Sample Chapter




Memmlers The Human Body In Health And Disease 12th edition By Barbara Janson Cohen – Test Bank 


1. The study of how the body functions is
A) physiology
B) anatomy
C) pathology
D) metabolism

Chapter 01- Organization of the Human Body


2. The study of disease is
A) physiology
B) anatomy
C) pathology
D) metabolism



3. Which of the following would be the most suitable field of study for an anatomist?
A) the structure of the stomach
B) the mechanism of protein digestion
C) stomach cancer
D) anabolic reactions



4. Dr. L is interested in diseases of the retina. The field of study best suited to his interests is
A) physiology
B) anatomy
C) pathology
D) bowling



5. Dr. A is interested in the structure of the inner ear. The field of study best suited to her interests is
A) physiology
B) anatomy
C) pathology
D) wind-surfing



6. There are numerous levels of organization in the body.  The correct order from simplest to most complex is
A) organ, tissue, cell, organism, system
B) cell, tissue, organ, system, organism
C) system, cell, organ, organism, tissue
D) cell, system, tissue, organ, organism



7. The system that transports blood to and from the cells is the
A) integumentary system
B) skeletal system
C) respiratory system
D) circulatory system



8. The system comprised of the bones and the joints is the
A) skeletal system
B) nervous system
C) immune system
D) muscular system



9. A term for all the reactions that sustain life is
A) anabolism
B) catabolism
C) metabolism
D) cannibalism



10. A reaction in which simple compounds are assembled into more complex compounds is most accurately described as a(n)
A) anabolic reaction
B) metabolic reaction
C) catabolic reaction
D) homeostatic reaction



11. The breakdown of complex glycogen molecules into simple glucose molecules is most accurately described as a(n)
A) anabolic reaction
B) metabolic reaction
C) catabolic reaction
D) homeostatic reaction



12. Which of the following examples demonstrates the principle of positive feedback?
A) A decrease in blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone that increases blood sugar.
B) A decrease in room temperature activates a thermostat, which increases heat output by a furnace.
C) A rise in blood calcium levels stimulates the release of a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels.
D) A rise in estrogen levels stimulates the production of a hormone that stimulates estrogen production.



13. Which of the following examples does NOT demonstrate the principle of homeostasis?
A) A rise in plasma sodium stimulates the release of a hormone that increases sodium loss in the urine.
B) An increase in plasma volume increases urination.
C) The activation of a clotting factor stimulates the production of the enzyme that activates the clotting factor.
D) An increase in body temperature induces sweating, which reduces body temperature.



14. A term that means farther from the midline of the body is
A) sagittal
B) lateral
C) distal
D) transverse



15. A term that describes the position of the stomach with respect to the lungs is
A) medial
B) anterior
C) dorsal
D) inferior



16. A term that describes the position of the hypogastric region of the abdomen with respect to the iliac region is
A) medial
B) anterior
C) lateral
D) dorsal



17. The term that best describes the position of the elbow with respect to the hand is
A) medial
B) anterior
C) proximal
D) inferior



18. A directional term that means nearer to the head is
A) caudal
B) inferior
C) lateral
D) cranial



19. A plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts is the
A) sagittal plane
B) transverse plane
C) frontal plane
D) coronal plane



20. A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is the
A) sagittal plane
B) proximal plane
C) frontal plane
D) midsagittal plane



21. The dorsal body cavity contains the
A) spinal cord and lungs
B) brain and spinal cord
C) heart and kidney
D) brain and reproductive organs



22. Which of the following organs is NOT in the abdominopelvic cavity?
A) small intestine
B) stomach
C) lung
D) liver



23. The urinary bladder is located in the
A) thoracic cavity
B) spinal cavity
C) dorsal cavity
D) pelvic cavity



24. The most inferior medial region of the abdomen is the
A) epigastric region
B) inguinal region
C) hypogastric region
D) umbilical region



25. The iliac region of the abdomen is also called the
A) inguinal region
B) right upper quadrant
C) hypogastric region
D) left lower quadrant



26. The number of milliliters (mL) in a liter is
A) 2.5
B) 1,000,000
C) 1000
D) 100



27. The basic unit of weight in the metric system is the
A) pound
B) meter
C) gram
D) inch



28. The volume in U.S. measurements that is closest to a liter is the
A) quart
B) ounce
C) yard
D) pint



29. 250 milligrams is equivalent to how many grams?
A) 0.25
B) 2.5
C) 25
D) 250



30. 125 centimeters is equivalent to how many millimeters?
A) 1.25
B) 12.5
C) 1250
D) 12,500



31. The metric prefix that means 1000 is
A) kilo
B) micro
C) milli
D) centi



32. The term homeo is best defined as
A) same
B) different
C) increased
D) decreased



33. A specialized group of cells make up a ________.



34. The system that takes in oxygen and expels carbon dioxide is the _______ system.



35. The skin and associated structures are called the _____________ system.



36. The system that includes the spinal cord is the ___________ system.



37. The term _________________ refers to all of the catabolic and anabolic reactions that go on within the body.



38. The energy-storing compound found in all cells is ________.



39. Fluid within the cells is called ____________________ fluid.



40. Blood and lymph are examples of ___________________ fluid.



41. The term describing a state of internal balance is ________________.



42. A term that means farther from the origin of a structure is ______________.



43. A plane that divides the body into left and right parts is the ______________ plane.



44. The frontal plane is also called the _____________ plane.



45. The muscle separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity is the ________.



46. The basic unit of volume in the metric system is the ________.



47. The temperature scale used for scientific measurement is the ________.



48. The suffix –logy means ______________.



49. Define metabolism and explain the difference between the two types of reactions involved in metabolism.



50. Which type of feedback (positive or negative) is used to maintain homeostasis? Use an example to illustrate your answer.



