Sample Chapter

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Infants Children and Adolescents 8th Edition By Berk Meyers – Test Bank 

 

Chapter 1
history, theory, and research strategies

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   The central questions addressed by the field of child development

  1. A) are primarily of scientific interest.
  2. B) have applied, or practical, importance.
  3. C) are based exclusively on research conducted by psychologists.
  4. D) involve all changes a person experiences throughout the lifespan.

 

 

 

 

2)   Which of the following statements regarding the major domains of development is true?

  1. A) The domains of development are separate and distinct.
  2. B) Each period of development is made up of a new set of domains.
  3. C) The physical domain has little influence on the other domains.
  4. D) Development is divided into three broad domains.

 

Page Ref: 5

 

 

3)   During which period of development does a sense of morality become evident?

  1. A) infancy and toddlerhood
  2. B) early childhood
  3. C) middle childhood
  4. D) adolescence

 

Page Ref: 6

 

 

4)   Which of the following statements about emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) It is a period of development that spans from age 15 to 21 years.
  2. B) It is a period of development unique to underdeveloped nations.
  3. C) Although emerging adults have moved beyond adolescence, they have not yet fully assumed adult roles.
  4. D) It is a period of development mostly limited to young people in developing nations.

 

Page Ref: 6

 

 

5)   Theories are vital tools because they

  1. A) provide organizing frameworks for our observations of children.
  2. B) provide the ultimate truth about child development.
  3. C) do not require scientific verification.
  4. D) are resistant to the influence of cultural values and belief systems.

 

Page Ref: 7

 

 

6)   In what important way do theories differ from mere opinion or belief?

  1. A) They are influenced by cultural values.
  2. B) They depend on scientific verification.
  3. C) They explain all aspects of development.
  4. D) They cannot be tested using research procedures.

 

Page Ref: 7

 

 

7)   Reid believes that the difference between the immature and the mature being is simply one of amount or complexity. Reid views development as

  1. A)
  2. B) determined by nature.
  3. C)
  4. D) determined by nurture.

 

Page Ref: 7–8

 

 

8)   Jessica believes that development takes place in stages where children change rapidly as they step up to a new level and then change very little for a while. Jessica views development as

  1. A)
  2. B) determined by nature.
  3. C)
  4. D) determined by nurture.

 

Page Ref: 8

 

 

9)   In stage theories, development is

  1. A) a smooth, continuous process.
  2. B) gradual and ongoing.
  3. C) like climbing a staircase.
  4. D) a gradual addition of the same types of skills.

 

Page Ref: 8

 

 

10)   In her research, Dr. Rosenblum explores why shy children develop differently from their outgoing agemates. Dr. Rosenblum most likely emphasizes __________ in her research.

  1. A) the role of distinct contexts
  2. B) the nature–nurture controversy
  3. C) the concept of stage
  4. D) continuous development

 

Page Ref: 8

 

 

11)   Charlene believes that her daughter’s ability to think in complex ways is largely the result of a built-in timetable of growth. Charlene’s view emphasizes

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) early experiences.

 

Page Ref: 9

 

 

12)   Theorists who believe that children who are high or low in a characteristic will remain so at later ages typically stress the importance of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 9

 

 

13)   Theorists who emphasize plasticity believe that

  1. A) early experiences establish a lifelong pattern of behavior.
  2. B) heredity, rather than the environment, influences behavior.
  3. C) children who are high or low in a characteristic will remain so at later ages.
  4. D) development is open to change in response to influential experiences.

 

Page Ref: 9

 

 

14)   According to research on resilience, which of the following children has an increased chance of offsetting the impact of a stressful home life?

  1. A) Luke, who is an irritable child
  2. B) Michelle, who is an emotionally reactive child
  3. C) Noah, who is a talented musician
  4. D) Sarah, who associates with rule-breaking peers

 

Page Ref: 10–11 Box:

 

 

15)   The most consistent asset of resilient children is

  1. A) high self-esteem.
  2. B) access to high-quality child care.
  3. C) a strong bond with a competent, caring adult.
  4. D) being identified as gifted.

 

Page Ref: 11 Box:

 

 

16)   In medieval times,

  1. A) children dressed and acted like adults.
  2. B) clear awareness existed of children as vulnerable beings.
  3. C) children were viewed as tabula rasas.
  4. D) childhood was not regarded as a distinct developmental period.

 

Page Ref: 12

 

 

17)   During the Reformation, the Puritans

  1. A) characterized children as innocent and close to angels.
  2. B) regarded children as fully mature by the time they were 7 or 8 years old.
  3. C) recommended permissive child-rearing practices.
  4. D) believed that children were born evil and had to be civilized.

 

Page Ref: 12

 

 

18)   According to John Locke’s view, children begin

  1. A) with a soul tainted by original sin.
  2. B) as nothing at all.
  3. C) as noble savages.
  4. D) as evil and stubborn.

 

Page Ref: 12

 

 

19)   John Locke opposed the use of

  1. A) praise as a reward.
  2. B) negative reinforcement.
  3. C) physical punishment.
  4. D) any form of discipline.

 

Page Ref: 12

 

 

20)   All contemporary child development theories view children as

  1. A) naturally endowed with a sense of right and wrong.
  2. B) passive and emotionally fragile.
  3. C) adults in training.
  4. D) active, purposeful beings.

 

Page Ref: 13

 

 

21)   Jean-Jacques Rousseau saw children as

  1. A) determining their own destinies.
  2. B) blank slates to be filled by adult instruction.
  3. C) tainted by original sin.
  4. D) passive and highly plastic.

 

Page Ref: 13

 

 

22)   Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution emphasized __________ and __________.

  1. A) the normative approach; survival of the fittest
  2. B) noble savages; physical maturation
  3. C) tabula rasa; natural selection
  4. D) natural selection; survival of the fittest

 

Page Ref: 13

 

 

23)   __________ is generally regarded as the founder of the child-study movement.

  1. A) John Locke
  2. B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
  3. C) Charles Darwin
  4. D) Stanley Hall

 

Page Ref: 13

 

 

24)   Inspired by Charles Darwin’s work, G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell,

  1. A) laid the modern foundations of ethology.
  2. B) developed the concept of sensitive periods in development.
  3. C) devised theories based on evolutionary ideas.
  4. D) constructed the first intelligence test.

 

Page Ref: 13

 

 

25)   Arnold Gesell

  1. A) was among the first to make knowledge about child development meaningful to parents.
  2. B) viewed children as noble savages, naturally endowed with a sense of right and wrong.
  3. C) concluded that child development follows the same general plan as human evolution.
  4. D) constructed the first successful intelligence test, together with his colleague, Alfred Binet.

 

Page Ref: 14

 

 

26)   Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon’s intelligence test was developed as a way to

  1. A) identify children with learning problems who needed to be placed in special classes.
  2. B) accurately predict school achievement and vocational success.
  3. C) document developmental improvements in children’s intellectual functioning.
  4. D) measure individual differences in development as a function of race, gender, and birth order.

 

Page Ref: 14

 

 

27)   According to __________, children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations.

  1. A) the normative approach
  2. B) behaviorism
  3. C) social learning theory
  4. D) the psychoanalytic perspective

 

Page Ref: 15

 

 

28)   Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

  1. A) was developed through careful observations of his own children.
  2. B) emphasizes that how parents manage their child’s fears is crucial for healthy sexual development.
  3. C) emphasizes five parts of the personality that become integrated during a sequence of three stages.
  4. D) was developed through having emotionally troubled adults talk freely about painful events of their childhoods.

 

Page Ref: 15

 

 

29)   Freud’s theory was the first to stress the influence of __________ on development.

  1. A) observational learning
  2. B) rewards and punishment
  3. C) cultural norms
  4. D) the early parent–child relationship

 

Page Ref: 15

 

 

30)   Unlike Freud, Erikson

  1. A) viewed children as taking a more active role in their own development.
  2. B) pointed out that normal development must be understood in relation to each culture’s life situation.
  3. C) minimized the role of culture in individual development.
  4. D) primarily focused on the importance of early life experiences.

 

Page Ref: 15

 

 

31)   One reason that the psychoanalytic perspective is no longer in the mainstream of child development research is because

  1. A) many psychoanalytic ideas, such as ego functioning, are too vague to be tested empirically.
  2. B) psychoanalytic theorists accept the clinical method in which age-related averages represent typical development.
  3. C) modern researchers have demonstrated that personality development does not take place in stages.
  4. D) it failed to consider the early parent–child relationship, which is central to modern theories.

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

32)   Dr. Faulkner believes that directly observable events—stimuli and responses—are the appropriate focus of the study of child development. Which of the following perspectives of child development does Dr. Faulkner probably follow?

  1. A) psychosexual theory
  2. B) psychosocial theory
  3. C) behaviorism
  4. D) cognitive-developmental theory

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

33)   Ivan Pavlov taught dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell by using

  1. A) operant conditioning.
  2. B) classical conditioning.
  3. C) innate reflexes.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

34)   Consistent with Locke’s tabula rasa, John Watson concluded that __________ is the supreme force in development.

  1. A) nature
  2. B) early experience
  3. C) environment
  4. D) cognition

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

35)   According to B. F. Skinner, the frequency of a behavior can be increased by following it with a wide variety of

  1. A)
  2. B) negative stimuli.
  3. C) stimulus–response associations.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

36)   On a few occasions, Jack’s mother gave him candy to keep him quiet when she took him to the doctor’s office. Now every time Jack goes to the doctor’s office, he asks his mother for candy. This is an example of

  1. A) classical conditioning.
  2. B) operant conditioning.
  3. C) observational learning.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

37)   Social learning theory

  1. A) emphasizes modeling, also known as imitation or observational learning, as a powerful source of development.
  2. B) maintains that behaviorism offers little or no effective explanation of the development of children’s social behavior.
  3. C) is criticized because it places little emphasis on how children are influenced by the behavior of their parents and peers.
  4. D) emphasizes classical over operant conditioning and relies heavily on the concepts of psychoanalytic theory.

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

38)   At home, Paul’s parents hit him as punishment for misbehavior. At preschool, Paul angrily hits a playmate who takes his toy. According to social learning theory, Paul is displaying

  1. A) classical conditioning.
  2. B) operant conditioning.
  3. C) behavior modification.
  4. D) observational learning.

 

Page Ref: 17

 

 

39)   The most recent revision of Albert Bandura’s theory places such strong emphasis on how children think about themselves and other people that he calls it a(n) __________ rather than a(n) __________ approach.

  1. A) observational learning; social-cognitive
  2. B) social-cognitive; social learning
  3. C) social learning; social-cognitive
  4. D) social learning; observational learning

 

Page Ref: 18

 

 

40)   Which of the following is an example of applied behavior analysis?

  1. A) letting children with burn injuries play a virtual reality game while nurses change their bandages
  2. B) modeling quiet reading for children to teach them to sit quietly while they read
  3. C) talking with children about fears in an attempt to uncover the underlying cause of thumb sucking
  4. D) punishing a child by hitting him and then noticing that the child angrily hits a playmate in the same way

 

Page Ref: 18

 

 

41)   Both behaviorism and social learning theory have been criticized for

  1. A) overestimating children’s contributions to their own development.
  2. B) presenting ideas that are too vague to test empirically.
  3. C) emphasizing nature over nurture.
  4. D) underestimating children’s contributions to their own development.

 

Page Ref: 18

 

 

42)   According to Jean Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory,

  1. A) development must be understood in relation to each child’s culture.
  2. B) children’s sense of self-efficacy guides their responses in particular situations.
  3. C) children actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore their world.
  4. D) children’s learning depends on reinforcers, such as rewards from adults.

 

Page Ref: 19

 

 

43)   The biological concept of __________ is central to Piaget’s theory.

  1. A) reinforcement
  2. B) adaptation
  3. C) imitation
  4. D) physical growth

 

Page Ref: 19

 

 

44)   According to Piaget, __________ is the balance between internal structures and information that children encounter in their everyday worlds.

  1. A) imitation
  2. B) adaptation
  3. C) cognition
  4. D) equilibrium

 

Page Ref: 19

 

 

45)   According to Piaget’s theory, in the sensorimotor stage, children

  1. A) can think of all possible outcomes in a scientific problem.
  2. B) organize objects into hierarchies of classes and subclasses.
  3. C) “think” by acting on the world with their eyes, ears, hands, and mouth.
  4. D) can evaluate the logic of verbal statements without referring to real-world circumstances.

 

Page Ref: 19

 

 

46)   Jamar understands that a certain amount of liquid or clay remains the same even after its appearance changes and can organize objects into hierarchies of classes and subclasses. According to Piaget, Jamar is in the __________ stage of cognitive development.

  1. A) sensorimotor
  2. B) preoperational
  3. C) concrete operational
  4. D) sociocultural

 

Page Ref: 19

 

 

47)   Ms. Harper’s classroom environment is based on Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Ms. Harper’s program probably emphasizes

  1. A) joint problem solving with older children or adults.
  2. B) reinforcing children with tokens that they may exchange for treats.
  3. C) formal mathematics and language drills.
  4. D) discovery learning and direct contact with the environment.

 

Page Ref: 20

 

 

48)   Research on Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory indicates that

  1. A) he overestimated the competencies of infants and young children.
  2. B) children generally reach their full intellectual potential, regardless of education and experience.
  3. C) children’s performance on Piagetian problems can be improved with training.
  4. D) his stagewise account overemphasizes social and cultural influences on development.

 

Page Ref: 21

 

 

49)   Dr. Brewer views the human mind as a symbol-manipulating system through which information flows. Dr. Brewer’s view is consistent with

  1. A) information processing.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) sociocultural theory.

 

Page Ref: 21

 

 

50)   In a research study, 10-year-old Joe was given a pile of blocks varying in size, shape, and weight and was asked to build a bridge over a “river” (painted on a floor map) that was too wide for any single block to span. The researcher carefully tracked Joe’s efforts using a flowchart. The researcher was probably applying which recent theoretical perspective?

  1. A) ecological systems theory
  2. B) evolutionary developmental psychology
  3. C) information processing
  4. D) sociocultural theory

 

Page Ref: 22

 

 

51)   Both Piaget’s theory and the information-processing approach

  1. A) regard children as active beings who modify their own thinking in response to environmental demands.
  2. B) focus on the development of imagination and creativity.
  3. C) regard perception, memory, and problem solving as similar at all ages.
  4. D) emphasize the importance of equilibration in producing higher levels of thinking.

 

Page Ref: 22

 

 

52)   Unlike Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, the information-processing approach

  1. A) uses clinical interviews to determine a child’s stage of development.
  2. B) does not divide development into stages.
  3. C) characterizes each developmental stage by qualitatively distinct ways of thinking.
  4. D) views development as a discontinuous process.

 

Page Ref: 22

 

 

53)   The information-processing approach has little to say about

  1. A) linear cognition.
  2. B) how children think at different ages.
  3. C) logical cognition.
  4. D) imagination and creativity.

 

Page Ref: 23

 

 

54)   Dr. Singh studies the relationship between changes in the brain and the developing child’s cognitive processing and behavior patterns. She is part of a group of researchers from the fields of psychology, biology, neuroscience, and medicine. Dr. Singh would most likely consider herself to be a(n)

  1. A)
  2. B) developmental cognitive neuroscientist.
  3. C) evolutionary developmental psychologist.
  4. D) information-processing researcher.

 

Page Ref: 23

 

 

55)   Dr. Langley is dedicated to uncovering the neurological bases of autism—the disrupted brain structures and networks that lead to the impaired social skills, language delays, and repetitive motor behavior of this disorder. Which of the following areas is Dr. Langley conducting research in?

  1. A) developmental cognitive neuroscience
  2. B) information processing
  3. C) developmental social neuroscience
  4. D) cognitive-developmental theory

 

Page Ref: 23

 

 

56)   Which of the following recent theoretical perspectives is concerned with the adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its evolutionary history?

  1. A) information processing
  2. B) ethology
  3. C) sociocultural theory
  4. D) ecological systems theory

 

Page Ref: 24

 

 

57)   Observations of imprinting led to which of the following major concepts in child development?

  1. A) behavior modification
  2. B) observational learning
  3. C) the critical period
  4. D) the chronosystem

 

Page Ref: 24

 

 

58)   The term sensitive period applies better to human development than the strict notion of a critical period because

  1. A) its boundaries are less well-defined than are those of a critical period.
  2. B) the capacity to acquire certain skills cannot occur later than the optimal period.
  3. C) there are more sensitive periods than critical periods in human development.
  4. D) sensitive periods, but not critical periods, have been empirically tested.

 

Page Ref: 24

 

 

59)   Dr. McMath is an evolutionary developmental psychologist. Which of the following statements about Dr. McMath is probably true?

  1. A) He is primarily concerned with the genetic and biological bases of development.
  2. B) He wants to understand the entire person–environment system.
  3. C) He is primarily concerned with environmental influences on development.
  4. D) He focuses on how culture is transmitted to the next generation.

 

Page Ref: 25

 

 

60)   According to Vygotsky’s theory,

  1. A) today’s lifestyles differ so radically from those of our evolutionary ancestors that certain evolved behaviors are no longer adaptive.
  2. B) children shape their own development during both sensitive and critical developmental periods.
  3. C) children revise incorrect ideas in their ongoing efforts to achieve equilibrium between internal structures and every-day information.
  4. D) social interaction is necessary for children to acquire the ways of thinking and behaving that make up a community’s culture.

 

Page Ref: 25

 

 

61)   Unlike Piaget, Vygotsky

  1. A) emphasized children’s capacity to shape their own development.
  2. B) viewed cognitive development as a socially mediated process.
  3. C) believed that children undergo certain stagewise changes.
  4. D) focused on discontinuous change.

 

Page Ref: 25

 

 

62)   Which of the following behaviors is consistent with Vygotsky’s theory?

  1. A) When his mother takes him to the grocery store, Tom is well-behaved because he knows that his mother will reward him with candy.
  2. B) When playing on the beach, Kehaulani builds the same sort of sand castle that she observed her younger sister building a few days ago.
  3. C) Yesica, a Brazilian child candy seller with no schooling, develops sophisticated mathematical abilities as a result of her work.
  4. D) When trying to solve a math equation, Otto tries several formulas before he stumbles on the correct one and solves the equation.

 

Page Ref: 26

 

 

63)   Research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that

  1. A) heredity and brain growth contribute significantly to social development.
  2. B) the stages of cognitive development are universal.
  3. C) children in every culture develop unique strengths.
  4. D) adults begin to encourage culturally valued skills as soon as children begin school.

 

Page Ref: 26

 

 

64)   Ecological systems theory views the child as

  1. A) a blossoming flower, and it regards development as a maturational process, similar to blooming.
  2. B) developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment.
  3. C) a social being influenced primarily by observational learning, imitation, and adult modeling.
  4. D) a computer-like system that actively codes, transforms, and organizes complex information.

 

Page Ref: 26

 

 

65)   In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the __________ consists of activities and interaction patterns in the child’s immediate surroundings.

  1. A) microsystem
  2. B) mesosystem
  3. C) exosystem
  4. D) macrosystem

 

Page Ref: 26

 

 

66)   According to ecological systems theory, a parent’s workplace is in the

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 27

 

 

67)   Family chaos

  1. A) is limited to economically disadvantaged households.
  2. B) does not occur when families engage in joint activities.
  3. C) induces in children feelings of powerlessness.
  4. D) is an unavoidable byproduct of today’s busy world.

 

Page Ref: 28 Box: Social Issues: Health: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being

 

 

68)   __________ can help prevent escalating demands on families that give way to chaos.

  1. A) Ethnographic research
  2. B) Absence of daily structure
  3. C) Compression of family routines
  4. D) High-quality child care that is affordable and reliable

 

Page Ref: 28 Box: Social Issues: Health: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being

 

 

69)   Dr. Jones believes that a child’s mind, body, and physical and social worlds form an integrated system that guides mastery of new skills. The system is constantly in motion. His view is consistent with which recent theoretical perspective?

  1. A) evolutionary developmental psychology
  2. B) sociocultural theory
  3. C) ecological systems theory
  4. D) dynamic systems perspective

 

Page Ref: 29

 

 

70)   Dynamic systems theorists emphasize that

  1. A) children are driven mainly by instincts and unconscious motives.
  2. B) different skills vary in maturity within the same child.
  3. C) sensitive periods are key to understanding development.
  4. D) development can be best understood in terms of its adaptive value.

 

Page Ref: 29

 

 

71)   Which of the following two major theories emphasize emotional and social development?

  1. A) the psychoanalytic perspective and ethology
  2. B) ethology and Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory
  3. C) behaviorism and the dynamic systems perspective
  4. D) ecological systems theory and social learning theory

 

Page Ref: 30

 

 

72)   Both __________ and __________ stress changes in thinking.

  1. A) behaviorism; social learning theory
  2. B) cognitive-developmental theory; information processing
  3. C) ethology; the psychoanalytic perspective
  4. D) the dynamic systems perspective; ecological systems theory

 

Page Ref: 30

 

 

73)   Both __________ and __________ emphasize many possible courses of development.

  1. A) the psychoanalytic perspective; ethology
  2. B) ethology; evolutionary developmental psychology
  3. C) cognitive-developmental theory; behaviorism
  4. D) behaviorism; social learning theory

 

Page Ref: 31

 

 

74)   A major limitation of naturalistic observation is that

  1. A) the findings cannot be generalized beyond the participants and settings in which the research was originally conducted.
  2. B) researchers cannot control the conditions under which participants are observed.
  3. C) the research may not yield observations typical of participants’ behavior in everyday life.
  4. D) participants may not accurately report their thoughts, feelings, and experiences.

 

Page Ref: 33

 

 

75)   Dr. Brown observes behavior in a laboratory, where conditions are the same for all participants. This is an example of

  1. A) the clinical, or case study, method.
  2. B) structured observation.
  3. C) naturalistic observation.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 33

 

 

76)   A major advantage of structured observation is that it

  1. A) is useful for studying behaviors that investigators rarely have an opportunity to see in everyday life.
  2. B) permits participants to display their thoughts in terms that are as close as possible to the way they think in everyday life.
  3. C) yields richly detailed narratives that offer valuable insight into the many factors that affect development.
  4. D) allows researchers to see the behavior of interest as it occurs in natural settings.

 

Page Ref: 34

 

 

77)   Dr. Kempsell combines interviews, observations, and test scores to obtain a full picture of one individual’s psychological functioning. This is an example of

  1. A) naturalistic observation.
  2. B) structured observation.
  3. C) a structured interview.
  4. D) the clinical, or case study, method.

 

Page Ref: 35

 

 

78)   Dr. Bigelow is interested in studying musical prodigies. Which of the following research methods is best suited for this type of research?

  1. A) naturalistic observation
  2. B) clinical interview
  3. C) the clinical, or case study, method
  4. D) structured interview

 

Page Ref: 35

 

 

79)   Which of the following research methods utilizes participant observation?

  1. A) the clinical, or case study, method
  2. B) naturalistic observation
  3. C) ethnography
  4. D) structured observation

 

Page Ref: 36

 

 

80)   Dr. Newman spent three years in Botswana, participating in the daily life of a community there. She gathered extensive field notes, consisting of a mix of self-reports from members of the community and her own observations. Which of the following research methods did Dr. Newman most likely use in her research?

  1. A) ethnography
  2. B) structured observation
  3. C) the microgenetic design
  4. D) the clinical, or case study, method

 

Page Ref: 36

 

 

81)   Compared to their agemates, adolescents from immigrant families are __________ likely to __________.

  1. A) more; commit delinquent and violent acts
  2. B) more; use drugs and alcohol
  3. C) more; have early sex
  4. D) less; commit delinquent and violent acts

 

Page Ref: 37 Box: Cultural Influence: Immigrant Youths: Adapting to a New Land

 

 

82)   Immigrant parents of successful youths typically

  1. A) view school successes as less important than native-born parents.
  2. B) develop close ties to an ethnic community.
  3. C) encourage full assimilation into the majority culture.
  4. D) stress individualistic values over collectivist values.

 

Page Ref: 37 Box: Cultural Influence: Immigrant Youths: Adapting to a New Land

 

 

83)   Which of the following is a limitation of the ethnographic method?

  1. A) Research may not yield observations typical of participants’ behavior in everyday life.
  2. B) Research does not yield as much information as naturalistic observations or structured interviews.
  3. C) Commonly used research techniques tend to ignore cultural and social influences that affect development.
  4. D) The findings cannot be assumed to generalize beyond the people and settings in which the research was conducted.

 

Page Ref: 36

 

 

84)   Two main types of designs used in all research on human behavior are __________ and __________.

  1. A) observational; experimental
  2. B) correlational; experimental
  3. C) observational; correlational
  4. D) variable; observational

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

85)   Which of the following statements about the correlational design is true?

  1. A) Researchers gather information on individuals and make no effort to alter their experiences.
  2. B) Unlike the experimental design, it permits inferences of cause and effect.
  3. C) Researchers use an evenhanded procedure to assign people to two or more treatment conditions.
  4. D) In an experiment, the events and behaviors of interest are divided into independent and dependent variables.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

86)   One major limitation of correlational studies is that

  1. A) researchers alter the experiences of those studied.
  2. B) researchers do not gather information about everyday life.
  3. C) researchers cannot make inferences about cause and effect.
  4. D) the results cannot be generalized to other people and settings.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

87)   Dr. Zielke’s research shows that the death of a spouse in old age is correlated with a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health. Which of the following conclusions is supported by this study?

  1. A) The death of a spouse causes a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health.
  2. B) The death of a spouse is related to a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health.
  3. C) A decline in a surviving partner’s physical health can cause the death of a spouse.
  4. D) A third variable, such as memory loss, causes a surviving partner’s decline in physical health.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

88)   In interpreting a correlation coefficient,

  1. A) the magnitude of the number shows the direction of the relationship.
  2. B) the sign of the number shows the strength of the relationship.
  3. C) a positive sign means that as one variable increases, the other decreases.
  4. D) a zero correlation indicates no relationship.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

89)   A correlation of +.55 between preschool attendance and self-esteem indicates that children who attend preschool have __________ self-esteem scores than children who do not attend preschool.

  1. A) moderately higher
  2. B) significantly higher
  3. C) significantly lower
  4. D) moderately lower

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

90)   In an experimental design,

  1. A) the events and behaviors are divided into two types: independent and dependent variables.
  2. B) investigators are unable to control for participants’ characteristics that could reduce the accuracy of their findings.
  3. C) researchers infer cause and effect by directly controlling or manipulating changes in the dependent variable.
  4. D) researchers gather information on individuals, generally in natural life circumstances, and make no effort to alter their experiences.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

91)   The independent variable is the one

  1. A) the investigator expects to be influenced by another variable.
  2. B) that is randomly assigned.
  3. C) that shows the strength of the correlational relationship.
  4. D) the investigator expects to cause changes in another variable.

 

Page Ref: 38

 

 

92)   In an experiment examining whether a specific type of intervention improves the psychological adjustment of shy children, the independent variable would be the

  1. A) type of intervention.
  2. B) number of children in the subject pool who are shy.
  3. C) number of shy children who benefit from the intervention.
  4. D) measure of psychological adjustment.

 

Page Ref: 38–39

 

 

93)   In an experiment examining whether phonics instruction in preschool increases a child’s reading level in third grade, the dependent variable would be the

  1. A) type of phonics instruction.
  2. B) number of children in the experiment.
  3. C) child’s reading level in third grade.
  4. D) frequency of phonics instruction.

 

Page Ref: 38–39

 

 

94)   When a researcher directly controls or manipulates changes in the independent variable by exposing participants to the treatment conditions,

  1. A) she is conducting a correlational study.
  2. B) cause-and-effect relationships can be detected.
  3. C) the correlational coefficient should be zero.
  4. D) she is using a technique called matching.

 

Page Ref: 39

 

 

95)   Dr. Riley wanted to know if adolescent computer use has an immediate effect on sustained attention. Dr. Riley assigned participants into one of two groups (computer use vs. no computer use) by flipping a coin. Dr. Riley used

  1. A)
  2. B) random assignment.
  3. C) a correlational design.
  4. D) a field experiment.

 

Page Ref: 39

 

 

96)   In a procedure called __________, participants are measured before the experiment on the factor in question.

  1. A) random assignment
  2. B) selection
  3. C) matching
  4. D) correlation

 

Page Ref: 39

 

 

97)   Professor Spinner wanted to compare how children from different family environments made friends at school. He carefully chose participants to ensure that their characteristics were as much alike as possible. Professor Spinner observed the participants in the school setting. Professor Spinner used

  1. A) a laboratory experiment.
  2. B) random assignment.
  3. C) a natural, or quasi-, experiment.
  4. D) a correlational design.

 

Page Ref: 40

 

 

98)   In __________ experiments, control over the treatment is usually weaker than in __________ experiments.

  1. A) laboratory; natural
  2. B) laboratory; field
  3. C) field; laboratory
  4. D) correlational; field

 

Page Ref: 40

 

 

99)   In natural, or quasi-, experiments,

  1. A) random assignment helps protect against reduction in the accuracy of the findings.
  2. B) researchers combine random assignment with the matching technique.
  3. C) cause-and-effect inferences cannot be made.
  4. D) lack of random assignment substantially reduces the precision of the research.

 

Page Ref: 40

 

 

100)  In a __________ design, participants are studied repeatedly, and changes are noted as they get older.

  1. A) correlational
  2. B) longitudinal
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) sequential

 

Page Ref: 41

 

 

101)  To examine whether participants’ popularity was stable or changed across the years, Dr. Cotter followed a group of children from ages 5 to 18 years. This is an example of a __________ design.

  1. A) sequential
  2. B) microgenetic
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) longitudinal

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

102)  Longitudinal research can identify common patterns as well as individual differences in development because the investigator

  1. A) studies groups of participants differing in age at the same point in time.
  2. B) randomly assigns participants to treatment conditions.
  3. C) tracks the performance of each person over time.
  4. D) conducts quasi-experiments, comparing conditions that already exist.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

103)  One strength of longitudinal studies is that investigators can

  1. A) collect a large amount of data in a short time span.
  2. B) explore similarities among different aged participants at the same time.
  3. C) ensure that participants adequately represent the population of interest.
  4. D) examine relationships between early and later events and behaviors.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

104)  Dr. Stamina’s longitudinal study on Native American personality styles was criticized because he failed to enlist participants who adequately represented the Native American population. This limitation is known as

  1. A) cohort effects.
  2. B) selective attrition.
  3. C) practice effects.
  4. D) biased sampling.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

105)  Bernadette, a participant in a longitudinal study, became quite familiar with the test over time and, as a result, her performance improved. This limitation of longitudinal research is known as

  1. A) biased sampling.
  2. B) practice effects.
  3. C) random assignment.
  4. D) cohort effects.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

106)  The most widely discussed threat to the accuracy of longitudinal findings is

  1. A) practice effects.
  2. B) cohort effects.
  3. C) selective attrition.
  4. D) biased sampling.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

107)  Cohort effects occur when

  1. A) participants in longitudinal studies become “test-wise” from repeated study.
  2. B) particular cultural and historical conditions influence participants born at the same time.
  3. C) participants in longitudinal studies move away or drop out of the research.
  4. D) participants in a study have a special appreciation for the scientific value of research.

 

Page Ref: 41

 

0

108)  Dr. Kirk wants to study sibling relationships at differing ages. Dr. Kirk has children with one or more siblings in grades 3, 6, 9, and 12 complete his questionnaire. This is an example of a __________ study.

  1. A) cross-sectional
  2. B) longitudinal
  3. C) microgenetic
  4. D) sequential

 

Page Ref: 42

 

0

109)  Because participants are measured only once in the cross-sectional design, researchers need not be concerned about such difficulties as __________ and __________.

  1. A) cohort effects; practice effects
  2. B) selective attrition; cohort effects
  3. C) cohort effects; biased sampling
  4. D) participant dropout; practice effects

 

Page Ref: 42

 

0

110)  A disadvantage of cross-sectional research is that

  1. A) it is more inefficient and inconvenient than longitudinal research.
  2. B) it does not provide evidence about change at the individual level.
  3. C) it can be threatened by practice effects and participant dropout.
  4. D) age-related changes cannot be examined.

 

Page Ref: 42

 

0

111)  In an effort to overcome some of the limitations of traditional developmental designs, Dr. Francisco conducted several similar cross-sectional studies at varying times. Dr. Francisco used the __________ design.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) experimental
  3. C) sequential
  4. D) correlational

 

Page Ref: 43

 

0

112)  One advantage of the sequential design is that

  1. A) researchers can find out whether cohort effects are operating by comparing participants of the same age who were born in different years.
  2. B) it permits cause-and-effect inferences by studying groups of people differing in age at the same point in time.
  3. C) it presents participants with a novel task and follows their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
  4. D) it is especially useful for studying the strategies children use to acquire new knowledge in reading and science.

 

Page Ref: 43

 

0

113)  Using the __________ design, researchers observe how developmental change occurs.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) cross-sectional
  3. C) sequential
  4. D) microgenetic

 

Page Ref: 44

 

0

114)  Professor Story is interested in studying the strategies children use to acquire new knowledge in reading. The best design for Professor Story to use would be the __________ design.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) microgenetic
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) sequential

 

Page Ref: 44

 

0

115)  One limitation of microgenetic studies is that

  1. A) participant dropout often distorts developmental trends.
  2. B) they are difficult to carry out.
  3. C) they often create ethical issues.
  4. D) cohort effects often limit the generalizability of the findings.

 

Page Ref: 44

 

0

116)  Research that combines a(n) __________ strategy with a __________ approach, with the aim of augmenting development, is becoming increasingly common because it permits both correlational and causal inferences.

  1. A) longitudinal; sequential
  2. B) experimental; longitudinal
  3. C) cross-sectional; microgenetic
  4. D) correlational; experimental

 

Page Ref: 44

 

1

117)  An investigator wanted to speak candidly with high school students about their use of substances. He felt that the students would be more honest if their parents were unaware that they were participating in the study. If the investigator chooses to interview the students without their parents’ knowledge, he will violate which of the following children’s research rights?

  1. A) privacy
  2. B) protection from harm
  3. C) informed consent
  4. D) beneficial treatments

 

Page Ref: 45

 

1

118)  A researcher studying the effects of a certain pain reliever on children with chronic pain gave one group of children the pain medication and gave a placebo (or sugar pill) to another group of children. After the results were recorded, the placebo group did not receive real pain medication. This violates which of the following children’s research rights?

  1. A) privacy
  2. B) beneficial treatments
  3. C) informed consent
  4. D) knowledge of results

 

Page Ref: 45

 

1

119)  The ultimate responsibility for the ethical integrity of research with children lies with the

  1. A)
  2. B) institutional review board (IRB).
  3. C)
  4. D) child’s parents.

 

Page Ref: 45

 

1

120)  Which of the following statements about debriefing is true?

  1. A) Young children often lack the cognitive skills to understand the reasons for deceptive procedures.
  2. B) It should be done with children, and usually works well, but it does not have to be done with adults.
  3. C) Researchers use it when participants cannot fully appreciate the research goals and activities.
  4. D) It involves explaining to research participants that they have the right to alternative beneficial treatments.

 

Page Ref: 46

 

1

ESSAY

121)  Identify the three basic issues on which theories of child development take a stand, and briefly describe the opposing views taken on each basic issue.

122)  Define resilience, and describe the factors that seem to offer protection from the damaging effects of stressful life events.

123)  Describe the contributions and limitations of behaviorism and social learning theory to the scientific study of human development.

124)  Compare and contrast the terms critical period and sensitive period, and discuss how observations of imprinting led to the development of these concepts.

125)  Discuss ecological systems theory, and describe each level of the environment.

126)  Two types of systematic observation used in child development research are naturalistic and structured observation. Explain the benefits and limitations of each.

127)  Describe some problems that investigators face in conducting longitudinal research.

128)  Why are ethical concerns heightened when children take part in research? How is informed consent used with children?

 

=

 

 

Chapter 2
GENETIC and environmental foundations

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Hair color is an example of a

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective: 2.1

2)   Directly observable characteristics are affected by an individual’s lifelong history of experiences and also by the individual’s

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective: 2.1

3)   A __________ is a complex blend of genetic information that determines our species and influences all our unique characteristics.

  1. A) chromosome
  2. B) genotype
  3. C) phenotype
  4. D) karotype

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective 2.1

4)   The nucleus of a cell contains

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

5)   Chromosomes

  1. A) store and transmit genetic information.
  2. B) come in 46 matching pairs.
  3. C) are inherited from the mother only.
  4. D) are inherited from the father only.

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective: 2.1

6)   Generally, human __________ come in 23 matching pairs.

  1. A) chromosomes
  2. B) phenotypes
  3. C) cells
  4. D) genotypes

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective: 2.1

7)   Each rung of the DNA ladder

  1. A) is made up of thousands of chromosomes.
  2. B) contains 20,000 genes.
  3. C) consists of a pair of chemical substances called bases.
  4. D) contains 23 matching pairs.

 

Page Ref: 52

 

Objective: 2.1

8)   On the DNA ladder, adenine always appears

  1. A)
  2. B) with thymine.
  3. C) with cytosine.
  4. D) with guanine.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

9)   An estimated 21,000 __________, which directly affect our body’s characteristics, lie along the human chromosomes.

  1. A) nuclei
  2. B) regulator genes
  3. C) protein-coding genes
  4. D) sex genes

 

10)   Zookeeper Ross knows that he shares some of his genetic makeup with the chimpanzee, Chumley. You could tell Ross that about _____ percent of their DNA is identical.

  1. A) 80
  2. B) 85
  3. C) 90
  4. D) 95

 

Page Ref: 52

 

Objective: 2.1

11)   Recent evidence reveals that, even at the microscopic level,

  1. A) it takes a change in several base pairs to influence human traits.
  2. B) approximately 85 percent of chimpanzee and human DNA is identical.
  3. C) biological events of profound developmental significance are the result of both genetic and nongenetic forces.
  4. D) simpler species have far more proteins than humans or primates.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

12)   Gametes

  1. A) are formed during mitosis.
  2. B) contain only 23 chromosomes.
  3. C) contain 46 chromosomes.
  4. D) determine directly observable characteristics.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

13)   Gametes are formed during a cell division process called __________, which halves the number of chromosomes normally present in body cells.

  1. A) mitosis
  2. B) metaphase
  3. C) meiosis
  4. D) cytokinesis

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

14)   The genetic variability produced by meiosis is

  1. A)
  2. B) male dominant.
  3. C)
  4. D) female dominant.

 

15)   Meiosis results in __________ in the male and __________ in the female.

  1. A) four sperm; one ovum
  2. B) one sperm; four ova
  3. C) millions of sperm; about 40,000 ova
  4. D) four sperm; millions of ova

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

16)   Twenty-two of the 23 pairs of chromosomes are matching pairs called

  1. A) sex chromosomes.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

17)   Taylor’s twenty-third pair of chromosomes is XY. Taylor

  1. A) has phenylketonuria (PKU).
  2. B) has Down syndrome.
  3. C) is male.
  4. D) is female.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

18)   Which of the following statements about sex chromosomes is true?

  1. A) The Y chromosome is large and long, and the X chromosome carries most of the genetic material.
  2. B) Both boys and girls are born with several pairs of X and Y chromosomes.
  3. C) When gametes form in females, the X and Y chromosomes separate into different cells.
  4. D) The sex of a new organism is determined by whether an X-bearing or a Y-bearing sperm fertilizes the ovum.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

19)   Dizygotic twins

  1. A) have the same genetic makeup.
  2. B) result from a zygote that separates into two clusters.
  3. C) are the most common type of multiple offspring.
  4. D) are more alike than ordinary siblings.

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

20)   The release and fertilization of two ova results in

  1. A) identical twins.
  2. B) fraternal twins.
  3. C) phenylketonuria (PKU).
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 53

 

Objective: 2.1

21)   Which of the following individuals is most likely to have fraternal twins?

  1. A) Marlie, a 25-year-old Caucasian American
  2. B) Janie, a 30-year-old Caucasian American
  3. C) Asuka, a 30-year-old Japanese
  4. D) Rhoda, a 30-year-old African

 

Page Ref: 54

 

Objective: 2.1

22)   Which of the following is a major cause of the dramatic rise in fraternal twinning and other multiple births in industrialized nations over the past several decades?

  1. A) global warming
  2. B) older maternal age
  3. C) late fertilization of the ovum
  4. D) variation in oxygen levels

 

Page Ref: 54

 

Objective: 2.1

23)   Monozygotic twins

  1. A) have the same genetic makeup.
  2. B) develop more rapidly than children of single births.
  3. C) are no more alike than ordinary siblings.
  4. D) tend to be healthier than children of single births.

 

Page Ref: 54

 

Objective: 2.1

24)   Which of the following environmental influences contributes to monozygotic twinning?

  1. A) early fertilization of the ovum
  2. B) poor maternal nutrition
  3. C) temperature changes
  4. D) high-fructose diet

 

Page Ref: 54

 

Objective: 2.1

25)   If the alleles from both parents are alike, the child is

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) a monozygotic twin.

 

Page Ref: 55

 

Objective: 2.2

26)   Heterozygous individuals with just one recessive allele __________ to their children.

  1. A) cannot pass that trait
  2. B) can pass that trait
  3. C) will pass the dominant trait
  4. D) will pass the recessive trait

 

Page Ref: 55

 

Objective: 2.2

27)   Which of the following serious diseases is due to dominant alleles?

  1. A) Cooley’s anemia
  2. B) sickle cell anemia
  3. C) Huntington disease
  4. D) hemophilia

 

Page Ref: 56

 

Objective: 2.2

28)   One of the most frequently occurring recessive disorders is

  1. A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
  2. B) Huntington disease.
  3. C) Marfan syndrome.
  4. D) Down syndrome.

 

Page Ref: 55

 

Objective: 2.2

29)   All U.S. states require that each newborn be given a blood test for

  1. A) cystic fibrosis.
  2. B) phenylketonuria (PKU).
  3. C) sickle cell anemia.
  4. D) Tay-Sachs disease.

 

Page Ref: 55

 

Objective: 2.2

30)   Which of the following statements about dominant and recessive diseases is true?

  1. A) Children who inherit the dominant allele rarely develop the disorder.
  2. B) Males are more likely than females to inherit recessive disorders carried on the autosomes.
  3. C) Only rarely are serious diseases due to dominant alleles.
  4. D) The recessive allele has no effect on the individual’s characteristics.

Answer:   C

Page Ref: 55

 

Objective: 2.2

31)   In incomplete dominance,

  1. A) both alleles are expressed in the phenotype.
  2. B) children have a 25 percent chance of being carriers.
  3. C) children have a 50 percent chance of inheriting the disorder.
  4. D) one allele is expressed in the phenotype.

 

Page Ref: 57

 

Objective: 2.2

32)   The sickle cell allele is common among

  1. A) Jews of European descent.
  2. B) children whose parents are of Mediterranean descent.
  3. C) male Caucasians born in North America.
  4. D) black Africans.

 

Page Ref: 57

 

Objective: 2.2

33)   Carriers of the sickle cell allele

  1. A) often do not display symptoms until after they have passed the gene on to their children.
  2. B) can be treated during infancy if placed on a diet that is low in phenylalanine.
  3. C) are more resistant to malaria than are individuals with two alleles for normal red blood cells.
  4. D) develop sickle-shaped red blood cells that cause degeneration of the nervous systems.

 

Page Ref: 57

 

Objective: 2.2

34)   When a harmful allele is carried on the X chromosome,

  1. A) females are more likely to be affected.
  2. B) males are more likely to be affected.
  3. C) 50 percent of the female children are likely to have the disorder.
  4. D) 50 percent of the male children are likely to be carriers of the disorder.

 

Page Ref: 57

 

Objective: 2.2

35)   Which of the following statements about sex differences is true?

  1. A) Rates of miscarriage are higher for girls, whereas rates of birth defects are higher for boys.
  2. B) Rates of infant and childhood deaths, learning disabilities, and intellectual disabilities are all higher for girls.
  3. C) Worldwide, about 106 girls are born for every 100 boys.
  4. D) Rates of miscarriage, birth defects, and behavior disorders are all higher for boys.

 

Page Ref: 57

 

Objective: 2.2

36)   Genomic imprinting

  1. A) can be triggered by smoking or exposure to environmental pollutants, such as mercury or lead.
  2. B) occurs when alleles are chemically marked such that one pair member is activated, regardless of its makeup.
  3. C) is more likely to affect males because their sex chromosomes do not match.
  4. D) is always permanent, cannot be erased in the next generation, and occurs in all offspring if it occurs in one.

 

Page Ref: 58

 

Objective: 2.2

37)   Fragile X syndrome

  1. A) is an example of polygenic inheritance.
  2. B) occurs when there is a sudden but permanent change in a segment of DNA.
  3. C) is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability.
  4. D) occurs more often in females than males because the disorder is X-linked.

 

Page Ref: 58

 

Objective: 2.2

38)   __________ is a sudden but permanent change in a segment in DNA that can lead to __________.

  1. A) Mutation; hereditary abnormalities
  2. B) Meiosis; X-linked disorders
  3. C) Mitosis; fragile X syndrome
  4. D) Genomic imprinting; mutations

 

Page Ref: 58

 

Objective: 2.2

39)   In somatic mutation,

  1. A) the defective DNA is passed on to the next generation.
  2. B) cells that give rise to gametes mutate.
  3. C) the event giving rise to the mutation occurs at conception.
  4. D) the DNA defect appears in every cell derived from the affected body cell.

 

Page Ref: 58–59

 

Objective: 2.2

40)   Characteristics that vary on a continuum among people, such as height, weight, and intelligence, are due to __________ inheritance.

  1. A) X-linked
  2. B) polygenic
  3. C) dominant–recessive
  4. D) paternal

 

Page Ref: 59

 

Objective: 2.2

41)   Most chromosomal defects result from

  1. A) mistakes during meiosis.
  2. B) germline mutations.
  3. C) mistakes during mitosis.
  4. D) somatic mutations.

 

Page Ref: 59

 

Objective: 2.3

42)   When Aziz was born, his parents were told he had the most common chromosomal disorder, occurring in 1 out of every 700 live births. Aziz has __________ syndrome.

  1. A) XYY
  2. B) Klinefelter
  3. C) Turner
  4. D) Down

 

Page Ref: 59

 

Objective: 2.3

43)   The most frequently occurring form of Down syndrome results from

  1. A) an extra broken piece of a twenty-first chromosome attaching to another chromosome.
  2. B) an error during the early stages of mitosis.
  3. C) a failure of the twenty-first pair of chromosomes to separate during meiosis.
  4. D) the inheritance of an extra X chromosome.

 

Page Ref: 59

 

Objective: 2.3

44)   Which of the following individuals has the highest probability of having a child with Down syndrome?

  1. A) Isabella, who is 15 years old
  2. B) Bonny, who is 24 years old
  3. C) Raelyn, who is 33 years old
  4. D) Katrina, who is 42 years old

 

Page Ref: 60

 

Objective: 2.3

45)   Most children with sex chromosome disorders

  1. A) are aggressive and antisocial.
  2. B) have verbal difficulties.
  3. C) have trouble with spatial relations.
  4. D) have very specific cognitive challenges.

 

Page Ref: 60–61

 

Objective: 2.3

46)   Research on sex chromosome disorders shows that

  1. A) males with XYY syndrome are more aggressive and antisocial than XY males.
  2. B) verbal difficulties are common among females who are missing an X chromosome.
  3. C) females who are missing an X chromosome have trouble with spatial relationships.
  4. D) most children with these disorders suffer from intellectual disabilities.

 

Page Ref: 61

 

Objective: 2.3

47)   Angela and Tony’s first child died in infancy. They badly want to have another child but are worried about Angela’s family history of genetic disorders. They want to find out if Angela is a carrier. Angela and Tony are candidates for

  1. A) in vitro fertilization.
  2. B) genetic counseling.
  3. C) donor insemination.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 61

 

Objective: 2.4

48)   Donor insemination

  1. A) is commonly used to overcome female reproductive difficulties.
  2. B) involves giving a woman hormones that stimulate the ripening of several ova.
  3. C) permits women without a male partner to become pregnant.
  4. D) is used to treat women whose fallopian tubes are permanently damaged.

 

Page Ref: 62 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies

 

Objective: 2.4

49)   Studies show that children conceived through donor insemination or in vitro fertilization

  1. A) receive caregiving that is somewhat warmer than children who are conceived naturally.
  2. B) are at greater risk for genetic disorders than their naturally conceived counterparts.
  3. C) tend to experience severe adjustment problems throughout childhood, including insecure attachment to caregivers.
  4. D) are usually well-adjusted until adolescence when they experience a significant rise in psychological problems.

 

Page Ref: 62–63 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies

 

Objective: 2.4

50)   Which of the following statements about surrogate motherhood is true?

  1. A) Most surrogates have no children of their own.
  2. B) Surrogates cannot be paid for their childbearing services.
  3. C) It usually involves the wealthy as contractors for infants and the less economically advantaged as surrogates.
  4. D) It usually involves younger couples as contractors and older women as surrogates.

 

Page Ref: 63 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Pros and Cons of Reproductive Technologies

 

Objective: 2.4

51)   Which of the following prental diagnostic methods is the most widely used technique?

  1. A) amniocentesis
  2. B) chorionic villus sampling
  3. C) ultrasound
  4. D) maternal blood analysis

 

Page Ref: 64

 

Objective: 2.4

52)   Which of the following is a risk associated with frequent ultrasound use?

  1. A) premature labor
  2. B) miscarriage
  3. C) low birth weight
  4. D) limb deformities

 

Page Ref: 64

 

Objective: 2.4

53)   In proteomics,

  1. A) researchers map the sequence of all human DNA base pairs.
  2. B) scientists modify gene-specified proteins involved in disease.
  3. C) doctors correct genetic abnormalities by delivering DNA carrying a functional gene to the cells.
  4. D) the fetus is inspected for defects of the limbs and face using a small tube with a light source.

 

Page Ref: 65

 

Objective: 2.4

54)   Which of the following statements about adoption is true?

  1. A) In Western Europe, more unwed mothers give up their babies than in the past.
  2. B) Adopted children tend to have fewer emotional difficulties than other children.
  3. C) In North America and Western Europe, the availability of healthy babies has declined.
  4. D) Fewer adoptive parents are accepting children who have known developmental problems.

 

Page Ref: 66

 

Objective: 2.4

55)   Most adoptees

  1. A) appear well-adjusted as adults.
  2. B) have persistent cognitive delays.
  3. C) suffer from severe emotional problems.
  4. D) have persistent social problems.

 

Page Ref: 67

 

Objective: 2.4

56)   In power and breadth of influence, no other microsystem context equals the

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) peer group.

 

Page Ref: 68

 

Objective: 2.5

57)   When Erin and Brooke willingly comply, their parents are likely to be warm and gentle in the future. This is an example of a(n) __________ influence between parents and their children.

  1. A) direct
  2. B) coparenting
  3. C) maladaptive
  4. D) indirect

 

Page Ref: 68

 

Objective: 2.5

58)   Amelia and Andrew praise and stimulate their children, and they mutually support each other’s parenting behaviors. Amelia and Andrew engage in effective

  1. A)
  2. B) permissive parenting.
  3. C)
  4. D) niche-picking.

 

Page Ref: 69

 

Objective 2.5

59)   Jonelle can promote her grandchildren’s development indirectly by

  1. A) praising the children rather than offering them encouragement.
  2. B) gently reprimanding the children when they misbehave.
  3. C) providing financial assistance to their parents.
  4. D) implementing a reward system for the children’s good behavior.

 

Page Ref: 69

 

Objective: 2.5

60)   People who work in skilled and semiskilled manual occupations tend to __________ than people in professional and technical occupations.

  1. A) marry later
  2. B) have more children
  3. C) have fewer children
  4. D) have children later

 

Page Ref: 70

 

Objective: 2.5

61)   In diverse cultures around the world, __________ in particular fosters patterns of thinking and behaving that greatly improve quality of life, for both parents and children.

  1. A) education of women
  2. B) collectivism
  3. C) living near extended family
  4. D) having one stay-at-home parent

 

Page Ref: 71

 

Objective: 2.5

62)   A United Nations petition called “I am Malalah” demanded that

  1. A) girls be banned from attending school in Pakistan.
  2. B) all children be enrolled in school by the end of 2015.
  3. C) Malalah Yousafzai, a Pakistani schoolgirl, be honored for bravery.
  4. D) girls in developing nations receive free health care.

 

Page Ref: 70 Box: Social Issues: Education: Worldwide Education of Girls: Transforming Current and Future Generations

 

Objective: 2.5

63)   Which of the following is the largest barrier to the worldwide education of girls?

  1. A) cultural beliefs about gender roles
  2. B) reluctance to give up a girl’s work at home
  3. C) government-mandated school enrollment fees
  4. D) the limited number of schools in developing areas

 

Page Ref: 71 Box: Social Issues: Education: Worldwide Education of Girls: Transforming Current and Future Generations

 

Objective: 2.5

64)   Affluent parents

  1. A) too often fail to engage in family interaction and parenting that promote favorable development.
  2. B) are less likely than low-SES parents to have children who use alcohol and drugs.
  3. C) are less likely than low-SES parents to have children who report high levels of depression.
  4. D) are more likely than low-SES parents to engage in parenting that promote favorable development.

 

Page Ref: 72

 

Objective: 2.5

65)   Of all Western nations, __________ has the highest percentage of extremely poor children.

  1. A) the United States
  2. B) Canada
  3. C) Germany
  4. D) France

 

Page Ref: 73

 

Objective: 2.5

66)   Most homeless families consist of

  1. A) childless couples.
  2. B) single fathers with adolescent children.
  3. C) single mothers with adolescent children.
  4. D) women with children under age 5.

 

Page Ref: 74

 

Objective: 2.5

67)   Which of the following children is least likely to participate in community-center enrichment activities?

  1. A) Meagan, who lives in a stimulating home
  2. B) Francois, who lives in a middle-income neighborhood
  3. C) Chantel, who lives in a chaotic neighborhood
  4. D) Lucius, who lives in an affluent neighborhood

 

Page Ref: 76

 

Objective: 2.5

68)   Nate, whose parents are involved in his school activities and attend parent–teacher conferences, probably

  1. A) resents his parents’ involvement in his education.
  2. B) shows better academic achievement than his agemates.
  3. C) lives in a low-SES household with many siblings.
  4. D) attends a private school in a large city.

 

Page Ref: 77

 

Objective: 2.5

69)   Which of the following statements reflects a widely held opinion in the United States?

  1. A) “The government should help poor parents raise their children.”
  2. B) “Most people are content with others intruding into family life as long as help is needed.”
  3. C) “If parents decide to have a baby, then they should be ready to care for it.”
  4. D) “People should try to define themselves as part of a group.”

 

Page Ref: 77

 

Objective: 2.5

70)   Today, more black than white adults

  1. A) live farther away from kin and see fewer relatives during the week.
  2. B) fail to establish family-like relationships with friends and neighbors.
  3. C) perceive their relatives as less important in their lives.
  4. D) have relatives other than their own children living in the same household.

 

Page Ref: 78 Box: Cultural Influences: The African-American Extended Family

 

Objective: 2.5

71)   For single mothers rearing children and adolescents, extended-family living is associated with

  1. A) more positive mother–child interaction.
  2. B) increased antisocial behavior in adolescents.
  3. C) decreased self-reliance in adolescents.
  4. D) lower rates of adolescent pregnancy and parenthood.

 

Page Ref: 78 Box: Cultural Influences: The African-American Extended Family

 

Objective: 2.5

72)   In cultures that emphasize __________, people stress group goals over individual goals.

  1. A) individualism
  2. B) independence
  3. C) collectivism
  4. D) industrialization

 

Page Ref: 79

 

Objective: 2.5

73)   In cultures that emphasize individualism, people

  1. A) define themselves as part of a group.
  2. B) are largely concerned with their own personal needs.
  3. C) value an interdependent self.
  4. D) readily endorse public policies for low-SES families.

 

Page Ref: 79

 

Objective: 2.5

74)   Compared to the United States, most Western European countries place greater weight on

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 79

 

Objective: 2.5

75)   Which of the following statements about how the United States ranks on key measures of children’s health and well-being is true?

  1. A) The United States ranks in the top 10 on most key measures of children’s health and well-being.
  2. B) The United States ranks higher than Spain and Germany on the childhood poverty indicator.
  3. C) The United States ranks higher than Canada in public expenditure on children’s health care.
  4. D) The United States does not rank well on any key measure of children’s health and well-being.

 

Page Ref: 79

 

Objective: 2.5

76)   In the United States, affordable child care is

  1. A) usually high in quality.
  2. B) fairly easy to find.
  3. C) in short supply.
  4. D) the norm.

 

Page Ref: 80

 

Objective: 2.5

77)   Which of the following is a reason why attempts to help children and youths have been difficult to realize in the United States?

  1. A) Public policies aimed at fostering children’s development have failed in other Western countries.
  2. B) The interdependent nature of U.S. citizens has made government hesitant to become involved in family matters.
  3. C) Children remain unrecognized in the process because they cannot vote or speak out to protect their own interests.
  4. D) Public policies aimed at fostering children’s development do not yield valuable returns.

 

Page Ref: 80

 

Objective: 2.5

78)   Which of the following statements about the Convention on the Rights of the Child is true?

  1. A) The United States was one of the first countries in the world whose legislature ratified it.
  2. B) Opponents maintain that its provisions would shift the burden of child rearing from the state to the family.
  3. C) Although it includes the right to freedom of thought, it does not include the right to a free compulsory education.
  4. D) The United States is one of only two countries in the world whose legislature has not yet ratified it.

 

Page Ref: 80

 

Objective: 2.5

79)   In the United States,

  1. A) a significant portion of government spending is devoted to improving quality of child care.
  2. B) the Children’s Defense Fund is one of the most vigorous special interest groups devoted to children.
  3. C) the Convention on the Rights of the Child engages in research, education, and legal action on behalf of children.
  4. D) UNICEF is dedicated to advancing the economic security, health, and welfare of U.S. children in low-income families.

 

Page Ref: 81

 

Objective: 2.5

80)   __________ is devoted to uncovering the contributions of nature and nurture to the diversity in human traits and abilities.

  1. A) Epigenesis
  2. B) Behavioral genetics
  3. C) Environmental genetics
  4. D) Child development

 

Page Ref: 82

 

Objective: 2.6

81)   Dr. Dimera is interested in measuring the extent to which individual differences in complex traits in a specific population are due to genetic factors. When conducting research, Dr. Dimera will most likely rely on

  1. A) heritability estimates.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) gene–environment correlation.

 

Page Ref: 82

 

Objective: 2.6

82)   In a kinship study of intelligence, which of the following sibling pairs will likely share a high correlation?

  1. A) Max and Martin, nontwin brothers
  2. B) Jabar and Tobias, identical twins
  3. C) Marci and Sonia, fraternal twins
  4. D) Mary Jane and Susan, nontwin sisters

 

Page Ref: 82

 

Objective: 2.6

83)   A heritability estimate of .3 for activity level would indicate that differences in __________ could explain _____ percent of the variation in activity level.

  1. A) the environment; 30
  2. B) heredity; 70
  3. C) heredity; 30
  4. D) the environment; 3

 

Page Ref: 82

 

Objective: 2.6

84)   Twin studies of __________ generally yield high heritabilities, whereas the role of heredity in __________ is less strong.

  1. A) bipolar disorder; autism
  2. B) schizophrenia; bipolar disorder
  3. C) Down syndrome; schizophrenia
  4. D) autism; major depression

 

Page Ref: 83

 

Objective: 2.6

85)   Because the environments of most twin pairs are less diverse than those of the general population,

  1. A) heritability estimates are likely to exaggerate the role of heredity.
  2. B) it is often difficult to determine the heritability estimate.
  3. C) it is often difficult to conduct a kinship study.
  4. D) heritability estimates are likely to exaggerate the role of the environment.

 

Page Ref: 83

 

Objective: 2.6

86)   Heritability estimates

  1. A) give precise information on how personality traits develop.
  2. B) are likely to diminish the role of heredity because the environments of twin pairs are less diverse.
  3. C) tell researchers how environment can modify genetic influences.
  4. D) are controversial measures because they can easily be misapplied.

 

Page Ref: 83

 

Objective: 2.6

87)   Today, most researchers view development as

  1. A) mostly influenced by the environment.
  2. B) mostly influenced by heredity.
  3. C) the result of a dynamic interplay between heredity and environment.
  4. D) neither influenced by heredity nor the environment.

 

Page Ref: 83

 

Objective: 2.6

88)   Gene–environment interaction shows that

  1. A) people respond similarly to the same environment.
  2. B) different gene–environment combinations can make two people look the same.
  3. C) people with different gene–environment combinations never respond similarly.
  4. D) heredity restricts the development of some characteristics to just one or a few outcomes.

 

Page Ref: 84

 

Objective: 2.6

89)   According to the concept of gene–environment correlation,

  1. A) the environments to which we are exposed determine which genes are expressed in our phenotypes.
  2. B) our genes influence the environments to which we are exposed.
  3. C) heredity restricts the development of some characteristics to just one or a few outcomes.
  4. D) our genes influence how we respond to the environment.

 

Page Ref: 84

 

Objective: 2.6

90)   Denyse and David are both actors and have enrolled their children in acting classes. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene–environment correlation.

  1. A) passive
  2. B) evocative
  3. C) active
  4. D) dynamic

 

Page Ref: 84

 

Objective: 2.6

91)   Marcus, a cooperative, attentive child, receives more patient and sensitive interactions from his parents than they give to Erica, his distractible, inattentive sister. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene–environment correlation.

  1. A) passive
  2. B) evocative
  3. C) active
  4. D) dynamic

 

Page Ref: 84

 

Objective: 2.6

92)   Grace, a musically talented youngster, joins the school orchestra and practices her violin. This is an example of a(n) __________ gene–environment correlation.

  1. A) passive
  2. B) evocative
  3. C) active
  4. D) dynamic

 

Page Ref: 84–85

 

Objective: 2.6

93)   Niche-picking is an example of a(n) __________ gene–environment correlation.

  1. A) passive
  2. B) evocative
  3. C) active
  4. D) dynamic

 

Page Ref: 85

 

Objective: 2.6

94)   Which of the following age groups does the most niche-picking?

  1. A) infants
  2. B) toddlers
  3. C) preschoolers
  4. D) adolescents

 

Page Ref: 85

 

Objective: 2.6

95)   Niche-picking sheds light on why __________ report similar stressful life events influenced by personal decisions and actions more often than ordinary siblings.

  1. A) same-sex fraternal twin pairs
  2. B) other-sex fraternal twin pairs
  3. C) identical twin pairs
  4. D) adopted siblings

 

Page Ref: 85

 

Objective: 2.6

96)   The relationship between heredity and environment is

  1. A) is a one-way street.
  2. B) moves from genes to environment to behavior.
  3. C) is best measured using heritability estimates.
  4. D) is bidirectional.

 

Page Ref: 86

 

Objective: 2.6

97)   According to the concept of epigenesis,

  1. A) development results from ongoing, bidirectional exchanges between heredity and all levels of the environment.
  2. B) children’s genetic makeup causes them to receive, evoke, and seek experiences that actualize their inborn tendencies.
  3. C) heredity restricts the development of some characteristics to just one or a few outcomes.
  4. D) children’s genetic inheritance constrains their responsiveness to varying environments.

 

Page Ref: 86

 

Objective: 2.6

98)   Identical twins Jada and Olivia were very similar in personality throughout childhood. After high school, Jada majored in music and became an elementary school teacher, while Olivia earned a medical degree and joined Doctors Without Borders, traveling to countries gripped by war and epidemics. Later in life, Olivia was more prone to risk-taking than Jada. This difference in personality is a result of

  1. A) niche-picking.
  2. B) alterations to Olivia’s chromosome-5 gene.
  3. C) mutations in Olivia’s DD genetic makeup.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 86

 

Objective: 2.6

99)   Which of the following individuals is the most likely to score high in impulsivity, according to research on smoking?

  1. A) Daniel, who has a DD genetic makeup and a mother who smoked during pregnancy
  2. B) Reba, who has a DD genetic makeup and a nonsmoking mother
  3. C) John, who has a DD genetic makeup and a mother who smoked prior to becoming pregnant
  4. D) Samantha, who has a DB genetic makeup and a mother who smoked during pregnancy

 

Page Ref: 87 Box: Biology and Environment: Smoking During Pregnancy Alters Gene Expression

 

Objective: 2.6

 

100)  Development is best understood as

  1. A) genetically determined.
  2. B) environmentally influenced.
  3. C) a series of complex exchanges between nature and nurture.
  4. D) an unsolvable puzzle.

 

Page Ref: 87

 

Objective: 2.6

ESSAY

101)  Summarize factors that account for the dramatic rise in fraternal twinning and other multiple births in industrialized nations over the past several decades.

102)  Describe phenylketonuria (PKU). Explain how it occurs and how it is treated.

103)  Discuss direct and indirect influences on family functioning, and provide an example of each.

104)  How do family–neighborhood ties reduce parenting stress and promote child development?

105)  Compare and contrast collectivist and individualistic societies. Why is the collectivism–individualism distinction controversial?

106)  Define and provide an example of niche-picking.

 

 

 

Chapter 3
Prenatal Development

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Today, in Western industrialized nations, the issue of whether to have children is a

  1. A) biological given.
  2. B) compelling social expectation.
  3. C) matter of true individual choice.
  4. D) matter of legacy.

 

Page Ref: 91

 

Objective: 3.1

2)   Changing cultural values in Western industrialized nations allow people to __________ than a generation or two ago.

  1. A) have many children with less fear of social criticism
  2. B) remain childless with far less fear of social criticism
  3. C) more often emphasize societal obligation over individual fulfillment
  4. D) more often choose to give their first child a sibling

 

Page Ref: 91–92

 

Objective: 3.1

3)   A survey of over 5,000 U.S. adults of childbearing age revealed that more than 90 percent

  1. A) do not want to have any children.
  2. B) have negative views about the idea of parenthood.
  3. C) have two or more children.
  4. D) already have children or are planning to have them.

 

Page Ref: 92

 

Objective: 3.1

4)   When asked about the advantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

  1. A) the warm, affectionate relationship that children provide.
  2. B) having a source of financial support in later life.
  3. C) the sense of future continuity.
  4. D) the opportunity to deepen their marital relationship.

 

5)   When asked about the disadvantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

  1. A) loss of privacy.
  2. B) financial strain.
  3. C) role overload.
  4. D) work conflicts.

 

Page Ref: 92

 

Objective: 3.1

6)   Greater freedom to choose whether, when, and how to have children makes contemporary family planning __________ than it was in the past.

  1. A) less challenging
  2. B) more intentional
  3. C) less important
  4. D) more random

 

Page Ref: 92

 

Objective: 3.1

7)   Most U.S. adults plan to have

  1. A) no children.
  2. B) one child.
  3. C) no more than two children.
  4. D) at least three children.

 

Page Ref: 93

 

Objective: 3.1

8)   Currently, the average number of children per woman of childbearing age is _____ in the United States.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 7
  3. C) 1
  4. D) 8

 

Page Ref: 93

 

Objective: 3.1

9)   More often than in the past, couples today

  1. A) get divorced before their childbearing plans are complete.
  2. B) are confident about their readiness for parenthood.
  3. C) bring children into stable marriages.
  4. D) have their first child before the age of 25.

 

10)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on family size?

  1. A) Parental quality declines as new children are born.
  2. B) New births lead to an increase in maternal affection toward older siblings.
  3. C) Limiting family size increases the chances of having children with high intelligence test scores.
  4. D) As new children are born, parents tend to reallocate their energies.

 

Page Ref: 93

 

Objective: 3.1

11)   Research shows that only children __________ children with siblings.

  1. A) are more intelligent than
  2. B) are as well-adjusted as
  3. C) have more emotional problems than
  4. D) are less intelligent than

 

Page Ref: 94

 

Objective: 3.1

12)   Which of the following statements about birthrate trends between 1970 and 2012 is true?

  1. A) The birthrate increased during this period for women 20 to 24 years of age.
  2. B) The birthrate decreased during this period for women 25 years of age and older.
  3. C) For women in their thirties, the birthrate during this period rose nearly fivefold.
  4. D) The greatest decline in the birthrate during this period was for women in their thirties.

 

Page Ref: 94

 

Objective: 3.1

13)   Research on childbearing reveals that

  1. A) fertility problems do not increase for men between ages 25 and 45.
  2. B) fertility problems among women do not show any increase until age 40.
  3. C) reproductive technologies are equally successful among younger and older parents.
  4. D) a 40-year-old man is less fertile than a 25-year-old man.

 

Page Ref: 94

 

Objective: 3.1

14)   An ovum bursts from one of a woman’s two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________.

  1. A) ovaries; testes
  2. B) fallopian tubes; ovaries
  3. C) fallopian tubes; placentas
  4. D) ovaries; fallopian tubes

 

Page Ref: 95

 

Objective: 3.2

15)   The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.

  1. A) ovaries
  2. B) corpus luteum
  3. C) fallopian tubes
  4. D) cervix

 

Page Ref: 95

 

Objective: 3.2

16)   The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________.

  1. A) penis; scrotum
  2. B) scrotum; penis
  3. C) testes; penis
  4. D) testes; scrotum

 

Page Ref: 95

 

Objective: 3.2

17)   Sperm live for up to

  1. A) twelve hours.
  2. B) two days.
  3. C) four days.
  4. D) six days.

 

Page Ref: 96

 

Objective: 3.2

18)   The ovum can survive for __________ after it is released into the fallopian tube.

  1. A) a couple of hours
  2. B) one day
  3. C) four days
  4. D) six days

 

Page Ref: 96

 

Objective: 3.2

19)   Most conceptions result from intercourse

  1. A) during the first week of the menstrual cycle.
  2. B) during the last week of the menstrual cycle.
  3. C) on the day of ovulation or during the two days following it.
  4. D) on the day of ovulation or during the two days preceding it.

 

Page Ref: 96

 

Objective: 3.2

20)   Following conception, the one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a(n) __________.

  1. A) blastocyst; zygote
  2. B) blastocyst; embryo
  3. C) zygote; blastocyst
  4. D) embryo; fetus

 

Page Ref: 96

 

Objective: 3.2

21)   The germinal period lasts

  1. A) for about 13 weeks, or a trimester.
  2. B) from fertilization to implantation.
  3. C) for about 6 weeks.
  4. D) from conception to fertilization.

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

22)   The __________ becomes the new organism.

  1. A) embryonic disk
  2. B) trophoblast
  3. C) amnion
  4. D) chorion

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

23)   The thin outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the

  1. A) new organism’s skin and hair.
  2. B) structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
  3. C) embryonic disk.
  4. D) nervous system and skin.

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

24)   Between the seventh and the ninth days after fertilization, __________ occurs.

