Sample Chapter

INSTANT DOWNLOAD

 

 The Human Body in Health and Illness 4th Edition by Barbara Herlihy – Test Bank

 

Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 4th Edition

 

Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism?
a. Normal flora
b. Pathogen
c. Arthropod
d. Parasite

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary?
a. Immune
b. Symptomatic
c. Carrier
d. Fomite

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a pathogen?
a. Syndrome
b. Allergy
c. Infection
d. Immunity

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Influenza is best described as a(n)
a. localized infection.
b. allergic reaction.
c. bacterial infection.
d. systemic infection.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Cocci, bacilli, and curved rods are classified as
a. viruses.
b. pathogens.
c. bacteria.
d. parasites.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Bacteria
a. include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods.
b. are not part of the normal flora of the intestines.
c. cause mycotic infections.
d. include mold and yeast.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. An abscess is
a. an example of a systemic infection.
b. always viral in origin.
c. an example of a mycotic infection.
d. an example of a localized infection.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci?
a. Grapelike arrangement
b. Bacterial
c. Gram-positive
d. Underlying cause of rheumatic fever

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Rickettsiae are
a. classified as fungi.
b. viruses.
c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice.
d. arthropod vectors.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Streptococci and staphylococci are
a. viruses.
b. gram-positive bacteria.
c. arthropods.
d. parasites.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as
a. viruses.
b. bacteria.
c. arthropods.
d. bacilli.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative?
a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Yeast

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
a. Causative organism of impetigo
b. Fungal infection
c. Yeast infection
d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are
a. staphylococcal infections.
b. caused by a spirochete.
c. localized infections.
d. bacterial infections.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Bacillus
d. Spirillum

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile
a. are gram-negative bacilli.
b. are anaerobic.
c. are always pathogenic.
d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?
a. Causes syphilis
b. Classified as a bacterium
c. Is most often spread by the fecal-oral route
d. Is a spirochete

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium
a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics.
b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions.
c. increases its reproductive activity.
d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence?
a. Arthropod
b. Pathogen
c. Parasite
d. Bacterium

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Clostridium tetani

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A mycotic infection is caused by a(n)
a. parasite.
b. bacterium.
c. fungus.
d. arthropod.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as
a. parasites.
b. causative organisms of disease.
c. vectors.
d. fomites.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito?
a. Typhoid fever
b. Tetanus
c. Malaria
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as
a. systemic.
b. mycotic.
c. parasitic.
d. bacterial.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas?
a. Bacilli
b. Arthropods
c. Viruses
d. Protozoa

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which bad air disease is caused by a plasmodium?
a. Measles
b. Tinea
c. Tetanus
d. Malaria

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection?
a. Clostridium
b. Mycotic
c. Viral
d. Parasitic

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Tinea is most related to
a. ringworm.
b. tetanus.
c. systemic infection.
d. treatment with anthelmintics.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. A fomite is a
a. worm.
b. parasite.
c. vector.
d. host.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A helminth is a(n)
a. parasite.
b. arthropod.
c. worm.
d. bacterium.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
a. mycotic infections.
b. caused by Salmonella.
c. worm infestations.
d. caused by protozoan parasites.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the stool of the infected person?
a. Worms
b. Viruses
c. Arthropods
d. Spirochetes

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n)
a. arthropod vector.
b. causative organism.
c. spirochete.
d. fungus.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The acid-fast bacillus is
a. most often spread through droplet infection.
b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin.
c. pathogenic only in humans.
d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an _____ drug.
a. antiviral
b. anthelmintic
c. antibiotic
d. antifungal

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Biting flies, fleas, and ticks
a. most often cause systemic infections.
b. are best described as ectoparasites.
c. are classified as helminths.
d. cause mycotic infections.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area, causing severe pruritus?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Pinworms
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Candida albicans

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Ectoparasites are most likely to cause
a. itching and discomfort.
b. high fever.
c. paralysis.
d. loss of consciousness.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be
a. pathogenic.
b. parasitic.
c. fungal.
d. communicable.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod?
a. Contaminated drinking glass
b. Virus
c. Worm
d. Flea

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her
a. urine (kidneys).
b. respiratory secretions (lungs).
c. nasal secretions (nose).
d. bile (gallbladder).