51. Describe the subdivisions and the sub-subdivisions of the ventral cavity and name an organ found in each.



52. Using your knowledge of word anatomy, define the word pathophysiology.




Chapter 02- Chemistry, Matter, and Life
1. The element that is combined with oxygen in water is _______________.


2. The atomic number is based on the number of ____________.



3. A negatively charged particle orbiting the nucleus of an atom is called a(n) ________________.



4. An uncharged particle in the nucleus of an atom is a(n) ________________.



5. A unit formed by the union of two or more atoms is a(n) ______________.



6. A mixture in which the components separate unless shaken is a(n) ________________.



7. A substance in which another substance is dissolved is called a(n) ________________.



8. The universal solvent is ____________.



9. A charged atom or group of atoms is called a(n) ____________.



10. A bond formed by the sharing of electrons between elements is called a(n) ________________ bond.



11. A negatively charged ion is a(n) ________________.



12. Compounds that release ions in solution are called ____________.



13. An acid is a substance that donates a(n) ______________ ion to another substance.



14. The _________of a solution is based on its concentration of the element hydrogen.



15. A substance with a pH of 8.5 is ________________.



16. A substance with a pH 4.0 of is ______________ acidic than a substance with a pH of 6.0.



17. A form of an element that differs in its atomic weight from other forms of that same element is a(n) ____________.



18. The element that is the basis of organic chemistry is ____________.



19. All proteins, but not sugars, contain the element ____________.



20. A protein that catalyzes reactions is called a(n) ____________.



21. The prefix poly– means _______________.



22. An element found in table salt is
A) chlorine
B) hydrogen
C) iron
D) carbon



23. The element that makes up the greatest percentage by weight in the body is
A) nitrogen
B) potassium
C) oxygen
D) sodium



24. An element needed to build bones is
A) nitrogen
B) chlorine
C) iron
D) calcium



25. A subunit of an element is a(n)
A) molecule
B) compound
C) mixture
D) atom



26. The positively charged particles in the atom nucleus are called
A) electrons
B) protons
C) isotopes
D) neutrons



27. The atomic number of phosphorus is 15. How many protons does phosphorus have?
A) 15
B) More information is required to answer this question.
C) 12
D) 10



28. The atomic number of sodium is 11. The sodium ion has a single positive charge (Na+). How many electrons does the sodium ion have?
A) 11
B) 12
C) More information is required to answer this question.
D) 10



29. A common isotope of sodium is called sodium-24, based on its atomic weight. The atomic weight can be calculated by adding the number of protons and the number of neutrons. The atomic number of sodium is 11. How many neutrons does sodium-24 have?
A) 11
B) More information is required to answer this question.
C) 9
D) 13



30. Cobalt has 27 electrons. What is its atomic number?
A) More information is required to answer this question.
B) 13
C) 27
D) 54



31. A combination of two or more substances that are not chemically bonded is a(n)
A) atom
B) mixture
C) compound
D) molecule



32. A substance composed of two or more different elements participating in a chemical bond is a(n)
A) solution
B) mixture
C) compound
D) atom



33. A substance that dissolves in another substance is a(n)
A) solvent
B) mixture
C) solute
D) solution



34. Which of the following is a mixture?
A) sodium hydroxide
B) sugar water
C) table salt
D) hydrochloric acid



35. A non-separating suspension can be described as
A) inorganic
B) nuclear
C) covalent
D) colloidal



36. A mixture in which the components remain evenly distributed is a(n)
A) compound
B) molecule
C) suspension
D) solution



37. A chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons is described as a(n)
A) coordinate bond
B) mixture
C) ionic bond
D) covalent bond



38. A graphic tracing of the electric current generated by the heart is called a(n)
A) radiotracing
B) electroencephalogram
C) thallium stress test
D) electrocardiogram



39. A basic substance could have a pH of
A) 6
B) 7
C) 12
D) 0



40. Which of the following is an organic compound?
A) glycerol
B) zinc
C) water
D) salt



41. The chemical category that includes fats and cholesterol is
A) carbohydrates
B) solutions
C) lipids
D) proteins



42. Proteins are complex molecules composed of
A) glucose
B) water
C) amino acids
D) calcium



43. The simplest form of carbohydrate is
A) monosaccharides
B) polysaccharides
C) unisaccharides
D) disaccharides



44. All enzymes are
A) None of the answers are correct.
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) carbohydrates



45. A hydrophobic substance
A) repels water
B) is a colloid
C) contains hydrogen bonds
D) mixes easily with water



46. A substance that has a name ending in –ase is most likely a(n)
A) mixture
B) protein
C) lipid
D) carbohydrate



47. List, and briefly describe, two uses of radioisotopes.



48. List the three characteristics of organic compounds.



49. List and briefly describe the three types of carbohydrates and give an example of each.



50. Mr. L has difficulties digesting milk products due to a deficiency in the enzyme lactase. His doctor has provided him with a solution of lactase to consume every time he eats a dairy product. Mr. L decides he wants some hot chocolate. He boils his lactase with his milk to save time. His hot chocolate causes him a severe stomachache, so he calls his doctor to complain. Why did his lactase fail to work?



51. Using your knowledge of word parts, what would be a logical definition for the term monosaccharidase?




Chapter 03- Cells and Their Functions
1. The substance that fills the cell from the plasma membrane to the nuclear membrane is called the ____________.