  1. A) the period of the embryo
  2. B) the period of the fetus
  3. C) implantation
  4. D) cell duplication

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

25)   The amnion

  1. A) develops into the nervous system and the skin.
  2. B) surrounds the chorion.
  3. C) contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism.
  4. D) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

26)   The __________ produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function.

  1. A) amnion
  2. B) chorion
  3. C) placenta
  4. D) yolk sac

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

27)   Tiny fingerlike villi

  1. A) emerge from the chorion.
  2. B) become the skin.
  3. C) become the nervous system.
  4. D) develop the skeleton.

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

28)   Valerie, two months pregnant, wonders how food and oxygen are delivered to the developing organism. You should tell Valerie that the __________ performs this function.

  1. A) chorion
  2. B) amnion
  3. C) placenta
  4. D) neural tube

 

Page Ref: 97

 

Objective: 3.2

29)   The placenta is connected to the developing organism by the

  1. A) uterine wall.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) umbilical cord.

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

30)   The most rapid prenatal changes take place during the

  1. A) germinal period.
  2. B) period of the fetus.
  3. C) period of the embryo.
  4. D) final trimester.

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

31)   The __________ becomes the nervous system.

  1. A) ectoderm
  2. B) mesoderm
  3. C) endoderm
  4. D) trophoblast

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

32)   At the beginning of the period of the embryo, the __________ system develops fastest.

  1. A) nervous
  2. B) circulatory
  3. C) digestive
  4. D) skeletal

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

33)   During the second month of pregnancy, the

  1. A) embryo reacts to light.
  2. B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
  3. C) heart begins to pump blood.
  4. D) heart develops separate chambers.

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

34)   During the second month of pregnancy, the embryo

  1. A) can be irritated by sounds.
  2. B) has rapid eye movements.
  3. C) responds to touch.
  4. D) shields its eyes in response to light.

 

Page Ref: 98

 

Objective: 3.2

35)   During the period of the fetus, the

  1. A) developing organism increases rapidly in size.
  2. B) most rapid prenatal changes take place.
  3. C) heart begins to pump blood.
  4. D) brain is formed.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

36)   During the third month of pregnancy,

  1. A) the fetus can suck its thumb.
  2. B) tiny buds become arms, legs, fingers, and toes.
  3. C) neuron production begins.
  4. D) the eyes, ears, and nose form.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

37)   Mel wonders when he will be able to find out the sex of his baby. You tell him that he should be able to detect the sex of the fetus with ultrasound by the __________ week of pregnancy.

  1. A) ninth
  2. B) twelfth
  3. C) fifteenth
  4. D) eighteenth

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

38)   During Zola’s third month of pregnancy, she should

  1. A) be able to feel the baby move.
  2. B) avoid regular exercise.
  3. C) be able to hear the baby’s heartbeat through a stethoscope.
  4. D) be able to tell when the baby is alert.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

39)   During her first prenatal visit, LaToya’s doctor explains that the __________ prevent(s) the skin from chapping during the long months spent bathing in the amniotic fluid.

  1. A) villi
  2. B) vernix
  3. C) glial cells
  4. D) chorion

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

40)   Lanugo appears over the entire body during the __________ of pregnancy.

  1. A) second month
  2. B) third month
  3. C) second trimester
  4. D) third trimester

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

41)   From the twentieth week until birth,

  1. A) brain weight increases tenfold.
  2. B) glial cells decrease at a rapid rate.
  3. C) the fetus is viable.
  4. D) brain growth slows.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

42)   Sara’s doctor is looking inside her uterus using fetoscopy. Her 22-week-old fetus may react by

  1. A) grabbing at the light.
  2. B) blinking its eyes.
  3. C) shielding its eyes.
  4. D) kicking at the light.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

43)   The age of viability occurs sometime between _____ and _____ weeks.

  1. A) 18; 22
  2. B) 20; 24
  3. C) 22; 26
  4. D) 26; 30

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.2

44)   Carmen is prematurely delivering her baby at 28 weeks. The baby will probably

  1. A) not survive.
  2. B) need oxygen assistance to breathe.
  3. C) experience intense pain.
  4. D) spend the next few weeks with no periods of alertness.

 

Page Ref: 99

 

Objective: 3.3

45)   Dimitri was very active in the third trimester. As a 1-year-old, he will probably

  1. A) handle frustration well.
  2. B) be very fearful.
  3. C) refuse to interact with unfamiliar adults.
  4. D) be easily frustrated.

 

Page Ref: 100

 

Objective: 3.2

46)   In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who

  1. A) were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation.
  2. B) had trouble establishing a regular sleep–wake pattern.
  3. C) had irregular eating schedules.
  4. D) were less fearful.

 

Page Ref: 100

 

Objective: 3.2

47)   During the third trimester,

  1. A) the fetus spends the majority of the day awake.
  2. B) painkillers should be used in any surgical procedures performed on a fetus.
  3. C) fetuses can hear bodily noises but not noises that occur outside of the womb.
  4. D) higher fetal activity is linked with abnormal neurological development.

 

Page Ref: 100

 

Objective: 3.2

48)   A study involving the fetal heart rate’s response to auditory stimuli during the third trimester suggests that fetuses

  1. A) cannot hear sounds from the outside world.
  2. B) can remember for at least a brief period.
  3. C) cannot distinguish between their mother’s voice and a stranger’s voice.
  4. D) cannot distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar melodies.

 

Page Ref: 100

 

Objective: 3.2

49)   In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus

  1. A) gains more than 5 pounds and grows 7 inches.
  2. B) spends the majority of the day awake.
  3. C) assumes a right-side-up position.
  4. D) gains less than 2 pounds and grows less than 3 inches.

 

Page Ref: 101

 

Objective: 3.2

50)   In the eighth month of pregnancy,

  1. A) fetal growth doubles.
  2. B) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation.
  3. C) most fetuses assume an upright position.
  4. D) neurons are produced at a rapid rate.

 

Page Ref: 101

 

Objective: 3.2

51)   The harm done by teratogens

  1. A) is not always simple and straightforward.
  2. B) always creates a monstrosity or malformation.
  3. C) is never subtle.
  4. D) can rarely be prevented.

 

Page Ref: 101

 

Objective: 3.3

52)   The __________ and __________ have a long period of sensitivity to teratogens.

  1. A) hands; feet
  2. B) palate; mouth
  3. C) arms; legs
  4. D) brain; eyes

 

Page Ref: 102

 

Objective: 3.3

53)   Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true?

  1. A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur.
  2. B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears.
  3. C) In the germinal period, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact.
  4. D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

 

Page Ref: 102

 

Objective: 3.3

54)   The __________ is the time when serious defects from teratogens are most likely to occur.

  1. A) germinal period
  2. B) embryonic period
  3. C) fetal period
  4. D) third trimester

 

Page Ref: 102

 

Objective: 3.3

55)   During the fetal period,

  1. A) teratogens rarely have any impact.
  2. B) teratogens are most likely to cause serious defects.
  3. C) the ears can be strongly affected by teratogens.
  4. D) teratogenic damage usually causes miscarriage.

 

Page Ref: 102

 

Objective: 3.3

56)   Carefully controlled animal experiments reveal that a poorly nourished, underweight fetus experiences changes in body structure and function that greatly increase the risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) breast cancer
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) Alzheimer’s disease
  4. D) cardiovascular disease

 

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

 

Objective: 3.3

57)   Jesse weighed 3.3 pounds when he was born. Research shows that he is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) prostate cancer
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) lymphatic cancer
  4. D) Alzheimer’s disease

 

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

 

Objective: 3.3

58)   At birth, Megan weighed 9.5 pounds. Research shows that she is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) diabetes
  2. B) lung cancer
  3. C) breast cancer
  4. D) stroke

 

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

 

Objective: 3.3

59)   Children exposed to a sedative called thalidomide were often born

  1. A) with noncancerous tumors.
  2. B) six to eight weeks premature.
  3. C) with severe cognitive delays .
  4. D) with gross deformities of the arms and legs.

 

Page Ref: 104

 

Objective: 3.4

60)   Daughters of mothers who took __________ showed unusually high rates of cancer of the vagina, malformations of the uterus, and infertility as they reached adolescence and young adulthood.

  1. A) thalidomide
  2. B) isotretinoin
  3. C) diethylstilbestrol (DES)
  4. D) aspirin

 

Page Ref: 104

 

Objective: 3.4

61)   Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is prescribed

  1. A) as a sedative.
  2. B) to treat severe acne.
  3. C) to prevent miscarriages.
  4. D) to treat depression.

 

Page Ref: 104

 

Objective: 3.4

62)   Willa, who is pregnant, gets headaches on a regular basis and takes aspirin to relieve the pain. What should you tell Willa about the effects of aspirin use on the developing organism?

  1. A) Regular aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy.
  2. B) Regular aspirin use can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period.
  3. C) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development.
  4. D) Regular aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.

 

Page Ref: 104

 

Objective: 3.4

63)   High doses of caffeine during pregnancy

  1. A) increase the risk of low birth weight.
  2. B) is only safe during the first trimester.
  3. C) can result in gross fetal abnormalities.
  4. D) is linked to respiratory distress in childbirth.

 

Page Ref: 104

 

Objective: 3.4

64)   Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo’s caregivers can expect that

  1. A) he will have high blood pressure.
  2. B) his cries will be abnormally shrill and piercing.
  3. C) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3.
  4. D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

 

Page Ref: 104–105

 

Objective: 3.4

65)   It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drug use during pregnancy because

  1. A) most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research.
  2. B) the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days.
  3. C) most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy.
  4. D) users often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other stresses.

 

Page Ref: 105

 

Objective: 3.4

66)   Beatrice has smoked throughout her pregnancy. Now in her seventh month, Beatrice is considering quitting. You can tell her that

  1. A) the damage was already done during the germinal period.
  2. B) if she quits now, she reduces the likelihood that her infant will be born underweight.
  3. C) the damage was already done during the period of the embryo.
  4. D) quitting now will not reduce the likelihood that her infant will have colic.

 

Page Ref: 105

 

Objective: 3.4

67)   From one-third to one-half of nonsmoking pregnant women

  1. A) use alcohol regularly.
  2. B) smoked prior to finding out they were pregnant.
  3. C) take antidepressants.
  4. D) are “passive smokers.”

 

Page Ref: 106

 

Objective: 3.4

68)   Jenna’s physical growth is slow. She has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, a flattened philtrum, and brain injury. Jenna’s mother probably __________ during pregnancy.

  1. A) drank heavily
  2. B) smoked cigarettes
  3. C) used cocaine
  4. D) used methadone

 

Page Ref: 106

 

Objective: 3.4

69)   Matthew was prenatally exposed to alcohol. His physical growth is typical and he has no facial abnormalities. However, he has impaired motor coordination, attention span, and memory. Matthew was probably born with

  1. A) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
  2. B) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND).
  3. C) partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS).
  4. D) a genetic disorder.

 

Page Ref: 106–107

 

Objective: 3.4

70)   __________ is safe to drink during pregnancy.

  1. A) No amount of alcohol
  2. B) One alcoholic beverage per day
  3. C) Three to five alcoholic beverages per week
  4. D) A few alcoholic beverages per month

 

Page Ref: 108

 

Objective: 3.4

71)   Which of the following statements about radiation exposure during pregnancy is true?

  1. A) Low-level radiation from medical X-rays or industrial leakage is safe.
  2. B) Even low-level radiation can increase the risk of childhood cancer.
  3. C) The effects of radiation exposure are immediate and apparent.
  4. D) Radiation exposure affects physical development, but not cognitive or emotional development.

 

Page Ref: 108

 

Objective: 3.4

72)   Pregnant women are wise to avoid __________ to reduce the likelihood of mercury exposure.

  1. A) getting X-rays
  2. B) changing cat litter boxes
  3. C) painting
  4. D) eating long-lived predatory fish

 

Page Ref: 108

 

Objective: 3.4

73)   In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to high levels of __________ in rice oil resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and delayed cognitive development.

  1. A) dioxins
  2. B) mercury
  3. C) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
  4. D) lead

 

Page Ref: 108

 

Objective: 3.4

74)   Joslyn, a school custodian, is pregnant and works in an old school building where multiple layers of paint are flaking off the walls. To be safe, Joslyn should have the paint tested for

  1. A) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 109

 

Objective: 3.4

75)   Dioxin seems to impair the fertility of __________ prior to conception.

  1. A) X-bearing ova
  2. B) Y-bearing sperm
  3. C) X-bearing sperm
  4. D) Y-bearing ova

 

Page Ref: 109

 

Objective: 3.4

76)   The greatest damage from rubella occurs when it strikes pregnant mothers during the

  1. A) germinal period.
  2. B) embryonic period.
  3. C) second trimester.
  4. D) third trimester.

 

Page Ref: 110

 

Objective: 3.4

77)   Which of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is true?

  1. A) Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the virus to the developing organism 10 to 20 percent of the time.
  2. B) About 15 to 25 percent of prenatal AIDS babies die by 1 year of age.
  3. C) There are no available drug therapies that reduce prenatal AIDS transmission without harmful consequences.
  4. D) AIDS progresses very slowly in infants, and rarely leads to death.

 

Page Ref: 110

 

Objective: 3.4

78)   Kelly, a pregnant 30-year-old, has contracted the most common parasitic infection. Kelly has

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) herpes simplex 2.

 

Page Ref: 110

 

Objective: 3.4

79)   Expectant mothers can avoid toxoplasmosis by

  1. A) making sure the vegetables they eat are clean.
  2. B) avoiding exposure to X-rays.
  3. C) avoiding eating swordfish.
  4. D) making sure that the meat they eat is well-cooked.

 

Page Ref: 111

 

Objective: 3.4

80)   In healthy, physically fit women, __________ exercise is related to __________.

  1. A) regular aerobic; low birth weight
  2. B) frequent vigorous; a reduction in risk of high blood pressure
  3. C) regular moderate; a reduction in risk of maternal diabetes
  4. D) frequent vigorous; high birth weight

 

Page Ref: 111

 

Objective: 3.5

81)   Marzanne is pregnant and wonders how much weight she should gain. Her doctor will probably recommend that she gain _____ to _____ pounds.

  1. A) 10; 15
  2. B) 20; 25
  3. C) 25; 30
  4. D) 30; 35

 

Page Ref: 111

 

Objective: 3.5

82)   A severe famine in the Netherlands during World War II revealed that

  1. A) the sensitive-period concept operates with nutrition.
  2. B) malnutrition during the first trimester is not associated with miscarriage.
  3. C) malnutrition during the second trimester is associated with large head size.
  4. D) malnutrition during the third trimester is associated with physical defects.

 

Page Ref: 111

 

Objective: 3.5

83)   Taking a folic acid supplement around the time of conception reduces by more than 70 percent

  1. A) the risk of miscarriage.
  2. B) infantile hypothyroidism.
  3. C) the risk of Down syndrome.
  4. D) abnormalities of the neural tube.

 

Page Ref: 112

 

Objective: 3.5

84)   Enriching women’s diets with calcium

  1. A) can cause miscarriages in the germinal period.
  2. B) helps prevent neural tube defects.
  3. C) eliminates the risk of osteoporosis in offspring.
  4. D) helps prevent maternal high blood pressure.

 

Page Ref: 112

 

Objective: 3.5

85)   Stress-related prenatal complications are greatly reduced when mothers

  1. A) have partners and friends who offer social support.
  2. B) take a low dose of antianxiety medication during pregnancy.
  3. C) take a folic acid supplement during pregnancy.
  4. D) are placed on bed rest during the third trimester.

 

Page Ref: 118

 

Objective: 3.5

86)   The relationship of social support to positive pregnancy outcomes and subsequent child development is __________ for __________ women.

  1. A) strongest; affluent
  2. B) moderate; minority
  3. C) particularly strong; low-income
  4. D) strongest; middle-income

 

Page Ref: 113

 

Objective: 3.5

87)   One of the goals of the Nurse–Family Partnership is to

  1. A) eradicate prenatal drug use.
  2. B) lessen the effects of teratogens on developing organisms.
  3. C) promote early competent caregiving.
  4. D) provide family planning and genetic counseling.

 

Page Ref: 114 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Nurse–Family Partnership: Reducing Maternal Stress and Enhancing Child Development Through Social Support

 

Objective: 3.5

88)   Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of the Nurse–Family Partnership is true?

  1. A) The benefits of the intervention were the greatest for children from high-SES families.
  2. B) Trained paraprofessionals were more effective than professional nurses in preventing delayed mental development.
  3. C) As kindergartners, program children scored higher in language, but lower in intelligence, than comparison children.
  4. D) From their baby’s birth on, home-visited mothers were on a more favorable life course than comparison mothers.

 

89)   Which of the following statements about Rh factor incompatibility is true?

  1. A) The damage caused by Rh incompatibility can be avoided if the mother receives a blood transfusion during delivery.
  2. B) Rh-positive blood is dominant and Rh-negative blood is recessive, so the chances are good that a baby will be Rh-positive.
  3. C) Rh-positive babies are routinely given a vaccine at birth to prevent the buildup of harmful Rh antibodies.
  4. D) The harmful effects of Rh incompatibility can be prevented if the newborn is immediately placed on a diet low in phenylalanine.

 

Page Ref: 113

 

Objective: 3.5

90)   Rh factor incompatibility

  1. A) affects Rh-positive mothers.
  2. B) can result in infant death.
  3. C) cannot be prevented in most cases.
  4. D) usually affects firstborn children.

 

Page Ref: 113

 

Objective: 3.5

91)   Danica is a healthy 35-year-old woman who is pregnant with her first child. Danica is

  1. A) more likely than a younger woman to have a baby with low birth weight.
  2. B) likely to have a longer and more difficult labor than a younger woman.
  3. C) more likely to have prenatal complications than a woman in her twenties.
  4. D) as likely as a younger woman to have no prenatal or birth complications.

 

Page Ref: 114

 

Objective: 3.5

92)   Infants born to teenagers have a higher rate of problems because

  1. A) teenagers’ reproductive organs are not yet mature enough to support a pregnancy.
  2. B) teenagers are not yet physically ready to give birth.
  3. C) many pregnant teenagers are afraid to seek medical care.
  4. D) teenagers are exposed to more teratogens than other pregnant mothers.

 

Page Ref: 115

 

Objective: 3.5

93)   In later pregnancy, a diabetic mother’s excess blood glucose causes the fetus to

  1. A) lose weight.
  2. B) grow unusually large.
  3. C) secrete abnormally low levels of insulin.
  4. D) develop chromosomal abnormalities.

 

 

94)   Which of the following statements about research on memory impairments in infants of diabetic mothers is true?

  1. A) Prenatal iron depletion interferes with the cerebral cortex, causing long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers.
  2. B) Damage to the hippocampus is not linked to long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers.
  3. C) Diabetes-linked prenatal brain damage is linked to short-term memory impairments that can often be reversed with medication.
  4. D) As a result of iron depletion in critical brain areas, a diabetic pregnancy places the fetus at risk for lasting memory deficits.

 

Page Ref: 116 Box: Biology and Envirionment: Prenatal Iron Deficiency and Memory Impairments in Infants of Diabetic Mothers

 

Objective: 3.6

95)   Kali’s face, hands, and feet began to swell in the second half of her pregnancy. Kali’s doctor began to monitor her blood pressure. The doctor was probably concerned about

  1. A)
  2. B) maternal diabetes.
  3. C) Rh incompatibility.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 115

 

Objective: 3.6

96)   Which of the following mothers is most likely to receive inadequate prenatal care?

  1. A) Harriet, a 16-year-old African American
  2. B) Marissa, a 25-year-old Caucasian American
  3. C) Rachel, a 32-year-old Caucasian American
  4. D) Janette, a 40-year-old Hispanic American

 

Page Ref: 117

 

Objective: 3.6

97)   In group prenatal care,

  1. A) expectant mothers are grouped by age, and each group is seen by an assigned health-care provider.
  2. B) trained leaders provide expectant mothers with a group discussion session after each medical checkup.
  3. C) expectant mothers and fathers take turns facilitating group discussions.
  4. D) whole families are included in prenatal visits, including mothers, fathers, and siblings.

 

Page Ref: 117

 

Objective: 3.6

98)   In a study of more than 100 U.S. first-time expectant married couples who were interviewed about their pregnancy experiences,

  1. A) an unplanned pregnancy was especially likely to spark positive feelings among participants.
  2. B) about one-third of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings about their pregnancies.
  3. C) no participants felt negatively about their pregnancies by the third trimester.
  4. D) about two-thirds of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings to learning they were expecting.

 

99)   Which of the following statements about models of effective parenthood is true?

  1. A) Overall, men are more likely than women to communicate effectively, be flexible when family problems arise, and build a healthy picture of themselves as successful parents.
  2. B) Parents who have had positive experiences in their own childhoods often have trouble building a healthy picture of themselves as parents and have conflicted relationships with their children.
  3. C) Many parents come to terms with negative experiences in their own childhoods, recognize that other options are available to them, and build healthier and happier relationships with their children.
  4. D) When men and women have had poor relationships with their own parents, they are more likely to develop positive images of themselves as parents.

 

Page Ref: 119

 

Objective: 3.7

100)  The most important preparation for parenthood

  1. A) takes place in the context of the parents’ relationship.
  2. B) is having a positive relationship with one’s own parents.
  3. C) involves attending prenatal classes.
  4. D) is having support from extended family.

 

Page Ref: 119

 

Objective: 3.7

ESSAY

101)  When Americans and Europeans are asked about their motivations for parenthood, what are the most frequent advantages and disadvantages they list?

102)  Describe the germinal period, including the major developments that occur during this period.

103)  What are teratogens? What factors determine their impact?

104)  Describe the effects of exercise during pregnancy.

Answer:   In healthy, physically fit women, regular moderate exercise, such as walking, swimming, biking, or an aerobic

105)  Terra is Rh-negative and her husband, Marcus, is Rh-positive. Advise Terra about the consequences of this blood type incompatibility.

106)  Cite reasons that some women do not seek prenatal care.

 

 

 

cHAPTER 4
bIRTH AND THE nEWBORN bABY

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   An abnormal increase in maternal __________ in the third trimester of pregnancy is currently being evaluated as an early predictor of premature birth.

  1. A) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
  2. B) cortisol
  3. C) insulin
  4. D) thyroxine

 

Page Ref: 124

 

Objective: 4.1

2)   Lightening occurs when the

  1. A) amniotic sac is ruptured.
  2. B) plug of mucus is released from the cervix.
  3. C) fetus’s head drops low into the uterus.
  4. D) first uterine contractions take place.

 

Page Ref: 124

 

Objective: 4.1

3)   A sure sign that labor is only hours or days away is

  1. A) contractions in the upper part of the uterus.
  2. B) the bloody show.
  3. C)
  4. D) frequent urination.

 

Page Ref: 124

 

Objective: 4.1

4)   Stage 1 of labor

  1. A) is the shortest.
  2. B) involves delivery of the baby.
  3. C) climaxes with a brief phase called transition.
  4. D) involves birth of the placenta.

 

5)   During transition, the

  1. A) baby is forced down and out of the birth canal.
  2. B) placenta is delivered.
  3. C) cervix opens completely.
  4. D) cervix begins to dilate and efface.

 

Page Ref: 125

 

Objective: 4.1

6)   Stage 2 of labor lasts __________ for a first baby and __________ in later births.

  1. A) an average of 12 to 14 hours; 4 to 6 hours
  2. B) an average of 4 to 6 hours; 20 to 50 minutes
  3. C) about 50 minutes; 20 minutes
  4. D) about 5 to 10 minutes; 90 minutes

 

Page Ref: 125

 

Objective: 4.1

7)   The infant is born during

  1. A) the first stage of labor.
  2. B) the second stage of labor.
  3. C)
  4. D) the third stage of labor.

 

Page Ref: 125

 

Objective: 4.1

8)   __________ occurs when the vaginal opening is stretched around the baby’s entire head.

  1. A) Lightening
  2. B) The bloody show
  3. C) Crowning
  4. D) Transition

 

Page Ref: 125

 

Objective: 4.1

9)   The placenta is delivered during

  1. A) the first stage of labor.
  2. B) the second stage of labor.
  3. C)
  4. D) the third stage of labor.

 

Page Ref: 125

 

Objective: 4.1

10)   Lily is 21 inches long and weighs 8 pounds at birth. She is __________ than the average newborn.

  1. A) shorter but heavier
  2. B) longer and heavier
  3. C) longer but lighter
  4. D) shorter and lighter

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

11)   Which of the following statements about the average newborn infant is true?

  1. A) Girls tend to be slightly heavier than boys.
  2. B) The average newborn is 23 inches long.
  3. C) Boys tend to be slightly longer than girls.
  4. D) The average newborn weighs 6½ pounds.

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

12)   Dorita is given an Apgar appearance rating of 1. This means her

  1. A) body is pink with blue arms and legs.
  2. B) body, arms, and legs are completely blue.
  3. C) body, arms, and legs are completely pink.
  4. D) body is blue with pink arms and legs.

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

13)   A combined Apgar score of _____ or better indicates that an infant is in good physical condition.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 7

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

14)   Andre received a combined Apgar score of 5. This means that Andre

  1. A) is in good physical condition.
  2. B) needs assistance in establishing breathing and other vital signs.
  3. C) is in serious danger and should receive emergency medical attention.
  4. D) was in danger at birth, but quickly recovered and is now in good physical condition.

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

15)   Two Apgar ratings are given because

  1. A) one is given by the pediatrician, and one is given by the labor and delivery nurse.
  2. B) one is for appearance, pulse, and grimace, and the other is for activity and respiration.
  3. C) some babies have trouble adjusting at first but do quite well after a few minutes.
  4. D) one is taken immediately after birth, and the other is taken just before the newborn is released from the hospital.

 

Page Ref: 126

 

Objective: 4.1

16)   In South America, the Jarara mother

  1. A) leans against the body of the “head helper” to give birth.
  2. B) gives birth in full view of the entire community.
  3. C) gives birth in a hammock with a crowd of women close by.
  4. D) gives birth in a freestanding birth center.

 

Page Ref: 127

 

Objective: 4.2

17)   Before the late 1800s, childbirth usually took place

  1. A) at home and was a family-centered event.
  2. B) at home and far away from other family members.
  3. C) in a hospital with trained midwives.
  4. D) in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital.

 

Page Ref: 127

 

Objective: 4.2

18)   Most natural, or prepared, childbirth programs draw on methods developed by Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze, who recognized that

  1. A) new labor medications could be used to reduce the pain of childbirth.
  2. B) hospital costs could be saved if women used prepared childbirth methods.
  3. C) cultural attitudes had taught women to fear the birth experience.
  4. D) the mother’s home was the safest and least painful place to give birth.

 

Page Ref: 128

 

Objective: 4.2

19)   Mothers who are supported during labor—either by a lay birth attendant or a relative or friend with doula training—

  1. A) more often need medication to control pain.
  2. B) less often have instrument-assisted or surgical deliveries.
  3. C) usually give birth at home or at the birth attendant’s home.
  4. D) usually give birth lying flat on their backs with their feet in stirrups.

 

Page Ref: 128

 

Objective: 4.2

20)   Compared with those who give birth lying on their backs, women who choose an upright position are likely to __________ to __________.

  1. A) more; have a longer labor
  2. B) more; need an episiotomy
  3. C) less; use pain-relieving medication
  4. D) more; deliver a breech baby

 

Page Ref: 129

 

Objective: 4.2

21)   Which of the following statements regarding home delivery is true?

  1. A) Many home births are handled by certified nurse-midwifes.
  2. B) Home delivery is more popular in the United States than in England.
  3. C) Nearly 5 percent of American women now choose home delivery.
  4. D) Home delivery is almost always dangerous for both mothers and babies.

 

Page Ref: 129

 

Objective: 4.2

22)   Which of the following mothers is a good candidate for a home delivery?

  1. A) Heather, a healthy 43-year-old who previously had a cesarean delivery
  2. B) Helena, a first-time mom who wants to deliver her own baby unassisted
  3. C) Donna, a fifth-time mom whose baby is in a breech position
  4. D) Prudence, a 30-year-old second-time mom, assisted by a certified nurse-midwife

 

Page Ref: 129

 

Objective: 4.2

23)   Continuous fetal monitoring

  1. A) measures the baby’s blood oxygen levels during labor.
  2. B) is required in most U.S. hospitals and used in over 85 percent of U.S. births.
  3. C) is linked to a decreased rate of cesarean deliveries.
  4. D) reduces the rate of infant brain damage and death in all pregnancies.

 

Page Ref: 130

 

Objective: 4.3

24)   Which of the following statements about fetal monitoring is true?

  1. A) Fetal monitors are being phased out in U.S. hospitals because they are not necessary in most cases.
  2. B) Fetal monitoring is not helpful in detecting hidden problems with the baby.
  3. C) Critics worry that fetal monitors identify many babies as in danger who, in fact, are not.
  4. D) Fetal monitoring increases the likelihood of infant brain damage and death.

 

Page Ref: 130

 

Objective: 4.3

25)   Currently, the most common approach to controlling pain during labor is

  1. A) epidural analgesia.
  2. B)
  3. C) a spinal block.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 130

 

Objective: 4.3

26)   Epidural analgesia

  1. A) numbs the entire lower half of the body.
  2. B) limits pain reduction to the pelvic region.
  3. C) strengthens uterine contractions.
  4. D) reduces the chances of cesarean delivery.

 

Page Ref: 130

 

Objective: 4.3

27)   Henrietta is considering using epidural analgesia during labor. You can tell her that newborns exposed to epidural analgesia tend to

  1. A) be irritable when awake.
  2. B) be hyperactive and animated.
  3. C) have trouble falling asleep.
  4. D) suck more aggressively when feeding.

 

Page Ref: 130

 

Objective: 4.3

28)   __________ is appropriate if the mother’s pushing during the second stage of labor does not move the baby through the birth canal in a reasonable period of time.

  1. A) Instrument delivery
  2. B) Epidural analgesia
  3. C) Use of an anesthetic
  4. D) Induced labor

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

29)   Vacuum extractors

  1. A) are used in nearly 30 percent of U.S. births.
  2. B) are more likely than forceps to tear the mother’s tissues.
  3. C) have been rapidly replaced by forceps in most U.S. births.
  4. D) doubles the risk of bleeding beneath the baby’s skin.

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

30)   An induced labor

  1. A) is justified when the baby is in a breech position.
  2. B) often proceeds similarly to a naturally occurring one.
  3. C) is performed in about 3 percent of U.S. deliveries.
  4. D) is one that is started artificially.

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

31)   Induced labors are justified when

  1. A) continuing the pregnancy threatens the well-being of the mother or baby.
  2. B) the baby has not arrived by its due date.
  3. C) the doctor determines that it is a convenient time to deliver the baby.
  4. D) the mother and father want the baby to arrive on a particular date.

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

32)   In induced labors, __________ than in naturally occurring labors.

  1. A) medication is likely to be used in smaller amounts
  2. B) the rate of cesarean delivery is less
  3. C) contractions are harder and closer together
  4. D) the chances of an instrument delivery are less

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

33)   The rate of cesarean delivery is

  1. A) substantially higher in induced than spontaneous labors.
  2. B) lower today than it was forty years ago.
  3. C) currently about 10 percent in the United States.
  4. D) lower in the United States than in other industrialized countries.

 

Page Ref: 131

 

Objective: 4.3

34)   Which of the following statements about the breech position is true?

  1. A) Cesarean delivery is never justified when the baby is in the breech position.
  2. B) The breech position decreases the chance of squeezing of the umbilical cord.
  3. C) Certain breech babies fare just as well with a normal delivery as with a cesarean.
  4. D) The breech position decreases the chances of head injuries during delivery.

 

Page Ref: 132

 

Objective: 4.3

35)   Tonya is pregnant for a second time. She hopes to have a natural labor, though her first delivery was cesarean. You should advise Tonya that

  1. A) she will be required to have a second cesarean delivery.
  2. B) a natural labor after a cesarean is associated with increased rates of maternal death.
  3. C) a natural labor after a cesarean is just as safe as a repeated cesarean delivery.
  4. D) a natural labor after a cesarean is associated with slightly increased rates of rupture of the uterus.

 

Page Ref: 132

 

Objective: 4.3

36)   Cerebral palsy

  1. A) affects one out of every 100 American children.
  2. B) is caused by brain damage before, during, or just after birth.
  3. C) is usually the result of placenta abruptio or placenta previa.
  4. D) is the result of oxygen deprivation in about 2 percent of cases.

 

Page Ref: 133

 

Objective: 4.4

37)   Placenta abruptio

  1. A) is a life-threatening event that involves premature separation of the placenta.
  2. B) occurs when the blastocyst implants so low in the uterus that the placenta covers the cervix.
  3. C) decreases the chance that the baby will experience anoxia during labor and delivery.
  4. D) involves the squeezing of the umbilical cord due to its position during delivery.

 

Page Ref: 133

 

Objective: 4.4

38)   In her third trimester, Alicia’s doctor informed her that the placenta was covering the cervical opening. Alicia’s condition is known as

  1. A)
  2. B) placenta previa.
  3. C) placenta abruptio.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 133

 

Objective: 4.4

39)   Which of the following statements about anoxia is true?

  1. A) After initial brain injury from anoxia, another phase of cell death can occur several weeks later.
  2. B) Whole-body cooling involves immersing an anoxic newborn in freezing water.
  3. C) The effects of mild or even moderate anoxia rarely persist beyond infancy.
  4. D) When development is severely impaired, the anoxia was probably extreme.

 

Page Ref: 133

 

Objective: 4.4

40)   Brianna was born seven weeks premature. She has respiratory distress syndrome. Her parents can expect the hospital to use

  1. A) a head-cooling device.
  2. B) whole-body cooling.
  3. C) a mechanical respirator.
  4. D) “kangaroo care.”

 

Page Ref: 134

 

Objective: 4.4

41)   Birth weight is the best available predictor of

  1. A) childhood obesity.
  2. B) adolescent anorexia.
  3. C)
  4. D) infant survival.

 

Page Ref: 134

 

Objective: 4.4

42)   Which of the following statements about preterm infants is true?

  1. A) They are born below their expected weight considering the length of the pregnancy.
  2. B) They usually have more serious problems than small-for-date infants.
  3. C) Although they are small, their weight may still be appropriate, based on time spent in the uterus.
  4. D) They are more likely than small-for-date infants to show evidence of brain damage.

 

Page Ref: 135

 

Objective: 4.4

43)   Travis is born three days after his due date and weighs five pounds. Travis is a(n) __________ infant.

  1. A) preterm
  2. B) small-for-date
  3. C) average-weight
  4. D) anoxic

 

Page Ref: 135

 

Objective: 4.4

44)   Compared to full-term infants, preterm babies are

  1. A) at a greater risk for child abuse.
  2. B) more often held close.
  3. C) talked to more gently.
  4. D) more often touched.

 

Page Ref: 135–136

 

Objective: 4.4

45)   __________ is an especially important form of stimulation for preterm infants.

  1. A) Music
  2. B) Aromatherapy
  3. C) Touch
  4. D) Fresh air

 

Page Ref: 136

 

Objective: 4.4

46)   Kangaroo skin-to-skin contact

  1. A) is not commonly used in developing nations where hospitalization is not always possible.
  2. B) fosters improved oxygenation of the baby’s body, temperature regulation, and infant survival.
  3. C) is rarely used in Western nations where preterm infants are placed in hospital intensive care units.
  4. D) provides babies with touch stimulation but neglects the other sensory modalities.

 

Page Ref: 136

 

Objective: 4.4

47)   Dawn and Richard have the economic and personal resources to care for Amelia, their preterm infant. Research shows that

  1. A) interventions are not usually needed for economically advantaged parents like Dawn and Richard.
  2. B) Dawn and Richard will need extensive coaching in infant care and everyday problem solving.
  3. C) a few sessions of coaching in recognizing and responding to Amelia’s needs could enhance their interaction with Amelia.
  4. D) Dawn and Richard will need comprehensive long-term, intensive intervention to meet Amelia’s needs.

 

Page Ref: 137

 

Objective: 4.4

48)   The two factors that are largely responsible for neonatal mortality are __________ and __________.

  1. A) birth defects; sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
  2. B) child abuse; sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
  3. C) serious physical defects; low birth weight
  4. D) unintentional injuries; low birth weight

 

Page Ref: 138 Box: Social Issues: Health: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for Parents and Newborn Babies

 

Objective: 4.4

49)   Each country that outranks the United States in infant mortality provides its citizens with

  1. A) government-sponsored health-care benefits.
  2. B) stronger crime prevention and family planning programs.
  3. C) more up-to-date health-care technology.
  4. D) higher numbers of well-trained medical professionals.

 

Page Ref: 138 Box: Social Issues: Health: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for Parents and Newborn Babies

 

Objective: 4.4

50)   Carol lives in Wyoming and works for a small company with 12 employees. Carol hopes to take 12 weeks of maternity leave. What advice can you give Carol?

  1. A) The United States mandates 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for all new mothers.
  2. B) Federal law mandating unpaid maternity leave does not apply to her employer.
  3. C) The United States mandates six weeks of paid maternity leave for all new mothers.
  4. D) The United States mandates 12 weeks of unpaid maternity leave for all new mothers.

 

Page Ref: 139 Box: Social Issues: Health: A Cross-National Perspective on Health Care and Other Policies for Parents and Newborn Babies

 

Objective: 4.4

51)   Which of the following statements regarding the results of the landmark Kauai study is true?

  1. A) Children born with serious birth complications will not grow into competent, well-adjusted adults unless they have supportive home environments.
  2. B) Even when the overall balance of life events tips toward the favorable side, children with serious birth problems rarely develop successfully.
  3. C) The impact of early biological risks often wanes as children’s personal characteristics and social experiences contribute increasingly to their functioning.
  4. D) Children born with birth complications often develop severe behavioral problems regardless of their home environment.

 

Page Ref: 140

 

Objective: 4.4

52)   Fathers show hormonal changes—specifically slight increases in __________ and __________—around the time of birth that are compatible with those of mothers.

  1. A) oxytocin; prolactin
  2. B) prolactin; estrogens
  3. C) androgens; oxytocin
  4. D) estrogens; androgens

 

Page Ref: 141

 

Objective: 4.5

53)   Current evidence on bonding shows that

  1. A) the human parent–infant relationship depends on what happens during a sensitive period immediately after birth.
  2. B) the human parent–infant relationship does not depend on a precise, early period of togetherness.
  3. C) skin-to-skin contact between parent and baby is vital for the parent to feel affection and concern for the infant.
  4. D) adoptive parents have difficulty developing warm relationships when the infant enters the family months after birth.

 

Page Ref: 141

 

Objective: 4.5

54)   Early contact with a baby in the period shortly after birth

  1. A) guarantees immediate emotional closeness between the new parent and the newborn.
  2. B) is vital for new fathers so they can bond with the baby.
  3. C) may be one of several factors that help build a good parent–infant relationship.
  4. D) is essential for bonding because birth-related hormones facilitate parental responsiveness.

 

Page Ref: 141

 

Objective: 4.5

55)   When Yolanda gives birth, her hospital offers her the option of having her newborn stay in her hospital room all or most of the time. This is known as

  1. A) rooming in.
  2. B) a birthing room.
  3. C)
  4. D) nursery care.

 

Page Ref: 141

 

Objective: 4.5

56)   Unlike her two sisters, when Teresa gives birth, she does not choose rooming in. Teresa should know that there is

  1. A) evidence that her ability to bond with her baby will be compromised as a result of this decision.
  2. B) evidence that her baby will suffer emotionally as a result of this decision.
  3. C) no evidence that she will bond with her baby as strongly as her sisters bonded with their babies.
  4. D) no evidence that her competence as a caregiver will be compromised or that the baby will suffer emotionally.

 

Page Ref: 141

 

Objective: 4.5

57)   Baby Sunni quickly closes her eyelids when her father claps his hands near her head. The function of this reflex is to

  1. A) stimulate the eye muscle.
  2. B) protect the infant from a blow to the head.
  3. C) protect the infant from strong stimulation.
  4. D) communicate irritation toward a caregiver.

 

Page Ref: 142

 

Objective: 4.6

58)   A baby will display the Moro reflex when his caregiver

  1. A) shines a bright light at his eyes.
  2. B) produces a sudden loud sound against the surface supporting him.
  3. C) places him face down in a pool of water.
  4. D) strokes his cheek near the corner of his mouth.

 

Page Ref: 142

 

Objective: 4.6

59)   In infants who gain weight quickly, the stepping reflex

  1. A) is sustained throughout childhood.
  2. B) appears at around 3 months.
  3. C) reveals the health of the leg muscles.
  4. D) disappears at around 2 months.

 

Page Ref: 142

 

Objective: 4.6

60)   Reflexes can help parents comfort a baby because they

  1. A) are permanent, natural responses to stimulation.
  2. B) remind the infant of its life in the womb.
  3. C) reduce crying and promote sleep.
  4. D) permit infants to control distress and amount of stimulation.

 

Page Ref: 142

 

Objective: 4.6

61)   Which of the following statements about reflexes and the development of motor skills is true?

  1. A) The stepping reflex appears only when the newborn’s body is in upright position.
  2. B) Certain reflexes drop out early, but the motor functions involved are renewed later.
  3. C) Parents should deliberately exercise newborn stepping reflexes to encourage early walking.
  4. D) The tonic neck reflex may prepare the baby for voluntary walking.

 

Page Ref: 142

 

Objective: 4.6

62)   Pediatricians test newborn reflexes carefully because reflexes can reveal

  1. A) ineffective parenting.
  2. B) the baby’s temperament.
  3. C) a compromised circulatory system.
  4. D) the health of the baby’s nervous system.

 

Page Ref: 143

 

Objective: 4.6

63)   Although Baby Irina’s eyelids are closed, occasional rapid eye movements can been seen beneath them. Her breathing is irregular. She stirs occasionally and grimaces while she sleeps. Irina is probably in which of the following states of arousal?

  1. A) regular sleep
  2. B) drowsiness
  3. C) quiet alertness
  4. D) REM sleep

 

Page Ref: 144

 

Objective: 4.6

64)   The most fleeting state of arousal is

  1. A) NREM sleep.
  2. B) REM sleep.
  3. C)
  4. D) quiet alertness.

 

Page Ref: 143

 

Objective: 4.6

65)   Young babies’ sleep–wake cycles are affected more by __________ than by __________.

  1. A) fullness–hunger; darkness–light
  2. B) darkness–light; wetness–dryness
  3. C) wetness–dryness; fullness–hunger
  4. D) wetness–dryness; darkness–light

 

Page Ref: 144

 

Objective: 4.6

66)   Researchers believe that the stimulation of REM sleep is

  1. A) necessary to refine fine muscle development of the eye.
  2. B) more important in adolescence than in infancy.
  3. C) more important for adults than for babies.
  4. D) vital for growth of the central nervous system.

 

Page Ref: 144

 

Objective: 4.6

67)   Which of the following individuals is the most likely to spend the greatest amount of time in REM sleep?

  1. A) Trevor, a preterm baby
  2. B) Alice, a five-year-old
  3. C) Henry, a full-term infant
  4. D) Erica, a 13-year-old

 

Page Ref: 144

 

Objective: 4.6

68)   In infants who have experienced birth trauma,

  1. A) sleep behavior is organized and patterned.
  2. B) disturbed REM–NREM sleep cycles are often present.
  3. C) REM sleep is filled with vivid dreams.
  4. D) sleep–wake cycles are affected more by darkness–light than by fullness–hunger.

 

Page Ref: 145

 

Objective: 4.6

69)   In industrialized nations, the leading cause of infant mortality between 1 week and 12 months is

  1. A) birth trauma.
  2. B) congenital defects.
  3. C) child abuse.
  4. D) sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

 

Page Ref: 145 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

 

Objective: 4.6

70)   Early medical records of SIDS babies reveal

  1. A) a family history of chromosomal abnormalities.
  2. B) higher rates of prematurity and low birth weight, poor Apgar scores, and limp muscle tone.
  3. C) they were born after their due date and had higher-than-average birth weights.
  4. D) they often cried or whimpered in their sleep.

 

Page Ref: 145 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

 

Objective: 4.6

71)   __________ doubles the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

  1. A) Placing a sleeping baby on her back
  2. B) Placing a baby on a firm sleep surface
  3. C) Placing a sleeping infant on his side
  4. D) Maternal cigarette smoking

 

Page Ref: 145 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

 

Objective: 4.6

72)   Arthur wakes frequently to check to see if his sleeping infant, Sam, is breathing. Arthur can reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) by

  1. A) wrapping Sam in very warm clothing and blankets.
  2. B) placing Sam to sleep on his stomach.
  3. C) placing Sam to sleep on his back.
  4. D) providing Sam with soft bedding and taking away his pacifier.

 

Page Ref: 145 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Mysterious Tragedy of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

 

Objective: 4.6

73)   __________ is the most common reason young infants cry.

  1. A) Fear
  2. B) Pain
  3. C) Overstimulation
  4. D) Hunger

 

Page Ref: 146

 

Objective: 4.6

74)   Crying usually peaks at about

  1. A) 6 weeks.
  2. B) 12 weeks.
  3. C) 6 months.
  4. D) 18 months.

 

Page Ref: 146

 

Objective: 4.6

75)   Suzannah, an American teenager, is babysitting an infant for the first time. What advice is Suzannah most likely to get from the baby’s parents regarding the most effective way to soothe the baby if she cries?

  1. A) Expose the baby to continuous, monotonous, rhythmic sounds.
  2. B) Lift the baby to the shoulder and rock or walk with her.
  3. C) Dress the baby in several layers of clothing and blankets.
  4. D) Let the baby cry because she needs to learn to self-soothe.

 

Page Ref: 146–147

 

Objective: 4.6

76)   Holding a newborn extensively

  1. A) increases crying.
  2. B) hinders early motor development.
  3. C) promotes an insecure attachment relationship.
  4. D) reduces crying.

 

Page Ref: 147

 

Objective: 4.6

77)   The cause of colic is

  1. A) central nervous system damage.
  2. B)
  3. C) unpleasant stimuli.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 147

 

Objective: 4.6

78)   Newborn babies

  1. A) are not particularly sensitive to touch.
  2. B) are not particularly sensitive to pain.
  3. C) can distinguish the shapes and textures of small objects.
  4. D) are especially sensitive to touch around the torso.

 

Page Ref: 148

 

Objective: 4.7

79)   Wanda is concerned that her son, Max, will be in pain during his circumcision. You can tell Wanda that

  1. A) newborn males do not experience much pain during circumcision.
  2. B) offering a nipple that delivers a sugar solution reduces discomfort during circumcision.
  3. C) local anesthetics cannot be used during newborn circumcisions because they elevate the heart rate.
  4. D) local anesthetics can actually cause increased pain during minor procedures like circumcision.

 

Page Ref: 148

 

Objective: 4.7

80)   Newborns relax their facial muscles in response to a __________ taste.

  1. A) salty
  2. B) sour
  3. C) bitter
  4. D) sweet

 

Page Ref: 148

 

Objective: 4.7

81)   Which of the following statements regarding newborns’ taste preferences is true?

  1. A) Not until at least 12 months do babies prefer a salty taste to plain water.
  2. B) Newborns do not exhibit taste preferences until a few weeks after birth.
  3. C) Prenatal exposure to a flavor can influence taste preferences well into the first year.
  4. D) Newborns do not have taste preferences because they cannot distinguish basic tastes.

 

Page Ref: 148

 

Objective: 4.7

82)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on newborn odor preferences?

  1. A) Newborns cannot distinguish between the smell of their mother’s breast and that of an unfamiliar lactating woman.
  2. B) Bottle-fed newborns orient more to the smell of formula milk than to unfamiliar human milk.
  3. C) Even without postnatal exposure, the odor of human milk is attractive to newborns.
  4. D) Only breastfed babies prefer the smell of a lactating mother’s breast to formula.

 

Page Ref: 149

 

Objective: 4.7

83)   At birth, newborns prefer __________ to __________.

  1. A) pure tones; complex sounds
  2. B) noises; voices
  3. C) pure tones; voices
  4. D) complex sounds; pure tones

 

Page Ref: 149

 

Objective: 4.7

84)   Research on hearing shows that newborns

  1. A) can perceive only those sounds that are found in their own native language.
  2. B) prefer pure tones to complex sounds, such as human language.
  3. C) can tell the difference between a series of tones arranged in ascending versus descending order.
  4. D) cannot distinguish happy-sounding speech from speech with negative emotional qualities.

 

Page Ref: 149

 

Objective: 4.7

85)   Three-month-old Jefferson will probably listen longer to __________ than to __________.

  1. A) pure tones; voices
  2. B) pure tones; noises
  3. C) human speech; nonspeech sounds
  4. D) a foreign language; his native language

 

Page Ref: 149

 

Objective: 4.7

86)   __________ is the least-developed of the newborn baby’s senses.

  1. A) Hearing
  2. B) Taste
  3. C) Vision
  4. D) Touch

 

Page Ref: 150

 

Objective: 4.7

87)   At birth, visual structures in

  1. A) the eye are fully formed, but those in the brain are not yet fully formed.
  2. B) both the eye and the brain are fully formed.
  3. C) the brain are fully formed, but those in the eye are not yet fully formed.
  4. D) both the eye and the brain are not yet fully formed.

 

Page Ref: 150

 

Objective: 4.7

88)   Newborn babies

  1. A) see nearby objects most clearly.
  2. B) see unclearly across a wide range of distances.
  3. C) cannot detect human faces.
  4. D) have finely attuned visual acuity.

 

Page Ref: 150

 

Objective: 4.7

89)   Which of the following statements about vision in newborn babies is true?

  1. A) Newborns are attracted to muted colors, such as gray, rather than colored stimuli.
  2. B) Newborns’ eye movements are slow and inaccurate.
  3. C) Newborns tend to look at entire shapes rather than a single feature of an object.
  4. D) Newborns see more clearly at far distances than up close.

 

Page Ref: 150

 

Objective: 4.7

90)   T. Berry Brazelton’s Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS)

  1. A) evaluates a newborn baby’s reflexes, muscle tone, state changes, and responsiveness to stimuli.
  2. B) is specially designed for use with newborns at risk for developmental problems.
  3. C) evaluates a newborn baby’s appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration.
  4. D) evaluates a newborn baby’s vision, touch sensitivity, hearing, and odor sensitivity.

 

Page Ref: 150

 

Objective: 4.8

91)   In some hospitals, health professionals use the Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) to

  1. A) offer parents an early intelligence test score for their newborn.
  2. B) measure the newborn’s physical condition at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
  3. C) demonstrate to parents the capacities of their newborn infant.
  4. D) teach new mothers how to bond with their babies.

 

Page Ref: 151

 

Objective: 4.8

92)   Compared to infants of mothers who are not depressed, infants of depressed mothers

  1. A) have patterned sleep–wake cycles.
  2. B) are less attentive to their surroundings.
  3. C) have depleted cortisol levels.
  4. D) cry less often.

 

Page Ref: 153 Box: Biology and Environment: Parental Depression and Child Development

 

Objective: 4.9

93)   Persistent paternal depression is a strong predictor of

  1. A) aggression in boys.
  2. B) delays in motor development.
  3. C) anorexia in girls.
  4. D) childhood autism.

 

Page Ref: 153 Box: Biology and Environment: Parental Depression and Child Development

 

Objective: 4.9

94)   Laura is the nanny of Jackson, a six-month-old infant, whose single mother is depressed. You can tell Laura that

  1. A) therapy is unlikely to alleviate Jackson’s mother’s depression.
  2. B) antidepressant medication is unlikely to help Jackson’s mother.
  3. C) Jackson’s mother will probably need long-term treatment.
  4. D) a warm relationship with Laura can safeguard Jackson’s development.

 

Page Ref: 153 Box: Biology and Environment: Parental Depression and Child Development

 

Objective: 4.9

95)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on new parenthood?

  1. A) After the birth of a baby, the gender roles of husband and wife generally become less traditional.
  2. B) For most new parents, the arrival of a baby causes significant marital strain.
  3. C) Sharing caregiving predicts greater parental happiness and sensitivity to the baby.
  4. D) New parents in troubled marriages usually show an increase in marital satisfaction after a baby is born.

 

Page Ref: 152

 

Objective: 4.9

96)   Dagwood and Marcia postponed parenthood until Dagwood was 32 and Marcia was 31. They have a happy marriage and both have fulfilling careers. Compared to younger parents, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

  1. A) Dagwood will be less enthusiastic about being a father.
  2. B) Marcia will be less likely to encourage Dagwood to share in child care.
  3. C) Dagwood will be more willing to participate in parenting.
  4. D) Marcia will be less likely to encourage Dagwood to share housework.

 

Page Ref: 152

 

Objective: 4.9

97)   Couples can ease the transition to parenthood by

  1. A) being more willing to take on traditional gender roles.
  2. B) sharing child care right after the baby arrives.
  3. C) returning to normal routines, such as work, soon after birth.
  4. D) imposing their parenting standards on each other.

 

Page Ref: 154

 

Objective: 4.9

98)   Which of the following statements about single-mother families is true?

  1. A) About 40 percent of U.S. births are to single mothers.
  2. B) More than two-thirds of single mothers in the United States are teenagers.
  3. C) Newborns of single older mothers are at high risk for developmental problems.
  4. D) The majority of nonmarital births in the United States are planned.

 

Page Ref: 154

 

Objective: 4.9

99)   Older single women in well-paid occupations who choose parenthood

  1. A) often lack emotional and parenting support.
  2. B) often experience a stressful transition to parenthood.
  3. C) have a hard time coping effectively with parenting challenges.
  4. D) may encounter fewer parenting difficulties than married couples.

 

Page Ref: 154

 

Objective: 4.9

100)  Which of the following statements about special interventions that help parents adjust to life with a new baby is true?

  1. A) For those who are not at high risk for problems, counselor-led parenting groups are highly effective.
  2. B) Counselor-led parent groups are highly effective for parents struggling with poverty.
  3. C) Home visits do little to boost the effectiveness of programs for high-risk parents.
  4. D) Most low-income single mothers do not benefit from training in effective coparenting.

 

Page Ref: 155

 

Objective: 4.9

ESSAY

101)  Describe the signs that indicate that labor is near.

102)  Describe the Apgar Scale, and explain how it is used.

103)  Describe preterm and small-for-date infants. How are they different?

104)  Explain the concepts of bonding and rooming in. Is immediate physical contact necessary for bonding to occur? Is there a sensitive period for bonding?

105)  Describe ways parents and caregivers can soothe a crying baby, and explain how or why each technique works.

 

 

 

cHAPTER 5
pHYSICAL dEVELOPMENT
IN iNFANCY AND TODDLERHOOD

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Which of the following statements about changes in body size over the first two years of life is true?

  1. A) Infants and toddlers have remarkably similar physical capabilities.
  2. B) By the end of the second year, a typical infant’s height is about 36 inches.
  3. C) Typically, by five months of age, birth weight has tripled.
  4. D) An average 1-year-old’s height is 75 percent greater than at birth.

 

Page Ref: 159

 

Objective: 5.1

2)   Infants and toddlers grow

  1. A) by making steady gains over time.
  2. B) slower than at any other time during childhood.
  3. C) in little spurts.
  4. D) in dramatic leaps.

 

Page Ref: 160

 

Objective: 5.1

3)   “Baby fat”

  1. A) helps the infant maintain a constant body temperature.
  2. B) peaks at about 6 months.
  3. C) increases very slowly during infancy.
  4. D) helps the infant gain strength and physical coordination.

 

Page Ref: 160

 

Objective: 5.1

4)   Which of the following statements demonstrates the cephalocaudal trend?

  1. A) During infancy and childhood, the legs and arms grow somewhat ahead of the hands and feet.
  2. B) At birth, the head takes up one-fourth of total body length, the legs only one-third.
  3. C) In the prenatal period, the head, chest, and trunk grow first; then the arms and legs; and finally the hands and feet.
  4. D) During infancy and childhood, the hands and feet grow somewhat ahead of the fingers and toes.

 

5)   Which of the following statements is consistent with the proximodistal trend of body growth?

  1. A) During the prenatal period, the head develops more rapidly than the lower part of the body.
  2. B) During infancy and childhood, the body grows from “head to tail.”
  3. C) During the prenatal period, the trunk grows first, followed by the chest and the head.
  4. D) During infancy and childhood, the arms and legs grow somewhat ahead of the hands and feet.

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.1

6)   Throughout childhood and adolescence, girls

  1. A) are slightly taller than boys.
  2. B) are slightly heavier than boys.
  3. C) have a higher ratio of fat to muscle than boys.
  4. D) have more “baby fat” than boys.

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.1

7)   Which of the following children is most likely to be above North American growth norms?

  1. A) Timmy, a Caucasian-American boy
  2. B) June, an Asian girl
  3. C) Freddy, an African-American boy
  4. D) Kim, an Asian boy

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.1

8)   The best estimate of a child’s physical maturity is

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) skeletal age.
  4. D) chronological age.

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.1

9)   Skeletal age is determined by __________ to see the extent to which soft, pliable cartilage has hardened into bone.

  1. A) X-raying the long bones of the body
  2. B) measuring the circumference of the skull
  3. C) X-raying the spinal cord and teeth
  4. D) measuring the length of the arms and legs

 

10)   At age 2, which of the following children is most likely to be ahead of the others in skeletal age?

  1. A) Randy, a Caucasian-American boy
  2. B) Ruby, an African-American girl
  3. C) Armand, an African-American boy
  4. D) Nguyen, an Asian boy

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.1

11)   At birth, the __________ is nearer to its adult size than any other physical structure.

  1. A) heart
  2. B) liver
  3. C) brain
  4. D) skull

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.2

12)   Neurons

  1. A) store and transmit information.
  2. B) are tightly packed together.
  3. C) do not directly connect with each other.
  4. D) that are stimulated too soon lose their synapses.

 

Page Ref: 161

 

Objective: 5.2

13)   A surprising aspect of brain growth is that

  1. A) the neural tube produces far less neurons than the brain will need.
  2. B) as synapses form, 20 to 80 percent of the surrounding neurons die.
  3. C) during infancy and toddlerhood, neural fibers stagnate.
  4. D) once neurons are in place, they cannot differentiate.

 

Page Ref: 162

 

Objective: 5.2

14)   When Samer was born, stimulation in his brain resulted in a massive overabundance of synapses. Neurons that were seldom stimulated soon lost their synapses. This process is known as

  1. A)
  2. B) synaptic pruning.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

15)   __________ are responsible for coating neural fibers with an insulating fatty sheath.

  1. A) Glial cells
  2. B) Neurotransmitters
  3. C) Brain waves
  4. D) Synapses

 

Page Ref: 162

 

Objective: 5.2

16)   __________ improves the efficiency of message transfer.

  1. A) Stimulation
  2. B) Synaptic pruning
  3. C) Tomography
  4. D) Myelination

 

Page Ref: 162

 

Objective: 5.2

17)   Which of the following statements about brain development is true?

  1. A) At birth, the brain is nearly 70 percent of its adult weight.
  2. B) By age 2, the brain is approximately 50 percent of its adult weight.
  3. C) Brain growth is especially rapid in the first year, when the brain more than doubles in size.
  4. D) Brain development is complete by the end of the first year.

 

Page Ref: 163

 

Objective: 5.2

18)   When measuring Avery’s brain functioning with __________, researchers use a tool called a geodesic sensor net (GSN) to hold up to 128 interconnected electrodes in place.

  1. A) an electroencephalogram (EEG)
  2. B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  3. C) positron emission tomography (PET)
  4. D) near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS)

 

Page Ref: 163

 

Objective: 5.2

19)   Damon is injected with a radioactive substance and then lies on an apparatus with a scanner that emits fine streams of X-rays, which detect increased blood flow and oxygen metabolism in areas of the brain as Damon processes particular stimuli. Damon’s brain functioning is being measured using

  1. A) an electroencephalogram (EEG).
  2. B) event-related potentials (ERPs).
  3. C) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).
  4. D) position emission tomography (PET).

 

Page Ref: 163

 

Objective: 5.2

20)   Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS)

  1. A) enables identification of general regions of stimulus-induced activity.
  2. B) detects changes in electrical brain-wave activity in the cerebral cortex.
  3. C) is appropriate for infants and young children, who can move within limited range during testing.
  4. D) records the frequency and amplitude of brain waves in response to particular stimuli using the EEG.

 

Page Ref: 163

 

Objective: 5.2

21)   The cerebral cortex

  1. A) contains the greatest number of neurons and synapses in the brain.
  2. B) is the first part of the brain to stop growing.
  3. C) is less sensitive to environmental influences than other parts of the brain.
  4. D) fully develops during the third trimester of pregnancy.

 

Page Ref: 164

 

Objective: 5.2

22)   The cortical regions with the most extended period of development are the __________ lobes.

  1. A) occipital
  2. B) frontal
  3. C) temporal
  4. D) parietal

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

23)   The prefrontal cortex

  1. A) reaches an adult level of synaptic connections during the first two months of life.
  2. B) undergoes especially rapid pruning of synapses during the preschool and school years.
  3. C) is responsible for body movement over the first year of life.
  4. D) fully develops before any of the other cortical regions.

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

24)   For most people, the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is largely responsible for

  1. A) judging distances.
  2. B) negative emotion.
  3. C) verbal abilities.
  4. D) recognizing geometric shapes.

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

25)   Studies using fMRI reveal that the right hemisphere is specialized for processing information in a(n) __________ manner.

  1. A) sequential
  2. B) analytical
  3. C) piece-by-piece
  4. D) holistic, integrative

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

26)   In a highly plastic cerebral cortex,

  1. A) the areas of the brain are strongly committed to specific functions, and there is a high capacity for learning.
  2. B) if a part of the cortex is damaged, other parts can take over the tasks it would have handled.
  3. C) spatial skills develop more rapidly than language skills and are easier to recover after injury.
  4. D) the right and left hemispheres of the brain have become strongly lateralized.

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

27)   Newborn Will is likely to show greater activation in the left hemisphere while

  1. A) displaying a positive state of arousal.
  2. B) listening to nonspeech sounds.
  3. C) drinking a sour-tasting fluid.
  4. D) feeling distress.

 

Page Ref: 165

 

Objective: 5.2

28)   In a large study of children with injuries to the cerebral cortex that occurred around the time of birth or in the first six months of life, researchers found that

  1. A) delays in language development persisted into adolescence if injury occurred in the left hemisphere.
  2. B) delays in language development persisted into adolescence if injury occurred in the right hemisphere.
  3. C) undamaged areas—in either the left or the right hemisphere—took over vocabulary and grammatical skills by
    age 5.
  4. D) language skills were more likely to be permanently damaged than spatial skills.

 

Page Ref: 166 Box: Biology and Environment: Brain Plasticity: Insights from Research on Brain-Damaged Children and Adults

 

Objective: 5.2

29)   Sharon’s 46-year-old husband suffered a traumatic brain injury in an automobile accident. What information about brain plasticity can you provide to Sharon?

  1. A) Brain plasticity is restricted to early childhood, when the brain is forming many new synapses.
  2. B) At older ages, specialized brain structures are in place, and after injury they cannot reorganize.
  3. C) Adults with brain injuries rarely show deficits in spatial skills, even if language development is impaired.
  4. D) Though far more limited than in early childhood, reorganization in the brain can occur in adulthood.

 

Page Ref: 166 Box: Biology and Environment: Brain Plasticity: Insights from Research on Brain-Damaged Children and Adults

 

Objective: 5.2

30)   When a 1-month-old kitten is put in the dark and kept there during the fourth week of life and beyond, damage to visual  centers of the brain is severe and permanent. This example provides evidence of

  1. A) brain plasticity.
  2. B) synaptic pruning.
  3. C) lateralization of the cerebral cortex.
  4. D) sensitive periods in brain development.

 

Page Ref: 167

 

Objective: 5.2

31)   Alexia was born with cataracts in both eyes. What can you tell her parents about when she should have corrective surgery?

  1. A) Alexia should wait to have corrective surgery until adulthood when her eyes are fully mature.
  2. B) Alexia should not have corrective surgery during the first six months of life because her vision would be severely and permanently impaired.
  3. C) The longer cataract surgery is postponed beyond infancy, the less complete Alexia’s recovery in visual skills.
  4. D) Alexia should wait until later in childhood to have corrective surgery because there are no sensitive periods in visual development.

 

Page Ref: 167

 

Objective: 5.2

32)   A study of children who were transferred between birth and 3½ years from extremely deprived Romanian orphanages to adoptive families in Great Britain found that

  1. A) the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the higher their mental test scores during middle childhood and adolescence.
  2. B) most children were impaired in all domains of development, but those who were adopted before 6 months of age showed impressive cognitive catch-up.
  3. C) children who experienced adequate early nutrition were not negatively affected by early orphanage rearing.
  4. D) serious mental health problems only appeared in those children who spent more than 2 years in an orphanage.

 

Page Ref: 167

 

Objective: 5.2

33)  A study of children who had spent their first eight months or more in Romanian institutions and were then adopted into Canadian homes found that the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the __________ their __________.

  1. A) higher; cortisol levels
  2. B) lower; cortisol levels
  3. C) greater; anger control
  4. D) greater; impulse control

 

Page Ref: 168

 

Objective: 5.2

34)   Nicole is considering sending her 8-month-old son Austin to a new academic learning center where infants are trained with letter and number flash cards. You can advise Nicole that

  1. A) Austin will likely score 10 to 15 points higher in IQ than agemates who attend traditional early childhood programs.
  2. B) although this program will not likely raise Austin’s IQ, it will probably help him learn to read more quickly.
  3. C) this program is as effective as a traditional early childhood program in promoting cognitive development.
  4. D) this program could overwhelm Austin and cause him to withdraw, thereby threatening his interest in learning.

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.2

35)   Experience-dependent brain growth

  1. A) takes place through naturally occurring interactions with caregivers.
  2. B) provides a foundation for later-occurring, experience-expectant development.
  3. C) depends on ordinary experiences, such as moving about and exploring the environment.
  4. D) relies on specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures.

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.2

36)   Which of the following is an activity associated with experience-dependent brain growth?

  1. A) writing a poem
  2. B) singing a song
  3. C) imitating facial expressions
  4. D) playing peekaboo

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.2

37)   Experience-expectant brain growth

  1. A) is a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across cultures.
  2. B) usually occurs later than experience-dependent brain growth.
  3. C) occurs naturally, as caregivers engage babies in enjoyable daily routines.
  4. D) provides mastery of skills that depend on extensive training.

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.2

38)   Which of the following is an activity associated with experience-expectant brain growth?

  1. A) coloring a picture
  2. B) playing peekaboo
  3. C) learning to ride a bike
  4. D) playing the piano

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.2

39)   Between birth and 2 years,

  1. A) fussiness increases.
  2. B) crying increases.
  3. C) the organization of sleep and wakefulness changes substantially.
  4. D) total sleep time increases slowly.

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.3

40)   Compared to their U.S. agemates, Dutch babies

  1. A) are put to bed later.
  2. B) sleep, on average, 2 hours less per day.
  3. C) sleep, on average, 2 hours more per day.
  4. D) have less predictable sleep schedules.

 

Page Ref: 169

 

Objective: 5.3

41)   One possible explanation for the high frequency of bedtime struggles in Western homes is that children

  1. A) are much more dependent than children from other cultures.
  2. B) are expected to sleep for more hours than children from other cultures.
  3. C) often eat late in the evening, which interferes with sleep.
  4. D) may feel stressed when they must fall asleep without assistance.

 

Page Ref: 170 Box: Cultural Influences: Cultural Variation in Infant Sleep Arrangements

 

Objective: 5.3

42)   In cultures where parent–child cosleeping is widespread,

  1. A) the rate of infant mortality from sudden infant death syndrome is high.
  2. B) parents and infants usually sleep on soft mattresses.
  3. C) infants often sleep in a cradle or hammock next to the parents’ bed.
  4. D) infants tend to lie on their stomach or side facing away from the mother.

 

Page Ref: 170 Box: Cultural Influences: Cultural Variation in Infant Sleep Arrangements

 

Objective: 5.3

43)   As long as negative environmental influences such as poor nutrition or illness are not severe,

  1. A) children and adolescents typically show catch-up growth once conditions improve.
  2. B) adopted children typically reach a height closer to their adoptive than biological parents’ heights.
  3. C) body weight is more acutely influenced by eating habits rather than heredity.
  4. D) height and rate of physical growth are largely determined by the environment.

 

Page Ref: 171

 

Objective: 5.4

44)   __________ percent of infants’ total caloric intake is devoted to growth.

  1. A) Ten
  2. B) Fifteen
  3. C) Twenty-five
  4. D) Forty

 

Page Ref: 171

 

Objective: 5.4

45)   Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is true?

  1. A) Human milk is lower in fat and higher in protein than the milk of other mammals.
  2. B) A mother who breastfeeds needs to add solid foods to her infant’s diet around 4 months.
  3. C) Breastfed babies suffer from more gastrointestinal problems than do bottle-fed infants.
  4. D) Breastfed infants accept new solid foods more easily than do bottle-fed infants.

 

Page Ref: 172

 

Objective: 5.4

46)   Breastfed babies in poverty-stricken regions of the world

  1. A) are more likely than bottle-fed babies to be malnourished.
  2. B) should be given a vitamin-enriched supplement of commercial formula at least weekly.
  3. C) are far more likely than bottle-fed babies to survive the first year of life.
  4. D) should be breastfed until age 9 months, with solid food added at 3 months of age.

 

Page Ref: 172

 

Objective: 5.4

47)   The World Health Organization recommends breastfeeding until age __________, with solid foods added at __________.

  1. A) 3 months; 4 months
  2. B) 6 months; 6 months
  3. C) 1 year; 4 months
  4. D) 2 years; 6 months

 

Page Ref: 172

 

Objective: 5.4

48)   Which of the following statements regarding breastfeeding is true?

  1. A) Breastfeeding should be combined with formula for a balanced diet.
  2. B) Breastfeeding helps increase spacing among siblings.
  3. C) Breastfeeding has become less common in industrialized nations.
  4. D) Breastfeeding is a reliable method of birth control.

 

Page Ref: 172

 

Objective: 5.4

49)   In the United States,

  1. A) 77 percent of mothers begin breastfeeding after birth, but more than one-third stop by 6 months.
  2. B) most mothers follow the advice of the World Health Organization regarding when to stop breastfeeding.
  3. C) breastfeeding has become more common, especially among low-income minority women.
  4. D) only 25 percent of preterm babies are breastfed at hospital discharge, despite the benefits of breast milk.

 

Page Ref: 173

 

Objective: 5.4

50)   The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises

  1. A) exclusive breastfeeding for the first 2 years.
  2. B) exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months.
  3. C) inclusion of breast milk in the baby’s diet until at least 1 year.
  4. D) weaning from breast milk by age 6 months.