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Herpes varicella-zoster
a. is a fungus.
b. generally causes an antibiotic-induced superinfection.
c. causes chickenpox.
d. responds well to antibiotics.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A pox infection
a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster.
b. only occurs in humans.
c. is a skin lesion.
d. is communicable but never contagious.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later life, it causes
a. “the great pox.”
b. shingles.
c. tinea capitis.
d. smallpox.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. MRSA
a. is generally responsive to penicillin.
b. refers to drug-resistant staphylococci.
c. refers to potent antibiotics that are used to treat resistant strains of staphylococci.
d. refers to drugs that eradicate pox viruses.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as
a. a localized infection.
b. age-related degenerative disease.
c. nosocomial infection.
d. pandemic.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 4th Edition

 

Chapter 17: Function of the Heart

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Systole and diastole describe the function of the
a. pericardium.
b. SA node.
c. myocardium.
d. mediastinum.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. During atrial systole, the
a. AV valves are closed.
b. ventricles are relaxed.
c. ventricles are in systole.
d. semilunar valves are open.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What happens during ventricular diastole?
a. The ventricles are filling with blood.
b. All semilunar valves are open.
c. Both AV valves are closed.
d. Blood is pumped to the lungs and systemic circulation.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a very rapid heart rate?
a. Decreased ventricular filling (with blood)
b. Failure of the AV valves to open
c. Failure of the SA node to fire
d. Failure of the cardiac impulse to enter the His-Purkinje system

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following does not happen to a ventricle?
a. Activation of the beta1-adrenergic receptors
b. Discharge of sympathetic nerves
c. Discharge of the vagal nerve
d. Binding of norepinephrine to its receptor

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to relieve an anxiety-induced tachycardia?
a. Vagolytic drug
b. Beta1-adrenergic agonist
c. Sympathomimetic
d. Beta1-adrenergic blocker

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is responsible for the Starling effect?
a. Sympathetic nerve firing
b. Vagal discharge
c. Activation of the beta1-adrenergic receptors
d. End-diastolic volume (EDV) or preload

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to increase stroke volume?
a. A (+) inotropic drug
b. A vagolytic drug
c. A (–) chronotropic drug
d. A beta1-adrenergic blocker

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to increase ejection fraction?
a. Activation of beta1-adrenergic receptors
b. Vagal discharge
c. Blockade of beta1-adrenergic receptors
d. Activation of the muscarinic receptors

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is the same as end-diastolic volume?
a. Stroke volume
b. Cardiac output
c. Preload
d. Cardiac reserve

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat?
a. Cardiac output
b. Blood volume
c. Hematocrit
d. Stroke volume

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute?
a. Stroke volume
b. Cardiac output
c. Starling’s law of the heart
d. Inotropic effect

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the myocardium
a. causes a (+) inotropic effect.
b. decreases cardiac output.
c. decreases heart rate.
d. decreases stroke volume.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Vagal stimulation to the heart causes
a. a (+) inotropic effect.
b. heart rate to slow.
c. cardiac output to increase.
d. stroke volume to increase.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause
a. hypertension.
b. bradycardia.
c. tachycardia.
d. anemia.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is descriptive of the vagus nerve?
a. Fight-or-flight
b. Parasympathetic
c. Sympathetic
d. Adrenergic

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Heart rate and stroke volume determine
a. hematocrit.
b. total blood volume.
c. cardiac output.
d. the size of the heart valves.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A drug (e.g., atropine) that blocks the vagus nerve
a. stops the heart.
b. increases heart rate.
c. decreases cardiac output.
d. decreases stroke volume.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Activation of the muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine
a. increases myocardial contractile force.
b. causes a (+) chronotropic effect.
c. increases cardiac output.
d. slows heart rate.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most likely to cause
a. valve damage.
b. pulmonary edema.
c. angina pectoris.
d. bradycardia.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which term refers to a heart rate less than 60 beats/min?
a. Bradycardia
b. Heart block
c. Fight-or-flight response
d. Tachycardia

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Vagal stimulation on the heart
a. increases the force of myocardial contraction.
b. increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava.
c. causes tachycardia.
d. slows the heart rate.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following most accurately describes the vagus nerve?
a. Fight-or-flight
b. Norepinephrine
c. Parasympathetic
d. Causes tachycardia