2. A long, whiplike projection from the cell used in locomotion is a(n) ______________.



3. Small hairlike projections from the cell are called ___________.



4. The organelle that contains digestive enzymes is the ____________.



5. The large organelle that is the control center of the cell is the ___________.



6. In the pairing of bases in DNA, adenine pairs with __________.



7. The substance that makes up the genes is ________________.



8. In the pairing of bases in RNA, adenine pairs with ___________.



9. The type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome is __________.



10. The process of synthesizing proteins based on an mRNA template is called ____________.



11. The period between one cell division and the next is called ________.



12. The process by which specialized cells engulf large particles is _____________.



13. The diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is ______________.



14. Passage of a solution through a membrane under mechanical force is called ___________.



15. A solution that has a lower concentration than the fluid within the cell is termed ___________.



16. A cell placed in a _______________ solution will swell.



17. The percentage salt in a normal saline solution is _____________.



18. A change in the genetic material of a cell is called a(n) ______________.



19. A personal characteristic or lifestyle habit that increases one’s chances of getting cancer is called a(n) ______________.



20. A prefix meaning same is ________.



21. The metric unit used for microscopic measurement is the
A) meter
B) micrometer
C) centimeter
D) kilometer



22. The microscope with the highest magnification is the
A) scanning electron microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) compound light microscope
D) simple light microscope



23. The plasma membrane is best described as
A) solid
B) permeable
C) selectively permeable
D) hypotonic



24. The major lipids in the plasma membrane are
A) proteins and phospholipids
B) carbohydrates and proteins
C) phospholipids and cholesterol
D) calcium salts and phospholipids



25. Which of the following membrane proteins changes shape to move substances across the plasma membrane?
A) channel
B) receptor
C) enzyme
D) transporter



26. Which of the following membrane proteins attaches cells to other cells?
A) channel
B) linker
C) cell identity marker
D) transporter



27. The small body in the nucleus that assembles ribosomes is called the
A) nucleolus
B) mitochondrion
C) centriole
D) endoplasmic reticulum



28. An organelle that produces energy for the cell is called a(n)
A) ribosome
B) mitochondrion
C) Golgi apparatus
D) nucleolus



29. Small bodies involved in the manufacture of proteins are
A) ribosomes
B) nucleoli
C) mitochondria
D) centrioles



30. If a cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
A) synthesize proteins
B) synthesize RNA
C) divide
D) secrete proteins



31. A particular cell type specializes in breaking down harmful by-products of metabolism. This cell type would contain very high levels of
A) lysosomes
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) centrioles
D) peroxisomes



32. Two cells vary in the amount of energy they require. One cell, a muscle cell, must generate large supplies of ATP. The other cell, a skin cell, requires very little ATP. Based solely on information provided in this question, these two cells would differ in the abundance of
A) mitochondria
B) lysosomes
C) vesicles
D) Golgi apparatus



33. A nucleotide contains a nitrogen base, a sugar unit, and a
A) phosphate unit
B) glycerol
C) fatty acid
D) protein unit



34. The RNA found in ribosomes is called



35. Ribosomes participate in the process of
A) DNA synthesis
B) transcription
C) translation
D) mutation



36. Transcription is the synthesis of
B) protein
C) lipids
D) carbohydrates



37. The correct order of the stages in mitosis is
A) anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase
B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
C) prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
D) telophase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase



38. The phase of mitosis when the chromosomes pull apart is
A) interphase
B) telophase
C) anaphase
D) metaphase



39. The phase of mitosis during which the chromosomes condense is
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) interphase



40. Droplets of fluid are taken in by the cell using the process of
A) diffusion
B) pinocytosis
C) exocytosis
D) active transport



41. What effect does diffusion usually have on the concentration gradient?
A) increase
B) decrease
C) no change
D) None of the answers are correct.



42. Which of the following processes requires ATP?
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) facilitated diffusion



43. Which of the following processes moves a substance that can freely pass through the plasma membrane?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) phagocytosis



44. Cells shrink when they are placed in solutions that are
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) osmotic



45. Which of the following cell populations would be considered a cancer?
A) a cell population that reproduces excessively but does not migrate
B) a cell population that reproduces excessively and migrates
C) any cell population that divides in an adult
D) All of the answers are correct.



46. Which of the following is a risk factor for cancer?
A) eating a high fat diet
B) frequent exercise
C) eating fruits and vegetables
D) wearing sunscreen



47. The prefix pino– means
A) to eat
B) to drink
C) very small
D) within



48. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what is the most likely definition of the word endosome?
A) a body without
B) a colored body
C) a body within
D) a small body



49. Name and briefly explain four different functions of membrane proteins.



50. List two functions of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane.



51. List two organelles involved in the process of translation, and briefly explain their contributions.



52. Many proteins are secreted from the cell following the process of translation. List two organelles involved in protein secretion, and briefly explain their contributions.



53. Compare and contrast simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion. List one similarity and one difference.



54. Your lab partner is an exchange student from Pluto. You are investigating cell transport methods, so you decide to use one of your partner’s cells. Surprisingly, you notice that her cell contains some of the same substances as our cells. You quantify the concentration of these substances, and determine that the cell contains 5% glucose and 0.3% potassium. The cell is placed in a solution containing 20% glucose and 0.1% potassium. The plasma membrane of this cell is is similar to ours. It is permeable to potassium but not to glucose. That is, only potassium can cross the plasma membrane without using transporters. Use this information to answer the following questions


a. Will potassium move into the cell or out of the cell? Which transport mechanism will be involved?
b. Carrier proteins are present in the membrane that can transport glucose. If glucose moves down its concentration gradient, will glucose move into the cell or out of the cell? Which transport mechanism will be involved?
c. You place the cell in a new solution to study the process of osmosis. You know that sodium does not move across the alien cell membrane. You also know that the concentration of the intracellular fluid is equivalent to 5% sodium. The new solution contains 1% sodium. Is the 1% sodium solution hypertonic, isotonic, or hypotonic?
d. Will water flow into the cell or out of the cell?
e. What will be the effect of the water movement on the cell?