 

Page Ref: 173

 

Objective: 5.4

51)   Garrett, age 2 months, is an enthusiastic eater who nurses vigorously and gains weight quickly. Garrett’s mom, Christine, is concerned that Garrett might be at risk of being permanently overweight. You can advise Christine that

  1. A) most chubby babies will continue to gain weight during toddlerhood and the preschool years.
  2. B) there is no evidence that rapid weight gain in infancy is related to later obesity.
  3. C) she should start supplementing Garrett’s diet with cereal.
  4. D) breastfeeding for the first six months is associated with a leaner body build through early childhood.

 

Page Ref: 173

 

Objective: 5.4

52)   A study in which researchers made periodic home visits to several hundred low-income first-time mothers and their babies found that

  1. A) the majority of infants were breastfed.
  2. B) inappropriate feeding practices were pervasive.
  3. C) the majority of infants did not receive solid food soon enough.
  4. D) only about 25 percent of infants received juices by 6 months.

 

Page Ref: 174 Social Issues: Health: U.S. Public Policy Changes Improve Infant Feeding Practices in Low-Income Families

 

Objective: 5.4

53)   Which of the following was a result of recent policy changes by the U.S. Special Supplemental Nutritional Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)?

  1. A) a lengthening of the duration of breastfeeding
  2. B) a decrease in enrollment in the fully breastfeeding option
  3. C) an increase in enrollment in the formula-only package option
  4. D) a decrease in funding for breastfeeding counseling for new mothers

 

Page Ref: 174 Social Issues: Health: U.S. Public Policy Changes Improve Infant Feeding Practices in Low-Income Families

 

Objective: 5.4

54)   Zahara, age 3 months, is painfully thin. Her mother is too malnourished to produce enough breast milk, and the supply of formula is inadequate for bottle-feeding. Zahara is probably in danger of dying from

  1. A)
  2. B) growth faltering.
  3. C)
  4. D) nonorganic failure to thrive.

 

Page Ref: 175

 

Objective: 5.4

55)   Bulous is 20 months old and was recently weaned. He has an unbalanced diet very low in protein. Bulous has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, a skin rash, and thinning hair. Bulous most likely has

  1. A) iron-deficiency anemia.
  2. B)
  3. C) nonorganic failure to thrive.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 175

 

Objective: 5.4

56)   Osita is a 4-year-old Ethiopian boy. He survived kwashiorkor and was recently adopted by a Canadian couple. Osita will probably

  1. A) continue to undereat even when food is plentiful.
  2. B) gain very little weight as his diet improves.
  3. C) have an average to high basal metabolism rate.
  4. D) suffer from lasting damage to the brain, heart, or other organs.

 

Page Ref: 175

 

Objective: 5.4

57)   An estimated 22 percent of U.S. children suffer from

  1. A)
  2. B) food insecurity.
  3. C)
  4. D) iron deficiency anemia.

 

Page Ref: 175

 

Objective: 5.4

58)   Six-month-old Luka’s weight, height, and head circumference are substantially below age-related growth norms. Luka is withdrawn and apathetic. Luka’s mother sometimes appears depressed and distant, at other times impatient and hostile. Luka most likely suffers from

  1. A) growth faltering.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) food insecurity.

 

Page Ref: 176

 

Objective: 5.4

59)   Ariana showed signs of growth faltering. An observant nurse intervened early, helping Ariana’s parents with their own life challenges, encouraging sensitive caregiving, and coaching the family through Ariana’s feeding problems. Ariana will probably

  1. A) remain small.
  2. B) show lasting cognitive difficulties.
  3. C) show quick catch-up growth.
  4. D) show lasting emotional difficulties.

 

Page Ref: 176

 

Objective: 5.4

60)   In classical conditioning, once a baby’s nervous system makes the connection between two stimuli, the __________ stimulus produces __________.

  1. A) conditioned; a neutral response
  2. B) conditioned; a reflexive response
  3. C) unconditioned; an unconditioned response
  4. D) neutral; the behavior by itself

 

Page Ref: 176

 

Objective: 5.5

61)   Classical conditioning

  1. A) helps infants anticipate what is about to happen next.
  2. B) disappears once reflexive behaviors become voluntary.
  3. C) plays a vital role in the formation of social relationships.
  4. D) emerges only after newborn reflexes have begun to wane.

 

Page Ref: 176

 

Objective: 5.5

62)  Baby Paul’s mother strokes his hair just before he eats. Now when Paul’s mother strokes his hair, Paul begins to suck. The stroking is the __________, and the taste of milk is the __________.

  1. A) conditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus
  2. B) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus
  3. C) neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus
  4. D) neutral stimulus; conditioned response

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

63)   In classical conditioning, if learning occurs, the neutral stimulus is then called a(n)

  1. A) unconditioned response.
  2. B) neutral response.
  3. C) conditioned stimulus.
  4. D) conditioned response.

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

64)   In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is presented alone enough times, without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, __________ occurs.

  1. A) habituation
  2. B) extinction
  3. C) imitation
  4. D) recovery

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

65)   Prya has classically conditioned young Raj to suck when Prya touches Raj’s stomach during feeding. If Prya repeatedly touches Raj’s stomach without feeding him, Raj will

  1. A) gradually stop sucking in response to having his stomach touched.
  2. B) learn to suck without having his stomach touched.
  3. C) stop eating until Prim touches his stomach and feeds him again.
  4. D) increase his level of sucking in response to having his stomach touched.

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

66)   Young infants can be classically conditioned most easily when

  1. A) a conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus.
  2. B) the conditioned response is fear.
  3. C) the association between two stimuli has survival value.
  4. D) a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned response.

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

67)   Which of the following responses is very difficult to classically condition in young babies?

  1. A) contentment
  2. B) fear
  3. C) hunger
  4. D) sucking

 

Page Ref: 177

 

Objective: 5.5

68)   In operant conditioning, a(n) __________ increases the occurrence of a response.

  1. A) neutral stimulus
  2. B) conditioned stimulus
  3. C) reinforcer
  4. D) unconditioned stimulus

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

69)   Baby Calinda sucks on a bottle. The taste of the sweet liquid increases Calinda’s sucking. This is an example of

  1. A) operant conditioning.
  2. B)
  3. C) classical conditioning.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

70)   A researcher hangs a mobile over the crib of 4-month-old Anya. When the researcher attaches Anya’s foot to the mobile with a long cord, Anya can, by kicking, make the mobile turn. The turning of the mobile is an example of

  1. A) a reinforcer.
  2. B)
  3. C) an unconditioned stimulus.
  4. D) an conditioned response.

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

71)   When baby Rico whimpers and whines, his mother responds by ignoring him and refusing to pick him up. This decreases Rico’s whining. The mother’s behavior is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B) a reinforcer.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

72)   At birth, the human brain is set up to be

  1. A) attracted to novelty.
  2. B) wary of change.
  3. C) attracted to familiarity.
  4. D) bored by repetition.

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

73)   __________ refers to a gradual reduction in the strength of a response due to repetitive stimulation.

  1. A) Imitation
  2. B) Recovery
  3. C) Habituation
  4. D) Reinforcement

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

74)   Once habituation occurs, a new stimulus causes responsiveness to return to a high level, an increase called

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 178

 

Objective: 5.5

75)   __________ preference assesses infants’ __________.

  1. A) Familiarity; recent memory
  2. B) Novelty; remote memory
  3. C) Novelty; recent memory
  4. D) Familiarity; reflexes

 

Page Ref: 179

 

Objective: 5.5

76)   The newborn’s capacity to imitate

  1. A) has primarily been observed in Western cultures.
  2. B) disappears by two weeks of age.
  3. C) has been demonstrated in many ethnic groups and cultures.
  4. D) is limited to tongue protrusions.

 

Page Ref: 179

 

Objective: 5.5

77)   __________ fire identically when a primate hears or sees an action and when it carries out that action on its own.

  1. A) Imitation neurons
  2. B) Glial cells
  3. C) Mirror neurons
  4. D) Neurotransmitters

 

Page Ref: 180

 

Objective: 5.5

78)   Which of the following is an example of a gross-motor skill?

  1. A) climbing
  2. B) pointing
  3. C) reaching
  4. D) scribbling

 

Page Ref: 181

 

Objective: 5.6

79)   Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill?

  1. A) standing
  2. B) throwing
  3. C) sitting up
  4. D) grasping

 

Page Ref: 181

 

Objective: 5.6

80)   Which of the following motor skills typically develops first?

  1. A) walking alone
  2. B) scribbling vigorously
  3. C) walking up stairs with help
  4. D) jumping in place

 

Page Ref: 182

 

Objective: 5.6

81)   Baby Isaac combined his skills of kicking, rocking on all fours, and reaching in order to crawl. This is an example of

  1. A) coordinated trends.
  2. B) fine-motor coordination.
  3. C) gross-motor coordination.
  4. D) dynamic systems of action.

 

Page Ref: 181–182

 

Objective: 5.6

82)   Dynamic systems theory shows us why motor development

  1. A) is generally slower in females than males.
  2. B) is hardwired into the nervous system.
  3. C) always follows the cephalocaudal trend.
  4. D) cannot be genetically determined.

 

Page Ref: 183

 

Objective: 5.6

83)   In James Galloway and Esther Thelen’s microgenetic study following babies from their first attempts until skill mastery, the infants

  1. A) scooted before crawling.
  2. B) first explored the toys with their feet.
  3. C) violated the proximodistal trend.
  4. D) required adult instruction to acquire motor skills.

 

Page Ref: 183

 

Objective: 5.6

84)   In Wayne Dennis’s study of infants in Iranian orphanages, only 15 percent of the orphans were walking alone by
3 to 4 years of age because

  1. A) they spent the first year of their lives being carried by caregivers.
  2. B) they were malnourished and unable to acquire the strength to walk.
  3. C) they spent their days lying on their backs in cribs.
  4. D) rapid motor progress was actively discouraged by caregivers.

 

Page Ref: 184

 

Objective: 5.6

85)   Which of the following mothers is most likely to actively discourage rapid motor development?

  1. A) Elyse, a Canadian mother
  2. B) Indira, a West Indian mother
  3. C) Biyaki, a Gusii mother
  4. D) Cheruiyot, a Kipsigis mother

 

Page Ref: 184

 

Objective: 5.6

86)   Which of the following motor skills is believed to play the greatest role in infant cognitive development?

  1. A) crawling
  2. B) reaching
  3. C) rolling from back to side
  4. D) walking

 

Page Ref: 185

 

Objective: 5.6

87)   Newborn Sam’s poorly coordinated swipes toward an object in front of him is called

  1. A) the pincer grasp.
  2. B) the ulnar grasp.
  3. C)
  4. D) voluntary reaching.

 

Page Ref: 185

 

Objective: 5.6

88)   Reaching is largely controlled by

  1. A) hand–eye coordination.
  2. B) gross-motor development.
  3. C) vision and hearing.
  4. D) our sense of movement and location in space.

 

Page Ref: 185

 

Objective: 5.6

89)   Five-month-old Raelle can be expected to __________ when an object is moved beyond her reach.

  1. A) extend one arm rather than both
  2. B) reduce her efforts
  3. C) revert to prereaching
  4. D) increase her efforts

 

Page Ref: 185

 

Objective: 5.6

90)   Four-month-old Kaitlyn reaches for a toy. She grabs it by closing her fingers against her palm. Kaitlyn is using

  1. A) the pincer grasp.
  2. B) the grasp reflex.
  3. C) the ulnar grasp.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 186

 

Objective: 5.6

91)   By the end of the first year, a baby’s ability to manipulate objects greatly expands with the development of

  1. A) the pincer grasp.
  2. B) the ulnar grasp.
  3. C) the fine-motor reflex.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 186

 

Objective: 5.6

92)  In cultures where mothers carry their infants on their hips or in slings for most of the day,

  1. A) infants are delayed in reaching and grasping.
  2. B) babies have rich opportunities to explore with their hands.
  3. C) manual skills develop later than in Western infants.
  4. D) the overstimulation causes babies to cry a great deal.

 

Page Ref: 186

 

Objective: 5.6

93)  Which of the following babies is most likely to develop manual skills first?

  1. A) Shane, an infant born in the United States
  2. B) Tord, an infant born in Norway
  3. C) Camille, an infant born in France
  4. D) Bintou, an infant born in Mali

 

Page Ref: 186

 

Objective: 5.6

94)   Between 6 and 8 months, infants

  1. A) become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in foreign languages.
  2. B) start to “screen out” sounds not used in their native tongue.
  3. C) do not yet recognize familiar words in spoken passages.
  4. D) prefer listening to a foreign language than their own language.

 

Page Ref: 187

 

Objective: 5.7

95)   In a face perception study involving both human and monkey pairs, 9-month-old infants

  1. A) could discriminate the individual faces of both humans and monkeys.
  2. B) did not show a novelty preference when viewing the monkey pair.
  3. C) showed a novelty preference only when viewing the monkey pair.
  4. D) could not yet discriminate the individual faces of humans or monkeys.

 

Page Ref: 188 Box: Biology and Environment: “Tuning in” to Familiar Speech, Faces, and Music: A Sensitive Period for Culture-Specific Learning

 

Objective: 5.7

96)   Perception studies demonstrate that

  1. A) Western adults, but not infants, can detect rhythmic-pattern deviations of non-Western music.
  2. B) Western children retain the ability to detect deviations in foreign musical rhythms throughout childhood.
  3. C) Western babies lose their ability to detect deviations in foreign musical rhythms by 12 months of age.
  4. D) daily opportunities to listen to non-Western music restores Western adults’ sensitivity to music rhythms.

 

Page Ref: 188 Box: Biology and Environment: “Tuning in” to Familiar Speech, Faces, and Music: A Sensitive Period for Culture-Specific Learning

 

Objective: 5.7

97)   Research indicates that around 7 to 9 months, infants

  1. A) detect when words are deliberately mispronounced.
  2. B) begin to divide the speech stream into wordlike units.
  3. C) become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in their own language.
  4. D) detect words that start with weak syllables.

 

Page Ref: 187

 

Objective: 5.7

98)   Which of the following statements about how infants perceive the structure of speech is true?

  1. A) Rules that infants extract from the speech stream do not generalize to nonspeech sounds.
  2. B) Parents must directly teach word-order rules for infants to understand the basic grammar of their language.
  3. C) Infants locate words by discriminating syllables that often occur together from syllables that seldom occur together.
  4. D) Infants do not become sensitive to the speech structure of individual words until after their first birthday.

 

Page Ref: 188

 

Objective: 5.7

99)   For exploring the environment, humans depend on __________ more than any other sense.

  1. A) vision
  2. B) touch
  3. C) hearing
  4. D) instinct

 

Page Ref: 189

 

Objective: 5.7

100)  Color vision is adultlike by

  1. A)
  2. B) 1 month.
  3. C) 2 months.
  4. D) 4 months.

 

Page Ref: 189

 

Objective: 5.7

101)  Researchers using Gibson and Walk’s visual cliff found that

  1. A) depth perception first appears after babies begin to walk.
  2. B) most babies avoided the deep side of the cliff.
  3. C) most babies avoided the shallow side of the cliff.
  4. D) depth perception first appears after babies begin to crawl.

 

Page Ref: 190

 

Objective: 5.7

102)  Which of the following depth cues is 3-week-old Adelaide most likely to be sensitive to?

  1. A) pictorial depth cues
  2. B) binocular depth cues
  3. C) motion
  4. D) spatial relationships

 

Page Ref: 190

 

Objective: 5.7

103)  __________ arise because our two eyes have slightly different views of the visual field.

  1. A) Pictorial depth cues
  2. B) Dimensions
  3. C) Binocular depth cues
  4. D) Receding lines

 

Page Ref: 190

 

Objective: 5.7

104)  Infants with more crawling experience

  1. A) are far less likely to find hidden objects.
  2. B) are less likely to remember object locations.
  3. C) are far more likely to refuse to cross the deep side of the visual cliff.
  4. D) become more fearless of the side of a bed or a staircase.

 

Page Ref: 190

 

Objective: 5.7

105)  Newly walking babies

  1. A) fall infrequently because they figured out depth cues during the crawling phase.
  2. B) will careen over uneven surfaces without making necessary postural adjustments.
  3. C) know how to turn their bodies to accommodate a narrow passageway.
  4. D) are less likely to find hidden objects than experienced sitters who do not crawl.

 

Page Ref: 191

 

Objective: 5.7

106)  Baby Alfredo looks more intensely at a checkerboard with large black and white squares rather than one with smaller gray and white squares. Alfredo is demonstrating

  1. A) contrast sensitivity.
  2. B) sensitivity to pictorial depth cues.
  3. C)
  4. D) sensitivity to the visual cliff.

 

Page Ref: 191–192

 

Objective: 5.7

107)  Which of the following statements about pattern perception is true?

  1. A) Newborns prefer to look at plain rather than patterned stimuli.
  2. B) As they get older, infants prefer less complex patterns.
  3. C) Because of their poor vision, very young babies cannot resolve the small features in complex patterns.
  4. D) If babies are sensitive to the contrast in two or more patterns, they prefer the one with less contrast.

 

Page Ref: 51

 

Objective: 5.7

108)  At 2 to 3 months of age, infants

  1. A) can detect objects represented by incomplete drawings.
  2. B) perceive subjective boundaries that really are not present.
  3. C) prefer the walking-human display.
  4. D) thoroughly explore the internal features of a pattern.

 

Page Ref: 192

 

Objective: 5.7

109)  Which of the following facelike drawings is newborn Rori most likely to prefer?

  1. A) one with the features arranged upright
  2. B) one with the features arranged upside down
  3. C) one with the features arranged sideways
  4. D) one with eyes closed and no mouth

 

Page Ref: 192

 

Objective: 5.7

110)  As early as 3 months, infants prefer and more easily discriminate among __________ than __________.

  1. A) male adults; boys
  2. B) female faces; male faces
  3. C) members of other races; members of their own race
  4. D) unfamiliar faces; familiar faces

 

Page Ref: 193

 

Objective: 5.7

111)  Habituation research reveals that size and shape constancy are present as early as

  1. A) the first week of life.
  2. B) 3 months of age.
  3. C) 6 months of age.
  4. D) 1 year of age.

 

Page Ref: 194

 

Objective: 5.7

112)  Around 2 months, babies

  1. A) can keep track of an object that travels on a curvilinear course at varying speeds.
  2. B) realize that a moving rod whose center is hidden behind a box is a complete rod rather than two rod pieces.
  3. C) first perceive that a ball that moves back and forth behind a screen moves in a continuous path.
  4. D) first begin to perceive an object’s size as the same, despite changes in the size of its retinal image.

 

Page Ref: 194

 

Objective: 5.7

113)  __________ boosts older infants’ attention to an object’s surface features.

  1. A) Motion
  2. B) Perception
  3. C) The environment
  4. D) Experience

 

Page Ref: 195

 

Objective: 5.7

114)  Lana understands that an object’s shape is the same whether she sees it or touches it, that the pattern of footsteps signals the approach of a person, and that breaking a glass causes a sharp, crashing sound. This understanding is called

  1. A) amodal stability.
  2. B)
  3. C) intermodal perception.
  4. D) intersensory acuity.

 

Page Ref: 195

 

Objective: 5.7

115)  Research reveals that babies perceive input from different sensory systems in a unified way by detecting

  1. A) amodal sensory properties.
  2. B) invariant features of the environment.
  3. C)
  4. D) pictorial depth cues.

 

Page Ref: 195

 

Objective: 5.7

116)  Between 3 and 5 months, babies can

  1. A) discriminate positive from negative emotion in voices.
  2. B) match faces with voices on the basis of lip–voice synchrony.
  3. C) discriminate positive from negative emotion in faces.
  4. D) remember the unique face–voice pairings of unfamiliar adults.

 

Page Ref: 195

 

Objective: 5.7

117)  Which of the following statements about intermodal stimulation is true?

  1. A) It is important for the healthy development of human, but not animal, babies.
  2. B) It interferes with infants’ ability to learn the patterns of their native language.
  3. C) It is unrelated to perceptual development.
  4. D) It fosters all aspects of psychological development.

 

Page Ref: 196

 

Objective: 5.7

118)  Eleanor and James Gibson describe their theory as __________ because over time a baby detects finer and finer invariant features among stimuli.

  1. A) differentiation
  2. B) discontinuous
  3. C) dynamic
  4. D) bidirectional

 

Page Ref: 196

 

Objective: 5.8

119)  One way of understanding perceptual development is to think of it as a built-in tendency to seek

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 196

 

Objective: 5.8

120)  According to the Gibsons, perception is guided by the discovery of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) dynamic relationships.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 196

 

Objective: 5.8

ESSAY

121)  Describe the sex differences in body growth.

122)  What is lateralization of the brain, and why does it occur?

123)  Describe some common forms of inadequate nutrition in the United States.

124)  Explain dynamic systems theory of motor development.

 

125)  Using examples from the text, explain how cultural variations in infant-rearing practices affect motor development.

126)  Define size and shape constancy, and explain how they contribute to infants’ perception of objects.

 

 

cHAPTER 6
COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT
IN INFANCY AND TODDLERHOOD

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   In Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, infants and toddlers

  1. A) assimilate more than they accommodate.
  2. B) represent their experiences in speech, gesture, and play.
  3. C) “think” with their eyes, ears, hands, and other sensorimotor equipment.
  4. D) solve everyday practical problems and carry out many activities inside their heads.

 

Page Ref: 201

 

Objective: 6.1

2)   According to Piaget, infants’ very first schemes are

  1. A) disorganized bits of information.
  2. B) based on internal representations of experience.
  3. C) sensorimotor action patterns.
  4. D) deliberate and creative.

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

3)   In Piaget’s theory, __________ involves building schemes through direct interaction with the environment.

  1. A) disequilibrium
  2. B) assimilation
  3. C) organization
  4. D) adaptation

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

4)   In Piaget’s theory, during __________, toddlers use their current schemes to interpret the external world.

  1. A) equilibrium
  2. B) assimilation
  3. C) accommodation
  4. D) organization

 

5)   According to Piaget, in accommodation, children

  1. A) build schemes through direct interaction with the environment.
  2. B) create new schemes or adjust old ones.
  3. C) use current schemes to interpret the external world.
  4. D) rearrange schemes, linking them with other schemes.

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

6)   At 6 months, Annabelle dropped her rattle in a fairly rigid way. By 12 months, she tossed objects down the basement stairs, bounced them off walls, and threw them in the air. Annabelle’s modifications of her dropping scheme are an example of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

7)   When children are not changing much, they

  1. A) are in a state of disequilibrium.
  2. B) assimilate more than they accommodate.
  3. C) experience cognitive discomfort.
  4. D) modify their schemes.

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

8)   During times of rapid cognitive change,

  1. A) organization predominates over adaptation.
  2. B) accommodation predominates over assimilation.
  3. C) assimilation and accommodation are balanced.
  4. D) adaptation and organization are balanced.

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

9)   In Piaget’s theory, each time the back-and-forth movement between equilibrium and disequilibrium occurs,

  1. A) children regress to a previous stage of development.
  2. B) less effective schemes are produced.
  3. C) children adapt more than they organize.
  4. D) more effective schemes are produced.

 

10)   According to Piaget, organization takes place

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) through direct contact with the environment.
  4. D) when new schemes are formed.

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

11)   Baby Franklin practiced his dropping and throwing schemes, and eventually developed an understanding of height. This achievement is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 202

 

Objective: 6.1

12)   In Piaget’s sequence of sensorimotor development, infants first develop

  1. A) mental representations.
  2. B) tertiary circular reactions.
  3. C) reflexive schemes.
  4. D) primary circular reactions.

 

Page Ref: 203

 

Objective: 6.2

13)   In Piaget’s theory, a circular reaction is a means of building schemes in which infants

  1. A) attempt to form mental symbols of the world.
  2. B) try to repeat chance motor activities again and again.
  3. C) try to imitate the behaviors of others around them.
  4. D) attempt to act out imaginary activities.

 

Page Ref: 203

 

Objective: 6.2

14)   Baby Faith sucks, grasps, and looks in much the same way, no matter what experiences she encounters. Faith is probably in Substage _____ of Piaget’s sensorimotor period.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4

 

15)   According to Piaget’s theory, when Baby D’Arcy sucks her thumb, she is demonstrating

  1. A) goal-directed behavior.
  2. B) a primary circular reaction.
  3. C) a secondary circular reaction.
  4. D) a tertiary circular reaction.

 

Page Ref: 203

 

Objective: 6.2

16)   Baby Sabrina opens her mouth differently for a nipple than for a spoon. In Piaget’s theory, this is an example of a

  1. A) reflexive scheme.
  2. B) primary circular reaction.
  3. C) secondary circular reaction.
  4. D) tertiary circular reaction.

 

Page Ref: 203

 

Objective: 6.2

17)   Baby Andre accidentally knocks a toy hung on his crib. Over the next several days, Andre tries to repeat this effect, gradually forming a “hitting” scheme. In Piaget’s theory, this is an example of a

  1. A) reflexive scheme.
  2. B) primary circular reaction.
  3. C) secondary circular reaction.
  4. D) tertiary circular reaction.

 

Page Ref: 203–204

 

Objective: 6.2

18)   According to Piaget, __________ first occurs in Substage 4 of the sensorimotor period.

  1. A) intentional, goal-directed behavior
  2. B) chance behavior
  3. C) repetition of interesting events
  4. D) behavior repetition with variation

 

Page Ref: 204

 

Objective: 6.2

19)   Two landmark cognitive changes that take place in Substage 4 of the sensorimotor period of Piaget’s theory are __________ and __________.

  1. A) deferred imitation; animistic thinking
  2. B) intentional behavior; object permanence
  3. C) dual representation; intentional behavior
  4. D) deferred imitation; object permanence

 

Page Ref: 204

 

20)   Nine-month-old Daisy retrieves her pacifier, which her mother has hidden under a cover. Baby Daisy has begun to master

  1. A) deferred imitation.
  2. B) object permanence.
  3. C) make-believe play.
  4. D) reflexive schemes.

 

Page Ref: 204

 

Objective: 6.2

21)   Baby Luigi’s mom shows him his toy turtle, which she has placed behind a pillow. He reaches for it and finds it several times. Luigi’s mom then shows him his turtle hidden in a basket. Luigi continues to search for it behind the pillow. This is most likely because Luigi

  1. A) is not yet able to make an accurate A–B search.
  2. B) does not yet appreciate physical causality.
  3. C) has not yet attained even rudimentary object permanence.
  4. D) cannot yet engage in goal-directed behavior.

 

Page Ref: 204

 

Objective: 6.2

22)   Piaget concluded that babies make the A-not-B search error because

  1. A) they cannot yet coordinate means–end action sequences.
  2. B) appreciation of physical causality has not yet been attained.
  3. C) the ability to engage in goal-directed behavior has not yet developed.
  4. D) they do not have a clear image of the object as persisting when hidden from view.

 

Page Ref: 204

 

Objective: 6.2

23)   Baby Manny discovered how to use a stick to get toys that were out of reach. According to Piaget, Manny’s behavior would best be described as a

  1. A) tertiary circular reaction.
  2. B) secondary circular reaction.
  3. C) primary circular reaction.
  4. D) reflexive scheme.

 

Page Ref: 204

 

Objective: 6.2

24)   __________ enable(s) older toddlers to solve advanced object permanence problems involving invisible displacement.

  1. A) Imitation
  2. B) Reflexive schemes
  3. C) Mental representation
  4. D) Realistic props

 

Page Ref: 205

 

Objective: 6.2

25)   Two-year-old Greta pretends to bake a cake. Greta is demonstrating

  1. A) object permanence.
  2. B) core knowledge.
  3. C) abstract thinking.
  4. D) mental representation.

 

Page Ref: 205

 

Objective: 6.2

26)   Researchers using the violation-of-expectation method may use __________ by exposing babies to a physical event until their looking declines.

  1. A) habituation
  2. B) assimilation
  3. C) accommodation
  4. D) imitation

 

Page Ref: 205

 

Objective: 6.3

27)   Some critics argue that the violation-of-expectation method is flawed because

  1. A) it is difficult for observers to discern when babies have habituated to the familiar event.
  2. B) this method cannot be used with young babies or toddlers, who easily become fatigued.
  3. C) babies make only subtle changes to their behaviors when they recover to a new stimulus.
  4. D) it reveals only babies’ perceptual preference for novelty, not their knowledge of the physical world.

 

Page Ref: 205

 

Objective: 6.3

28)   In a series of studies using the violation-of-expectation method, Renée Baillargeon and her collaborators claimed to have found evidence for __________ in the first few months of life.

  1. A) assimilation
  2. B) mental representation
  3. C) object permanence
  4. D) equilibrium

 

Page Ref: 205

 

Objective: 6.3

29)   Follow-up research on infant cognitive development suggests that mastery of object permanence

  1. A) is present in newborns.
  2. B) is not possible until toddlerhood.
  3. C) is a gradual achievement.
  4. D) develops suddenly, at around 4 months.

 

Page Ref: 207

 

Objective: 6.3

30)   Laboratory research reveals that __________ is present at 6 weeks of age.

  1. A) object permanence
  2. B) deferred imitation
  3. C) rational imitation
  4. D) analogical problem solving

 

Page Ref: 207

 

Objective: 6.3

31)   Follow-up research on deferred imitation demonstrates that older infants and toddlers

  1. A) are more likely to imitate accidental behaviors than purposeful behaviors.
  2. B) can imitate rationally, by inferring others’ intentions.
  3. C) do not yet use intentional means–end action sequences.
  4. D) cannot yet imitate actions that an adult produces.

 

Page Ref: 208

 

Objective: 6.3

32)   When 12-month-old Barrett’s mom asks him, “Where is your teddy bear?” Barrett responds by pointing to the place on his bed where the teddy bear usually rests. Barrett is displaying

  1. A) habituation and recovery.
  2. B) inferred imitation.
  3. C) displaced reference.
  4. D) means–end problem solving.

 

Page Ref: 209

 

Objective: 6.3

33)   A beginning awareness of the symbolic function of pictures emerges

  1. A) at birth.
  2. B) between 4 and 6 months.
  3. C) in the first year.
  4. D) in the third year.

 

Page Ref: 209

 

Objective: 6.3

34)   Toddlers seem to discount information on video as relevant to their everyday experiences because

  1. A) the people onscreen do not look at and converse with them directly.
  2. B) they have little experience with digital media.
  3. C) they are easily overstimulated by the fast-paced content.
  4. D) the people onscreen are usually unfamiliar to them.

 

Page Ref: 210 Box: Social Issues: Education: Baby Learning from TV and Video: The Video Deficit Effect

 

Objective: 6.3

35)   The video deficit effect

  1. A) increases around age 3.
  2. B) is strongest when toddlers view interactive videos.
  3. C) declines around age 2½.
  4. D) is strongest when toddlers view videos rich in social cues.

 

Page Ref: 210 Box: Social Issues: Education: Baby Learning from TV and Video: The Video Deficit Effect

 

Objective: 6.3

36)   Unlike Piaget, most researchers now believe that

  1. A) the cognitive attainments of infancy develop in a neat, stepwise fashion.
  2. B) young babies construe all mental representations out of sensorimotor activity.
  3. C) even newborns process information much like adults.
  4. D) infants have some built-in cognitive equipment for making sense of experience.

 

Page Ref: 211

 

Objective: 6.3

37)   Professor Patil believes that babies are born with a set of innate knowledge systems. Each of these prewired understandings permits a ready grasp of new, related information and therefore supports early, rapid development. Professor Patil’s beliefs are consistent with the __________ perspective.

  1. A) nativist
  2. B) core knowledge
  3. C) information-processing
  4. D) social-interactionist

 

Page Ref: 211–212

 

Objective: 6.3

38)   Research involving infants’ numerical knowledge suggests that 6-month-olds can

  1. A) discriminate quantities up to five.
  2. B) perform simple addition, but not subtraction.
  3. C) distinguish among large sets of items.
  4. D) add and subtract large sets of items.

 

Page Ref: 213

 

Objective: 6.3

39)   The core knowledge perspective emphasizes

  1. A)
  2. B) native endowment.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 213

 

Objective: 6.3

40)   Follow-up research on Piaget’s sensorimotor stage yields broad agreement on which of the following issues?

  1. A) Many cognitive changes of infancy are stagelike.
  2. B) Most aspects of infant cognition develop together.
  3. C) Many cognitive changes of infancy are gradual and continuous.
  4. D) Most aspects of infant cognition develop abruptly.

 

Page Ref: 213

 

Objective: 6.3

41)   In the information-processing system, information first enters

  1. A) working memory.
  2. B) the central executive.
  3. C) long-term memory.
  4. D) the sensory register.

 

Page Ref: 215

 

Objective: 6.4

42)   In the information-processing system, the central executive

  1. A) is the conscious, reflective part of the mental system.
  2. B) collaborates with long-term memory to direct problem solving and reasoning.
  3. C) is where sights and sounds are represented directly and stored briefly.
  4. D) is a special part of the long-term memory that manages complex activities.

 

Page Ref: 216

 

Objective: 6.4

43)   In the information-processing system, __________ is unlimited in capacity.

  1. A) working memory
  2. B) long-term memory
  3. C) the central executive
  4. D) the sensory register

 

Page Ref: 216

 

Objective: 6.4

44)   __________ controls attention, suppresses impulses, coordinates information in working memory, and flexibly directs and monitors thought and behavior.

  1. A) Automatic processes
  2. B) Sensory processes
  3. C) Executive function
  4. D) Mirror neurons

 

Page Ref: 216

 

Objective: 6.4

45)   Research on infant attention demonstrates that __________ between birth and 4 to 5 months of age.

  1. A) attraction to novelty increases
  2. B) sustained attention declines
  3. C) habituation time decreases
  4. D) the ability to shift attention declines

 

Page Ref: 216–217

 

Objective: 6.5

46)   The ability to shift attention from one stimulus to another improves by _____ months.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 6

 

Page Ref: 217

 

Objective: 6.5

47)   After 2- to 6-month olds forget an operant response,

  1. A) it takes months for them to reinstate the memory.
  2. B) they need only a brief prompt to reinstate the memory.
  3. C) they reinstate the memory after a few days.
  4. D) they are unable to remember it without extensive training.

 

Page Ref: 217

 

Objective: 6.5

48)   Infants learn and retain information

  1. A) only through physical activity.
  2. B) just by watching objects and events.
  3. C) only by manipulating objects.
  4. D) but cannot engage in recall.

 

Page Ref: 218

 

Objective: 6.5

49)   Recall

  1. A) is not as challenging as recognition.
  2. B) is the simplest form of memory.
  3. C) involves remembering a stimulus with perceptual support.
  4. D) improves steadily with age.

 

Page Ref: 219

 

Objective: 6.5

50)   Which of the following statements about infantile amnesia is true?

  1. A) Infantile amnesia is more common in females than males.
  2. B) Most older children and adults cannot retrieve events that happened before age 3.
  3. C) Infants’ memory processing is fundamentally different from that of adults.
  4. D) During the first few years, children remember largely with verbal techniques.

 

Page Ref: 220 Box: Biology and Environment: Infantile Amnesia

 

Objective: 6.5

51)   Research indicates suggest that the advent of __________ contributes to the end of infantile amnesia.

  1. A) an autobiographical memory
  2. B) a clear self-image
  3. C) object permanence
  4. D) mnemonic strategies

 

Page Ref: 220 Box: Biology and Environment: Infantile Amnesia

 

Objective: 6.5

52)   Which of the following statements about categorization is true?

  1. A) Even young infants can categorize, grouping similar objects and events into a single representation.
  2. B) As infants approach their second birthday, fewer categories appear to be based on subtle sets of features.
  3. C) Older infants cannot make categorical distinctions when the perceptual contract between two categories is minimal.
  4. D) Not until the early preschool years can children sort people and their voices by gender and age.

 

Page Ref: 219

 

Objective: 6.5

53)   Korean toddlers develop object-sorting skills later than their English-speaking counterparts because

  1. A) they are less likely to be given opportunities to physically manipulate objects.
  2. B) English-speaking children develop language skills sooner than Korean-speaking children.
  3. C) the English language is less complex than the Korean language.
  4. D) the Korean language often omits object names from sentences.

 

Page Ref: 221

 

Objective: 6.5

54)   The greatest drawback of the information-processing perspective is its difficulty with

  1. A) breaking down children’s thoughts into precise procedures.
  2. B) putting the components of cognition into a broad, comprehensive theory.
  3. C) analyzing cognition into its components.
  4. D) reducing changes in thoughts into manageable proportions.

 

Page Ref: 222

 

Objective: 6.6

55)   Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory emphasizes that children

  1. A) are born with prewired understandings that permit a ready grasp of new information.
  2. B) “think” with their eyes, ears, hands, and other sensorimotor equipment.
  3. C) live in rich social and cultural contexts that affect the way their cognitive world is structured.
  4. D) discover virtually all knowledge about the world through their own activity.

 

Page Ref: 222

 

Objective: 6.7

56)   According to Vygotsky, children master activities through

  1. A) joint activities with more mature members of their society.
  2. B) interaction with the physical environment.
  3. C) operant conditioning and modeling.
  4. D) a complicated system of trial and error.

 

Page Ref: 222

 

Objective: 6.7

57)   Which of the following tasks would be within Lucy’s zone of proximal development?

  1. A) a task that Lucy cannot accomplish alone or with the help of an adult
  2. B) a task that Lucy has recently mastered independently following the assistance of an adult
  3. C) a task that Lucy cannot yet handle on her own but can do with the help of an adult
  4. D) a task that Lucy accomplishes through her independent activity

 

Page Ref: 222

 

Objective: 6.7

58)   Three-year-old Liam is putting together a puzzle. Liam’s father begins by pointing to where each piece needs to go and then straightening out each piece as Liam places them on the puzzle board. As Liam’s competence with the task increases, his father gradually withdraws support. This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B) cooperative learning.
  3. C) reciprocal teaching.
  4. D) transitive inference.

 

Page Ref: 222

 

Objective: 6.7

59)   Which of the following statements about the application of Vygotsy’s ideas to infancy and toddlerhood is true?

  1. A) Vygotsky failed to recognize the significance of social experiences for children under the age of 5.
  2. B) Fine-tuned adult support during infancy and toddlerhood is related to advanced problem solving during the second year.
  3. C) Cultural variations in social experiences rarely affect mental strategies until children reach school age.
  4. D) While scaffolding promotes learning in the preschool years, it seems to inhibit learning in infancy and toddlerhood.

 

Page Ref: 223

 

Objective: 6.7

60)   Barbara Rogoff’s research using a jack-in-the-box found that as early as the first year, __________ affect(s) mental strategies.

  1. A) development of cognitive schemes
  2. B) cultural variations in social experiences
  3. C) repetition and training
  4. D) cultural variations in formal schooling

 

Page Ref: 223

 

Objective: 6.7

61)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on make-believe play?

  1. A) Early make-believe is the combined result of children’s readiness to engage in it and social experiences that promote it.
  2. B) In cultures where make-believe play is more frequent with older siblings than with mothers, the pretend play of toddlers is hindered.
  3. C) Most episodes of make-believe play during toddlerhood occur when children are playing with same-aged children.
  4. D) Children are more likely to combine play schemes into complex sequences when they are playing with agemates than when playing with caregivers.

 

Page Ref: 224 Box: Cultural Influences: Social Origins of Make-Believe Play

 

Objective: 6.7

62)   Research demonstrates that make-believe play is

  1. A) less frequent and rich in collectivist cultures than in individualistic cultures.
  2. B) a major means through which children extend their cognitive and social skills.
  3. C) usually initiated by toddlers rather than by their parents or older siblings.
  4. D) discovered by toddlers independently, once they are capable of representational schemes.

 

Page Ref: 224 Box: Cultural Influences: Social Origins of Make-Believe Play

 

Objective: 6.7

63)   Compared with cognitive theories, mental tests

  1. A) focus on cognitive products rather than on the process of development.
  2. B) focus on how children’s thinking changes rather than on cognitive products.
  3. C) are more accurate indicators of what infants and toddlers understand.
  4. D) focus on environmental influences on intelligence.

 

Page Ref: 225

 

Objective: 6.8

64)   The Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development test

  1. A) is suitable for preschool and school-age children.
  2. B) accurately predicts future school achievement.
  3. C) is suitable for children between 1 month and 3½ years.
  4. D) is a poor predictor of infants’ mental development.

 

Page Ref: 225

 

Objective: 6.8

65)   Keegan was given a test score that indicates the extent to which his raw score deviates from the typical performance of same-age individuals. Keegan’s test score is known as a(n)

  1. A) normal distribution.
  2. B) intelligence quotient (IQ).
  3. C) screening quotient.
  4. D) standardization sample.

 

Page Ref: 225

 

Objective: 6.8

66)   Dr. Ewing measures individual differences in large samples using intelligence tests. If performances at each age level form a normal distribution, the results are probably __________-shaped.

  1. A) U
  2. B) L
  3. C) bell
  4. D) star

 

Page Ref: 225–226

 

Objective: 6.8

67)   A child’s IQ score offers a way of finding out

  1. A) individual strengths and weaknesses, as well as the mental and chronological age of the child.
  2. B) whether the child is ahead, behind, or average in mental development compared to agemates.
  3. C) the percentage of younger and older children who fall above or below the child’s score.
  4. D) how the child compares in mental development to younger and older children.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

68)   Molly has an IQ of 130. Molly performed better than _____ percent of her agemates.

  1. A) 16
  2. B) 50
  3. C) 85
  4. D) 98

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

69)   Infant intelligence test scores often do not reflect true abilities because

  1. A) the tests cannot be relied on for screening developmental problems.
  2. B) the tests emphasize verbal, conceptual, and problem-solving skills.
  3. C) infants and toddlers easily become distracted, fatigued, or bored during testing.
  4. D) the tests only identify infants and toddlers who are likely to be intellectually gifted as older children.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

70)   Most infant test scores

  1. A) are helpful in assessing the newborn’s adjustment to life outside the womb.
  2. B) emphasize higher-order cognitive skills such as memory and problem solving.
  3. C) do not tap the same dimensions of intelligence measured at older ages.
  4. D) are good long-term predictors of childhood intellectual functioning.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

71)   Many infant test scores are labeled __________ quotients.

  1. A) intelligence
  2. B) developmental
  3. C) emotional
  4. D) cognitive

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

72)   Today, infant tests are largely used for

  1. A) measuring higher-order cognitive skills.
  2. B) predicting future performance.
  3. C) predicting school placement.
  4. D) screening to identify babies in need of intervention.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

73)   As an alternative to infant tests, some researchers have turned to __________ measures to assess early mental development.

  1. A) adult IQ
  2. B) operant learning
  3. C) information-processing
  4. D) classical conditioning

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

74)   Habituation and recovery seem to be an especially effective early index of intelligence because they

  1. A) indicate important sensorimotor milestones.
  2. B) measure higher-order cognitive skills.
  3. C) assess skills that underlie intelligent behavior at all ages.
  4. D) reveal infants’ ability to process complex stimuli.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

75)   The designers of the Bayley-III included items that tap

  1. A) parental warmth toward the child.
  2. B) habituation, object permanence, and categorization.
  3. C) provision of appropriate play materials.
  4. D) opportunities for variety in daily stimulation.

 

Page Ref: 226

 

Objective: 6.8

76)   The extent to which parents ________ contributes strongly to early language process, which, in turn, predicts intelligence and academic achievement in elementary school.

  1. A) engage their children in physical activity
  2. B) watch educational television with their children
  3. C) converse with their infants and toddlers
  4. D) take part in make-believe play with their children

 

Page Ref: 226–227

 

Objective: 6.9

77)   __________ predict(s) children’s IQ beyond the contribution of parental IQ and education.

  1. A) Maternal age
  2. B) Family living conditions
  3. C) Provision of age-appropriate play materials
  4. D) Quality child care

 

Page Ref: 227

 

Objective: 6.9

78)   Research consistently shows that young children exposed to long hours of mediocre to poor-quality child care

  1. A) score lower on cognitive measures only if they also come from low-SES homes.
  2. B) score lower on language measures, but high on social skills, during the preschool years.
  3. C) still show gains in cognitive, emotional, and social competence in the elementary school years.
  4. D) score lower on measures of cognitive and language skills during the preschool and elementary school years.

 

Page Ref: 228

 

Objective: 6.9

79)   Which of the following statements about child care in the United States is true?

  1. A) Most child-care centers require that caregivers have special training in child development.
  2. B) Child-care centers are nationally regulated and funded to ensure their quality.
  3. C) In studies of quality, about 20 to 25 percent of child-care centers offer substandard care.
  4. D) Child-care standards are set by the individual states and vary widely.

 

Page Ref: 228

 

Objective: 6.9

80)   In the United States, child-care settings providing the very worst care tend to

  1. A) serve middle-SES families.
  2. B) serve low-SES families.
  3. C) be publicly subsidized, nonprofit centers.
  4. D) be in family homes.

 

Page Ref: 228

 

Objective: 6.9

81)   Quality tends to be the lowest in

  1. A) nonprofit child-care centers.
  2. B) family child-care settings.
  3. C) for-profit child-care centers.
  4. D) single child-care settings.

 

Page Ref: 228

 

Objective: 6.9

82)   The Carolina Abecedarian Project shows that __________ is an effective way to reduce the negative effects of poverty on children’s mental development.

  1. A) furnishing free nutrition and health services for parents and children
  2. B) providing children a special resource teacher during the early elementary school years
  3. C) an early intervention approach that focuses on parental involvement
  4. D) enrollment in full-time, year-round child care through the preschool years

 

Page Ref: 229–230

 

Objective: 6.9

83)   Research shows that by age 3, children in Early Head Start

  1. A) demonstrate gains in cognitive and language development.
  2. B) demonstrate an increase in aggression.
  3. C) experience a “washout effect.”
  4. D) score, on average, 15 points higher in IQ than nonenrolled children.

 

Page Ref: 230

 

Objective: 6.9

84)   Which of the following statements about language development is true?

  1. A) Babies typically say their first words around 6 months of age.
  2. B) Sometime between 12 and 15 months, most babies combine two words.
  3. C) By age 6, children understand the meaning of about 1,000 words.
  4. D) By age 6, children speak in elaborate sentences and are skilled conversationalists.

 

Page Ref: 231

 

Objective: 6.10

85)   Dr. Mastick believes that language is a uniquely human accomplishment etched into the structure of the brain. Dr. Mastick’s views are consistent with which theory of language development?

  1. A) behaviorism
  2. B) nativism
  3. C) interactionism
  4. D) psychoanalytic

 

Page Ref: 231

 

Objective: 6.10

86)   Linguist Noam Chomsky reasoned that

  1. A) children are born with a series of inborn modules that are specialized for different aspects of language acquisition.
  2. B) reinforcement and imitation fully explain language development in toddlers and preschool-age children.
  3. C) the rules of sentence organization are too complex to be directly taught to even a cognitively sophisticated young child.
  4. D) children’s innate desire to verbally interact with others promotes language development in all cultures.

 

Page Ref: 231

 

Objective: 6.10

87)   Chomsky proposed that all children

  1. A) have a language acquisition device (LAD) that contains a universal grammar.
  2. B) acquire language through imitation and reinforcement.
  3. C) rely on imitation to rapidly acquire complex utterances.
  4. D) cue their caregivers to provide appropriate language experiences.

 

Page Ref: 231

 

Objective: 6.10

88)   Research reveals that deaf children

  1. A) reared in language-deficient environments do not develop any language skills.
  2. B) whose parents discourage signing are more likely than signing children to develop a rich language environment.
  3. C) can generate an intricate natural language, even when reared in language-deficient environments.
  4. D) of hearing parents are more cognitively advanced than deaf children of deaf parents.

 

Page Ref: 232 Box: Biology and Environment: Deaf Children Invent Language

 

Objective: 6.10

89)   The study of Simon, a deaf child born to deaf parents who were late learners of American Sign Language (ASL), illustrates children’s

  1. A) inability to acquire language without direct exposure to it.
  2. B) remarkable capacity to invent language.
  3. C) innate ability to acquire spoken language.
  4. D) inability to acquire language beyond the sensitive period.

 

Page Ref: 232 Box: Biology and Environment: Deaf Children Invent Language

 

Objective: 6.10

90)   Evidence that there is a sensitive period for language development has been interpreted as supporting __________ of language acquisition.

  1. A) Skinner’s account
  2. B) the sociocultural perspective
  3. C) Chomsky’s account
  4. D) an interactionist’s account

 

Page Ref: 231

 

Objective: 6.10

91)   Broca’s area

  1. A) supports language production.
  2. B) plays a role in language comprehension.
  3. C) is located in the right temporal lobe.
  4. D) is located in the left temporal lobe.

 

Page Ref: 232

 

Objective: 6.10

92)   Second-language competence

  1. A) drops sharply after age 18.
  2. B) increases continuously with age.
  3. C) drops sharply after age 10.
  4. D) decreases continuously with age.

 

Page Ref: 233

 

Objective: 6.10

93)   Research on both first- and second-language learning reveals

  1. A) a biologically based timeframe for optimum language development.
  2. B) that second-language processing is more lateralized in younger than in older learners.
  3. C) that language development is optimal after brain lateralization has occurred.
  4. D) that the right hemisphere of the brain is biased for language processing.

 

Page Ref: 233

 

Objective: 6.10

94)   Which of the following is a limitation of Chomsky’s nativist perspective?

  1. A) Chomsky’s theory is inconsistent with research on efforts to teach nonhuman primates language systems.
  2. B) Chomsky’s theory cannot explain why children refine and generalize many grammatical forms gradually.
  3. C) Chomsky’s theory overemphasizes the role of social experience in language development.
  4. D) Chomsky’s theory fails to show that humans have evolved specialized regions in the brain that support language skills.

 

Page Ref: 234

 

Objective: 6.10

95)   Dr. Rasmussen believes that language acquisition occurs through exchanges between inner capacities and environmental influences. Dr. Rasmussen is a(n)

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 234

 

Objective: 6.10

96)   Which of the following sounds is the best example of cooing?

  1. A) “oooo”
  2. B) “mae-do” (for “tomato”)
  3. C) “rrrrrr”
  4. D) “dadada”

 

Page Ref: 235

 

Objective: 6.11

97)   Which of the following sounds is the best example of babbling?

  1. A) “aaaaa”
  2. B) “ooooo”
  3. C) “rrrrr”
  4. D) “nanana”

 

Page Ref: 235

 

Objective: 6.11

98)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on babbling and deaf infants?

  1. A) Deaf infants not exposed to sign language will stop babbling entirely.
  2. B) Deaf infants do not babble or coo unless they are exposed to sign language.
  3. C) Deaf infants start babbling much earlier than hearing infants.
  4. D) Deaf infants start babbling much later than hearing infants.

 

Page Ref: 235

 

Objective: 6.11

99)   Baby Kataro frequently experiences joint attention with his caregiver. This means that Kataro will probably

  1. A) have a short attention span.
  2. B) be a late talker.
  3. C) produce meaningful words earlier.
  4. D) comprehend less language.

 

Page Ref: 236

 

Objective: 6.11

100)  Sally and her granddaughter play peekaboo regularly. At first, Sally starts the game and her granddaughter is an amused observer. By 12 months, the granddaughter actively participates, trading roles with Sally. Sally is helping her granddaughter

  1. A) learn how to overextend and underextend.
  2. B) understand the turn-taking pattern of human conversation.
  3. C) develop a referential style of communication.
  4. D) understand telegraphic speech.

 

Page Ref: 236

 

Objective: 6.11

101)  Which of the following is most likely to be one of Baby Raj’s first words?

  1. A) “hoop”
  2. B) “hall”
  3. C) “base”
  4. D) “ball”

 

Page Ref: 237

 

Objective: 6.11

102)  Max uses the word “doll” only to refer to the rag doll he carries every day. This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) telegraphic speech.
  4. D) referential speech.

 

Page Ref: 237

 

Objective: 6.11

103)  Mei Mei uses the word “close” to apply to closing a book, turning off the light, and tying her shoelaces. This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) telegraphic speech.
  4. D) referential speech.

 

Page Ref: 237

 

Objective: 6.11

104)  As vocabulary expands and pronunciation improves,

  1. A) underextensions increase.
  2. B) overextensions gradually decline.
  3. C) overextensions increase.
  4. D) underextensions replace overextensions.

 

Page Ref: 237

 

Objective: 6.11

105)  Which of the following statements about toddlers’ vocabularies is true?

  1. A) Most children show a steady rate of word learning that continues through the preschool years.
  2. B) Toddlers undergo an initial spurt in vocabulary around 18 months.
  3. C) Toddlers transition from a faster to a slower language learning pace around 18 months.
  4. D) Young toddlers add to their spoken vocabularies at a rate of three to five words a week.

 

Page Ref: 238

 

Objective: 6.11

106)  Two-year-old Ruby utters the words “go car.” This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) telegraphic speech.
  4. D) referential speech.

 

Page Ref: 238

 

Objective: 6.11

107)  Telegraphic speech

  1. A) usually contains significant grammatical errors.
  2. B) focuses on high-content words.
  3. C) emerges around age 3.
  4. D) focuses on smaller, less important words.

 

Page Ref: 238

 

Objective: 6.11

108)  Children’s language comprehension

  1. A) develops behind production.
  2. B) requires both recall and recognition.
  3. C) requires only recall, not recognition.
  4. D) develops ahead of production.

 

Page Ref: 238

 

Objective: 6.11

109)  Which of the following statements about individual differences in early vocabulary growth is true?

  1. A) Boys are slightly ahead of girls in early vocabulary growth.
  2. B) Shy toddlers’ vocabularies typically increase slowly after they start to speak.
  3. C) Children from low-SES homes usually have smaller vocabularies than their higher-SES agemates.
  4. D) Boys and girls’ vocabularies tend to develop at the same rate.

 

Page Ref: 239

 

Objective: 6.11

110)  Arthur’s vocabulary consists mainly of words that refer to objects. Like most toddlers, he uses

  1. A) an expressive style.
  2. B) infant-directed speech (IDS).
  3. C) a referential style.
  4. D) an authoritative style.

 

Page Ref: 239

 

Objective: 6.11

111)  Two-year-old Grace believes that words are for talking about people’s feelings and needs. Grace uses

  1. A) an expressive style.
  2. B) infant-directed speech (IDS).
  3. C) a referential style.
  4. D) an authoritative style.

 

Page Ref: 239

 

Objective: 6.11

112)  Baby Paloma’s parents talk to her using short sentences with high-pitched, exaggerated expression, clear pronunciation, distinct pauses between speech segments, clear gestures to support verbal meaning, and repetition of new words in a variety of contexts. Paloma’s parents use

  1. A) an expressive style.
  2. B) infant-directed speech (IDS).
  3. C) a referential style.
  4. D) an authoritative style.

 

Page Ref: 240

 

Objective: 6.11

113)  Which of the following statements is supported by research on infant-directed speech (IDS)?

  1. A) Deaf parents use a style of communication similar to IDS when signing to their deaf babies.
  2. B) By as early as 2 months, infants are more emotionally receptive to IDS.
  3. C) Infants do not begin to prefer IDS over other kinds of adult talk until age 2.
  4. D) Parents who use IDS are careful to always use utterances of the same length.

 

Page Ref: 240

 

Objective: 6.11

114)  Studies show that children prefer infant-directed speech (IDS) over other kinds of adult talk

  1. A) from birth on.
  2. B) by 3 months.
  3. C) by 6 months.
  4. D) by 12 months.

 

Page Ref: 240

 

Objective: 6.11

ESSAY

115)  Define the concepts of adaptation, assimilation, and accommodation. Explain how the balance between assimilation and accommodation varies over time with regard to cognitive equilibrium and disequilibrium.

116)  Explain the core knowledge perspective of cognitive development. What do critics say about the perspective?

117)  Define and describe recognition and recall. Discuss the development of recall memory.

118)  How well do infant and toddler mental tests predict later intelligence? What are some alternatives to the traditional tests?

119)  Describe signs of high-quality child care for infants and toddlers, based on standards for developmentally appropriate practice.

120)  List several strategies for supporting early language learning, noting the consequences of each.

 

cHAPTER 7
EMOTIONAL AND SOCIAL DEVELOPMENT
IN INFANCY AND TODDLERHOOD

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Which of the following statements about the role of psychoanalytic theory in modern child development research is true?

  1. A) All subsequent theories rejected the basic outlines of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory.
  2. B) One of the lasting contributions of psychoanalytic theory is its ability to capture the essence of personality during each period of development.
  3. C) Psychoanalytic theorists’ emphasis on the importance of experiences beyond infancy and early childhood is largely accepted by contemporary researchers.
  4. D) Psychoanalytic theory has modern cross-cultural implications because contemporary researchers have psychoanalyzed individuals from all over the world.

 

Page Ref: 246

 

Objective: 7.1

2)   According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, a healthy outcome during infancy is dependent on the

  1. A) quantity of food offered.
  2. B) amount of oral stimulation provided.
  3. C) quality of caregiving.
  4. D) availability of self-soothing.

 

Page Ref: 246

 

Objective: 7.1

3)   According to Erikson, the psychological conflict of the first year is

  1. A) autonomy versus shame and doubt.
  2. B) basic trust versus mistrust.
  3. C) initiative versus guilt.
  4. D) industry versus inferiority.

 

Page Ref: 246

 

Objective: 7.1

4)   In Erikson’s theory, the conflict of toddlerhood is resolved favorably when parents

  1. A) provide young children with suitable guidance and reasonable choices.
  2. B) use appropriate and warm toilet-training techniques.
  3. C) employ an authoritarian child-rearing style.
  4. D) employ a permissive child-rearing style.

 

5)   Twenty-two-year-old Daniel is overly dependent on his girlfriend. Daniel continually doubts his ability to meet new challenges. According to psychosocial theory, Daniel may not have fully mastered the tasks of __________ and __________ during infancy and childhood.

  1. A) mistrust; shame
  2. B) trust; doubt
  3. C) trust; autonomy
  4. D) autonomy; mistrust

 

Page Ref: 247

 

Objective: 7.1

6)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on emotional development?

  1. A) Infants, children, and adults use diverse responses to express a particular emotion.
  2. B) The emotional expressions of blind infants are exaggerated compared to infants with normal vision.
  3. C) Babies on the visual cliff generally display a fearful facial expression but do not show other signs of fear.
  4. D) Wide cultural differences exist in the facial expressions that people associate with different emotions.

 

Page Ref: 247

 

Objective: 7.1

7)   Basic emotions

  1. A) are not evident in nonhuman primates.
  2. B) are all present at birth.
  3. C) have no evolutionary history of promoting survival.
  4. D) are universal in humans.

 

Page Ref: 247

 

Objective: 7.2

8)   Babies’ earliest emotional life consists of which two global arousal states?

  1. A) happiness and sadness
  2. B) fullness and hunger
  3. C) attraction to and withdrawal from stimulation
  4. D) happiness and fear

 

Page Ref: 247

 

Objective: 7.2

9)   The social smile

  1. A) first appears during REM sleep.
  2. B) is evoked by parent–child interaction.
  3. C) emerges during the second week of life.
  4. D) first appears in response to dynamic, eye-catching sights.

 

10)   Development of the social smile

  1. A) reflects faster processing of information.
  2. B) is highly encouraged among the Nso people.
  3. C) varies substantially with culture.
  4. D) appears as late as 12 to 14 weeks in German infants.

 

Page Ref: 248

 

Objective: 7.2

11)   Laughter

  1. A) reflects faster processing of information than smiling.
  2. B) appears around 6 to 8 months of age.
  3. C) first occurs in response to very gentle stimuli.
  4. D) occurs more often when babies are interacting with new people.

 

Page Ref: 248

 

Objective: 7.2

12)   Sheldon, age 1, will most likely display a __________ smile for a friendly stranger.

  1. A) sustained, wide
  2. B) broad, “cheek-raised”
  3. C) reserved, muted
  4. D) “mouth-open”

 

Page Ref: 249

 

Objective: 7.2

13)   Newborn babies respond with __________ to too much or too little stimulation.

  1. A) locked gazes
  2. B) generalized distress
  3. C) fear
  4. D) “mouth-open” smiles

 

Page Ref: 249

 

Objective: 7.2

14)   From 4 to 6 months into the second year, angry expressions __________ in __________.

  1. A) decrease; both frequency and intensity
  2. B) increase; intensity but decrease in frequency
  3. C) increase; both frequency and intensity
  4. D) increase; frequency but decrease in intensity

 

Page Ref: 249

 

Objective: 7.2

15)   When an unfamiliar adult picks up Louisa, age 9 months, she begins to cry and struggles to get down. Louisa is exhibiting

  1. A) stranger anxiety.
  2. B) avoidant attachment.
  3. C) insecure attachment.
  4. D) separation anxiety.

 

Page Ref: 249

 

Objective: 7.2

16)   Infants raised in Israeli kibbutzim

  1. A) are discouraged from developing a strong emotional bond with their mother.
  2. B) display far greater stranger anxiety than their city-reared counterparts.
  3. C) are routinely passed from one adult to another, which reduces their stranger anxiety.
  4. D) show very little stranger anxiety compared with agemates.

 

Page Ref: 250

 

Objective: 7.2

17)   The rise in fear after 6 months

  1. A) keeps newly mobile babies’ enthusiasm for exploration in check.
  2. B) enables the infant to overcome obstacles.
  3. C) prevents the child from displaying the social smile.
  4. D) gives the infant a sense of shame and doubt.

 

Page Ref: 250

 

Objective: 7.2

18)   Imani, age 11 months, is wary of strangers. However, when his mother sits on the floor, Imani ventures a few feet away from her for a few minutes at a time, and then returns to her for emotional support. Imani is

  1. A) engaging in effortful control.
  2. B) exhibiting unusual behavior for a toddler with stranger anxiety.
  3. C) using his mother as a secure base.
  4. D) displaying avoidance rather than approach.

 

Page Ref: 250

 

Objective: 7.2

19)   Infants’ emotional expressions are

  1. A) consistent across cultures and emerge in stagelike sequences.
  2. B) easy for researchers to categorize because they are clearly recognizable.
  3. C) hardwired at birth, and their responses to emotional cues are automatic.
  4. D) closely tied to their ability to interpret the emotional cues of others.

 

Page Ref: 250

 

Objective: 7.3

20)   Baby Emma is learning to stand. Each time she falls, she looks at her dad. When he looks concerned, Emma cries. When he smiles and says, “You did it!” she tries again. Emma is using

  1. A) a secure base.
  2. B) emotional self-regulation.
  3. C) social referencing.
  4. D) effortful control.

 

Page Ref: 250–251

 

Objective: 7.3

21)   According to research on social referencing, which of the following responses from Tanner’s mom is the most likely to encourage him to get up and try again after he falls down while learning to walk?

  1. A) a concerned look
  2. B) a cautious smile
  3. C) speaking the words “oh, no!”
  4. D) laughter combined with saying “oopsie-daisy”

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

22)   Which of the following are self-conscious emotions?

  1. A) guilt, shame, and pride
  2. B) shame, doubt, and fear
  3. C) embarrassment, pride, and sadness
  4. D) envy, happiness, and disgust

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

23)   Self-conscious emotions

  1. A) are present at birth.
  2. B) are universal and basic.
  3. C) include happiness, fear, anger, and sadness.
  4. D) involve injury to or enhancement of our sense of self.

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

24)   Self-conscious emotions appear __________ of the __________ year.

  1. A) in the middle; first
  2. B) at the end; first
  3. C) in the middle; second
  4. D) at the end; second

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

25)   After being gently scolded for taking a toy away from his cousin, 20-month-old Rainer lowers his eyes, hangs his head, and hides his face with his hands. Rainer is expressing

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

26)   Self-conscious emotions

  1. A) involve distinct facial expressions.
  2. B) do not require self-awareness.
  3. C) are universally experienced in response to the same types of situations.
  4. D) require adult instruction in when to feel proud, ashamed, or guilty.

 

Page Ref: 251

 

Objective: 7.3

27)   Cross-cultural research indicates that

  1. A) the situations in which adults encourage various self-conscious emotions vary from culture to culture.
  2. B) in collectivist cultures, most children are taught to feel pride over personal achievement.
  3. C) expressions of basic emotions differ widely from culture to culture, but expressions of self-conscious emotions are universal.
  4. D) in individualistic cultures, most children are taught to feel embarrassment over personal achievement.

 

Page Ref: 252

 

Objective: 7.3

28)   Evan covers his eyes when the Wicked Witch of the West appears on the screen while he is watching The Wizard of Oz. Evan is using

  1. A) a secure base.
  2. B) emotional self-regulation.
  3. C) social referencing.
  4. D) self-soothing.

 

Page Ref: 252

 

Objective: 7.3

29)   Emotional self-regulation requires

  1. A) emotional contagion.
  2. B) goodness of fit.
  3. C) automatic processing of information.
  4. D) voluntary, effortful management of emotions.

 

Page Ref: 252

 

Objective: 7.3

30)   Effortful control

  1. A) requires adult instruction and modeling.
  2. B) is regarded as a major dimension of temperament.
  3. C) plays a limited role in mental and social development.
  4. D) is an ability that is present at birth.

 

Page Ref: 252

 

Objective: 7.3

31)   In the early months, infants

  1. A) have only a limited capacity to regulate their emotional stress.
  2. B) are unable to regulate any form of emotional stress.
  3. C) are not very easily overwhelmed.
  4. D) rely primarily on self-soothing for distraction and reorientation of attention.

 

Page Ref: 252

 

Objective: 7.3

32)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on emotional self-regulation?

  1. A) Compared with North Americans, Japanese and Chinese adults discourage the expression of strong emotion in babies.
  2. B) Beginning in infancy, girls have a harder time regulating negative emotion than boys.
  3. C) By the second year, toddlers are quite skilled at using language to comfort themselves.
  4. D) Parents imitate their babies’ displays of negative emotion more often than displays of positive emotion.

 

Page Ref: 253

 

Objective: 7.3

33)   Gil describes his son as calm and cautious. He describes his daughter as cheerful and energetic. Gil’s descriptions refer to

  1. A) effortful control.
  2. B) categorical self.
  3. C)
  4. D) level of reactivity.

 

Page Ref: 253

 

Objective: 7.4

34)   Results from the groundbreaking longitudinal study on temperament conducted by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess showed that

  1. A) temperament can increase a child’s chances of experiencing psychological problems.
  2. B) because temperament is innate, parenting practices cannot modify children’s emotional styles.
  3. C) temperament cannot protect a child from the negative effects of a highly stressful home life.
  4. D) the psychological traits that make up temperament in childhood play a very small role in adult personality.

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

35)   Bindi quickly establishes regular routines, is generally cheerful, and adapts easily to new experiences. In Thomas and Chess’s model of temperament, Bindi would be classified as a(n) __________ child.

  1. A) easy
  2. B) slow-to-warm-up
  3. C) difficult
  4. D) uninhibited

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

36)   According to Thomas and Chess, the difficult child

  1. A) shows mild, low-key reactions to environmental stimuli.
  2. B) is irregular in daily routines.
  3. C) shows unique blends of temperamental characteristics.
  4. D) displays no identifiable temperamental traits.

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

37)   Alice is inactive, shows mild, low-key reactions to environmental stimuli, and adjusts slowly to new experiences. In Thomas and Chess’s model of temperament, Alice would be classified as a(n) __________ child.

  1. A) slow-to-warm-up
  2. B) uninhibited
  3. C) difficult
  4. D) easy

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

38)   In Rothbart’s model of temperament,

  1. A) distractibility and irritable distress are considered opposite ends of the same dimension.
  2. B) persistence and fearful distress are considered opposite ends of the same dimension.
  3. C) fearful distress and irritable distress distinguish between reactivity triggered by fear and reactivity due to frustration.
  4. D) the dimensions are overly broad, such as regularity of body functions and intensity of reaction.

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

39)   According to Rothbart, individuals differ not just in their reactivity on each dimension but also in

  1. A) effortful control.
  2. B) self-concept.
  3. C) goodness of fit.
  4. D) interactional synchrony.

 

Page Ref: 254

 

Objective: 7.4

 

40)   Beginning in early childhood, capacitity for effortful control predicts

  1. A) outcomes such as low academic achievement and moral immaturity.
  2. B) characteristics such as timidity, meekness, and fearfulness of social situations.
  3. C) the ability to engage in group participation through adolescence and adulthood.
  4. D) favorable development and adjustment in cultures as diverse as China and the United States.

 

Page Ref: 255

 

Objective: 7.4

41)   Which of the following statements about observations of children conducted in the home or laboratory is true?

  1. A) In homes, observers find it easier to capture rare but important events.
  2. B) Researchers can better control children’s experiences in the lab.
  3. C) Fearful children tend to respond better in a lab setting than in their own homes.
  4. D) Observations by researchers in the home or laboratory are usually more subjective than parental reports.

 

Page Ref: 255

 

Objective: 7.4

42)      Brendon reacts negatively to and withdraws from novel stimuli. He could be classified as a(n) __________ child.

  1. A) sociable
  2. B) shy
  3. C) easy
  4. D) uninhibited

 

Page Ref: 255

 

Objective: 7.4

43)   Results of Jerome Kagan’s longitudinal research on the development of shyness and sociability found that

  1. A) about 70 percent of 4-month-olds were easily upset by novelty.
  2. B) nearly all of the extreme groups retained their temperamental styles as they get older.
  3. C) most children’s dispositions became less extreme over time.
  4. D) as infants, more children were shy than were highly sociable.

 

Page Ref: 256 Box: Biology and Environment: Development of Shyness and Sociability

 

Objective: 7.4

44)   Which of the following is more likely to be found in shy children than in sociable children?

  1. A) a higher heart rate from the first few weeks of life
  2. B) lower levels of amygdala activity in response to novel stimuli
  3. C) lower levels of saliva concentrations of cortisol
  4. D) a drop in blood pressure when faced with novelty

 

Page Ref: 256 Box: Biology and Environment: Development of Shyness and Sociability

 

Objective: 7.4

45)   The overall stability of temperament is

  1. A) moderate in infancy and toddlerhood.
  2. B) low from the preschool years on.
  3. C) low in infancy and toddlerhood.
  4. D) high from the preschool years on.

 

Page Ref: 257

 

Objective: 7.5

46)   Observation of which of the following children is likely to provide a researcher with the most accurate long-term prediction of temperament?

  1. A) Quinn, a newborn
  2. B) Ava, age 12 months
  3. C) Samantha, age 2
  4. D) Tyson, age 4

Answer:   D

Page Ref: 257

 

Objective: 7.5

47)   Research on the role of heredity in temperament indicates that

  1. A) heritability estimates derived from twin studies suggest a major role for genetic factors in temperament and personality.
  2. B) identical twins are more similar than fraternal twins across a wide range of temperamental traits and personality measures.
  3. C) only 5 to 10 percent of individual differences in temperament have been attributed to differences in genetic makeup.
  4. D) heritability estimates are much higher for expressions of positive emotion than for negative emotion.

 

Page Ref: 257

 

Objective: 7.5

48)   Compared with North American Caucasian infants, Chinese and Japanese babies tend to be

  1. A) less irritable.
  2. B) more active.
  3. C) less inhibited.
  4. D) more vocal.

 

Page Ref: 258

 

Objective: 7.5

49)   Research on sex differences in temperament shows that

  1. A) girls are more daring than boys, and they have a large advantage in effortful control.
  2. B) boys are more anxious and timid than girls, and they are slightly more impulsive.
  3. C) girls’ advantage in effortful control contributes to better school performance.
  4. D) boys are more active than girls, but they also tend to be more anxious and timid.