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat?
a. Stroke volume
b. Cardiac output
c. Cardiac cycle
d. Systole

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following contains 70 mL?
a. The cardiac output
b. The volume of a ventricle
c. An average stroke volume
d. The amount of blood that flows through the pulmonary capillaries in one minute

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect?
a. Heart block
b. A slow heart rate
c. A rapid heartbeat
d. An increased myocardial contractile force

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Sympathetic stimulation to the heart
a. decreases stroke volume.
b. increases heart rate.
c. causes bradycardia.
d. decreases cardiac output.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and
a. systemic vascular resistance.
b. stroke volume.
c. hematocrit.
d. hemoglobin concentration.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What is the term that refers to an increase in stroke volume in response to the stretching of the heart?
a. Starling’s law of the heart
b. A positive inotropic effect
c. Heart block
d. Angina pectoris

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist and is therefore used to
a. relieve bradycardia.
b. decrease heart rate.
c. block the effects of norepinephrine.
d. increase myocardial contractile force.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+) inotropic effect, a (+) dromotropic effect, and a (+) chronotropic effect?
a. Vagomimetic
b. Sympathomimetic
c. Antimuscarinic
d. Parasympatholytic

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following drugs is sympathomimetic?
a. Beta1-adrenergic blocker
b. Muscarinic agonist
c. Vagolytic
d. Beta1-adrenergic agonist

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. An increased preload
a. decreases cardiac output.
b. increases stroke volume.
c. increases cardiac reserve.
d. increases afterload.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Increased afterload (e.g., hypertension)
a. is usually caused by arteriolar dilation.
b. increases the work of the heart.
c. can only occur when preload increases.
d. is usually caused by intense parasympathetic (vagal) discharge.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Cardiac output
a. is determined by heart rate and pulse.
b. decreases in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation.
c. increases in response to vagal discharge.
d. is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Increased return of the blood to the heart stretches the muscle, thereby
a. stimulating the sympathetic nerve.
b. activating the beta1-adrenergic receptors.
c. closing the AV valves.
d. increasing stroke volume.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. An ejection fraction of 30% is
a. normal.
b. characteristic of a healthy person who is engaged in aerobic exercise.
c. characteristic of a failing heart.
d. the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A stenotic aortic valve
a. causes right ventricular hypertrophy and right-sided heart failure.
b. increases afterload, thereby increasing the work of the left ventricle.
c. causes a right-to-left shunt.
d. is a narrowing of the right semilunar valve.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of acute left ventricular failure?
a. Jugular vein distention
b. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Pedal edema

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Most of the symptoms of acute left-sided heart failure are
a. relieved by morphine.
b. cured by an antibiotic.
c. respiratory in nature (e.g., dyspnea, orthopnea).
d. confined to the lower extremities, as in pedal edema.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of forward failure?
a. Blood accumulates in the pulmonary capillaries, elevating pressure and causing pulmonary edema.
b. Diminished renal blood flow stimulates the kidney to decrease urinary output and retain Na+ and water.
c. Blood distends the jugular vein.
d. Blood distends the liver, causing hepatomegaly and digestive symptoms.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Furosemide (Lasix), a potent diuretic, is administered in acute ventricular failure to
a. strengthen myocardial contractile force.
b. increase plasma K+ levels.
c. excrete excess water and relieve the edema.
d. relieve pain.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Digoxin, a drug used in the treatment of heart failure, increases contractile force and is therefore called a
a. diuretic.
b. (+) dromotropic agent.
c. (+) inotropic agent.
d. (+) chronotropic agent.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. An increase in venous return causes an increase in cardiac output. This is accomplished by
a. a (+) inotropic effect.
b. depolarization.
c. Starling’s law of the heart.
d. a (+) chronotropic effect.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Milliliters/beat ´ beats/min defines
a. stroke volume.
b. ejection fraction.
c. cardiac reserve.
d. cardiac output.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase is the
a. end-diastolic volume (EDV).
b. the amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase
c. preload.
d. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Under what condition is end-diastolic volume (EDV) most likely to increase while ejection fraction decreases?
a. Exercise
b. Sympathetic nerve stimulation
c. (+) Inotropic response
d. Heart failure