Chapter 04- Tissues, Glands, and Membranes
1. Another name for osseous tissue is ___________.



2. A term that describes long, narrow epithelial cells is ___________.



3. A term for flat, irregular epithelial cells is___________.



4. A sticky protective fluid secreted by some epithelial cells is called ___________.



5. The fatty material that insulates and protects some nerve cell fibers is ___________.



6. The study of tissues is ___________.



7. The type of connective tissue that stores fat is called ___________.



8. A flexible white protein that makes up many of the fibers in connective tissue is ___________.



9. The _______________ layer of a serous membrane lines a body cavity.



10. The connective tissue membrane that covers and protects skeletal muscles is called the ___________.



11. A layer of dense connective tissue around an organ such as the liver or kidney is called a(n)___________.



12. A cord of connective tissue that joins a muscle to a bone is called a(n) ___________.



13. The fibrous tissue that covers cartilage is called ________________.



14. A tumor that spreads to other tissues is described as a(n) ___________ tumor.



15. A benign tumor of adipose tissue is called a(n) ___________.



16. The medical process of classifying a tumor based on its size and extent of invasion is ___________.



17. The cancer detection technique using x-rays to produce cross-sectional pictures of body parts is called ___________________.



18. The cancer treatment method that uses substances to stimulate the immune system is called ___________________.



19. The prefix pseudo means ____________.



20. The suffix –itis means ______________.



21. Osteocytes are to bone as chondrocytes are to
A) fat
B) cartilage
C) muscle
D) nerves



22. You are studying a slide of a body tissue, but the label has rubbed off. You see a single layer of closely packed cells that are long and narrow in structure. This tissue is most likely to be
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple columnar epithelium
D) stratified columnar epithelium



23. Which of the following muscle types is under voluntary control?
A) cardiac
B) skeletal
C) visceral
D) myocardial



24. The support cells of the nervous system are
A) neurilemmas
B) neuroglia
C) myelin
D) dendrites



25. The fibers of a neuron are
A) axons and dendrites
B) fibrils and endoplasmic reticulum
C) dendrites and fibrils
D) transporters and vesicles



26. Tissue wasting due to a decrease in cell number is called
A) hypertrophy
B) hyperplasia
C) atrophy
D) aplasia



27. The fibers that conduct a nerve impulse toward a neuron cell body are called
A) fibrils
B) dendrites
C) axons
D) neuroglia



28. Connective tissues would probably NOT contain
A) fibroblasts
B) collagen
C) goblet cells
D) matrix



29. You are studying a slide of a body tissue, but the label has rubbed off. You see a few, similar cells that do not contact each other, many elastic fibers, and collagen. This tissue is most likely to be
A) dense connective tissue
B) areolar connective tissue
C) stratified epithelial tissue
D) transitional epithelial tissue



30. The meninges
A) contain cells that are very close together
B) are a type of mucous membrane
C) contain epithelial tissue
D) contain connective tissue



31. The endocrine glands secrete
A) digestive juices
B) mucus
C) tears
D) hormones



32. A band of connective tissue connecting two bones is called a(n)
A) tendon
B) ligament
C) serosa
D) periosteum



33. The skin is also called the
A) fascia
B) subcutaneous tissue
C) synovial membrane
D) cutaneous membrane



34. Transitional epithelium is tissue that
A) can stretch to accomplish its function
B) changes to connective tissue
C) moves from place to place
D) secretes hormones



35. Which of the following is an epithelial tissue membrane?
A) fascia
B) peritoneum
C) meninges
D) synovial membrane



36. A term referring to a loose connective tissue is
A) areolar
B) blood
C) cartilage
D) bone



37. Plurae are examples of which type of membrane?
A) serous
B) synovial
C) mucous
D) subcutaneous



38. Inflammation of the serous membrane within the abdominal cavity results in a condition called
A) peritonitis
B) arthritis
C) lupus
D) fasciculitis



39. The tissue enclosing the heart is called the
A) perichondrium
B) periosteum
C) pericardium
D) myocardium



40. You want to design a membrane to protect a tube from the surrounding environment. The membrane must prevent substances from passing through the tissue and must also secrete a protective substance. You decide to use a membrane already in use in the human body as your template. The best membrane to use would be
A) synovial membranes
B) mucous membranes
C) serous membranes
D) superficial fascia



41. Rheumatoid arthritis results from inflammation of which of the following membranes?
A) synovial membranes
B) mucous membranes
C) cutaneous membranes
D) subcutaneous membranes



42. Ms. B has a lump in her arm. The doctor has determined that the lump has not spread and is derived from adipose tissue. This lump would best be described as a
A) benign lipoma
B) malignant sarcoma
C) malignant lipoma
D) benign sarcoma



43. A neoplasm is also called a(n)
A) tumor
B) serosa
C) articulation
D) membrane



44. Which of the following is a malignant tumor?
A) angioma
B) nevus
C) sarcoma
D) papilloma



45. The removal of living tissue for microscopic examination is called
A) ultrasound
B) biopsy
C) magnetic resonance imaging
D) computed tomography



46. Antineoplastic agents are used in
A) radiation
B) surgery
C) chemotherapy
D) immunotherapy



47. The prefix neo– means
A) below
B) new
C) beside
D) nipple



48. Based on your knowledge of word parts, pericarditis means
A) inflammation of the membrane around the heart
B) inflammation of the heart muscle
C) inflammation of the membrane around a bone
D) inflammation of the cartilage



49. Based on your knowledge of word parts, an osteoblast is most likely to be
A) a mature bone cell
B) an immature bone cell
C) a mature cartilage cell
D) an immature cartilage cell



50. You are studying a slide of body tissue that is labelled “skeletal muscle.” The tissue is composed of many small fibers that are running in parallel. You do not see any nuclei or striations. Is the label correct or incorrect? Defend your answer.



