driven programming.



  1. In which way do modern presidents differ from the original intentions of the Framers?


  1. Modern presidents are considerably less democratic than the Framers originally intended.
  2. Modern presidents have considerably less power as leaders of their political parties than the Framers originally intended. — Consider This: The Framers were not concerned with political parties in this way. President Washington even warned of their corrupting influence during his farewell address.
  3. Modern presidents are much more influential in the legislative process than the Framers originally intended.
  4. Modern presidents are more subservient to the will of Congress than the Framers originally intended.



  1. Why does the perception of an electoral mandate matter in presidential politics?


  1. It helps to increase the president’s legislative acumen.
  2. It makes it harder for presidents to get their legislative agenda enacted by Congress.
  3. It offers legitimacy and credibility to a recently elected president’s proposals.
  4. It enables the president to manage the bureaucracy. — Consider This: Mandates assist the president in demonstrating credibility during the legislative process; they do not typically influence implementation of passed laws.



  1. In which capacity have recent vice presidents been particularly influential in American politics?


  1. as an adviser in the policymaking process
  2. as a leader of the cabinet
  3. as a lead negotiator for executive agreements
  4. as presiding officer of the Senate — Consider This: While the vice president holds this role, it has not proven to be influential in numerous decades.



  1. How has the office of vice president changed over the years?


  1. The vice president is no longer trusted as he once was.
  2. The vice president recently has been locked out of the policymaking process.
  3. The vice president has been more involved in the policymaking process in recent years than in the past.
  4. The vice presidency has become a prerequisite for the presidency. — Consider This: Recent elections have suggested clearly that one must not be the vice president before being deemed prepared to be president.



  1. Which describes something that Barack Obama did that caused his critics to charge that he has become too powerful?


  1. He established the Department of Homeland Security. — Consider This: Although this does involve the expansion of government, it was actually done by George W. Bush.
  2. He proposed reforming Social Security and immigration policy.
  3. He used drones to kill terrorist suspects, some of whom were American citizens.
  4. He used his veto power more than any other president.



  1. How might rally events affect presidential politics?


  1. Rally events lead to drops in presidential approval ratings, making passage of their agendas more difficult.
  2. Rally events cause a long-term increase in presidential approval ratings, practically guaranteeing reelection. — Consider This: Rally events can help a president’s approval ratings, but it is not guaranteed to cause a long-term increase. In fact, most tend to produce short-term bounces.
  3. Rally events make presidents more politically cautious.
  4. Rally events tend to temporarily increase presidential approval ratings, providing presidents with a window of opportunity to press their agenda.



  1. When might citizens be particularly concerned about an expansion of presidential power?
  2. in times of relative peace and prosperity
  3. in times of economic crisis — Consider This: Whenever crisis arises, citizens tend to become on-edge. A crisis, however, is not the time when citizens need to be most worried about president’s expanding power since sometimes that’s an ideal way to tackle an issue.
  4. during presidential election years
  5. when they oppose the president’s agenda



  1. What distinguishes the contemporary presidency from the institution originally envisioned by the Framers of the Constitution?


  1. The contemporary presidency is much more powerful.
  2. The contemporary presidency is less involved in the development of foreign policy. — Consider This: In reality, the presidency has become even more involved in the development of foreign policy. To some extent, the Framers wouldn’t recognize the modern presidency given the increase in powers the institution has received.
  3. The contemporary presidency exhibits a greater level of deference to Congress in budgetary matters.
  4. Contemporary presidents are more cautious in advocating for their legislative agendas.



  1. Which of the following statements provides the best characterization of the members of the White House staff?


  1. The White House staff is a loose collection of bureaucrats who are loyal to executive agencies.
  2. The White House staff is composed of advisers who do whatever is in the best interest of the president.
  3. The White House staff is composed of policy specialists who have little personal loyalty to the president. — Consider This: The White House staff is best known for its staff’s personal loyalty to the president who appointed them to work in the White House.
  4. The White House staff is the link between executive agencies in the bureaucracy and Congress.



  1. The Twenty-fifth Amendment was enacted in order to clear up uncertainties over the constitutional provisions surrounding __________.


  1. presidential powers to conduct war
  2. presidential and vice presidential succession and disability
  3. the president’s powers to negotiate treaties
  4. the Electoral College — Consider This: The Twenty-fifth Amendment did not touch on the Electoral College, although it does focus on both the president and vice president.









The Budget: The Politics of Taxing and Spending



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Which president had low budget deficits during his presidency?


  1. Ronald Reagan
  2. Barack Obama — Consider This: While Obama has worked to curb spending, it was another Democratic president that had the low deficits throughout his time in office.
  3. Bill Clinton
  4. George H. W. Bush



  1. According to Figure 13.3, what is the approximate amount of the national debt in 2015?


  1. $17.5 trillion
  2. $3.7 trillion — Consider This: While this number is high, the actual national debt in 2015 was even higher.
  3. $800 billion
  4. $500 billion



  1. Tax expenditures are __________.


  1. yearly appropriations of funds by the president and Congress — Consider This: While these may seem like expenditures, in the language of government funding, these deal with specific types of losses.
  2. revenue losses from special exemptions, exclusions, or deductions
  3. the financial resources of the government
  4. federal policies allocating tax burdens and benefits



  1. The Social Security Act was enacted in __________.


  1. 1865
  2. 1890
  3. 1935
  4. 1964 — Consider This: While social spending increased in 1964 under President Johnson, Social Security emerged in the wake of the Great Depression.



  1. Which is the largest social policy of the federal government?
  2. Social Security
  3. drug rehabilitation
  4. assistance for the poor — Consider This: Significant resources are devoted to assisting those in need, but another area is the largest social policy for the federal government.
  5. food subsidies



  1. The __________ Amendment permits Congress to levy income taxes.


  1. Sixteenth
  2. Seventeenth [This Amendment does not relate to income taxes, but it was added to the Constitution in the same era as the right answer.
  3. Eighteenth
  4. Nineteenth



  1. Which of the following budgetary process actors does the president oversee?


  1. House and Ways Committee
  2. Joint Committee on Taxation
  3. Congressional Budget Office — Consider This: Rather than being overseen by the president, the CBO reports and responds to members of Congress and their committees.
  4. Office of Management and Budget


  1. By law, the president must submit a budget by the first Monday in __________.


  1. February
  2. September
  3. October — Consider This: The budget cycle ends in October, but begins during the winter.
  4. November



  1. In which of the following years was Medicare added to the Social Security system?


  1. 1935
  2. 1965
  3. 1998 — Consider This: Medicare was added during the Johnson Presidency—not three decades later under President Clinton.
  4. 2001


  1. In which of the following years were prescription drug benefits added to Medicare?


  1. 1965 — Consider This: While Medicare came into existence in 1965, prescription drugs were not added until the 21st Century.
  2. 1974
  3. 2003
  4. 2012



  1. Which of the following investors hold the majority of the federal government’s public debt?


  1. foreign investors
  2. citizen investors
  3. corporate investors
  4. financial institutions — Consider This: Banks hold parts of the federal debt, but non-Americans actually control much of the nation’s public debt today.



  1. In 2016, the average Social Security check for retired workers was __________.


  1. $121
  2. $523
  3. $1,341
  4. $3,523 — Consider This: While retirees would like to receive this amount, they actually gain roughly a third of it currently.



  1. Which of the following best describes the executive branch’s role in the budget process before the Budget and Accounting Act of 1921?


  1. The president proposed an executive budget to the secretary of the treasury. — Consider This: While the secretary of the treasury collected requests before 1921, the president did not get the first crack at setting spending levels and budgets.
  2. Executive branch agencies sent budget requests to the secretary of the treasury.
  3. The Office of Management and Budget proposed an executive budget to Congress.
  4. The Government Accounting Office proposed an executive budget to Congress.


  1. The rise of the national security state first began with __________.


  1. the Civil War
  2. World War I
  3. the Cold War
  4. the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks — Consider This: The September 11th attack would have led to a national security state—if it did no already exist from a previous conflict with the Soviet Union.


  1. A(n) __________ is an act of Congress that establishes or changes a government program.


  1. authorization bill
  2. appropriations bill — Consider This: Appropriations bills involve funding programs, not the creation or alteration of existing programs.
  3. continuing resolution
  4. budget resolution



  1. A(n) __________ is an act of Congress that funds programs established by authorization bills.


  1. joint proclamation
  2. appropriations bill
  3. budget resolution — Consider This: Budget resolutions look at overall spending levels rather than authorizing the funding of specific programs.
  4. omnibus bill



  1. A(n) __________ is an act of Congress that attempts to bind Congress to a total expenditure level for all programs in a given year.


  1. authorization bill
  2. appropriations bill — Consider This: Appropriations bills involve funding programs, not overall expenditure levels.
  3. continuing resolution
  4. budget resolution


  1. Which of the following best supports Allan Meltzer and Scott Richard’s argument that government grows in a democracy because of the equality of suffrage?


  1. Working- and middle-class voters will support more generous Social Security and Medicare benefits.
  2. Economically disadvantaged voters will support increased defense spending. — Consider This: According to Meltzer and Richard, the economically disadvantaged would vote for social programs that help them—not defense.
  3. Wealthy voters will support progressive taxation.
  4. Veterans will support reducing the influence of the military-industrial complex.




  1. Which of the following illustrates American citizens’ usual attitude toward the budget?


  1. Americans want to decrease taxes, decrease spending, and balance the budget.
  2. Americans want to increase taxes, decrease spending, and balance the budget.
  3. Americans want to keep taxes low, maintain or increase spending, and balance the budget.
  4. Americans want to keep taxes low, decrease spending, and run a budget surplus. — Consider This: Despite wanting low taxers, most Americans still desire to see an increase in government spending.



  1. Which of the following most accurately describes the federal capital budget?


  1. It is used to pay for Social Security.
  2. It is used for infrastructure projects, such as roads and bridges. — Consider This: Capital budgets are used to pay for infrastructure projects, but the federal government handles these projects differently than state and local governments.
  3. It is used to fund tax expenditures.
  4. The federal government does not have a capital budget.




  1. Which of the following is a tax expenditure?


  1. appropriations bills
  2. authorization bills
  3. lower tax rates for stock and real estate profits
  4. estate taxes — Consider This: Estate taxes are actually tax revenues since money comes into government when they are applied.



  1. What is the national debt?


  1. all of the money Congress has spent
  2. all of the money the federal government has borrowed and has not yet repaid
  3. the sum of all tax expenditures minus the sum of all tax receipts
  4. the sum of all tax receipts minus the sum of all tax expenditures — Consider This: Receipts minus expenditures tells us about deficit levels but does not describe in any way the national debt.



  1. Which of the following is a law that limits how much the federal government may borrow?


  1. debt ceiling
  2. capital budget
  3. tax expenditure
  4. budget resolution — Consider This: Budget resolutions may talk about spending and borrowing levels, but they do not explicitly include limitations on the ability for government to borrow.



  1. A balanced budget occurs when __________.


  1. appropriations are equal to authorizations
  2. government spending is equal to the sum of all tax expenditures
  3. the national debt is zero — Consider This: It is possible to actually borrow to ensure that there is no deficit or surplus. Over time, this will lead to a debt or to unhappy citizens, but it does work for a temporary stopgap measure.
  4. there is no budget deficit



  1. What is incrementalism?


  1. the tendency for budgets to increase modestly from year to year
  2. income tax rates that increase in increments as income increases — Consider This: While incrementalism does focus on modest increases, it is not specific to income taxes.
  3. congressional resolutions that prohibit spending increases except in times of emergency
  4. the tendency for the national debt to increase in large increments every year



  1. The increase in __________ is the greatest threat to the viability of the intergenerational system for funding Social Security.