 

Page Ref: 258

 

Objective: 7.5

 

50)   Studies indicate that children who possess the __________ 5-HTTLPR gene show increased irritability when their mothers’ anxiety about parenting increases.

  1. A) long
  2. B) short
  3. C) mutated
  4. D) normal

 

Page Ref: 258–259

 

Objective: 7.5

51)   Consistently, the short 5-HTTLPR genotype combined with maladaptive parenting leads to

  1. A) externalizing problems, including defiance and aggression.
  2. B) inhibited social behavior and very low rates of peer acceptance.
  3. C) decreased emotional reactivity as a result of withdrawal.
  4. D) increased fearfulness during maternal separation.

 

Page Ref: 259

 

Objective: 7.5

52)   In families with several children,

  1. A) parents tend to look for similarities between siblings.
  2. B) parents often regard siblings as less distinct than other observers do.
  3. C) both identical and fraternal twins tend to become increasingly similar in personality with age.
  4. D) parents’ tendency to emphasize each child’s unique qualities affects their parenting practices.

 

Page Ref: 259

 

Objective: 7.5

53)   __________ involves creating child-rearing environments that recognize each child’s temperament while simultaneously encouraging more adaptive functioning.

  1. A) Goodness of fit
  2. B) Social referencing
  3. C) Emotional self-regulation
  4. D) Effortful control

 

Page Ref: 259–260

 

Objective: 7.5

54)   Goodness of fit is

  1. A) only effective with sociable, securely attached children.
  2. B) rarely successful with difficult children.
  3. C) only effective with infants and toddlers.
  4. D) at the heart of infant–caregiver attachment.

 

Page Ref: 260

 

Objective: 7.5

55)   Professor Hardwick is interested in the strong affectionate tie children have with special people in their lives that leads them to experience pleasure and joy when they interact with those people and to be comforted by their nearness in times of stress. Professor Hardwick studies

  1. A)
  2. B) goodness of fit.
  3. C)
  4. D) sociocultural theory.

 

Page Ref: 261

 

Objective: 7.6

56)   In the 1950s, a famous experiment of rhesus monkeys reared with terry-cloth and wire-mesh “surrogate mothers” provided evidence that

  1. A) attachment does not depend on hunger satisfaction.
  2. B) the infant’s characteristics play the largest role in the relationship.
  3. C) sensitive caregiving is key to the development of a secure attachment pattern.
  4. D) attachment security in infancy is highly dependent on hunger satisfaction.

 

Page Ref: 261

 

Objective: 7.6

57)   The ethological theory of attachment

  1. A) suggests that the infant’s emotional tie to the mother is the foundation of all later relationships.
  2. B) recognizes the infant’s emotional tie to the caregiver as an evolved response that promotes survival.
  3. C) emphasizes the importance of feeding as the central context in which caregivers and babies build close emotional bonds.
  4. D) suggests that infants learn to prefer their mother because she functions as both a primary caregiver and a social partner.

 

Page Ref: 261

 

Objective: 7.6

58)   Baby Jane has begun to develop a sense of trust. She expects that her mother will respond when signaled. But Jane does not protest when separated from her mother. In which of Bowlby’s phases does Jane best fit?

  1. A) preattachment
  2. B) “attachment in the making”
  3. C) “clear-cut” attachment
  4. D) formation of a reciprocal relationship

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

59)   Jazmin, age 18 months, cries and climbs on her mother when she attempts to leave Jazmin with a babysitter. Jazmin is displaying

  1. A) an internal working model.
  2. B) interactional synchrony
  3. C) social referencing.
  4. D) separation anxiety.

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

60)   In which of Bowlby’s phases do children negotiate with the caregiver, using requests and persuasion to alter the caregiver’s goals?

  1. A) preattachment
  2. B) “attachment in the making”
  3. C) “clear-cut” attachment
  4. D) formation of a reciprocal relationship

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

61)   Separation protest declines during which of Bowlby’s phases?

  1. A) preattachment
  2. B) “attachment in the making”
  3. C) “clear-cut” attachment
  4. D) formation of a reciprocal relationship

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

62)   According to Bowlby, out of their experiences during the four attachment phases, children

  1. A) learn autonomy and develop self-soothing because they learn that the caregiver cannot be relied upon during stress.
  2. B) move from secure attachment to insure attachment and, over time, back again to secure attachment.
  3. C) construct enduring an affectionate tie to the caregiver that they can use as a secure base in the parent’s absence.
  4. D) commonly develop either avoidant or resistant attachment styles before settling into a secure attachment.

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

63)   Three-year-old Cara knows that her mother will pick her up from preschool every day after snacktime. Cara seeks comfort from her mother whenever she is in an unfamiliar or stressful situation. These examples show that Cara has developed

  1. A) an internal working model.
  2. B) effortful control.
  3. C) interactional synchrony.
  4. D) a categorical self.

 

Page Ref: 262

 

Objective: 7.6

64)   In designing the Strange Situation, Mary Ainsworth and her colleagues reasoned that securely attached infants and toddlers

  1. A) should use the parent as a secure base from which to explore in an unfamiliar setting.
  2. B) are just as easily comforted by an unfamiliar adult as by the parent.
  3. C) combine anger and clinginess when reunited with a parent who has left the room for a time.
  4. D) do not show distress when the parent leaves the room.

 

Page Ref: 263

 

Objective: 7.7

65)   In the Strange Situation, Juan uses his mother as a secure base. When she leaves the room, Juan cries for a few minutes. When she returns, Juan seeks contact with her and then begins to explore toys once again. Juan is displaying characteristics of __________ attachment.

  1. A) insecure–avoidant
  2. B) secure
  3. C) disorganized/disoriented
  4. D) insecure–resistant

 

Page Ref: 264

 

Objective: 7.7

66)   In the Strange Situation, Richard is unresponsive to his mother when she is present. When she leaves, Richard reacts to the stranger in much the same way as to his mother. When his mother returns, Richard pays no attention to her. Richard is demonstrating __________ attachment.

  1. A) insecure–avoidant
  2. B) secure
  3. C) disorganized/disoriented
  4. D) insecure–resistant

 

Page Ref: 264

 

Objective: 7.7

67)   In the Strange Situation, Kimani seeks closeness to her mother and fails to explore. When her mother leaves, Kimani is distressed. When she returns, Kimani hits her. Kimani is displaying characteristics of __________ attachment.

  1. A) insecure–avoidant
  2. B) secure
  3. C) disorganized/disoriented
  4. D) insecure–resistant

 

Page Ref: 264

 

Objective: 7.7

68)   In the Strange Situation, Antwan ignores his mother and displays and odd, frozen posture. He does not cry when his mother leaves the room. When she returns, Antwan looks away when she is holding him. Antwan is displaying characteristics of __________ attachment.

  1. A) insecure–avoidant
  2. B) secure
  3. C) disorganized/disoriented
  4. D) insecure–resistant

 

Page Ref: 264

 

Objective: 7.7

69)   The Attachment Q-Sort

  1. A) is not suitable for children between 1 and 5 years.
  2. B) is less time-consuming than the Strange Situation.
  3. C) does not differentiate between types of insecurity.
  4. D) taps fewer attachment-related behaviors than the Strange Situation.

 

Page Ref: 264

 

Objective: 7.7

70)   In low-SES families with many daily stresses, attachment generally

  1. A) changes from insecure pattern to another.
  2. B) remains stable.
  3. C) moves toward security.
  4. D) fluctuates between security and insecurity.

 

Page Ref: 265

 

Objective: 7.7

71)   Drawing on cross-cultural research on attachment, which of the following infants is most likely to display an insecure-avoidant attachment?

  1. A) Gretchen, who is from Germany
  2. B) Yuri, who is from Japan
  3. C) Darius, who is from the United States
  4. D) Sascha, who is from an Israeli kibbutz

 

Page Ref: 265

 

Objective: 7.7

72)   Research on infant attachment of the Dogon people of Mali, Africa, revealed no one showed __________ attachment to their mothers.

  1. A) resistant
  2. B) avoidant
  3. C) secure
  4. D) disorganized/disoriented

 

Page Ref: 265

 

Objective: 7.7

73)   Japanese infants rarely show __________ attachment.

  1. A) disorganized/disoriented
  2. B) avoidant
  3. C) resistant
  4. D) secure

 

Page Ref: 265

 

Objective: 7.7

74)   Studies of institutionalized adoptees indicate that

  1. A) it is imperative that the first attachment bond develop within the first year of life.
  2. B) late adoptees, placed in homes after age 4, do not display social or emotional problems.
  3. C) late adoptees are likely to shy away from adult attention once adopted.
  4. D) a first attachment can develop as late as 4 to 6 years of age.

 

Page Ref: 266

 

Objective: 7.7

75)   Studies of adopted children who spent their first year or more in deprived Eastern European orphanages indicate that

  1. A) late adoptees, placed in homes after age 4, have more difficulty bonding with their adoptive parents.
  2. B) adoptees do not typically show social or emotional problems if adopted before the age of 6.
  3. C) fully normal emotional development depends on establishing a close tie with a caregiver early in life.
  4. D) adoptees’ delays and impairments tend to disappear in middle childhood.

 

Page Ref: 266

 

Objective: 7.7

76)   __________ is moderately related to attachment security in diverse cultures and SES groups.

  1. A) Goodness of fit
  2. B) Social referencing
  3. C) Grandparent primary caregiving
  4. D) Sensitive caregiving

 

Page Ref: 266

 

Objective: 7.7

77)   Baby Ashley picks up her ball and says, “Ball!” Ashley’s father responds with a big smile and an enthusiastic, “That’s right! Ball!” In return, Ashley laughs. When Ashley is tired and crying, her father picks her up, rubs her back, and sings softly to her. Ashley and her father are engaged in

  1. A) attachment in the making.
  2. B) social referencing.
  3. C) goodness of fit.
  4. D) interactional synchrony.

 

Page Ref: 266

 

Objective: 7.7

78)   __________ adult–infant coordination, in which interactional synchrony occurs, is the best predictor of attachment security.

  1. A) Loose
  2. B) Tight
  3. C) Moderate
  4. D) Variable

 

Page Ref: 266–267

 

Objective: 7.7

79)   __________ babies tend to receive overstimulating, intensive care.

  1. A) Avoidant
  2. B) Secure
  3. C) Disorganized/disoriented
  4. D) Resistant

 

Page Ref: 267

 

Objective: 7.7

80)   Which of the following statements about attachment is supported by research?

  1. A) Mothers of resistant infants tend to be overstimulating and intrusive.
  2. B) Securely attached infants often receive inconsistent care.
  3. C) Persistently depressed mothers tend to promote an avoidant attachment classification.
  4. D) Mothers of resistant infants are often unresponsive to infant signals.

 

Page Ref: 267

 

Objective: 7.7

81)   Which of the following children is most likely to be receiving abusive or neglectful care?

  1. A) Dante, whose attachment is disorganized/disoriented
  2. B) Sonya, whose attachment is secure
  3. C) Anthony, whose attachment is avoidant
  4. D) Riley, whose attachment is resistant

 

Page Ref: 267

 

Objective: 7.7

82)   Research reveals that at-risk infants

  1. A) whose parents have adequate time and patience to care for them fare quite well in attachment security.
  2. B) with special needs rarely display secure attachment to any caregiver.
  3. C) who are born prematurely invoke reduced maternal sensitivity regardless of socioeconomic risk.
  4. D) who are emotionally reactive in temperament are less likely to develop later insecure attachments.

 

Page Ref: 267

 

Objective: 7.7

83)   The heritability of attachment is

  1. A) virtually nil.
  2. B) moderately low.
  3. C) moderately high.
  4. D) very high.

 

Page Ref: 268

 

Objective: 7.7

84)   Job loss, a failing marriage, financial difficulties, or parental psychological problems

  1. A) show little correlation with attachment security.
  2. B) are the primary causes of disoriented/disorganized attachment in infancy.
  3. C) can undermine attachment indirectly by interfering with parental sensitivity.
  4. D) are unlikely to have a direct effect on babies’ sense of security.

 

Page Ref: 268

 

Objective: 7.7

85)   Parents who __________ tend to have securely attached infants and to behave sensitively toward them.

  1. A) dismiss the importance of their early relationships
  2. B) discuss their childhoods with objectivity and balance
  3. C) report only positive childhood experiences
  4. D) describe their negative childhood experiences in angry, confused ways

 

Page Ref: 268

 

Objective: 7.7

86)   Which of the following statements about the relationship between attachment security and infant child care is true?

  1. A) The best current evidence confirms that use of nonparental care during the first year affects attachment security.
  2. B) Infants who experience daily separations from their employed parents are at risk for developmental problems.
  3. C) The relationship between child care and emotional well-being depends on both family and child-care experiences.
  4. D) Exposure to child care exerts a more powerful impact on children’s adjustment than does parenting quality.

 

Page Ref: 270 Box: Social Issues: Health: Does Child Care Threaten Attachment Security and Later Adjustment?

 

Objective: 7.7

87)   Research on the quality and extent of child care shows that

  1. A) mother–child interaction is more favorable when children spend fewer hours in child care.
  2. B) most infants who are placed in full-time child care are insecurely attached.
  3. C) full-time, but not part-time, work during the first year is detrimental to attachment security.
  4. D) even in high-quality settings, the amount of time spent in child care is related to behavior problems.

 

Page Ref: 270 Box: Social Issues: Health: Does Child Care Threaten Attachment Security and Later Adjustment?

 

Objective: 7.7

88)   When interacting with their babies, mothers devote more time to __________ and fathers devote more time to __________.

  1. A) playful interaction; physical care
  2. B) feeding and diaper changes; expressing affection
  3. C) playful interaction; expressing affection
  4. D) physical care; playful interaction

 

Page Ref: 269

 

Objective: 7.8

89)   Fathers

  1. A) are not as responsive as mothers to their infant’s social needs.
  2. B) engage in more highly stimulating physical play with their daughters than with sons.
  3. C) report feeling less anxiety than mothers about daily separations.
  4. D) in the United States devote just over 4 hours per workday to children.

 

Page Ref: 269

 

Objective: 7.8

90)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on fathers?

  1. A) In the United States, Hispanic fathers spend more time engaged with their children compared to fathers in other ethnic groups.
  2. B) In dual-earner families in the United States, mothers and fathers tend to devote equal time to caregiving.
  3. C) In the United States, high-SES fathers devote more time to their children than low-SES fathers.
  4. D) Fathers in Japan spend more time engaged in infant caregiving compared to fathers in the United States.

 

Page Ref: 271

 

Objective: 7.8

91)   Cross-cultural research demonstrates that

  1. A) fathers’ warmth contributes greatly to children’s long-term favorable development.
  2. B) fathers who devote little time to physical caregiving do not express much parental warmth.
  3. C) mothers’ and fathers’ relationships with their partners and with their children are not linked.
  4. D) fathers’ warmth cannot protect children against emotional and behavioral problems.

 

Page Ref: 272 Box: Cultural Influences: The Powerful Role of Paternal Warmth in Development

 

Objective: 7.8

92)   Research on the Aka hunters and gatherers of Central Africa reveals that a strong father–infant relationship is

  1. A) related to the strong division of male and female duties in the tribe.
  2. B) unrelated to the amount of time fathers spend near infants and toddlers.
  3. C) unrelated to the father’s expressions of caring and affection.
  4. D) due in great part to an unusually cooperative and intimate marital relationship.

 

Page Ref: 272 Box: Cultural Influences: The Powerful Role of Paternal Warmth in Development

 

Objective: 7.8

93)   Nearly 2.4 million U.S. children live with their grandparents but apart from parents, in so-called

  1. A) “non-traditional nuclear families.”
  2. B) skipped-generation families.
  3. C) fractured households.
  4. D) extended-family households.

 

Page Ref: 271

 

Objective: 7.8

94)   Many grandparent caregivers report feeling

  1. A) overjoyed to receive a second chance to raise children.
  2. B) unworried about what will happen to the child.
  3. C) emotionally drained and depressed.
  4. D) animosity toward their adult child for “shirking responsibility.”

 

Page Ref: 272

 

Objective: 7.8

95)   Which of the following statements about grandparents who are primary caregivers is true?

  1. A) Warm grandparent–grandchild bonds help protect children from worsening adjustment problems, even under conditions of great hardship.
  2. B) Less than 1 percent of the U.S. child population live with their grandparents but apart from parents.
  3. C) Grandparents in Caucasian families are more likely to serve as children’s primary caregivers than grandparents in other ethnic groups.
  4. D) Grandparent caregivers rarely forge significant attachment relationships with their grandchildren.

 

Page Ref: 272

 

Objective: 7.8

96)   __________ is related to positive sibling interaction.

  1. A) High emotional intensity in one sibling
  2. B) Maternal warmth toward both children
  3. C) High physical activity in one sibling
  4. D) Lack of maternal involvement

 

Page Ref: 273

 

Objective: 7.8

97)   Peer sociability is

  1. A) not present in the first two years.
  2. B) promoted by the early caregiver–child bond.
  3. C) extremely delayed in only children.
  4. D) delayed in children who spend time in child care.

 

Page Ref: 274

 

Objective: 7.8

98)   Mounting evidence indicates that __________ determines whether attachment security is linked to later development.

  1. A) child temperament
  2. B) heredity
  3. C) continuity of caregiving
  4. D) family size

 

Page Ref: 274

 

Objective: 7.9

99)   Which of the following statements about attachment and later development is true?

  1. A) A child whose parental caregiving improves can bounce back from adversity.
  2. B) A child who experiences a secure attachment in infancy maintains that style, regardless of caregiving.
  3. C) By the end of early childhood, nearly 90 percent of U.S. children are securely attached to a caregiver.
  4. D) An insecure attachment in infancy almost always leads to severe behavior problems in childhood.

 

Page Ref: 275

 

Objective: 7.9

100)  Newborn Uli displays a stronger rooting reflex in response to an adult’s finger touching her cheek than to her own hand touching her cheek. This finding demonstrates that Uli has the beginnings of

  1. A) self-awareness.
  2. B) effortful control.
  3. C) an internal working model.
  4. D) emotional self-regulation.

 

Page Ref: 276

 

Objective: 7.10

101)  Emmett, age 4 months, looks and smiles more at video images of others than video images of himself. This discrimination reflects an

  1. A) explicit sense of self–world differentiation.
  2. B) internal working model.
  3. C) implicit sense of self–world differentiation.
  4. D) external working model.

 

Page Ref: 276

 

Objective: 7.10

102)  Which of the following children, when placed in front of a mirror, is most likely to respond to the appearance of a red dot on his or her nose by touching or rubbing his or her nose?

  1. A) Reggie, an 8-month-old boy
  2. B) Melik, a 12-month-old boy
  3. C) Isabella, a 16-month-old girl
  4. D) Jayla, a 21-month-old girl

 

Page Ref: 276

 

Objective: 7.10

103)  When asked to push a wagon while standing on a towel attached to its rear axle, 21-month-old Maximus figures out that if he removes himself from the towel, the wagon will move. Maximus is displaying

  1. A) effortful control.
  2. B) an implicit sense of self–world differentiation.
  3. C) a categorical self.
  4. D) an explicit body self-awareness.

 

Page Ref: 277

 

Objective: 7.10

104)  Ahmed, age 2, gives his favorite stuffed toy to his little brother when his brother falls down and starts to cry. Ahmed is displaying

  1. A) an internal working model.
  2. B)
  3. C) a categorical self.
  4. D) social referencing.

 

Page Ref: 278

 

Objective: 7.10

105)  Two-year-old Aisha tells her mom, “I good girl.” This statement demonstrates that Aisha is beginning to develop

  1. A) a categorical self.
  2. B)
  3. C) self-conscious emotions.
  4. D) scale errors.

 

Page Ref: 278

 

Objective: 7.10

106)  Children whose parents __________ typically do well in delaying gratification.

  1. A) alternate using threats and bribes
  2. B) encourage selective and sustained attention
  3. C) emphasize independence and autonomy from an early age
  4. D) provide long, detailed reasons for waiting

 

Page Ref: 279

 

Objective: 7.10

ESSAY

107)  Describe Erik Erikson’s psychosocial theory as it applies to the development of infant and toddler personality.

108)  Describe the development of anger in infants, and explain why angry reactions increase with age.

109)  Using Thomas and Chess’s model of temperament, identify and describe the three categories of children. Do all children fit into one of these categories? Explain.

110)  Describe how living in a family with siblings might have an influence on a child’s temperament.

113)  Describe Bowlby’s four phases of attachment.

ccording to Bowlby, attachment develops in four phases:

114)  Discuss the involvement of fathers as it relates to attachment security. How do mothers and fathers differ in their caregiving?

 

 

cHAPTER 8
PHYSICAL DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY Childhood

Multiple Choice

1)   The years from 2 to 6 are often called “the __________ years.”

  1. A) play
  2. B) growth
  3. C) beginning
  4. D) me

 

Page Ref: 285

 

Objective: 8.1

2)   Which of the following statements about body growth in early childhood is true?

  1. A) On average, children add 1 to 2 inches in height and about 3 pounds in weight each year.
  2. B) Children add “baby fat” and gradually become heavier and more muscular.
  3. C) By age 5, children become more top-heavy, bowlegged, and potbellied.
  4. D) The rapid increase in body size of the first two years tapers off into a slower growth pattern.

 

Page Ref: 285

 

Objective: 8.1

3)   During early childhood, boys __________ than girls.

  1. A) are less muscular
  2. B) are slightly larger
  3. C) have more body fat
  4. D) are slightly smaller

 

Page Ref: 285

 

Objective: 8.1

4)   Growth norms

  1. A) for one population are not good standards for children elsewhere in the world.
  2. B) are very similar for children in every country of the world.
  3. C) vary from child to child in each population.
  4. D) are the best estimate of skeletal age.

 

5)   X-rays of epiphyses enable doctors to estimate children’s

  1. A) adult weight.
  2. B) loss of baby teeth.
  3. C) brain development.
  4. D) skeletal age.

 

Page Ref: 287

 

Objective: 8.1

6)   Which of the following U.S. children is most likely to get his or her permanent teeth first?

  1. A) Brooke, an obese girl
  2. B) Malik, an undernourished boy
  3. C) Jack, a well-nourished boy of average weight
  4. D) Sasha, an undernourished girl

 

Page Ref: 287

 

Objective: 8.1

7)   Between ages 2 and 6,

  1. A) the brain increases from 40 percent of its adult weight to 60 percent.
  2. B) synaptic pruning slows or ends in many parts of the cerebral cortex.
  3. C) energy consumption of most cortical regions diminishes to near-adult levels.
  4. D) the brain increases from 70 percent of its adult weight to 90 percent.

 

Page Ref: 287

 

Objective: 8.2

8)   By age 4 to 5,

  1. A) preschoolers show declines in sustained attention.
  2. B) the number of synapses in the prefrontal cortex is nearly double the adult value.
  3. C) energy metabolism in the cerebral cortex is at an all-time low.
  4. D) synaptic pruning decreases sharply, reaching an adultlike level.

 

Page Ref: 287

 

Objective: 8.2

9)   An __________ of __________ during early childhood supports plasticity of the young brain, helping to ensure the child will acquire certain abilities even if some areas are damaged.

  1. A) underproduction; neurons
  2. B) underproduction; synapses
  3. C) overproduction; neurons
  4. D) overabundance; synaptic connections

 

10)   For most children,

  1. A) activity in the left hemisphere increases slowly throughout early and middle childhood.
  2. B) activity in the left hemisphere peaks between 1 and 3 years and decreases slowly.
  3. C) the left hemisphere is especially active between 3 and 6 years and then levels off.
  4. D) activity in the right hemisphere increases dramatically between ages 2 and 6.

 

Page Ref: 288

 

Objective: 8.2

11)   Which of the following skills develops at the fastest pace during early childhood?

  1. A) giving directions
  2. B) drawing pictures
  3. C) recognizing geometric shapes
  4. D) using language

 

Page Ref: 288

 

Objective: 8.2

12)   Handedness

  1. A) reflects the greater capacity of one side of the brain to carry out skilled motor action.
  2. B) is evident in a wide range of skills from birth.
  3. C) is a heritable trait, especially for left-handed people.
  4. D) is strongest for simple, rather than complex, skills.

 

Page Ref: 288

 

Objective: 8.2

13)   For the left-handed 10 percent of the population, language is

  1. A) always housed in the right hemisphere.
  2. B) always housed in the left hemisphere.
  3. C) most often housed in the right hemisphere.
  4. D) most often shared between the hemispheres.

 

Page Ref: 288

 

Objective: 8.2

14)   Jim sometimes uses his right hand skillfully, but he prefers his left hand. Jim

  1. A) is ambidextrous.
  2. B) has a strongly lateralized brain.
  3. C) is very likely to have left-handed children.
  4. D) probably had early damage to the left hemisphere.

 

15)   Felicity and Samantha are identical twins. They are

  1. A) probably both right-handed.
  2. B) more likely than ordinary siblings to differ in hand preference.
  3. C) probably both left-handed.
  4. D) less likely than fraternal twins to differ in hand preference.

 

Page Ref: 288

 

Objective: 8.2

16)   Which of the following statements regarding handedness is true?

  1. A) For the majority of individuals, handedness is inherited from the mother’s side of the family.
  2. B) Ordinary siblings are more likely than identical or fraternal twins to differ in hand preference.
  3. C) Rates of left-handedness are elevated among people with intellectual disabilities and mental illness.
  4. D) Right-handed children are more likely to develop outstanding verbal and mathematical talents.

 

Page Ref: 289

 

Objective: 8.2

17)   Growth and myelination of fibers linking the cerebellum to the cerebral cortex contributes to __________ in early childhood.

  1. A) a strong hand preference
  2. B) suppression of impulses in favor of thoughtful responses
  3. C) dramatic gains in motor coordination
  4. D) dramatic gains in spatial skills

 

Page Ref: 289

 

Objective: 8.2

18)   The reticular formation is located in the

  1. A) brain stem.
  2. B) prefrontal cortex.
  3. C) temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex.
  4. D) left hemisphere of the brain.

 

Page Ref: 289

 

Objective: 8.2

19)   The hippocampus plays a vital role in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) control of body movement.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 289

 

Objective: 8.2

20)   Neurons in the __________ send out fibers to the prefrontal cortex, contributing to improvements in sustained, controlled attention.

  1. A) cerebellum
  2. B) hippocampus
  3. C) reticular formation
  4. D) corpus callosum

 

Page Ref: 289

 

Objective: 8.2

21)   The amygdala

  1. A) supports smooth coordination of movements on both sides of the body.
  2. B) plays a vital role in memory and in images of space that help us find our way.
  3. C) aids in balance and control of body movement.
  4. D) is sensitive to facial emotional expressions, especially fear.

 

Page Ref: 290

 

Objective: 8.2

22)   Which of the following is a function of the corpus callosum?

  1. A) It plays a central role in processing of novelty and emotional information.
  2. B) It creates a link between the right cerebral hemisphere and the hippocampus.
  3. C) It generates synapses and myelinates throughout early childhood and into adolescence.
  4. D) It supports smooth coordination of movements on both sides of the body.

 

Page Ref: 290

 

Objective: 8.2

23)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on lead exposure during childhood?

  1. A) Overall, poorer intelligence test scores associated with lead exposure seem to be permanent.
  2. B) Lead-exposed children given drugs to induce excretion of lead improve in long-term outcomes.
  3. C) Once lead-exposed children move away from contaminated areas, their intelligence test scores increase.
  4. D) Negative lead-related cognitive consequences are evident only at high levels of exposure.

 

Page Ref: 291 Box: Biology and Environment: Low-Level Lead Exposure and Children’s Development

 

Objective: 8.2

24)   Research on lead exposure during childhood reveals that

  1. A) middle-SES children are more likely than low-SES children to experience lead exposure.
  2. B) use of iron and zinc supplements increases lead concentration in the blood.
  3. C) persistent childhood lead exposure is linked to diabetes in adulthood.
  4. D) a stressed, disorganized home life seems to heighten lead-induced damage.

 

Page Ref: 291 Box: Biology and Environment: Low-Level Lead Exposure and Children’s Development

 

Objective: 8.2

25)   The __________ plays a critical role in the rate of physical growth.

  1. A) pituitary gland
  2. B) hippocampus
  3. C) reticular formation
  4. D) corpus callosum

 

Page Ref: 290

 

Objective: 8.3

26)   Without medical intervention, children who suffer from __________ reach an average mature height of only 4 to 4½ feet.

  1. A) growth hormone (GH) deficiency
  2. B) estrogen deficiency
  3. C) inadequate thyroxine
  4. D) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) deficiency

 

Page Ref: 292

 

Objective: 8.3

27)   Dmitri, age 5, suffers from extreme emotional deprivation. He is very short in stature, shows decreased secretion of growth hormone (GH) and melatonin, has an immature skeletal age, and displays serious adjustment problems. These are typical characteristics of

  1. A) a vitamin C deficiency.
  2. B) psychosocial dwarfism.
  3. C) inadequate thyroxine.
  4. D) an iron deficiency.

 

Page Ref: 292

 

Objective: 8.4

28)   When young children with psychosocial dwarfism are removed from their emotionally inadequate environments,

  1. A) their dwarfism is permanent, even with immediate treatment.
  2. B) they rarely exhibit catch-up growth.
  3. C) they must be given high levels of iron to prevent anemia.
  4. D) their growth hormone (GH) levels quickly return to normal and they grow rapidly.

 

Page Ref: 292

 

Objective: 8.4

29)   Sleep contributes to body growth because

  1. A) growth hormone (GH) is released during the child’s sleeping hours.
  2. B) rest allows the awake body to produce GH at higher levels.
  3. C) rest allows the awake body to produce thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) at higher levels.
  4. D) REM sleep heightens the impact of environmental events.

 

Page Ref: 292

 

Objective: 8.4

30)   Which of the following 3-year-olds is most likely to share a bedroom with a sibling?

  1. A) Dante, who is African American
  2. B) Ruby, who is Hispanic
  3. C) Jacob, who is Caucasian
  4. D) Jing, who is Asian American

 

Page Ref: 293

 

Objective: 8.4

31)   Which of the following may be a reason that disrupted sleep has a more pronounced effect on the cognitive functioning and emotional adjustment of low-SES children?

  1. A) Low-SES children are less likely to cosleep, which harms their sense of security while asleep.
  2. B) Insufficient sleep heightens the impact of other environmental stressors prevalent in their daily lives.
  3. C) Low-SES children do not take regular naps, so disrupted nighttime sleep is more harmful to them.
  4. D) Disrupted sleep cycles cause children’s cortisol levels to rise, which is particularly harmful in low-SES children.

 

Page Ref: 293

 

Objective: 8.4

32)   Research on sleep demonstrates that

  1. A) most American parents cosleep with their children into the preschool years.
  2. B) sleepwalking in early childhood often signals a severe neurological problem.
  3. C) parent–child cosleeping is associated with sleep disorders during the preschool years.
  4. D) sleep terrors can be triggered by stress or extreme fatigue.

 

Page Ref: 294

 

Objective: 8.4

33)   Which of the following statements about appetite in early childhood is true?

  1. A) Preschoolers’ appetites increase because their growth is at an all-time high.
  2. B) Parents should be concerned if their preschooler varies the amount eaten from meal to meal.
  3. C) Preschoolers’ wariness of new foods is adaptive.
  4. D) Preschoolers need a different quality of food than adults need.

 

Page Ref: 294

 

Objective: 8.4

34)   Brianna, age 4, eats only pasta, bread, and chicken. Which of the following would you suggest to Brianna’s parents to encourage their daughter to eat new foods?

  1. A) Serve her only new foods so that she has no other choices.
  2. B) Repeatedly expose her to new foods without any direct pressure to eat them.
  3. C) Add sugar or butter to new foods, and offer dessert if she eats them.
  4. D) Refuse to serve pasta until she tries at least one new food.

 

Page Ref: 294

 

Objective: 8.4

35)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on nutrition?

  1. A) Restricting access to tasty foods is an effective way to get young children to eat healthy foods.
  2. B) Adding salt or sugar is an easy way to get children to eat healthy foods.
  3. C) Offering bribes is an effective way to get preschoolers to eat healthy foods.
  4. D) Offering children sweet fruit drinks or soft drinks promotes “milk avoidance.”

 

Page Ref: 294

 

Objective: 8.4

36)   During the preschool years,

  1. A) children usually eat the same amount of food during each meal.
  2. B) children can tolerate more fats, oils, and salt.
  3. C) it is common for children’s appetite to increase.
  4. D) the emotional climate at mealtimes has a powerful impact on eating habits.

 

Page Ref: 295

 

Objective: 8.4

37)   Sophia’s parents will not allow her to eat any sugary foods. This practice will most likely

  1. A) prompt Sophia to eat more healthy foods.
  2. B) have no effect on Sophia’s eating behavior.
  3. C) focus Sophia’s attention on sugary foods.
  4. D) decrease Sophia’s desire to eat sugary foods.

 

Page Ref: 295

 

Objective: 8.4

38)   Which of the following statements about nutrition in the United States is true?

  1. A) By the school years, low-SES U.S. children are, on average, about ½ to 1 inch shorter than their economically advantaged counterparts.
  2. B) Unlike children in developing countries, few children in the United States lack access to sufficient high-quality food to support healthy growth.
  3. C) Because food products in the United States are vitamin fortified, children no longer suffer from vitamin A, calcium, zinc, or vitamin C deficiencies.
  4. D) Parents who restrict their preschool children’s eating decrease the likelihood that the children will be overweight or obese in adolescence.

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

39)   Illnesses such as measles and chicken pox

  1. A) typically do not appear until after age 3 throughout the world.
  2. B) occur at about the same rate in all countries.
  3. C) have been eradicated through mass immunization.
  4. D) occur much earlier in developing nations than in industrialized nations.

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

40)   Poor diet

  1. A) is not a major contributor to susceptibility to childhood diseases.
  2. B) is usually unrelated to childhood illnesses such as measles and chicken pox.
  3. C) depresses the body’s immune system, making children more susceptible to disease.
  4. D) can cause childhood illnesses such as measles and chicken pox.

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

41)   In developing countries, widespread __________, resulting from unsafe water and contaminated foods, leads to growth stunting and an estimated one million childhood deaths each year.

  1. A) diarrhea
  2. B) scurvy
  3. C) rubella
  4. D) tuberculosis

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

42)   In developing countries,

  1. A) vaccines weaken the immune system and children’s susceptibility to disease.
  2. B) most childhood deaths due to diarrhea can be prevented with oral rehydration therapy (ORT).
  3. C) most children receive government-funded immunizations.
  4. D) widespread diarrhea leads to growth stunting but rarely to death.

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

43)   Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) and zinc supplement interventions

  1. A) are effective for children with severe diarrhea, but they are expensive to administer.
  2. B) must be administered by trained medical professionals or public health workers.
  3. C) save the lives of millions of children each year.
  4. D) are less effective than immunization in preventing childhood deaths due to diarrhea.

 

Page Ref: 296

 

Objective: 8.4

44)   In industrialized nations, childhood diseases have declined dramatically during the past half century, largely as a result of

  1. A) generous government nutrition programs.
  2. B) government-funded health care.
  3. C) widespread immunization of infants and young children.
  4. D) a reduction in the number of viral and bacterial infections worldwide.

 

Page Ref: 297

 

Objective: 8.4

45)   Which of the following children is most likely to lack immunizations?

  1. A) Emma, who is from the United States
  2. B) Kristen, who is from Canada
  3. C) Nigel, who is from the United Kingdom
  4. D) Elsa, who is from Sweden

 

Page Ref: 297

 

Objective: 8.4

46)   Which of the following statements about childhood immunizations is true?

  1. A) The United States is ahead of Australia, Denmark, Norway, Canada, the Netherlands, Sweden, and the United Kingdom in immunization rates.
  2. B) Overall, 17 percent of U.S. preschoolers lack essential immunizations, and the rate rises to 22 percent for poverty-stricken children.
  3. C) Nearly 100 percent of U.S. children who receive a complete schedule of vaccinations in the first two years continue to receive the immunizations they need later, in early childhood.
  4. D) Disease outbreaks of whooping cough and rubella have not occurred in the United States since the development of vaccines for these diseases.

 

Page Ref: 297

 

Objective: 8.4

47)   Three-year-old Billy caught five colds during his first year in preschool. He also experienced repeated otitis media. If Billy is like other children with frequent otitis media, he may have trouble

  1. A) attending to others’ speech.
  2. B) falling and staying asleep.
  3. C) mastering large motor skills, such as running and climbing.
  4. D) identifying the letters of the alphabet.

 

Page Ref: 298 Box: Social Issues: Health: Otitis Media and Development

 

Objective: 8.4

48)   Which of the following statements about otitis media is true?

  1. A) Plastic tubes that drain the Eustachian tubes often are used to treat chronic otitis media in children.
  2. B) Compared with children remaining at home, otitis media occurs less often in children who attend child-care centers.
  3. C) Only about 20 percent of U.S. children have experienced three or more bouts of otitis media.
  4. D) The incidence of otitis media is greatest between 3 and 5 years.

 

Page Ref: 298 Box: Social Issues: Health: Otitis Media and Development

 

Objective: 8.4

49)   __________ are the leading cause of childhood mortality in industrialized nations.

  1. A) Carcinogens
  2. B) Unintentional injuries
  3. C) Birth defects
  4. D) Infectious diseases

 

Page Ref: 298

 

Objective: 8.5

50)   In the United States, __________ is/are the most frequent source of childhood injury.

  1. A) burns
  2. B) falls
  3. C) being struck by an object
  4. D) motor vehicle collisions

 

Page Ref: 299

 

Objective: 8.5

51)   Childhood injuries

  1. A) are typically “accidental” and usually cannot be prevented.
  2. B) occur within a complex ecological system and can often be prevented.
  3. C) rank second only to cancer as a cause of childhood mortality in industrialized nations.
  4. D) are less common in the United States than in other industrialized nations.

 

Page Ref: 299

 

Objective: 8.5

52)   __________ are at greater risk for injury than __________.

  1. A) Three- to 5-year-old girls; 3- to 5-year-old boys
  2. B) Children with easy temperaments; irritable children
  3. C) Middle-SES children; low-SES children
  4. D) S. children from advantaged families; children in Western Europe

 

Page Ref: 299

 

Objective: 8.5

53)   Which of the following statements about preventing childhood injury is true?

  1. A) During the past several decades, parents have changed a great deal in how much they do to protect their children from injury.
  2. B) In the United States, 84 percent of infant seats and 40 percent of child booster seats are improperly used.
  3. C) In the United States, 12 percent of parents fail to place their children in car safety seats.
  4. D) Young children properly restrained in car safety seats have a 50 percent reduced risk of fatal injury.

 

Page Ref: 300

 

Objective: 8.5

54)   When it comes to injury prevention, American parents

  1. A) more often teach safety rules to their preschoolers as an advance preventive rather than a reaction to unsafe behaviors.
  2. B) seem willing to ignore familiar safety practices, perhaps because of the high value they place on personal freedom.
  3. C) take more safety precautions than parents in other industrialized nations.
  4. D) place a high value on the use of safety devices, such as bicycle helmets, booster seats, and fire extinguishers.

 

Page Ref: 300

 

Objective: 8.5

55)   As children’s bodies become more streamlined and less top-heavy,

  1. A) balance improves greatly.
  2. B) their center of gravity shifts upward.
  3. C) gross-motor development slows.
  4. D) fine-motor development slows.

 

Page Ref: 301

 

Objective: 8.6

56)   Between the ages of 2 and 3 years, most children learn how to

  1. A) push a riding toy with their feet.
  2. B) use a knife to cut soft foods.
  3. C) tie their shoes.
  4. D) pedal and steer a tricycle.

 

Page Ref: 302

 

Objective: 8.6

57)   Harvey, age 3, can probably

  1. A) gallop and skip with one foot.
  2. B) copy some numbers and simple words.
  3. C) zip and unzip large zippers.
  4. D) ride a tricycle rapidly and steer smoothly.

 

Page Ref: 302

 

Objective: 8.6

58)   Caitlyn, age 4, can probably

  1. A) tie her shoes.
  2. B) ride a bicycle with training wheels.
  3. C) draw a person with six parts.
  4. D) use a fork effectively.

 

Page Ref: 302

 

Objective: 8.6

59)   Most 5- to 6-year-olds learn how to

  1. A) use scissors.
  2. B) gallop and skip with one foot.
  3. C) draw a person with six parts.
  4. D) catch a ball against their chest.

 

Page Ref: 302

 

Objective: 8.6

60)   Which of the following children can likely dress and undress without supervision?

  1. A) Shang, who is 2 years old
  2. B) Penelope, who is 3 years old
  3. C) Jason, who is 3½ years old
  4. D) Lillian, who is 4 years old

 

Page Ref: 303

 

Objective: 8.6

61)   Which of the following statements about self-help skills is true?

  1. A) While young preschoolers can use a spoon well, they cannot serve themselves at mealtimes.
  2. B) The use of child-sized eating utensils is unnecessary and inhibits fine-motor progress.
  3. C) Between ages 4 and 5, children can dress and undress without supervision.
  4. D) Shoe-tying skills are typically mastered in early preschool.

 

Page Ref: 303

 

Objective: 8.6

62)   Perhaps the most complex self-help skill of early childhood is

  1. A) self-dressing.
  2. B) shoe tying.
  3. C) self-feeding.
  4. D) tooth brushing.

 

Page Ref: 303

 

Objective: 8.6

63)   When adults draw with children and point out resemblances between drawings and objects,

  1. A) they stifle children’s self-expression.
  2. B) preschoolers’ pictures become simpler so the adult can recognize items.
  3. C) preschoolers’ pictures become more comprehensible and detailed.
  4. D) they interfere with the natural progression of childhood drawing.

 

Page Ref: 304

 

Objective: 8.6

64)   A major milestone in drawing occurs when 3- and 4-year-olds learn to

  1. A) use lines to represent the boundaries of objects.
  2. B) use depth cues.
  3. C) make gestures that leave marks.
  4. D) draw “stick” or “contour” figures.

 

Page Ref: 304

 

Objective: 8.6

65)   Anya, age 4, is asked to draw a picture of a person. She will probably

  1. A) draw a circular shape with lines attached, and add features such as eyes, nose, mouth, and hair.
  2. B) make a realistically detailed image with primitive drawing techniques.
  3. C) draw a large head with facial features but no body.
  4. D) use depth cues, such as overlapping objects, in the background.

 

Page Ref: 304

 

Objective: 8.6

66)   Jesi, age 3, is asked to draw a cylinder. Based on her age, she will probably draw

  1. A)
  2. B) nonrepresentational scribbles.
  3. C) a circle, an oval, or a rectangle.
  4. D) two circles and some lines.

 

Page Ref: 304

 

Objective: 8.6

67)   Which of the following statements about artistic development in China is true?

  1. A) China’s artistic styles and conventions are enormously diverse compared to the United States.
  2. B) Chinese art teachers typically assume that copying others’ drawings stifles creativity.
  3. C) When taught to paint, Chinese children follow prescribed brush strokes, at first copying their teacher’s model.
  4. D) Rather than promoting correct ways to draw, Chinese teachers emphasize imagination and self-expression.

 

Page Ref: 305 Box: Cultural Influences: Why Are Children from Asian Cultures Advanced in Drawing Skills?

 

Objective: 8.6

68)   Cross-cultural research indicates that children benefit from __________ in learning to draw.

  1. A) exposure to a rich variety of art materials
  2. B) freedom to use self-expression
  3. C) independence
  4. D) adult guidance

 

Page Ref: 305 Box: Cultural Influences: Why Are Children from Asian Cultures Advanced in Drawing Skills?

 

Objective: 8.6

69)   In cultures with little interest in art,

  1. A) children nonetheless create elaborate drawings.
  2. B) children still draw the universal tadpole image to represent a person.
  3. C) the first drawings of the human figure typically emphasize the head and face.
  4. D) even older children and adolescents produce simple forms.

 

Page Ref: 305

 

Objective: 8.6

70)   Preschoolers’ first attempts to print often involve

  1. A) two- to three-letter words, such as “hi” and “mom.”
  2. B) a pretend grocery list.
  3. C) a parent’s or sibling’s name.
  4. D) their name.

 

Page Ref: 306

 

Objective: 8.6

71)   Three-year-olds

  1. A) use an adult grip pattern to hold a pencil.
  2. B) vary their pencil grip, depending on the location of marks they want to make.
  3. C) use a constant pencil angle across a range of drawing and writing.
  4. D) grip pencils indiscriminately in either their left or right hand.

 

Page Ref: 306

 

Objective: 8.6

72)   Which of the following statements about individual differences in motor skills during early childhood is true?

  1. A) Girls can run slightly faster than boys.
  2. B) Girls can broad-jump slightly farther than boys.
  3. C) Girls have an edge over boys in fine-motor skills.
  4. D) Girls are ahead of boys in skills that emphasize force.

 

Page Ref: 307

 

Objective: 8.7

73)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on sex differences in motor skills?

  1. A) Sex differences in motor skills increase with age, but they remain small throughout childhood.
  2. B) Sex differences in motor skills are largely due to genetically based differences.
  3. C) Boys’ greater overall physical maturity may be partly responsible for their better balance and precision of movement.
  4. D) From an early age, boys and girls are usually channeled into similar physical activities.

 

Page Ref: 307

 

Objective: 8.7

74)   Direct instruction in which of the following activities is most likely to accelerate gross-motor development in early childhood?

  1. A) throwing
  2. B) running
  3. C) dancing
  4. D) tumbling

 

Page Ref: 307

 

Objective: 8.7

75)   For preschoolers to easily acquire new motor skills,

  1. A) direct adult instruction should focus on perfecting the “correct” technique.
  2. B) they need formal lessons to master most gross- and fine-motor skills.
  3. C) playgrounds must offer a range of equipment to meet the diverse needs of individual children.
  4. D) they need adults to take a “hands-off” approach, providing supervision but no activity planning.

 

Page Ref: 307

 

Objective: 8.7

ESSAY

76)   Dominic is left-handed. He would like to know if his infant son is likely to be left-handed or right-handed. What can you tell him about research on handedness?

 

77)   Discuss how sleep habits contribute to body growth in children, and explain how disrupted sleep affects cognitive functioning.

78)   Discuss how motor vehicle use relates to childhood injuries. What are some ways to minimize unintentional injuries during automobile travel?

79)   Describe the development of drawing in children in Western nations.

80)   Discuss sex differences in motor skills in early childhood.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

CHAPTER 9
COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN EARLY CHILDHOOD

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   According to Piaget, the most obvious change during the preoperational stage is the increase in

  1. A) language ability.
  2. B) problem-solving skills.
  3. C) logical thought.
  4. D) representational activity.

 

Page Ref: 311

 

Objective: 9.1

2)   Piaget believed that sensorimotor activity leads to

  1. A) internal images of experience, which children then label with words.
  2. B) quicker executive function, which enables children to effectively combine schemes.
  3. C) decreased interest in solitary make-believe play.
  4. D) a better understanding of social interactions.

 

Page Ref: 312

 

Objective: 9.1

3)   Piaget believed that through __________, young children practice and strengthen newly acquired representational schemes.

  1. A) logical reasoning
  2. B) language acquisition
  3. C) pretending
  4. D) physical activity

 

Page Ref: 312

 

Objective: 9.1

4)   Kyle pretends to drink from a toy cup. Kyle’s sister, Anna, takes the same cup and tells him, “This is a hat.” Kyle refuses to place the cup on his head to pretend that it is a hat. Kyle is probably

  1. A) younger than 2 years of age.
  2. B) at least 4 years old.
  3. C) less than 1 year of age.
  4. D) at least 6 years old.

 

Page Ref: 312

 

Objective: 9.1

5)   Make-believe __________ as children realize that agents and recipients of pretend actions can be independent of themselves.

  1. A) attaches to the real-life conditions associated with it
  2. B) becomes less self-centered
  3. C) includes less complex combinations of schemes
  4. D) becomes more self-directed

 

Page Ref: 312

 

Objective: 9.1

6)   Five-year-old Matthew and 6-year-old Jessica like to pretend that they live or work in a zoo. Often, Matthew will pretend to be an animal and Jessica will pretend to be the zookeeper. This is an example of __________ play.

  1. A) parallel
  2. B) associative
  3. C) sociodramatic
  4. D) functional

 

Page Ref: 312

 

Objective: 9.1

7)   Children as young as age 2 display

  1. A) a sophisticated understanding of role relationships and story lines.
  2. B) awareness that make-believe is a representational activity.
  3. C) the ability to flexibly understand that an object may take on multiple fictional identities.
  4. D) advanced forms of sociodramatic play without adult prompting.

 

Page Ref: 313

 

Objective: 9.1

8)   Elisabeth is a preschooler who spends much of her time in sociodramatic play. She is likely to be seen as __________ by observers than peers who do not participate in sociodramatic play.

  1. A) more cognitively competent
  2. B) more socially competent
  3. C) less creative
  4. D) less verbal

 

Page Ref: 313

 

Objective: 9.1

9)   Children who create imaginary companions tend to

  1. A) be maladjusted.
  2. B) have problems maintaining friendships.
  3. C) be more sociable with peers.
  4. D) be only children.

 

Page Ref: 313

 

Objective: 9.1

10)   When shown a LEGO structure made to look like a crayon, 3-year-old Astrid said that the object “really and truly” was a crayon. Astrid is having trouble with

  1. A) class inclusion.
  2. B) hierarchical classification.
  3. C) the appearance–reality distinction.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 314

 

Objective: 9.1

11)   Which of the following is the best method of helping children appreciate dual representation?

  1. A) allowing children to explore and draw conclusions themselves
  2. B) exposing children to diverse symbols, such as picture books and maps
  3. C) encouraging children to engage in make-believe play with realistic props
  4. D) arranging for children to spend more time with more expert peers

 

Page Ref: 314–315

 

Objective: 9.1

12)   According to Piaget, young children’s thinking is rigid and strongly influenced by the way things appear at the moment because they are not capable of

  1. A) magical thinking.
  2. B) animistic thinking.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 315

 

Objective: 9.1

13)   For Piaget, the most fundamental deficiency of preoperational thinking is

  1. A) dual representation.
  2. B)
  3. C) animistic thinking.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 315

 

Objective: 9.1

14)   One day during a rainstorm, 4-year-old Isaiah comments to his mother, “The sky is very sad today. We have to do something fun to make it happy again!” Isaiah’s belief that it rains because the sky is sad is an example of

  1. A) dual representation.
  2. B)
  3. C) animistic thinking.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 315

 

Objective: 9.1

15)   Six-year-old Demetri and 4-year-old Lucien’s mother gave each boy a glass of juice with their lunch, but Demetri asked her to switch the juice to another taller and narrower glass. After she poured the liquid from the original glass into the tall glass, Lucien said angrily, “Now Demetri gets more juice than me!” Lucien is displaying a lack of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) hierarchical classification.
  4. D) dual representation.

 

Page Ref: 315–316

 

Objective: 9.1

16)   Three-year-old Rachael could not solve a conservation-of-liquid task because she focused on the height of the water. Rachael’s thinking is characterized by

  1. A) dynamic transformation.
  2. B)
  3. C) hierarchical classification.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 316

 

Objective: 9.1

17)   __________ is part of every logical operation.

  1. A) Dynamic transformation
  2. B) Irreversibility
  3. C) Class inclusion
  4. D) Reversibility

 

Page Ref: 316

 

Objective: 9.1

18)   Piaget’s class inclusion problem demonstrates children’s limitations in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) hierarchical classification.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 316

 

Objective: 9.1

19)   Which of the following statements about follow-up research to preoperational thought is true?

  1. A) Piaget underestimated preschoolers’ animistic beliefs.
  2. B) Young children exclusively use egocentric speech until about 3 years of age.
  3. C) Children as young as 2 years realize that what they see sometimes differs from what another person sees.
  4. D) Preschoolers think magic accounts for all events, even the ones they can personally explain.

 

Page Ref: 317

 

Objective: 9.2

20)   Four-year-old Maria uses shorter, simpler expressions when interacting with her 2-year-old brother. This example suggests that Piaget may have

  1. A) overestimated preschoolers’ animistic thinking.
  2. B) overestimated preschoolers’ egocentrism.
  3. C) underestimated preschoolers’ animistic thinking.
  4. D) underestimated preschoolers’ egocentrism.

 

Page Ref: 317

 

Objective: 9.2

21)   Four-year-old Matthew is given a toy robotic dog for his birthday. Matthew is most likely to

  1. A) try to interact with the robotic dog as he would a real dog.
  2. B) recognize that the robotic dog is not alive despite its lifelike features.
  3. C) insist that his mother make something for the robotic dog to eat.
  4. D) realize that the robotic dog cannot see, think, or remember like real dogs.

 

Page Ref: 317

 

Objective: 9.2

22)   Between ages 4 and 8, children’s magical beliefs decline as they

  1. A) gain familiarity with physical events and principles.
  2. B) understand that television characters are not real.
  3. C) begin to ascribe supernatural causes only to events they can explain.
  4. D) become less likely to confuse fiction with reality.

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

23)   Which of the following children is the most likely to express disbelief in the Tooth Fairy?

  1. A) Jacob, a Jewish boy
  2. B) Frank, a Catholic boy
  3. C) Lilian, a Methodist girl
  4. D) Vanessa, a Baptist girl

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

24)   Follow-up research on preoperational thought indicates that preschoolers do not display the illogical characteristics that Piaget saw when the tasks are

  1. A) first performed by more expert peers while the preschooler watches.
  2. B) simplified and made relevant to their everyday lives.
  3. C) performed by their parents rather than unfamiliar experimenters.
  4. D) performed with their own toys rather than unfamiliar objects.

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

25)   Preschoolers’ ability to reason about transformations is evident on

  1. A) conservation tasks.
  2. B) tasks that require reasoning by analogy.
  3. C) class inclusion problems.
  4. D) hierarchical classification tasks.

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

26)   Preschoolers seem to use illogical reasoning

  1. A) as a coping mechanism when they greatly fear failure.
  2. B) whenever they are presented too little information to reason logically.
  3. C) only when they must grapple with unfamiliar topics.
  4. D) when adults pressure them to arrive at an answer quickly.

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

27)   By the beginning of early childhood, children’s categories include objects that go together because of their common function, behavior, or natural kind. These findings challenge Piaget’s assumption that

  1. A) preschoolers’ thinking is wholly governed by perceptual appearances.
  2. B) the emergence of language brings about representational ability.
  3. C) preschoolers have difficulty distinguishing fantasy from reality.
  4. D) transitive inference emerges during the concrete operational stage.

 

Page Ref: 318

 

Objective: 9.2

28)   At age 3, Elliot is able to break down __________ into __________.

  1. A) basic-level categories; general categories
  2. B) basic-level categories; subcategories
  3. C) general categories; subcategories
  4. D) subcategories; basic-level categories

 

Page Ref: 319

 

Objective: 9.2

29)   By age 3½, __________ questions make up about half of children’s questions.

  1. A) object-naming
  2. B) non-information-seeking
  3. C) “building”
  4. D) rhetorical

 

Page Ref: 320 Box: Social Issues: Children’s Questions: Catalyst for Cognitive Development

 

Objective: 9.2

30)   Which of the following statements about children’s questions is true?

  1. A) With age, preschoolers increasingly ask about function, activity, state, and theory of mind.
  2. B) At every age between 1 and 5 years, non-information-seeking questions are more often used than information-seeking questions.
  3. C) Children do not begin asking questions until they have the vocabulary to formulate sentences.
  4. D) Inquisitive children are more often merely clamoring for attention than seeking real answers to their questions.

 

Page Ref: 320 Box: Social Issues: Children’s Questions: Catalyst for Cognitive Development

 

Objective: 9.2

31)   The usefulness of children’s questions depends on the

  1. A) child’s ethnicity and culture.
  2. B) topic about which the child is inquiring.
  3. C) informative value of adults’ answers.
  4. D) exposure they receive to different viewpoints.

 

Page Ref: 320 Box: Social Issues: Children’s Questions: Catalyst for Cognitive Development

 

Objective: 9.2

32)   In non-Western village cultures, young children

  1. A) seldom engage in question asking with adults.
  2. B) rarely ask why-questions, aimed at getting explanations.
  3. C) receive more informative answers from adults than do Western children.
  4. D) are discouraged from asking too many questions.

 

Page Ref: 320 Box: Social Issues: Children’s Questions: Catalyst for Cognitive Development

 

Objective: 9.2

33)   Evidence suggests that Piaget __________ preschoolers’ cognitive capabilities.

  1. A) was completely wrong about
  2. B) vastly overestimated
  3. C) accurately estimated
  4. D) was partly wrong and partly right about

 

Page Ref: 319

 

Objective: 9.2

34)   Evidence that logical operations develop gradually and that preschoolers can be trained to perform well on Piagetian tasks pose a serious challenge to Piaget’s

  1. A) stage concept.
  2. B) views of animistic thinking.
  3. C) three-mountains problem.
  4. D) concept of egocentrism.

 

Page Ref: 320–321

 

Objective: 9.2

35)   Some neo-Piagetian theorists combine Piaget’s stage approach with the __________ emphasis on task-specific changes.

  1. A) ecological systems
  2. B) information-processing
  3. C) dynamic systems
  4. D) Vygotskian

 

Page Ref: 321

 

Objective: 9.2

36)   Which of the following statements best describes a Piagetian classroom?

  1. A) Children participate in peer collaboration, which allows them to teach and help one another.
  2. B) The teacher assumes that all children reach developmental milestones at the same rate.
  3. C) Teaching practices highlight concepts such as scaffolding and the zone of proximal development.
  4. D) Children are encouraged to discover for themselves through spontaneous interaction with the environment.

 

Page Ref: 321

 

Objective: 9.3

37)   A Piagetian classroom that emphasizes discovery learning would probably include

  1. A) explicit verbal teaching of ready-made information.
  2. B) a rich variety of activities designed to promote exploration and discovery.
  3. C) introduction of new skills according to normative standards of readiness.
  4. D) progress evaluation on the basis of average performance of same-age peers.

 

Page Ref: 321

 

Objective: 9.3

38)   In his classroom, Mr. Palinco introduces activities that build on his students’ current thinking, challenging their incorrect ways of viewing the world, but he is careful not to impose new skills before the children indicate they are interested and ready. Mr. Palinco is adhering to which educational principle derived from Piaget’s theory?

  1. A) sensitivity to children’s readiness to learn
  2. B) assisted discovery
  3. C) discovery learning
  4. D) acceptance of individual differences

 

Page Ref: 322

 

Objective: 9.3

39)   Vygotsky’s theory stresses the __________ of cognitive development.

  1. A) physiology
  2. B) neuroplasticity
  3. C) social context
  4. D) egocentricity

 

Page Ref: 322

 

Objective: 9.4

40)   As Sunni plays, she says: “Where’s the cup? I want the cup. Oh, there it is. Now, I need the spoon.” Sunni is engaging in what researchers now call __________ speech.

  1. A) egocentric
  2. B) private
  3. C) inner
  4. D) social

 

Page Ref: 323

 

Objective: 9.4

41)   Research shows that young children use private speech

  1. A) because they have difficulty with perspective taking.
  2. B) when they are engaged in cooperative dialogues.
  3. C) when tasks are appropriately challenging.
  4. D) when they cannot find a conversational partner.

 

Page Ref: 323

 

Objective: 9.4

42)   Children who freely use private speech during a challenging activity __________ than their less talkative agemates.

  1. A) are less attentive
  2. B) show better task performance
  3. C) are less involved in the activity
  4. D) have more adjustment problems

 

Page Ref: 323

 

Objective: 9.4

43)   According to Vygotsky, which of the following is within a child’s zone of proximal development?

  1. A) a task that is too difficult for a child to accomplish alone or with the help of an adult
  2. B) a task that a child has recently mastered independently following the assistance of an adult
  3. C) a task that is too difficult for a child to do alone but possible with the help of others
  4. D) a task that a child figures out how to accomplish through her own independent activity

 

Page Ref: 323

 

Objective: 9.4

44)   Adults try to promote __________ when they translate their own insights in ways that are within a child’s grasp.

  1. A) transitive inference
  2. B) intersubjectivity
  3. C) guided participation
  4. D) scaffolding

 

Page Ref: 324

 

Objective: 9.4

45)   While filling in a connect-the-dots page, Amir hesitated. His father asked him, “What comes after 7? Start counting from 1 and see if that helps you remember.” Amir recited the numbers and remembered that 8 comes after 7. This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B) private speech.
  3. C) guided participation.
  4. D) assisted discovery.

 

Page Ref: 324

 

Objective: 9.4

46)   Barbara Rogoff suggests the term __________ to encompass children’s diverse opportunities to learn through involvement with others, applying it as a broader concept than __________.

  1. A) cooperative learning; peer collaboration
  2. B) intersubjectivity; cooperative learning
  3. C) guided participation; scaffolding
  4. D) scaffolding; a zone of proximal development

 

Page Ref: 324

 

Objective: 9.4

47)   In Mr. Naffie’s Vygotskian classroom, he guides children’s learning with explanations, demonstrations, and verbal prompts, tailoring his interventions to each child’s zone of proximal development. This is an example of the Vygotskian principle of

  1. A) peer collaboration.
  2. B) discovery learning.
  3. C) independent exploration.
  4. D) assisted discovery.

 

Page Ref: 325

 

Objective: 9.5

48)   Vygotskian classrooms are more likely to utilize __________ than Piagetian classrooms.

  1. A) peer collaboration
  2. B) independent discovery
  3. C) make-believe play
  4. D) discovery learning

 

Page Ref: 325

 

Objective: 9.5

49)   Vygotsky regarded make-believe play as

  1. A) a means of enhancing animistic thinking.
  2. B) the ideal social context for fostering cognitive development.
  3. C) instrumental to fostering independent discovery learning.
  4. D) opportunities to practice representational schemes.

 

Page Ref: 325

 

Objective: 9.5

50)   One challenge to Vygotsky’s theory is that

  1. A) it places too much emphasis on how memory contributes to socially transmitted higher cognitive processes.
  2. B) in some cultures, verbal dialogues are not the only means through which children learn.
  3. C) it does not differ enough from Piaget’s theory about the purpose of private speech.
  4. D) studies have shown that children taught in Vygotskian classrooms are delayed in their learning.

 

Page Ref: 325

 

Objective: 9.5

51)   Due to the large amounts of time children in village and tribal cultures spend in contact with adult work,

  1. A) assumption of adult roles is met with resistance from children.
  2. B) make-believe play is more complex and imaginative than in Western cultures.
  3. C) adults restrict children’s activities to ones that they feel the child can safely perform.
  4. D) parents have little need to rely on conversation and play to teach children.

 

Page Ref: 326 Box: Cultural Influences: Children in Village and Tribal Cultures Observe and Participate in Adult Work

 

Objective: 9.5

52)   Young Yucatec Mayan children

  1. A) rarely imitate adult work in their make-believe play.
  2. B) and Western children display impressive similarities in their make-believe play.
  3. C) decide for themselves how much to sleep and eat.
  4. D) tend to frequently display attention-getting behaviors.

 

Page Ref: 326 Box: Cultural Influences: Children in Village and Tribal Cultures Observe and Participate in Adult Work

 

Objective: 9.5

53)   Which of the following is a common criticism of Vygotsky’s theory?

  1. A) It underemphasizes the role of verbal communication in early childhood development.
  2. B) It overemphasizes the development of basic cognitive processes in early childhood.
  3. C) It places too much emphasis on how elementary capacities spark changes in children’s social experiences.
  4. D) It says too little about how basic cognitive skills contribute to socially transmitted higher cognitive processes.

 

Page Ref: 326

 

Objective: 9.5

54)   Gains in __________ permit preschoolers to generate increasingly complex play and problem-solving goals.

  1. A) planning ability
  2. B) working memory
  3. C) episodic memory
  4. D) metacognition

 

Page Ref: 327

 

Objective: 9.6

55)   Preschoolers whose parents offer suggestions, questions, and comments that help the child overcome frustration and sustain direction on a challenging task

  1. A) are more mature when reassessed a year or two later.
  2. B) have difficulty forming friendships in the early school years.
  3. C) tend to be delayed in problem solving and planning activities.
  4. D) are more socially mature than they are cognitively mature.

 

Page Ref: 328

 

Objective: 9.6

56)   Seven-year-old Lucia learns much from cultural tools that support __________, such as following directions when playing games with her friends and when she helps her mother cook from recipes.

  1. A) scaffolding
  2. B) planning
  3. C) metacognition
  4. D) recognition

 

Page Ref: 329

 

Objective: 9.6

57)   Even preschoolers with good language skills recall poorly because they are not skilled at using

  1. A) memory strategies.
  2. B) episodic memory.
  3. C) autobiographical memory.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 329

 

Objective: 9.6

58)   Scripts

  1. A) clutter long-term memory with irrelevant information.
  2. B) help children organize, interpret, and predict everyday experiences.
  3. C) hinder memory for events that are highly distinctive.
  4. D) facilitate recall of specific instances of repeated experiences.

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

59)   Lydia acts out her __________ of putting her baby brother to bed when she plays with her doll.

  1. A) theory of mind
  2. B) autobiographical memory
  3. C) script
  4. D) recognition memory

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

60)   After a trip to the zoo, 4-year-old Jaden is able to remember the animals he saw and the context in which he saw them. This is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B) recognition without recall.
  3. C) autobiographical memory.
  4. D) overlapping waves.

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

61)   Which of the following changes occurs in children’s autobiographical memories with age?

  1. A) Older children begin to use more generic, nondescript reports.
  2. B) With age, preschoolers increasingly include subjective information.
  3. C) Older children are able to remain objective when recounting the details of an event.
  4. D) Younger children are more likely to explain an event’s personal significance.

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

62)   After a field trip to the museum, Leslie asks her son, “What was the first thing we did? Why weren’t the trains moving? I thought that the pink airplane was really big. What did you think?” Leslie is using a(n) __________ style to elicit her son’s autobiographical memory.

  1. A) deliberative
  2. B) repetitive
  3. C) reconstructive
  4. D) elaborative

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

63)   After a trip to the supermarket, Raj asks his daughter, “Do you remember the supermarket? What did we do at the supermarket? What food did we buy at the supermarket?” Raj is using a(n) __________ style to elicit his daughter’s autobiographical memory.

  1. A) deliberate
  2. B) repetitive
  3. C) reconstructive
  4. D) elaborative

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

64)   Compared with Asian children, Western children produce narratives

  1. A) that contain more contradictory information.
  2. B) far less often, and usually about impersonal topics.
  3. C) without regard for their audience’s interest level.
  4. D) with more talk about their own thoughts and emotions.

 

Page Ref: 330

 

Objective: 9.6

65)   According to __________ theory, when given challenging problems, children try out various strategies and observe which work best, which work less well, and which are ineffective.

  1. A) overlapping-waves
  2. B) metacognitive
  3. C) false-belief
  4. D) mindblindness

 

Page Ref: 331

 

Objective: 9.6

66)   Overlapping-waves theory emphasizes that

  1. A) children should be discouraged from experimenting with less mature strategies.
  2. B) children will gradually select their strategies on the basis of two criteria: accuracy and ease.
  3. C) trying many strategies is vital for developing new, more effective solution techniques.
  4. D) in early childhood, children’s brains are poorly organized for problem-solving tasks.

 

Page Ref: 332

 

Objective: 9.6

67)   Theory of mind research indicates that by age 2, children realize that

  1. A) both beliefs and desires determine behavior.
  2. B) thinking takes place inside their heads.
  3. C) people can hold false beliefs.
  4. D) others’ wants and needs can differ from their own.

 

Page Ref: 332

 

Objective: 9.7

68)   Greta has just been shown two boxes—a plain, unmarked box full of raisins and a familiar marked raisin box that is empty. Next, Greta is asked to predict where another child will look for raisins. This task assesses Greta’s understanding of

  1. A) class inclusion.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) false belief.

 

Page Ref: 332

 

Objective: 9.7

69)   Mastery of false belief is associated with early __________ ability.

  1. A) reading
  2. B) mathematical
  3. C) writing
  4. D) speaking

 

Page Ref: 333

 

Objective: 9.7

70)   Children with autism

  1. A) only use words to exchange ideas.
  2. B) have narrow and overly intense interests.
  3. C) engage in more make-believe play than typically developing children.
  4. D) show extremely rapid synaptic pruning.

 

Page Ref: 335 Box: Biology and Environment: Autism and Theory of Mind

 

Objective: 9.7

71)   Compared with typically developing children, children with autism

  1. A) more often engage in social referencing.
  2. B) are better at distinguishing facial expressions.
  3. C) more often imitate an adult’s novel behaviors.
  4. D) rarely use mental-state words such as think, feel, and know.

 

Page Ref: 335 Box: Biology and Environment: Autism and Theory of Mind

 

Objective: 9.7

72)   Some researchers think that autism is due to

  1. A) impairment in an innate, core brain function that leaves the child unable to detect others’ mental states.
  2. B) mercury commonly found in recommended childhood vaccinations.
  3. C) mutations in the child’s genetic code, usually inherited through the father’s genes.
  4. D) a diet during the prenatal period and the first year that was lacking in essential vitamins and proteins.

 

Page Ref: 335 Box: Biology and Environment: Autism and Theory of Mind

 

Objective: 9.7

73)   Chen, a preschooler, is most likely to view the mind as a(n)

  1. A) active machine.
  2. B) constructive agent that interprets information.
  3. C) passive container of information.
  4. D) constantly spinning wheel.

 

Page Ref: 336

 

Objective: 9.7

74)   Three-year-old Stacy pretends to make a grocery list while in the car on the way to the grocery store. This activity reflects Stacy’s

  1. A) emergent literacy.
  2. B) animistic thinking.
  3. C) private speech.
  4. D) phonological awareness.

 

Page Ref: 336

 

Objective: 9.8

75)   Which of the following statements about children’s emergent literacy is true?

  1. A) Many preschoolers think that each letter in a person’s signature represents a separate name.
  2. B) Most preschoolers realize that a single letter does not stand for a whole word.
  3. C) As early as the preschool years, children are able to distinguish between drawing and writing.
  4. D) Emergent literacy is something that must be explicitly taught to preschool-age children.

 

Page Ref: 336

 

Objective: 9.8

76)   Anneli’s 4-year-old daughter manipulates sounds within words and enjoys rhyming games. Anneli’s daughter is demonstrating

  1. A) phonological awareness.
  2. B)
  3. C) private speech.
  4. D) knowledge of cardinality.

 

Page Ref: 336

 

Objective: 9.8

77)   __________, in which adults discuss storybook content with preschoolers, promotes many aspects of language and literacy development.