51. Why is blood considered to be connective tissue? Define connective tissue in your answer.



52. Name the three types of epithelial membranes and give an example of each.



53. Why is surgery more succesful in the treatment of benign tumors than in the treatment of malignant tumors?



54. List five signs of cancer.



55. Name one similarity and one difference between radiography and ultrasound in the study of tumors.



56. List the three traditional types of cancer treatments, and explain briefly how they work.




Chapter 05- Disease and Disease-Producing Organisms
1. The study of how disease affects body function is called _________.



2. A(n) ____________ disease is relatively severe but of a short duration.



3. A disease that is prevalent throughout the entire world is said to be _________.



4. The percentage of the population that dies from a given disease within a period of time is called the _________.



5. A disease without a known cause is termed _________.



6. A prediction of the probable outcome of a disease is called a(n) _________.



7. Conditions of disease noted by the patient are called _________.



8. The range of a disease according to geography or particular populations is called its _________.



9. Mr. P has a suppressed immune system as a result of chemotherapy. He is afflicted with a rare skin fungus that is not observed in people with functioning immune systems. His skin fungus is an example of a(n) ___________ infection.



10. The complementary/alternative medicine approach that uses manipulation to correct musculoskeletal disorders is called _____________.



11. An insect or animal that transmits a disease-causing organism from one host to another is a(n) _________.



12. Yeasts are examples of a type of microorganism called _________.



13. Any organism that lives in or on a host at the host’s expense is called a(n) _________.



14. Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are called ______________.



15. Bacteria shaped like a straight, slender rod are called ______________.



16. A bacteria that resembles a corkscrew would belong to the category ______________.



17. An infestation acquired by eating undercooked pork is ___________.



18. The process of killing every living organism in a test tube is called _________.



19. The only aseptic method that can be used on living tissues is ____________.



20. CDC is the abbreviation for the ______________________________.



21. A chemical produced by living cells that kills other organisms is called a(n) _________.



22. A common stain that turns positive microorganisms a bluish-purple color is the _________.



23. Acid-fast positive cells retain the color ___________ after staining.



24. The word part chir/o refers to _____________.



25. A __________ disease can be transmitted from one person to another.



26. A conclusion as to the nature of an illness is a
A) prognosis
B) diagnosis
C) therapy
D) syndrome



27. The term that refers to a disease that is continuously present in a population is
A) pandemic
B) epidemic
C) endemic
D) pathogenic



28. An objective evidence of disease is called a(n)
A) symptom
B) prognosis
C) sign
D) etiology



29. Mr. J has been feeling nauseous. Nausea is an example of a(n)
A) sign
B) prognosis
C) etiology
D) symptom



30. A disease that is neither severe nor very long lasting is described as
A) chronic
B) acute
C) subacute
D) iatrogenic



31. The incidence of a disease refers to its
A) severity
B) range of occurrence
C) predisposing cause
D) length of action



32. Mr. L is experiencing headaches as a result of drug therapy. The headaches are an example of a(n)
A) iatrogenic disease
B) idiopathic disease
C) pandemic disease
D) etiological disorder



33. A systemic infection is
A) local
B) generalized
C) iatrogenic
D) subclinical



34. Ms. M is attached to a machine that monitors her blood pressure. She is learning how to prevent increases in blood pressure. This technique is an example of
A) acupuncture
B) naturopathy
C) biofeedback
D) chiropractic



35. Diseases caused by Rickettsiae are most likely transmitted via
A) insect vectors
B) water droplets
C) sexual contact
D) handled objects



36. The study of all organisms too small to be seen with the naked eye is
A) microbiology
B) virology
C) mycology
D) bacteriology



37. Bacteria
A) are always harmful
B) are smaller than viruses
C) are unicellular organisms that contain a nucleus
D) include the Chlamydiae



38. Which of the following is NOT a type of protozoa?
A) flagellates
B) sporozoa
C) ciliates
D) spirilla



39. An infectious agent composed entirely of protein is called a(n)
A) prion
B) viroid
C) virus
D) rickettsiae



40. An obligate intracellular parasite lives
A) in dead tissue
B) only in the blood
C) only in living cells
D) in vectors



41. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoon?
B) malaria
C) hepatitis
D) measles



42. A mycotic disease is caused by
A) viruses
B) bacteria
C) fungi
D) worms



43. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a fungi?
A) ringworm
B) pneumonia
C) vaginitis
D) giardiasis



44. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A) diphtheria
B) typhoid fever
C) bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
D) polio



45. Syphilis and Lyme disease are caused by
A) vibrios
B) spirochetes
C) bacilli
D) cocci



46. The chlamydiae are responsible for
A) AIDS and viral pneumonia
B) trachoma and parrot fever
C) pneumonia and tuberculosis
D) cholera



47. Ms. L undertook a round-the-world tour. She was incredibly unlucky and returned home with Legionnaire’s disease and typhoid fever. Her doctor took a blood sample for viewing under the microscope. The most abundant type of bacteria would have been shaped like
A) straight, slender rods
B) long, wavelike cells
C) strings of beads
D) single beads



48. Organisms that normally live on or in the body make up the
A) normal vectors
B) normal pathogens
C) spore flora
D) normal flora



49. Round bacteria arranged in a cluster are called
A) bacilli
B) staphylococci
C) vibrio
D) streptococci



50. Which of the following statements about the Rickettsiae is false?
A) They are the smallest form of bacteria.
B) They are obligate intracellular parasites.
C) They are responsible for typhus.
D) They are usually transmitted by vectors.