  1. birthrates — Consider This: More births means more contributors—eventually. The more immediate threat is the number of individuals receiving contributions for far longer than originally projected.
  2. life expectancy
  3. social insurance taxes
  4. the size of the working population



  1. A tax expenditure is essentially a __________ for activities that the government wants to encourage.


  1. revenue surplus — Consider This: While tax expenditures return money to taxpayers, it does not lead to a surplus for government.
  2. penalty
  3. tax increase
  4. subsidy



  1. Who pays income taxes?


  1. federal and state governments
  2. corporations and individuals
  3. universities and churches — Consider This: Non-profit organizations are typically exempt from paying a variety of taxes.
  4. all U.S. citizens


  1. In what sense is Social Security spending “uncontrollable”?


  1. Congress determines how much it will spend for Social Security each year.
  2. Social Security spending varies according to how much money is available in the Social Security Trust Fund. — Consider This: Social Security payments are automatic for anyone who qualifies, regardless of funding available.
  3. Congress has enacted laws that make Social Security payments automatic for all those who are eligible.
  4. Social Security requires funding from excise taxes that are unpredictable from year to year.



  1. What is the purpose of continuing resolutions?


  1. to allow agencies to continue to spend money even when Congress has not met its budgetary timetable
  2. to essentially override presidential vetoes
  3. to lump together multiple authorization bills to increase the chance of passage
  4. to ensure that the federal budget is balanced except in emergencies — Consider This: Continuing resolutions are designed to allow government to continue functioning when there are disagreements about some facet of a new budget. They do not deal with balancing any part of the budget.



  1. Which is an example of intragovernmental debt?


  1. money borrowed from foreign governments — Consider This: Intragovernmental debt looks at transactions between domestic governments. Involving foreign governments adds external actors.
  2. money the government has borrowed from Social Security revenue for general spending
  3. money borrowed from private corporations that purchase government bonds
  4. money borrowed from citizens who purchase government bonds



  1. What is the largest tax expenditure in the United States?


  1. deduction of mortgage interest on owner-occupied houses
  2. deferral of income from controlled foreign corporations — Consider This: While this is a tax expenditure, the amount involved does not compare to other areas where taxpayers benefit.
  3. exclusion of employer contributions to health care and insurance
  4. exclusion for interest earned on state and local government bonds


  1. Which of the following is an excise tax?


  1. tax levied on corporate income
  2. tax levied on personal income
  3. tax levied on the consumption of a certain good
  4. tax levied on the top 2 percent of income earners — Consider This: While this would cause income taxes to be even more progressive, it would not be an excise tax since it doesn’t focus on consumption of goods.



  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the American Opportunity Credit and the Lifetime Learning Credit?


  1. They are education credits you can deduct from your taxable income. — Consider This: While these are education credits, they do not alter your determined taxable income. Instead, they are applied through a different mechanism.
  2. They are education credits you can subtract in full from your federal income tax.
  3. They are credits earned through job training programs that can be applied toward degrees at any public university.
  4. They are credits earned through life experiences that can be applied toward degrees at any public university.



  1. The deficit is the amount by which a given year’s spending exceeds that year’s __________.


  1. appropriations — Consider This: Appropriations focus on what Congress has authorized for programs to spend—not what they actually spend in any given fiscal year.
  2. tax expenditures
  3. revenue
  4. national debt



  1. The fact that 43 percent of people filing income tax returns in 2013 paid no income tax at all is partly explained by the fact that the income tax is __________.


  1. regressive — Consider This: If the income tax was regressive, poor individuals would actually carry a greater burden than those with higher incomes.
  2. progressive
  3. proportional
  4. flat



  1. Which is a tax expenditure given primarily to college students?


  1. American Opportunity Credit
  2. private student loans — Consider This: Private transactions between lenders and borrowers do not count as tax expenditures.
  3. private scholarships
  4. research grants




  1. Which of the following reports directly to the president?


  1. Government Accountability Office (GAO) — Consider This: While the GAO plays a critical role in the budget process, they are not an agency that directly reports to the president. It is strategically designed to be independent.
  2. Appropriations Committees and subcommittees
  3. Budget Committees and subcommittees
  4. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)



  1. Recent __________ in the United States have resulted in policymaking that could be considered the “politics of scarcity.”


  1. tax cuts
  2. pork barrel projects
  3. subsidies — Consider This: Instead of offering subsidies, recent changes have been more direct in eliminating the amount of tax that must be paid.
  4. tax expenditures



  1. How might democracy distort budgeting?


  1. The income tax is a progressive tax. — Consider This: While the income tax is intentionally progressive, this does not necessarily distort budgeting since revenues remain the same—it just impacts who pays what percentage to meet the budget number.
  2. Politicians spend public funds to win votes.
  3. Funds are borrowed from foreign governments.
  4. Congress approves taxes and appropriations.



  1. Which of the following is the role of the Government Accountability Office (GAO)?


  1. to monitor what agencies do with their budgets
  2. to make the budget for Congress [The GAO focuses its energy on checking to assure appropriated money is used—and used within the intended context.
  3. to propose new bills to implement the president’s agenda
  4. to write tax codes based on yearly changes in law



  1. Which of the following is the role of the Congressional Budget Office?


  1. to monitor what agencies do with their budgets — Consider This: This would be under the purview of the Government Accountability Office. The CBO works more closely with Congress and its committees.
  2. to write tax codes based on yearly changes in law
  3. to propose new bills following the president’s agenda
  4. to advise Congress on consequences of its budget decisions



  1. In 1921, Congress passed the Budget and Accounting Act to alleviate concerns about __________.


  1. retiring the debt from World War I
  2. communist influence in the budget process
  3. corporate funds going to political campaigns — Consider This: Funding of campaigns has been a more recent phenomenon. In 1921, the United States was still trying to recover from a successful military effort.
  4. the viability of the Social Security program



  1. Why did the United States keep a large permanent military after World War II?


  1. Treaties would not allow an extensive demilitarization.
  2. The large veteran population supported peacetime military service.
  3. Defense contractors successfully lobbied for an increase in contracts. — Consider This: Defense contractors have a large say in current military operations, but this was not the case in the aftermath of World War II.
  4. The Cold War began shortly after World War II ended.



  1. Financially, who benefits the most from the military-industrial complex?


  1. Congress
  2. the president
  3. defense contractors
  4. taxpayers — Consider This: Taxpayers may benefit from savings in some contracts, but they also may suffer a decrease in service quality.


Difficulty Level: Difficult


  1. What does the federal government do when it is unable to cover its expenditures?


  1. sells bonds
  2. indexes taxes to the cost of living
  3. changes the tax code — Consider This: Changing the tax code could work, if citizens were asked to increase payments. Instead, the government has determined an appropriate channel is to sell bonds, which is easy to do given the low risk of default.
  4. invests in pork projects






The Federal Bureaucracy



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Which of the following federal bureaucracies employs the most people?


  1. the Department of Homeland Security
  2. the Department of Defense
  3. the Social Security Administration
  4. the U.S. Postal Service — Consider This: Although the Post Service employs over a half a million people, the Postal Service is an independent establishment under the Executive Branch and operates as a government corporation. The agency in question makes up more than half of the government bureaucracy.



  1. Max Weber identified which of the following as a characteristic of bureaucracy?


  1. inefficiency — Consider This: Although Weber acknowledged that extensive bureaucratic rules may at times go to extremes, he stressed the consistency of these rules rather than a tendency to promote inefficiency. In general, he addressed characteristics designed to aid the work of bureaucrats, who he saw as experts in their respective fields.
  2. transparency
  3. consensus making
  4. task specialization





  1. The federal civil service system was introduced with the passage of what law?


  1. the Hatch Act — Consider This: While the Hatch Act expanded civil service procedures in an attempt to diminish politically corrupting influences, it was not the first passage of civil service reform.
  2. the Pendleton Act
  3. the Administrative Procedures Act
  4. the Freedom of Information Act



  1. Under the spoils system, who was awarded jobs in the federal bureaucracy?


  1. those who scored highest on aptitude tests
  2. those who did not affiliate with a political party — Consider This: The spoils system was used extensively by President Andrew Jackson, who rewarded political support with patronage.
  3. those who previously served in the military
  4. those who helped candidates win election




  1. Which of the following is a means of enforcing a bureaucratic regulation?


  1. sending inspectors to evaluate compliance
  2. charging higher taxes to those not in compliance
  3. deploying the armed forces to force compliance
  4. sending members of Congress to assess the need for new legislation — Consider This: Congress is responsible for setting strategies used to empower regulatory agencies, not for personally ensuring compliance with rules and guidelines.



  1. Those who believe that regulations on business and industry are too numerous and too complex are most likely to favor the policy of __________.


  1. incentive systems
  2. command-and-control systems
  3. executive orders — Consider This: Although executive orders can streamline the regulatory process, they are sometimes unpopular because of their lack of representational involvement.
  4. deregulation




  1. __________ refers to the authority of administrators in the federal bureaucracy to make choices concerning the best way to implement policies.


  1. Adjudication — Consider This: Adjudication refers to a ruling made as part of a judicial procedure whereas the practice in question concerns decisions made at the agency level.
  2. Discretion
  3. Division of labor
  4. Executive control



  1. __________ is the approach to regulation in which the government tells business how to meet certain goals, makes sure these directions are followed, and punishes those who do not follow the orders.


  1. The spoils system
  2. Command-and-control policy
  3. The shoot-first-and-ask-questions-later system
  4. The incentive system — Consider This: The incentive system is designed to offer rewards for business compliance with government standards rather than strict and specific regulation of those businesses. The approach in question, however, is highly specific in the directives provided by government.



  1. Which cabinet department did Congress create shortly after the 9/11 terrorist attacks?


  1. the Department of Intelligence
  2. the Department of Internal Affairs
  3. the Department of Homeland Security
  4. the Department of Anti-Terrorism — Consider This: Rather than construct an agency designed to prevent threats to the homeland from only one kind of threat, Congress created an agency that would bridge the gap between otherwise fragmented agencies involved in domestic protection.


  1. Cabinet secretaries are chosen by __________ and confirmed by __________.


  1. the president; the Senate
  2. the president; the House of Representatives — Consider This: The Constitutional provision that presidential nominees must be made with the “advice and consent” of the Senate dates back to the nation’s founders. The founders viewed the House of Representatives as the segment of Congress more likely to be susceptible to the whims of democratic sentiment.
  3. the president; the Supreme Court
  4. the Senate; the president



  1. Which of the following grants bureaucracies the authority to issue regulations?


  1. the General Accounting Office — Consider This: While the General Accounting Office assists Congress in legislative and oversight activities in addition to general auditing authority, the office is not responsible for putting forth bureaucratic regulations.
  2. Congress
  3. the president
  4. the Internal Revenue Service



  1. What is implementation?


  1. the process of translating policy goals and objectives into an ongoing program
  2. a set of procedures executive branch agencies must follow when issuing rules — Consider This: Implementation takes place in all three branches of government as policies become operational.
  3. the process by which government agencies settle legal disputes
  4. a set of rules enforcing government agreements with private contractors




  1. Under the Hatch Act as amended, federal employees are prohibited from __________.


  1. adjudicating legal disputes
  2. exercising administrative discretion
  3. running for partisan office
  4. running voter registration drives — Consider This: The Hatch Act was designed to prevent civil service employees from engaging in activities that would demonstrate a choice of sides in elections; it does not prevent non-aligned involvement in elections generally.



  1. Who are the three main players in an iron triangle?


  1. Congress, the president, and the courts
  2. businesses, interest groups, and political action committees — Consider This: Members of iron triangles are characterized by mutual dependency in which all of the entities provide some benefit to the others.
  3. politicians, candidates, and bureaucrats
  4. bureaucratic agencies, interest groups, and congressional committees and subcommittees





  1. A(n) __________ regulates industries using marketlike strategies such as rewards.


  1. patronage system — Consider This: The system of patronage is imposed when political leaders reward political support with employment of promotion whereas the system in question relates to a regulatory process designed to encourage compliance.
  2. iron triangle
  3. executive order
  4. incentive system



  1. Which of the following is a part of the federal bureaucracy?


  1. the Department of Defense
  2. the U.S. House of Representatives — Consider This: Bureaucrats are non-elected government officials charged with policy making at the administrative level.
  3. the U.S. Supreme Court
  4. the Democratic Party



  1. Which of these statements about the bureaucracy is most accurate?


  1. Americans generally like bureaucrats.
  2. The number of federal bureaucrats is increasing rapidly.
  3. Most federal bureaucrats work in Washington, D.C.
  4. Public bureaucracies are inefficient. — Consider This: There is no evidence that private bureaucracies are more efficient than public bureaucracies. Even when the bureaucracies themselves are stereotyped with inefficiency, individual bureaucrats are typically not charged with the same criticism.