  1. A) Literary discourse
  2. B) Joint reading
  3. C) Interactive reading
  4. D) Immersive reading

 

Page Ref: 337

 

Objective: 9.8

78)   Because low-SES children are read to for an average of just 25 hours over the preschool years,

  1. A) their social skills do not develop at the same pace as their middle- and high-SES counterparts.
  2. B) most low-SES children enter kindergarten with little idea of what reading and writing is.
  3. C) parents report higher stress levels when helping their children with homework during the school years.
  4. D) they are behind in emergent literacy skills and in reading achievement throughout the school years.

 

Page Ref: 337

 

Objective: 9.8

79)   Eighteen-month-old Jazmin is offered sets of animal crackers. Each set contains 1, 2, or 4 crackers. Jazmin consistently picks the set with the most pieces, displaying a beginning grasp of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 337

 

Objective: 9.8

80)   Four-year-old Jack is a snack helper. He counts five children at his table and then retrieves five milk cartons. Jack is displaying an understanding of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 338

 

Objective: 9.8

81)   Four-year-old Paytin is shown a plate of cookies. She is told that there are 10 cookies on the plate. She watches as several cookies are added to or removed from the plate. Paytin’s sensible prediction as to how many cookies are left on the plate displays her understanding of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 339

 

Objective: 9.8

82)   An early childhood math curriculum called __________ uses materials that promote math concepts and skills through three types of media: computers, manipulatives, and print.

  1. A) Helping Our Math Evolve (HOME)
  2. B) Mini Mathletes
  3. C) Little Einsteins
  4. D) Building Blocks

 

Page Ref: 339

 

Objective: 9.8

83)   Research using the Home Observation for Measurement of the Environment (HOME) indicates that

  1. A) preschoolers who develop well intellectually have homes rich in educational toys and books.
  2. B) preschoolers who develop well intellectually have parents who resolve conflicts with punishment.
  3. C) HOME scores predict academic achievement better than IQ scores.
  4. D) the organization of the physical environment predicts IQ gains only among high-SES children.

 

Page Ref: 340

 

Objective: 9.9

84)   In Haylee’s preschool classroom, teachers provide activities in learning centers from which children select, and much learning takes place through play. Haylee’s preschool is

  1. A) actually a child-care center.
  2. B) an academic program.
  3. C) a child-centered program.
  4. D) unlikely to foster school readiness.

 

Page Ref: 341

 

Objective: 9.9

85)   Evidence suggests that formal academic training during early childhood

  1. A) produces children who have more confidence in their academic abilities.
  2. B) produces children who display fewer stress behaviors, such as wiggling and rocking.
  3. C) enhances children’s study habits throughout the school years.
  4. D) undermines young children’s motivation and emotional well-being.

 

Page Ref: 341

 

Objective: 9.9

86)   Montessori schools

  1. A) include multiage classrooms and teaching materials specially designed to promote exploration and discovery.
  2. B) undermine young children’s motivation and emotional well-being.
  3. C) emphasize formal academic training and deemphasize social development.
  4. D) include repetition and drill by teachers who structure children’s learning.

 

Page Ref: 342

 

Objective: 9.9

87)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on Head Start?

  1. A) Gains for Head Start participants are similar, though not as strong as for participants of university-based programs.
  2. B) All eligible preschool-age children in the United States and Canada receive Head Start services.
  3. C) Head Start and other similar interventions are not very cost effective.
  4. D) Parental involvement in Head Start has minimal impact on children’s development.

 

Page Ref: 343

 

Objective: 9.9

88)   The Head Start REDI (Research-based Developmentally Informed) program yields higher year-end language, literacy, and social development scores than typical Head Start classrooms because

  1. A) children who enroll in REDI programs are higher-SES.
  2. B) parents who enroll their children in REDI programs are more involved.
  3. C) it reduces the pressure typical Head Start classrooms put on children to learn.
  4. D) of its powerful impact on teaching quality.

 

Page Ref: 344

 

Objective: 9.9

89)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on child care?

  1. A) Even high-quality early intervention does not enhance the development of economically disadvantaged children.
  2. B) Preschoolers exposed to substandard child care, particularly for long hours, display more behavior problems.
  3. C) Psychological well-being improves when children experience several child-care settings.
  4. D) The emotional problems of temperamentally difficult preschoolers improve dramatically in child care.

 

Page Ref: 344

 

Objective: 9.9

90)   __________ child care is more strongly associated with cognitive gains than are other child-care arrangements.

  1. A) Center-based
  2. B) Home-based
  3. C) Academic-centered
  4. D) Family-run

 

Page Ref: 345

 

Objective: 9.9

91)   Television programs with __________ are associated with improved executive function, greater recall of program content, gains in vocabulary and reading skills, and more elaborate make-believe play.

  1. A) action-packed storytelling
  2. B) quick, disconnected bits of information
  3. C) slow-paced and easy-to-follow narratives
  4. D) a spoken summary of the lessons learned at the end

 

Page Ref: 346

 

Objective: 9.9

92)   Which of the following children is most likely to be a more frequent TV viewer?

  1. A) Allen, whose parents both work full time
  2. B) Kayleigh, who is the youngest of 4 children
  3. C) Joaquin, who is enrolled in child care
  4. D) Catherine, who is low SES

 

Page Ref: 346

 

Objective: 9.9

93)   Which of the following statements about preschoolers’ computer use is true?

  1. A) The majority of 2- to 4-year-olds have used a computer at one time or another, with more than two-thirds doing so regularly.
  2. B) Because computers can have educational benefits, most early childhood classrooms include computer-learning centers.
  3. C) Children under the age of 4 should never be permitted to use a computer, as no educational programs exist for their age group.
  4. D) Parental reports suggest that about half of U.S. preschoolers play computer-based games so frequently that it has become a problem.

 

Page Ref: 347

 

Objective: 9.9

94)   Jay introduced a new ball to his 2-year-old daughter, Kandi. He said, “I’m throwing the wiffle ball to you!” He then threw the new ball to Kandi. Kandi said, “Catch, wiffle, catch!” Kandi’s connection of the term “wiffle” to the ball is an example of

  1. A)
  2. B) syntactic bootstrapping.
  3. C) fast-mapping.
  4. D) semantic bootstrapping.

 

Page Ref: 348

 

Objective: 9.10

95)   Young children learning Chinese, Japanese, and Korean acquire __________ more readily than their English-speaking agemates.

  1. A) proper nouns
  2. B) verbs
  3. C) object nouns
  4. D) modifiers

 

Page Ref: 348

 

Objective: 9.10

96)   According to the principle of mutual exclusivity bias, toddlers

  1. A) assume that objects have multiple labels.
  2. B) connect new words with their underlying concepts after only a brief encounter.
  3. C) assume that words refer to entirely separate, nonoverlapping categories.
  4. D) discover the structure of sentences by relying on the meanings of words.

 

Page Ref: 349

 

Objective: 9.10

97)   Sarah’s mom told her they were going outside in the rain and needed a bumbershoot. Sarah had never heard the word bumbershoot before, but she knew the word umbrella. Sarah tries to figure out what the new word means, and eventually she decides that a bumbershoot must be an umbrella. Sarah must abandon her __________ to reach this conclusion.

  1. A) cardinality principle
  2. B) shape bias
  3. C) overregularization principle
  4. D) mutual exclusivity bias

 

Page Ref: 349

 

Objective: 9.10

98)   According to __________, preschoolers discover many word meanings by observing how words are used in the structure of sentences.

  1. A) fast-mapping
  2. B) semantic bootstrapping
  3. C) mutual exclusivity
  4. D) syntactic bootstrapping

 

Page Ref: 349

 

Objective: 9.10

99)   Children acquire vocabulary so efficiently and accurately that some theorists believe that

  1. A) principles such as mutual exclusivity bias have no bearing on language development.
  2. B) it is governed by different cognitive strategies than those applied to nonlinguistic information.
  3. C) children reject a coalition of perceptual, social, and linguistic cues in favor of rote learning.
  4. D) they are innately biased to induce word meanings using certain principles.

 

Page Ref: 350

 

Objective: 9.10

100)  Between ages 2 and 3, English-speaking children use simple sentences that follow a(n) __________ word order.

  1. A) verb–subject–object
  2. B) subject–verb–object
  3. C) object–verb–subject
  4. D) verb–object–subject

 

Page Ref: 350

 

Objective: 9.10

101)  Two-year-old Camden finds only one of her shoes. She says, “I need two shoes. I have two foots!” Camden’s error is an example of

  1. A) semantic bootstrapping.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 351

 

Objective: 9.10

102)  According to the __________ approach, young children rely on word meanings to figure out grammatical rules.

  1. A) fast-mapping
  2. B) semantic bootstrapping
  3. C) mutual exclusivity
  4. D) syntactic bootstrapping

 

Page Ref: 351

 

Objective: 9.10

103)  Research on pragmatics shows that by age 2, most children

  1. A) adjust their speech to fit the age, sex, and social status of their listeners.
  2. B) take turns in face-to-face interactions and respond appropriately.
  3. C) are able to maintain a topic over long periods of time.
  4. D) adapt their language to social expectations.

 

Page Ref: 352

 

Objective: 9.10

104)  When Sadie says, “I goed to the store,” her mother replies, “Yes, you went to the store.” Sadie’s mother’s response is an example of

  1. A) fast-mapping.
  2. B) a recast.
  3. C) an overregularization.
  4. D) an expansion.

 

Page Ref: 353

 

Objective: 9.11

105)  When Moses says, “My ball is a circle,” his father relies, “Yes, your basketball is round, just like a circle.” Moses’s father’s response is an example of

  1. A) fast-mapping.
  2. B) a recast.
  3. C) an overregularization.
  4. D) an expansion.

 

Page Ref: 353

 

Objective: 9.11

ESSAY

106)  Bethany, age 3, spends, a large amount of time engaged in make-believe play. Her parents are especially concerned because Bethany has a pair of imaginary mice that she talks to and talks about. Bethany’s grandmother believes that this is a sign of maladjustment. What can you tell Bethany’s parents and grandmother that might ease their minds?

107)  Explain what Piaget’s famous conservation tasks reveal about preoperational children’s thinking.

 

108)  Describe a Piagetian classroom. What educational principles derived from Piaget’s theory continue to influence teacher training and classroom practices?

109)  How are a Piagetian and Vygotskian classroom similar? How do they differ?

110)  What are scripts? How do they contribute to young children’s memory development?

111)  List strategies for supporting emergent literacy in early childhood, and explain why each strategy is useful.

112)  Mr. and Mrs. Harken are looking for a developmentally appropriate early childhood program for their son Max. Describe for the Harkens what they should look for in terms of physical setting, caregiver–child ratio, teacher qualifications, and daily activities.

113)  What are the benefits and drawbacks of children’s computer usage in the preschool and early school years?

114)  Explain how adults can foster preschoolers’ language development.

 

Chapter 10
Emotional and social development
in early childhood

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   According to Erikson, once children have a sense of autonomy, they become

  1. A) filled with doubt and shame.
  2. B) aware of their own psychological conflict.
  3. C) less contrary than they were as toddlers.
  4. D) unmotivated to perform unfamiliar tasks.

 

Page Ref: 357

 

Objective: 10.1

2)   According to Erikson, the psychological conflict of the preschool years is

  1. A) trust versus mistrust.
  2. B) industry versus inferiority.
  3. C) initiative versus guilt.
  4. D) autonomy versus shame.

 

Page Ref: 357

 

Objective: 10.1

3)   Erikson regarded play as a means through which

  1. A) children escape from the demands of their lives into a fantasy world.
  2. B) preschoolers symbolically represent their unconscious wishes and desires.
  3. C) children seek to avoid punishment and maintain the affection of parents.
  4. D) young children learn about themselves and their social world.

 

Page Ref: 358

 

Objective: 10.1

4)   When children are threatened, criticized, and punished excessively by adults, they

  1. A) renew their efforts to master new tasks.
  2. B) feel too much guilt and their exuberant play breaks down.
  3. C) lose the ability to form a sense of morality.
  4. D) form a superego by identifying with the same-sex parent.

 

5)   Three-year-old Sara says, “I have three dolls. I have brown hair. I made a tall tower.” This demonstrates that Sara is beginning to develop

  1. A) self-esteem.
  2. B) a self-concept.
  3. C) a gender identity.
  4. D) gender typing.

 

Page Ref: 358

 

Objective: 10.2

6)   Preschoolers’ self-concepts largely consist of

  1. A)
  2. B) personality traits.
  3. C) observable characteristics.
  4. D) temperamental qualities.

 

Page Ref: 358

 

Objective: 10.2

7)   If you asked 3-year-old Xander to tell you about himself, which of the following is he most likely to say?

  1. A) “I have a blue raincoat.”
  2. B) “I am funny but shy.”
  3. C) “I don’t like spaghetti.”
  4. D) “I’m scared of the mean dog.”

 

Page Ref: 358

 

Objective: 10.2

8)   If you asked 4-year-old Keisha to describe herself, which of the following is she most likely to say?

  1. A) “I am friendly.”
  2. B) “I am smart.”
  3. C) “I am helpful.”
  4. D) “I do not like bugs.”

 

Page Ref: 358

 

Objective: 10.2

9)   __________ seems to foster a more positive, coherent early self-concept.

  1. A) Early birth order
  2. B) A warm, sensitive parent–child relationship
  3. C) Permissive parenting
  4. D) Authoritarian parenting

 

10)   Elsie describes herself by saying, “I’m not afraid of the dark, no way!” Elsie probably

  1. A) is between the ages of 3 and 4 years old.
  2. B) has an insecure attachment to one or both of her parents.
  3. C) has parents who reminisce with her about times when they resolved upsetting feelings.
  4. D) is lying about her fear of the dark.

 

Page Ref: 359

 

Objective: 10.2

11)   Jun, a Chinese child, pushed a playmate at the park. Which of the following sentences is his mother most likely to use while discussing the incident with her son?

  1. A) “The playmate wasn’t hurt, so no harm done.”
  2. B) “You have such as boisterous personality.”
  3. C) “You made the other boy sad by pushing him.”
  4. D) “It’s okay as long as you didn’t intend harm.”

 

Page Ref: 360 Box: Cultural Influences: Cultural Variations in Personal Storytelling: Implications for Early Self-Concept

 

Objective: 10.2

12)   Research examining cultural variations in personal storytelling revealed that

  1. A) Irish-American parents often told stories about the child’s misdeeds.
  2. B) Chinese parents downplayed the child’s misdeeds, attributing them to assertiveness.
  3. C) Chinese parents did little to cultivate their child’s individuality.
  4. D) Irish-American parents generally saw self-esteem as unimportant or even negative.

 

Page Ref: 360 Box: Cultural Influences: Cultural Variations in Personal Storytelling: Implications for Early Self-Concept

 

Objective: 10.2

13)   Because preschoolers have difficulty distinguishing between their desired and their actual competence, they

  1. A) tend to overestimate the difficulty of tasks.
  2. B) suffer from a constant fluctuation in self-esteem.
  3. C) usually rate their own ability as extremely high.
  4. D) give up easily when faced with a challenging task.

 

Page Ref: 360

 

Objective: 10.2

14)   By age 3, children with a history of parental criticism

  1. A) give up easily when faced with challenges.
  2. B) are usually nonemotional after failing.
  3. C) are nonetheless enthusiastic and highly motivated.
  4. D) seek approval and anticipate it.

 

15)   __________ is vital for successful peer relationships and overall mental health.

  1. A) Individualism
  2. B) Emotional competence
  3. C) Collectivism
  4. D) Mental representation

 

Page Ref: 361

 

Objective: 10.3

16)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on emotional understanding?

  1. A) Many 4- to 5-year-olds cannot correctly judge the causes of basic emotions.
  2. B) By age 3, children appreciate that both desires and beliefs motivate behavior.
  3. C) Preschoolers’ explanations of emotional states tend to emphasize external factors.
  4. D) Preschoolers poorly infer how others are feeling based on their behavior.

 

Page Ref: 361

 

Objective: 10.3

17)   Which of the following statements about emotional understanding is true?

  1. A) Preschoolers whose mothers negotiate during conflicts with them show delayed emotional understanding.
  2. B) Attachment security is related to more elaborate parent–child discussions of feelings that highlight the emotional significance of past events.
  3. C) With age, preschoolers engage in less emotion talk with siblings and friends.
  4. D) The less preschoolers refer to feelings when interacting with peers, the better they are liked by their peers.

 

Page Ref: 362

 

Objective: 10.3

18)   At a parade, 3-year-old Kyle puts his fingers in his ears when he hears the fire trucks coming down the street. Kyle is displaying

  1. A)
  2. B) situational empathy.
  3. C) social problem solving.
  4. D) emotional self-regulation.

 

Page Ref: 362

 

Objective: 10.3

19)   Four-year-old D’Andre is upset when his friends exclude him from a game. D’Andre sits in the sandbox alone and plays with the dump truck instead. D’Andre is displaying

  1. A) effortful control.
  2. B) situational empathy.
  3. C)
  4. D) altruistic behavior.

 

20)   __________ is/are vital in managing emotion in early childhood.

  1. A) Social interaction
  2. B) Self-conscious emotions
  3. C) Phobias
  4. D) Effortful control

 

Page Ref: 362

 

Objective: 10.3

21)   When portraying an emotion they do not feel, children of all ages find it easier to act __________ than __________.

  1. A) sad; pleased
  2. B) pleased; angry
  3. C) disgusted; angry
  4. D) angry; pleased

 

Page Ref: 363

 

Objective: 10.3

22)   By age 3,

  1. A) self-conscious emotions are clearly linked to self-evaluation.
  2. B) children no longer depend on adults to know when to feel self-conscious emotions.
  3. C) children are not yet sensitive to praise and blame.
  4. D) children have not yet developed the capacity to feel guilty or ashamed.

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

23)   As Chandra pours herself some juice, she misses the cup and spills juice on the table. Her father chides her for being a bad girl and making a mess. Chandra is likely to

  1. A) show moderate, adaptive levels of shame and pride.
  2. B) experience self-conscious emotions intensely.
  3. C) be more persistent on difficult tasks.
  4. D) show decreased rates of shame as she grows older.

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

24)   When parents focus on showing their child how to improve performance, that child experiences

  1. A) less shame after failure.
  2. B) less pride after success.
  3. C) greater persistence on difficult tasks.
  4. D) self-conscious emotions intensely.

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

25)   When guilt occurs in appropriate circumstances and is not accompanied by shame, it is related to

  1. A) ineffective parenting.
  2. B) good adjustment.
  3. C) poor emotional self-regulatory skills.
  4. D) an insecure attachment.

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

26)   When her friend, Reagan, loses her favorite toy, 4-year-old Nahla puts her arm around Reagan and offers to give Reagan a cookie from her lunch. Nahla’s emotional response to Reagan’s loss exhibits

  1. A) personal distress.
  2. B) effortful control.
  3. C) emotional self-regulation.
  4. D) altruistic behavior.

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

27)   __________ plays a role in whether empathy prompts sympathetic, prosocial behavior or a personally distressed, self-focused response.

  1. A) Effortful control
  2. B) Emotional masking
  3. C) Temperament
  4. D) Birth order

 

Page Ref: 364

 

Objective: 10.3

28)   When parents are __________, their children are likely to react with concern to others’ distress.

  1. A) warm and sensitive
  2. B) permissive
  3. C) authoritarian
  4. D) devoid of emotional expressiveness

 

Page Ref: 365

 

Objective: 10.3

29)   Angry, punitive parenting

  1. A) generally does not affect children who are poor emotion regulators.
  2. B) will foster a heightened sense of empathy and sympathy in children.
  3. C) disrupts the development of empathy at an early age.
  4. D) can be linked to an increase in altruistic behavior through adolescence.

 

Page Ref: 365

 

Objective: 10.3

30)   Four-year-old Christopher has authoritarian parents who sometimes physically abuse him. When his friend Joaquin has a bad day and cries, Christopher is most likely to react with

  1. A) sympathetic concern.
  2. B) anxiety and distress.
  3. C) fear and anger.
  4. D) strong feelings of empathy.

 

Page Ref: 365

 

Objective: 10.3

31)   Cousins Easton and Jack are both infants. Sometimes Easton watches Jack while he rolls on the floor. However, both babies engage in solitary play. This is known as

  1. A) parallel play.
  2. B) cooperative play.
  3. C) associative play.
  4. D) nonsocial activity.

 

Page Ref: 365–366

 

Objective: 10.4

32)   Twins Jillian and Wesley, 11 months old, play near each other with similar materials. However, they do not try to direct each other’s activities. They are engaged in

  1. A) parallel play.
  2. B) cooperative play.
  3. C) associative play.
  4. D) nonsocial activity.

 

Page Ref: 366

 

Objective: 10.4

33)   In the sandbox, Amelia makes a pie while Franklin pours sand from one container to another. The children talk and pass tools back and forth. They are engaged in

  1. A) parallel play.
  2. B) cooperative play.
  3. C) associative play.
  4. D) nonsocial activity.

 

Page Ref: 366

 

Objective: 10.4

34)   Longitudinal evidence indicates that

  1. A) play forms do not emerge in a universally ordered sequence.
  2. B) later-appearing play forms do not replace earlier ones.
  3. C) children who spend many hours in nonsocial activity are at risk of behavior problems.
  4. D) most children achieve either associative or cooperative play, but not both.

 

Page Ref: 366

 

Objective: 10.4

35)   __________ is the most frequent form of play among 3- to 4-year-olds.

  1. A) Cooperative play
  2. B) Associative play
  3. C) Parallel play
  4. D) Nonsocial activity

 

Page Ref: 366

 

Objective: 10.4

36)   Three-year-old Sasha makes a structure out of toy blocks. Sasha is engaging in __________ play.

  1. A) make-believe
  2. B) parallel
  3. C) constructive
  4. D) functional

 

Page Ref: 367

 

Objective: 10.4

37)   Which of the following play behaviors is a cause for concern in a child?

  1. A) spending long periods of time in solitary play
  2. B) aimless wandering and hovering near peers
  3. C) simple, repetitive motor movements without objects
  4. D) kneading clay with no intent to make something

 

Page Ref: 366

 

Objective: 10.4

38)   Whicb of the following reticent and passive peers is most likely to be accepted by his or her peers?

  1. A) Gabrielle, a Caucasian-American girl
  2. B) Katy, a Japanese-American girl
  3. C) Andrew, a British boy
  4. D) Yi Min, a Chinese boy

 

Page Ref: 367

 

Objective: 10.4

39)   Four- to 7-year-olds regard friendship as

  1. A) an understanding of thoughts and feelings.
  2. B) pleasurable play and sharing of toys.
  3. C) based on mutual trust.
  4. D) long-term and enduring.

 

Page Ref: 368

 

Objective: 10.4

40)   Research on preschool friendships reveals that

  1. A) friendships in early childhood tend to last an average of 4 to 7 years.
  2. B) only about one-fourth of young children reciprocally name each other as best friends.
  3. C) more than one-third of young children mention the same best friend from one year to the next.
  4. D) young preschoolers are more likely than older preschoolers to have other-sex best friends.

 

Page Ref: 368

 

Objective: 10.4

41)   Research on friendships shows that

  1. A) preschoolers interact in essentially the same ways with both friends and nonfriends.
  2. B) preschoolers give the same amount of reinforcement to nonfriends as to friends.
  3. C) most friendships during the preschool years are based on mutual trust.
  4. D) children who begin kindergarten with friends in their class adjust to school more favorably.

 

Page Ref: 368

 

Objective: 10.4

42)   Due to its contribution to later academic performance, readiness for kindergarten must be assessed in terms of not only academic skills but also

  1. A) language skills.
  2. B) social skills.
  3. C) emotional understanding.
  4. D) effortful control.

 

Page Ref: 369

 

Objective: 10.4

43)   Nicki Crick and Kenneth Dodge’s circular model showing the steps of social problem solving takes a(n) __________ approach.

  1. A) Piagetian
  2. B) information-processing
  3. C) Vygotskian
  4. D) ethological

 

Page Ref: 370

 

Objective: 10.4

44)   Children who get along well with agemates tend to

  1. A) request an explanation when they do not understand a peer’s behavior.
  2. B) attend selectively to social cues.
  3. C) hover around peers’ activities.
  4. D) barge into play groups without asking.

 

Page Ref: 370

 

Objective: 10.4

45)   Five- to 7-year-olds tend to rely on __________ when negotiating with peers.

  1. A) adult intervention
  2. B) persuasion and compromise
  3. C) group consensus
  4. D) impulse satisfaction

 

Page Ref: 370

 

Objective: 10.4

46)   Research shows that interventions designed to teach social problem solving

  1. A) do not benefit children from lower-SES homes.
  2. B) often disrupt existing peer relationships.
  3. C) offer children a sense of mastery in the face of stressful life events.
  4. D) do not reduce the risk of adjustment difficulties for children from troubled families.

 

Page Ref: 370–371

 

Objective: 10.4

47)   One of the best ways for Johann’s mom to promote peer interaction skills is for her to

  1. A) provide opportunities for Johann to play with peers.
  2. B) avoid arranging frequent play dates that may overwhelm Johann.
  3. C) avoid providing specific suggestions to Johann on how to interact with other children.
  4. D) prevent Johann from interacting with children with whom he has conflicts.

 

Page Ref: 371

 

Objective: 10.4

48)   Which of the following types of parent–child play is most strongly linked to social competence in the child?

  1. A) parent-directed play
  2. B) mother–son play
  3. C) mother–daughter play
  4. D) father–daughter play

 

Page Ref: 371

 

Objective: 10.4

49)   As children reach age 2, they

  1. A) often use language to evaluate their own and others’ actions.
  2. B) begin to engage in sociodramatic play.
  3. C) often describe themselves in terms of typical emotions.
  4. D) can correctly judge the causes of many basic emotions.

 

Page Ref: 372

 

Objective: 10.5

50)   Most theories agree that

  1. A) a child’s morality is regulated by inner standards from birth.
  2. B) truly moral individuals do the right thing to conform to others’ expectations.
  3. C) at first, a child’s morality is externally controlled by adults.
  4. D) conscience does not begin to take shape until age 7.

 

Page Ref: 372

 

Objective: 10.5

51)   Which of the following statements about the psychoanalytic perspective and the development of morality is true?

  1. A) Freud believed that young children form a superego by internalizing the other-sex parent’s moral standards.
  2. B) Most researchers today agree with Freud’s view of conscience development.
  3. C) In Freud’s theory, fear of punishment and loss of parental love motivate moral behavior.
  4. D) Freud believed that moral development is largely complete by 10 to 12 years of age.

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

52)   The fact that children __________ provides evidence that Freud’s account of conscience development is inaccurate.

  1. A) whose parents frequently use threats or physical force tend to feel little guilt following transgressions
  2. B) whose parents frequently use threats or physical force tend to feel overwhelming guilt when they violate standards
  3. C) who feel little guilt frequently have loving and nurturing parents
  4. D) who grow up in abusive households tend to violate standards infrequently

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

53)   Which of the following statements about inductive discipline is true?

  1. A) Induction gives children information about how to behave that they can use in future situations.
  2. B) Induction deemphasizes the impact of the child’s actions on others.
  3. C) Freud endorsed the use of induction after the superego had fully developed.
  4. D) Children who consistently experience induction may form an insecure attachment to their caregivers.

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

54)   When practicing induction, warnings, disapproval, and commands are

  1. A) strictly forbidden.
  2. B) sometimes necessary.
  3. C) often inconducive to the inductive message.
  4. D) poorly received by the child.

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

55)   Conscience formation is promoted by __________ discipline.

  1. A) child-directed
  2. B) authoritarian
  3. C) permissive
  4. D) inductive

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

56)   Which of the following disciplinary statements is the most likely to promote prosocial behavior?

  1. A) “Pushing your sister is not okay.”
  2. B) “Your sister is crying because you pushed her and she fell down.”
  3. C) “You should be ashamed of yourself. Good girls do not push.”
  4. D) “Only bad girls push their sisters.”

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

57)   Twin studies suggest a(n) __________ genetic contribution to empathy.

  1. A) minimal
  2. B) modest
  3. C) somewhat high
  4. D) elevated

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

58)   Mild, patient tactics are sufficient to prompt conscience development in __________ children.

  1. A) all
  2. B) fearless
  3. C) impulsive
  4. D) anxious

 

Page Ref: 373

 

Objective: 10.5

59)   Parents of impulsive children can foster conscience development by

  1. A) using requests, suggestions, and explanations.
  2. B) combining firm correction of misbehavior with induction.
  3. C) using gentle discipline that incorporates frequent rule reminders.
  4. D) asserting their power whenever the opportunity presents itself.

 

Page Ref: 374

 

Objective: 10.5

60)   Three-year-old Cassandra has very low anxiety and is rarely uncomfortable with parental disapproval. What advice might you give her parents?

  1. A) Cassandra needs to be punished for every transgression.
  2. B) Power assertion is the best method to teach Cassandra morality.
  3. C) A close parent–child bond motivates children to listen to parents.
  4. D) Teaching Cassandra to feel shame will lead to the quickest morality development.

 

Page Ref: 374

 

Objective: 10.5

61)   When Erin takes her brother’s book away and makes him cry, Erin’s father says, “Your brother is crying because you took his book away. Your behavior disappointed me.” Erin’s father is using __________ as a means of influencing Erin.

  1. A) coercion
  2. B) empathy-based guilt
  3. C) fear of loss of parental love
  4. D) shame

 

Page Ref: 374

 

Objective: 10.5

62)   According to social learning theorists,

  1. A) morality has a unique course of development.
  2. B) reinforcement for good behavior is enough for children to acquire moral responses.
  3. C) children learn to behave morally largely through modeling.
  4. D) positive reinforcement for a child’s character decreases a behavior’s frequency.

 

Page Ref: 374

 

Objective: 10.5

63)   Warmth and responsiveness, competence and power, and consistency between assertions and behavior are all

  1. A) characteristics of a model that increase a child’s willingness to imitate the model’s behavior.
  2. B) characteristics of emotional development that are necessary for moral behavior to occur.
  3. C) important characteristics that are necessary for inductive discipline to be effective.
  4. D) characteristics of a prosocial child who has learned empathy-based guilt.

 

Page Ref: 374–375

 

Objective: 10.5

64)   Models are most influential in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) middle childhood.
  4. D) the early years.

 

Page Ref: 375

 

Objective: 10.5

65)   Frequent punishment promotes

  1. A) immediate compliance but not lasting changes in behavior.
  2. B) emotional well-being throughout early and middle childhood.
  3. C) more efficient emotional-regulation skills.
  4. D) strong internalization of moral rules.

 

Page Ref: 375

 

Objective: 10.5

66)   Which of the following statements about harsh punishment is true?

  1. A) About 53 percent of preschoolers experience harsh punishment regularly.
  2. B) Children who are punished frequently develop a more conflict-ridden parent–child relationship.
  3. C) Individuals whose parents used corporal punishment are less accepting of such discipline.
  4. D) Corporal punish is most commonly used in economically advantaged homes.

 

Page Ref: 375

 

Objective: 10.5

67)   Research on the consequences on punishment reveals that

  1. A) most white children may view spanking as a practice carried out with their best interests in mind.
  2. B) physical punishment is positively associated with adolescent aggression and antisocial behavior in black children.
  3. C) most black children may regard spanking as an act of personal aggression.
  4. D) white parents usually consider physical punishment to be wrong.

 

Page Ref: 377 Box: Cultural Influences: Ethnic Differences in the Consequences of Physical Punishment

 

Objective: 10.5

68)   Research on punishment shows that spanking is

  1. A) associated with a rise in behavior problems regardless of the parents’ child-rearing style.
  2. B) viewed by most white children as a practice carried out with their best interests in mind.
  3. C) associated with a rise in behavior problems if parents are cold and rejecting but not if they are warm and supportive.
  4. D) a more effective form of discipline than time out and withdrawal of privileges.

 

Page Ref: 377 Box: Cultural Influences: Ethnic Differences in the Consequences of Physical Punishment

 

Objective: 10.5

69)   Sending a child to her room for a few minutes

  1. A) is useful when a child is out of control.
  2. B) often generates much resentment in children.
  3. C) is less effective than punishment in producing the desired behavior.
  4. D) is the most effective form of discipline.

 

Page Ref: 376

 

Objective: 10.5

70)   When parents use punishment, they can increase its effectiveness by

  1. A) using the same punishment regardless of the transgression.
  2. B) permitting the child to act inappropriately at home but scolding him in public.
  3. C) being consistent and providing explanations for the punishment.
  4. D) withdrawing parental warmth until the behavior has been eradicated.

 

Page Ref: 376

 

Objective: 10.5

71)   The most effective forms of discipline encourage good conduct by

  1. A) building a mutually respectful bond with the child.
  2. B) warning children that they will be punished if they act immaturely.
  3. C) letting children know after the fact how to act.
  4. D) combining firm intervention with a temporary withdrawal of affection.

 

Page Ref: 377

 

Objective: 10.5

72)   The cognitive-developmental perspective regards children as

  1. A) passive learners of moral standards.
  2. B) active thinkers about social rules.
  3. C) blank slates with regard to morality.
  4. D) prewired with moral compasses.

 

Page Ref: 378

 

Objective: 10.5

73)   Preschoolers in diverse cultures distinguish

  1. A) friends and leisure activities as separate from matters of personal choice.
  2. B) moral violations as less wrong than violations of social conventions.
  3. C) between accidental and intentional transgressions.
  4. D) moral imperatives from social conventions and matters of personal choice.

 

Page Ref: 378

 

Objective: 10.5

74)   Three-year-old Madison is shown two pictures: one depicting a child stealing another child’s toy and the other showing a child eating spaghetti with her fingers. Madison is most likely to view

  1. A) both actions as equally wrong.
  2. B) both actions as okay as long as they were not witnessed by an adult.
  3. C) the stealing as more wrong than the bad table manners.
  4. D) the bad table manners as more wrong than the stealing.

 

Page Ref: 378

 

Objective: 10.5

75)   Young children’s moral reasoning

  1. A) tends to be rigid.
  2. B) is rarely based on consequences.
  3. C) is usually complex.
  4. D) rarely centers on physical harm.

 

Page Ref: 379

 

Objective: 10.5

76)   Which of the following statements about social experience and moral understanding is true?

  1. A) Social experiences are not vital to the development of morality.
  2. B) Children rarely benefit from adult-child discussions of moral issues.
  3. C) Children learn to care about the welfare of others from warm, sensitive parental communication.
  4. D) Children who physically assault others tend to have parents who tell stories with moral implications.

 

Page Ref: 379

 

Objective: 10.5

77)   __________ aggression is used to obtain an object, privilege, space, or social reward.

  1. A) Proactive
  2. B) Reactive
  3. C) Hostile
  4. D) Verbal

 

Page Ref: 379

 

Objective: 10.5

78)   To sit next to her mother at a restaurant, Diana pushes her little brother Mark out of the way. This is an example of __________ aggression.

  1. A) hostile
  2. B) physical
  3. C) passive
  4. D) relational

 

Page Ref: 379

 

Objective: 10.6

79)   Which of the following behaviors is an example of verbal aggression?

  1. A) social exclusion
  2. B) friendship manipulation
  3. C) name-calling
  4. D) destroying another’s property

 

Page Ref: 379

 

Objective: 10.6

80)   Emily is chosen as Student of the Day. Annie is angry that she was not selected, and she spreads a mean rumor about Emily. This is an example of __________ aggression.

  1. A) physical
  2. B) instrumental
  3. C) passive
  4. D) relational

 

Page Ref: 380

 

Objective: 10.6

81)   Although verbal aggression is always __________, __________ aggression can be either direct or indirect.

  1. A) indirect; physical
  2. B) indirect; relational
  3. C) indirect; instrumental
  4. D) direct; relational

 

Page Ref: 380

 

Objective: 10.6

82)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on aggression?

  1. A) By age 17 months, girls are more physically aggressive than boys.
  2. B) In early childhood, verbal aggression gradually replaces physical aggression.
  3. C) Girls less often use indirect relational tactics that extend for hours, weeks, or even months
  4. D) Parents respond far more negatively to physical fighting in boys than they do in girls.

 

Page Ref: 380

 

Objective: 10.6

83)   Which of the following statements about aggression is true?

  1. A) Girls display overall rates of aggression that are much higher than boys.
  2. B) Highly aggressive children tend to be neglected by peers.
  3. C) Children high in proactive aggression often see hostile intent where it does not exist.
  4. D) Boys are more likely than girls to be targets of harsh, inconsistent discipline.

 

Page Ref: 381

 

Objective: 10.6

84)   In the United States, 57 percent of television programs

  1. A) are falsely labeled as educational programming.
  2. B) portray punishment being dealt out for aggressive acts.
  3. C) completely avoid both verbally and relationally aggressive acts.
  4. D) between 6 m. and 11 p.m. contain violent scenes.

 

Page Ref: 381

 

Objective: 10.6

85)   The most violent television programs are

  1. A) reality programs.
  2. B) adult medical dramas.
  3. C) children’s cartoons.
  4. D) adult legal dramas.

 

Page Ref: 382

 

Objective: 10.6

86)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on television violence?

  1. A) Children’s programming is below average in violent content.
  2. B) Watching violence on TV does not increase the likelihood of aggressive behavior.
  3. C) Older children are more likely than preschoolers and young school-age children to imitate TV violence.
  4. D) Time spent watching TV in childhood and adolescence predicts aggressive behavior in adulthood.

 

Page Ref: 382

 

Objective: 10.6

87)   High exposure to educational programs in the preschool years is associated with

  1. A) a rise in relational aggression.
  2. B) greater acceptance of real-life violence.
  3. C) decreased parental regulation of children’s TV viewing.
  4. D) impaired emotional regulation when faced with real-life violence.

 

Page Ref: 382

 

Objective: 10.6

88)   The V-chip

  1. A) violates the First Amendment right to free speech.
  2. B) remains optional for new television sets.
  3. C) is mandated in all new TV sets sold in the United States.
  4. D) serves to make offensive television programs less appealing to children.

 

Page Ref: 382

 

Objective: 10.6

89)   Surveys of U.S. parents indicate that 20 to 30 percent of preschoolers

  1. A) are banned from using the family’s computers without supervision.
  2. B) are incapable of social interaction due to excessive amounts of time spent watching media.
  3. C) do not have a television or a computer easily available to them.
  4. D) experience no limits on TV or computer use at home.

 

Page Ref: 383

 

Objective: 10.6

90)   Treatment for aggressive children

  1. A) works best when implanted after antisocial behavior first appears.
  2. B) must begin early, before their antisocial behavior becomes difficult to change.
  3. C) places a minimal emphasis on altering parenting behaviors.
  4. D) is rarely effective for relationally aggressive girls.

 

Page Ref: 383

 

Objective: 10.6

91)   In Ms. Nancy’s preschool classroom, girls spend more time in the housekeeping, art, and reading corners, while boys gather more often in the areas devoted to blocks, woodworking, and active play. This conformity to these cultural stereotypes is known as gender

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 384

 

Objective: 10.7

92)   Most preschoolers believe that

  1. A) women cannot be police officers.
  2. B) men can wear kilts.
  3. C) women can play roughly.
  4. D) men can take care of babies.

 

Page Ref: 385

 

Objective: 10.7

93)   Research on biological influences on gender typing reveals that

  1. A) sex differences in play and personality traits only appear in Western cultures.
  2. B) aggression and preference for same-sex playmates are widespread among mammalian species.
  3. C) preschool girls prefer to play in larger-group play with other girls.
  4. D) prenatally administered androgens decrease active play.

 

Page Ref: 385

 

Objective: 10.7

94)   Research on gender typing reveals that

  1. A) beginning at birth, parents have different expectations of sons than of daughters.
  2. B) parents tend to describe achievement and warmth as important for sons.
  3. C) parents actively reinforce closeness and independence in boys and dependency in girls.
  4. D) fathers are more insistent that girls rather than boys conform to gender roles.

 

Page Ref: 386

 

Objective: 10.7

95)   While reading a picture book together, 3-year-old Susannah and her mother discuss the book. In response to her mother’s question about who can be a pirate, Susannah replies, “Girls cannot be pirates. Only boys.” Her mother is most likely to respond by

  1. A) explaining to Susannah that both boys and girls can be pirates.
  2. B) refraining from labeling gender when it is unnecessary.
  3. C) affirming her daughter’s assertion and allowing her to gender stereotype.
  4. D) substituting gendered references for generic expressions.

 

Page Ref: 388 Box: Social Issues: Education: Children Learn About Gender Through Mother–Child Conversations

 

Objective: 10.7

96)   Research collected from diverse countries on gender typing demonstrates that teachers

  1. A) tend to negotiate with boys who misbehave, coming up with a joint plan to improve behavior.
  2. B) use more disapproval and controlling discipline with girls than with boys.
  3. C) give more overall attention (both positive and negative) to boys than to girls.
  4. D) seem to expect girls to misbehave more often than boys.

 

Page Ref: 387

 

Objective: 10.7

97)   Children’s same-sex peer associations

  1. A) increase their tolerance for gender-inappropriate activities.
  2. B) serve to reduce the gender stereotypes coming from parents.
  3. C) make the peer context an especially potent source of gender-role learning.
  4. D) increase their opportunities to engage in “cross-gender” activities.

 

Page Ref: 387

 

Objective: 10.7

98)   Which of the following statements about gender-role learning in gender-segregated peer groups is true?

  1. A) Boys are especially intolerant of “cross-gender” play in other boys.
  2. B) Preschoolers are rarely criticized for engaging in “cross-gender” activities.
  3. C) Preschoolers play in mixed-gender groups more than they play in same-sex groups.
  4. D) To get their way, girls often rely on commands, threats, and physical force.

 

Page Ref: 387

 

Objective: 10.7

99)   Eight-year-old Ayanna is asked to rate herself on personality traits. Ayanna rates herself as ambitious, competitive, cheerful, and soft-spoken. Ayanna has a(n) __________ gender identity.

  1. A) “feminine”
  2. B) “masculine”
  3. C) androgynous
  4. D) stereotypical

 

Page Ref: 389

 

Objective: 10.8

100)  Androgynous children and adults

  1. A) are less adaptable than those with traditional gender identities.
  2. B) score low on both “masculine” and “feminine” personality characteristics.
  3. C) are less able to show “feminine” sensitivity than “masculine” individuals.
  4. D) have higher self-esteem than “feminine” individuals.

 

Page Ref: 389

 

Objective: 10.8

101)  According to the cognitive-developmental theory,

  1. A) children’s gendered behavior comes before self-perceptions.
  2. B) preschoolers acquire gender constancy and use it to guide their behavior.
  3. C) preschoolers first acquire gender-typed responses through modeling.
  4. D) children organize behaviors into gender-linked ideas about themselves.

 

Page Ref: 390

 

Objective: 10.8

102)  If Opal is a gender-schematic child, she

  1. A) seldom views the world in gender-linked terms.
  2. B) applies a gender-salience filter to her experiences.
  3. C) will play with “gender-inappropriate” toys.
  4. D) will play with a toy she likes, whether or not girls typically play with it.

 

Page Ref: 390–391

 

Objective: 10.8

103)  When Francine sees a dump truck in the sandbox, she wonders, “Do I like this toy?” She then decides to play with the truck. Francine

  1. A) is a gender-schematic child.
  2. B) is using her gender-salience filter.
  3. C) is a gender-aschematic child.
  4. D) has well-developed gender schemas.

 

Page Ref: 390–391

 

Objective: 10.8

104)  Gender-schematic thinking is so powerful that when children see others behaving in “gender inconsistent” ways,

  1. A) they reject the individuals and exhibit aggression when confronted by the individuals.
  2. B) they question their gender-stereotyped conceptions and become more open-minded.
  3. C) they often distort their memory to make it “gender consistent.”
  4. D) it causes significant distress and endangers their emotional well-being.

 

Page Ref: 391

 

Objective: 10.8

105)  Which of the following demonstrates how children’s gender schemas are likely to affect memory?

  1. A) When shown a picture of a female wearing a dress, children may later remember her as a male.
  2. B) When shown a picture of a male firefighter, children may later remember him as a female.
  3. C) When shown a picture of a female cooking, children may later remember her as a male.
  4. D) When shown a picture of a male nurse, children may later remember him as a doctor.

 

Page Ref: 391

 

Objective: 10.8

106)  By middle childhood, children who hold flexible beliefs about what boys and girls can do are __________ likely to __________.

  1. A) more; engage in antisocial behavior
  2. B) less; pursue nontraditional interests and activities
  3. C) more; notice instances of gender discrimination
  4. D) less; live in nontraditional homes

 

Page Ref: 392

 

Objective: 10.8

107)  The most successful approach to child rearing is a(n) __________ style.

  1. A) permissive
  2. B) authoritarian
  3. C) uninvolved
  4. D) authoritative

 

Page Ref: 392

 

Objective: 10.9

108)  DeShawn’s authoritarian parents interrupt him and put down his ideas. When DeShawn makes choices they disagree with, his parents withdraw their affection. DeShawn’s parents are using __________ control to manipulate him.

  1. A) direct
  2. B) authoritative
  3. C) psychological
  4. D) permissive

 

Page Ref: 394

 

Objective: 10.9

109)  In the __________ child-rearing style, parents do not gradually grant autonomy, but rather allow children to make many of their own decisions at an age when they are not yet capable of doing so.

  1. A) authoritarian
  2. B) permissive
  3. C) authoritative
  4. D) uninvolved

 

Page Ref: 394

 

Objective: 10.9

110)  Which of the following statements about the uninvolved child-rearing style is true?

  1. A) Uninvolved parents are warm and accepting but uninvolved in their children’s lives.
  2. B) At its extreme, uninvolved parenting is a form of child maltreatment called neglect.
  3. C) Uninvolved parents frequently use psychological control over their children.
  4. D) Children of uninvolved parents typically achieve average academic performance.

 

Page Ref: 394

 

Objective: 10.9

111)  __________ accounts for 18 percent of reported cases of child maltreatment.

  1. A) Neglect
  2. B) Physical abuse
  3. C) Sexual abuse
  4. D) Emotional abuse

 

Page Ref: 396

 

Objective: 10.10

112)  __________ commit the vast majority of child abuse incidents.

  1. A) Nonparental family members
  2. B) Child-care workers
  3. C) Parents
  4. D) Stepparents and foster parents

 

Page Ref: 396

 

Objective: 10.10

113)  Research on child maltreatment shows that

  1. A) premature babies and children are rarely targets of abuse.
  2. B) abuse depends more strongly on child factors than on parents’ characteristics.
  3. C) maltreating parents suffer from biased thinking about their child.
  4. D) abusive parents respond to stressful situations with low emotional arousal.

 

Page Ref: 397

 

Objective: 10.10

114)  Which of the following statements is supported by research on child abuse?

  1. A) A single abusive personality type is a common thread among abusers.
  2. B) Most parents who were abused as children become child abusers.
  3. C) Fathers engage in neglect more often than mothers.
  4. D) The majority of abusive parents are isolated from both formal and informal social supports.

 

Page Ref: 397

 

Objective: 10.10

115)  Which of the following statements about cultural values, laws, and customs and their effect on child maltreatment is true?

  1. A) Many countries, including Austria, Germany, and Spain, allow corporal punishment in schools.
  2. B) No industrialized nations have yet outlawed physical punishment in the home.
  3. C) The U.S. Supreme Court rejects the right of school officials to use corporal punishment.
  4. D) Societies that view violence as an appropriate way to solve problems set the stage for child abuse.

 

Page Ref: 397

 

Objective: 10.10

116)  Which of the following statements about the consequences of child maltreatment is true?

  1. A) While maltreated children show serious learning problems, they typically have few peer difficulties.
  2. B) Repeated abuse is associated with central nervous system damage, including abnormal EEG brain-wave activity.
  3. C) Maltreated children typically exhibit low anxiety and abnormally high self-esteem.
  4. D) Most parents who were maltreated as children grow up to be child abusers.

 

Page Ref: 398

 

Objective: 10.10

117)  One strategy that has been quite effective in preventing child abuse is to

  1. A) teach child development in the regular high school curriculum.
  2. B) provide home visitation with a cognitive problem-solving component.
  3. C) arrest child abusers and make sure they serve long sentences.
  4. D) remove children from abusive homes.

 

Page Ref: 398–399

 

Objective: 10.10

118)  Which of the following statements about the judicial system and child maltreatment is true?

  1. A) Fewer cases of child maltreatment reach the courts than in decades past.
  2. B) Child maltreatment is a crime that is relatively easy to prove.
  3. C) In the United States, government intervention into family life is viewed as a last resort.
  4. D) When the evidence is strong, most judges will not hesitate to permanently remove the child from the family.

 

Page Ref: 399

 

Objective: 10.10

ESSAY

119)  Define self-concept and self-esteem. In what ways might parents foster these aspects of self-understanding in young children?

120)  Three-year-old Jenna becomes very clingy when her father drops her off at preschool. When he turns to leave, she becomes emotionally reactive and begins crying and tries to follow him to the door. What advice might you give Jenna’s father to deal with her fear?

121)  Describe Mildred Parten’s sequence of peer sociability, including follow-up research on the different types of play.

122)  Describe the developmental sequence of cognitive play categories. Provide examples of each.

123)  What is inductive discipline, and how does it motivate children’s active commitment to moral standards?

124)  Describe gender schema theory, and explain how it affects individual differences in children’s gender-typed views.

125)  Describe authoritative child rearing, and explain what makes it effective.

 

 

 

 

 

ChapteR 11

Physical development in middle childhood

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   At age 6, the average North American child

  1. A) weighs about 60 pounds.
  2. B) begins to add about 7 pounds in weight each year.
  3. C) is 3½ feet tall.
  4. D) begins to grow at a rate of 4 to 5 inches each year.

 

Page Ref: 405

 

Objective: 11.1

2)   If they are typical of most children, then 7-year-old Julia is __________ 7-year-old David.

  1. A) slightly shorter than
  2. B) significantly taller than
  3. C) slightly heavier than
  4. D) the same height as

 

Page Ref: 405

 

Objective: 11.1

3)   On average, the dramatic adolescent growth spurt occurs __________ earlier in girls than in boys

  1. A) 6 months
  2. B) 1 year
  3. C) 18 months
  4. D) 2 years

 

Page Ref: 405

 

Objective: 11.1

4)   By age 9, the sex difference in the growth trend

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

5)   After age 8, girls begin __________ at a faster rate than boys.

  1. A) accumulating fat
  2. B) adding muscle
  3. C) pruning synapses
  4. D) upper body growth

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

6)   Worldwide,

  1. A) the shortest children can be found in hot, tropical regions.
  2. B) body size always reflects evolutionary adaptations, regardless of environment.
  3. C) growth norms can be applied universally to children age 8 and older.
  4. D) a 9-inch gap exists between the smallest and the largest 8-year-olds.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

7)   In terms of growth norms, which of the following children is most likely to be the shortest?

  1. A) Shane, who is from Australia
  2. B) Rosa, who is from Colombia
  3. C) Daryl, who is from Canada
  4. D) Alice, who is from the United Kingdom

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

8)   Growth norms

  1. A) should be applied universally.
  2. B) are not applicable to ethnic minorities.
  3. C) must be applied cautiously.
  4. D) consider height but not weight.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

9)   Which of the following factors affects cultural differences in physical size?

  1. A) climate
  2. B) gender
  3. C) cultural beliefs
  4. D) crime rates

 

Page Ref: 406

 

10)   Akna is short and stocky. She probably lives in a

  1. A) cold, Arctic area.
  2. B) disease-ridden region.
  3. C) wealthy nation.
  4. D) tropical locale.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

11)   Which of the following changes could you anticipate for the child of Ethiopian immigrants who relocated to the United States?

  1. A) She will be taller and longer-legged than her agemates in Ethiopia.
  2. B) She will be heavier and have thicker bones than her agemates in Ethiopia.
  3. C) She will be taller than her parents, but will have shorter legs.
  4. D) She will be shorter and start menstruation later than her agemates in Ethiopia.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

12)   Secular trends in physical growth involve changes in body size

  1. A) from one region to another.
  2. B) as a result of evolutionary adaptation.
  3. C) from one generation to the next.
  4. D) as a result of periodic growth spurts.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

13)   Sisters Hillary and Jennica are taller and heavier than their mother was at their age. This is an example of

  1. A) a generative effect.
  2. B)
  3. C) a secular trend.
  4. D) evolutionary adaptation.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

14)   In regions with widespread poverty, famine, and disease,

  1. A) either no secular change or a secular decrease in body size has occurred.
  2. B) a secular increase in body size exists, but it is delayed.
  3. C) increases in overweight and obesity are widespread.
  4. D) the secular gain in height has slowed in recent decades.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

15)   In most industrialized nations, the secular gain in

  1. A) boys’ height and weight outpaces girls’.
  2. B) height is continuing.
  3. C) weight has slowed.
  4. D) weight is continuing.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

16)   During middle childhood, the bones of the body

  1. A) stop growing.
  2. B) shorten and narrow.
  3. C) lengthen and broaden.
  4. D) firmly attach to ligaments.

 

Page Ref: 406

 

Objective: 11.1

17)   Emma, age 8, can turn cartwheels, do the splits, and do handsprings. This is probably due to which two factors of growth in middle childhood?

  1. A) ligaments not firmly attached to bones and increasing muscle strength
  2. B) hardening and lengthening of the bones and tightening of ligaments
  3. C) muscles that are loosely attached to bones and undeveloped muscle tone
  4. D) underdeveloped hip joints and muscles that do not fully develop until adolescence

 

Page Ref: 406–407

 

Objective: 11.1

18)   Between ages of 6 and 12,

  1. A) liagments become firmly attached to bones.
  2. B) the bones of the body shorten and narrow.
  3. C) all 20 primary teeth are lost and replaced by permanent ones.
  4. D) primary teeth are gradually lost, starting with the molars.

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

19)   Grace, a third grader, is beginning to get many of her permanent teeth. Her mom is concerned because Grace’s permanent teeth seem much too large. What can you tell Grace’s mom?

  1. A) Grace’s permanent teeth will appear shorter as they “settle” in to her jaw.
  2. B) As Grace loses all 24 of her primary teeth, the permanent teeth will appear smaller.
  3. C) As Grace’s neck and torso grow, her teeth will appear smaller.
  4. D) Grace’s jaw and chin bones will grow to accommodate the newly erupting teeth.

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

20)   Most children need help with __________ until about 9 years of age.

  1. A) tooth brushing
  2. B) flossing
  3. C) properly using mouthwash
  4. D) rinsing after tooth brushing

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

21)   More than 50 percent of U.S. children

  1. A) have untreated tooth decay.
  2. B) suffer from malocclusion.
  3. C) have at least some tooth decay.
  4. D) need braces by age 10.

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

22)   Which of the following children is the most likely to suffer from untreated tooth decay?

  1. A) Devon, who lives in a single-parent household
  2. B) Vincent, who is low-SES
  3. C) Penny, who is an only child
  4. D) Jiyeon, who is Korean American

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

23)   Jane, age 7, is a thumb sucker. As a result, Jane is at risk for

  1. A) tooth decay.
  2. B)
  3. C) gum disease.
  4. D) premature tooth loss.

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

24)   Which of the following is a cause of malocclusion?

  1. A) sleeping with a bottle
  2. B) eating too many sweets
  3. C) wearing braces
  4. D) crowding of permanent teeth

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

25)   A common way to treat malocclusion is by

  1. A) requiring regular teeth cleaning.
  2. B) filling all cavities promptly.
  3. C) putting braces on the teeth.
  4. D) flossing at least three times per week.

 

Page Ref: 407

 

Objective: 11.1

26)   _________ increases by only 10 percent during middle childhood and adolescence.

  1. A) White matter
  2. B) The weight of the brain
  3. C) Gray matter
  4. D) The number of synapses

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

27)   White matter

  1. A) decreases steadily throughout childhood.
  2. B) consists largely of myelinated nerve fibers.
  3. C) does not exist in the prefrontal cortex.
  4. D) contains mostly of neurons and supportive material.

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

28)   Gray matter

  1. A) replaces white matter in middle childhood.
  2. B) consists largely of myelinated nerve fibers.
  3. C) increases steadily throughout childhood and adolescence.
  4. D) declines as synaptic pruning and death of surrounding neurons proceed.

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

29)   Pruning and reorganization of brain circuits lead to

  1. A) decreased capacity for inhibition.
  2. B) increased incidences of seizures.
  3. C) poorer sustained attention.
  4. D) gains in working-memory capacity.

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

30)   Secretions of particular __________ are related to social and emotional adjustment.

  1. A) gray matter
  2. B) neurotransmitters
  3. C) synapses
  4. D) growth hormones

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

31)   Milo’s neurotransmitters are not present in appropriate balances. He has begun to experience seizures and loss of motor control. Milo may suffer from

  1. A)
  2. B) cerebral palsy.
  3. C) muscular dystrophy.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

32)   Researchers believe that brain functioning may improve in middle childhood partly because of

  1. A) rapid brain growth.
  2. B) an overabundance of gray matter.
  3. C) the influence of hormones.
  4. D) the decrease in white matter.

 

Page Ref: 408

 

Objective: 11.2

33)   Eating an evening meal with parents leads to a diet lower in

  1. A)
  2. B) milk products.
  3. C) fast foods.
  4. D) prepackaged foods.

 

Page Ref: 409

 

Objective: 11.3

34)   Seven-year-old Sanjay would likely say he __________ after eating junk foods.

  1. A) feels better
  2. B) focuses better
  3. C) is happier
  4. D) feels sluggish

 

Page Ref: 409

 

Objective: 11.3

35)   According to longitudinal research, a parent-reported diet high in sugar, fat, and processed food in early childhood predicted __________ IQ at age 8.

  1. A) much higher
  2. B) average
  3. C) slightly lower
  4. D) significantly lower

 

Page Ref: 409

 

Objective: 11.3

36)   June’s mom is concerned that she is not eating a well-balanced diet. One solution is to

  1. A) make sure she eats three healthy meals a day, but allow at least one junk food snack between meals.
  2. B) keep cheese, fruit, raw vegetables, and peanut butter readily available for snacks.
  3. C) make sure to have new, novel healthy food items available for snacks.
  4. D) allow her to make her own food choices because children naturally select balanced diets.

 

Page Ref: 409

 

Objective: 11.3

37)   Pax suffers from malnutrition. Which of the following statements is probably correct?

  1. A) Pax will produce less cortisol and be nonresponsive to stressful situations.
  2. B) Pax will suffer from impaired motor coordination and inattention.
  3. C) Pax will exhibit normal motor skills, but altered psychological functioning.
  4. D) Pax will display normal psychological functioning, but delayed motor functioning.

 

Page Ref: 409

 

Objective: 11.3

38)   A body mass index (BMI) above the 95th percentile for a child’s age and sex is considered

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 410

 

Objective: 11.3

39)   Eight-year-old Elijah is one of 32 percent of U.S. children who are

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) morbidly obese.

 

Page Ref: 410

 

Objective: 11.3

40)   In developing countries, rates of obesity have risen as a result of

  1. A) misinformation about good nutrition.
  2. B) diets low in meats and energy-dense refined foods.
  3. C) an urbanized shift toward sedentary lifestyles.
  4. D) the positive side effects of increased contact with industrialized nations.

 

Page Ref: 410

 

Objective: 11.3

41)   Childhood obesity in China

  1. A) is influenced by cultural beliefs that excess body fat represents prosperity and health.
  2. B) is especially high in rural regions and nearly nonexistent in urban areas.
  3. C) is far more prevalent among young girls than among boys.
  4. D) peaked in the 1980s and has decreased in the last 25 years.

 

Page Ref: 410

 

Objective: 11.3

42)   Overweight children

  1. A) are at low risk for emotional problems.
  2. B) are likely to have overweight parents.
  3. C) decide when to eat on the basis of hunger.
  4. D) spend very few hours watching television.

 

Page Ref: 410

 

Objective: 11.3

43)   Which of the following children is at risk for excessive weight gain?

  1. A) Lauralee, whose parents are normal weight
  2. B) Stewart, who was malnourished in the past
  3. C) Zachary, who was breastfed for two years
  4. D) Donna, whose parents are vegans

 

Page Ref: 411

 

Objective: 11.3

44)   Jonathan, age 10, was born underweight because his mother smoked during pregnancy. Jonathan is at risk for

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) a fast basal metabolism.

 

Page Ref: 411

 

Objective: 11.3

45)   Kwame’s parents are immigrants. As children, they suffered from long periods of food deprivation. As a result, they pressure Kwame to eat. This practice could

  1. A) lead Kwame to establish a higher basal metabolism rate.
  2. B) disrupt Kwame’s appetite control centers in his brain.
  3. C) undermine Kwame’s ability to regulate his own food intake.
  4. D) ensure that Kwame eats a well-balanced diet.

 

Page Ref: 411

 

Objective: 11.3

46)   Chronic stress triggers __________, which, in turn, frequently induces a raging appetite and subsequent weight gain.

  1. A) insulin resistance
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) parental overfeeding
  4. D) a sedentary lifestyle

 

Page Ref: 412 Box: Social Issues: Health: Family Stressors and Childhood Obesity

 

Objective: 11.3

47)   Studies reveal that children who __________ are more likely to be overweight later in life.

  1. A) eat more slowly
  2. B) get less nightly sleep
  3. C) have limited TV access
  4. D) are responsive to internal hunger cues

 

Page Ref: 412

 

Objective: 11.3

48)   Which of the following people most likely has a genetic susceptibility to overweight, which emerges only under Western dietary conditions?

  1. A) Ray, who is of Cherokee descent
  2. B) Wes, who is of Samoan descent
  3. C) Andrea, who is of Colombian descent
  4. D) Carrie, who is of African descent

 

Page Ref: 413

 

Objective: 11.3

49)   Which of the following statements about the consequences of obesity is true?

  1. A) The consequences of obesity rarely continue into adulthood.
  2. B) Obese children tend to show better school achievement than their healthy-weight agemates.
  3. C) Overweight adults are less likely than their normal-weight agemates to be rented apartments.
  4. D) Obese children seldom experience social isolation that persists into adolescence.

 

Page Ref: 413

 

Objective: 11.3

50)   The most effective interventions for childhood obesity are

  1. A) family-based and focus on changing behaviors.
  2. B) crash diets that are high in fiber and low in carbohydrates.
  3. C) school-based programs that focus on physical activity.
  4. D) sports that emphasize individual competition.

 

Page Ref: 413

 

Objective: 11.3

51)   Rewarding children for __________ leads to greater liking for physical activity.

  1. A) time spent exercising
  2. B) reducing sedentary time
  3. C) eating smaller portions
  4. D) documenting caloric intake

 

Page Ref: 414

 

Objective: 11.3

52)   Schools can help reduce obesity by

  1. A) serving fewer meals.
  2. B) offering more sports.
  3. C) ensuring regular physical activity.
  4. D) increasing vending machine access.

 

Page Ref: 414

 

Objective: 11.3

53)   __________ is the most common vision problem in middle childhood.

  1. A) Presbyopia
  2. B) Tunnel vision
  3. C) Astigmatism
  4. D) Myopia

 

Page Ref: 414

 

Objective: 11.4

54)   By the end of the school years, nearly 25 percent of all children have

  1. A) otitis media.
  2. B)
  3. C) nocturnal enuresis.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 414

 

Objective: 11.4

55)   Which of the following children is most likely to have myopia?

  1. A) Travis, who lives in a low-SES household
  2. B) Deanna, whose parents have good eyesight
  3. C) Allie, who weighed 8 pounds at birth
  4. D) Xiou Chen, who spends much time reading

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

56)   Myopia is one of the few health conditions to

  1. A) decrease with age.
  2. B) be entirely preventable.
  3. C) increase with SES.
  4. D) be naturally reversible.

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

57)   During middle childhood, the Eustachian tube becomes longer, narrower, and more slanted, resulting in __________ of __________.

  1. A) more frequent bouts; otitis media
  2. B) higher rates; strep throat
  3. C) lower rates; sinus infections
  4. D) reduced incidence; otitis media

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

58)   As many as 20 percent of low-SES children develop __________ as a result of repeated middle ear infections.

  1. A) cancer
  2. B) otitis media
  3. C) some hearing loss
  4. D) minor brain damage

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

59)   Ten percent of U.S. school-age children suffer from nocturnal enuresis, which refers to

  1. A)
  2. B) bedwetting during the night.
  3. C) a brief period when breathing stops temporarily.
  4. D) fear of the dark.

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

60)   Which of the following statements about nocturnal enuresis is true?

  1. A) The condition is usually sporadic and has no hereditary ties.
  2. B) More girls suffer from nocturnal enuresis than boys.
  3. C) Enuresis can be caused by a failure of muscular responses that inhibit urination.
  4. D) Punishing a school-age child for wetting the bed usually decreases the occurrence.

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

61)   Medication is __________ for treating enuresis.

  1. A) the preferred method
  2. B) a last resort
  3. C) strongly discouraged
  4. D) a short-term solution

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

62)   The most effective treatment for enuresis is/are

  1. A)
  2. B) a urine alarm.
  3. C) anxiety medication.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

63)   Mikkah is 8 years old and experiences nocturnal enuresis. His parents have decided against any type of treatment, feeling that he will “outgrow it.” His parents should know that

  1. A) treatment in middle childhood has immediate, positive psychological consequences.
  2. B) enuresis is a lifelong condition and is not something that can be outgrown.
  3. C) doing nothing is, in fact, the most effective treatment for enuresis.
  4. D) without medical intervention, the condition can worsen and lead to other problems.

 

Page Ref: 415

 

Objective: 11.4

64)   Children experience a somewhat higher rate of illness during the first two years of elementary school than later, because of

  1. A) exposure to sick children and a immune system that is still developing.
  2. B) a lack of immunizations required for school entry.
  3. C) poor hygiene and a lack of preventative measures in schools.
  4. D) increased contact with unfamiliar foods in school lunches.

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

65)   About one-third of U.S. children with chronic illnesses have

  1. A)
  2. B) cystic fibrosis.
  3. C) sickle cell anemia.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

66)   When Elliot engages in intense exercise, particularly in cold weather or during allergy season, his bronchial tubes fill with mucus and contract. This causes him to cough and have serious breathing difficulties. Elliot has

  1. A) nocturnal enuresis.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

67)   Which of the following children is at greatest risk of suffering from asthma?

  1. A) Shoshanna, who was born overweight
  2. B) Lucy, who is middle-SES
  3. C) James, who is African American
  4. D) Haruki, whose parents do not smoke

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

68)   Which of the following is related to asthma?

  1. A) obesity
  2. B) enuresis
  3. C) otitis media
  4. D) myopia

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

69)   Which of the following statements about chronically ill children is true?

  1. A) About 10 percent of U.S. children suffer from severe chronic illnesses.
  2. B) Children with chronic illnesses usually outperform agemates on academic progress.
  3. C) A strong link exists between good family functioning and child well-being for chronically ill children.
  4. D) Most chronically ill children fare well in emotional and social adjustment.

 

Page Ref: 416

 

Objective: 11.4

70)   Which of the following statements about childhood injuries is true?

  1. A) Injury fatalities decrease from middle childhood into adolescence.
  2. B) Injury rates for girls are considerably higher than those for boys.
  3. C) Motor vehicle accidents are the leading cause of injury fatalities in middle childhood.
  4. D) Sports-related injuries are the second leading cause of injury in middle childhood.

 

Page Ref: 417

 

Objective: 11.5

71)   Parents

  1. A) often underestimate children’s safety knowledge.
  2. B) often underestimate children’s physical abilities.
  3. C) have little influence on children’s safety knowledge.
  4. D) must be educated about children’s age-related safety capabilities.

 

Page Ref: 417

 

Objective: 11.5

72)   __________ leads to a 9 percent reduction in __________ injuries, a leading cause of permanent physical disability and death in school-age children.

  1. A) Wearing protective helmets; head
  2. B) Proper use of car seats and seat belts; spinal
  3. C) Teaching children to use crosswalks; pedestrian
  4. D) Improving playgrounds; motor vehicle accident

 

Page Ref: 417

 

Objective: 11.5

73)   Which of the following children is most likely to be a risk-taker?

  1. A) Priyanka, whose parents are safety-conscious
  2. B) Jesse, whose parents strictly supervise his activities
  3. C) Daphne, whose parents consistently enforce rules
  4. D) Marcus, whose parents use punitive discipline

 

Page Ref: 417

 

Objective: 11.5

74)   Most efforts to impart health concepts to school-age children have __________ impact on behavior.

  1. A) no
  2. B) little
  3. C) a moderate
  4. D) a significant

 

Page Ref: 418

 

Objective: 11.6

75)   Which of the following statements about children’s understanding of health is true?

  1. A) Much health information given to children is reinforced by other sources, such as television advertising.
  2. B) Children are able to link engaging in preventive behaviors with later health consequences.
  3. C) Health is seldom an important goal for most school-age children, who feel good most of the time.
  4. D) Most school-age children are unable to comprehend a wide range of health information.

 

Page Ref: 418

 

Objective: 11.6

76)   Imparting health information to school-age children is difficult because they

  1. A) are far more concerned about schoolwork, friends, and play.
  2. B) have time perspectives that relate past, present, and future.
  3. C) are typically rebellious and ignore the suggestions of authority figures.
  4. D) are skeptical of advertising, which makes a huge effort to promote healthy living.

 

Page Ref: 418

 

Objective: 11.6

77)   A ball thrown by a(n) __________ travels an average speed of 29 feet per second.

  1. A) 6-year-old girl
  2. B) 6-year-old boy
  3. C) 8-year-old girl
  4. D) 8-year-old boy

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

78)   As Breanna gets older, how will her batting abilities change?

  1. A) Her speed will increase, but her accuracy will stay the same.
  2. B) Her speed will stay the same, but her accuracy will improve.
  3. C) Batting motions will involve her entire body.
  4. D) Batting motions will primarily involve her upper body.

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

79)   Compared with preschoolers, school-age children are

  1. A) physically less pliable.
  2. B) physically more elastic.
  3. C) more agile, but less able to balance.
  4. D) stronger, but less agile.

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

80)   Danica, age 9, executes difficult tumbling routines. Since she started gymnastics at age 4, Danica has become more pliable and elastic. This means that Danica has improved

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

81)   Between 6 and 12 years of age, gains in __________ lead to quicker and more accurate movements.

  1. A) agility
  2. B) flexibility
  3. C) nimbleness
  4. D) pliability

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

82)   __________ and __________ play vital roles in improved motor performance.

  1. A) Body growth; more efficient information processing
  2. B) Environmental factors; increases in brain function
  3. C) Increases in muscle control; parental encouragement
  4. D) Heredity; opportunities for athletic training

 

Page Ref: 420

 

Objective: 11.7

83)   A 10-year-old’s reaction time is __________ a 5-year-old’s.

  1. A) half as fast as
  2. B) about equal to
  3. C) twice as fast as
  4. D) five times as fast as

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

84)   Because 5- to 7-year-olds’ gross-motor skills are not fully developed, which of the following sports would be most appropriate?