51. The wearing of shoes is protection against
A) hookworms
B) flukes
C) typhus
D) filariasis



52. The scientific name for worms is
A) vibrios
B) helminths
C) protozoa
D) prions



53. Which of the following is a roundworm?
A) filaria
B) fluke
C) tapeworm
D) ringworm



54. Which of the following factors would NOT increase the spread of microorganisms?
A) increased air travel
B) increased migration from rural to urban areas
C) disruption of animal habitats
D) increased prevalence of vaccination



55. Salmonella and E. coli are common causes of
A) cholera
B) sexually transmitted disease
C) influenza
D) food poisoning



56. An autoclave is used for
A) disinfection
B) sterilization
C) antisepsis
D) pasteurization



57. Which of the following techniques does NOT follow the universal precautions guidelines?
A) Always recap needles after use.
B) Always wear gloves.
C) Dispose of needles in puncture-proof containers.
D) All of the answers follow the universal precautions guidelines.



58. Penicillin is made from a
A) bacteria
B) protozoa
C) fungus
D) vector



59. A drug that treats infestations is called a(n)
A) antibiotic
B) antifungal agent
C) anthelmintic agent
D) antiviral agent



60. The acid-fast stain is commonly used to test for
A) tetanus
B) E. coli
C) spirochetes
D) tuberculosis



61. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what is mycoflora?
A) a population of fungi
B) a population of bacteria
C) a mixed floral arrangement
D) a population of viruses



62. The word part iatro refers to
A) self
B) physician
C) fungus
D) unknown



63. You are performing a preliminary evaluation of Ms. M. She provides you with the following information: She prefers wearing blue shirts, her mother had diabetes, she works in a nuclear power plant that has been cited for unsafe radiation levels, she exercises five times a week, she smokes cigarettes, and she sleeps 4 hours a night. Identify the predisposing causes in this description.



64. Explain the difference between iatrogenic and idiopathic diseases.



65. Explain the difference between acupuncture and chiropractic.



66. Describe three uses of beneficial microorganisms.



67. Mr. L was walking through the woods wearing shorts and sandals. He noticed a small tick on his ankle the same evening, and several weeks later he developed flu-like symptoms. A sample of his blood revealed the presence of long, wavelike cells that were twisting and waving. A. Based on the microscopic findings, which type of microorganism is responsible for Mr. L’s symptoms? Provide as much information as you can. B. What is the most probable diagnosis? C. What would be the most appropriate treatment?



68. List three factors that have contributed to the increase in infectious disease, and name a disease that has been particularly affected by each factor.



69. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what is a pyococci? Give as much information as you can.




Chapter 06- The Skin in Health and Disease
1. The body system that is composed of the skin and its associated structures is the _________________.



2. The sheath in which a hair develops is called a(n) __________.



3. The modified sweat glands at the edge of the eyelid are called ______ glands.



4. The eyelashes are associated with modified sebaceous glands called __________ glands.



5. The oily secretion from the sebaceous glands is _____________.



6. The cream cheese–like coating produced by the fetal sebaceous glands is called _____________.



7. Deep pressure receptors are also called _______________ corpuscles.



8. A gentle touch would be detected by touch receptors called _____________________.



9. The scientific term for the widening of the blood vessels is _____________.



10. Mr. M is watching penguins at Cape Crozier in Antarctica. The blood vessels in Mr. M’s dermis are most likely narrowed, or _____________.



11. A vesicle filled with pus is called a(n) _____________.



12. Mr. L is blushing. The redness in his skin reflects the presence of a blood pigment called ___________.



13. Young Ms. L, aged 2, will only wear orange clothes and eat orange food. Her mother fears that she has jaundice, because her skin is yellow. The doctor informs her that excessive intake of orange vegetables is the cause, a condition called _______________.



14. A surface skin lesion that is small, round, and neither raised nor depressed is called a(n) ____________.



15. Tissue death can result in a deep lesion called a(n) ____________.



16. Excess bile pigments in the blood result in a condition called ________________.



17. Inflammation of the skin is called ________________.



18. A general term referring to any skin disease is ___________________.



19. A hereditary lack of melanin results in a disorder called _____________.



20. A malignant tumor of melanin-forming cells is a ________________.



21. Ms. L, aged 15, suffers from blackheads and pimples on her face and neck. The most likely diagnosis is ____________.



22. The word part corne/o means _____________.



23. New cells grow from the deepest layer of the epidermis, the
A) adipose tissue
B) stratum basale
C) stratum corneum
D) dermis



24. The keratin-filled uppermost layer of the epidermis is called the
A) corium
B) stratum corneum
C) stratum germinativum
D) subcutaneous layer



25. Elastic connective tissue and nerves are especially abundant in the
A) hypodermis
B) stratum corneum
C) follicle
D) dermis



26. The hypodermis is also called the
A) subcutaneous tissue
B) reticular layer
C) deep fascia
D) papilla



27. The glands that become blocked, resulting in blackheads, are called
A) eccrine glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) ceruminous glands
D) apocrine glands



28. The maintenance of constant body temperature would be difficult without the actions of the
A) apocrine glands
B) meibomian glands
C) sebaceous glands
D) eccrine glands



29. The hard keratin that makes up fingernails is synthesized by cells in the
A) stratum corneum
B) stratum germinativum
C) hair follicle
D) sebaceous glands