  1. Which of the following is an example of Max Weber’s merit principle?


  1. evaluating political candidates based on personal characteristics
  2. evaluating political candidates based on work experience — Consider This: Weber viewed the bureaucracy as an impartial mechanism for evaluating non-elected federal employees rather than politicians.
  3. hiring bureaucrats based on their ability to do the job
  4. evaluating a policy proposal based on its benefits



  1. Before 1883, how were government jobs awarded?


  1. Jobs were awarded based on applicants’ expertise. — Consider This: The Pendleton Civil Service Act, passed in 1883, was the first measure taken by Congress to ensure that those considered for hire or promotion by government would be judged based on merit.
  2. Jobs were awarded through a lottery system.
  3. Jobs were awarded based on applicants’ performance on entrance exams.
  4. Jobs were awarded based on applicants’ loyalty to the party in power.



  1. Which of the following is a function of the federal bureaucracy?


  1. issuing executive orders
  2. issuing executive agreements
  3. implementing laws passed by Congress
  4. implementing state statutes — Consider This: The federal bureaucracy translates national policy goals in practice, not legislation passed at the state level.



  1. The first step in obtaining a civil service job is likely to be __________.


  1. taking a test
  2. helping on a political campaign — Consider This: Due to civil service reform, federal positions are now earned through a merit-based system rather than political patronage.
  3. donating to campaign coffers
  4. networking with civil service workers



  1. Which of the following is an example of an independent executive agency?


  1. the General Services Administration
  2. the Department of Health and Human Services
  3. the Consumer Product Safety Commission
  4. the U.S. Postal Service — Consider This: As a government corporation, the Postal Service does not qualify as an independent executive agency whereas those that are operate without the jurisdiction of a cabinet department, regulatory commission, or one of the branches of government.


  1. Which of the following is a government corporation?


  1. the Food and Drug Administration — Consider This: Government corporations often charge for their services and offer services that could potentially be provided by private entities.
  2. the Federal Elections Commission
  3. the U.S. Postal Service
  4. the Occupational Safety and Health Administration



  1. In recent years, privatization of government functions to contractors has __________.


  1. increased at the federal level
  2. provided services more efficiently at the federal level — Consider This: The efficiency often associated with private contractors is typically the result of their association with competition; in practice, however, no-bid government contracts are prevalent, preventing competition.
  3. decreased at the state level
  4. received greater public support



  1. How did the Pendleton Act reform the system of hiring and firing federal employees?


  1. It required hiring and firing decisions to be based on partisan loyalty rather than merit.
  2. It required hiring and firing decisions to be based on merit rather than partisan loyalty.
  3. It continued to allow hiring on the basis of merit, but made firing federal employees easier. — Consider This: The Pendleton Act was the first successful Congressional attempt at civil service reform, moving the bureaucracy toward a merit-based system.
  4. It continued to allow hiring on the basis of partisan loyalty, but made firing federal employees more difficult.



  1. What does a government corporation do?


  1. generate significant profit for the federal government — Consider This: The U.S. Postal Service, a government corporation, went nearly a decade without making a profit, while its competitors in private industry consistently earned revenue.
  2. provide services that could be provided by the private sector
  3. break up monopolies and promote free-market principles
  4. expand international trade




  1. Which of Max Weber’s characteristics of bureaucracy is illustrated by a government agency in which the greatest authority resides with the agency head?


  1. administrative discretion
  2. the merit principle
  3. task specialization — Consider This: Task specialization is designed to effectively utilize the services of experts, who have higher technical ability than amateurs. The characteristic in question, however, refers to the bureaucratic structure of power and responsibility.
  4. hierarchical authority structure



  1. Which of the following best describes the policies related to firing federal civil servants?


  1. The courts can fire civil servants for legal or political reasons.
  2. It is often difficult and time consuming to fire a civil servant.
  3. Federal civil servants cannot be fired because they have life tenure. — Consider This: The civil service system is designed to insulate federal employees from political firings, but does not prevent them from being fired for cause.
  4. The president retains sole authority to hire and fire federal civil servants.



  1. What role is the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) taking when it sets limits on air pollution from power plants?


  1. regulation
  2. adjudication
  3. oversight — Consider This: The EPA has the authority to change or control a practice in the private section, powers above and beyond the reach of supervision.
  4. deliberation



  1. How do standard operating procedures influence bureaucratic decision making?


  1. They promote uniform application of rules.
  2. They promote administrative discretion.
  3. They promote close coordination with Congress on implementation decisions.



  1. They promote coordination across agencies on implementation decisions. — Consider This: SOPs are designed to streamline the execution of processes through standard application, thus eliminating the need for extensive coordination on issues of implementation.



  1. Implementation of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was aided by __________.


  1. federal registrars dispatched to Southern counties
  2. the support of Southern governors
  3. the spoils system
  4. the use of incentive systems — Consider This: When the typical forms of regulatory control failed to achieve results in the federal government’s attempt to uphold African American voting rights in the South, a more direct method of bureaucratic intervention was utilized.



  1. Congress and the president share which of the following powers over agencies and departments in the federal bureaucracy?


  1. the power to influence budgets
  2. the power to issue executive orders
  3. the power to sign executive agreements
  4. the power to hold oversight hearings — Consider This: Congress has many powers not designated to the president, such as the power to hold oversight hearings. As a result, the president can attempt to indirectly exert authority over areas under the formal control of Congress.



  1. How do government corporations differ from private companies?


  1. Government corporations perform activities that private companies cannot. — Consider This: Government corporations are distinct from other segments of the federal bureaucracy in part because of their ability to perform many of the same services as their private counterparts. This does not mean, however, that they function as publicly-traded companies do.
  2. Government corporations need less government oversight than private companies.
  3. Government corporations cannot sell stock, whereas private companies can.
  4. Government corporations can borrow money, whereas private companies cannot.



  1. The heads of independent regulatory commissions are __________.


  1. elected — Consider This: Many of these commissions regulate specific sectors of the economy, requiring specialization and expertise in particular areas of leadership. Though still appointed through a Constitutional process, these individuals are not chosen through elections.
  2. part of the president’s cabinet
  3. selected by the president and confirmed by the Senate
  4. allowed to charge for their services




  1. Which of the following statements best describes the president’s influence over agency budgets?


  1. The president has final say over all department budgets, but has no control of the budgets of independent agencies.
  2. The president proposes agency budgets, but depends on Congress for appropriations of federal money.
  3. The president has sole authority to determine executive administrative budgets. — Consider This: Although the head of the executive branch, the president does not hold “power of the purse,” as specified in the Constitution.
  4. The president has no authority in the budgeting process.



  1. Which of the following agencies is most removed from presidential control?


  1. the Department of Defense
  2. the Department of Justice — Consider This: The Department of Justice resides in the executive branch, giving the president more control over personnel decisions than in other branches or independent commissions.
  3. the Environmental Protection Agency
  4. the Federal Reserve Board



  1. Which of the following is most consistent with the incentive system approach to regulatory policy?


  1. requiring a restaurant to serve sugary soft drinks in smaller cups
  2. lowering the drinking age and requiring states to implement the new standards
  3. reducing federal subsidies to public schools whose students have excessive absences


  1. lowering taxes for bourbon distilleries in order to boost the Kentucky economy — Consider This: The incentive system approach to regulation is designed to institute a market-like approach to public policy management to encourage a desired policy benefit.



  1. What is the purpose of the Hatch Act as amended?


  1. to prohibit federal employees from engaging in partisan political activity while on duty
  2. to promote transparency in the federal bureaucracy during the transition from one president to the next — Consider This: Rather than address issues of transparency, the Hatch Act was designed to present federal employees from using their positions to politically advance a particular individual or party.
  3. to authorize greater use of discretion in bureaucratic decision making
  4. to prohibit awarding government jobs based on partisan loyalty



  1. What is a goal common to both the Pendleton Act and the Hatch Act?


  1. reducing the exercise of administrative discretion — Consider This: The overall goal of civil service reform has been to create a nonpartisan government service, free of patronage or party influence.
  2. reducing the influence of partisan politics on the federal bureaucracy
  3. increasing presidential control of the federal bureaucracy
  4. streamlining the policy implementation process



  1. Which of the following is a primary goal of privatizing government functions?


  1. to provide services that the private sector cannot
  2. to strengthen government accountability — Consider This: The focus of privatization for many of its proponents is to provide performance incentives for government bureaucracy as a result of market competition with private contractors.
  3. to improve the efficiency of public service delivery
  4. to expand the size of the federal bureaucracy




  1. How do command-and-control policies differ from incentive systems?


  1. Command-and-control policies use marketlike strategies, whereas incentive systems do not. — Consider This: Incentive strategies utilize market-like strategies to encourage particular policy results while command-and-control policies require a specific regulatory path.
  2. Command-and-control policies are typically more efficient than incentive systems.
  3. Command-and-control policies are typically more equitable than incentive systems.
  4. Command-and-control policies typically focus on punishing those who violate the law, whereas incentive systems often include rewards.



  1. Why do its proponents argue that deregulation is good public policy?


  1. Deregulation protects consumers by guarding against inflation and price gouging. — Consider This: While proponents of deregulation argue that expensive regulatory costs increase prices, their concerns are distinct from inflation and price gauging and focused more on increasing competition.
  2. Deregulation addresses fundamental flaws in the free-market economy.
  3. Eliminating costly regulations makes U.S. products more competitive in the world marketplace.
  4. Without as many regulations, workers will be less likely to be injured in workplace accidents.



  1. Which of the following was a consequence of the spoils system?


  1. The federal bureaucracy was staffed with people who often lacked expertise.
  2. There was low turnover in the federal bureaucracy between presidential administrations.
  3. There was little government corruption.
  4. Voter turnout was lower. — Consider This: In a system where political appointees were rewarded for their support by politicians, voter turnout was consistently higher for both parties.



  1. Under what circumstance are bureaucrats most likely to exercise discretion?


  1. when an agency is creating environmental regulations
  2. when an agency is under congressional investigation
  3. when an agency is implementing a vague law
  4. when an agency is proposing legislation — Consider This: Administrative discretion allows bureaucrats to bring the gap between the policy prescription and the situation on the ground.



  1. What event served as a catalyst for the creation of the Pendleton Act?


  1. the growth of the Republican Party in the 1880s
  2. the expansion of the federal bureaucracy in the 1880s — Consider This: Although patronage expanded the federal bureaucracy during the Gilded Age, it took a dramatic and unanticipated development to encourage civil service reform.
  3. the assassination of James Garfield in 1881
  4. the election of Rutherford B. Hayes in 1876




  1. Why do Americans tend to think that red tape is more prevalent than it actually is?


  1. Americans tend to notice the bureaucracy only when it is inefficient and not when it works well.
  2. Americans unwittingly transfer their negative assessments of private bureaucracies (such as businesses and churches) to the public sphere.
  3. Americans generally have poor experiences when dealing with bureaucrats. — Consider This: Studies show that at least two-thirds of Americans who have had dealings with bureaucrats have characterized their experiences as favorable. Despite this, Americans typically do not give credit to bureaucracies themselves for promoting greater organization or streamlining complex processes.
  4. Red is a more inflammatory color than black.



  1. Which of the following is a drawback of privatization of government functions?


  1. Privatization reduces the ability to scrutinize government functions.
  2. The bidding process involves too many rules. — Consider This: Many private companies receive no-bid contracts through the government, eliminating the need for lengthy bidding procedures. As a result, privatization does not always result in more competition but does decrease federal involvement in some policy execution.
  3. Privatized services often cost less to deliver.
  4. Privatized service delivery is often too slow.



  1. Which of the following contributed to the successful implementation of the Voting Rights Act?


  1. The policy was widely supported by policymakers and the public.
  2. The policy required only minor changes in how states ran their elections.
  3. The goals of the policy were clearly stated and there were adequate means to achieve them.
  4. The policy was implemented slowly and received nearly unanimous support in Congress. — Consider This: The Voting Rights Act was highly controversial, even in Congress, and implementation was relatively swift with straightforward implementation measures.






The Federal Courts



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. What is common law?