  1. A) softball
  2. B) basketball
  3. C) football
  4. D) kickball

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

85)   At age 6, Ofelia probably

  1. A) can print the alphabet and numbers 1 through 10 with reasonable clarity.
  2. B) will learn to write lowercase letters before uppercase letters.
  3. C) can learn to write in cursive as easily as printing.
  4. D) cannot yet integrate two-dimensional shapes into her drawings.

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

86)   Young children’s writing is usually large because

  1. A) horizontal motions are easier to control.
  2. B) vertical motions are easier to control.
  3. C) it is easier to maintain uniform height with larger letters.
  4. D) they make strokes using the entire arm.

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

87)   Legibility of writing gradually increases as children

  1. A) use larger, more uniform lettering.
  2. B) produce more accurate letters with uniform height and spacing.
  3. C) learn to make strokes with their entire arm.
  4. D) learn to accurately integrate two-dimensional shapes.

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

88)   Around 9 to 10 years, _______ is/are clearly evident in children’s drawings.

  1. A) mastery of humanlike figures
  2. B) accurate copies of two-dimensional shapes
  3. C) depth cues
  4. D) the third dimension

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.7

89)   __________ children excel at many motor tasks.

  1. A) Shorter
  2. B) Less muscular
  3. C) Taller
  4. D) Heavier

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.8

90)   Which of the following statements about individual differences in motor skills is true?

  1. A) Parents tend to actively discourage girls from participating in athletic activities.
  2. B) Family income affects children’s access to lessons needed to develop certain abilities.
  3. C) Boys are able to understand and process the rules of most athletic events more quickly than girls.
  4. D) Many low-SES children are less skilled in motor activities even when they are exposed to formal lessons.

 

Page Ref: 421

 

Objective: 11.8

91)   Girls have an edge over boys in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 430

 

Objective: 11.8

92)   Boys have an edge over girls in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.8

93)   Which of the following factors contribute to boys’ gross-motor superiority?

  1. A) genetic advantage and parental expectations
  2. B) media exposure and superior agility
  3. C) superior flexibility and girls’ lack of interest in athletics
  4. D) boys’ high self-esteem and girls’ low self-esteem

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.8

94)   Which of the following is likely to help increase girls’ self-confidence and participation in athletics?

  1. A) less emphasis on skill training for girls, as basic skills are already commensurate with those of boys
  2. B) educating parents about the minimal differences in school-age boys’ and girls’ physical capacities
  3. C) decreased attention to girls’ athletic achievements, to avoid embarrassment or undue pressure
  4. D) decreased attention to boys’ athletic achievements, because athletics are overemphasized in American culture

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.8

95)   Gains in __________ permit the transition to rule-oriented games.

  1. A) flexibility
  2. B) agility
  3. C) perspective taking
  4. D) fine-motor ability

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.9

96)   Child-invented games usually rely on

  1. A) complex physical skills.
  2. B) a sizable element of luck.
  3. C) social problem-solving skills.
  4. D) an element of physical risk-taking.

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.9

97)   Compared with past generations, children today spend less time

  1. A) gathering informally on sidewalks.
  2. B) in adult-organized sports.
  3. C) watching television.
  4. D) playing video games.

 

Page Ref: 422

 

Objective: 11.9

98)   About 60 percent of U.S. boys and 37 percent of U.S. girls __________ between ages 5 and 18.

  1. A) attend physical education classes during a typical school week
  2. B) play with other-sex peers during and after school hours
  3. C) participate in organized sports outside of school hours at some time
  4. D) engage in at least moderate-intensity physical activity for 60 minutes per day

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

99)   Which of the following statements about joining community athletic teams is true?

  1. A) For most children, it is associated with increased competition and decreased social skills.
  2. B) For most children, it is associated with increased self-esteem and social skills.
  3. C) Among shy children, sports participation often contributes to an increase in social anxiety.
  4. D) Community sports usually allow children to naturally experiment with rules and strategies.

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

100)  When coaches make winning paramount, weaker performers generally experience __________, an affect that is more common in __________.

  1. A) adjustment problems; boys
  2. B) low self-esteem; girls
  3. C) social ostracism; boys
  4. D) peer sympathy; girls

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

101)  Justine, whose mother is a fitness buff, joined a gymnastics club at the age of 2. Which of the following is a likely outcome for Justine?

  1. A) She will acquire gross-motor skills earlier than her peers.
  2. B) She will soon lose interest in gymnastics.
  3. C) She will be more influenced by her coach than by her mother.
  4. D) She will be a lifelong sports enthusiast.

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

102)  Who is most likely to influence children’s athletic attitudes and capabilities?

  1. A) peers
  2. B) parents
  3. C) coaches
  4. D) teachers

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

103)  When parents and coaches emphasize __________, young athletes enjoy sports more and perceive themselves as more competent at their chosen sport.

  1. A) awards
  2. B) competition
  3. C) scores
  4. D) effort

 

Page Ref: 423

 

Objective: 11.9

104)  Adam and Philip occasionally wrestle, roll, hit, and run after one another, alternating roles while smiling and laughing. Adam and Philip are engaged in __________ play.

  1. A) rough-and-tumble
  2. B) parallel
  3. C) nonsocial
  4. D) constructive

 

Page Ref: 424

 

Objective: 11.9

105)  Rough-and-tumble play

  1. A) is more common among girls than among boys.
  2. B) is completely unique to humans.
  3. C) peaks in the preschool years, then declines during adolescence.
  4. D) seems to originate in parents’ physical play with babies.

 

Page Ref: 424

 

Objective: 11.9

106)  Rough-and-tumble play helps children form

  1. A) a dominance hierarchy.
  2. B)
  3. C) a stable gender identity.
  4. D) a stable self-concept.

 

Page Ref: 424

 

Objective: 11.9

107)  Once school-age children establish a dominance hierarchy,

  1. A) aggression increases.
  2. B) rough-and-tumble play decreases.
  3. C) hostility is rare.
  4. D) cheating is common.

 

Page Ref: 424

 

Objective: 11.9

108)  Unlike children, teenage rough-and-tumble players

  1. A) establish a dominance hierarchy.
  2. B) rarely cheat.
  3. C) continue interacting after an episode.
  4. D) hurt their opponents.

 

Page Ref: 424

 

Objective: 11.9

109)  Which of the following statements is supported by research on school recess?

  1. A) Distributing cognitively demanding tasks over a longer time by introducing regular breaks enhances attention and performance.
  2. B) Extra time for academics translates into achievement gains in children as young as age 6.
  3. C) Recess benefits children the most when adult supervisors organize and direct play activities.
  4. D) Teacher ratings of classroom disruptive behavior increase for children who have more than 15 minutes of recess a day.

 

Page Ref: 425 Box: Social Issues: Education: School Recess—A Time to Play, a Time to Learn

 

Objective: 11.10

110)  Research shows that children are more physically active during __________ than __________.

  1. A) gym class; recess
  2. B) field trips; gym class
  3. C) classroom time; recess
  4. D) recess; gym class

 

Page Ref: 425 Box: Social Issues: Education: School Recess—A Time to Play, a Time to Learn

 

Objective: 11.10

111)  Which of the following statements about physical activity in U.S. schools is true?

  1. A) Only six U.S. states require 45 minutes of physical education per day through the high school years.
  2. B) More than two-thirds of school-age children do not attend any physical education classes during a typical school week.
  3. C) Most U.S. states require some physical education in every grade.
  4. D) Only one state mandates at least 30 minutes of physical education per day in elementary school.

 

Page Ref: 425

 

Objective: 11.10

112)  Many experts believe that schools should

  1. A) offer more physical education classes that emphasize training in competitive sports.
  2. B) offer more frequent physical education classes and change the content of these programs.
  3. C) eradicate recesses in favor of an earlier end to the school day.
  4. D) eradicate recesses to allow for longer lunch periods to ensure proper nutrition.

 

Page Ref: 426

 

Objective: 11.10

ESSAY

113)  Describe the secular trends in physical growth over the past 150 years, including factors that may be responsible for changing trends.

114)  Describe some of the major changes in brain development in middle childhood and the effects these changes have on cognition.

115)  List and describe common factors associated with childhood obesity.

116)  List some interventions for chronically ill children that foster positive family relationships, help parents and children cope with the disease, and improve adjustment.

 

117)  Describe advances and contributing factors in gross- and fine-motor development over middle childhood.

118)  School children around the world engage in an enormous variety of informally organized games. How do these activities contribute to social and emotional development?

 

 

Chapter 12
Cognitive development in middle childhood

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   In Piaget’s concrete operational stage,

  1. A) thought is more logical, flexible, and organized than it was during early childhood.
  2. B) the focus is on coordination of sensation and action through reflexive behaviors.
  3. C) the child learns to use and represent objects by images, words, and drawings.
  4. D) individuals move beyond concrete experiences and begin to think abstractly.

 

Page Ref: 429

 

Objective: 12.1

2)   Eight-year-old Daniel focuses on several aspects of a problem and relates them, rather than centering on just one. Daniel is capable of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 429

 

Objective: 12.1

3)   Nine-year-old Ryan thinks through a series of steps and then mentally reverses direction, returning to the starting point. Ryan is capable of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 429

 

Objective: 12.1

4)   Which of the following children shows awareness of classification hierarchies?

  1. A) Nick, who enjoys lining all of his action figures up and arranging them from shortest to tallest
  2. B) Paige, who draws a map of her neighborhood, complete with landmarks and streets
  3. C) Isabel, who spends hours sorting and resorting her collection of bracelets, grouping them first by color, then by size, and finally by shape
  4. D) Jorge, who pretends he is king and that his little brothers are the commoners who must do his will

 

5)   Heather is lining up crayons in order from shortest to longest. This skill is known as

  1. A) continuum of acquisition.
  2. B)
  3. C) conservation of length.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 430

 

Objective: 12.1

6)   Mrs. Hartley asked her second graders to draw a map of the school using their memory. The students’ cognitive maps will probably

  1. A) have an accurate arrangement.
  2. B) include landmarks.
  3. C) incorporate map symbols and a key.
  4. D) depict an organized route of travel.

 

Page Ref: 430

 

Objective: 12.1

7)   When Kelli, a researcher, asks school-age children in a small city in India to draw maps of their neighborhoods, Kelli will probably see maps that depict

  1. A) main streets.
  2. B) key directions.
  3. C) people and vehicles.
  4. D) formal, extended space.

 

Page Ref: 431

 

Objective: 12.1

8)   A child in the concrete operational stage will have the most trouble with which of the following?

  1. A) abstract ideas
  2. B) concrete information
  3. C) information she can perceive directly
  4. D) dual representation

 

Page Ref: 432

 

Objective: 12.2

9)   Eleven-year-old Nathan first grasped conservation of number, followed by length, liquid, mass, and then weight. This limitation of concrete operational thinking is known as

  1. A) transitive inference.
  2. B) continuum of acquisition.
  3. C)
  4. D) conservation of thought.

 

10)   Cross-cultural research suggests that

  1. A) compared to non-Western societies, comprehension of conservation in Western societies is greatly delayed.
  2. B) Non-Western and Western children attain conservation at about the same age.
  3. C) taking part in everyday activities helps children master conservation and other Piagetian problems.
  4. D) conservation is not a relevant concept in non-Western societies.

 

Page Ref: 432

 

Objective: 12.2

11)   Follow-up research on concrete operational thought shows that when children of the same age are tested, those __________ do better on transitive inference problems.

  1. A) with well-developed language skills
  2. B) who spend long hours engaged in make-believe play
  3. C) with advanced metacognitive skills
  4. D) who have been in school longer

 

Page Ref: 432

 

Objective: 12.2

12)   On the basis of cross-cultural research, some investigators have concluded that the forms of logic required by Piagetian tasks

  1. A) emerge earlier in collectivist than individualist cultures.
  2. B) emerge spontaneously in children from diverse cultures.
  3. C) are heavily influenced by heredity.
  4. D) are heavily influenced by training, context, and cultural conditions.

 

Page Ref: 433

 

Objective: 12.2

13)   Some Neo-Piagetian theorists argue that the development of operational thinking can best be understood in terms of

  1. A) a sudden shift to a new developmental stage.
  2. B) a gradual mastery of logical concepts as children age.
  3. C) expansion of information-processing capacity.
  4. D) children’s interaction with adults and more skilled social models.

 

Page Ref: 433

 

Objective: 12.2

14)   Accordingly to Case, once the schemes of a Piagetian stage are sufficiently automatic and integrated into an improved representation, children acquire __________ that permit them to think more effectively in a wide range of situations.

  1. A) abstract ideas
  2. B) primary systems
  3. C) discontinuous structures
  4. D) central conceptual structures

 

15)   Daniella loves to listen to and tell stories but rarely draws pictures. Daniella displays __________ advanced central conceptual structures in __________.

  1. A) less; storytelling
  2. B) no; storytelling
  3. C) more; storytelling
  4. D) more; drawing

 

Page Ref: 433

 

Objective: 12.2

16)   Which of the following best characterizes Piaget’s view of cognitive development in middle childhood?

  1. A) continuous improvement in logical skills
  2. B) discontinuous restructuring of children’s thinking
  3. C) biological prewiring of processes
  4. D) random change in cognitive processes

 

Page Ref: 434

 

Objective: 12.2

17)   As the prefrontal cortex develops in middle childhood, executive function undergoes marked improvement and children make gains in

  1. A) information-processing speed.
  2. B) information-processing capacity.
  3. C) strategic thinking.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 434

 

Objective: 12.3

18)   Many studies confirm that children with persistent learning difficulties in reading and math are often

  1. A) from advantaged backgrounds.
  2. B) deficient in working memory.
  3. C) families who don’t value education.
  4. D) skilled at inhibition.

 

Page Ref: 435

 

Objective: 12.3

19)   Which of the following statements about children with very low working-memory scores is true?

  1. A) About 30 percent of children have very low working-memory scores.
  2. B) They can benefit from direct training with working memory tasks.
  3. C) Children from economically advantaged families are likely to score low on working-memory tasks.
  4. D) The majority of children with low working-memory scores improve without intervention.

 

20   During middle childhood, attention becomes

  1. A) less controlled.
  2. B) more rigid.
  3. C) less planful.
  4. D) more selective.

 

Page Ref: 436

 

Objective: 12.3

21)   Ten-year-old Gemma is presented with a stream of numbers on a computer screen. She is asked to press a button whenever the two-digit sequence of a “5” followed by a “7” appears. Gemma’s __________ attention is being tested.

  1. A) adaptive
  2. B) selective
  3. C) planful
  4. D) productive

 

Page Ref: 436

 

Objective: 12.3

22)   Mrs. Rosinski gives each of her children, ages 5, 8, and 12, a shopping list of 10 items. Which of the following results can she expect to see?

  1. A) Her 5-year-old will probably make a plan before searching for items.
  2. B) Her 12-year-old will probably scan the store before searching for items.
  3. C) All of the children will immediately start to retrieve items.
  4. D) All of the children will probably make a plan before searching for items.

 

Page Ref: 436

 

Objective: 12.3

23)   Which of the following statements about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is true?

  1. A) Boys are diagnosed three to nine times as often as girls.
  2. B) Girls are diagnosed twice as often as boys.
  3. C) ADHD affects about 15 percent of U.S. school children.
  4. D) All children with ADHD are hyperactive.

 

Page Ref: 438 Box: Biology and Environment: Children with Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

 

Objective: 12.3

24)   Kelsey, age 10, is impulsive. During school, he drops his pencil, rearranges the papers inside his desk, and yells at people across the room. Kelsey fails to follow the rules when he plays games and lashes out with hostility when he is frustrated. He suffers from both academic and social problems. Kelsey most likely has

  1. A) Down syndrome.
  2. B) an anxiety disorder.
  3. C)
  4. D) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

 

25)   Children with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

  1. A) tend to score higher in IQ than other children.
  2. B) are often asymptomatic before age 7.
  3. C) find it hard to ignore irrelevant information.
  4. D) have no difficulty with planning or reasoning.

 

Page Ref: 438 Box: Biology and Environment: Children with Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

 

Objective: 12.3

26)   Stimulant medication prescribed to treat attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) seems to __________ activity in the __________, thereby improving the child’s capacity to sustain attention and to inhibit off-task and self-stimulating behavior.

  1. A) increase; hypothalamus
  2. B) decrease; hypothalamus
  3. C) increase; prefrontal cortex
  4. D) decrease; prefrontal cortex

 

Page Ref: 439 Box: Biology and Environment: Children with Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

 

Objective: 12.3

27)   Which of the following students is using organization as a memory strategy?

  1. A) Bruce, who groups explorers by country of origin
  2. B) Jacob, who associates names of explorers with foods they remind him of
  3. C) Samuel, who repeats the names of explorers several times
  4. D) Levi, who creates a funny song that includes names of explorers

 

Page Ref: 437

 

Objective: 12.3

28)   When studying for a test, Peter remembers the unrelated words cellular and canine by generating the following mental image, “The canine is talking on a cellular phone.” Which memory strategy is Peter using?

  1. A) rehearsal
  2. B) organization
  3. C) elaboration
  4. D) chunking

 

Page Ref: 438

 

Objective: 12.3

29)   Elaboration is a later-emerging memory strategy because it requires

  1. A) considerable effort and space in working memory.
  2. B) concrete pieces of information.
  3. C) combining rehearsal and organization.
  4. D) a greater digit span.

 

30)   During middle childhood, the long-term knowledge base grows larger and becomes organized into

  1. A) information-processing frameworks.
  2. B) basic cognitive schemas.
  3. C) hierarchically structured networks.
  4. D) concrete operational webs.

 

Page Ref: 438

 

Objective: 12.3.

31)   Children who are expert in an area

  1. A) are usually highly motivated.
  2. B) acquire knowledge slowly, but accurately.
  3. C) know the information inherently, without prior experience.
  4. D) have difficulty organizing information.

 

Page Ref: 439

 

Objective: 12.4

32)   Appreciation of __________ enables children to pinpoint the reasons that another person arrived at a certain belief.

  1. A) theory of mind
  2. B) second-order false belief
  3. C) elaboration
  4. D) cognitive self-regulation

 

Page Ref: 441

 

Objective: 12.4

33)   The ability to view a situation from at least two perspectives is called

  1. A) recursive thought.
  2. B) cognitive self-regulation.
  3. C)
  4. D) reciprocal awareness.

 

Page Ref: 441

 

Objective: 12.4

34)   Aili is aware that she should attend closely to her teacher’s directions, group items when memorizing, and reread a complicated paragraph to make sure she understands it. But she does not always engage in these activities. Aili is not yet good at

  1. A) selective attention.
  2. B) applying memory strategies.
  3. C) cognitive self-regulation.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 442

 

Objective: 12.4

35)   Children who __________ develop a sense of academic self-efficacy.

  1. A) have high IQ scores.
  2. B) acquire academic integrity.
  3. C) acquire effective self-regulatory skills
  4. D) use abstract, logical thought.

 

Page Ref: 442

 

Objective: 12.4

36)   As children make the transition from emergent literacy to conventional reading, __________ continues to facilitate their progress.

  1. A) whole-language instruction
  2. B) private speech
  3. C) phonological awareness
  4. D) reciprocal teaching

 

Page Ref: 443

 

Objective: 12.5

37)   Mrs. Markie, a first-grade teacher, believes that, from the beginning, children should be exposed to text in its complete form so that they can appreciate the communicative function of written language. Mrs. Markie takes a __________ approach to teaching reading.

  1. A) whole-language
  2. B) phonics
  3. C) reciprocal
  4. D) hierarchical

 

Page Ref: 443

 

Objective: 12.5

38)   When teachers __________, first graders show greater literacy progress.

  1. A) focus on reading aloud without stopping to concentrate on comprehension
  2. B) rely exclusively on the whole-language approach
  3. C) rely exclusively on the phonics approach
  4. D) combine real reading and writing with teaching of phonics

 

Page Ref: 443

 

Objective: 12.5

39)   The phonics approach to reading

  1. A) claims that if reading is kept meaningful, children will be motivated to discover the specific skills they need.
  2. B) stresses the relationship between letters and sounds, thus enabling children to decode words.
  3. C) stresses an appreciation for word concepts in a story context.
  4. D) allows children to decipher meanings of words by reading the words around them.

 

Page Ref: 443

 

Objective: 12.5

40)   Yolanda entered school low in phonological awareness. Without __________, Yolanda will probably be behind her agemates in text comprehension skills by third grade.

  1. A) early phonics training
  2. B) reading across the curriculum
  3. C) metacognitive training
  4. D) special education services

 

Page Ref: 444

 

Objective: 12.5

41)   Which of the following statements about the development of reading is true?

  1. A) Around age 3 to 4, children become able to decode simple, one-syllable words.
  2. B) Middle childhood marks the time when most children first show interest in books and printed words.
  3. C) Around age 7 to 8, there is a shift where children go from “learning to read” to “reading to learn.”
  4. D) Older learners tend to become set in their ways and have trouble adjusting the way they read to fit their current purpose.

 

Page Ref: 444

 

Objective: 12.5

42)   With regards to teaching mathematics, research finds that __________ is most beneficial.

  1. A) rote memorization of math facts and rules
  2. B) computation drills alone
  3. C) “number sense” alone
  4. D) a blend of drill in computing and “number sense”

 

Page Ref: 444

 

Objective: 12.5

43)   Encouraging students to __________ and making sure they __________ are essential for solid mastery of basic math.

  1. A) memorize math facts; remember them
  2. B) apply strategies; know why certain strategies work
  3. C) memorize math rules; have a calculator
  4. D) have calculators; know how to use them

 

Page Ref: 445

 

Objective: 12.5

44)   IQ often enters into educational decisions because it

  1. A) is an accurate representation of a child’s information-processing speed.
  2. B) is the best way to understand why certain children have difficulty in mathematics.
  3. C) identifies children who will excel in art and music.
  4. D) predicts school performance and educational attainment.

 

Page Ref: 446

 

Objective: 12.6

45)   Test designers use __________ to identify the various abilities that intelligence tests measure.

  1. A) normative data
  2. B) observational studies
  3. C) confidence intervals
  4. D) factor analysis

 

Page Ref: 446

 

Objective: 12.6

46)   Group-administered IQ tests are useful for __________ and for __________.

  1. A) reading evaluation; identifying zones of proximal development for a particular classroom
  2. B) research design; identifying areas for future investigational studies
  3. C) instructional planning; identifying children who require more extensive evaluation with individually administered tests
  4. D) identifying children’s specific learning deficiencies; providing information to improve their learning environments

 

Page Ref: 446

 

Objective: 12.6

47)   Which of the following statements about intelligence tests is true?

  1. A) Individually administered intelligence tests are primarily used for instructional planning and for identifying children who require more extensive evaluation.
  2. B) Both group-administered and individually administered tests can be given by teachers with minimal training.
  3. C) With individually administered tests, the examiner not only considers the child’s answers but also observes the child’s behavior.
  4. D) Group-administered tests include observations of the child’s behavior, such as attention to and interest in the tasks.

 

Page Ref: 446

 

Objective: 12.6

48)   The __________ factors on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition, are assumed to be __________ culturally biased.

  1. A) quantitative reasoning; less
  2. B) visual–spatial processing; less
  3. C) basic information-processing; more
  4. D) working-memory; more

 

Page Ref: 447

 

Objective: 12.6

49)   __________ was designed to downplay culture-dependent information, which is emphasized on only one factor (verbal reasoning).

  1. A) The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition,
  2. B) The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children–IV (WISC–IV)
  3. C) Sternberg’s triarchic theory of successful intelligence
  4. D) Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences

 

Page Ref: 447

 

Objective: 12.6

50)   Professor Diaz is conducting a study to determine whether a child’s information-processing speed is related to her intelligence test score. He is conducting a

  1. A) functional assessment.
  2. B) factor analysis.
  3. C) componential analysis.
  4. D) dynamic assessment.

 

Page Ref: 447

 

Objective: 12.6

51)   Which of the following is a good predictor of IQ?

  1. A) well-developed gross-motor skills
  2. B) flexible attention strategies
  3. C) slow, steady nervous system function
  4. D) REM brain-wave patterns during sleep

 

Page Ref: 447

 

Objective: 12.6

52)   A major shortcoming of the componential approach is that it

  1. A) focuses too much on cultural bias in intelligence testing.
  2. B) regards intelligence as entirely due to causes within the child.
  3. C) has not generated enough research.
  4. D) does not try to uncover the underlying basis of IQ.

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

53)   Sternberg’s triarchic theory of successful intelligence is comprised of which of the following three broad, interacting intelligences?

  1. A) experiential, interpersonal, and academic
  2. B) fluid, crystallized, and social
  3. C) contextual, verbal, and spatial
  4. D) analytical, creative, and practical

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

54)   Nianzu quickly applies learning and memory strategies to new situations and engages in self-regulation. According to Sternberg, Nianzu excels in __________ intelligence.

  1. A) analytical
  2. B) creative
  3. C) practical
  4. D) experiential

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

55)   Noah thinks more skillfully than others when faced with novelty. Given a new task, Noah applies his information-processing skills in exceptionally effective ways, rapidly making these skills automatic so that working memory is freed for more complex aspects of the situation. According to Sternberg’s theory, Noah’s strengths lie in __________ intelligence.

  1. A) analytical
  2. B) creative
  3. C) practical
  4. D) experiential

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

56)   Andrei skillfully adapts his thinking to fit with both his desires and the demands of his everyday world. When he cannot adapt to a new situation, Andrei tries to shape it to meet his needs. According to Sternberg, Andrei excels in __________ intelligence.

  1. A) analytical
  2. B) creative
  3. C) practical
  4. D) experiential

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

57)   __________ intelligence reminds us that intelligent behavior is never culture-free.

  1. A) Analytical
  2. B) Creative
  3. C) Practical
  4. D) Experiential

 

Page Ref: 448

 

Objective: 12.6

58)   Which of the following parents is most likely to mention cognitive traits when asked for their idea of an intelligent first grader?

  1. A) Boupha, a Cambodian immigrant to the United States
  2. B) Lupe, a Mexican immigrant to the United States
  3. C) Chi, a Vietnamese immigrant to the United States
  4. D) Cindy, a Caucasian American

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

59)   According to Sternberg,

  1. A) the gap between middle-SES and low-SES children—about 9 points—accounts for some of the ethnic differences in IQ, but not all.
  2. B) each intelligence has a unique biological basis, a distinct course of development, and different expert, or “end-state,” performances.
  3. C) flexible attention, memory, and reasoning strategies are as important as efficient thinking in predicting IQ.
  4. D) intelligence tests can easily underestimate, and even overlook, the intellectual strengths of some children, especially ethnic minorities.

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

60)   Rosanna scores highly in Gardner’s spatial intelligence. Based on these test results, which of the following occupations might Rosanna be best suited for?

  1. A) writer
  2. B) engineer
  3. C) sculptor
  4. D) biologist

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

61)   Benedicte has the ability to use her body skillfully for expressive as well as goal-directed purposes and the ability to handle objects easily. According to Gardner, Benedicte has a strong __________ intelligence.

  1. A) bodily-kinesthetic
  2. B) interpersonal
  3. C) naturalist
  4. D) musical

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

62)   Kyle recognizes and classifies all varieties of animals and plants. According to Gardner, Kyle excels in __________ intelligence.

  1. A) spatial
  2. B) naturalist
  3. C) linguistic
  4. D) logico-mathematical

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

63)   Gardner believes that each intelligence

  1. A) is rooted in early environmental experiences.
  2. B) has a biological basis.
  3. C) has a similar course of development.
  4. D) has a unique neurological basis.

 

Page Ref: 449

 

Objective: 12.6

64)   Gardner’s __________ and __________ intelligences include a set of skills for accurately perceiving, reasoning about, and regulating emotion that has become known as emotional intelligence.

  1. A) linguistic; musical
  2. B) spatial; bodily-kinesthetic
  3. C) interpersonal; intrapersonal
  4. D) interpersonal; social

 

Page Ref: 450

 

Objective: 12.6

65)   Which of the following statements about group differences in IQ scores of American children is true?

  1. A) American white children score, on average, 4 to 8 IQ points below American black children.
  2. B) American black children fall midway between white and Hispanic children in average IQ score.
  3. C) Although the difference in IQ scores between black and white children has been shrinking over the past several decades, a substantial gap remains.
  4. D) The difference in IQ scores between black and white children has grown significantly over the past several decades.

 

Page Ref: 450

 

Objective: 12.7

66)   Arthur Jensen’s “How Much Can We Boost IQ and Scholastic Achievement?” claims that __________ is largely responsible for individual, ethnic, and SES variations in intelligence.

  1. A) heredity
  2. B) educational opportunity
  3. C) child rearing
  4. D) culture

 

Page Ref: 450

 

Objective: 12.7

67)   Adoption studies consistently reveal that

  1. A) about three-quarters of the differences in IQ among children can be traced to their genetic makeup.
  2. B) when young children are adopted into caring, stimulating homes, their IQs rise substantially.
  3. C) adopted children of low-IQ biological mothers score below average on IQ tests during the school years.
  4. D) adopted children score, on average, 15 to 20 points lower in IQ than their nonadopted agemates.

 

Page Ref: 451

 

Objective: 12.7

68)   Research on African-American children adopted into economically well-off white homes during the first year of life suggests that

  1. A) these children score similarly in IQ to children who remain in low-SES homes.
  2. B) poverty severely depresses the intelligence of ethnic minority children.
  3. C) genetic factors have a powerful impact on African-American children’s IQs.
  4. D) environmental factors have little impact on African-American children’s IQs.

 

Page Ref: 451

 

Objective: 12.7

69)   According to the Flynn effect, IQs have __________ from one generation to the next.

  1. A) increased steadily
  2. B) decreased steadily
  3. C) fluctuated
  4. D) remained virtually the same

 

Page Ref: 452 Box: Cultural Influences: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ

 

Objective: 12.7

70)   Large, environmentally induced gains in IQ present a major challenge to the assumption that

  1. A) gender variations in IQ are genetic.
  2. B) societal contributions to IQ are unimportant.
  3. C) ethnic variations in IQ are genetic.
  4. D) IQ is a valid measure of school learning potential.

 

Page Ref: 452 Box: Cultural Influences: The Flynn Effect: Massive Generational Gains in IQ

 

Objective: 12.7

71)   Javier’s father works together with him in a coordinated, fluid way. Each focuses on the same aspect of a problem. Javier’s father prefers a(n) __________ style of communication.

  1. A) collaborative
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) abstract
  4. D) authoritarian

 

Page Ref: 452

 

Objective: 12.7

72)   Mrs. Noneman directs her children to each carry out an aspect of a task. Each child is expected to work independently. Mrs. Noneman prefers a(n) __________ style of communication.

  1. A) collaborative
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) abstract
  4. D) authoritarian

 

Page Ref: 452

 

Objective: 12.7

73)   Over middle childhood, Neveah, an African American, became increasingly conscious of ethnic stereotypes. By early adolescence, she stopped caring about her grades and said that school was not important to her. Neveah’s attitude is an example of

  1. A) self-fulfilling prophecy.
  2. B) educational bias.
  3. C) motivational anxiety.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 453

 

Objective: 12.7

74)   When assessing students, Mrs. Carter introduces purposeful teaching into the testing situation to find out what the child can attain with social support. Mrs. Carter is using

  1. A) dynamic assessment.
  2. B)
  3. C) static assessment.
  4. D) componential analysis.

 

Page Ref: 454

 

Objective: 12.7

75)   Which of the following interventions is useful in reducing cultural bias in testing?

  1. A) community programs promoting collaborative approaches to homework
  2. B) social programs promoting tolerance and less bullying of minorities
  3. C) school programs promoting self-affirmation for minority children
  4. D) media programs emphasizing metalinguistic awareness for all children

 

Page Ref: 454

 

Objective: 12.7

76)   In middle childhood, children’s attitude toward language undergoes a fundamental shift as they develop

  1. A) metalinguistic awareness.
  2. B) linguistic reasoning.
  3. C) a theory of language.
  4. D) systemic linguistics.

 

Page Ref: 455

 

Objective: 12.8

77)   Which of the following statements about vocabulary and reading is true?

  1. A) Preschoolers’ reading habits strongly predict later vocabulary size into high school.
  2. B) Avid readers are exposed to more than 4 million words per year.
  3. C) On average, children learn about 10 new words each day.
  4. D) Children who rarely read encounter only about 600,000 words per year.

 

Page Ref: 455

 

Objective: 12.8

78)   When asked to define “bicycle,” Emi said, “It’s got wheels, a chain, and handlebars.” Emi is probably a

  1. A)
  2. B) first grader.
  3. C) fourth grader.
  4. D) sixth grader.

 

Page Ref: 455

 

Objective: 12.8

79)   Ms. Setzer provides her second graders with opportunities to communicate in many situations. Her students show gains in the communicative side of language. Ms. Setzer emphasizes

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 456

 

Objective: 12.8

80)   White children’s narratives are usually __________ than those of African-American children.

  1. A) shorter and less complex
  2. B) longer and more complex
  3. C) about the same length as
  4. D) more focused on social relationships

 

Page Ref: 457

 

Objective: 12.8

81)   Eight-year-old Goran immigrates to the United States with his family. About how long will it take Croatian-speaking Goran to attain speaking and writing skills in English on a par with his English-speaking agemates?

  1. A) 1 to 2 years
  2. B) 3 to 5 years
  3. C) 5 to 7 years
  4. D) until he is an adult

 

Page Ref: 457

 

Objective: 12.9

82)   Miguel is bilingual. He sometimes speaks sentences in English that contain one or more Spanish words without violating the grammar of either language. Miguel engages in

  1. A) a topic-focused style of communication.
  2. B) a classic form.
  3. C) a topic-associating style of communication.
  4. D) code switching.

 

Page Ref: 457

 

Objective: 12.9

83)   Bilingual children

  1. A) develop denser white matter in areas of the right hemisphere.
  2. B) gradually lose their first language.
  3. C) outperform others on tests of selective attention.
  4. D) often experience difficulties in reading achievement.

 

Page Ref: 458

 

Objective: 12.9

84)   Elena moved to the United States from Guatemala when she was 6 years old. Research shows that if her school curriculum integrates both Spanish and English, she will

  1. A) be semilingual.
  2. B) gradually lose her ability to speak Spanish.
  3. C) fall behind in reading skills.
  4. D) acquire English more easily.

 

Page Ref: 458–459

 

Objective: 12.9

85)   In a study of the impact of class size on elementary school children, placing teacher’s aides in regular-size classes

  1. A) raised math scores.
  2. B) raised reading scores.
  3. C) had no impact.
  4. D) predicted higher graduation rates.

 

Page Ref: 459

 

Objective: 12.9

86)   Mr. Selkie’s classroom includes students whose desks face the front of the classroom, arranged in rows. The students are relatively passive—listening to Mr. Selkie, who is the sole authority for knowledge, rules, and decision making. Mr. Selkie does most of the talking, though students are expected to respond when called on. Mr. Selkie has a(n) __________ classroom.

  1. A) constructivist
  2. B) traditional
  3. C) authoritative
  4. D) social-constructivist

 

Page Ref: 460

 

Objective: 12.10

87)   Mrs. Finkbiner’s classroom includes richly equipped learning centers, as well as small groups and individuals solving self-chosen problems. She guides and supports in response to children’s needs. Mrs. Finkbiner has a(n) __________ classroom.

  1. A) constructivist
  2. B) traditional
  3. C) inclusive
  4. D) collectivist

 

Page Ref: 460

 

Objective: 12.10

88)   Traditional classrooms have become increasingly pronounced as a result of the

  1. A) trend towards magnet schools in poor neighborhoods.
  2. B) FAPE (Free Appropriate Public Education) Act.
  3. C) S. No Child Left Behind Act.
  4. D) Brown v. Board of Education

 

Page Ref: 460–461

 

Objective: 12.10

89)   Which of the following statements about traditional versus constructivist classrooms is true?

  1. A) Older elementary school children in constructivist classrooms have a slight edge in achievement test scores.
  2. B) In traditional classrooms, students are evaluated by considering their progress in relation to their own prior development.
  3. C) Constructivist classrooms are associated with gains in critical thinking, greater social and moral maturity, and more positive attitudes toward school.
  4. D) Preschool and kindergarten students in traditional classrooms have a significant advantage in achievement test scores.

 

Page Ref: 461

 

Objective: 12.10

90)   Holly’s birthday is two days before the cutoff date for kindergarten enrollment. Her parents are considering delaying her school entry by one year. They should know that research reveals that

  1. A) there are long-term academic benefits from delaying school entry.
  2. B) school readiness cannot be cultivated through classroom experiences.
  3. C) there are long-term social benefits from delaying school entry.
  4. D) younger first graders outperform same-age children a year behind them.

 

Page Ref: 461

 

Objective: 12.10

91)   In Ms. Adkin’s classroom, children participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers, with whom they jointly construct understandings. As children appropriate the knowledge and strategies generated through working together, they become competent, contributing members of their classroom. Ms. Adkin has a __________ classroom.

  1. A) social-constructivist
  2. B) traditional
  3. C) constructivist
  4. D) Piagetian-based

 

Page Ref: 461

 

Objective: 12.10

92)   Which of the following is an example of reciprocal teaching?

  1. A) Ella, a talented math student, works on a multiplication worksheet with Caleb, a struggling student.
  2. B) Katianna presents a geography project first to her own third-grade class and then to a second-grade class.
  3. C) Nicco, Tyler, and their teacher read a passage on ecosystems and take turns leading dialogues on it.
  4. D) Angela, a gifted student, visits a resource room where Ms. Dailey shows her computer programming techniques.

 

Page Ref: 461

 

Objective: 12.10

93)   Reciprocal teaching focuses on which four cognitive strategies?

  1. A) discussion, practice, segment, and reading
  2. B) elaboration, rehearsal, chunking, and repetition
  3. C) challenging, digesting, comparing, and evaluating
  4. D) questioning, summarizing, clarifying, and predicting

 

Page Ref: 461

 

Objective: 12.10

94)   Miss Tessier guides the overall process of learning in her classroom, but no other distinction is made between adult and child contributors: All participate in joint endeavors and have the authority to define and resolve problems. Miss Tessier is using a __________ approach to instruction.

  1. A) traditional
  2. B) communities of learners
  3. C) constructivist
  4. D) reciprocal teaching

 

Page Ref: 462

 

Objective: 12.10

95)   Many U.S. teachers—especially those in schools with many students from low-income families—emphasize

  1. A) the application of abstract concepts to real-life situations.
  2. B) repetitive drill over higher-level thinking.
  3. C) summarizing and retelling of reading texts.
  4. D) analysis and synthesis of new information.

 

Page Ref: 462

 

Objective: 12.11

96)   Which of the following statements about teacher–student relationships is true?

  1. A) Well-behaved, high-achieving students typically get less support from teachers because they are not as needy as other students.
  2. B) Overall, low-SES students have more sensitive and supportive relationships with teachers.
  3. C) Warm, low-conflict teacher–student relationships have an especially strong impact on the achievement of children at risk for learning disabilities.
  4. D) Teachers tend to interact in the same way with all children, regardless of student behavior or achievement.

 

Page Ref: 462

 

Objective: 12.11

97)   Phoebe’s teacher thinks she has a behavior problem. As a result, Phoebe starts to believe that she is a troublemaker and begins to act out in the classroom. This is an example of

  1. A) an educational self-fulfilling prophecy.
  2. B) cultural bias.
  3. C) a stereotype threat.
  4. D) behavior conduct disorder.

 

Page Ref: 462

 

Objective: 12.11

98)   Which type of child–teacher relationship is most likely to lead to a negative self-fulfilling prophecy?

  1. A) a quiet, withdrawn student with a teacher in a constructivist classroom
  2. B) a low-achieving student with a teacher who publicly compares children
  3. C) a high-achieving student with a teacher in a traditional classroom
  4. D) a low-achieving student with a teacher in a constructivist classroom

 

Page Ref: 463

 

Objective: 12.11

99)   Which of the following statements about integration in American schools is true?

  1. A) School integration has increased dramatically since the 1990s.
  2. B) When minority students attend ethnically mixed schools they typically do so with other minorities.
  3. C) Asian-American children are more segregated than African-American children.
  4. D) The racial divide in American education has all but disappeared.

 

Page Ref: 464 Box: Social Issues: Education: Magnet Schools: Equal Access to High-Quality Education

 

Objective: 12.11

100)  Compared to homogeneous groups of above-average students, heterogeneous groups

  1. A) often engage in poorer-quality interaction.
  2. B) progress at a slower pace.
  3. C) get more drill on basic facts and skills.
  4. D) engage in less discussion.

 

Page Ref: 463

 

Objective: 12.11

101)  Computer programming projects in the classroom promote

  1. A) problem solving and metacognition.
  2. B) use of memory strategies.
  3. C) recursive thinking skills.
  4. D) reduced aggression and bullying.

 

Page Ref: 464

 

Objective: 12.12

102)  Which of the following statements is supported by research on computers and academic learning?

  1. A) Most U.S. low-SES families with school-age children and adolescents do not have computers or Internet access.
  2. B) Children who use word processing products tend to struggle with spelling and grammar, because they worry less about making mistakes.
  3. C) Computer-written word processing products tend to be shorter and of lesser quality than handwritten products.
  4. D) The more low-SES middle-school students use the Internet for personal information gathering, the better their reading achievement.

 

Page Ref: 464

 

Objective: 12.12

103)  Which of the following statements about the “digital divide” is true?

  1. A) Girls are more likely than boys to use screen media to download music and for social communication.
  2. B) Low-SES children devote more time to Internet use than their higher-SES counterparts.
  3. C) Boys are more likely than girls to engage in writing computer programs and creating Web pages.
  4. D) Overall, girls spend more time with screen media than boys.

 

Page Ref: 465

 

Objective: 12.12

104)  In Mr. Pratico’s fourth grade classroom, students with learning difficulties work alongside typical students for part or all of the school day. Mr. Pratico’s classroom is

  1. A) a resource room.
  2. B)
  3. C) a communities of learners.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 465

 

Objective: 12.13

105)  Five to 10 percent of school-age children have

  1. A) mild intellectual disabilities.
  2. B) IQs above 130.
  3. C) learning disabilities.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 465

 

Objective: 12.13

106)  Which of the following statements about inclusion is true?

  1. A) All students benefit academically from inclusion, but not all benefit socially.
  2. B) All students benefit socially from inclusion, but not all benefit academically.
  3. C) Achievement gains depend on the severity of the disability and the support services available.
  4. D) Children with disabilities are typically accepted by regular-classroom peers.

 

Page Ref: 466

 

Objective: 12.13

107)  If a child is creative, he or she is able to

  1. A) reproduce others’ work with little effort.
  2. B) achieve outstanding scores in a specific field.
  3. C) think convergently about problems.
  4. D) produce work that is original yet appropriate.

 

Page Ref: 466

 

Objective: 12.14

108)  __________ thinking involves arriving at a single correct answer, whereas __________ thinking involves generating multiple and unusual possibilities when faced with a task or problem.

  1. A) Divergent; convergent
  2. B) Recursive; reciprocal
  3. C) Convergent; divergent
  4. D) Factual; creative

 

Page Ref: 466

 

Objective: 12.14

109) Because individuals show uneven ability across academic subjects, definitions of giftedness have been expanded to include

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 467

 

Objective: 12.14

110)  Many gifted children and adolescents

  1. A) are socially isolated.
  2. B) have high self-esteem.
  3. C) display creativity in many unrelated areas.
  4. D) have driving and overambitious parents.

 

Page Ref: 467

 

Objective: 12.14

111)  Carter is highly talented and accomplished in art and music. His parents are likely to

  1. A) be warm, sensitive, and reasonably demanding.
  2. B) be highly intelligent.
  3. C) arrange for rigorous, demanding teachers when he is young.
  4. D) have strict rules and high expectations.

 

Page Ref: 467

 

Objective: 12.14

112)  Gifted children fare well in programs that

  1. A) keep them academically with their agemates, so they are not pushed too hard.
  2. B) provide special activities that promote problem solving, critical thinking, and creativity.
  3. C) keep them with their agemates, but not in programs that advance them to higher grades.
  4. D) advance them to higher grades, but not in programs that pull them out of their regular classrooms for special instruction.

 

Page Ref: 467

 

Objective: 12.14

113)  In international studies of reading, mathematics, and science achievement, U.S. students typically perform

  1. A) better than students in Korea and Japan.
  2. B) better than students in Canada and the Netherlands.
  3. C) above the international averages.
  4. D) at or below the international averages.

 

Page Ref: 468

 

Objective: 12.15

114)  According to international comparisons, instruction in the United States is __________ than in other industrialized countries.

  1. A) more challenging
  2. B) less focused on absorbing facts
  3. C) less focused on high-level reasoning
  4. D) more focused on critical thinking

 

Page Ref: 468

 

Objective: 12.15

115)  Which of the following factors is a reason for the superior academic performance of Finnish as compared to American children?

  1. A) All Finnish students receive the same nationally mandated, high-quality instruction.
  2. B) Finnish parents regard native ability as the key to academic success.
  3. C) Finland has a national testing system used to ability-group students.
  4. D) Finnish teachers focus more on the fundamentals of education.

 

Page Ref: 469

 

Objective: 12.15

ESSAY

116)  Discuss school-age children’s spatial-reasoning skills as it relates to their understanding of cognitive maps.

117)  Define cognitive self-regulation. Why does it develop gradually? How can parents help foster it?

most common approaches to teaching beginning reading. What does research suggest is the best way to teach beginning reading?

119)  Describe Robert Sternberg’s triarchic theory of successful intelligence.

120)  Ms. Aragon and her young son recently moved to the United States from Mexico. She is considering whether to enroll him in a bilingual education program or immerse him in an English-only school. How would you advise her?

 

121)  Explain the educational benefits of a small class size in early elementary school.

122)  How well-educated are U.S. children compared with children in other industrialized nations? What are some factors that are responsible for this?

 

Chapter 13
emotional and social development
in middle childhood

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   According to Erikson, the psychological conflict of middle childhood is

  1. A) autonomy versus shame and doubt.
  2. B) initiative versus guilt.
  3. C) industry versus inferiority.
  4. D) identity versus role confusion.

 

Page Ref: 473

 

Objective: 13.1

2)   The psychological conflict of middle childhood is resolved positively when experiences lead children to develop

  1. A) a sense of purpose and initiative.
  2. B) a sense of competence at useful skills and tasks.
  3. C) a growing sense of independence and autonomy.
  4. D) conflict-free ideals and problem solving skills.

 

Page Ref: 473

 

Objective: 13.1

3)   Six-year-old Aliou lives in a Baka village where each day he fetches water and minds his younger siblings. According to Erikson, Aliou will most likely develop a sense of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 473

 

Objective: 13.1

4)   Which of the following children is most likely to have a sense of industry?

  1. A) Erika, who has an overly high self-concept
  2. B) Tak, who gets along with older children, but does not cooperate with agemates
  3. C) Thayer, who has a positive but realistic self-concept
  4. D) Kumi, who has little confidence in her abilities

 

5)   Which of the following statements accurately reflects the change in self-description that typically occurs between ages 8 and 11?

  1. A) Children tend to describe themselves by focusing on specific behaviors.
  2. B) Children will describe positive, but not negative, personality traits.
  3. C) Children organize their observations of behaviors and internal states into general dispositions.
  4. D) Children are likely to describe themselves in extreme, all-or-none ways.

 

Page Ref: 474

 

Objective: 13.2

6)   When describing themselves, older school-age children are __________ likely than younger children to __________.

  1. A) less; include both positive and negative personality traits
  2. B) more; describe themselves in extreme ways
  3. C) less; describe themselves in comparison to peers
  4. D) far less; describe themselves in all-or-none ways

 

Page Ref: 474

 

Objective: 13.2

7)   Which of the following children is engaging in social comparison?

  1. A) Florrie, who observes that she is better at singing than her peers but does not run as fast
  2. B) Clark, who understands that his friend is upset because he received a poor grade
  3. C) Astra, who describes herself as talkative and fun-loving, but also as a hard worker
  4. D) Julien, who attributes his successful basketball dribbling skills to ability

 

Page Ref: 474

 

Objective: 13.2

8)   Socialist George Herbert Mead proposed that a __________ emerges when children adopt a view of the self that resembles others’ attitudes toward the child.

  1. A) sense of doubt
  2. B) well-organized psychological self
  3. C) superiority complex
  4. D) strong sense of guilt

 

Page Ref: 475

 

Objective: 13.2

9)   Self-esteem can be greatly undermined when

  1. A) children gain an understanding that traits are linked to specific desires.
  2. B) recursive thought influences the development of perspective taking.
  3. C) children internalize the expectations of those around them.
  4. D) there is a large discrepancy between a child’s ideal and real self.

 

10)   School-age children with a history of __________ have more complex, favorable, and coherent self-concepts.

  1. A) elaborative parent–child conversations about past experiences
  2. B) authoritarian parent–child interactions
  3. C) permissive parent–child interactions
  4. D) routine parent–child conversations about current events

 

Page Ref: 475

 

Objective: 13.2

11)   Which of the following children is likely to describe themselves with attributes that stress group membership and relationships to others?

  1. A) Laurie, an American girl
  2. B) Alberto, a Hispanic boy
  3. C) Tali, a Russian girl
  4. D) Charin, a Chinese boy

 

Page Ref: 475

 

Objective: 13.2

12)   As children enter school and receive more feedback about how well they perform compared with their peers, self-esteem usually

  1. A) adjusts to an extremely high level.
  2. B) stays the same as it was during the preschool years.
  3. C) adjusts to a more realistic level.
  4. D) adjusts to an extremely low level.

 

Page Ref: 475

 

Objective: 13.2

13)   The capacity to __________ permits school-age children to combine their separate self-evaluations into an overall sense of self-esteem.

  1. A) master increasingly complex social challenges
  2. B) view the self in terms of stable dispositions
  3. C) understand the perspectives of others
  4. D) evaluate the behaviors and intentions of others

 

Page Ref: 476

 

Objective: 13.2

14)   During childhood and adolescence, __________ correlates more strongly with overall self-worth than does any other self-esteem factor.

  1. A) academic achievement
  2. B) perceived physical appearance
  3. C) social competence
  4. D) athletic ability

 

15)   From middle childhood on, individual differences in self-esteem become

  1. A) less well-defined.
  2. B) increasingly stable.
  3. C) more flexible.
  4. D) less important.

 

Page Ref: 476

 

Objective: 13.2

16)   Carrie, age 8, has high social self-esteem. Which of the following statements most likely applies to Carrie?

  1. A) She is perceived to be a bit snobbish by her classmates.
  2. B) She outperforms the majority of her classmates in schoolwork.
  3. C) She tends to be well-liked by her classmates.
  4. D) She often gets other classmates into trouble.

 

Page Ref: 476

 

Objective: 13.2

17)   Steven and Stephanie have equal skill levels in math, science, and language arts. Which of the following is probably true?

  1. A) Stephanie has higher math self-esteem.
  2. B) Steven has higher language-arts self-esteem.
  3. C) They have equal academic self-esteem.
  4. D) Steven has higher math and science self-esteem.

 

Page Ref: 477

 

Objective: 13.2

18)   Which of the following statements about self-esteem is true?

  1. A) Children who attend schools where their SES is well-represented have fewer self-esteem problems.
  2. B) Compared with their Caucasian agemates, African-American children tend to have slightly lower self-esteem.
  3. C) Compared with U.S. children, Chinese and Japanese children tend to have slightly higher self-esteem.
  4. D) Gender-stereotyped beliefs have little, in any, effect on children’s overall self-esteem.

 

Page Ref: 477

 

Objective: 13.2

19)   Parents who are overly indulgent tend to have children who

  1. A) develop learned helplessness.
  2. B) have unrealistically high self-esteem.
  3. C) are overly confident.
  4. D) are industrious.

 

20)   Margaret is high in academic self-esteem and motivation. She probably credits her successes to

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) a fixed ability.
  4. D) ability and effort.

 

Page Ref: 478

 

Objective: 13.2

21)   Learned-helpless children

  1. A) are more persistent than other children.
  2. B) are more likely to see the connection between effort and success.
  3. C) attribute their failures to bad luck.
  4. D) hold a fixed view of ability.

 

Page Ref: 478

 

Objective: 13.2

22)   When Amanda succeeds, her mother says, “You’re so smart!” This type of praise might lead Amanda to

  1. A) exert more effort when faced with a challenge.
  2. B) question her competence in the face of failure.
  3. C) focus on learning rather than performance.
  4. D) pay little attention to her academic achievements.

 

Page Ref: 479

 

Objective: 13.2

23)   Teachers who emphasize learning over getting good grades tend to have more

  1. A) average to below-average achieving students.
  2. B) learned-helpless students.
  3. C) mastery-oriented students.
  4. D) students who have low motivation and achievement.

 

Page Ref: 479

 

Objective: 13.2

24)   Girls __________ often than boys __________.

  1. A) more; attribute poor performance to lack of ability
  2. B) more; view failures as stemming from external factors
  3. C) less; let negative stereotypes undermine their performance
  4. D) more; tend to receive mastery-oriented support from teachers

 

25)   Asian parents and teachers are more likely than their American counterparts to

  1. A) hold a fixed view of ability.
  2. B) attend more to success than to failure.
  3. C) ignore a child’s inadequate performance.
  4. D) hold an incremental view of ability.

 

Page Ref: 479

 

Objective: 13.2

26)   Braison is receiving an intervention that encourages him to believe that he can overcome failure by exerting more effort. Braison is receiving

  1. A) learned success.
  2. B) attribution retraining.
  3. C) mastery orientation.
  4. D) performance evaluation.

 

Page Ref: 480

 

Objective: 13.2

27)   Mrs. Cybrig would like to help her low-effort daughter gain a sense of academic competence. Which of the following would you recommend to her?

  1. A) Select tasks that challenge, but do not overwhelm, her daughter.
  2. B) Attribute her daughter’s successes to intelligence rather than effort.
  3. C) Compare her daughter to her higher-achieving son by using prizes for good grades.
  4. D) Select tasks that her daughter can easily do, so she can have success.

 

Page Ref: 480

 

Objective: 13.2

28)   In which of the following scenarios is Henry, age 9, most likely to experience guilt?

  1. A) He accidentally knocks his friend over while running on the playground.
  2. B) He breaks his mother’s favorite glass while trying to help her clean the dishes.
  3. C) He forgets to clean up his toys before leaving for school.
  4. D) He peeks at the answers of his classmate during a spelling quiz.

 

Page Ref: 481

 

Objective: 13.3

29)   __________ prompts children to make amends.

  1. A) Pride
  2. B) Guilt
  3. C) Shame
  4. D) Anger

 

Page Ref: 481

 

Objective: 13.3

30)   A summary of findings from many studies confirm that children who experience guilt following transgressions

  1. A) tend to be well-adjusted.
  2. B) are prone to adjustment problems.
  3. C) have increase problems with coping.
  4. D) experience impaired perspective taking.

 

Page Ref: 481

 

Objective: 13.3

31)   Nine-year-old Simpson is emotionally understanding and empathetic. He probably

  1. A) also has favorable social relationships and prosocial behavior.
  2. B) is picked on by other children because he is “too sensitive.”
  3. C) retreats from social situations for fear of being overwhelmed by the emotions of others.
  4. D) cannot yet engage in perspective taking.

 

Page Ref: 482

 

Objective: 13.3

32)   Ten-year-old Stanley knows that his friend MaryAnn is angry because he played with Chester at recess. The next day, Stanley invites MaryAnn to play with Chester and him. Stanley is using

  1. A) emotion-centered coping.
  2. B) problem-centered coping.
  3. C) learned helplessness.
  4. D) emotional self-efficacy.

 

Page Ref: 482

 

Objective: 13.3

33)   Eleven-year-old Elin is in line at the drinking fountain. When a boy pushes her from behind, Elin is most likely to respond by

  1. A) telling a teacher.
  2. B) asking him not to push.
  3. C) pushing back.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 483

 

Objective: 13.3

34)   When mothers support their 5-year-olds’ emotional development by responding sensitively and helpfully when the child is distressed, children demonstrate __________ at age 7.

  1. A) greater emotion-centered coping
  2. B) increased levels of physical affection
  3. C) decreased emotional self-efficacy
  4. D) more effective emotional self-regulation

 

Page Ref: 483

 

Objective: 13.3

35)   In response to a story about unjust parental punishment, which of the following children is most likely to say that he or she would feel OK, rather than angry?

  1. A) Dalaja, a Hindu girl
  2. B) Joslyn, an American girl
  3. C) Ashoka, a Buddhist boy
  4. D) Samuel, an American boy

 

Page Ref: 483

 

Objective: 13.3

36)   Eight-year-old Lin, a Chinese child, is likely to

  1. A) say that telling the truth is always good.
  2. B) say that telling a lie is always bad.
  3. C) rate lying favorably when the intention is modesty.
  4. D) favor lying to support the individual at the expense of the group.

 

Page Ref: 484

 

Objective: 13.4

37)   Older children realize that people’s __________ and __________ affect the moral implications of violating a social convention.

  1. A) intentions; the context of their actions
  2. B) age; intelligence
  3. C) gender; the context of their actions
  4. D) religion; nationality

 

Page Ref: 484

 

Objective: 13.4

38)   In one study, 8- to 10-year-olds judged the moral implications of flag burning. Which of the following was a judgment the children made?

  1. A) They stated that private flag burning is worse than public flag burning.
  2. B) They stated that burning a flag to start a cooking fire was worse than burning it accidentally.
  3. C) They agreed that it was never acceptable to burn a flag, even in a country that treated its citizens unfairly.
  4. D) They stated that burning a flag was no different than burning other household items.

 

Page Ref: 484

 

Objective: 13.4

39)   As early as age 6, children

  1. A) recognize the importance of individual rights for maintaining a fair society.
  2. B) view freedom of speech and religion as individual rights.
  3. C) regard laws that discriminate against individuals as sometimes right.
  4. D) express very few prejudices, typically deciding in favor of kindness and fairness.

 

Page Ref: 485

 

Objective: 13.4

40)   Consider the unlikely situation where a school principal tells a student to steal another student’s lunch. Which of the following is most likely true?

  1. A) Most children, regardless of their culture, would listen to authority and steal the other student’s lunch.
  2. B) Asian children would be more likely than Western children to listen to authority and steal the other student’s lunch.
  3. C) Western children would be more likely than Asian children to listen to authority and steal the other student’s lunch.
  4. D) Most children, regardless of their culture, would disobey authority and not do as the principal asked.

 

Page Ref: 485

 

Objective: 13.4

41)   By the early school years,

  1. A) most children always form stereotypes when some basis for them exists.
  2. B) children’s parents’ and friends’ racial attitudes typically resemble their own.
  3. C) children associate power and privilege with white people.
  4. D) children pick up much information about group status from explicit messages from adults.

 

Page Ref: 485

 

Objective: 13.4

42)   Research findings raise the question of whether the decline in white children’s explicit racial bias during middle childhood is a true decrease, or whether it reflects their

  1. A) apathy toward the majority race.
  2. B) growing awareness of widely held standards that deem prejudice to be inappropriate.
  3. C) sympathy toward the minority race.
  4. D) increased understanding of different ethnicities.

 

Page Ref: 486

 

Objective: 13.4

43)   Which of the following statements about reducing prejudice is true?

  1. A) Long-term contact and collaboration among neighborhoods, schools, and communities may be the best way to reduce prejudice.
  2. B) Children assigned to cooperative learning groups with peers of diverse backgrounds have fewer prejudices even with regard to out-group members who are not part of the learning teams.
  3. C) School environments that expose children to broad ethnic diversity often cause children to form negative biases about out-group members.
  4. D) The more children believe that personalities are fixed, the more they report liking and perceiving themselves as similar to members of disadvantaged out-groups.

 

Page Ref: 487

 

Objective: 13.4

44)  Maddy spends most of her time with a particular set of girlfriends. Within this group, there are specific standards of behavior, a specialized dress code, and identified leaders. Maddy is most likely

  1. A) a controversial child.
  2. B) a popular-prosocial child.
  3. C) part of a peer group.
  4. D) part of a social clique.

 

Page Ref: 488

 

Objective: 13.5

45)  Research on peer-group exclusion shows that

  1. A) children who belong to a peer group rarely use relationally aggressive tactics to oust no longer “respected” children.
  2. B) with age, children are more likely to endorse excluding someone because of unconventional appearance or behavior.
  3. C) most school-age children believe it is okay for a group to exclude a peer on the basis of skin color.
  4. D) girls, especially, regard exclusion as unjust, perhaps because they experience it more often than boys.

 

Page Ref: 488

 

Objective: 13.5

46)   Adult involvement in formal groups, such as scouting and 4-H,

  1. A) prevents children from realizing the gains in social maturity associated with peer groups.
  2. B) prevents children from realizing the gains in moral maturity associated with peer groups.
  3. C) holds in check the negative behaviors associated with children’s informal peer groups.
  4. D) stifles children’s desire for formal or informal peer group belonging.

 

Page Ref: 488–489

 

Objective: 13.5

47)   Which of the following statements about school-age children’s friendships is true?

  1. A) Trust is the defining feature of friendships in middle childhood.
  2. B) School-age children’s friendships are less selective than preschoolers’ friendships.
  3. C) Boys are more exclusive in their friendships than girls.
  4. D) As in early childhood, school-age children’s friendships are highly unstable.

 

Page Ref: 489

 

Objective: 13.5

48)   Which of the following statements about 8-year-old Aja is most likely true?

  1. A) She has a lot of friends of varying ages.
  2. B) She has a few good friends, who do not resemble her in personality.
  3. C) She has only a handful of good friends, who, like Aja, do well in school.
  4. D) She has a lot of friends of diverse ethnic and SES groups.

 

Page Ref: 489

 

Objective: 13.6

49)   Findings that some girls’ friendships are full of jealousy and that some boys’ friendships often involve physical attacks suggest that

  1. A) prosocial children are as much at risk of having hostile, fragile relationships as aggressive children.
  2. B) friendships in middle childhood are seldom considered to be stable.
  3. C) aggressive children’s social problems operate even within their closest peer ties.
  4. D) school-age children are still largely incapable of behaving prosocially.

 

Page Ref: 489

 

Objective: 13.6

50)   To assess __________, researchers ask children to identify classmates whom they “like most” and “like least.”

  1. A) peer acceptance
  2. B) friendship quality
  3. C) perceived popularity
  4. D) gender typing

 

Page Ref: 490

 

Objective: 13.6

51)   Charles received few positive and many negative votes on peer-acceptance self-reports from the children in his class. How would Charles be classified?

  1. A) average
  2. B) rejected
  3. C) controversial
  4. D) neglected

 

Page Ref: 490

 

Objective: 13.6

52)   Jade received many positive and many negative votes on peer-acceptance self-reports from the children in her class. How would Jade be classified?

  1. A) popular
  2. B) average
  3. C) rejected
  4. D) controversial

 

Page Ref: 490

 

Objective: 13.6

53)   Which of the following children is most at risk for delinquency in adolescence and criminality in adulthood?

  1. A) David, an average child
  2. B) Marie, a rejected child
  3. C) Leo, a controversial child
  4. D) Lisa, a popular child

 

Page Ref: 490

 

Objective: 13.6

54)   School-age children with peer-relationship problems are more likely to

  1. A) have experienced permissive discipline.
  2. B) come from middle-SES families.
  3. C) have weak emotional self-regulation skills.
  4. D) have experienced authoritative discipline.

 

Page Ref: 490

 

Objective: 13.6

55)   Nick is passive and socially awkward. He worries a lot, holds negative expectations about his peer interactions, and is disliked by many of his classmates. Nick is a __________ child.

  1. A) neglected-withdrawn
  2. B) neglected-aggressive
  3. C) rejected-withdrawn
  4. D) rejected-aggressive

 

Page Ref: 491

 

Objective: 13.6

56)   Kurt is a target of verbal abuse and physical attacks and other forms of abuse. Kurt is

  1. A) a rejected-aggressive child.
  2. B) experiencing peer victimization.
  3. C) experiencing atypical bullying.
  4. D) a controversial-withdrawn child.

 

Page Ref: 492 Box: Biology and Environment: Bullies and Their Victims

 

Objective: 13.6

57)   Victims of persistent bullying are likely to

  1. A) experience low peer acceptance.
  2. B) experience relationships high in personal sharing.
  3. C) have a history of avoidant attachment.
  4. D) experience increased production of cortisol.

 

Page Ref: 492 Box: Biology and Environment: Bullies and Their Victims

 

Objective: 13.6

58)   Most neglected children

  1. A) report feeling especially lonely compared to others.
  2. B) are just as socially skilled as average children.
  3. C) have poor cooperation skills and tend to lash out.
  4. D) report feeling unhappy about their social life.

 

Page Ref: 491

 

Objective: 13.6

59)   Andy has developed a learned-helpless approach to peer acceptance—concluding, after repeated rebuffs, that he will never be liked. Andy is a __________ child.

  1. A) rejected-withdrawn
  2. B) rejected-aggressive
  3. C) neglected
  4. D) controversial

 

Page Ref: 491, 493

 

Objective: 13.6

60)   Interventions with rejected children aim to help them attribute their peer difficulties to __________ causes.

  1. A) external, unchangeable
  2. B) external, changeable
  3. C) internal, changeable
  4. D) internal, unchangeable

 

Page Ref: 493

 

Objective: 13.6

61)   Which of the following personality traits is a child most likely to describe as feminine?

  1. A) dependent
  2. B) rational
  3. C) dominant
  4. D) aggressive

 

Page Ref: 493

 

Objective: 13.7

62)   Parents

  1. A) more often praise girls for knowledge and boys for obedience.
  2. B) behave in more mastery-oriented ways with daughters than with sons.
  3. C) less often encourage girls to make their own decisions.
  4. D) set higher standards for girls than for boys when helping a child with a task.

 

Page Ref: 493

 

Objective: 13.7

63)   Which of the following subjects are children most likely to regard as more for girls?

  1. A) mathematics
  2. B) physical education
  3. C) language arts
  4. D) science

 

Page Ref: 493

 

Objective: 13.7

64)   By the end of the school years, most children

  1. A) dismiss most gender stereotypes.
  2. B) regard gender typing as socially rather than biologically influenced.
  3. C) are open-minded about violations of all gender roles.
  4. D) are rigid in their view of what females can do.

 

Page Ref: 494

 

Objective: 13.7

65)   From third to sixth grade,

  1. A) boys’ identification with their “masculine” personality traits declines.
  2. B) girls’ identification with their “masculine” personality traits declines.
  3. C) boys’ identification with their “feminine” personality traits increases.
  4. D) girls’ identification with their “feminine” personality traits declines.

 

Page Ref: 495

 

Objective: 13.7

66)   Dr. Schulz is conducting a study of the degree to which children feel comfortable with their gender assignment. Dr. Schulz is examining gender

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 495

 

Objective: 13.7

67)   Jalesa’s parents exercise general oversight of her activities while letting Jalesa take charge of moment-by-moment decision making. Jalesa and her parents are engaging in

  1. A) supervisory parenting.
  2. B) authoritarian parenting.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 496

 

Objective: 13.8

68)   Which of the following statements about the parent–child relationship in middle childhood is true?

  1. A) Both parents tend to devote more time to children of their own sex.
  2. B) Mothers tend to focus on achievement-related pursuits and chores.
  3. C) Fathers tend to focus on ensuring that children meet responsibilities for homework.
  4. D) When both parents are present, mothers engage in more caregiving than fathers.

 

Page Ref: 497

 

Objective: 13.8

69)   Which of the following statements about sibling rivalry is true?

  1. A) Sibling rivalry tends to decrease in middle childhood.
  2. B) Jealousy over attention from fathers predicts sibling conflict.
  3. C) To reduce rivalry, siblings often strive to be more like one another.
  4. D) Parental comparisons are more frequent for opposite-sex siblings who are close in age.

 

Page Ref: 497

 

Objective: 13.8

70)   Brothers Alan and James are very different in personality and temperament. What should their parents do to help facilitate their sibling relationship?

  1. A) They should maintain a “hands-off” approach and allow the boys to work independently on the relationship.
  2. B) They should use mediation techniques to increase the boys’ awareness of each other’s perspectives and reduce animosity.
  3. C) They should give Alan, the older brother, authority over James, the younger brother, especially in joint decision making.
  4. D) They should insist that the brothers rely on each other for companionship by limiting their outside friendships.

 

Page Ref: 497

 

Objective: 13.8

71)   Only children __________ than children with siblings.

  1. A) do poorer in school
  2. B) are somewhat closer to their parents
  3. C) have lower achievement motivation
  4. D) have fewer close, high-quality friends

 

Page Ref: 498

 

Objective: 13.8

72)   Bao, an only child, lives in China. Which of the following is probably true?

  1. A) Bao’s development is not as favorable as only children in the United States.
  2. B) Bao tends to feel emotionally insecure and lonely.
  3. C) Bao differs from agemates with siblings in social skills.
  4. D) Bao does not differ from agemates with siblings in peer acceptance.

 

Page Ref: 498

 

Objective: 13.8

73)   The most common way gay men and lesbians become parents is through

  1. A) previous heterosexual marriages.
  2. B)
  3. C) reproductive technologies.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 498

 

Objective: 13.9

74)   Lilly’s parents are gay. Research shows that she is likely to

  1. A) be confused about her gender identity.
  2. B) suffer from poor mental health.
  3. C) have inadequate peer relations.
  4. D) identify as heterosexual.

 

Page Ref: 499

 

Objective: 13.9

75)   Marcia, a never-married African-American woman, is raising a new baby. Marcia will probably

  1. A) receive child-rearing support from extended family.
  2. B) live with the child’s father outside of marriage.
  3. C) receive financial help from the child’s father.
  4. D) not have any further children while unmarried.

 

Page Ref: 499

 

Objective: 13.9

76)   The United States has experienced a(n) __________ in divorces over the past fifteen years, largely due to __________.

  1. A) increase; increases in family size
  2. B) increase; heightened economic stress
  3. C) decline; improved economic stability
  4. D) decline; a rise in the age at first marriage

 

Page Ref: 500

 

Objective: 13.10

77)   Samantha has recently divorced. She and her 2-year-old are likely to experience which of the following in the initial period after the divorce?

  1. A) remaining in the family home
  2. B) an increase in income due to child support payments
  3. C) a sharp drop in income
  4. D) a stronger relationship

 

Page Ref: 501

 

Objective: 13.10

78)   Trent’s parents are divorced, and he resides with his mother. Trent’s father sees him only occasionally. His father’s parenting style is likely to be

  1. A) uninvolved, but loving.
  2. B) harsh, but consistent.
  3. C) authoritative and warm.
  4. D) permissive and indulgent.

 

Page Ref: 501

 

Objective: 13.10

79)   When their parents divorce, preschoolers and young school-age children

  1. A) often fear that both parents may abandon them.
  2. B) experience depressed mood and become unruly.
  3. C) are less likely to display angry, defiant reactions than older children.
  4. D) typically display few changes in behavior.