30. Hair and nails are made up of a protein called
A) collagen
B) melanin
C) keratin
D) carotene



31. Light touch is sensed by the
A) Pacinian corpuscles
B) free nerve endings
C) Meissner corpuscles
D) arrector pili



32. Which of the following is NOT a function of skin?
A) breathing
B) excretion
C) sensation
D) regulation of body temperature



33. Ms. J spent a month in Florida and returned to Ohio with a light tan. The tan reflects an increase in
A) melanin
B) carotene
C) hemoglobin
D) bile



34. A small sac full of fluid is called a(n)
A) ulcer
B) fissure
C) vesicle
D) nodule



35. An excoriation is a(n)
A) ulcer
B) scratch
C) macule
D) nodule



36. Redness of the skin is called
A) pallor
B) carotenemia
C) erythema
D) jaundice



37. A pimple is an example of a(n)
A) papule
B) eruption
C) macule
D) keloid



38. A decubitus ulcer is a(n)
A) pimple
B) rash
C) bedsore
D) laceration



39. Another name for eczema is
A) atopic dermatitis
B) acne vulgaris
C) scleroderma
D) psoriasis



40. The scientific name for itching is
A) pruritus
B) scleroderma
C) impetigo
D) shingles



41. Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes
A) mumps
B) influenza
C) polio
D) chickenpox



42. Mr. M has erythematous flat areas on his arms and legs that are covered with silvery scales. His father also has the same skin condition. The most likely diagnosis is
A) atopic dermatitis
B) psoriasis
C) impetigo
D) shingles



43. Ms. L, aged 2, has pustules over her arms and legs. The fluid in the pustules contains many circular bacteria organized in clusters when viewed under the microscope. The most likely diagnosis is
A) impetigo
B) shingles
C) herpes
D) psoriasis



44. Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?
A) ringworm
B) verruca
C) eczema
D) acne vulgaris



45. Alopecia resulting from cancer treatment is a(n)
A) autoimmune disorder
B) iatrogenic disease
C) mycotic disease
D) disease that can be treated with antibiotics



46. Watery vesicles on the skin and mucous membranes are caused by
A) herpes simplex virus
B) herpes zoster virus
C) human papillomavirus
D) ringworm



47. The best treatment for shingles would be a(n)
A) vermifuge
B) antibiotic
C) antiviral drug
D) immunosuppressant



48. The word part scler/o means
A) skin
B) dark
C) blue
D) hard



49. Based on your knowledge of word parts, an erythrocyte would be a cell that is
A) white
B) red
C) orange
D) blue



50. Briefly describe three types of connective tissue found in the integumentary system. For each, discuss its location and function.



51. Briefly describe two ways in which the skin helps maintain constant body temperature. Make sure you name the specific skin structures involved.



52. Name several pigments that can give color to skin, and identify their sources.



53. What is the difference between pruritus and urticaria? Which is a sign and which is a symptom?



54. Compare and contrast pemphigus and the diskoid form of lupus erythematosus (DLE) in terms of the underlying cause and the characteristic skin lesions.




Chapter 07- The Skeleton- Bones and Joints
1. Bones store salts of the mineral _______________.



2. The shaft of a long bone is called the ______________.



3. The membrane that lines the marrow cavity of a long bone is called the _____________.



4. The hard bone found in the shafts of long bones is called ___________.



5. The porous bone found in the ends of long bones is called _______________.



6. The ends of long bones contain _________ marrow.



7. The cells that produce bone tissue are called ____________.



8. Most bones develop from a softer type of connective tissue that makes up most of the embryonic skeleton. This type of connective tissue is called _______________.



9. A sharp projection from the surface of a bone is called a(n)



10. The anatomic name for the cheekbone is the ________________.



11. The skull bone that contains the internal portions of the ear is the _______________.



12. The bone that contains the manubrium and xiphoid process is the _____________.



13. The bone of the lower jaw is the _____________.



14. The soft spots in the infant skull are called the ____________.



15. The __________ curve develops when an infant holds his/her head upright.



16. The lateral bone of the lower leg is the ______________.



17. The medial bone of the forearm is the ________________.



18. The scientific name for the collarbone is the ___________________.



19. The anatomic name for the thigh bone is the ________________.



20. The bones that make up the palm of the hand are the ________________.



21. The bones of the fingers and the toes are the _____________.



22. The disorder associated with lateral curvature of the spinal column is _____________.



23. An exaggerated thoracic curve of the spine is called ________________.



24. A malignant tumor arising in the growing region of a bone is called a(n) _________________.



25. Tuberculosis of the spine is called ____________ disease.



26. The broken bone protrudes through the skin in a(n) _____________ fracture.



27. The pubic symphysis is an example of a cartilaginous, slightly movable joint, or ______________.



28. The bands of connective tissue that hold the bones together in a synovial joint are called ______________.



29. The small, fluid-filled sacs near some synovial joints are called _____________.



30. Turning the palm down or backward is called ________________.



31. Drawing a large arm circle in the air is an example of the movement ______________.



32. An excess of uric acid can result in a painful joint disorder called ___________.



33. A degenerative joint disease that primarily occurs in weight-bearing joints is ______________.



34. The word part –penia means ______________.



35. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeleton?
A) blood cell production
B) protection of delicate structures
C) sodium storage
D) providing a firm framework for the body



36. A haversian canal is a
A) fiber in dense bone
B) meshwork in spongy bone
C) depression on the surface of a bone
D) channel in dense bone



37. A major component of the intercellular material of bone is the protein
A) keratin
B) collagen
C) melanin
D) calcium



38. Spongy bone is found
A) within the medullary cavity
B) in bone epiphyses
C) surrounding haversian canals
D) exclusively in long bones