  1. the accumulation of judicial decisions about legal issues
  2. laws passed by legislatures — Consider This: Both common law and statutes (laws passed by legislatures) fall into the category of civil law, which are disputes between parties over a wide variety of matters.
  3. disputes between two parties
  4. issues capable of being settled as a matter of law



  1. Which of the following must confirm all federal judges?


  1. the House of Representatives — Consider This: The House of Representatives is considered the lower house of the legislature and is therefore not constitutionally responsible for confirmation of executive branch appointees.
  2. the Supreme Court
  3. the Senate
  4. the states



  1. The __________ Act of 1789 established the basic three-tiered structure of the federal court system.


  1. Federal Courts — Consider This: While this piece of legislation established the federal court system, Congress named it for another term used to describe it.
  2. Appellate
  3. Confirmation
  4. Judiciary



  1. How many seats are currently authorized on the Supreme Court?


  1. five — Consider This: While an odd number of justices is widely considered preferable because it prevents tie decisions, there have never been fewer than six justices on the Court.
  2. six
  3. eight
  4. nine



  1. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court first exercise judicial review?


  1. Chisholm v. Georgia
  2. Brown v. Board of Education — Consider This: While Brown represented a landmark Supreme Court decision, judicial review predates the case by approximately 150 years.
  3. Dred Scott v. Sandford
  4. Marbury v. Madison



  1. The Supreme Court hears cases from state courts only if they involve a __________ question.


  1. common — Consider This: As a form of civil law, common law is the accumulation of judicial decisions about legal issues and can exist at all levels of the judiciary, not only that for which the Supreme Court hears cases.
  2. civil
  3. federal
  4. criminal


  1. A writ of __________ is issued by the Supreme Court when it agrees to hear a case.


  1. mandamus — Consider This: While both a writ of mandamus and the correct judicial principle are orders by superior courts to lower courts, only the writ in question results in the review of a lower court decision.
  2. prohibition
  3. certiorari
  4. attachment


  1. For a case to be heard in the Supreme Court, a minimum of how many justices must vote to hear the case?


  1. one
  2. four
  3. five — Consider This: While the approval of several justices is needed to issue a writ of certiorari, a majority is not required.
  4. six



  1. The Supreme Court issues __________ that are essentially written statements containing the legal reasoning behind the Court’s decisions.


  1. opinions
  2. amicus curiae briefs
  3. percuriam statements
  4. treatises — Consider This: Although both a treatise and the composition in question contain detailed discussions of arguments and the reasoning behind them, the composition in question reflects the idea that two sides have formulated positions – the majority and the dissent.


  1. Which type of law involves the violation of the legal rights of one individual toward another?


  1. civil
  2. natural
  3. recidivist
  4. criminal — Consider This: In a criminal law case, the offense may be harmful to an individual or to society whereas the case in question involves a dispute between two parties.



  1. Which of the following is a way that interest groups attempt to influence the Supreme Court’s decisions?


  1. claiming disputes are justiciable
  2. filing standing to sue briefs — Consider This: Standing to sue requires that plaintiffs have sustained a direct consequence as a result of the individual or group being sued. The measure in question does not require direct personal involvement in the case in order to bring a suit.
  3. lobbying legislators
  4. filing amicus curiae briefs



  1. Who represents the federal government in appeals to the Supreme Court?


  1. attorney general — Consider This: Prior to the creation of the Justice Department, the attorney general was responsible for handling all cases pertaining to the United States in the Supreme Court. Now, the third-ranking official in the Justice Department handles Supreme Court appeals.
  2. president
  3. solicitor general
  4. chief prosecutor



  1. Who nominates judges to the U.S. district courts?


  1. the president
  2. the House of Representatives
  3. the Senate — Consider This: The Senate has the responsibility of evaluating district court judge candidates for confirmation but the appointment of these individuals is done through a separate branch of government in order to promote checks and balances.
  4. the Supreme Court


  1. Which court hears appeals from federal independent regulatory commissions?


  1. courts of appeals
  2. the cabinet
  3. district courts
  4. U.S. Supreme Court — Consider This: The court in question has the authority to review final decisions of district courts and to hear rebuttals to orders of many federal regulatory agencies.



  1. ______________ is the authority of a court to hear a case first, thus determining the facts of the case.


  1. original jurisdiction
  2. judicial review — Consider This: The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review as it assesses the constitutionality of laws, however, this does not require that it be the first court to hear a given case.
  3. jurisprudence
  4. confirmation




  1. What is the term given to the power of the courts to determine whether the actions of Congress and the executive branch are permissible under the Constitution?


  1. original jurisdiction
  2. strict construction — Consider This: Strict constructionism is one approach to interpreting laws. It does not offer an evaluation to determine whether or not a law is constitutional but rather serves as a lens through which laws are viewed.
  3. judicial review
  4. stare decisis



  1. Federal district court judges are appointed to ___________ terms.


  1. three-year
  2. 10-year — Consider This: Terms are purposefully lengthy to permanently insulate federal district court judges from the political process.
  3. 20-year
  4. lifetime




  1. Only a(n) __________ court can review the decisions of a lower court.


  1. trial
  2. original — Consider This: Courts with original jurisdiction determine the facts of the case while the courts in question do not review the factual record, only the legal issues involved.
  3. administrative
  4. appellate



  1. What type of standing permits a small number of people to sue on behalf of all other people in similar circumstances?


  1. criminal
  2. statute
  3. class action
  4. justiciable — Consider This: “Justiciable” is a broad term for a dispute settled by law whereas the term in question is considerably more narrow, addressing the ability of a few to represent many in court.



  1. Which of the following is an opinion written by a justice who voted with the majority but has s an alternative basis for the decision?


  1. concurring
  2. dissenting — Consider This: The dissenting opinion differs with the majority, not only in rationale but also in conclusion, whereas the opinion in question agrees with the end result supported by the majority.
  3. majority
  4. percuriam




  1. Who attempted to expand the number of Supreme Court justices in 1937?


  1. Chief Justice Warren
  2. Chief Justice Marshall
  3. President Hoover — Consider This: The president in question attempted to protect his trademark legislation by encouraging favorable interpretation of the constitutionality of those laws.
  4. President Roosevelt


  1. Proponents of which of the following believe that it is appropriate for judges to make bold policy decisions when doing so is necessary to address pressing societal needs?


  1. judicial restraint
  2. strict constructionism
  3. judicial activism
  4. originalism — Consider This: Judges who practice originalism do not originate novel decisions or perspectives but rather seek to apply the original intent or meaning of laws to their interpretations.




  1. In which courts are the vast majority of all cases tried?


  1. federal — Consider This: While the federal government has vast jurisdiction in a multitude of areas, most of the everyday cases brought to court do not happen at the national level.
  2. district
  3. state
  4. appellate



  1. In which federal courts are trials conducted?


  1. circuit courts — Consider This: The court in question holds original jurisdiction and never hears appeals as circuit courts do.
  2. district courts
  3. courts of appeals
  4. the Supreme Court



  1. In 1987, the Senate refused to confirm the nomination of __________ to the Supreme Court.


  1. Antonin Scalia — Consider This: Antonin Scalia, like the nominee in question, was named to the court by Ronald Reagan and was an originalist, but his appointment was approved by the Senate.
  2. Earl Warren
  3. Robert Bork
  4. John Roberts


  1. How and whether judicial decisions are translated into actual policy is known as judicial __________.


  1. implementation
  2. execution — Consider This: Because court decisions are carried out by other entities within government, the action of putting them into practice is more than simple execution; it requires that they be translated into policy.
  3. legislation
  4. intention



  1. Which Court was one of the most active in shaping public policy in the twentieth century?


  1. Rehnquist — Consider This: Like the court in question, the Rehnquist Court did not shy away from politically sensitive issues. Unlike the court in question, however, its decisions were not considered revolutionary as it rarely reversed the decisions of courts ideologically opposed to its majority.
  2. Warren
  3. Fortas
  4. Chase





  1. Which of the following must plaintiffs have in order to sustain a lawsuit in court?


  1. a serious injury — Consider This: Plaintiffs in civil cases are often qualified as having cause to file a lawsuit due to a serious injury but other factors are considered as well; immediate danger of sustaining a direct injury or the general qualification that they hold a serious interest in the case are also factored in.
  2. money
  3. standing to sue
  4. an attorney



  1. What are two types of jurisdiction courts can have?


  1. original and appellate
  2. trial and appeals — Consider This: Although the courts in question often fall into these two categories, the formal names given to them reflect the nuances of the cases they hear.
  3. constructionist and restrained
  4. active and restrained



  1. Which of the following is within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?


  1. federal criminal matters — Consider This: The vast majority of Supreme Court cases come from the appellate or appeals process. Federal criminal cases fall under this category as most of them originate in district courts.
  2. tax disputes
  3. military tribunals
  4. cases prosecuting diplomats



  1. Under which chief justice did the Supreme Court establish the power of judicial review?


  1. James Madison — Consider This: While the case of Marbury v. Madison was the impetus for the judicial review determination, Madison was a party in the case rather than the justice himself.
  2. John Marshall
  3. Oliver Wendell Holmes
  4. Earl Warren



  1. At President Roosevelt’s urging, Congress passed dozens of laws designed to end the Depression. Why did the Supreme Court initially overturn some of these laws?


  1. The Court believed that federal intervention in the economy was unconstitutional.
  2. The Court believed that Roosevelt was meddling in the Court’s jurisdiction. — Consider This: While the court found specific constitutional issues, such as interstate commerce violations, with some programs, it was largely the Court’s ideological slant that led to initial attempts at rolling back New Deal policies.
  3. The Court typically gave deference to the decisions enacted by the elected branches of government.
  4. Federal intervention in the economy was perceived as being the best way to end the Great Depression.



  1. The Court of Military Appeals is an example of which type of court?


  1. constitutional
  2. district
  3. legislative
  4. circuit — Consider This: Courts like the Court of Military Appeals, the Court of Federal Claims, and Tax Court were formed by Congress for specialized purposes with judges who have specific areas of jurisdiction.



  1. What is the point of original jurisdiction for most litigation in the federal courts?


  1. the Supreme Court
  2. the U.S. district courts
  3. the U.S. Court of Federal Claims — Consider This: The Court of Federal Claims is a legislative court created to handle specialized cases within a particular area of jurisdiction whereas the court in question handles cases pertaining to a diversity of areas.
  4. the U.S. courts of appeals



  1. How many district courts are in the federal system?


  1. five
  2. 16 — Consider This: There is at least one district court in each state with additional courts in US territories.
  3. 91
  4. 412



  1. When a court bases its decision or opinion on previous court decisions or rulings, that is called?


  1. percuriam
  2. stare decisis
  3. coram nobis — Consider This: Coram nobis refers to requests for cases to be reopened so courts can review their own judgements. The principle in question, however, refers to the court’s decision to “let the decision stand,” allowing precedent to help dictate the decision in a case.
  4. amicus curiae



  1. In a process known as __________ the Senate generally allows senators of the president’s party from the state in which a judicial vacancy occurs to block the nomination.


  1. advice and consent — Consider This: Advice and consent refers to the constitutional power of the Senate as a whole to approve presidential nominees, rather than the unwritten tradition described here.
  2. presidential deference
  3. judicial review
  4. senatorial courtesy




  1. Which of the following has the most control over the cases it hears?


  1. federal district courts
  2. trial courts
  3. state courts of original jurisdiction — Consider This: Courts of original jurisdiction, both federal and state, represent the entry points for most cases going to trial. They therefore have less discretion over the cases they hear, unlike courts which focus their efforts on constitutional interpretation.
  4. the U.S. Supreme Court




  1. When the U.S. Supreme Court agrees to hear a case appealed to it from a court of appeals, it is exercising its __________ jurisdiction.


  1. original
  2. constitutional — Consider This: The form of jurisdiction in question is not unique to the Supreme Court; it applies to any court not reviewing the factual record of a case but instead considering the legal issues involved.
  3. mandatory
  4. appellate



  1. According to the principle of __________, a court should not overturn precedent unless it is absolutely necessary.


  1. original intent — Consider This: Original intent pertains to the judge’s application of the original purpose of the law in his or her interpretation. The principle in question, however, focuses on “let[ting] the decision stand,” or valuing the handling of similar cases in the past.
  2. judicial review
  3. stare decisis
  4. prior restraint


  1. Under which of the following circumstances would a presidential nominee to the Supreme Court have the most trouble being confirmed?