 

Page Ref: 501

 

Objective: 13.10

80)   Which of the following children has the highest risk for serious adjustment problems?

  1. A) Zane, a boy who lives with his divorced mother
  2. B) Logan, a boy who lives with his divorced father
  3. C) Madisyn, a girl who lives with her divorced mother
  4. D) Kennedy, a girl who lives with her divorced father

 

Page Ref: 501–502

 

Objective: 13.10

81)   The overriding factor in positive adjustment after divorce is

  1. A) the gender of the child.
  2. B) effective parenting.
  3. C) the custody arrangements.
  4. D) the temperament of the child.

 

Page Ref: 502

 

Objective: 13.10

82)   Research shows that outcomes for sons are better when the

  1. A) mother is the sole custodian.
  2. B) parents equally split parenting time.
  3. C) father has limited visitation.
  4. D) father is the custodial parent.

 

Page Ref: 502

 

Objective: 13.10

83)   Cheryl and Saul are getting a divorce. They are meeting together with a trained professional in order to reduce family conflict, including legal battles over property division and child custody. Cheryl and Saul are participating in

  1. A) marriage counseling.
  2. B) joint custody.
  3. C) divorce mediation.
  4. D) family arbitration.

 

Page Ref: 503

 

Objective: 13.10

84)   Which of the following parents is most likely to pay child support regularly?

  1. A) Betty, a noncustodial mother who sees her son only occasionally
  2. B) George, a noncustodial father who has supervised visitation with his son
  3. C) Frank, a noncustodial father who sees his daughter often
  4. D) Willa, a noncustodial mother who has no visitation rights

 

Page Ref: 503

 

Objective: 13.10

85)   Which of the following statements about mother–stepfather families is true?

  1. A) Boys often react with sulky, resistant behavior to their custodial mother’s remarriage.
  2. B) Mothers’ friction with sons tends to increase.
  3. C) It is the most common form of blended family.
  4. D) Older school-age children display a marked decrease in acting-out behavior.

 

Page Ref: 504

 

Objective: 13.10

86)   Seven-year-old Matthew and 14-year-old Molly have been living with their father since their parents’ divorce two years ago. If their father remarries, you would expect __________ to react negatively to the remarriage.

  1. A) neither Matthew nor Molly
  2. B) both Matthew and Molly
  3. C) Molly, but not Matthew,
  4. D) Matthew, but not Molly,

 

Page Ref: 505

 

Objective: 13.10

87)   Employed mothers who value their parenting role

  1. A) have increased rates of marital discord and divorce.
  2. B) often prevent fathers from becoming fully involved in parenting.
  3. C) are more likely to use authoritative child rearing and coregulation.
  4. D) tend to experience stress and anxiety due to role overload.

 

Page Ref: 505

 

Objective: 13.11

88)   The Fishers are a dual-earner family. The Fisher children probably __________ than their friends in single-earner households.

  1. A) participate in fewer household chores
  2. B) have more rigid views of gender roles
  3. C) have more behavioral and academic problems
  4. D) devote more daily hours to doing homework under parental guidance

 

Page Ref: 505

 

Objective: 13.11

89)   Which of the following statements about maternal employment is true?

  1. A) Maternal employment often leads fathers to take on greater child-rearing responsibilities.
  2. B) Employed mothers who value their parenting role are more likely to use authoritarian child rearing.
  3. C) Children in dual-earner households devote less daily hours to doing homework.
  4. D) Part-time employment is associated with poor child adjustment.

 

Page Ref: 505

 

Objective: 13.11

90)   Alicia, a fourth grader, regularly looks after herself for two to three hours after she gets home from school and before her mother gets home from work. Alicia is a(n)

  1. A) home-based child.
  2. B) neglected child.
  3. C) self-care child.
  4. D) average child.

 

Page Ref: 506

 

Objective: 13.11

91)   Which of the following children is most likely to be enrolled in good after-care?

  1. A) Gigi, an ethnic minority girl
  2. B) Trenton, a middle-class boy
  3. C) Alana, a recently immigrated girl
  4. D) Jayden, an African-American boy

 

Page Ref: 507

 

Objective: 13.12

92)   In middle childhood, children’s anxieties are directed toward new concerns, such as a fear of

  1. A) the dark.
  2. B) supernatural beings.
  3. C) thunder and lightning.
  4. D) the possibility of dying.

 

Page Ref: 507

 

Objective: 13.12

93)   Which of the following children is at greatest risk for developing a phobia?

  1. A) Yolanda, who is a self-care girl
  2. B) Jeremy, who has low self-esteem
  3. C) Jill, who has an inhibited temperament
  4. D) Gligor, whose parents are divorced

 

Page Ref: 507

 

Objective: 13.12

94)   Seven-year-old Jane feels severe apprehension about attending school. She often gets dizzy or nauseous and complains of stomachaches. Jane’s real fear is most likely

  1. A) failure to achieve.
  2. B) maternal separation.
  3. C) her teacher.
  4. D) an aggressive older sibling.

 

Page Ref: 507–508

 

Objective: 13.12

95)   Hymie has developed a school phobia. Hymie’s parents should

  1. A) tell him to be braver and send him to school anyway.
  2. B) insist that he return to school as well as provide training in how to cope.
  3. C) arrange a shortened school day for him.
  4. D) give him tangible rewards for each day he attends school without complaining.

 

Page Ref: 508

 

Objective: 13.12

96)   Children who live in the midst of constant danger, chaos, and deprivation,

  1. A) gain flexible problem-solving skills which, in turn, leads to better coping.
  2. B) have fewer anxieties than children with school phobias.
  3. C) are at risk for long-term emotional distress and behavior problems.
  4. D) have some short-term, but few long-term, emotional problems.

 

Page Ref: 508

 

Objective: 13.12

97)   When war and social crises are temporary, most children

  1. A) cannot be comforted.
  2. B) do not show long-term emotional difficulties.
  3. C) lose their sense of safety.
  4. D) build a pessimistic view of the future.

 

Page Ref: 509 Box: Cultural Influences: Impact of Ethnic and Political Violence on Children

 

Objective: 13.12

98)   Which of the following is the best protection against lasting problems for children living in chronic danger?

  1. A) education and high-quality child care
  2. B) individual and family therapy
  3. C) parental affection and reassurance
  4. D) drawing and writing about traumatic experiences

 

Page Ref: 509 Box: Cultural Influences: Impact of Ethnic and Political Violence on Children

 

Objective: 13.12

99)   Which of the following statements about child sexual abuse is true?

  1. A) Children with disabilities are abused less than their typically developing peers.
  2. B) Sexual abuse is committed against children of both sexes, but more often against girls.
  3. C) Most cases begin in middle childhood and are not reported until adulthood.
  4. D) Typically, the abuser is a nonrelative whom the child does not know very well.

 

Page Ref: 508

 

Objective: 13.13

100)  Children who __________ are especially vulnerable to child sexual abuse.

  1. A) live in economically advantaged homes
  2. B) live in homes with a constantly changing cast of characters
  3. C) are physically strong and emotionally stable
  4. D) are socially popular and have no disabilities

 

Page Ref: 509

 

Objective: 13.13

101)  Younger children who are sexually abused frequently react

  1. A) with generalized fearfulness.
  2. B) by running away.
  3. C) by attempting suicide.
  4. D) with substance abuse.

 

Page Ref: 510

 

Objective: 13.13

102)  Longitudinal research suggests that rates of __________ are elevated among survivors of child sexual abuse.

  1. A) marriage in late life
  2. B) spousal abuse
  3. C) obesity
  4. D) homosexuality

 

Page Ref: 510

 

Objective: 13.13

103)  Ernie is a perpetrator who sexually abuses children. As a child, Ernie was likely

  1. A) a bully.
  2. B) the victim of sexual abuse.
  3. C) extremely religious.
  4. D) learned helpless.

 

Page Ref: 510

 

Objective: 13.13

104)  Compared with preschoolers, school-age children who give eyewitness testimony are

  1. A) better at correctly inferring other’s motives and intentions.
  2. B) less resistant to misleading questions.
  3. C) less likely to give detailed narrative accounts.
  4. D) less able to recall recent events accurately.

 

Page Ref: 511 Box: Social Issues: Health: Children’s Eyewitness Testimony

 

Objective: 13.13

105)  __________, which improves from early to middle childhood, predicts children’s resistance to suggestion in the courtroom.

  1. A) Elaboration
  2. B) Attention
  3. C) Processing speed
  4. D) Inhibition

 

Page Ref: 511 Box: Social Issues: Health: Children’s Eyewitness Testimony

 

Objective: 13.13

106)  In many sexual abuse cases, the use of anatomically correct dolls or body diagrams

  1. A) misleads older children to give false information.
  2. B) increases the suggestibility of preschoolers.
  3. C) helps very young witnesses sort through confusion.
  4. D) helps preschoolers provide more detail.

 

Page Ref: 511

 

Objective: 13.13

107)  Research indicates that __________ relationship exists between stressful life experiences and psychological disturbance in childhood.

  1. A) a very strong
  2. B) only a modest
  3. C) a very weak
  4. D) no

 

Page Ref: 510

 

Objective: 13.14

108)  Despite facing school difficulties, family transitions, and early maltreatment, Marni is a well-adjusted, easygoing third grader with favorable self-esteem. Marni is a __________ child.

  1. A) “stress-resilient”
  2. B) self-care
  3. C) mastery-oriented
  4. D) popular-prosocial

 

Page Ref: 510, 512

 

Objective: 13.14

109)  Which of the following resources is known to foster resilience in middle childhood?

  1. A) strict parental discipline
  2. B) maternal employment
  3. C) extracurricular school activities
  4. D) teachers who emphasize achievement

 

Page Ref: 512

 

Objective: 13.14

110)  Programs like 4Rs (Reading, Writing, Respect, and Resolution) recognize that resilience is not __________ but rather __________.

  1. A) a preexisting attribute; a capacity that develops
  2. B) predetermined; a developmental cascade
  3. C) environmental; biological
  4. D) a cognitive ability; a social ability

 

Page Ref: 513

 

Objective: 13.14

ESSAY

111)  How does children’s self-esteem change from early to middle childhood?

112)  What are some ways that schools can prevent learned helplessness and foster a mastery-oriented approach to learning?

113)  Describe personal and situational factors that affect the extent to which children hold racial and ethnic biases.

114)  Describe the features of friendship in middle childhood.

115)  Discuss the development of gender identity in middle childhood, including the self-evaluations that affect adjustment.

116)  Discuss blended families, and describe some support options available to them.

117)  Describe some of the consequences of child sexual abuse from early childhood to adulthood.

 

Chapter 14
Physical development in adolescence

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Franca, age 11, recently started contradicting and disagreeing with her parents. She is self-conscious and often goes to her room and closes the door. Franca is a head taller and several pounds heavier than most girls in her sixth-grade class. Franca has probably

  1. A) developed an eating disorder.
  2. B) entered adolescence.
  3. C) reached full maturation.
  4. D) developed a social phobia.

 

Page Ref: 519

 

Objective: 14.1

2)   The beginning of adolescence is marked by

  1. A) reaching full adult height.
  2. B) participation in economic life.
  3. C)
  4. D) secretion of growth hormone (GH).

 

Page Ref: 519

 

Objective: 14.1

3)   Anna Freud viewed the teenage years as

  1. A) the period of calm after the storm of childhood.
  2. B) a cascade of instinctual passions.
  3. C) a biologically based, universal “developmental disturbance.”
  4. D) a period of harmony and predictability of behaviors.

 

Page Ref: 520

 

Objective: 14.1

4)   In Freud’s genital stage,

  1. A) social forces determine the young person’s reaction to puberty.
  2. B) sexual impulses reawaken, triggering psychological conflict and volatile behavior.
  3. C) sexual impulses remain dormant for a short period of time.
  4. D) sexual impulses lead to the resolution of the Oedipal conflict.

 

Page Ref: 520

 

Objective: 14.1

5)   Contemporary research suggests that the storm-and-stress notion of adolescence

  1. A) is the most accurate perspective.
  2. B) has no basis in fact.
  3. C) is greatly understated.
  4. D) is greatly exaggerated.

 

Page Ref: 520

 

Objective: 14.1

6)   In most tribal and village societies,

  1. A) adolescence is extended into three phases: early, middle, and late adolescence.
  2. B) young people face postponement of sexual gratification while they prepare for a productive work roles.
  3. C) adolescence is only a brief intervening phase between childhood and full assumption of adult roles.
  4. D) adolescence is extended because young people face prolonged dependence on parents.

 

Page Ref: 520

 

Objective: 14.1

7)   Brooke has been experiencing a period of rapid pubertal change. Brooke is in which phase of adolescence?

  1. A) early adolescence
  2. B) middle adolescence
  3. C) late adolescence
  4. D) emerging adulthood

 

Page Ref: 520

 

Objective: 14.1

8)   Natalie and James are fraternal twins. Their parents should expect that James will reach puberty __________ Natalie.

  1. A) at the same time as
  2. B) slightly later than
  3. C) two years later than
  4. D) two years earlier than

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

9)   Secretions of __________ and __________ increase during puberty, leading to tremendous gains in body size and to attainment of skeletal maturity.

  1. A) estrogens; adrenal androgens
  2. B) epinephrine; adrenal androgens
  3. C) growth hormone (GH); thyroxine
  4. D) melatonin; growth hormone (GH)

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

10)   Hormonal changes during puberty are initiated and regulated by the __________, a structure located near the __________.

  1. A) thyroid; pituitary gland
  2. B) pituitary gland; cerebral cortex
  3. C) hypothalamus; adrenal glands
  4. D) hypothalamus; pituitary gland

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

11)   Sexual maturation is controlled by __________ and __________.

  1. A) androgens; estrogens
  2. B) estrogens; insulin
  3. C) adrenal androgens; melatonin
  4. D) testosterone; cortisol

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

12)   Which of the following statements about sex hormones is true?

  1. A) Boys have only male hormones called androgens.
  2. B) Girls have only female hormones called estrogens.
  3. C) Neither androgens nor estrogens are present in the average boy.
  4. D) Both androgens and estrogens are present in boys and girls.

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

13)   Fourteen-year-old Phil experiences muscle growth and notices the growth of body and facial hair. Which of the following hormones is responsible for this change?

  1. A) estrogens
  2. B) testosterone
  3. C) adrenal androgens
  4. D) thyroxine

 

Page Ref: 521

 

Objective: 14.2

14)   During puberty, the hands, legs, and feet accelerate first, followed by the torso. This is a reversal of the __________ trend.

  1. A) cephalocaudal
  2. B) proximodistal
  3. C) secular
  4. D) biological

 

Page Ref: 523

 

Objective: 14.2

15)   Which of the following statements about body proportions during puberty is true?

  1. A) Boys’ hips broaden relative to the waist.
  2. B) Girls’ shoulders broaden relative to the hips.
  3. C) Girls’ hips broaden relative to the shoulders.
  4. D) Girls’ legs become longer in relation to the rest of the body.

 

Page Ref: 523

 

Objective: 14.2

16)   Which of the following statements about muscle–fat makeup in adolescence is true?

  1. A) Although both sexes gain in muscle, the increase is 150 percent greater in boys.
  2. B) Arm and leg fat decreases in adolescent girls.
  3. C) Altogether, girls gain far more muscle strength than boys.
  4. D) Around age 8, boys start to add more fat than girls on their arms, legs, and trunk.

 

Page Ref: 523

 

Objective: 14.2

17)   In adolescence, the number of red blood cells __________ in __________.

  1. A) increases; both girls and boys
  2. B) increases; boys, but not in girls
  3. C) increases; girls, but not in boys
  4. D) decreases; both girls and boys

 

Page Ref: 523

 

Objective: 14.2

18)   Twins, Jake and Molly, age 15, are both athletic. Which of the following is probably true?

  1. A) Jake’s gains in gross-motor performance are slow and gradual.
  2. B) Molly is experiencing a dramatic spurt in strength, speed, and endurance.
  3. C) By midadolescence, Jake will run faster and throw farther than Molly.
  4. D) By late adolescence, Molly will jump farther than Jake.

 

Page Ref: 524

 

Objective: 14.2

19)   Gregor, a high school senior, has begun taking creatine to enhance his performance on the basketball court. Which of the following side effects are possible?

  1. A) diabetes
  2. B) brain seizures
  3. C) damage to the reproductive organs
  4. D) a loss in muscle power

 

Page Ref: 524

 

Objective: 14.2

20)   Researchers who followed a large, representative sample of U.S. youths from ages 9 to 17 found that

  1. A) daily free-time physical activity declined with age, more so for girls than boys.
  2. B) at every age, a majority of participants engaged in regular exercise outside of school hours.
  3. C) daily free-time physical activity increased for both sexes until age 13, then declined.
  4. D) throughout adolescence, girls exceeded boys in regular daily exercise.

 

Page Ref: 524

 

Objective: 14.2

21)   Which of the following athletes is especially likely to continue her activity into adulthood?

  1. A) Ellen, a softball player
  2. B) Gerda, a volleyball player
  3. C) Justine, a basketball player
  4. D) Alena, a cross-country runner

 

Page Ref: 525

 

Objective: 14.2

22)   Which of the following fosters high physical self-efficacy during adolescence?

  1. A) internalizing the cultural ideal of physical attractiveness
  2. B) early maturation relative to the peer group
  3. C) maintaining a healthy, nutritious diet
  4. D) sweating and breathing heavily, during exercise

 

Page Ref: 525

 

Objective: 14.2

23)   Primary sexual characteristics

  1. A) are visible on the outside of the body.
  2. B) involve the reproductive organs directly.
  3. C) are unrelated to sexual functioning.
  4. D) do not develop in a standard sequence.

 

Page Ref: 525

 

Objective: 14.2

24)   Female puberty usually begins with

  1. A)
  2. B) the budding of breasts.
  3. C) the start of her growth spurt.
  4. D) the appearance of pubic hair.

 

Page Ref: 525

 

Objective: 14.2

25)   Menarche takes place

  1. A) after the peak of the height spurt.
  2. B) approximately one year before the height spurt.
  3. C) before pubic hair appears.
  4. D) after breast growth is completed.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.2

26)   The first sign of puberty in boys is

  1. A) the appearance of pubic hair.
  2. B) the height spurt.
  3. C) the enlargement of the testes.
  4. D) deepening of the voice.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.2

27)   In boys, the voice change

  1. A) is the first outward sign of puberty.
  2. B) occurs before enlargement of the penis and testes.
  3. C) usually takes place at the peak of the growth spurt.
  4. D) is due to the contraction of the vocal cords.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.2

28)   Spermarche occurs

  1. A) before the height spurt begins.
  2. B) after the peak strength spurt.
  3. C) around age 13½.
  4. D) after facial hair begins to grow.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.2

29)   Julianna is obese. She is likely to experience menarche __________ the average girl.

  1. A) earlier than
  2. B) around the same time as
  3. C) slightly later than
  4. D) much later than

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.3

30)   Gemma eats very little. She is likely to experience puberty __________ the average girl.

  1. A) much earlier than
  2. B) slightly earlier than
  3. C) around the same time as
  4. D) later than

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.3

31)   Which of the following statements about body fat and puberty is true?

  1. A) Breast and pubic hair growth occur later for heavier girls.
  2. B) Few studies report a link between body fat and puberty in boys.
  3. C) Few studies report a link between body fat and puberty in girls.
  4. D) Girls who eat very little usually experience earlier puberty.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.3

32)   Which of the following girls is likely to reach menarche first?

  1. A) A’akia, who lives in a poverty-stricken village in Ethiopia
  2. B) Anya, who comes from a low-income family in Sweden
  3. C) Alexis, who is a middle-income Caucasian American
  4. D) Angelique, who is a middle-income African American

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.3

33)   When children’s safety and security are at risk, it is adaptive for them to

  1. A) reproduce early.
  2. B) reproduce later.
  3. C) fail to reproduce.
  4. D) delay puberty.

 

Page Ref: 526

 

Objective: 14.3

34)   Findings that a secular trend exists for pubertal timing lends added support to the role of

  1. A) ethnicity to the onset of puberty.
  2. B) physical well-being in adolescent growth.
  3. C) societal pressure to mature on puberty trends.
  4. D) brain responses to puberty signals.

 

Page Ref: 527

 

Objective: 14.3

35)   As humans and mammals become more sexually mature, neurons

  1. A) continue to reproduce in the prefrontal cortex.
  2. B) selectively respond to pleasurable stimuli.
  3. C) experience a growth spurt in the generation of new synapses.
  4. D) become more responsive to excitatory neurotransmitters.

 

Page Ref: 528

 

Objective: 14.3

36)   Which of the following statements about brain development in adolescence is true?

  1. A) Adolescents recruit the prefrontal cortex’s network of connections with other brain areas more effectively than adults do.
  2. B) Adolescents tend to perform better than adults on tasks requiring inhibition and future orientation.
  3. C) When peers are present, adolescents’ brains are especially receptive to cues associated with risk taking.
  4. D) Adolescents react less strongly to stressful events than adults do and experience pleasurable stimuli less intensely.

 

Page Ref: 528

 

Objective: 14.3

37)   Compared to teenagers of previous generations, today’s teenagers

  1. A) get much less sleep.
  2. B) are better able to cope with sleep loss.
  3. C) go to bed earlier on school nights.
  4. D) are better educated about the importance of sleep.

 

Page Ref: 529

 

Objective: 14.4

38)   Sleep rebound on weekends

  1. A) helps teenagers perform better in school during the weekdays.
  2. B) substantially compensates for sleep loss during the weekdays.
  3. C) can lead to difficulty falling asleep on subsequent evenings.
  4. D) is directly related to the extent of the sleep “phase delay.”

 

Page Ref: 529

 

Objective: 14.4

39)   Girls commonly react to menarche with

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 529

 

Objective: 14.5

40)   Kyla’s grandma recalls menarche as a traumatic experience. She would like things to be different for Kyla. What advice can you give her?

  1. A) She should let Kyla be surprised by menarche and then answer any questions she has about puberty.
  2. B) She should explain to Kyla that menarche is an unpleasant but necessary experience.
  3. C) She should prepare Kyla in advance and treat it as an important milestone.
  4. D) She should provide Kyla with biological information but deliver the information as clinically as possible.

 

Page Ref: 529–530

 

Objective: 14.5

41)   Compared with Caucasian-American families, African-American families

  1. A) express more conflict over girls reaching sexual maturity.
  2. B) treat menarche as an important milestone.
  3. C) show boys more social support than girls for the changes of puberty.
  4. D) do not prepare girls for menarche as well.

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

42)   Boys typically respond to spermarche with

  1. A)
  2. B) mixed feelings.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

43)   Trevor just experienced spermarche. Which of the following is likely to be true?

  1. A) Trevor will tell a friend that he experienced spermarche.
  2. B) Trevor’s first ejaculation occurred earlier than he expected.
  3. C) Trevor did not know about ejaculation ahead of time.
  4. D) Trevor learned about spermarche from discussions with his father.

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

44)   Haeata lives in a tribal society and just experienced menarche. Which of the following is probably true?

  1. A) Haeata will feel ashamed and will not tell anyone about the onset of puberty.
  2. B) Haeata will still be regarded as a child by her parents and family.
  3. C) The tribe will celebrate the onset of puberty with an initiation ceremony.
  4. D) Haeata will experience no change in social status.

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

45)   Higher pubertal hormone levels are __________ linked to __________ moodiness.

  1. A) strongly; greater
  2. B) strongly; lesser
  3. C) modestly; greater
  4. D) modestly; lesser

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

46)   Which of the following teens is likely to have the most stable moods?

  1. A) 13-year-old Tya
  2. B) 14-year-old Leah
  3. C) 16-year-old Tyler
  4. D) 19-year-old Jesse

 

Page Ref: 530

 

Objective: 14.5

47)   __________ is a modern substitute for the physical departure of the adolescent from the home.

  1. A) An initiation ceremony
  2. B) Adolescent sensation seeking
  3. C) Psychological distancing
  4. D) Summer camp

 

Page Ref: 531

 

Objective: 14.5

48)   Parents and teens quarrel more often

  1. A) in late adolescence, as teens begin making their own life decisions, than in early and middle adolescence.
  2. B) in tribal and village societies where adolescence is recognized by a transition to adult status.
  3. C) when there is a large gap between parents’ and adolescents’ views of teenagers’ readiness for new responsibilities.
  4. D) about important family values, such as honesty and integrity, than about everyday matters, such as driving and curfews.

 

Page Ref: 531

 

Objective: 14.5

49)   The Rourke’s have a teenage son and daughter. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

  1. A) Rourke’s conflict with her daughter will be just as intense as conflict with her son.
  2. B) Rourke’s conflict with his daughter will be more intense than conflict with his son.
  3. C) Rourke’s conflict with her son will be more intense than conflict with her daughter.
  4. D) Rourke’s conflict with his son will be just as intense as conflict with his daughter.

 

Page Ref: 531

 

Objective: 14.5

50)   Ethan is an early-maturing boy. He is probably perceived by both adults and peers as

  1. A)
  2. B) self-confident.
  3. C)
  4. D) prone to depression.

 

Page Ref: 532

 

Objective: 14.6

51)   Chinara is an early-maturing girl. She is most likely to be perceived as __________ by her peers.

  1. A) popular
  2. B) withdrawn
  3. C) independent
  4. D) relaxed

 

Page Ref: 532

 

Objective: 14.6

52)   Maggi is a later-maturing girl. She is most likely to be regarded as

  1. A) a leader at school.
  2. B)
  3. C) lacking in self-confidence.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 532

 

Objective: 14.6

53)   Which of the following statements about the role of physical attractiveness and the timing of puberty in Western society is true?

  1. A) The ideal female image is a girlish shape that favors the early developer.
  2. B) The ideal male image is a muscular shape that favors the late developer.
  3. C) The ideal male image is a muscular shape that favors the early developer.
  4. D) Both the ideal male and female image favor early-maturing teens.

 

Page Ref: 532

 

Objective: 14.6

54)   Early-maturing __________ girls tend to report a less positive body image than other girls.

  1. A) Asian-American
  2. B) Hispanic
  3. C) Caucasian
  4. D) African-American

 

Page Ref: 532

 

Objective: 14.6

55)   Follow-ups reveal that __________-maturing __________, especially, are at risk for lasting difficulties.

  1. A) early; boys
  2. B) late; boys
  3. C) late; girls
  4. D) early; girls

 

Page Ref: 533

 

Objective: 14.6

56)   Of all age groups, adolescents are the most likely to

  1. A) be obese.
  2. B) skip breakfast.
  3. C) make healthy food choices.
  4. D) need less protein.

 

Page Ref: 533

 

Objective: 14.7

57)   __________ is strongly associated with greater intake of fruits, vegetables, grains, and calcium-rich foods.

  1. A) Positive body image
  2. B) Adolescent girls’ concern about their weight
  3. C) Frequency of family meals
  4. D) Participation in fad diets

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

58)   Janelle, a teenager, is chronically tired and frequently irritable, but she appears to be growing normally. She should have a medical checkup because she might be suffering from

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) anorexia nervosa.

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

59)   Vegetarian adolescents

  1. A) are far less likely than their nonvegetarian counterparts to have healthy eating habits.
  2. B) may have diets that are deficient in certain nutrients.
  3. C) are prone to fad dieting, which can lead to later weight gain.
  4. D) usually consume too few calories and nutrients for proper growth.

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

60)   Which of the following girls is most at risk for an eating problem?

  1. A) Angela, who reached puberty late
  2. B) Caity, who reached puberty early
  3. C) Bea, who grew up in a home with no weight concerns
  4. D) Desiree, whose friends are overweight

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

61)   __________ is a strong predictor of the onset of an eating disorder in adolescence.

  1. A) Severe dieting
  2. B) Obsessive behavior
  3. C) Participation in sports
  4. D) Poverty

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

62)   Renae has a compulsive fear of getting fat. As a result, she is starving herself. Renae has

  1. A) bulimia nervosa.
  2. B) typical adolescent insecurities.
  3. C)
  4. D) anorexia nervosa.

 

Page Ref: 534

 

Objective: 14.7

63)   Which of the following girls is most likely to develop anorexia nervosa?

  1. A) Cheyanne, an African American
  2. B) Brenda, an Asian American
  3. C) Ashley, a Caucasian American
  4. D) Delilah, a Hispanic American

 

Page Ref: 535

 

Objective: 14.7

64)   Alyssa has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following symptoms will she likely display?

  1. A) erosion of the enamel of her teeth
  2. B) migraine headaches
  3. C) menstrual cycle disruptions
  4. D) extreme sensitivity to heat

 

Page Ref: 535

 

Objective: 14.7

65)   Many young people with anorexia

  1. A) have parents who foster autonomy.
  2. B) feel guilty about their abnormal eating habits.
  3. C) have poor academic performance at school.
  4. D) are emotionally inhibited.

 

Page Ref: 535

 

Objective: 14.7

66)   Fathers of daughters with anorexia nervosa tend to be

  1. A) overprotective and controlling.
  2. B) sensitive to adolescent autonomy.
  3. C) highly indulgent.
  4. D) emotionally distant.

 

Page Ref: 535

 

Objective: 14.7

67)   Treating individuals with anorexia is difficult because

  1. A) they commonly deny the seriousness of their disorder.
  2. B) their mothers are often overprotective and are reluctant to hospitalize them.
  3. C) they tend to avoid intimate ties, such as those with a therapist.
  4. D) abnormalities in their brains make effective change difficult.

 

Page Ref: 535

 

Objective: 14.7

68)   Connie’s teenage daughter follows a strict diet during the day, exercises excessively, binge eats in the evening, and often takes laxatives. Connie should be concerned that her daughter has

  1. A) anorexia nervosa.
  2. B) obsessive compulsive disorder.
  3. C) bulimia nervosa.
  4. D) a severe hormone imbalance.

 

Page Ref: 536

 

Objective: 14.7

69)   In contrast to young people with anorexia, those with bulimia nervosa

  1. A) do not have a pathological fear of getting fat.
  2. B) feel depressed or guilty about their abnormal eating habits.
  3. C) experience their parents as involved and emotionally available.
  4. D) have unrealistically high standards for their own performance.

 

Page Ref: 536

 

Objective: 14.7

70)   Casey repeatedly engages in out-of-control binge eating but does not purge afterwards. Casey probably suffers from

  1. A) compulsive overeating.
  2. B) binge-eating disorder.
  3. C) bulimia nervosa.
  4. D) anorexia nervosa.

 

Page Ref: 536

 

Objective: 14.7

71)   The leading killer of U.S. teenagers is

  1. A)
  2. B) automobile accidents.
  3. C)
  4. D) sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

 

Page Ref: 536

 

Objective: 14.8

72)   Which of the following statements about automobile accidents and adolescent drivers is true?

  1. A) Graduated licensing laws greatly reduce adolescent traffic fatalities.
  2. B) Parent–child communication has no preventive effect on automobile accidents.
  3. C) Girls account for the majority of adolescent automobile fatalities in the United States.
  4. D) S. adolescent automobile fatalities have risen steadily over the past 35 years.

 

Page Ref: 537

 

Objective: 14.8

73)   Which of the following statements about firearms and adolescent injury is true?

  1. A) Firearms are the leading cause of adolescent fatalities in the United States.
  2. B) Violence-related behaviors among high school students have increased in recent decades.
  3. C) Only Canada and New Zealand have a higher firearm death rate among 15- to 19-year-olds than the United States.
  4. D) Metal detectors in schools have had little impact on youth violence.

 

Page Ref: 537

 

Objective: 14.8

74)   Which of the following statements about concussion injuries is true?

  1. A) Concussions can have lasting effects on cognitive and emotional functioning.
  2. B) Compared to adults, adolescents require less recovery time.
  3. C) Concussions among high school athletes declined during the past decade.
  4. D) If tended to immediately, athletes can safely return to play shortly after a concussion.

 

Page Ref: 537

 

Objective: 14.8

75)   The production of __________ in young people of both sexes leads to an increase in sex drive.

  1. A) estrogens
  2. B) adrenaline
  3. C) androgens
  4. D) thyroxine

 

Page Ref: 538

 

Objective: 14.9

76)   Which of the following adolescents is most likely to have parents with a permissive attitude about sex?

  1. A) Iryana, an Iranian
  2. B) Kirsten, a Canadian
  3. C) Madison, an American
  4. D) Fau, a Papua New Guinean

 

Page Ref: 538–539

 

Objective: 14.9

77)   Sexual attitudes in North America are

  1. A) extremely liberal.
  2. B) fairly open.
  3. C) relatively restrictive.
  4. D) highly restrictive.

 

Page Ref: 539

 

Objective: 14.9

78)   Brad’s parents provide him with information on sex and contraception and convey their values. As a result, Brad is likely to

  1. A) take sexual risks.
  2. B) engage in sex at a young age.
  3. C) adopt his parents’ views.
  4. D) avoid casual dating.

 

Page Ref: 538 Box: Social Issues: Education: Parents and Teenagers (Don’t) Talk About Sex

 

Objective: 14.9

79)   Mr. Linden wants to discuss sex with his teenage daughter. Which of the following approaches would you recommend to him?

  1. A) a parent-dominated explanation about the facts of life
  2. B) a give-and-take conversation between parent and child
  3. C) a child-led question/answer session
  4. D) a judgmental conversation in which he does not answer the child’s questions

 

Page Ref: 539 Box: Social Issues: Education: Parents and Teenagers (Don’t) Talk About Sex

 

Objective: 14.9

80)   Which of the following statements about adolescent sexual attitudes and behavior is true?

  1. A) Rates of extramarital sex among U.S. young people are on the rise.
  2. B) During the past 15 years, adolescents have become more liberal in their sexual beliefs.
  3. C) Girls tend to have their first intercourse earlier than boys.
  4. D) About 70 percent of sexually active teenagers report that they first had sex with a steady dating partner.

 

Page Ref: 540

 

Objective: 14.9

81)   Which of the following teens is more likely to have early sex or frequent teenage sexual activity?

  1. A) Uli, who feels a strong sense of personal control over life events
  2. B) Howie, who is an only child
  3. C) Darwin, who was a late maturer
  4. D) Ryan, whose parents do not monitor his activities

 

Page Ref: 541

 

Objective: 14.9

82)   Early sexual activity is more common among young people from __________ homes.

  1. A) high-income
  2. B) economically disadvantaged
  3. C) middle-income
  4. D) two-parent

 

Page Ref: 541

 

Objective: 14.9

83)   Which of the following accurately characterizes the three-phase sequence that many gay and lesbian adolescents and adults move through in coming out to themselves and others?

  1. A) feeling different, confusion, self-acceptance
  2. B) confusion, feeling accepted, announcement
  3. C) feeling different, self-acceptance, integration
  4. D) feeling rejected, confusion, self-acceptance

 

Page Ref: 542 Box: Biology and Environment: Lesbian, Gay, and Bisexual Youths: Coming Out to Oneself and Others

 

Objective: 14.10

84)   Suzanne responded to her daughter’s coming out positively. She is understanding and accepting of the teenager’s same-sex romantic relationship. However, Suzanne is concerned about her daughter’s self-acceptance. Suzanne should know that

  1. A) coming out to family impedes a young person’s view of homosexuality as a valid and fulfilling identity.
  2. B) contact with other gay and lesbian peers can interfere with a young person’s self-acceptance.
  3. C) coming out to friends often brings a backlash that impedes many aspects of adolescent development.
  4. D) a key predictor of favorable adjustment for gay and lesbian youths is parental understanding.

 

Page Ref: 542 Box: Biology and Environment: Lesbian, Gay, and Bisexual Youths: Coming Out to Oneself and Others

 

Objective: 14.10

85)   Studies involving genetic influences on sexual orientation indicate that

  1. A) male homosexuality tends to be more common on the paternal than on the maternal side of families.
  2. B) fraternal twins are more likely than identical twins to share a homosexual orientation.
  3. C) adoptive relatives are just as likely as biological relatives to share a homosexual orientation.
  4. D) gay brothers often have an identical segment of DNA on the X chromosome.

 

Page Ref: 543

 

Objective: 14.10

86)   Girls who __________ are more likely to develop lesbian or bisexual orientations.

  1. A) were exposed prenatally to very high levels of androgens and estrogens
  2. B) have a higher-than-average number of older sisters
  3. C) inherited an X-linked gene from their father
  4. D) are “gender-deviant” in their dress and behavior

 

Page Ref: 543

 

Objective: 14.10

87)   Which of the following sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can lead to infertility and sterility if left untreated?

  1. A) herpes simplex 2
  2. B) human papillomavirus (HPV)
  3. C) chlamydia
  4. D) syphilis

 

Page Ref: 544

 

Objective: 14.11

88)   Which of the following common sexually transmitted infections (STIs) of adolescence is caused by a virus?

  1. A) syphilis
  2. B) herpes simplex 2
  3. C) chlamydia
  4. D) gonorrhea

 

Page Ref: 544

 

Objective: 14.11

89)   Kevin, a sexually active teen, has fluid-filled blisters on his genitals, a high fever, and a severe headache. Kevin’s doctor will probably find that Kevin has

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) herpes simplex 2.

 

Page Ref: 544

 

Objective: 14.11

90)   Teenagers at greatest risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are

  1. A) economically disadvantaged young people who feel a sense of hopelessness.
  2. B) those from economically advantaged families whose parents are permissive.
  3. C) teenagers attending magnet schools in low-income neighborhoods.
  4. D) teenagers who have easy access to condoms and contraception.

 

Page Ref: 543

 

Objective: 14.11

91)   Which of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is true?

  1. A) AIDS symptoms typically emerge 3 to 5 years after HIV infection.
  2. B) It is twice as easy for a female to infect a male with HIV as for a male to infect a female.
  3. C) The incidence of HIV infection among people under age 30 in the United States is low.
  4. D) One-fifth of U.S. HIV cases are young people between ages 13 and 24.

 

Page Ref: 543

 

Objective: 14.11

92)   As a result of school courses and media campaigns, about 90 percent of U.S. high school students

  1. A) are aware of basic facts about HIV and AIDS.
  2. B) have a good understanding of sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
  3. C) who are sexually active use contraception consistently.
  4. D) who are sexually active use STI protection during oral sex.

 

Page Ref: 544

 

Objective: 14.11

93)   Which of the following statements about preventing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is true?

  1. A) Currently, there is no vaccine available to protect against human papillomavirus (HPV).
  2. B) Latex condoms provide perfect protection against STIs by stopping the passage of bacteria and viruses.
  3. C) Using a needle, syringe, or drug liquid previously used by others can spread STIs.
  4. D) A blood test to detect HIV infection must be administered and repeated at least three months after risky behavior.

 

Page Ref: 545

 

Objective: 14.11

94)   The number of American teenage births is lower than it was 50 years ago because

  1. A) about one-fourth of adolescent pregnancies end in abortion.
  2. B) sex education programs in public schools are more effective.
  3. C) convenient contraceptive services are more readily available.
  4. D) more girls today are practicing abstinence.

 

Page Ref: 545

 

Objective: 14.11

95)   Which of the following teens is most likely to have an adolescent pregnancy?

  1. A) Wynn, a middle-income African American
  2. B) Kim, a high-income Asian American
  3. C) Selena, a low-income Hispanic American
  4. D) Bella, a middle-income Caucasian American

 

Page Ref: 546

 

Objective: 14.11

96)   Research shows that about half of adolescent fathers

  1. A) make regular child support payments.
  2. B) have regular contact with their infant.
  3. C) come from economically advantaged families.
  4. D) have been incarcerated.

 

Page Ref: 546

 

Objective: 14.11

97)   Reduced educational and occupational attainment

  1. A) is greater for teenage fathers than for teenage mothers.
  2. B) often persists well into adulthood for both teenage mothers and fathers.
  3. C) is greater for teenage mothers than for teenage fathers.
  4. D) is lessened for teenage parents if the couple gets married.

 

Page Ref: 546

 

Objective: 14.11

98)   Compared with adult mothers, adolescent mothers

  1. A) know more about child development.
  2. B) perceive their infants as more difficult.
  3. C) have low expectations for their infants.
  4. D) less often engage in child abuse.

 

Page Ref: 546

 

Objective: 14.11

99)   Which of the following statements regarding the intergenerational continuity of adolescent pregnancy and parenthood is true?

  1. A) Becoming a second-generation teenage parent is inevitable for individuals born to an adolescent mother.
  2. B) Intergenerational continuity in adolescent daughters is far greater when teenage mothers marry.
  3. C) Marriage may limit the negative impact of teenage childbearing on development by reducing family stress.
  4. D) Adolescent parenthood does not increase the chances of teenage childbearing in the next generation.

 

Page Ref: 547: Box: Social Issues: Health: Like Parent, Like Child: Intergenerational Continuity in Adolescent Parenthood

 

Objective: 14.11

100)  Which of the following adolescent mothers is most likely to break the intergenerational cycle of adolescent parenthood?

  1. A) Prudence, who marries her daughter’s father
  2. B) Heidi, who does not provide her son with age-appropriate toys
  3. C) Natalia, who does not earn her high school diploma
  4. D) Emma, who is unmarried and has a part-time job

 

Page Ref: 547 Box: Social Issues: Health: Like Parent, Like Child: Intergenerational Continuity in Adolescent Parenthood

 

Objective: 14.11

101)  In the United States, the most controversial aspect of adolescent pregnancy prevention efforts is

  1. A) the promotion of abstinence.
  2. B) requiring sex education courses in school.
  3. C) teaching social skills for handling sexual situations.
  4. D) increasing access to contraceptives.

 

Page Ref: 548

 

Objective: 14.11

102)  Research shows that sex education programs focusing on abstinence __________ delaying teenage sexual activity.

  1. A) have little or no impact on
  2. B) have had great success at
  3. C) are more successful for boys than for girls at
  4. D) are more successful for girls than for boys at

 

Page Ref: 548

 

Objective: 14.11

103)  __________ is linked to delayed initiation of sexual activity and to reduced teenage pregnancy.

  1. A) Abstinence-based sex education
  2. B) Even limited sex education
  3. C) Early pubertal development
  4. D) School involvement

 

Page Ref: 548

 

Objective: 14.11

104)  By the time a child of adolescent parents starts school,

  1. A) fewer than one-fourth have regular paternal contact.
  2. B) nearly half visit with their fathers regularly.
  3. C) less than two-thirds receive financial assistance from their fathers.
  4. D) most have established lasting ties to their fathers.

 

Page Ref: 549

 

Objective: 14.11

105)  Teenage alcohol and drug use rates in the United States have __________ since the mid-1990s.

  1. A) risen sharply
  2. B) slowly increased
  3. C) slowly decreased
  4. D) substantially declined

 

Page Ref: 549

 

Objective: 14.12

106)  According to the most recent, nationally representative survey of U.S. high school students, 39 percent of tenth graders have tried at least one illegal drug, usually

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 549

 

Objective: 14.12

107)  Brad is a teenager who has experimented minimally with alcohol. Brad is likely to

  1. A) be a healthy, curious young person.
  2. B) become an addict in adulthood.
  3. C) be less sociable than his peers who do not experiment.
  4. D) choose not to drink alcohol in college.

 

Page Ref: 550

 

Objective: 14.12

108)  Which of the following teenagers with family difficulties has an especially high risk of substance abuse?

  1. A) Jake, whose mother is unemployed
  2. B) Ken, whose friends use and provide drugs
  3. C) Walt, who lives with his single father
  4. D) Paul, who has a below-average school performance

 

Page Ref: 550

 

Objective: 14.12

109)  Mr. Wellington wants to reduce drug experimentation among the teens in his community program. He should

  1. A) teach parents that teens need freedom from activity monitoring.
  2. B) teach students skills for resisting peer pressure.
  3. C) deemphasize parent education.
  4. D) acknowledge the social acceptability of drug use.

 

Page Ref: 551

 

Objective: 14.12

110)  Which of the following statements about adolescent drug abuse treatment is true?

  1. A) Individual, rather than family, therapy is the best treatment.
  2. B) Even comprehensive programs have alarmingly high relapse rates.
  3. C) Adolescents who are motivated from the start of treatment have better outcomes.
  4. D) Comprehensive programs that focus on individual and family therapy have modest to low relapse rates.

 

Page Ref: 551

 

Objective: 14.12

ESSAY

111)  Explain why adolescence is extended in industrialized nations, including the three phases of adolescence.

112)  Describe the secular trend in pubertal timing in industrialized nations.

consequences of pubertal timing, especially for early-maturing girls. What are some possible reasons for the difficulties early-maturing girls face?

114)  Discuss the impact of media on adolescents’ sexual activity.

115)  Discuss the role of heredity and prenatal biological influences in the development of sexual orientation. How might heredity lead to homosexuality?

al impact of male sex hormones on the brains of later-born boys.

Page Ref: 543

116)  Describe an effective sex education program. What key elements should be included?

117)  Principal Jaster wants to reduce drug experimentation among his high school students. Describe the components of an effective drug prevention program.

 

 

 

Chapter 15
cognitive development in adolescence

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Which of the following children is in Piaget’s formal operational stage?

  1. A) Beth, who can think in a logical, orderly fashion when dealing with concrete information
  2. B) Abi, who can think abstractly about things she cannot perceive concretely
  3. C) Isaac, who can create a relationship between pieces of information that are not from the same category
  4. D) Jonas, who can think through a process and then mentally reverse it

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

2)   A person in Piaget’s formal operational stage

  1. A) can come up with general logical rules through internal reflection.
  2. B) is able to use inductive reasoning for the first time.
  3. C) can “operate on reality” and will eventually learn to “operate on operations.”
  4. D) has just learned that hypotheses must be confirmed by appropriate evidence.

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

3)   In biology class, Zia had to determine which of two fertilizers was best for growing African violets. She tested not just for type of fertilizer but also for its concentration and frequency of use. Zia used

  1. A) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
  2. B) propositional thought.
  3. C) hierarchical classification.
  4. D) transitive inference.

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

4)   Lourdes is capable of hypothetico-deductive reasoning. When faced with a problem, which of the following will she do first?

  1. A) develop a prediction about all possible variables that might affect the outcome
  2. B) deduce specific hypotheses about what might happen in a situation
  3. C) test her hypotheses in an orderly fashion to see which ones work in the real world
  4. D) examine the most obvious predictions about a situation

 

5)   In trying to solve the pendulum problem, formal operational adolescents usually

  1. A) fail to notice variables not suggested by the concrete materials of the task.
  2. B) identify the variables and test each one separately and, if necessary, also in combination.
  3. C) have difficulty separating out the effects of variables.
  4. D) focus on the weight of the object, not the length of the string.

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

6)   In watching a concrete operational child and a formal operational adolescent solve the pendulum problem, which of the following differences will be evident?

  1. A) The concrete operational child will be completely unable to solve the problem.
  2. B) The formal operational adolescent will solve the problem intuitively, without experimentation.
  3. C) The formal operational adolescent will start with a hypothesis, from which he or she will deduce logical, testable inferences.
  4. D) The concrete operational child will start with reality, and when it is not confirmed, they will think of alternatives.

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

7)   Marcus is able to evaluate the logic of verbal statements without referring to real-world circumstances. Marcus is engaging in

  1. A) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
  2. B) propositional thought.
  3. C) concrete operational thought.
  4. D) cognitive intuition.

 

Page Ref: 556

 

Objective: 15.1

8)   An experimenter hides a poker chip in her hand and asks children to indicate whether the following statement is true, false, or uncertain: “Either the chip in my hand is green or it is not green.” A concrete operational child will

  1. A) express uncertainty.
  2. B) say it is true.
  3. C) say it is false.
  4. D) express disinterest.

 

Page Ref: 557

 

Objective: 15.1

9)   Bryan hears the following statement: “Either the train is moving or it is not moving.” If Bryan is in the formal operational stage, he will say that

  1. A) he cannot determine whether the statement is true or false.
  2. B) the statement is true.
  3. C) the statement is false.
  4. D) the statement is sometimes true.

 

10)   Piaget acknowledged language’s importance in adolescence, as formal operations require

  1. A) adolescents to cast aside abstract thinking and focus on aspects of the problem that are grounded in reality.
  2. B) adolescents to be able to explain in great detail and justify their methods of how they arrived at the solution for a problem.
  3. C) language-based and other symbolic systems that do not stand for real things, such as those in higher mathematics.
  4. D) improvements to adolescents’ ability to monitor, evaluate, and redirect their thinking.

 

Page Ref: 557

 

Objective: 15.1

11)   With respect to propositional thought, children

  1. A) have great difficulty reasoning from premises that contradict reality or their own beliefs.
  2. B) are unable to solve even simplified deductive reasoning tasks involving only two variables.
  3. C) find it easier than adolescents to inhibit activation of well-learned knowledge.
  4. D) do not understand that hypotheses must be confirmed by appropriate evidence.

 

Page Ref: 557

 

Objective: 15.2

12)   The teacher says, “If mice are bigger than cats, and cats are bigger than elephants, then mice are bigger than elephants.” This statement is likely to be judged __________ by __________.

  1. A) false; 11-year-old Craig
  2. B) false; 13-year-old Michael
  3. C) true; 9-year-old Rana
  4. D) true; 12-year-old Paige

 

Page Ref: 557

 

Objective: 15.2

13)   Seven-year-old Mia is presented with the following set of statements: “If dogs can fly and Buster is a dog, then Buster can fly.” Mia believes this statement to be false because dogs do not fly in real life. In this example, Mia is unable to

  1. A) understand the content of the statements.
  2. B) explain why a pattern of observations supports a hypothesis.
  3. C) engage in hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
  4. D) grasp the logical necessity of propositional reasoning.

 

Page Ref: 557

 

Objective: 15.2

14)   With age, adolescents, in justifying their reasoning, move from __________ to __________.

  1. A) giving concrete examples; explaining the logical rules on which it is based
  2. B) explaining their theories; providing real-world evidence
  3. C) testing one variable; testing multiple variables
  4. D) listing the variables; explaining their theory

 

15)   Taking college courses

  1. A) has no measurable impact on formal operational reasoning.
  2. B) leads to improvements in formal operational reasoning on all kinds of tasks.
  3. C) leads to improvements in formal reasoning related to course content.
  4. D) improves propositional thought but not hypothetico-deductive reasoning.

 

Page Ref: 558

 

Objective: 15.2

16)   Individuals in tribal and village societies

  1. A) often outperform same-age peers in Western cultures on formal operational tasks.
  2. B) perform formal reasoning tasks accurately, but at a slower pace than their Western counterparts.
  3. C) perform well on propositional tasks, but do poorly in hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
  4. D) rarely do well on tasks typically used to assess formal operational reasoning.

 

Page Ref: 558

 

Objective: 15.2

17)   In an Israeli study of seventh to ninth graders, after controlling for participants’ age, researchers found that

  1. A) if individuals are capable of formal operational thought, they display it often in everyday life.
  2. B) only a small percentage of very intelligent people are capable of formal operational thought.
  3. C) years of schooling fully accounted for early adolescent gains in propositional thought.
  4. D) years of schooling did not contribute to early adolescent gains in propositional thought.

 

Page Ref: 559

 

Objective: 15.2

18)   Researchers regard __________ as central to adolescent cognitive development.

  1. A) processing capacity
  2. B) application of memory strategies
  3. C) metacognition
  4. D) attentional self-regulation

 

Page Ref: 559

 

Objective: 15.3

19)   According to Kuhn, the heart of scientific reasoning is

  1. A) coordinating theories with evidence.
  2. B) designing experiments.
  3. C) developing hypotheses.
  4. D) conducting statistical analyses of data.

 

20)   According to Kuhn, young children faced with the sports ball problem

  1. A) are skilled at coordinating theory with evidence but fail to apply strategies consistently.
  2. B) use logical rules to examine the relationship between multiple variables.
  3. C) often reason much like adolescents and young adults, but not as rapidly.
  4. D) often ignore evidence conflicting with their own initial judgment.

 

Page Ref: 560

 

Objective: 15.3

21)   Research reveals that on complex, multivariable tasks, children

  1. A) view evidence as separate from and bearing on a theory.
  2. B) often blend evidence and theory into a single representation of “the way things are.”
  3. C) are unable to identify likely variables and make reasonable predictions.
  4. D) are able to inhibit their initial judgment long enough to seek disconfirming evidence.

 

Page Ref: 560

 

Objective: 15.3

22)   A high school science teacher, Mr. Reidy, wants to increase his students’ skill at coordinating theory with evidence. He wonders whether he should provide them with traditional scientific tasks or allow them to engage in informal reasoning. What should you tell him?

  1. A) Scientific reasoning is influenced by years of schooling, which can involve either of the two methods.
  2. B) Neither of the methods has been proven effective for increasing scientific reasoning.
  3. C) Traditional scientific tasks are the only types of problems that improve scientific reasoning.
  4. D) Informal reasoning tasks are the only types of problems that improve scientific reasoning.

 

Page Ref: 560

 

Objective: 15.3

23)   Owen applies logic more effectively to ideas he doubts than to ideas he favors. Owen is showing evidence of

  1. A) scientific reasoning skills.
  2. B) metacognitive understanding.
  3. C) propositional thought.
  4. D) a self-serving bias.

 

Page Ref: 560

 

Objective: 15.3

24)   Reasoning scientifically requires the __________ capacity to evaluate one’s objectivity.

  1. A) deductive
  2. B) metacognitive
  3. C) self-regulatory
  4. D) self-conscious

 

Page Ref: 560

 

Objective: 15.3

25)   Research indicates that when solving causal-experimental tasks and quantitative-relational tasks, adolescents

  1. A) master component skills in no particular order.
  2. B) fail to formulate and test the appropriate hypotheses.
  3. C) construct a general model that they can apply to many instances of a given type of problem.
  4. D) formulate appropriate hypotheses but have difficulty applying effective strategies.

 

Page Ref: 561

 

Objective: 15.3

26)   Anthony is expressing an exaggerated sense of personal uniqueness. What would be the best way for Anthony’s father to handle this situation?

  1. A) acknowledge his son’s unique characteristics but also look for opportune times to point out that he, too, had similar feelings as a teenager
  2. B) sensitively but firmly tell Anthony that he is not really unique at all—that, in fact, human beings are all much more similar than different
  3. C) cater to Anthony’s sense of self until about the age of 18, when Anthony should be ready to hear a more balanced perspective
  4. D) completely ignore Anthony’s inflated sense of self as most adolescents resolve these issues on their own

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

27)   __________ lead(s) adolescents to think more about themselves.

  1. A) New insights into effective strategies for self-regulation fueled by neurological changes
  2. B) The ability to reflect on their own thoughts, combined with physical and psychological changes,
  3. C) Individualistic values and a disregard for others’ feelings
  4. D) Selfishness and poor problem-solving skills

 

Page Ref: 561

 

Objective: 15.4

28)   According to Piaget, a new form of egocentrism arises, in which adolescents have difficulty distinguishing

  1. A) the self from the surrounding world.
  2. B) the self from the peer group.
  3. C) subjective and objective aspects of experience.
  4. D) their own and others’ perspectives.

 

Page Ref: 561

 

Objective: 15.4

29)   Gina has a bruise on her leg. She turned down an invitation to a swim party, explaining, “I can’t possibly wear a swimsuit with this ugly bruise. Everyone will notice how ugly I look!” Gina’s response reveals that her thinking is characterized by

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) the imaginary audience.
  4. D) the personal fable.

 

Page Ref: 561–562

 

Objective: 15.4

30)   __________ helps explain the long hours adolescents spend inspecting every detail of their appearance and why they are so sensitive to public criticism.

  1. A) Egocentrism
  2. B) Concrete thinking
  3. C) The imaginary audience
  4. D) Metacognition

 

Page ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

31)   Why should parents refrain from finding fault with their teenagers in public?

  1. A) Teens tend to believe that they are the focus of everyone else’s attention and concern, so critical remarks in public can be mortifying.
  2. B) Parents tend to judge teen behavior incorrectly, so they run a higher risk of being critical without a legitimate reason.
  3. C) The best way to ride out the storms of adolescence is to appease teens as much as possible as being critical will only create more problems.
  4. D) Recent research has found that adolescents who suffer public criticism engage in higher levels of delinquency than their peers.

 

Page Ref: 561–562

 

Objective: 15.4

32)   While out shopping, Mrs. Salveson becomes upset with her teenage daughter Ashley’s sarcastic responses to her questions. Understanding the concept of the imaginary audience, how would you advise Mrs. Salveson to react to Ashley’s behavior?

  1. A) Address the behavior immediately when it happens to avoid the likelihood of it recurring.
  2. B) Ask another respected adult, such as a teacher or counselor, to deal with Ashley’s behavior.
  3. C) Ignore the behavior and hope that it will disappear as Ashley matures.
  4. D) Wait until she has an opportunity to speak to Ashley alone, and address the problem then.

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

33)   As teenagers become certain that others are observing and thinking about them, they develop a feeling that they are special and unique. This aspect of adolescent thought is called

  1. A) propositional reasoning.
  2. B) the imaginary audience.
  3. C) the personal fable.
  4. D) role assessment.

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

34)   Jonathan views himself as reaching great heights of omnipotence and also sinking to unusual depths of despair. Which of the following cognitive distortions contribute to Jonathan’s views?

  1. A) the personal fable
  2. B) learned helplessness
  3. C) the imaginary audience
  4. D) metacognition

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

35)   After Dylan is rejected for a date, his father attempts to comfort him. Dylan responds, “Leave me alone, Dad! You’ll never understand what I’m going through!” This common adolescent distortion is known as

  1. A) logical necessity.
  2. B) hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
  3. C) the imaginary audience.
  4. D) the personal fable.

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

36)   The idea that others care about their appearance and behavior __________ as they struggle to separate from parents and establish an independent sense of self.

  1. A) interferes with teenagers’ ability to understand that actions have consequences
  2. B) interferes with teenagers’ attempts to hold onto important relationships
  3. C) helps teenagers understand that actions have consequences
  4. D) helps teenagers hold onto important relationships

 

Page Ref: 562

 

Objective: 15.4

37)   When combined with a sensation-seeking personality, the personal fable seems to contribute to

  1. A) risk taking.
  2. B) disengagement from others.
  3. C) poor schoolwork.
  4. D) peer conformity.

 

Page Ref: 562–563

 

Objective: 15.4

38)   Young people with __________ and __________ scores tend to take more sexual risks, more often use drugs, and commit more delinquent acts than their agemates.

  1. A) low personal-fable; high sensation-seeking
  2. B) high personal-fable; high sensation-seeking
  3. C) high self-esteem; low sensation-seeking
  4. D) low self-esteem; high idealism

 

Page Ref: 563

 

Objective: 15.4

39)   Adolescent idealism often leads young people to become

  1. A) more cooperative at home.
  2. B) more critical of parents and siblings.
  3. C) better students at school.
  4. D) more realistic in their evaluations of others.

 

Page Ref: 563

 

Objective: 15.4

40)   Elizabeth has developed an idea of how the “perfect family” should look and act, and she constantly criticizes her siblings and parents for not measuring up. Elizabeth’s parents should

  1. A) ignore her comments and hope she outgrows this behavior as she matures.
  2. B) point out examples of children whose families are worse off than Elizabeth’s.
  3. C) develop a hierarchy of negative consequences that should be implemented immediately after each critical remark.
  4. D) tolerate her criticism but also remind her that all people are blends of virtues and imperfections.

 

Page Ref: 563

 

Objective: 15.4

41)   With regards to decision making, evidence confirms that adolescents, relative to adults, are more influenced by

  1. A) avoidance of potential losses.
  2. B) avoidance of taking risks.
  3. C) the possibility of immediate reward.
  4. D) reasoned pros and cons of a given situation.

 

Page Ref: 563

 

Objective: 15.4

42)   In making decisions, adolescents, more often than adults,

  1. A) use sound decision-making strategies.
  2. B) consider the far-reaching consequences of their decisions.
  3. C) fall back on well-learned intuitive judgments.
  4. D) emphasize long-term over short-term goals.

 

Page Ref: 563

 

Objective: 15.4

43)   When making decisions, adolescents are more likely than adults to emphasize __________ over __________.

  1. A) short-term goals; long-term goals
  2. B) logic; irrationality
  3. C) risks; benefits
  4. D) wants; needs

 

Page Ref: 564

 

Objective: 15.4

44)   Sixteen-year-old Aubrie is more likely to engage in risky behavior, such as driving at high speeds, if she

  1. A) has never done it before.
  2. B) has done it before without any negative consequences.
  3. C) faced negative consequences for driving fast in the past.
  4. D) knows someone who has driven fast without consequences.

 

Page Ref: 564

 

Objective: 15.4

45)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on gender differences in intellectual performance?

  1. A) In early childhood, boys are slightly ahead of girls in verbal ability, a trend which continues into adolescence.
  2. B) Throughout childhood and adolescence, girls do better than boys at abstract mathematical problem solving.
  3. C) By adolescence, girls are far ahead of boys in verbal ability, even when tests are not heavily weighted with writing.
  4. D) Girls score slightly higher than boys on tests of verbal ability in middle childhood and adolescence.

 

Page Ref: 565

 

Objective: 15.5

46)   Females may show an advantage in verbal abilities because

  1. A) they are more likely to attend college than boys.
  2. B) they tend to work harder in school than boys.
  3. C) they rely on sensory brain regions to process spoken and written words.
  4. D) the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex develops earlier in girls than in boys.

 

Page Ref: 565

 

Objective: 15.5

47)   When do boys start to outperform girls in mathematics?

  1. A) from preschool age
  2. B) by the age of 7 or 8
  3. C) by early adolescence
  4. D) by late adolescence

 

Page Ref: 565

 

Objective: 15.5

48)   Sex differences on __________ tasks are weak or nonexistent.

  1. A) spatial visualization
  2. B) mental rotation
  3. C) spatial perception
  4. D) visual orientation

 

Page Ref: 566 Box: Biology and Environment: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities

 

Objective: 15.5

49)   Some researchers hypothesize that prenatal exposure to __________ enhances right hemispheric functioning, giving males an advantage in spatial abilities.

  1. A) estrogens
  2. B) endorphins
  3. C) androgen hormones
  4. D) adrenaline

 

Page Ref: 566 Box: Biology and Environment: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities

 

Objective: 15.5

50)   Research indicates that children who engage in activities such as __________ do better on spatial tasks.

  1. A) playing board games
  2. B) sorting cards
  3. C) doing crossword puzzles
  4. D) building models

 

Page Ref: 567 Box: Biology and Environment: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities

 

Objective: 15.5

51)   Fabian and his sister Felicity regularly play video games that require rapid mental rotation of visual images. You would expect

  1. A) both children to show decreased spatial abilities in school.
  2. B) both children to show enhanced scores on spatial tasks.
  3. C) Felicity to show enhanced spatial scores, and Fabian’s scores to be unaffected.
  4. D) Fabian to show enhanced spatial scores, and Felicity’s scores to be unaffected.

 

Page Ref: 567 Box: Biology and Environment: Sex Differences in Spatial Abilities

 

Objective: 15.5

52)   Girls are more likely than boys to

  1. A) blame their errors in math on lack of ability.
  2. B) have superior spatial reasoning ability.
  3. C) regard math as useful for their future careers.
  4. D) believe that being good at math will improve their popularity.

 

Page Ref: 566–567

 

Objective: 15.5

53)   Which of the following is a critical factor in eliminating gender differences in math and science?

  1. A) finding a way to reduce genetic differences between the genders
  2. B) creating all-girl science classes so that girls will not be compared to boys
  3. C) decreasing the extent to which boys are urged to excel at math and science
  4. D) promoting girls’ interest in and confidence at math and science

 

Page Ref: 567

 

Objective: 15.5

54)   One way to enhance girls’ math skills is to

  1. A) focus more on their verbal processing skills.
  2. B) focus less on spatial skills and more on computational skills.
  3. C) teach them how to apply effective spatial strategies.
  4. D) focus less on computational skills and more on word problems.

 

Page Ref: 568

 

Objective: 15.5

55)   Gains in language development during adolescence are largely influenced by

  1. A) biological maturation and synaptic pruning.
  2. B) exposure to adult literary works at school.
  3. C) improved capacity for reflective thought and abstraction.
  4. D) direct instruction in grammar and pragmatics.

 

Page Ref: 568

 

Objective: 15.6

56)   During adolescence, young people add a variety of __________ to their vocabularies.

  1. A) abstract words
  2. B) compound words
  3. C) action words
  4. D) modifiers

 

Page Ref: 568

 

Objective: 15.6

57)   Compared to school-age children, adolescents are better at

  1. A) defining concrete words.
  2. B) understanding figurative language.
  3. C) taking turns in conversations.
  4. D) applying the basic rules of grammar.

 

Page Ref: 568

 

Objective: 15.6

58)   Sixteen-year-old Alyssa speaks differently to her boss at work, her parents at home, and her friends at school. Alyssa demonstrates an improved mastery of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) figurative language.

 

Page Ref: 569

 

Objective: 15.6

59)   Adolescents use slang

  1. A) as a sign of group belonging.
  2. B) so parents will understand better.
  3. C) to prove their mastery of the language.
  4. D) as a way of isolating themselves.

 

Page Ref: 569

 

Objective: 15.6

60)   Research on school transitions shows a decline in  __________ for adolescents after each school change.

  1. A) self-esteem
  2. B) grades
  3. C) loneliness
  4. D) independent reading

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

61)   Compared to their elementary school teachers, students say middle school teachers

  1. A) care less about them.
  2. B) are friendlier.
  3. C) care more about them.
  4. D) grade more fairly.

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

62)   Joshua recently switched from elementary school to middle school. He feels less academically competent, and his liking for school has declined. Which of the following best explains the cause of his feelings?

  1. A) He has more homework and less time for socializing with friends.
  2. B) He now is offered fewer chances to participate in classroom decision making.
  3. C) Boys, more so than girls, tend to struggle with school transitions.
  4. D) His parents have become more involved with his schooling.

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

63)   High school transition is particularly challenging for African-American and Hispanic students who

  1. A) have older siblings at their new high school.
  2. B) have close relationships with peers at their new school.
  3. C) move from a larger middle school to a smaller high school.
  4. D) move to a new school with fewer same-ethnicity students.

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

64)   A study showed that students who had both academic and mental health problems during middle school typically __________ after the transition to high school.

  1. A) show academic improvement
  2. B) show increased out-of-school problem behaviors
  3. C) experience an increase in self-esteem
  4. D) have fewer mental health problems

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

65)   Morgan, who has recently switched schools, is having academic and emotional difficulties. Her parents should know that Morgan, as a vulnerable student,

  1. A) may have an easier time forming close friendships now that she is “the new girl.”
  2. B) will probably seek help from the school guidance counselor.
  3. C) may be starting a downward spiral that will eventually lead to failure and dropping out.
  4. D) is likely to take advantage of her new environment to forge a more successful academic path.

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

66)   School transitions typically lead to environmental changes that fit poorly with adolescents’ developmental needs, including

  1. A) disruption of close relationships with teachers at a time when adolescents need adult support.
  2. B) an emphasis on sophisticated academic collaboration during a period of heightened self-focusing.
  3. C) increased expectation for independent decision making before the child is ready to do so.
  4. D) lowered academic demands as students are sorted into academic and nonacademic tracks.

 

Page Ref: 570

 

Objective: 15.7

67)   An effective way to ease the strain of school transition in adolescence is to

  1. A) form small units within large schools to promote closer relations with both teachers and peers.
  2. B) have small groups of students transition at different points during the school year.
  3. C) require some form of extracurricular involvement immediately following the transition.
  4. D) limit extracurricular involvement until teachers determine whether students are socially ready.

 

Page Ref: 571

 

Objective: 15.7

68)   Which of the following child-rearing styles is linked to higher grades in school among adolescents varying widely in SES?

  1. A) authoritarian
  2. B) authoritative
  3. C) permissive
  4. D) inconsistent

 

Page Ref: 571

 

Objective: 15.8

69)   __________ parenting predicts the poorest grades and worsening school performance over time.

  1. A) Authoritarian
  2. B) Authoritative
  3. C) Permissive
  4. D) Uninvolved

 

Page Ref: 571–572

 

Objective: 15.8

70)   Adolescents whose parents engage in __________ achieve especially well.

  1. A) mastery-oriented behavior
  2. B) authoritarian parenting
  3. C) strict oversight
  4. D) joint decision making

 

Page Ref: 572

 

Objective: 15.8

71)   Mr. and Mrs. Fischman keep tabs on their teenage daughter Alexa’s school progress and communicate with her teachers frequently. However, as Alexa moves into high school, they wonder whether they should decrease their level of involvement. What should you tell them?

  1. A) They should remain involved as these efforts are just as important during high school as they were earlier.
  2. B) They should decrease their level of school involvement, so as not to embarrass Alexa.
  3. C) Parents’ school involvement has no correlation to grade point average or other indicators of school success.
  4. D) Children pay no attention to their parents’ level of school involvement, so they should do whatever feels best to them.

 

Page Ref: 572

 

Objective: 15.8

72)   Which of the following explains the level of school involvement for many low-income parents?

  1. A) They tend to be unconcerned with academic matters.
  2. B) They face daily stresses that reduce the energy they have for school involvement.
  3. C) They don’t understand the importance of education and so are less involved.
  4. D) They already have strained relationships with school personnel and try to avoid further conflict.

 

Page Ref: 572

 

Objective: 15.8

73)   Petra’s parents are involved at school and value academic achievement. Which of the following peer groups is Petra likely to join?

  1. A) the “outsiders,” who skip class and smoke in the parking lot
  2. B) the “cool” girls, who spend all their time hanging out with boys
  3. C) the “smart” girls, who care about school and get good grades
  4. D) the “artsy” girls, who focus all their energy on extracurricular productions

 

Page Ref: 572

 

Objective: 15.8

74)   Adolescents most frequent type of media multitasking is

  1. A) surfing the Internet while in class.
  2. B) listening to music while doing homework.
  3. C) watching TV while eating dinner with their families.
  4. D) using cell phones while watching TV.

 

Page Ref: 573 Box: Social Issues: Education: Media Multitasking Disrupts Attention and Learning

 

Objective: 15.8

75)   Research confirms that media multitasking

  1. A) fragments the attention span.
  2. B) improves flexibility of thought.
  3. C) has little effect on the ability to focus.
  4. D) improves explicit memory.

 

Page Ref: 573 Box: Social Issues: Education: Media Multitasking Disrupts Attention and Learning

 

Objective: 15.8

76)   Frequent media multitaskers have a harder time

  1. A) utilizing implicit memory.
  2. B) focusing on more than one task at a time.
  3. C) filtering out irrelevant stimuli when they are not multitasking.
  4. D) shifting attention from one task to another.

 

Page Ref: 573 Box: Social Issues: Education: Media Multitasking Disrupts Attention and Learning

 

Objective: 15.8

77)   A recent study that tracked changes in students’ academic orientation in math classes from seventh to eighth grade showed that those who entered classes that emphasized competition and public comparison of students

  1. A) reported that school was more interesting and challenging..
  2. B) showed increased perseverance and improved study habits.
  3. C) showed declines in motivation and self-regulation.
  4. D) displayed increased attendance and achievement.