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. A change in preload causes a change in myocardial contractile force. This response is known as (a)
a. (+) inotropic effect.
b. (+) dromotropic effect.
c. Starling’s law of the heart.
d. (–) chronotropic effect.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A drug causes a (+) inotropic effect, a (–) dromotropic effect, and a (–) chronotropic effect. What drug response would you expect to observe?
a. Tachycardia
b. Low blood pressure
c. Ankle edema
d. Slow heart rate

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. A patient in heart failure is given a drug that is classified as a beta1-adrenergic agonist. The drug
a. blocks the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes a (–) chronotropic and (–) inotropic effect.
b. activates the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes bronchoconstriction.
c. activates the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes a (+) inotropic effect.
d. activates the vagus nerve, thereby slowing heart rate and strengthening myocardial contraction.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following statements is correct about cardiac output?
a. Cardiac output is determined by the heart rate and pulse.
b. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves decreases cardiac output.
c. Vagal discharge increases cardiac output.
d. Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscle, thereby
a. stimulating the vagus nerve.
b. increasing stroke volume.
c. closing the atrioventricular valves.
d. increasing coronary blood flow.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Ventricular systole refers to
a. ventricular depolarization.
b. the opening of the valves of the ventricles.
c. ventricular filling.
d. contraction of the ventricular myocardium.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Milliliters per minute describes
a. stroke volume.
b. heart rate.
c. pulse.
d. cardiac output.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is least related to a bradycardia?
a. More than 60 beats/min
b. Vagal discharge
c. (–) Chronotropic effect
d. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation of the SA node

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is least likely to increase cardiac output?
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased stroke volume
c. Increased venous return
d. Vagal discharge

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is least related to tachydysrhythmias?
a. Sympathetic nervous system activation
b. Beta1-adrenergic receptor activation
c. (+) Dromotropic effect
d. Vagal discharge

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Atropine, a muscarinic blocker,
a. increases heart rate.
b. causes bradycardia.
c. is also classified as sympathomimetic.
d. is vagomimetic.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Starling’s law of the heart relates force of myocardial contraction with
a. heart rate.
b. preload.
c. end-systolic volume.
d. blood pressure.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Venodilation
a. increases afterload.
b. decreases preload.
c. increases end-diastolic volume.
d. stretches the ventricular myocardium.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. An elevation in pulmonary artery pressure is most likely to cause
a. pleural effusion.
b. pulmonary edema.
c. right ventricular hypertrophy.
d. left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is least likely to be used in the treatment of left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema?
a. (+) Inotropic agent such as digoxin or dopamine
b. Diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix)
c. Peripheral vasoconstrictor such as norepinephrine (Levophed)
d. Oxygen

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Jugular vein distention is most associated with
a. right-sided heart failure.
b. aortic valve stenosis.
c. left wall infarct and left ventricular failure.
d. low volume shock right-sided heart failure.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 4th Edition

 

Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The seminiferous tubules
a. are located in the pelvic cavity.
b. are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm.
c. secrete testosterone.
d. are primarily concerned with ejaculation.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The scrotum
a. makes sperm.
b. is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles.
c. secretes androgens.
d. contains the prostate gland and urethra.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes; it is a place where sperm mature?
a. Scrotum
b. Epididymis
c. Prostate gland
d. Prepuce

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which term refers to the penis and scrotum?
a. External genitals
b. Gonads
c. Gametes
d. Zygotes

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision?
a. Scrotum
b. Penis
c. Epididymis
d. Prepuce

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which structure carries both urine and semen?
a. Vagina
b. Urethra
c. Ejaculatory duct
d. Vas deferens

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What is the male copulatory organ called?
a. Penis
b. Vas deferens
c. Prostate gland
d. Testes

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which cells secrete testosterone?
a. Prostate gland
b. Prepuce
c. Interstitial cells
d. Seminiferous tubules

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What state is caused by the filling of erectile tissue with blood?
a. Impotence
b. Orgasm
c. Erection
d. Emission

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What is the androgen that is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the male secondary sex characteristics?
a. ACTH
b. Progesterone
c. Chorionic gonadotropin
d. Testosterone

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and genital ducts into the urethra?
a. Ejaculation
b. Emission
c. Orgasm
d. Erection