  1. when the House is opposed to the nominee’s ideological orientation — Consider This: As the “lower house” of the legislature, the House of Representatives does not confirm presidential nominees.
  2. when a president nominates a woman or an ethnic or racial minority
  3. when a president makes a nomination at the beginning of his or her term
  4. when a president’s party affiliation is in the minority in the Senate



  1. If a judge believes that he or she should defer to the decisions made by elected representatives whenever possible, the judge likely believes in which of the following?


  1. judicial activism — Consider This: Unlike judicial activism, which encourages bold policy decisions by judges, the principle in question rejects judicial policymaking and encourages deference to Congress.
  2. the attitudinal model of decision making
  3. originalism
  4. judicial restraint




  1. The conferences of the U.S. Supreme Court are __________.


  1. limited to the justices and other Court staff — Consider This: While law clerks often help screen cases, they are not involved in justice conferences, a time to consider case selection and hold confidential deliberations.
  2. limited to the justices themselves
  3. open to the justices and the public
  4. open to the justices and the media



  1. When the government loses in a lower court, who decides whether to appeal a case to the Supreme Court?


  1. the president of the Senate
  2. the solicitor general
  3. the Supreme Court clerk of courts — Consider This: Supreme Court law clerks assist in reviewing cases but do not make determinations on whether or not government cases should be appealed. These decisions are made through the Department of Justice.
  4. the chief justice of the United States



  1. Which of the following limits judicial power?


  1. judicial review
  2. judicial activism — Consider This: Judicial activism is a means for judges to advance policy from the bench. The principle in question encourages deference to previous cases, making the current judge’s role appear less consequential.
  3. stare decisis
  4. life tenure



  1. Why did Justice Souter wait until 2009 to retire?


  1. so that he would get a bigger pension
  2. so that Barack Obama rather than George W. Bush would name a new justice
  3. to avoid the appearance of impropriety when deciding important cases on the docket in 2008 — Consider This: Although the judicial branch was designed to be insulated from partisan politics, justices often employ an ideological slant, not only in their rulings but in their decisions on when to leave the court.
  4. to ensure that he would be covered under the Affordable Care Act



  1. Which of the following are most commonly heard by the U.S. Supreme Court?


  1. federal habeas corpus cases — Consider This: Federal habeas corpus is a procedure by which courts review a citizen’s imprisonment. While the Supreme Court hears these cases, they are significantly less in number compared to disputes between two parties.
  2. original jurisdiction cases
  3. civil actions from lower federal courts
  4. criminal cases from state and federal courts





Economic and Social Welfare Policymaking



  • Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Inflation is best understood as the rate at which __________.


  1. gross domestic product expands
  2. the money supply expands – Consider This: This is controlled through government’s monetary policies.
  3. prices for goods and services increase
  4. the federal government increases taxes



  1. The unemployment rate is best understood as __________.


  1. the rate at which Americans lose their jobs
  2. the percentage of Americans who are out of work– Consider This: These individuals are not part of the unemployment statistics if they are not actively seeking a job.
  3. the percentage of Americans seeking work who are unable to find it
  4. the percentage of available jobs per 60,000 households




  1. What federal program is designed to provide medical insurance for the very poor in the United States?


  1. Medicaid
  2. Medicare Part A
  3. Medicare Part B
  4. Obamacare – Consider This: Obamacare or the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act was created to increase health insurance quality and affordability.



  1. Laissez-faire economics holds which of the following to be true?


  1. The government should raise interest rates during a recession.
  2. The government should not intervene in the economy.
  3. The government should actively work to reduce unemployment.
  4. The government should lower interest rates during a recession. – Consider This: This economic strategy is pursued as part of monetary policies to strengthen economic performance.



  1. Keynesian economic policy holds which of the following to be true?
  2. Increasing tax rates will stimulate the economy.
  3. Government spending should focus primarily on social welfare.
  4. The key task for fiscal policy is to stimulate the supply of goods. – Consider This: Keynesian economic policy concerns fiscal economic policies based on government’s ability to spend and tax.
  5. Government should take the responsibility to stimulate the economy when it is lagging.



  1. What is a government program called that provides benefits only to individuals who qualify based on specific needs?


  1. entitlement program– Consider This: Provide benefits from individuals regardless of need.
  2. a regulatory program
  3. a discretionary program
  4. a means-tested program



  1. Which of the following is true about Social Security?


  1. It makes transfer payments.
  2. It is considered a means-tested program. – Consider This: Social Security is a major entitlement program that provides benefits to individuals regardless of needs.
  3. It is not available to the wealthy.
  4. It is entirely supported by property taxes.



  1. What is the primary source of money in the Social Security Trust Fund?


  1. sales taxes
  2. payroll taxes
  3. property taxes– Consider This: This tax is mostly used to fund schools.
  4. income taxes



  1. One of the biggest concerns surrounding the Social Security Trust Fund is that __________.


  1. the benefits being paid out are too high
  2. the payroll taxes are currently too high– Consider This: Some argue that the payroll taxes are too low to sustain the Social Security Trust Fund.
  3. there will not be enough money to pay future retirees
  4. much of the money in the Trust Fund has been embezzled by corrupt politicians



  1. Which of the following strategies does monetary policy dictate in inflationary periods?


  1. Congress should increase spending.
  2. Congress should raise taxes on citizens.
  3. The Federal Reserve should lower interest rates. – Consider This: A decrease of interest rates makes the borrowing of money cheaper, thereby increasing the amount of money in the economy.
  4. The Federal Reserve should raise interest rates.



  1. What is a government program called that provides benefits to qualified citizens regardless of need?


  1. an economic stimulus program
  2. an entitlement program
  3. a means-tested program– Consider This: Government programs providing benefits only to individuals who qualify based on specific needs.
  4. a command-and-control program



  1. An economic theory holding that the supply of money is the key to a nation’s economic health and that too much cash and credit in circulation produces inflation is called __________.


  1. fiscalism
  2. Keynesian– Consider This: This economic theory holds that government spending and deficits can help the economy deal with the boom and bust cycles.
  3. monetarism
  4. Reaganomics



  1. The consumer price index measures _____.


  1. income distribution
  2. the gross national product
  3. inflation
  4. money supply– Consider This: Government manages the economy by controlling the money supply.



  1. What type of federal program is Medicaid?


  1. discretionary
  2. means-tested
  3. social insurance
  4. entitlement– Consider This: In contrast to entitlement programs, Medicaid provides only benefits to those who can establish a need.


  1. Which of the following is an entitlement program?


  1. food stamps
  2. Medicaid– Consider This: Medicaid is a means-tested program.
  3. Medicare
  4. employer-provided health insurance



  1. Which of the following entities is responsible for influencing interest rates in the United States?


  1. the Congress– Consider This: Through spending and taxation, Congress and the president can shape fiscal policies.
  2. the Congressional Budget Office
  3. the Executive Office of the President
  4. the Federal Reserve Board



  1. The percentage of Americans who are seeking work but unable to find it is called __________.


  1. the entitlement rate
  2. the workforce rate
  3. the unemployment rate– Consider This: This rate takes into account more than the characteristics of the unemployment rate.
  4. the underemployment rate



  1. Who is primarily responsible for making monetary policy in the United States?


  1. Congress– Consider This: Through spending and taxation, Congress can influence fiscal policies.
  2. the president
  3. the Department of the Treasury
  4. the Federal Reserve Board



  1. What is the main purpose of monetary policy?


  1. to control the supply of money and credit
  2. to control the amount of public debt sold to foreign states
  3. to control the interest rates on money lent to foreign states– Consider This: Foreign states determine lending interest rates.
  4. to equalize income disparity among citizens



  1. A main goal of fiscal policy is to __________.


  1. affect how much money is available to foreign governments for investment
  2. use taxes and government spending to help stimulate or slow down the economy
  3. determine how much interest the government will pay on the federal debt
  4. stimulate the economy by increasing the number of imports into the United States– Consider This: Stimulation of the economy in this area is shaped by trade agreements between countries.
  5. What distinguishes a means-tested program from a social insurance program?


  1. A means-tested program extends benefits based on age categories, while a social insurance program provides benefits based on immediate need.
  2. A means-tested program only extends benefits to the elderly, while a social insurance program extends benefits to everybody. – Consider This: Means-tested program like food stamps provide benefits to those with specific needs, while social security or entitlement programs like Social Security provide benefits to qualified individuals regardless of needs.
  3. A social insurance program extends benefits only to the working poor, while a means-tested program extends benefits to everyone, regardless of social class.
  4. A social insurance program provides benefits to those who have paid into the program, while a means-tested program provides benefits based on demonstrated need.



  1. What did the Social Security Act of 1935 create besides Social Security for the elderly?


  1. a program to assist some poor Americans that was later called Aid to Families with Dependent Children
  2. disability insurance
  3. Temporary Assistance for Needy Families– Consider This: Part of the 1996 welfare reform that replaced Aid to Families with Dependent Children.
  4. unemployment benefits



  1. What did the welfare reform law of 1996 implement?


  1. Aid to Families with Dependent Children– Consider This: This welfare program was created by the 1935 Social Security Act.
  2. disability insurance
  3. Social Security for aged
  4. Temporary Assistance for Needy Families



  1. Which group has the highest poverty rate?


  1. the elderly
  2. Hispanics– Consider This: This is the third largest group suffering from poverty.
  3. central-city residents
  4. unmarried women



  1. Which of the following contributes to the unpopularity of welfare programs in the United States?


  1. Americans are generally uncompassionate.
  2. Americans tend to think that U.S. welfare programs are not generous enough. – Consider This: Many Americans think that U.S. welfare programs are too generous.
  3. Many Americans believe that access to welfare benefits contributes to the flood of immigrants.
  4. Welfare programs tend to increase inflation and decrease exports.



  1. A __________ tax is one by which the government takes a greater share of the income of the rich than of the poor.


  1. progressive
  2. proportional – Consider This: A tax by which the government takes the same share of income from everyone regardless of wealth.
  3. regressive
  4. transfer



  1. If the Federal Reserve Board wanted to slow the rate of economic growth, it would most likely __________.


  1. encourage the president to lower taxes
  2. increase interest rates
  3. increase the money supply– Consider This: Increasing the money supply is likely to increase inflation and ultimately overhead the economy.
  4. lower capital gains rates


  1. A __________ tax is one in which the burden falls relatively more heavily on low-income groups than on wealthy taxpayers.


  1. progressive– Consider This: A tax by which the government takes a greater share of the income of the rich than the poor.
  2. regressive
  3. proportional
  4. severance



  1. __________ are cash or in-kind benefits such as food stamps and low-interest college loans that are given by the government directly to individuals.


  1. Tax credits– Consider This: A tax incentive which allows certain taxpayers to subtract the amount of the credit from the total they owe the government.
  2. Tax deductions
  3. Tax expenditures
  4. Transfer payments



  1. Increasing inequality in the distribution of income can contribute to a situation known as __________, which is becoming more common in America.


  1. the complacency of dependency– Consider This: Speaker of the House Paul Ryan warned of this within the context of a generous welfare net.
  2. recessive economics
  3. regressive politics
  4. relative deprivation



  1. Of the following countries, which provides the shortest amount of paid parental leave for a two-parent family?


  1. France
  2. Switzerland – Consider This: Provides 11 days of paid leave and the second lowest compared to major established democracies.
  3. Germany
  4. the United States



  1. If the Federal Reserve Board wanted to curb inflation, it would most likely __________.


  1. raise interest rates
  2. lower taxes– Consider This: Within the context of fiscal policy, the power to raise or lower taxes belongs to Congress.
  3. increase government spending
  4. increase exports



  1. According to laissez-faire economic theory, what should the government do during an economic downturn?


  1. raise taxes
  2. increase government spending on infrastructure projects– Consider This: Within the context of fiscal policy, the government would increase spending to stimulate the economy.
  3. bail out failing industries that are at the core of our economy
  4. nothing



  1. In an economic slowdown, Keynesian economic policy would advocate increasing __________.


  1. taxes
  2. government spending
  3. the unemployment rate
  4. interest rates– Consider This: This is determined by monetary policies and is likely to weaken the economy further.


  1. Upon taking office in 2009, for which of the following did President Obama advocate in order to deal with the economic crisis?