 

Page Ref: 574

 

Objective: 15.8

78)   The No Child Left Behind Act mandates that

  1. A) every child will have access to high-quality education and extracurricular activities, regardless of race, class, or sex.
  2. B) by the year 2016, every child will need to attend at least two years of college.
  3. C) every country in the world will provide an education for all children regardless of sex.
  4. D) each state evaluate every public school’s performance through annual achievement testing and publicize the results.

 

Page Ref: 575 Box: Social Issues: Education: High-Stakes Testing

 

Objective: 15.8

79)   Alan’s elementary school has been labeled a “failing” school according to No Child Left Behind standards. Alan’s parents will probably

  1. A) have the option of transferring him to a higher-performing school.
  2. B) be asked to provide additional tutoring for Alan, at their own expense.
  3. C) hear that his school has received additional federal funding to improve student achievement.
  4. D) learn that his teachers have received financial bonuses.

 

Page Ref: 575 Box: Social Issues: Education: High-Stakes Testing

 

Objective: 15.8

80)   Accumulating evidence on high-stakes testing indicates that it

  1. A) often undermines the quality of education.
  2. B) provides motivation for upgrading teaching and learning.
  3. C) encourages teachers to focus on more in-depth, critical thinking tasks in their lessons.
  4. D) accurately evaluates the academic abilities of individual students.

 

Page Ref: 575 Box: Social Issues: Education: High-Stakes Testing

 

Objective: 15.8

81)   Research shows that high-stakes testing cause teachers to spend large amounts of time on

  1. A) writing skills.
  2. B) drill-based exercises.
  3. C) assignments that require high-level thinking.
  4. D) the educational needs of the gifted and talented

 

Page Ref: 575 Box: Social Issues: Education: High-Stakes Testing

 

Objective: 15.8

82)   Tomás is moving from middle school to a high school with a tracking program. As a low-SES minority student, Tomás will most likely be placed in a

  1. A) college preparatory track.
  2. B) mixed-ability classroom.
  3. C) noncollege track.
  4. D) remedial classroom.

 

Page Ref: 574

 

Objective: 15.8

83)   Quinn is a capable student who is placed in a low academic track. Research indicates that Quinn will probably

  1. A) show large performance gains because the subject matter is better geared toward his academic level.
  2. B) get better quality instruction than his peers in high-ability classrooms.
  3. C) exert less effort than his peers who were placed in higher tracks.
  4. D) maintain his friendships with peers from high- and mixed-ability groups.

 

Page Ref: 575

 

Objective: 15.8

84)   Students who are not assigned to a college preparatory track or who achieve poorly in high school can still attend college in

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C) Western Europe.
  4. D) the United States.

 

Page Ref: 576

 

Objective: 15.8

85)   Dropout rates remain elevated among low-SES ethnic minority youths, especially __________ and __________ teenagers.

  1. A) African-American; Hispanic
  2. B) African-American; Native-American
  3. C) Native-American; Asian-American
  4. D) Hispanic; Native-American

 

Page Ref: 576

 

Objective: 15.9

86)   The U.S. high school dropout rate is

  1. A) highest for African Americans.
  2. B) highest for students from rural communities.
  3. C) slightly lower for Hispanics than for whites.
  4. D) slightly higher for boys than for girls.

 

Page Ref: 576

 

Objective: 15.9

87)   Although many high school dropouts show a persistent pattern of disruptive behavior and poor academic performance, others

  1. A) drop out to follow the lure of high-paying jobs in technical fields.
  2. B) are pushed out by teachers who fear repercussions from the No Child Left Behind Act.
  3. C) drop out in order to earn money to support unemployed parents.
  4. D) quietly disengage from school after experiencing academic difficulties.

 

Page Ref: 576

 

Objective: 15.9

88)   Dropout rates among urban minority teenagers

  1. A) have decreased steadily over the past decade.
  2. B) are highest in the states of Mississippi and Alabama.
  3. C) are influenced by experiences of discrimination.
  4. D) are higher for girls than boys.

 

Page Ref: 577

 

Objective: 15.9

89)   Compared to students in a college preparatory track, students in general education and vocational tracks are

  1. A) no more likely to drop out.
  2. B) three times as likely to drop out.
  3. C) 50 percent less likely to attend at least one year of college.
  4. D) 50 percent more likely to get a well-paid job.

 

Page Ref: 577

 

Objective: 15.9

90)   Frankie is failing and at risk for dropping out of high school. He will be more likely to complete his education if he

  1. A) receives intensive remedial instruction in small classes.
  2. B) transfers to a new school.
  3. C) gets an after-school job to boost his self-esteem.
  4. D) is punished by his parents for his low grades.

 

Page Ref: 578

 

Objective: 15.9

91)   To work well, vocational education must

  1. A) focus heavily on job-related instruction.
  2. B) carefully integrate academic and job-related instruction.
  3. C) offer paid employment as a component of the program.
  4. D) focus heavily on basic skills.

 

Page Ref: 578

 

Objective: 15.9

92)   The most powerful influence on extracurricular involvement is

  1. A) small school size.
  2. B) high-quality teacher interaction.
  3. C) parental encouragement.
  4. D) peer acceptance.

 

Page Ref: 578

 

Objective: 15.9

93)   More than 90 percent of U.S. young people

  1. A) who drop out of school do not return.
  2. B) who drop out of school are unemployed.
  3. C) complete high school by age 24.
  4. D) earn a college degree.

 

Page Ref: 578

 

Objective: 15.9

94)   Selecting a vocation is central to the development of

  1. A) a solid, secure identity.
  2. B) a realistic life plan.
  3. C) executive function.
  4. D) metacognitive awareness.

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

95)   Leilani thinks that she wants to be an actress or a ballerina when she grows up. Her brother Reilly wants to be a football player or a motorcycle racer. Leilani and Reilly are currently in the __________ period of vocational development.

  1. A) fantasy
  2. B) tentative
  3. C) realistic
  4. D) decisive

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

96)   Libby is good at playing the flute and likes the pleasure that music gives to others. As a result, she thinks she might want to be a musician. She is likely in the __________ phase of vocational development.

  1. A) capability
  2. B) tentative
  3. C) realistic
  4. D) fantasy

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

97)   Which period of vocational development characterizes early and middle adolescence?

  1. A) fantasy
  2. B) tentative
  3. C) realistic
  4. D) exploratory

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

98)   Adolescents begin to narrow their options in the __________ period of vocational development.

  1. A) fantasy
  2. B) tentative
  3. C) realistic
  4. D) appraisal

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

99)   During the __________ phase of the __________ period of vocational development, an individual typically gathers more information about possibilities that blend with his or her personal characteristics.

  1. A) exploration; fantasy
  2. B) exploration; tentative
  3. C) crystallization; realistic
  4. D) exploration; realistic

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

100)  Phelan is a junior in college and, after taking several classes in education, psychology, and music, is now ready to declare his major as music education. After college, he plans to become an instrumental music teacher. Phelan is in the __________ phase of the realistic period of vocational development.

  1. A) epiphany
  2. B) tentative
  3. C) exploration
  4. D) crystallization

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

101)  Which of the following is the correct order of the phases of vocational development?

  1. A) realistic period, fantasy period, tentative period
  2. B) tentative period, realistic period, fantasy period
  3. C) fantasy period, realistic period, tentative period
  4. D) fantasy period, tentative period, realistic period

 

Page Ref: 579

 

Objective: 15.10

102)  John Holland identified six __________ that affect vocational choice.

  1. A) intrinsic talents
  2. B) personality types
  3. C) environmental factors
  4. D) vocational paths

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

103)  Nissa wants to be a physicist or an engineer. According to Holland, she is a(n) __________ person.

  1. A) realistic
  2. B) conventional
  3. C) investigative
  4. D) enterprising

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

104)  The social person is likely to select which of the following occupations?

  1. A) anthropologist
  2. B) counselor
  3. C) plumber
  4. D) musician

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

105)  Kyle enjoys construction and carpentry. Which of the following personality types best describes him?

  1. A) conventional
  2. B) enterprising
  3. C) investigative
  4. D) realistic

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

106)  Kamara is emotional and loves to express her individual personality by pursuing creative projects. Kamara displays personality characteristics of a(n) __________ person.

  1. A) artistic
  2. B) investigative
  3. C) social
  4. D) realistic

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

107)  Meredith likes well-structured tasks, values material possessions, and is concerned about her social status. Meredith demonstrates personality traits associated with a(n) __________ person.

  1. A) enterprising
  2. B) realistic
  3. C) conventional
  4. D) antisocial

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

108)  The conventional person is likely to select which of the following occupations?

  1. A) teacher
  2. B) writer
  3. C) forester
  4. D) accountant

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

109)  Which of the following statements about vocational choice is true?

  1. A) Most children know from an early age just what they want to be and follow a direct path to a career goal.
  2. B) Many people are blends of several personality types and can do well at more than one kind of occupation.
  3. C) Parents with limited education are just as likely as higher-SES parents to give their children important information about the worlds of education and work.
  4. D) Making an occupational choice is a rational process in which young people weigh abilities, interests, and values against career options.

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

110)  Ty’s dad is a lawyer and his mom is an business executive. To which of the following occupations is Ty most likely to aspire?

  1. A) receptionist
  2. B) doctor
  3. C) painter
  4. D) bus driver

 

Page Ref: 580

 

Objective: 15.10

111)  Nicole is in high school. Which of the following people is especially likely to help her foster high career aspirations?

  1. A) her high school principal
  2. B) her basketball teammates
  3. C) her co-workers at her after-school job
  4. D) her high school teachers

 

Page Ref: 581

 

Objective: 15.10

112)  Women’s progress in entering and excelling at male-dominated professions has been

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 581

 

Objective: 15.10

113)  Based on the U.S. Census Bureau statistics on women in various professions, which of the following professions did women dominate most as of 2012?

  1. A) artist
  2. B) lawyer
  3. C) psychologist
  4. D) registered nurse

 

Page Ref: 581

 

Objective: 15.10

114)  Lee, an academically gifted young woman, is especially talented in math and science. In college, Lee is likely to

  1. A) find that she is simply unable to grasp the complex, abstract math and science concepts.
  2. B) find added support from professors interested in breaking down barriers to women in STEM fields.
  3. C) continue to excel compared to her male and female peers, as she did in high school.
  4. D) see her career aspirations decline as many will question her capacity to succeed in male-dominated fields.

 

Page Ref: 581

 

Objective: 15.10

115)  Janetta and four friends chose a vocational track in high school, similar to the path their parents had chosen. None of these students was interested in going to college. They will

  1. A) have a number of alternatives for vocational counseling and job placement as they transition from school to work.
  2. B) have little competition from college-educated workers for entry-level positions.
  3. C) have fewer work opportunities than their parents did several decades ago.
  4. D) have more work opportunities available to them than their parents did.

 

Page Ref: 582

 

Objective: 15.11

116)  Most U.S. high school sutdents who are employed are __________ youths.

  1. A) low-income
  2. B) high-SES
  3. C) middle-SES
  4. D) ethnic minority

 

Page Ref: 582

 

Objective: 15.11

117)  Which of the following statements regarding vocational preparation of non-college-bound adolescents is true?

  1. A) The United States offers a widespread training system to help prepare youths for manual trades.
  2. B) American employers regard recent high school graduates as well-prepared for skilled business and industrial occupations.
  3. C) Eighty percent of non-college-bound U.S. adolescents receive vocational training before graduating from high school.
  4. D) Teenagers’ employment opportunities are generally limited to menial tasks that do little to extend their knowledge or skills.

 

Page Ref: 582

 

Objective: 15.11

118)  Participation in work–study programs or other jobs that provide vocational learning opportunities

  1. A) is related to improved achievement and reduced delinquency.
  2. B) is widespread in both the United States and Canada.
  3. C) is typically available in U.S. schools, but only for industrial occupations and manual trades.
  4. D) have shown no influence on attitudes or vocational outcomes for high school students.

 

Page Ref: 582-583

 

Objective: 15.11

119)  Which of the following statements about Germany’s work–study apprenticeship system is true?

  1. A) About 25 percent of German youths participate in the program rather than go to a college-preparatory high school.
  2. B) Businesses provide financial support because they know that the program guarantees a competent, dedicated work force.
  3. C) The German government provides the full funding for the program, because it guarantees a competent, dedicated work force.
  4. D) Student tuitions, which are even higher than in the United States, a responsible for funding the entire program.

 

Page Ref: 583

 

Objective: 15.11

120)  One obstacle that Germany’s apprenticeship program still faces is

  1. A) preventing low-SES youths from being concentrated in the lowest-skilled apprenticeship placements.
  2. B) lack of participation due to minimal public awareness of the program.
  3. C) enrollment numbers that are too high to ensure quality apprenticeships for each student.
  4. D) low enrollments due to increased interest in college preparatory programs.

 

Page Ref: 583

 

Objective: 15.11

ESSAY

121)  Twelve-year-old Tamika is a formal operational thinker. What are the major characteristics of her thought processes?

122)  Tina has noticed that her adolescent daughter is very self-conscious. Explain why this is so, and be sure to use the terms imaginary audience and personal fable in your explanation.

123)  Explain why teenagers have difficulty with decision making.

124)  Do sex differences in mental abilities exist during childhood and adolescence? Explain.

125)  Ashley has just graduated from sixth grade; in the fall, she will be starting junior high school. Based on what you have learned about the impact of school transitions, what can you predict about Ashley’s adjustment at her new school? Suggest ways to minimize the stress of these changes.

126)  Cullen is a school-age boy living in the United States. Describe to Cullen’s parents the periods of vocational development that he will pass through on his way to choosing a career.

127)  Describe the German apprenticeship system. What are the challenges to implementing a similar system in the United States?

 

 

 

Chapter 16
Emotional and social development
in adolescence

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Defining who you are, what you value, and the directions you choose to pursue in life is part of

  1. A) constructing an identity.
  2. B) moral development.
  3. C) gender intensification.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 587

 

Objective: 16.1

2)   Identity can be described as an explicit theory of oneself as a(n)

  1. A) complex unit with varying personalities and desires.
  2. B) rational agent who acts on the basis of reason and takes responsibility for those actions.
  3. C) interdependent being whose decisions are made within a wider social context.
  4. D) entity who must explain its randomly occurring behavior.

 

Page Ref: 587

 

Objective: 16.1

3)   Siobhan recently went through a temporary period of distress as she experimented with alternatives before settling on values and goals. According to Erikson, Siobhan has been experiencing

  1. A) an identity crisis.
  2. B) serious adjustment problems.
  3. C) a reworking of self-concept.
  4. D) identity achievement.

 

Page Ref: 588

 

Objective: 16.1

4)   According to Erikson, the psychological conflict of adolescence is identity versus

  1. A)
  2. B) role confusion.
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

5)   As an adolescent, Grant has failed to select a vocation that matches his interests and skills. According to Erikson, Grant

  1. A) lacks a sense of industry.
  2. B) has poor initiative.
  3. C) has a weak sense of trust.
  4. D) has recently overcome an identity crisis.

 

Page Ref: 588

 

Objective: 16.1

6)   According to Erikson, young people are likely to appear shallow and directionless if

  1. A) they successfully resolve the central conflict of adolescence.
  2. B) society limits their choices to ones that do not match their abilities and desires.
  3. C) their parents do not support them during the inner soul-searching associated with the identity crisis.
  4. D) their peers reject the more mature identities they have constructed.

 

Page Ref: 588

 

Objective: 16.1

7)   Which of the following statements best describes how current theorists view the period of adolescence?

  1. A) They argue that adolescence is mainly a period of upheaval, crisis, and inner soul-searching.
  2. B) They view identity development as a temporary traumatic process resulting in a mature identity.
  3. C) They no longer describe the process that adolescents go through in constructing an identity as a “crisis.”
  4. D) They argue that mature identity does not develop during adolescence but appears in early adulthood.

 

Page Ref: 588

 

Objective: 16.1

8)   Compared to school-age children, adolescents place more emphasis on __________ in their self-descriptions.

  1. A) physical appearance
  2. B) favorite activities
  3. C) social virtues
  4. D) school performance

 

Page Ref: 589

 

Objective: 16.2

9)   __________ is/are a key theme in older adolescents’ self-concepts.

  1. A) Being smart
  2. B) Wearing the right clothes
  3. C) Personal possessions
  4. D) Personal and moral standards

 

10)   As Milee transitions from middle childhood to adolescence, she will likely add several new dimensions of self-evaluation, such as

  1. A) athletic skill, academic competence, and moral understanding.
  2. B) identity, autonomy, and initiative.
  3. C) close friendship, romantic appeal, and job competence.
  4. D) popularity, future aspirations, and spirituality.

 

Page Ref: 589

 

Objective: 16.2

11)   The general rise in self-esteem during adolescence is associated with a(n)

  1. A) increasing sense of mastery.
  2. B) unstable definition of self.
  3. C) decline in the importance of peer relationships.
  4. D) rise in civic engagement.

 

Page Ref: 589–590

 

Objective: 16.2

12)   Fifteen-year-old Tyson has low self-esteem. Tyson is

  1. A) experiencing role confusion.
  2. B) at risk for adjustment difficulties.
  3. C) in identity moratorium.
  4. D) a typical teenager.

 

Page Ref: 590

 

Objective: 16.2

13)   Lou’s parents give him feedback that is primarily negative or inconsistent. The chances are high that Lou

  1. A) will become increasingly resilient with age.
  2. B) will rely more on adults than peers to affirm his self-esteem.
  3. C) has a relatively stable, if negative, self-worth.
  4. D) feels incompetent and unloved.

 

Page Ref: 590

 

Objective: 16.2

14)   African-American and Hispanic teenagers are believed to have more positive self-esteem than Caucasian-American adolescents because they benefit from

  1. A) appropriately demanding parents who set clear behavioral guidelines.
  2. B) warm, extended families and ethnic pride.
  3. C) authoritarian parenting and automatic peer acceptance.
  4. D) the cultural values of modesty and support of the group.

 

15)   Hillary, an African-American adolescent, will have fewer self-esteem problems

  1. A) if she is the only African-American girl in an otherwise all-white school.
  2. B) in a school with just a few other African-American students.
  3. C) in a school with many other African-American students.
  4. D) if she is home-schooled by a female relative.

 

Page Ref: 590

 

Objective: 16.2

16)   Tony has thought long and hard about music as a career. When asked if he would change his mind if something better came along, he replied, “I doubt it.” Which identity status characterizes Tony?

  1. A) identity achievement
  2. B) identity moratorium
  3. C) identity foreclosure
  4. D) identity diffusion

 

Page Ref: 591

 

Objective: 16.3

17)   Liza is in a state of identity moratorium. Which of the following statements is Liza likely to make regarding her voting practices?

  1. A) “Sometimes I vote one way; sometimes another way. What does it matter, anyway?”
  2. B) “I haven’t figured out which party is right for me, but I am reading and listening to what they all have to say.”
  3. C) “I’ve explored the Republicans and Democrats, but I’m finding that the Green Party’s values make the most sense to me.”
  4. D) “My parents are both Republicans and I trust them, so I’m a Republican.”

 

Page Ref: 591

 

Objective: 16.3

18)   Johann’s father and grandfather were fishermen, and so he has decided to be a fisherman, too. Which identity status characterizes Johann?

  1. A) identity achievement
  2. B) identity foreclosure
  3. C) identity moratorium
  4. D) identity diffusion

 

Page Ref: 591

 

Objective: 16.3

19)   When asked about his career plans, Rodney responds, “Haven’t thought about it. Doesn’t make too much difference to me what I do.” Which identity status characterizes Rodney?

  1. A) identity achievement
  2. B) identity moratorium
  3. C) identity foreclosure
  4. D) identity diffusion

 

20)   Which of the following statements about identity development in adolescence is true?

  1. A) Once adolescents enter an identity status, they tend to remain in that status until middle adulthood.
  2. B) Most adolescents change from foreclosure or diffusion to moratorium or achievement between their midteens and midtwenties.
  3. C) Most adolescents start out in moratorium, but by late adolescence they move toward foreclosure and diffusion.
  4. D) Most adolescents start out in foreclosure, but by late adolescence they move toward diffusion and achievement.

 

Page Ref: 591

 

Objective: 16.3

21)   After high school, Tom entered college, whereas Jay went to work. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. A) Jay will probably settle on a self-definition before Tom.
  2. B) Tom is unlikely to reach identity achievement.
  3. C) Tom is at greater risk for identity diffusion than Jay.
  4. D) Tom and Jay are unlikely to differ in their paths to identity.

 

Page Ref: 591

 

Objective: 16.3

22)   Research on gender differences in identity development reveals that

  1. A) boys tend to focus on intimacy development before they become concerned with establishing an identity.
  2. B) girls show less sophisticated reasoning than boys in identity domains related to intimacy.
  3. C) young people of both sexes typically make progress on identity concerns before experiencing genuine intimacy in romantic relationships.
  4. D) young people of both sexes who are identity-diffused are more likely to experience intimacy in romantic relationships.

 

Page Ref: 592

 

Objective: 16.3

23)   Both identity __________ and __________ are psychologically healthy routes to mature self-definition.

  1. A) diffusion; foreclosure
  2. B) achievement; diffusion
  3. C) moratorium; foreclosure
  4. D) achievement; moratorium

 

Page Ref: 592

 

Objective: 16.3

24)   Which identity status is associated with a dogmatic, inflexible cognitive style?

  1. A) diffusion
  2. B) foreclosure
  3. C) achievement
  4. D) moratorium

 

25)   Which of the following teenagers is at highest risk for drug use and abuse and antisocial behavior?

  1. A) Danica, who avoids dealing with personal decisions and, instead, allows current situational pressures to dictate her reactions
  2. B) Hayden, who has adopted his parents’ values and beliefs without questioning or exploring alternatives
  3. C) Deon, who is actively exploring various belief systems but has not yet settled on one that “fits”
  4. D) Mackenzie, who has committed to a particular religious faith after considering several alternatives

 

Page Ref: 592

 

Objective: 16.3

26)   Josie is self-indulgent and doubts she will ever feel certain about anything. Josie is most likely in a state of identity

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 593

 

Objective: 16.3

27)   Tate’s father wants to support his identity development. He should

  1. A) encourage Tate to wait until college to consider his future possibilities.
  2. B) discourage Tate from talking to others about identity concerns, as this will be confusing in his own identity search.
  3. C) prevent Tate from joining vocational training programs, because this may cause him to feel “locked in” to a certain career choice.
  4. D) provide a secure base for Tate and allow him to voice his own opinions.

 

Page Ref: 593

 

Objective: 16.3

28)   The lowest levels of warm, open communication at home are reported by adolescents who are

  1. A) identity-foreclosed.
  2. B) identity-diffused.
  3. C) in a state of moratorium.
  4. D) identity-achieved.

 

Page Ref: 593

 

Objective: 16.3

29)   Adolescents who immigrate with their family to the United States from cultures that value interdependent qualities demonstrate __________ the longer their family has been in the United States.

  1. A) increased discrimination toward other ethnic minorities
  2. B) increased commitment to fulfilling family obligations and learning about their heritage
  3. C) decreased ability to fit in with mainstream U.S. culture
  4. D) decreased commitment to obeying their parents and fulfilling family obligations

 

Page Ref: 594 Box: Cultural Influences: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents

 

Objective: 16.3

30)   Society can help ethnic minority adolescents resolve identity conflicts constructively by

  1. A) ensuring that schools require students to learn English and conform to established learning styles.
  2. B) discouraging minority youth from forming bicultural identities.
  3. C) promoting effective parenting, in which they are encouraged to explore the meaning of ethnicity in their own lives.
  4. D) fostering contact with cultural-majority youth and respect for majority culture.

 

Page Ref: 594 Box: Cultural Influences: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents

 

Objective: 16.3

31)   Maria is a Mexican-American teenager who feels a strong sense of ethnic group membership and has adopted values from both her subculture and her dominant culture. Maria is displaying

  1. A) a bicultural identity.
  2. B) an ethnic identity.
  3. C) acculturative stress.
  4. D) identity confusion.

 

Page Ref: 594 Box: Identity Development Among Ethnic Minority Adolescents

 

Objective: 16.3

32)   The “Heinz dilemma” is a(n)

  1. A) classic example of an adolescent in moratorium, deliberating between two career choices.
  2. B) narrative used to assess adolescents’ understanding of social conventions.
  3. C) example of an everyday moral conflict that young people encounter.
  4. D) conflict between two moral values which pits the value of obeying the law against the value of human life.

 

Page Ref: 596

 

Objective: 16.4

33)   According to Kohlberg, which of the following is the most important factor in determining the maturity of responses to moral dilemmas?

  1. A) the way the individual reasons about the dilemma
  2. B) the content of the individual’s response
  3. C) how the individual uses emotion in determining the answer
  4. D) whether the individual gives the same answer as other individuals of the same age

 

Page Ref: 596

 

Objective: 16.4

34)   Kohlberg believed that moral understanding is promoted by the same factors Piaget thought

  1. A) are passively acquired through accepting the rules presented by moral authority figures.
  2. B) can be attained by adhering closely to parental and cultural directives.
  3. C) were important for cognitive development, such as gains in perspective taking.
  4. D) could lead to closed-mindedness and intolerance if not grounded in a religious faith.

 

Page Ref: 596

 

Objective: 16.4

35)   At Kohlberg’s preconventional level, children accept the rules of authority figures and judge actions

  1. A) by their consequences.
  2. B) by people’s intentions.
  3. C) according to self-interest.
  4. D) by their impact on social harmony.

 

Page Ref: 597

 

Objective: 16.4

36)   When faced with a moral dilemma, Lydia reasons, “If you do this for me, then I’ll do that for you.” Kohlberg would place Lydia in the __________ orientation of moral development.

  1. A) punishment and obedience
  2. B) instrumental purpose
  3. C) “good boy–good girl”
  4. D) social-order-maintaining

 

Page Ref: 597

 

Objective: 16.4

37)   In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” Jolene explains, “If Heinz cares at all about what his family thinks of him, he won’t let his wife die. He’d be a disgrace to his family’s name.” Jolene is in which of Kohlberg’s stages?

  1. A) punishment and obedience orientation
  2. B) instrumental purpose orientation
  3. C) “good boy–good girl” orientation
  4. D) social-order-maintaining orientation

 

Page Ref: 597

 

Objective: 16.4

38)   In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” Seth explains, “It doesn’t make sense for Heinz to put respect for property above respect for life itself. People have a mutual duty to save one another from dying.” Seth is in which of Kohlberg’s stages?

  1. A) instrumental purpose orientation
  2. B) social-order-maintaining orientation
  3. C) social contract orientation
  4. D) universal ethical principle orientation

 

Page Ref: 598

 

Objective: 16.4

39)   Longitudinal research on Kohlberg’s stage sequence

  1. A) provides convincing evidence that individuals move through the first four stages in the predicted order.
  2. B) indicates that moral development and movement through the stages is quite rapid.
  3. C) finds that little progress in made toward moral development until adolescence and early adulthood.
  4. D) shows that postconventional morality is common in adulthood.

 

Page Ref: 598

 

Objective: 16.4

40)   Research on Kohlberg’s stage sequence indicates that few people ever move beyond Stage 4, the __________ orientation.

  1. A) universal ethical principle
  2. B) instrumental purpose
  3. C) social-order-maintaining
  4. D) social contract

 

Page Ref: 598

 

Objective: 16.4

41)   Which of the following statements about morality is true?

  1. A) Adolescents and adults mention relying on intuition as their most frequent strategy for resolving moral dilemmas.
  2. B) Adolescents rarely report feeling confused or torn by temptation when confronting real-life dilemmas.
  3. C) Situational factors seem to play a very small part in people’s responses to moral dilemmas.
  4. D) Real-life conflicts often elicit moral reasoning below a person’s actual capacity.

 

Page Ref: 599

 

Objective: 16.4

42)   The fact that postconventional morality is so rare poses a key challenge to Kohlberg’s theory because

  1. A) these stages do not adequately represent the morality of boys and men.
  2. B) if people must reach Stages 5 and 6 to be considered truly morally mature, few individuals anywhere would measure up.
  3. C) research on moral development has been limited by insufficient attention to rights and justice.
  4. D) advancing to postconventional morality is unrelated to participation in higher education.

 

Page Ref: 598

 

Objective: 16.4

43)   According to Gilligan, feminine morality emphasizes

  1. A) rights and justice.
  2. B) an “ethic of care.”
  3. C) irrational reasoning.
  4. D) the same principles as masculine morality.

 

Page Ref: 599

 

Objective: 16.4

44)   According to Gilligan, a concern for others is

  1. A) a different but no less valid basis of moral judgment than a focus on impersonal rights.
  2. B) a less valid basis for moral judgment than a focus on justice.
  3. C) is not measurable in Kohlberg’s moral dilemmas.
  4. D) a more valid basis for moral judgment than a focus on impersonal rights.

 

Page Ref: 599

 

Objective: 16.4

45)   Most studies __________ Gilligan’s claim that Kohlberg’s approach underestimates the moral maturity of females.

  1. A) support
  2. B) do not support
  3. C) are inconclusive about
  4. D) have failed to test

 

Page Ref: 599

 

Objective: 16.4

46)   Research shows that on both hypothetical dilemmas and everyday moral problems,

  1. A) themes of justice occur more often than caring.
  2. B) males reason at a much lower level than females.
  3. C) females actually emphasize themes of justice over caring.
  4. D) themes of justice and caring appear in the responses of both sexes.

 

Page Ref: 599

 

Objective: 16.4

47)   In diverse Western and non-Western cultures, concern with __________ strengthens during the teenage years.

  1. A) matters of personal choice
  2. B) conformity to law-abiding norms
  3. C) social conventions
  4. D) moral imperatives

 

Page Ref: 600

 

Objective: 16.5

48)   As adolescents integrate personal rights with __________, they demand that the protections they want for themselves extend to others.

  1. A) moral imperatives
  2. B) self-interest
  3. C) moral consequences
  4. D) ideal reciprocity

 

Page Ref: 600

 

Objective: 16.4

49)   As their grasp of fairness deepens, young people realize that

  1. A) social conventions are not vital for maintaining a just and peaceful society.
  2. B) there is no overlap between moral imperatives and social conventions.
  3. C) many social conventions have moral implications.
  4. D) matters of personal choice do not have an effect on others.

 

Page Ref: 600

 

Objective: 16.5

 

50)   Which of the following adolescents is likely to experience greater gains in moral reasoning?

  1. A) Bradley, who is very competitive
  2. B) Carolyn, who is open-minded
  3. C) Jude, who is confident
  4. D) Analiese, who is introverted

 

Page Ref: 601

 

Objective: 16.5

51)   Which of the following statements about the impact of peer interaction on moral understanding is true?

  1. A) Peer interaction in adolescence often interferes with advanced moral understanding.
  2. B) Teenagers who report more close friendships lag behind in moral understanding.
  3. C) Interaction among peers who present differing viewpoints promotes moral understanding.
  4. D) Intergroup contact affects minority adolescents morally more so than majority adolescents.

 

Page Ref: 601

 

Objective: 16.5

52)   In research conducted in India, even highly educated individuals viewed the solutions to moral dilemmas as the responsibility of

  1. A) each person according to their inner, private conscience.
  2. B) the upper class, who have the resources to help.
  3. C) men, who are more concerned with matters of justice.
  4. D) the entire society, not of a single person.

 

Page Ref: 602

 

Objective: 16.5

53)   Village societies and industrialized nations that highly value interdependence place moral responsibility on the entire society. This raises the question of whether Kohlberg’s highest level

  1. A) represents a culturally specific way of thinking.
  2. B) represents hypothetical constructs or real-life dilemmas.
  3. C) is limited to non-Western societies that emphasize collectivism.
  4. D) can be attained by young people in industrialized nations.

 

Page Ref: 602

 

Objective: 16.4

54)   Compared with his teenage peers, John shows higher-stage thinking on Kohlberg’s dilemmas. John is likely to

  1. A) state that people should help others, but he is unlikely to do so in real life.
  2. B) act prosocially by helping, sharing, and defending victims of injustice.
  3. C) cheat in school just as much as other teens.
  4. D) emphasize an “ethic of care” rather than justice.

 

Page Ref: 602

 

Objective: 16.5

55)   Adolescents whose parents stress compassion for the less fortunate and engage in community service are most likely to identify __________ as a cause for unemployment and poverty.

  1. A) low intelligence
  2. B) lack of job skills
  3. C) the state of the economy
  4. D) personal problems

 

Page Ref: 603 Box: Social Issues: Education: Development of Civic Engagement

 

Objective: 16.5

56)   Which of the following schools is most likely to promote a sense of civic engagement in its students?

  1. A) Lincoln High School, which fosters a democratic climate
  2. B) McAdams Preparatory High School, a for-profit private school
  3. C) University High School, which offers a liberal arts curriculum
  4. D) Mechanicville High School, which offers a diverse range of vocational opportunities

 

Page Ref: 603 Box: Social Issues: Education: Development of Civic Engagement

 

Objective: 16.5

57)   Miguel is spending a year volunteering in a homeless shelter. At the end of the year, Miguel is likely to

  1. A) attribute homelessness to personal or individual factors.
  2. B) become overwhelmed by social injustices and withdraw from those affected.
  3. C) become desensitized to social injustices and stop all volunteering activities.
  4. D) redefine his own identity to include a responsibility to combat others’ misfortunes.

 

Page Ref: 603 Box: Social Issues: Education: Development of Civic Engagement

 

Objective: 16.5

58)   In which of the following countries does the greatest percentage of the population rate religion as very important in their lives?

  1. A) Sweden
  2. B) Great Britain
  3. C) Canada
  4. D) the United States

 

Page Ref: 604

 

Objective: 16.5

59)   Which of the following statements about formal religious involvement during adolescence is true?

  1. A) Formal religious involvement declines during adolescence.
  2. B) Formal religious involvement increases during adolescence.
  3. C) Nearly 70 percent of U.S. adolescents attend church on a weekly basis.
  4. D) Most teenagers do not identify with a religious denomination.

 

Page Ref: 604

 

Objective: 16.5

60)   For adolescents, religious involvement is associated with __________ levels of __________.

  1. A) higher; drug and alcohol use
  2. B) higher; early sexual activity
  3. C) lower; antisocial behavior
  4. D) lower; community service

 

Page Ref: 604

 

Objective: 16.5

61)   According to the pragmatic view,

  1. A) judgments made to protect self-interest rarely result in negative feelings.
  2. B) moral action is unrelated to moral understanding.
  3. C) everyday moral judgments are practical tools that people use to achieve their goals.
  4. D) people often use moral judgments for immoral purposes.

 

Page Ref: 604

 

Objective: 16.6

62)   When gender intensification is evident, it seems to be

  1. A) stronger for adolescent boys.
  2. B) stronger for adolescent girls.
  3. C) strongest for first-born sons.
  4. D) the same for both adolescent girls and boys.

 

Page Ref: 605

 

Objective: 16.7

63)   Gender intensificiation typically

  1. A) declines by early adolescence.
  2. B) declines by late adolescence.
  3. C) stems from environmental factors.
  4. D) is unrelated to adolescent dating.

 

Page Ref: 605

 

Objective: 16.7

64)   Which of the following tends to be associated with better psychological health in adolescence, especially for girls?

  1. A) gender intensification
  2. B) a “feminine” gender identity
  3. C) an androgynous gender identity
  4. D) gender-typed pressures from others

 

Page Ref: 606

 

Objective: 16.7

65)   In her efforts to develop a separate sense of self, Juanita tries to rely more on herself and less on her parents for support and guidance. She is striving for

  1. A) moral self-relevance.
  2. B) an ideal self.
  3. C) a secure identity.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 606

 

Objective: 16.8

66)   An improved ability to reason about social relationships leads teenagers to

  1. A) deidealize their parents.
  2. B) solve problems less efficiently.
  3. C) experience gender intensification.
  4. D) rely more on parental support.

 

Page Ref: 606

 

Objective: 16.8

67)   Effective parenting of adolescents strikes a balance between __________ and __________.

  1. A) authority; persuasion
  2. B) perseverance; acceptance
  3. C) affection; authority
  4. D) connection; separation

 

Page Ref: 607

 

Objective: 16.7

68)   Parents who __________ interfere with the development of autonomy.

  1. A) are psychologically controlling.
  2. B) monitor activities.
  3. C) use an authoritative child-rearing style.
  4. D) are uninvolved.

 

Page Ref: 607

 

Objective: 16.8

69)   Immigrant parents from cultures that emphasize obedience to authority

  1. A) usually grant their adolescents more freedom.
  2. B) experience little conflict with their adolescent children.
  3. C) often react strongly to adolescent disagreement.
  4. D) often push adolescents toward independent decision making.

 

Page Ref: 608

 

Objective: 16.8

70)   The Marinuzzis are a well-functioning family who are experiencing mild conflicts with their teenage son. They should know that these conflicts

  1. A) will facilitate their son’s identity and autonomy by helping family members learn to express and tolerate disagreement.
  2. B) will continue to escalate throughout the high school years and then will gradually decrease.
  3. C) are common among young people who are abusing alcohol or drugs.
  4. D) are unusual for most adolescents and may indicate that their son is depressed.

 

Page Ref: 608

 

Objective: 16.8

71)   Javier is doing quite well despite significant family stress. Javier’s resilience has probably been fostered by

  1. A) parenting that combines high expectations with strict control.
  2. B) an anxious, reactive disposition.
  3. C) parenting that combines warmth with permissiveness.
  4. D) an appealing, easygoing disposition.

 

Page Ref: 609

 

Objective: 16.8

72)   Compared to childhood, adolescent sibling relationships

  1. A) often become more intense.
  2. B) often become less intense.
  3. C) are characterized by greater competition.
  4. D) often become hostile and quarrelsome.

 

Page Ref: 609

 

Objective: 16.8

73)   __________ report greater intimacy with their siblings, and __________ pairings tend to be the closest.

  1. A) Brothers; brother–brother
  2. B) Sisters; sister–sister
  3. C) Brothers; brother–sister
  4. D) Sisters; sister–brother

 

Page Ref: 609

 

Objective: 16.8

74)   Teenagers in the United States have more free time than teenagers in Europe or East Asia. The difference is due to

  1. A) lower rates of maternal employment in the United States.
  2. B) less demanding academic standards in the United States.
  3. C) fewer public gathering places for adolescents in the United States.
  4. D) greater flexibility in school hours in Europe and East Asia.

 

Page Ref: 610

 

Objective: 16.9

75)   When asked about the meaning of friendship, teenagers stress which of the following characteristics?

  1. A) attractiveness, compatibility, and loyalty
  2. B) common interests and trust
  3. C) attractiveness, similarity, and common interests
  4. D) intimacy, mutual understanding, and loyalty

 

Page Ref: 610

 

Objective: 16.9

76)   Compared to girls, boys

  1. A) tend to coruminate more among their friends.
  2. B) typically focus on achievement and status in their friendships.
  3. C) form friendships that are more intimate.
  4. D) have same-sex friendships that are of shorter duration.

 

Page Ref: 612

 

Objective: 16.9

77)   Which of the following characteristics of close friendships can trigger anxiety and depression?

  1. A) loyalty
  2. B) trustworthiness
  3. C) corumination
  4. D) faithfulness

 

Page Ref: 612

 

Objective: 16.9

78)   Which of the following adolescents is most likely to have a large network of other-sex friends?

  1. A) Cassidy, an average student who is not well-known
  2. B) Marie, who reached puberty earlier than her classmates
  3. C) Chase, who frequently plays sports with his many male friends
  4. D) Gwyneth, who is neither popular nor unpopular

 

Page Ref: 612

 

Objective: 16.9

79)   Girls who few or no same-sex friends and a greater number of other-sex friends report

  1. A) more positive psychological well-being.
  2. B) less bullying by peers.
  3. C) more antisocial behavior.
  4. D) greater motivation in school.

 

Page Ref: 612

 

Objective: 16.9

80)   Internet relationships are appealing to young people because

  1. A) the dangers of unmonitored chatrooms pose an opportunity to engage in rule breaking with little risk of getting caught.
  2. B) they can explore central adolescent concerns in contexts that may feel less threatening than similar conversations in the real world.
  3. C) teenagers tend to be more secretive, and Internet relationships are less visible to their parents and friends.
  4. D) because the Internet is a safer place than school or the community to develop relationships, especially romantic relationships.

 

Page Ref: 613

 

Objective: 16.9

81)   Regardless of whether teen chatrooms are adult monitored,

  1. A) conversations about eating disorders remain prevalent.
  2. B) there is a rising rate of sexually obscene remarks.
  3. C) racial and ethnic slurs remain prevalent.
  4. D) requests for romantic partners occur very frequently.

 

Page Ref: 613

 

Objective: 16.9

82)   Ella has five good friends with whom she spends most of her time. This group of girls, who resemble each other in family background, attitudes, and values, is called a

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) peer group.

 

Page Ref: 614

 

Objective: 16.9

83)   Membership in a crowd

  1. A) promotes intimate interaction with the other sex.
  2. B) grants adolescents an identity within the larger social structure of the school.
  3. C) encourages delinquency and antisocial behavior.
  4. D) has little impact, either positive or negative, on social development.

 

Page Ref: 614

 

Objective: 16.9

84)   An investigation of high school crowds in Singapore found that “__________” were more prominent than in Western high schools.

  1. A) jocks
  2. B) brains
  3. C) nonconformists
  4. D) populars

 

Page Ref: 614

 

Objective: 16.9

85)   Which of the following adolescents is most likely to engage in health-risk behaviors such as drug use, unprotected sex, and agreeing to “do anything on a dare”?

  1. A) Simon, who is a member of the “jock” crowd
  2. B) Dave, who is a member of the “brain” crowd
  3. C) Tim, who is a member of the “popular” crowd
  4. D) Cory, who is a member of the “nonconformist” crowd

 

Page Ref: 614

 

Objective: 16.9

86)   One benefit of __________ is that they provide boys and girls with models of how to interact and a chance to do so without having to be intimate.

  1. A) same-sex cliques
  2. B) mixed-sex cliques
  3. C) crowds
  4. D) friendships

 

Page Ref: 615

 

Objective: 16.9

87)   When asked about her reason for wanting to date, 14-year-old Randi is most likely to say she wants to

  1. A) gain status with her peers.
  2. B) share interesting activities with someone.
  3. C) make her parents proud.
  4. D) find a good permanent partner.

 

Page Ref: 615

 

Objective: 16.9

88)   During adolescence, the achievement of intimacy between dating partners typically __________ that between friends.

  1. A) occurs before
  2. B) lags behind
  3. C) occurs at about the same time as
  4. D) substitutes for

 

Page Ref: 615

 

Objective: 16.9

89)   Early dating is related to

  1. A) mature behavior.
  2. B) high academic achievement.
  3. C) drug use and delinquency.
  4. D)

 

Page Ref: 615

 

Objective: 16.9

90)   Thirteen-year-old Donna, whose parents are uninvolved and aggressive, has already started dating. There is an increased likelihood that Donna will

  1. A) practice sexual abstinence.
  2. B) become more popular among her peers.
  3. C) use contraceptives and condoms.
  4. D) experience dating violence.

 

Page Ref: 615–616

 

Objective: 16.9

91)   Which of the following statements about peer conformity is true?

  1. A) Conformity to peer pressure is greater in childhood and early adulthood than in adolescence.
  2. B) Adolescents feel greatest pressure to conform to the most obvious aspects of peer culture, such as dress and grooming.
  3. C) Peer pressure to engage in antisocial acts is greater than peer pressure to engage in proadult behavior.
  4. D) Authoritarian child rearing is related to adolescents resisting peer pressure.

 

Page Ref: 616

 

Objective: 16.10

92)   Kailani is highly peer-oriented and has a history of unstable friendships, aggression, and delinquency. Kailani’s parents most likely

  1. A) exert appropriate oversight.
  2. B) are warm and supportive.
  3. C) exert either too much or too little control.
  4. D) have an authoritative child-rearing style.

 

Page Ref: 617

 

Objective: 16.10

93)   About 5 percent of adolescents are chronically depressed, which means that they

  1. A) experience mild to moderate feelings of depression.
  2. B) are gloomy and self-critical for many months and sometimes years.
  3. C) bounce back after short periods of depression.
  4. D) are experiencing an incurable and lifelong condition.

 

Page Ref: 617

 

Objective: 16.11

94)   In industrialized nations, depression

  1. A) occurs at the same rate in adolescence as in middle childhood.
  2. B) increases sharply from ages 12 to 16.
  3. C) occurs equally often in girls and boys.
  4. D) does not seem to affect identity development.

 

Page Ref: 617

 

Objective: 16.11

95)   Which of the following statements about depression is true?

  1. A) Late-maturing girls and early-maturing boys are especially prone to depression.
  2. B) There are no gender differences in the frequency of depressive symptoms.
  3. C) Teenage girls are twice as likely as boys to report persistent depressed mood.
  4. D) Teenage boys are three times as likely as girls to report persistent depressed mood.

 

Page Ref: 617

 

Objective: 16.11

96)   Genetic and hormonal risk factors for depression

  1. A) act independently of pubertal changes for girls, but not for boys.
  2. B) promote enhanced self-regulation in the presence of negative life stressors.
  3. C) seem to sensitize the brain to react more strongly to stressful experiences.
  4. D) are linked to decreased expressions of fear in stressful situations.

 

Page Ref: 618

 

Objective: 16.11

97)   An investigation of more than 17,000 youths in China found that depression is

  1. A) more common in boys than in girls.
  2. B) more common in urban areas than in rural areas.
  3. C) unrelated to stressful life events.
  4. D) more common in adolescents with a “feminine” gender identity.

 

Page Ref: 618

 

Objective: 16.11

98)   Rates of adolescent suicide are highest in which of the following countries?

  1. A) Greece
  2. B) Italy
  3. C) the United States
  4. D) Ireland

 

Page Ref: 619

 

Objective: 16.11

99)   Which of the following statements about adolescent suicide is true?

  1. A) The number of boys who kill themselves exceeds the number of girls by a ratio of over 4 to 1.
  2. B) Boys unsuccessfully attempt suicide more often than girls.
  3. C) Compared to boys, girls are more likely to choose techniques that lead to instant death.
  4. D) The adolescent suicide rate is about the same for boys and girls.

 

Page Ref: 619

 

Objective: 16.11

100)  Adolescent __________ make more successful suicide attempts because they __________.

  1. A) boys; more often choose techniques that lead to instant death
  2. B) boys; are more likely to have permissive parents
  3. C) girls; more often choose techniques that lead to instant death
  4. D) girls; are more likely to identify as gender-atypical

 

Page Ref: 619

 

Objective: 16.11

101)  Which of the following young people is at highest risk for suicide?

  1. A) Jennifer, who is Asian American
  2. B) Claire, who is Native American
  3. C) Alyssia, who is African American
  4. D) Leah, who is Caucasian American

 

Page Ref: 619–620

 

Objective: 16.11

102)  Lesbian, gay, and bisexual youths who attempt suicide are more likely to report

  1. A) warm, supportive romantic relationships.
  2. B) family conflict over their gender-atypical behavior.
  3. C) strong ties to peers.
  4. D) meeting their partners on the Internet.

 

Page Ref: 620

 

Objective: 16.11

103)  Events such as parental blaming for family problems, the breakup of an important peer relationship, or the humiliation of being caught engaging in irresponsible or antisocial acts are all

  1. A) stressors that can foster depression, but typically do not lead to a suicide attempt.
  2. B) triggers that result in more delinquent acts.
  3. C) contributing factors to the imaginary audience and the personal fable.
  4. D) stressors that can trigger a suicide attempt.

 

Page Ref: 620

 

Objective: 16.11

104)  Grant’s parents have noticed that he seems to be putting his personal affairs in order—smoothing over troubled relationships and giving away treasured possessions. This indicates that Grant may

  1. A) be contemplating suicide.
  2. B) be entering Erikson’s stage of identity confusion.
  3. C) have recently experienced a friend’s suicide.
  4. D) be about to run away from home.

 

Page Ref: 620

 

Objective: 16.11

105)  Which of the following statements about factors related to adolescent suicide is true?

  1. A) Suicidal adolescents typically do not have a family history of suicide.
  2. B) The majority of adolescents who attempt suicide are solitary and withdrawn.
  3. C) Most, if not all, successful suicides are sudden and impulsive.
  4. D) A prior suicide attempt is the strongest predictor of suicide completion.

 

Page Ref: 620

 

Objective: 16.11

106)  Penelope says, “I hate my life and I just want to die. Besides, everyone would be better off without me—better if I had never been born.” You should

  1. A) try to take her mind off her problems by taking her to a movie or some other activity.
  2. B) agree with her initially. If she thinks you are on her side by not opposing her plan, she is more likely to be convinced by you later.
  3. C) make her get professional help right away. Do not try to talk with her yourself, as untrained counseling can actually increase the risk of suicide.
  4. D) empathize with Penelope’s feelings and ask if she has a plan for killing herself. If she has a specific plan involving a method and a time, the risk of suicide is high.

 

Page Ref: 621

 

Objective: 16.11

107)  When teenagers are asked directly and confidentially about lawbreaking, __________ admit to having committed some sort of offense.

  1. A) almost none
  2. B) about half
  3. C) almost all
  4. D) mostly boys

 

Page Ref: 621

 

Objective: 16.12

108)  Delinquency usually __________ over early and middle adolescence and then __________.

  1. A) declines; rises
  2. B) rises; rises further
  3. C) declines; declines further
  4. D) rises; declines

 

Page Ref: 621

 

Objective: 16.12

109)  Which of the following statements about adolescent delinquency is true?

  1. A) Early-onset delinquency is far more likely to lead to a life-course pattern of aggression and criminality.
  2. B) Late-onset delinquency is far more likely to lead to a life-course pattern of aggression and criminality.
  3. C) Early relational aggression is not linked to adolescent conduct problems.
  4. D) The longer antisocial young people spend in prison, the less likely they are to sustain a life of crime.

 

Page Ref: 622 Box: Biology and Environment: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency

 

Objective: 16.12

110)  Serious antisocial activity is most likely among teenagers who

  1. A) express sadness and feeling low.
  2. B) engage in corumination with their friends.
  3. C) are withdrawn and unable to meet their own standards.
  4. D) combine physical and relational hostility.

 

Page Ref: 622 Box: Biology and Environment: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency

 

Objective: 16.12

111)  Compared to their early-onset counterparts, late-onset delinquent teenagers

  1. A) are more socially isolated and tend to be more violent.
  2. B) often show subtle deficits in cognitive functioning.
  3. C) are much more likely to demonstrate continued criminal behavior into adulthood.
  4. D) have conduct problems that arise from the peer context of early adolescence.

 

Page Ref: 622 Box: Biology and Environment: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency

 

Objective: 16.12

112)  Johnson County officials are considering four options to help late-onset adolescent delinquents. Based on research findings, which of the following proposals would you recommend?

  1. A) Proposal 1: Implement longer prison terms for repeat offenders.
  2. B) Proposal 2: Eliminate juvenile court and prosecute teenagers in adult court.
  3. C) Proposal 3: Hold parents of delinquent youths legally accountable for their children’s behavior.
  4. D) Proposal 4: Keep the delinquent youths in school and help them form positive, close relationships.

 

Page Ref: 623 Box: Biology and Environment: Two Routes to Adolescent Delinquency

 

Objective: 16.12

113)  On Halloween, four teenagers separately set out to smash pumpkins. Which one is most likely to get arrested?

  1. A) Pete, a low-SES Caucasian-American male
  2. B) Dani, a high-SES Caucasian-American female
  3. C) Jace, an African-American male
  4. D) Keisha, an Asian-American female

 

Page Ref: 622–623

 

Objective: 16.12

114)  Chronic delinquents typically

  1. A) experience peer rejection in childhood.
  2. B) show few academic problems in childhood.
  3. C) behave rebelliously despite good parental discipline.
  4. D) are unresponsive to pressures of the peer group.

 

Page Ref: 623

 

Objective: 16.12

115)  Why do delinquent youths tend to stick together?

  1. A) to avoid social isolation and bolster their fragile self-esteem
  2. B) to more effectively commit crimes
  3. C) because larger groups tend to gain more status and respect
  4. D) because they have similar interests and values

 

Page Ref: 623

 

Objective: 16.11

116)  Rick has overly high self-esteem, despite his academic difficulties and status as a social outcast. When another student challenges his arrogant behavior, Rick is likely to

  1. A) withdraw and become depressed.
  2. B) lash out in anger.
  3. C) respond with relational aggression.
  4. D) ignore the student.

 

Page Ref: 622–623

 

Objective: 16.12

117)  Because delinquency has roots in childhood and results from events in several contexts,

  1. A) only significant economic improvements will be able to decrease delinquency.
  2. B) teaching parents to be supportive and monitor their child’s behavior is useless.
  3. C) only police involvement and increasing arrests can decrease delinquency.
  4. D) prevention must start early and take place at multiple levels.

 

Page Ref: 624

 

Objective: 16.12

118)  The mayor of Central City wants to reduce its youth crime rate. Based on research findings, which of the following would you recommend?

  1. A) Start school earlier in the day and end it later in the day.
  2. B) Work with law enforcement to lengthen prison sentences for juvenile offenders .
  3. C) Establish a strict zero tolerance policy which severely punishes all disruptive behavior.
  4. D) Promote high-quality teaching in schools and create work–study vocational education programs.

 

Page Ref: 624

 

Objective: 16.12

119)  Most teenagers

  1. A) engage in serious antisocial acts, although they are rarely caught or prosecuted.
  2. B) do not show serious depression, suicidal tendencies, or persistent antisocial behavior.
  3. C) experience severe bouts of depression, especially those in industrialized nations.
  4. D) seriously consider suicide, although few actually make an attempt.

 

Page Ref: 625

 

Objective: 16.13

120)  Which of the following resources are shown to facilitate resilience in adolescents?

  1. A) working a full-time job
  2. B) early dating
  3. C) parental monitoring
  4. D) other-sex friendships

 

Page Ref: 625

 

Objective: 16.13

ESSAY

121)  Describe the four identity statuses described by James Marcia, and cite factors that promote identity development.

122)  Explain why students from ethnic minority backgrounds face difficulties in developing an identity, and give suggestions on how to help minority adolescents resolve identity conflicts constructively.

123)  What types of moral dilemmas do people face in real life, and how do they resolve them? How does this compare to their approach to hypothetical problems like Kohlberg’s “Heinz dilemma”?

124)  Meghan is approaching early adolescence. How will Meghan’s gender-typed behavior likely change as she moves through adolescence? What factors will likely contribute to these changes?

125)  Explain the relationship between adolescent friendships and psychological adjustment. Identify four ways that friendship contributes to many aspects of psychological health and competence into early adulthood.

126)  You have been asked to give a talk on preventing adolescent suicide at a local high school. Using research from the text as a guide, what will you say in your lecture?

127)  Which adolescents are at greatest risk for becoming delinquent? What are some suggestions for prevention of delinquency?

 

 

Chapter 17
Emerging adulthood

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Lincoln, a 20-year-old American woman, is asked: “Do you consider yourself to have reached adulthood?” Lincoln probably responds

  1. A) “I haven’t really thought about it.”
  2. B) “No, I’m not a true adult.”
  3. C) “Yes and no. It depends.”
  4. D) “Yes, I am truly an adult.”

 

Page Ref: 631

 

Objective: 17.1

2)   Emerging adulthood is

  1. A) experienced between ages 16 to 18 exclusively in industrialized nations.
  2. B) a new transitional period extending from the late teens to the mid- to late twenties.
  3. C) evident in nonindustrialized countries at the same rates as it is in industrialized nations.
  4. D) a time of certainty and focus seen in approximately 85 percent of the world’s twenty-somethings.

 

Page Ref: 632

 

Objective: 17.1

3)   Which of the following statements about emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) It is primarily found in low-SES ethnic minority groups.
  2. B) Emerging adults are actually adolescents who take on adult responsibilities.
  3. C) Emerging adulthood is a time of great challenge and uncertainty.
  4. D) Adult milestones are highly consistent in time and order across individuals.

 

Page Ref: 632

 

Objective: 17.1

4)   It is __________ to make general statements about development during emerging adulthood __________ for any other period.

  1. A) harder; than
  2. B) easier; than
  3. C) as easy; as
  4. D) less paradoxical; than

 

5)   Which of the following statements regarding marriage attitudes in emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) The overwhelming majority of contemporary urban adults in their twenties and thirties say that marriage should be spontaneous.
  2. B) Many contemporary emerging adults continue to view marriage as a socially expected step to become a “true adult.”
  3. C) The overwhelming majority of contemporary urban adults in their twenties and thirties say that marriage should occur before personal goals for career are attained.
  4. D) The view of marriage as a crucial marker of adult status and as a socially expected outcome of an enduring courtship persists in rural America.

 

Page Ref: 632

 

Objective: 17.1

6)   Extended education, delayed career entry, and later marriage lead to __________ for those in emerging adulthood.

  1. A) great residential instability
  2. B) a global identity
  3. C) long-term career stability
  4. D) a great sense of security

 

Page Ref: 632

 

Objective: 17.1

7)   Just over half of American 18- to 25-year olds

  1. A) do not qualify for enough private or federal financial aid to attend college.
  2. B) enter graduate school within three years of earning their bachelor’s degree.
  3. C) return to their parents’ home for brief periods after first leaving.
  4. D) view marriage and parenthood as crucial markers of adult status.

 

Page Ref: 633

 

Objective: 17.1

8)   Which of the following young adults is most likely to live independently?

  1. A) Alan, who is middle-SES
  2. B) Isaiah, who is low-SES
  3. C) Jesus, who is Hispanic
  4. D) Tommy, who is Native American

 

Page Ref: 633

 

Objective: 17.1

9)   Among African-American, Hispanic, and Native-American groups, __________ and __________ lead to lower rates of leaving home.

  1. A) instability; an extended period of emerging adulthood
  2. B) poverty; a cultural tradition of extended-family living
  3. C) personal desires; enrollment in college courses
  4. D) self-sufficiency; an equal relationship with parents

 

10)   Dramatic gains in __________ in prosperous nations have contributed to emerging adulthood.

  1. A) birth rates
  2. B) intelligence scores
  3. C) life expectancy
  4. D) state-run universities

 

Page Ref: 634

 

Objective: 17.2

11)   Which of the following young adults is most likely to experience emerging adulthood?

  1. A) Indira, who comes from a low-SES family in India
  2. B) Estevan, who comes from a low-SES family in Mexico
  3. C) Isabel, who comes from a middle-income family in Brazil
  4. D) Mai Ling, who comes from a wealthy family in China

 

Page Ref: 634

 

Objective: 17.2

12)   The overwhelming majority of young people in traditional, non-Western countries

  1. A) experience a prolonged emerging adulthood.
  2. B) enter marriage late.
  3. C) enter lifelong work late.
  4. D) have no emerging adulthood.

 

Page Ref: 634

 

Objective: 17.2

13)   Nineteen-year-old Chloe is likely to say __________ is a marker of adulthood.

  1. A) becoming financially independent
  2. B) rebelling against societal norms
  3. C) rejecting all one’s own personal beliefs and values
  4. D) psychologically distancing oneself from parents

 

Page Ref: 634

 

Objective: 17.2

14)   One criticism of the concept of emerging adulthood is that

  1. A) it fails to describe the experiences of most young people in industrialized nations.
  2. B) research on emerging adulthood largely emphasizes its societal benefits.
  3. C) at no time has adulthood in complex societies been attained at a distinct moment.
  4. D) it is rapidly expanding in developing nations.

 

15)   Critics of emerging adulthood believe that if __________ were plentiful, emerging adults would choose not postpone their adult responsibilities.

  1. A) affordable housing
  2. B) opportunities to relocate
  3. C) satisfying work enabling financial independence
  4. D) college scholarships

 

Page Ref: 635 Box: Cultural Influences: Is Emerging Adulthood Really a Distinct Stage of Development?

 

Objective: 17.2

16)   A favorable emerging adulthood depends on whether

  1. A) individuals move back to their parents’ homes to get their bearings.
  2. B) it is used to acquire competencies essential for contemporary living.
  3. C) graduates’ delayed leap into adult roles is filled with anxiety and frustration.
  4. D) young adults find a job and stick to it regardless of how rewarding they find the job.

 

Page Ref: 635 Box: Cultural Influences: Is Emerging Adulthood Really a Distinct Stage of Development?

 

Objective: 17.2

17)   Some researchers predict that emerging adulthood will become increasingly common as __________ accelerates.

  1. A) epistemic cognition
  2. B) experience-dependent brain growth
  3. C) pluralistic orientation
  4. D) globalization

 

Page Ref: 635

Skill:Understand

Objective: 17.2

18)   Which of the following statements about cognitive changes in emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) Pruning of synapses and myelination of stimulated neural fibers continue at a faster pace than in adolescence.
  2. B) Fine-tuning of the prefrontal cognitive control network is complete by age 20 to 22.
  3. C) As young people become increasingly proficient in a chosen field of endeavor, the cerebral cortex undergoes further experience-dependent brain growth.
  4. D) Structural changes in the brain occur as greater knowledge and refinement of skills results in less cortical tissue devoted to the task.

 

Page Ref: 636

 

Objective: 17.3

19)   Dr. Thayer’s research shows that college students make impressive strides in cognition. She focuses on cognitive development beyond Piaget’s formal operational stage. Dr. Thayer studies

  1. A) preoperational thought.
  2. B) postformal thought.
  3. C) epistemic cognition.
  4. D) postoperational thought.

 

20)   The work of __________ provided the starting point for an expanding research literature on the development of epistemic cognition.

  1. A) Jean Piaget
  2. B) Lev Vygotsky
  3. C) William Perry
  4. D) Robert Sternberg

 

Page Ref: 636

 

Objective: 17.3

21)   Our reflections on how we arrived at facts, beliefs, and ideas are called

  1. A) dualistic thinking.
  2. B) cognitive dissonance.
  3. C) relativistic thinking.
  4. D) epistemic cognition.

 

Page Ref: 636

 

Objective: 17.3

22)   Jermaine, a college sophomore, was asked, “If two people disagree on the interpretation of a poem, how would you decide which one is right?” He replied, “You’d have to ask the poet. It’s his poem.” Jermaine is displaying

  1. A) dualistic thinking.
  2. B) cognitive dissonance.
  3. C) relativistic thinking.
  4. D) epistemic cognition.

 

Page Ref: 636–637

 

Objective: 17.3

23)   Maribeth views all knowledge as embedded in a framework of thought. She believes that each person, in arriving at a position, creates her own “truth.” Maribeth is using

  1. A) dualistic thinking.
  2. B) cognitive dissonance.
  3. C) relativistic thinking.
  4. D) epistemic cognition.

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

24)   Relativistic thinking leads to the realization that

  1. A) there are infallible authorities in every subject taught at universities.
  2. B) a universal “truth” can be discovered with enough education.
  3. C) a more satisfying perspective will not choose between opposing views.
  4. D) one’s own beliefs are often subjective and each person creates his or her own “truth.”

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

25)   Attainment of commitment within relativistic thinking occurs more often among young people who

  1. A) view college as a “developmental testing ground.”
  2. B) pursue advanced graduate education.
  3. C) understand the importance of globalization.
  4. D) commit to finishing college.

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

26)   Which of the following individuals is most likely to have achieved commitment within relativistic thinking?

  1. A) Aisling, who earned her GED at age 20
  2. B) Jessica, who earned an associate’s degree
  3. C) Deondre, who just graduated with a bachelor’s degree
  4. D) Martin, who is pursuing a PhD degree

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

27)   Advances in epistemic cognition depend on further gains in

  1. A) metacognition, which are likely to occur in situations that challenge young people’s perspectives.
  2. B) executive function, which becomes increasingly rarer as the individual ages.
  3. C) experience, particularly personal experiences such as relationship and career development.
  4. D) postformal thought, which is seldom achieved by most individuals in industrialized nations.

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

28)   When college students tackle challenging, ill-structured problems,

  1. A) it is best if the professor leads students through the problem step-by-step.
  2. B) interaction among individuals who are roughly equal in authority and knowledge is beneficial.
  3. C) students do their best work alone so they can focus on understanding the purpose of the problem.
  4. D) the most successful solutions are developed by groups headed by a student expert.

 

Page Ref: 637

 

Objective: 17.3

29)   Exposure to multiple viewpoints during emerging adulthood

  1. A) often confuses young people, thereby delaying commitment to life goals.
  2. B) encourages young people to adopt rigid values and beliefs passed down from their parents.
  3. C) often causes young people to construct an internal working model of themselves as flexible and supportive.
  4. D) encourages young people to look more closely at themselves, thereby developing a more complex self-concept.

 

Page Ref: 637–638

 

Objective: 17.3

30)   Which of the following statements about identity development in emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) Young people usually explore in depth, but not in breadth.
  2. B) Young people usually explore in breadth, but not in depth.
  3. C) Young people usually explore possibilities in breadth and then in depth.
  4. D) Most college students make commitments but fail to evaluate them.

 

Page Ref: 638

 

Objective: 17.3

31)   In emerging adulthood, advances in identity occur in which three main domains?

  1. A) love, work, and worldview
  2. B) career, financial security, and love
  3. C) job security, financial security, and marital status
  4. D) religiosity, spirituality, and work

 

Page Ref: 638

 

Objective: 17.3

32)   When forging a committed relationship, emerging adults

  1. A) often rely on feedback from friends regarding romantic partners.
  2. B) take their time, as many say they do not feel ready to make this choice.
  3. C) choose mates who their families and friends would not approve.
  4. D) are relunctant to “date around,” as many say they feel pressure to marry quickly.

 

Page Ref: 638

 

Objective: 17.3

33)   By age 25,

  1. A) S. young adults have typically given up Internet dating.
  2. B) there is a marked increase in uncommitted sexual encounters.
  3. C) most American men, but not women, are sexually active.
  4. D) nearly all U.S. young people have become sexually active.

 

Page Ref: 638

 

Objective: 17.3

34)   Which of the following 21-year-olds is most likely to report low self-esteem and depressed mood?

  1. A) Henry, who has been in a committed relationship for two years
  2. B) Patrick, who just started dating a girl from his biology class
  3. C) Lucy, who has a “friends with benefits” relationship with her roommate
  4. D) Camille, who has a friend who brags to her about her various “hookups”

 

Page Ref: 639

 

Objective: 17.3

35)   Which of the following statements about romantic ties in emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) Married couples are disadvantaged in physical and mental health but are more financially secure.
  2. B) Emerging adults in ongoing relationships report less satisfying than those who engage in emotionally uninvolved, casual sex.
  3. C) Emotionally indifferent sexual relationships tend to be associated with other forms of risk-taking.
  4. D) The majority of emerging adults have more than one sexual partner over the course of a year.

 

Page Ref: 639

 

Objective: 17.3

36)   Ray and his girlfriend, Amy, do not have similar attitudes, personalities, or political beliefs. They subscribe to the popular belief that “opposites attract.” Which of the following statements about Ray and Amy is most likely true?

  1. A) They will be more satisfied with their relationship than with previous relationships.
  2. B) They are less likely to stay together than two people who are similar to each other.
  3. C) They are just as likely to stay together as are two similar people.
  4. D) They are more likely to choose marriage over cohabitation.

 

Page Ref: 639

 

Objective: 17.3

37)   A survey of 4,000 Americans found that 22 percent of couples had met

  1. A) through friends.
  2. B) in the workplace.
  3. C) at a social gathering.
  4. D) on the Internet.

 

Page Ref: 639

 

Objective: 17.3

38)   The techniques that matching sites claim to use to pair partners—sophisicated analyses of information that daters provide—

  1. A) report greater success rates if the website charges a fee for their services rather than providing a free service.
  2. B) have not demonstrated any greater success in bringing compatible partners together than conventional off-line means of introducting people.
  3. C) are related to higher rates of risks, such as stalker behavior and unwanted sexual advances.
  4. D) have been fine-tuned over recent years to detect when a dater is lying on his or her profile, and remove them from the dating pool.

 

Page Ref: 639–640

 

Objective: 17.3

39)   Among U.S. young people, __________ is now the preferred mode of entry into a committed relationship, chosen by an estimated 70 percent of romantic partners age 30 and younger.

  1. A) Marriage
  2. B) Cohabitation
  3. C) Courtship
  4. D) An “open” relationship

 

Page Ref: 640

 

Objective: 17.3

40)   Which of the following couples’ cohabiting relationship is most likely to dissolve when problems arise?

  1. A) Paul and Whitney, who are deeply religious
  2. B) Bryan and Claire, who are politically conservative
  3. C) Marshawn and Delia, both of whom are African Americans
  4. D) Louis and Meagan, both of whom have divorced parents

 

Page Ref: 640

 

Objective: 17.3

41)   According to Levinson, 19-year-old Audrey is in the process of constructing a dream. According to Levinson and subsequent investigations, Audrey’s dream will likely

  1. A) emphasize both marriage and career.
  2. B) change significantly by the time she graduates college.
  3. C) fluctuate throughout her lifespan.
  4. D) not be taken seriously by her professors.

 

Page Ref: 640–641

 

Objective: 17.3

42)   __________ can act as teachers who enhance the person’s career-related skills or serve as guides who acquaint the person with the values and customs of the work setting.

  1. A) Bosses
  2. B) Parents
  3. C) Mentors
  4. D) Human resource directors

 

Page Ref: 641

 

Objective: 17.3

43)   Emerging adults’ chances of securing a desirable job are affected by

  1. A) the overall quality of their college education.
  2. B) whether their mentor is a teacher or family member.
  3. C) whether they have undergone experience-dependent brain growth.
  4. D) their construction of a self-centered worldview.

 

Page Ref: 641

 

Objective: 17.3

44)   Marilyn is pursuing a career in electrical engineering. Which of the following statements about Marilyn is probably true?

  1. A) She was appointed a female mentor her first day on the job.
  2. B) She displays high achievement orientation and self-reliance.
  3. C) Her parents were initially unsupportive of her career choice.
  4. D) Her professors viewed her as more capable than her male peers.

 

Page Ref: 641

 

Objective: 17.3

45)   Many ethnic minority young people from low-SES families

  1. A) experience a longer period of emerging adulthood than their Caucasian agemates.
  2. B) arrive at emerging adulthood with past experiences that compromise their academic preparedness for college.
  3. C) complete their college degrees by age 23 and enroll in graduate school shortly thereafter.
  4. D) enter careers earlier because they focus on career goals over finding a long-term romantic partner.

 

Page Ref: 642

 

Objective: 17.3

46)   Chalise is an African-American woman who works at a law firm. She would probably describe her mother as

  1. A) a controlling force in her adolescence.
  2. B) emotionally withdrawn and distant.
  3. C) an inspiring role model who set high standards for her.
  4. D) uninvolved in her identity development.

 

Page Ref: 642–643

 

Objective: 17.3

47)   Research indicates that age-related gains in self-esteem

  1. A) are similar across generations.
  2. B) are so small as not to be meaningful.