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which hormone is also called interstitial cell–stimulating hormone and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?
a. FSH
b. Estrogen
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Chorionic gonadotropin

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal orifice and anus?
a. Hymen
b. Perineum
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Fimbriae

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Implantation of the pre-embryo occurs within which organ?
a. Ovaries
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Oviducts
d. Uterus

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The placenta forms in which organ?
a. Uterus
b. Fallopian tube
c. Vagina
d. Perineum

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The cervix is part of which organ?
a. Uterus
b. Fallopian tube
c. Vagina
d. Perineum

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of which structure?
a. Ovaries
b. Uterus
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Vagina

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following consists of a midpiece, head, and flagellum?
a. Zygote
b. Ovum
c. Corpus luteum
d. Sperm

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The fundus forms the upper part of which structure?
a. Vagina
b. Corpus luteum
c. Graafian follicle
d. Uterus

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. On what organ is the corpus luteum found?
a. Uterus
b. Fallopian tube
c. Ovary
d. Vagina

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as
a. normal.
b. ectopic.
c. embryonic.
d. menstrual.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which of the following is referred to as external genitals?
a. Gonads
b. Vulva
c. Oviducts
d. Perineum

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What is the target of FSH and LH?
a. Uterus
b. Vagina
c. Ovaries
d. Cervix

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female characteristics?
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
b. Androgen
c. Estrogen
d. Interstitial cell–stimulating hormone

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is a “guy thing?”
a. Ovulation
b. Emission
c. Implantation
d. Midcycle surge of LH

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum?
a. FSH
b. hCG
c. Progesterone
d. Androgen

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH?
a. Orgasm
b. Menstruation
c. Emission
d. Ovulation

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone?
a. Perineum
b. Myometrium
c. Fundus
d. Endometrium

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes?
a. Secrete gonadotropins
b. Located in the pelvic cavity
c. Called gametes
d. Called gonads

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm?
a. Called gonads
b. Incapable of meiosis
c. Called gametes
d. Require androgens for maturation

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which structure is the major producer of testosterone?
a. Corpus luteum
b. Testes
c. Anterior pituitary gland
d. Adrenal medulla

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which structure contains 23 chromosomes?
a. A fertilized ovum
b. The corpus luteum
c. A sperm
d. The corpus albicans

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which structure secretes the gonadotropins?
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Testes
c. Anterior pituitary gland
d. The ovum

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Where are sperm produced?
a. Vas deferens
b. Ejaculatory duct
c. Urethra
d. Seminiferous tubules

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and the urethra?
a. Located in the scrotum
b. Located in the testes
c. Produce sperm
d. Carry sperm

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which structure surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of semen?
a. Cowper’s glands
b. Adenohypophysis
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Prostate gland

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam?
a. An enlarged prostate gland
b. Cystitis
c. Sterility
d. Gonorrhea

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary?
a. Corpus luteum
b. Graafian follicle
c. Fertilized ovum
d. Corpus albicans

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. The cervix, fundus, and body
a. are contents of the scrotum.
b. are parts of the ovary.
c. secrete estrogen and progesterone.
d. are parts of the uterus.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone?
a. Corpus albicans
b. Endometrium
c. Ovaries
d. Anterior pituitary gland

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. The broad ligament supports the
a. prostate gland.
b. testes.
c. breasts.
d. uterus.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The oviduct or fallopian tube
a. is located between the cervix and the vagina.
b. is the site of fertilization.
c. is an anatomical extension of the ovary.
d. connects the fundus with the cervix.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The acrosome
a. secretes testosterone.
b. is the tail of the sperm.
c. contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum.
d. is an ovarian structure.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Semen
a. is formed and stored within the scrotum.
b. contains only testosterone.
c. means seed.
d. is made and stored within the prostate gland.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following always occurs during an erection?
a. Ejaculation
b. Secretion of testosterone
c. Spermatogenesis
d. Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
a. is secreted by the ovaries and testes.
b. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
c. exerts its effects primarily on the endometrium.
d. stimulates the female and male gonads.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. What is detected by a Pap smear?
a. Cancer of the cervix
b. Cystitis
c. Genital warts
d. Genital herpes

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female?
a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
b. Cystitis
c. Repeated bouts of gonorrhea
d. Torn hymen