  1. lowering interest rates– Consider This: Monetary policies are shaped by the Federal Reserve Board, while fiscal policies are shaped by Congress and the president.
  2. a massive economic stimulus bill
  3. increasing middle-class taxes
  4. a balanced-budget amendment




  1. When it comes to strengthening the economy, Republicans are more likely than Democrats to prioritize __________.
  2. fighting inflation
  3. fighting unemployment– Consider This: Democrats are more concerned with keeping unemployment low.
  4. increasing taxes
  5. increasing spending



  1. Which of the following would indicate that the economy is experiencing inflation?


  1. The cost of groceries is increasing.
  2. Goods are becoming less expensive. – Consider This: Within the context of inflation, good are becoming more expensive.
  3. The federal government is lowering tax rates.
  4. The Federal Reserve is increasing the money supply.



  1. Which of these is most consistent with the philosophy of Keynesianism?


  1. interest rate increases by the Federal Reserve Board
  2. congressional action to pay off some of its debt
  3. a decision by the Federal Reserve Board to increase the money supply– Consider This: The Federal Reserve Board engages in monetary policies by setting interest rates.
  4. increased spending by Congress for roads, bridges, and other infrastructure



  1. Which of the following has been the biggest contributor to bouts of inflation over the last 50 years?


  1. the inaugurations of new presidents
  2. technological innovations
  3. soaring prices for energy
  4. wars or other significant military conflicts– Consider This: Souring prices for energy have been mostly responsible for inflation.



  1. Which of the following most accurately describes the recent financial crisis in the United States?


  1. a depression– Consider This: Concerns a sustained and long-term downturn in economic activity such as the Great Depression of the 1930s.
  2. an inflationary cycle
  3. a mild recession
  4. a severe recession



  1. If you support laissez-faire economic policies, you would generally favor __________.


  1. a reduction in the amount of economic regulation by the federal government
  2. an increase in the level of taxes assessed by state governments
  3. an increase in the amount of economic regulation by the state governments– Consider This: Generally, laissez-fair economic policies discourage government involvement in the economy.
  4. an increase in the tariffs assessed on goods imported into the United States


  1. If the Fed were to have raised interest rates in the months leading up to the 2012 presidential election, what might have been the expected outcome?


  1. The economy would have become stronger. – Consider This: Raising interest rates is likely to weaken the economy because the borrowing of money becomes more expensive.
  2. The economy would have weakened further.
  3. Imports would have increased.
  4. Unemployment would have decreased.



  1. Which of the following is an example of monetary policy?


  1. decreasing federal spending– Consider This: This is an example of fiscal policy.
  2. increasing food and drug regulations
  3. increasing income taxes on wealthy Americans
  4. the Federal Reserve Board buying government bonds



  1. What is one of the problems with using official poverty counts?


  1. The formula is based on food costs, which have declined relative to other expenses.
  2. They tend to underestimate the number of children who live in poverty.
  3. They tend to exaggerate the number of women who live in poverty.
  4. They tend to overestimate the amount of people in poverty. – Consider This: Due to the formula used, the number of people in poverty are underestimated.



  1. Which of the following do Republicans tend to support?


  1. demand-side economics
  2. government spending to stimulate the economy
  3. supply-side economics
  4. Keynesian economics– Consider This: Republicans have criticized Keynesian economic policies as promoting the idea that the government can spend money more widely than the people.



  1. Which of these statements best describes the possible effect of efforts by the Federal Reserve Board to lower interest rates?


  1. They can lead to lower capital gains tax rates.
  2. They can lead to higher unemployment in years of budget deficits.
  3. They can spur economic growth by increasing the cost of money for business. – Consider This: The Federal Reserve Board sets interest rates used by banks to borrow money.
  4. They can spur economic growth by increasing the available money supply.



  1. Which of the following is a concern about the Social Security Trust Fund?


  1. The rate of Social Security payroll taxes will continue to decrease unless Congress changes the law. – Consider This: This rate has been stable for many years.
  2. The number of current retirees contributing to the fund will continue to increase as the number of seniors continue to work after traditional retirement age.
  3. Soon there will be too few workers contributing to the Trust Fund to support the increasing number of retirees.
  4. Soon the Trust Fund will need to pay back the money it borrowed from the general treasury but it does not look like it will be able to repay this loan.


  1. How does American social welfare policy compare to those of European democracies?


  1. Americans have a much lower tax rate than do Europeans, and social welfare benefits are much less generous in the United States.
  2. American tax rates are much higher than those of European nations, but the social welfare benefits are higher as well. – Consider This: Tax rates in the United States tend to be much lower compared to many European countries.
  3. Social welfare programs are about the same in the United States as in European countries.
  4. The United States is truly a “welfare state” by European standards.



  1. What is causing the scope of government to increase?


  1. poor economic management by the Federal Reserve board– Consider This: Federal Reserve board is involved in shaping monetary policy.
  2. the growth in social welfare spending for programs like Social Security and Medicare
  3. frequent and lingering episodes of inflation
  4. increasingly regressive taxes and rising energy costs


  1. Which of the following is a possible solution to the long-term problem of solvency in the Social Security program?


  1. increase benefits for retirees who have substantial income from other sources
  2. increase the minimum retirement age
  3. revise the inflation adjustment formula for benefits so that recipients would receive more of a raise every year
  4. lower the payroll tax contribution– Consider This: This is one of the Social Security reform suggestions.



  1. If you subscribe to Keynesian economic policies, you are most concerned with __________.
  2. exports
  3. unemployment
  4. inflation– Consider This: Monetary policy is mostly concerned with inflation.
  5. money supply



  1. To what does the text attribute the declining poverty rate among the elderly?


  1. the feminization of poverty– Consider This: Concerns the increasing concentration of poverty among women.
  2. progressive taxation
  3. Social Security and Medicare
  4. supply-side economics






Understanding Health Care, Environmental, and Energy Policy



p Multiple-Choice Questions



  1. Which of the following is a provision of the Affordable Care Act?


  1. Insurance companies can only stop covering someone during the January open-enrollment period.
  2. Young people must be allowed to remain on their parents’ insurance until the age of 26.
  3. All caps for out-of-pocket expenses must be eliminated by 2019.
  4. Doctors can charge patients no more than $10 for preventive care like mammograms, flu shots, and diabetes tests. — Consider This: Caps for preventive care are not part of the program.



  1. How much do Americans spend on health care each year?


  1. $3 million
  2. $30 million
  3. $3 billion — Consider This: This is a drop in the bucket compared to total spending.
  4. $3 trillion



  1. Medicare is a program that provides health care for __________.


  1. the poor — Consider This: Medicaid is the government health care program for the poor.
  2. the elderly
  3. the unemployed
  4. anyone who lacks health insurance



  1. What proportion of Americans have private health insurance of some kind—either through an employer or purchased individually?


  1. one-third
  2. one-half
  3. two-thirds — Consider This: Fewer than two-thirds of Americans get their health care from their workplace.
  4. three-fourths




  1. Who typically qualifies for Medicare?


  1. full-time workers
  2. those 65 or older
  3. the unemployed — Consider This: Medicare is for elderly Americans.
  4. the poor


  1. Who was the first president to propose a national health insurance program to be run by the government?


  1. Franklin Roosevelt
  2. Bill Clinton — Consider This: Clinton spearheaded the second major effort provide national health care.
  3. Harry Truman
  4. Barack Obama



  1. Medicaid is aimed at what group of people?


  1. children — Consider This: Although most Medicaid recipients are children, they were not the specific aim of the program.
  2. full-time workers
  3. seniors
  4. the poor



  1. Which of the following was passed by Congress in 1965?


  1. Affordable Care Act — Consider This: The Affordable Care Act was an initiative of the Obama administration.
  2. Children’s Health Insurance Program
  3. Emergency Medical Treatment Act
  4. Medicare



  1. Which of the following best reflects the Republican reaction to the Affordable Care Act?


  1. Republicans have called for the repeal of the Affordable Care Act.
  2. Republicans have called for modest improvements to the Affordable Care Act. — Consider This: Republicans called for repeal of ACA.
  3. Republicans have been trying to replace the Affordable Care Act with a single-payer system.
  4. Republicans were initially against the Affordable Care Act but now support it.


  1. Which of the following is true of the Affordable Care Act?


  1. It is a national government takeover of health care.
  2. It provides universal coverage to all Americans. — Consider This: ACA does not provide universal health care.
  3. It involves a single-payer health care system.
  4. It requires all Americans to have health insurance.




  1. Which of the following is true of current health care policy in America?


  1. The federal government provides health care to all citizens.
  2. Americans are far healthier than Europeans.
  3. Total health care spending in the United States is about 17 to 18 percent of GDP.
  4. The Affordable Care Act created a single-payer health care system similar to that found in Canada. — Consider This: The ACA is not a single-payer system.



  1. One of the primary obstacles to balancing the federal budget is __________.


  1. health care costs
  2. environmental policies
  3. education expenses — Consider This: Most education funding comes from state or local sources.
  4. monetary policies


  1. How does life expectancy in the United States compare to other developed nations?


  1. It is lower.
  2. It is about the same.
  3. It is slightly higher.
  4. It is much higher. — Consider This: Despite spending a larger percentage of GDP on health care, our life expectancy is not higher.


  1. Which of the following is the largest federal independent regulatory agency?


  1. the Food and Drug Administration
  2. the Central Intelligence Agency — Consider This: The CIA is not a regulatory agency.
  3. the Environmental Protection Agency
  4. the Internal Revenue Service



  1. Which of the following pieces of legislation first required agencies to file environmental impact statements?


  1. the National Environmental Policy Act
  2. the Clean Water Act
  3. the Clean Air Act — Consider This: This Act was more specific to combatting air pollution.
  4. the Superfund Act


  1. The most expensive single category of health care spending for the federal government is __________.
  2. Medicare
  3. Medicaid — Consider This: Medicaid is an expensive program, but not the most expensive.
  4. CHIPS
  5. HMOs



  1. Of the following countries, which has the lowest infant mortality rate and the highest life expectancy?


  1. the United States
  2. France — Consider This: France is second in both infant mortality rate and highest life expectancy.
  3. Canada
  4. Japan



  1. Which of the following situations is most likely to create an incentive for doctors to provide unnecessary procedures?


  1. a fee-for-service health insurance policy
  2. free market health care
  3. a single-payer system
  4. a health maintenance organization — Consider This: HMOs help to lower costs.



  1. The Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP) targets which of the following groups?


  1. Children whose families are currently enrolled in Medicare. — Consider This: CHIPs was designed to provide for children whose parents make too much money to qualify for Medicaid.
  2. Children whose families cannot afford private insurance but cannot qualify for Medicaid.
  3. Children whose families are currently enrolled in an HMO.
  4. Children whose families do not make enough money to receive Medicaid.



  1. Which of the following pieces of legislation is credited with dramatically increasing the water quality in U.S. lakes and rivers?


  1. Toxic Waste Reduction Act
  2. Endangered Aquatic Species Act
  3. Water Chemical Reduction Act — Consider This: This was not the legislation most responsible for improved water quality.
  4. Water Pollution Control Act



  1. Which of the following is true of how the U.S. government handles ensuring health care to the poor and the elderly?


  1. Medicare provides health care to the poor, and Medicaid provides health care to the elderly. — Consider This: Medicare is for the elderly.
  2. Medicare provides health care to the elderly, and Medicaid provides health care to the poor.
  3. Medicare replaced Medicaid in order to provide health care to poor people as well as the elderly.
  4. Medicaid replaced Medicare in order to provide health care to poor people as well as the elderly.



  1. How does the health care system in the United States compare to other democracies?


  1. The United States has a more expensive health care system than other democracies.
  2. The United States has an entirely privatized health care system, while other democracies have entirely public health care systems. — Consider This: Although most health care in the US is privatized, public health comprises a large portion of the system.
  3. The United States has a less expensive health care system than other democracies.
  4. The United States has a very similar health care system to many other democracies.



  1. In recent years, how has the government limited Medicare costs?


  1. raising the eligibility age — Consider This: Although the eligibility age for Social Security has increased, it has not increased for Medicare.
  2. requiring patients to obtain a supplemental private plan
  3. capping the total expenditures per patient
  4. reducing the fees it pays to doctors and hospitals



  1. What is the Superfund?


  1. a congressional fund to reduce carbon emissions
  2. a congressional fund to study global warming
  3. a congressional fund to improve air quality — Consider This: The Superfund is more narrowly targeted.
  4. a congressional fund to clean up hazardous waste sites



  1. What is America’s most abundant fuel?


  1. kerosene
  2. petroleum — Consider This: Petroleum produces more energy, but it is not our greatest energy reserve.
  3. coal
  4. natural gas



  1. What is the most rapidly increasing component of the federal budget?


  1. Medicare
  2. Medicaid
  3. Social Security — Consider This: Although Social Security spending is increasing rapidly, it is not the fastest growing component of the budget.
  4. climate change mitigation


  1. What is the name for networks of health care providers that directly provide all or most of a person’s health care for a yearly fee?


  1. health maintenance organizations
  2. hospital networks
  3. alliances of health
  4. fee-for-service networks — Consider This: Fee-for-service programs pay on the basis of individual services.



  1. In which era did health insurance become linked to employment?


  1. Progressive Era
  2. World War I
  3. New Deal — Consider This: Health insurance was not a New Deal program.
  4. World War II




  1. Which was the last of the following federal programs to be adopted?


  1. The Affordable Care Act
  2. Medicare
  3. Medicaid — Consider This: Medicare and Medicaid were both established in 1965.
  4. CHIPs



  1. NIMBY usually applies to which of the following policy areas?


  1. health care for the poor
  2. health care for the elderly
  3. health care for children — Consider This: NIMBY means Not In My Back Yard
  4. the environment



  1. Which of the following is an argument for why regulations designed to protect manatees should be relaxed?


  1. The manatee has been on the endangered species list for a long time.
  2. The manatee population has been increasing.
  3. Manatees have no natural predators. — Consider This: Natural predators are not the threat to manatees. Boat propellers are.
  4. Manatees are often injured by boat propellers.



  1. Which of the following best articulates a disadvantage of U.S. dependence on foreign oil?


  1. The need for oil is expected to decline during the next two decades, threating trade relations with other nations.
  2. Foreign oil is of a lower quality than domestic oil.
  3. Using foreign oil results in increased pollution in the United States due to the possibility of oil spills. — Consider This: The greatest risk of an oil spill is at the drilling site.
  4. The United States is at the mercy of other nations with which we might not always have a good relationship.



  1. What is one reason that health care policy in the United States tends to favor the elderly?


  1. American political culture places a heavy emphasis on respecting your elders.
  2. The AARP is a powerful lobby.
  3. A majority of Congress is elderly.
  4. The elderly have greater financial resources to use to influence public policy. — Consider This: The elder vote is more important than their campaign contributions.



  1. Which of the following statements about health care in the United States compared with other industrialized nations is accurate?


  1. The United States has lower health care costs because its people are healthier.
  2. Other industrialized nations have lower health care costs and better health.
  3. Other industrialized nations have higher health care costs because doctors are paid more.
  4. The United States has the highest health care costs because we have the most advanced universal health care system in the world. — Consider This: Our costs are highest, but that does not translate into the best care.


Difficulty Level: Difficult


  1. Which of the following complaints is most directly addressed by the Affordable Care Act?


  1. Medicare leaves too many health care expenses for the elderly to pay out of their own pockets. — Consider This: Plan B significantly reduced out of pocket expenses.
  2. Only a single-payer system can bring about significant health care savings.
  3. There are too many uninsured Americans.
  4. Employer-sponsored health insurance unnecessarily restricts my choice of doctors.



  1. Of the following examples, who is the least likely to have health insurance in the United States?


  1. children
  2. the poor — Consider This: The poorest Americans are eligible for Medicaid.
  3. the elderly
  4. young adults



  1. What is an environmental impact statement?


  1. A statement prepared by federal agencies detailing the potential environmental impact of a policy proposed by the government.
  2. An analysis of how a private entity has negatively impacted the environment. — Consider This: EIS’s apply to government entities.
  3. A statement prepared by Congress detailing the potential environmental impact of proposed legislation.
  4. A notice of concern sent to all individuals and businesses located close to a Superfund site.



  1. Which of the following techniques is used to release and capture petroleum and natural gas from the underground rock layer?


  1. fission technology — Consider This: Fission technology is associated with nuclear energy.
  2. hydro fusion
  3. geothermal fusion
  4. hydraulic fracturing



  1. Which of the following helps to explain why the United States relies more heavily on expensive, high-tech medical treatments as compared to the United Kingdom?


  1. Americans spend more time in the hospital.
  2. The United States has more advanced medical technology. — Consider This: The US does have advanced medical technology, but costs are controlled in the UK through its national health care system.
  3. The United States has a single-payer health care system.
  4. U.S. health care costs are paid from a mixture of sources, leaving no single source primarily responsible for controlling health care costs.



  1. What argument is most often given by opponents of strong air and water pollution controls?


  1. They ignore wildlife conservation issues.
  2. They make it hard for private entities to create stricter standards.
  3. They fall disproportionately on the poor. — Consider This: Pollution controls primarily affect industries.
  4. They could reduce economic growth.



  1. Medicaid covers the majority of which of the following groups?


  1. nursing home residents
  2. women giving birth
  3. people with severe disabilities
  4. senior citizens — Consider This: Medicare covers the majority of senior citizens.




  1. Which of the following is a provision of the Affordable Care Act?


  1. Citizens who cannot afford to buy health insurance are exempt from the individual mandate.
  2. All employers must provide health insurance for employees who work at least 30 hours a week. — Consider This: Only large employers must provide insurance for their fulltime workers.
  3. The creation of a government-run health care program for all Americans who do not have private insurance.
  4. Health insurance companies are prohibited from discriminating against people with preexisting conditions.




  1. Which of the following is an argument in favor of having national health insurance in the United States?


  1. Patients would have more individual control over their health care.
  2. All Americans would have access to health care.
  3. A national insurance program would promote fair competition among private insurers.
  4. A national insurance program would replace the unpopular Medicare and Medicaid programs. — Consider This: Medicare is a popular government program.



  1. Which of the following is one of the reasons why universal health care was not adopted in the United States when it was first proposed more than 60 years ago?


  1. Liberals wanted insurance provided by private companies only. — Consider This: Liberals were proponents of universal health care.
  2. The American Medical Association opposed what it derided as “socialized medicine.”
  3. Congress was only interested in passing legislation that benefited them personally, and members of Congress already had health care.
  4. Americans who lacked health insurance were afraid that private employers would no longer provide coverage.



  1. Which of the following best describes how cap-and-trade is a market-based solution for dealing with carbon dioxide emissions?


  1. The market has reduced carbon dioxide emissions without government intervention because companies have self-regulated to remain competitive. — Consider This: Cap-and-trade produces monetary incentives for reducing emissions.
  2. The states have reduced carbon dioxide emissions because the federal government has been unwilling to do so.
  3. Companies that pollute have spent significant money lobbying Congress to grant them exemptions from environmental regulations.
  4. It allows those who reduce emissions to sell credits to those who do not meet environmental standards.





National Security Policymaking



p Multiple-Choice Questions


  1. Combat troops were introduced in Iraq began under __________ and withdrawn under __________.


  1. Bill Clinton; George H. W. Bush
  2. Bill Clinton; George W. Bush
  3. George H. W. Bush; Barack Obama — Consider This: Combat in Iraq began under the younger president Bush.
  4. George W. Bush; Barack Obama



  1. One of the primary purposes of the military action in Afghanistan was to __________.


  1. prevent the spread of communism
  2. remove the Taliban regime
  3. protect Iraq from Afghani military attacks
  4. retaliate for the bombing of the USS Cole — Consider This: The US did not retaliate for the Cole attack.




  1. During which of the following events did U.S. military spending comprise the highest percentage of federal spending?


  1. the Vietnam War
  2. the Reagan administration — Consider This: Defense spending was high during this period, but not the highest.
  3. the war in Iraq
  4. the war in Afghanistan



  1. What is the primary responsibility of the secretary of defense?


  1. homeland security — Consider This: Homeland Security is a separate department with its own secretary.
  2. military policy
  3. domestic security
  4. commander in chief of the armed forces



  1. Who serves on the Joint Chiefs of Staff?


  1. the cabinet secretaries
  2. the commanding officers of each of the services
  3. the president’s foreign policy advisers
  4. the secretary of defense, the secretary of homeland security, and the director of the Central Intelligence Agency — Consider This: The Chiefs are military leaders.



  1. Who is the president’s chief adviser on intelligence matters?


  1. the director of the Central Intelligence Agency — Consider This: Although the CIA is important, its director is not the president’s chief intelligence adviser.
  2. the director of national intelligence
  3. the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
  4. the National Security Agency



  1. Which international organization is composed of nearly 200 member nations and was created after World War II for peacekeeping and other functions?


  1. the League of Nations — Consider This: The League of Nations was a failed first attempt at creating an international peacekeeping organization.
  2. the United Nations
  3. the World Trade Organization
  4. the Marshall Plan


  1. Which of the following best describes U.S. foreign aid?
  2. Americans greatly overestimate the amount that is spent on foreign aid.
  3. Most foreign aid programs are aimed at providing medical care and other services in less-developed nations.
  4. Foreign aid primarily consists of various loan programs that provide favorable interest rates and preferential trade agreements for nations that lower trade barriers. — Consider This: Loans are a significant part of foreign aid, but not the primary form.
  5. Foreign aid primarily consists of advice from the U.S. government to less-developed nations in Africa and Asia.



  1. Which of the following constrained Pakistan’s efforts to fight terrorists who have emerged in some areas of Pakistan?


  1. Pakistan is a poor nation and lacked international assistance to fight the terrorists.
  2. There was substantial sympathy for the Taliban among many Pakistani military and intelligence officials.
  3. The terrorists took over large cities and were beyond the government’s control. — Consider This: Although terrorists took control cities in Syria and Iraq, this was not the case in Pakistan.
  4. The terrorists had shown no sign of being dangerous, so the Pakistani government was not concerned about them.



  1. Which of the following countries is a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?


  1. Germany — Consider This: Although an important global actor, Germany is not a permanent member.
  2. India
  3. Spain
  4. the United States



  1. Which of the following countries is a member of NATO?


  1. Russia
  2. China
  3. Japan — Consider This: Although Japan is an ally, NATO is an Atlantic based alliance.
  4. Canada



  1. Who instituted the Marshall Plan and who benefited directly from it?


  1. The Soviet Union instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Germany.
  2. Germany instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit itself.
  3. The United Nations instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Germany, Italy, and Japan. — Consider This: The Marshall plan was not specifically targeted at former enemies.
  4. The United States instituted the Marshall Plan to benefit Europe.




  1. What event marked the end of the Cold War?


  1. the resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis
  2. the collapse of the Soviet Union
  3. the signing of the SALT II Treaty
  4. the Soviet withdrawal from Afghanistan — Consider This: Soviet withdrawal was a major event, but it did not end the Cold War.



  1. Which of the following tactics has Al Qaeda used effectively?


  1. détente
  2. mutually assured destruction — Consider This: Mutually assured destruction is an instrument of nuclear armed governments.
  3. nuclear proliferation
  4. terrorism



  1. What was Ronald Reagan’s Strategic Defense Initiative envisioned to accomplish?


  1. protect the United States from nuclear weapons
  2. promote democracy by fostering economic development
  3. reduce the number of nuclear warheads held by both the United States and the Soviet Union — Consider This: SDI was not a warhead reduction program
  4. refocus the military on nonconventional warfare



  1. What was the foreign policy of containment designed to prevent?
  2. nuclear proliferation — Consider This: Containment was not specifically concerned with proliferation.
  3. the spread of Soviet influence
  4. terrorism
  5. the Cold War



  1. Why was the North Atlantic Treaty Organization formed?


  1. to provide mutual defense for the United States and Western Europe
  2. to promote free trade between the United States and Western Europe — Consider This: NATO was not a trade agreement.
  3. to help rebuild war-torn Europe after World War II
  4. to enhance democratic government in newly industrializing countries



  1. Who is the main force behind U.S. foreign policy?


  1. Congress
  2. the president
  3. the State Department — Consider This: State has an important role in foreign policy, but it is not the main force.
  4. the National Security Council



  1. The United States engaged in which of the following military conflicts in order to fight against communist forces?


  1. World War I
  2. World War II — Consider This: The Soviet Union was a key ally in World War II.
  3. the Vietnam War
  4. the war on terrorism



  1. Which of the following best describes the arms race?


  1. the rapid movements of world governments to arm and thereby protect Eastern European countries from attack by the Soviet Union in the wake of World War II
  2. a tense relationship between the United States and the Soviet Union in the 1950s and 1960s during which each side was striving to procure more weapons than the other
  3. the U.S. race in the early twenty-first century to prevent the spread of weapons of mass destruction to unstable governments — Consider This: The arms race was a byproduct of the Cold War
  4. the efforts to rapidly reduce the number of nuclear weapons held by the United States and the Soviet Union




  1. Which of the following accurately describes the United Nations?


  1. The UN is an international organization formed immediately after World War I in an effort to avoid another world war and consistently renounces war and respects human and economic freedoms. — Consider This: The post-World War I effort to form an international peacekeeping force failed.
  2. The UN was created in 1945 as an international peacekeeping organization and has not always been capable of making and keeping peace.
  3. The UN was formed in the late 1930s as an international peacekeeping organization and has remained isolationist from the start.
  4. The UN is composed of fewer than 100 member nations and focuses exclusively on peacekeeping operations.