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they
a. weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina.
b. alter the normal flora of the vagina.
c. contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood.
d. cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone?
a. FSH
b. LH or ICSH
c. Estrogen
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The interstitial cells
a. secrete testosterone.
b. are located within the prostate gland.
c. produce sperm.
d. line the ejaculatory ducts.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Severing the vas deferens
a. interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes feminization.
b. prevents erection.
c. prevents orgasm.
d. induces sterility.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Implantation
a. occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts.
b. is achieved by the morula.
c. is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst.
d. occurs within the ovaries.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. The myometrium
a. is the layer that sloughs during menstruation.
b. is responsive to oxytocin.
c. thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone.
d. is the target of the gonadotropins.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Estrogen and progesterone are
a. gonadotropins.
b. secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall.
c. secreted by the ovaries.
d. hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. In the nonpregnant state,
a. the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and progesterone.
b. the endometrium secretes hCG.
c. hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines.
d. the zygote becomes hormonally active.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle
a. immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase.
b. is caused primarily by hCG.
c. corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase.
d. is the stage during which implantation occurs.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The corpus luteum
a. is located within the uterus.
b. is a placental structure.
c. secretes gonadotropins.
d. secretes large amounts of progesterone.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the
a. greatest concern is the placenta previa.
b. pregnancy is described as ectopic.
c. pregnancy is considered normal.
d. woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
a. promotes the maturation of the egg.
b. is responsible for female characteristics.
c. maintains the corpus luteum.
d. promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
a. stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
b. prevents the release of FSH and LH.
c. transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
d. causes menstruation.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. Trophoblastic cells
a. secrete oxytocin.
b. are responsible for the milk let-down reflex.
c. assist with implantation.
d. are incorporated within the graafian follicle.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. In the absence of human chorionic gonadotropin,
a. the corpus albicans starts secreting progesterone.
b. the rate of placental development accelerates.
c. labor is initiated.
d. the corpus luteum deteriorates into the corpus albicans.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
a. is responsible for menstruation.
b. is responsible for the uterine secretory phase.
c. elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hCG.
d. precedes the LH surge.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The endometrium
a. is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone.
b. is the target of FSH and LH.
c. forms the graafian follicle.
d. is responsive to oxytocin during labor.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The zygote
a. implants within the uterine lining.
b. matures into the graafian follicle.
c. is the fertilized ovum.
d. is formed within the uterus.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle
a. describes the deterioration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
b. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of progesterone.
c. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of hCG.
d. refers to the estrogen-induced thickening of the endometrium.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. The graafian follicle
a. matures within the fallopian tube.
b. is the mature follicle.
c. secretes gonadotropins.
d. causes the midcycle surge of LH.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle
a. is the endometrial response to progesterone.
b. immediately follows the menstrual phase.
c. refers to the hormonal response of the endometrium to the corpus albicans.
d. refers to the adenohypophyseal response to declining plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. Menstruation occurs in response to
a. an LH surge.
b. diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone.
c. elevated plasma levels of hCG.
d. elevation of plasma levels of FSH and LH.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  1. The embryo
a. refers to the baby-to-be from weeks 3 to 8.
b. is the single-cell fertilized ovum.
c. lives most of its life in the fallopian tube.
d. refers to the fetus during the second trimester.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  1. The morula
a. only occurs if there is an ectopic pregnancy.
b. is the unfertilized ovum that gets discharged with the menstrual blood.
c. refers to the adorable pre-embryonic cluster of cells.
d. spends its life embedded within the endometrium.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  1. Which of the following is least true of or least associated with the placenta?
a. The site at which baby-to-be breathes
b. A very vascular structure
c. Replaces the glandular secretion of the corpus luteum
d. Nourishes the zygote as it matures into the morula

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which group is incorrect?
a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail
b. Parts of the uterus: fundus, body, cervix
c. Layers of the uterus: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
d. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, prostate gland

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which group is incorrect?
a. Phases of the ovarian cycle: follicular phase, luteal phase
b. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase
c. Reproductive hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, testosterone
d. External genitals: penis, scrotum, labia, mons pubis, cervix

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  1. Which group is incorrect?
a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail
b. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, urethra
c. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase
d. Phases of the ovarian cycle: proliferative phase, luteal phase

 

 

ANS:  D