  1. Which of the following is a responsibility of the State Department?


  1. command of the military — Consider This: Military matters belong to the president and Department of Defense.
  2. space exploration
  3. protecting the president
  4. diplomacy



  1. What is the main foreign or defense policy threat posed by Iran?


  1. civil unrest
  2. nuclear capabilities
  3. economic collapse
  4. trade disagreements — Consider This: Economic sanctions were imposed to address a particular threat.



  1. Which of the following best describes the world’s superpowers since the end of World War II?


  1. The United States has been the sole superpower since the end of World War II.
  2. The United States and the Soviet Union were rival superpowers until the end of the Cold War, when the United States became the sole superpower.
  3. The United States and the Soviet Union were rival superpowers until the Cuban Missile Crisis, when the United States and Russia became rival superpowers.
  4. The United States and the Soviet Union were the only two rival superpowers until the end of the Cold War, when China also became a rival superpower. — Consider This: China has not achieved superpower status.



  1. Which of the following was a fundamental part of the justification for the 2003 war in Iraq?


  1. Iraq attacked Israel in 2002 with SCUD missiles and was threatening to do so again.
  2. Iraq had weapons of mass destruction.
  3. Saddam Hussein had provided considerable funding to Osama bin Laden.
  4. Saddam Hussein had permitted Osama bin Laden to use Iraq for training terrorists. — Consider This: Osama bin Laden was based in Afghanistan.



  1. Which of the following countries would have been most opposed to the policy of containment?


  1. United Kingdom
  2. France — Consider This: France was a key ally in the Cold War.
  3. Soviet Union
  4. United States




  1. Which of the following is an advantage of using soft power to achieve foreign policy objectives?


  1. Soft power takes full advantage of U.S. military prowess.
  2. Soft power is particularly adept at dealing with rogue nations. — Consider This: Soft power may be least effective with rogue nations.
  3. Resolutions reached through the use of soft power are more durable.
  4. Soft power does not rely on military coercion to accomplish foreign policy goals.



  1. The Senate can exercise influence over foreign policy through its power to __________.


  1. command the armed forces — Consider This: Although Congress declares war, the president commands the military.
  2. receive diplomats
  3. ratify treaties
  4. recognize the sovereignty of foreign countries



  1. Which of the following is composed of a broad array of the president’s foreign policy advisers including the secretary of defense, the secretary of state, the chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the director of national intelligence?
  2. the Department of Homeland Security — Consider This: Homeland Security is a separate department
  3. NATO
  4. the National Security Council
  5. the Central Intelligence Agency



  1. Which of the following engages in a global surveillance operation that was unmasked by Edward Snowden in 2013?


  1. the Department of Defense
  2. the secretary of state
  3. the Central Intelligence Agency — Consider This: The CIA was not Snowden’s target.
  4. the National Security Agency






  1. How are tourists most likely to be of benefit to international relations?


  1. Tourists are the largest carriers of diseases in the world.
  2. Tourists help build goodwill between countries.
  3. Tourists confirm negative stereotypes about foreign countries.
  4. Tourists typically increase the trade deficit. — Consider This: This would not be considered a benefit.



  1. Which of the following helps to explain why a country’s economy may be negatively affected by an economic crisis in another country?


  1. a negative balance of trade
  2. a positive balance of trade
  3. isolationism — Consider This: Isolationism decreases interactions among nations.
  4. interdependency



  1. Which of the following is most consistent with the foreign policy of isolationism?


  1. a country’s refusal to intervene in an armed conflict between two other countries
  2. a country’s willingness to use diplomatic sanctions to pressure another country to address human rights violations
  3. the George W. Bush administration’s policy of actively rooting out terrorism before a threat has fully developed — Consider This: Interventionist policy is the opposite of isolationism.
  4. multilateral trade agreements



  1. Which of the following best describes the conflict that has sometimes existed between the National Security Council (NSC) and others within the national security establishment?


  1. Because the NCS always integrates advice from other cabinet departments, most advisers in national security see the council as having little independent value.
  2. The NSC has sometimes conspired with the State and Defense departments in covert operations, such as the Iran-Contra affair. — Consider This: The NSC’s role in Iran Contra was largely of its own making.
  3. Because the NCS was created after September 11, 2001, many in the departments of State and Defense do not respect the limited experience of this newcomer.
  4. The NSC has sometimes competed with, rather than integrated advice from, cabinet departments such as State and Defense, and it also has become involved in covert operations such as the Iran-Contra affair.



  1. What can Congress do to influence foreign policy if it is not satisfied with the way the president has handled foreign policy?


  1. Congress can fire ambassadors who are not executing foreign policy according to Congress’s wishes.
  2. Congress can reduce appropriations for executing the president’s foreign policy.
  3. Congress can command the military to execute foreign policy according to Congress’s wishes.
  4. Congress can replace the secretary of state with someone who will implement foreign policy according to Congress’s wishes. — Consider This: The secretary of state works for the president.



  1. Which of the following is most consistent with the concept of diplomacy?


  1. counterintelligence
  2. military threats — Consider This: Diplomacy aims to affect change without military threat.
  3. negotiation
  4. confrontation



  1. Which of the following is an example of a situation in which economic sanctions accomplished the intended goal?


  1. sanctions levied against South Africa in the mid-1980s to protest apartheid
  2. the grain embargo on the Soviet Union in 1980 in retaliation for the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  3. the sanctions against Cuba to oust the Marxist dictator — Consider This: The Marxist regime was still in power 50 years after sanctions were first imposed.
  4. sanctions imposed on Russia to keep it out of Crimea



  1. Which of the following could result from a balance-of-trade deficit?


  1. The value of the dollar increases, so Americans can buy more goods from other countries for the same amount of money. — Consider This: Trade deficits are often associated with a decline in the dollar’s value.
  2. The value of the dollar declines, so Americans have to pay more for goods from other nations.
  3. The value of the dollar increases, making American products cheaper abroad, thereby increasing our exports.
  4. The value of the dollar declines, which makes American products more expensive abroad, thereby decreasing our exports.



  1. Which of the following is a reason why the United States is considered to be predominant in terms of military capabilities?
  2. The United States spends less on defense than does any other industrialized democracy. — Consider This: The U. S. spends more on defense than our western allies.
  3. The United States has underwhelming nuclear superiority.
  4. The United States has the world’s dominant air force and the only navy with worldwide operations.
  5. The United States has lost the unique capability to project power around the world.



  1. Which of the following is an example of foreign aid?


  1. the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
  2. the International Monetary Fund — Consider This: The IMF deals with currency stabilization.
  3. the North American Free Trade Agreement
  4. the Marshall Plan



  1. With which of the following is the president most likely to consult for advice about how to best take advantage of the strengths of the various service branches when conducting a military operation?


  1. the Central Intelligence Agency
  2. the director of national intelligence — Consider This: The national intelligence director advises on secret operations.
  3. the secretary of homeland security
  4. the Joint Chiefs of Staff



  1. During the height of the Cold War, what would the United States likely have done if it had discovered that the Soviet Union had previously unknown stockpiles of nuclear weapons?


  1. negotiate a bilateral nuclear nonproliferation agreement
  2. engage in a military conflict with the Soviet Union — Consider This: Mutual assured destruction made a military conflict unlikely.
  3. stockpile additional nuclear weapons in the United States
  4. extend diplomatic immunity to the Soviet Union



  1. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)?


  1. The CIA is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution as being exempt from federal law as long as it is acting in the name of national security.
  2. The CIA is in charge of the various other agencies in the intelligence community.
  3. The CIA has sometimes become involved in other nations’ internal affairs.
  4. The primary mission of the CIA is to gather intelligence on American citizens. — Consider This: The CIA is legally barred from spying on American citizens.



  1. How has U.S. foreign policy regarding Iran and North Korea been similar for much of the past decade?


  1. It has been largely focused on economic development. — Consider This: Concern over Iran and North Korea have been driven by factors other than economic development.
  2. It has been largely driven by the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks.
  3. It has been largely determined by the wealth of natural resources the countries possess.
  4. It has been largely driven by concerns over nuclear weapons.



  1. Which of the following statements about terrorism is accurate?


  1. Terrorism usually involves military personnel and military targets.
  2. Terrorism is often designed to demoralize and frighten the general public.
  3. Terrorism is usually financed by the government. — Consider This: Governments may harbor terrorists, but most financing comes from other sources.
  4. Only nongovernmental political actors engage in terrorism.



  1. How did the Cold War get started?


  1. It began after World War II when there was a shortage of coal and heating fuel in Europe.
  2. It started when the United States established the Truman Doctrine at the end of World War II, which left Eastern European countries “in the cold” by declaring that they would have to defend themselves without U.S. help. — Consider This: The Truman Doctrine was in response to the Cold War.
  3. It began after all of Eastern Europe fell under Soviet domination at the end of World War II, which prompted fears that the Soviets would spread communism around the globe.
  4. It started when the Truman Doctrine froze all military alliances into their pre-World War II configurations.



  1. Why did the United States join the North American Free Trade Agreement?


  1. to lower trade barriers
  2. to relocate manufacturing jobs to Mexico to take advantage of cheaper labor
  3. to slow down the pace of globalization — Consider This: NAFTA broadened trade across North America.
  4. to make it harder for Japanese cars to compete in the American marketplace



  1. Why have multinational corporations become forces to be reckoned with in nearly all nations?
  2. They frequently use their money to buy government officials’ votes in nearly any country at nearly any time. — Consider This: Although such activity may occur, it is not at the frequency this would suggest.
  3. They better understand the dangers of globalization than do most elected officials.
  4. They encourage isolationist policies in order to get complete control of governments and markets in various countries.
  5. They account for a large portion of the global economy and have voiced strong opinions about government and economics.



  1. Why has the United States tried to deal with the threat from Iran with diplomacy, rather than military options?


  1. Diplomacy is likely to succeed since the Islamic world trusts and respects the United States.
  2. Diplomacy is likely to lead Iran to isolationism, thereby removing the threat.
  3. Military action would be more likely to lead to further radicalization of Muslims and terrorist retaliation.
  4. Military action would be less likely to succeed, and could harm the cooperative approach taken by Iran toward the United States and its allies. — Consider This: Iran did not enter into the situation through a cooperative approach.



  1. In 2004, Congress created a director of national intelligence. Why did Congress do this?


  1. to help the director of the Central Intelligence Agency combat the growing threat posed by weapons of mass destruction
  2. to better coordinate the large number of people working in diverse intelligence agencies
  3. to decentralize authority within the intelligence community to prevent competition between agencies
  4. because the previous organizational structure of the intelligence community encouraged the various agencies to do too much of their work collaboratively, which led to groupthink — Consider This: The lack of collaboration was a major concern of Congress.


Difficulty Level: Difficult


  1. Which of the following is most likely to have the greatest influence over U.S. foreign policy?


  1. secretary of state
  2. director of the Central Intelligence Agency
  3. chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff — Consider This: Although the chair may be important, it does not have the greatest influence.
  4. director of national intelligence