39. Red marrow is found in
A) spongy bone
B) compact bone
C) long bone shafts
D) the medullary cavity



40. The cells involved in bone resorption are
A) osteoclasts
B) osteoblasts
C) fibroblasts
D) chondrocytes



41. Bone growth in children occurs in the
A) center of bone shafts
B) epiphyseal plates
C) medullary cavities
D) epiphyseal lines



42. A depression on the surface of a bone is called a
A) process
B) sinus
C) meatus
D) fossa



43. An air space within a bone is called a
A) sinus
B) foramen
C) condyle
D) fossa



44. A short channel through a bone is called a
A) meatus
B) fossa
C) sinus
D) depression



45. The bone that forms the back and part of the base of the skull is the
A) parietal bone
B) temporal bone
C) occipital bone
D) sphenoid bone



46. The bones that form the top and sides of the skull are the
A) parietal bones
B) temporal bones
C) maxillae
D) lacrimal bones



47. The bone with winglike extensions located at the base of the skull is the
A) ethmoid bone
B) sphenoid bone
C) vomer bone
D) hyoid bone



48. The bone located between the eyes that forms the nasal cavity roof is the
A) vomer
B) ethmoid
C) sphenoid
D) palatine



49. The section of the spinal column that forms part of the bony pelvis is the
A) sacrum
B) lumbar region
C) thoracic region
D) cervical region



50. How many pairs of true ribs are found in the adult thorax?
A) 7
B) 9
C) 5
D) 13



51. Skull bones are united by an immovable joint called a(n)
A) suture
B) amphiarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) condyloid joint



52. Which bone contains the foramen magnum?
A) temporal bone
B) frontal bone
C) occipital bone
D) parietal bone



53. The large soft spot at the junction of the parietal bones and the frontal bone in the infant cranium is the
A) anterior fontanel
B) posterior fontanel
C) anterior fossa
D) posterior fossa



54. The secondary spinal curves are the
A) cervical and lumbar curves
B) cervical and thoracic curves
C) thoracic and lumbar curves
D) thoracic and sacral curves



55. How many phalanges are found in each hand?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 16



56. The olecranon is
A) a space between vertebrae
B) the part of the ulna that forms the elbow
C) the lowest portion of the ischium
D) the T-shaped top portion of the sternum



57. A malleolus is found on the
A) vertebrae
B) tibia and fibula
C) radius and ulna
D) scapula



58. What is the scientific name for the kneecap?
A) manubrium
B) patella
C) acromion
D) trochlea



59. Which of the following bones is found in the shoulder girdle?
A) sternum
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) ulna



60. The acetabulum is
A) the joint between the first two cervical vertebrae
B) the socket that holds the head of the humerus
C) the tip of the sternum
D) the socket that holds the head of the femur



61. The greater trochanter is a large projection on the
A) humerus
B) patella
C) femur
D) tibia



62. A forensic scientist wants to identify the gender of a skeleton based on the pelvic structure. Which of the following characteristics would be found in a male pelvis?
A) a wide, rounded pelvic opening
B) a long, curved sacrum
C) wide, flared ilia
D) a wide pubic arch



63. Inflammation of the joints is called
A) osteomyelitis
B) arthritis
C) scoliosis
D) Paget’s disease



64. Mr. M has deformed bones due to abnormal calcium metabolism. His disease cannot be cured. The most likely diagnosis is
A) osteopenia
B) osteoporosis
C) osteitis deformans
D) osteomalacia



65. An osteosarcoma is a
A) malignant tumor arising in cartilage
B) malignant tumor arising in bone
C) benign tumor arising in cartilage
D) benign tumor arising in bone



66. Young Ms. L hates dairy products, broccoli, and fish. Her pediatrician recommends that she consumes calcium supplements to avoid developing
A) gout
B) osteomyelitis
C) rickets
D) Paget disease



67. Mr. L fractured his leg in a skateboarding accident. An x-ray shows that the broken ends of the bone are jammed into each other. This type of fracture is classified as
A) impacted
B) comminuted
C) spiral
D) oblique



68. Ms. M, aged 7, broke her arm when she fell off the monkey bars. The break does not go all the way through the bone, and is thus classified as a(n)
A) impacted fracture
B) greenstick fracture
C) spiral fracture
D) oblique fracture



69. Ms. W notices that her great-grandmother is shorter than she used to be. This decrease primarily reflects changes in the height of the
A) intervertebral disks
B) femur
C) cranium
D) tibia



70. Freely moveable joints are also called
A) fibrous joints
B) cartilaginous joints
C) diarthroses
D) amphiarthroses



71. The smooth layer of connective tissue protecting the bone surfaces in a synovial joint is called the
A) articular cartilage
B) bursae
C) periosteum
D) endosteum



72. Which of the following joint types has the smallest range of motion?
A) pivot joint
B) saddle joint
C) ball-and-socket joint
D) gliding joint



73. The turning of a bone on its own axis is called
A) circumduction
B) pronation
C) rotation
D) abduction



74. When a dancer points his toes, his foot is performing the movement called
A) abduction
B) dorsiflexion
C) plantar flexion
D) pronation



75. Ms. J, aged 31, has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. Lately, her joints have been inflamed. Ms. J probably has
A) osteoarthritis
B) gout
C) septic arthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis



76. Backache would probably NOT result from
A) improper lifting
B) kidney disease
C) osteoarthritis
D) an abnormally positioned uterus



77. The word part cost/o refers to the
A) ribs
B) cranium
C) arm
D) pelvis



78. Compare and contrast yellow marrow and red marrow. Discuss the location, constituents, and function of the two types.



79. List the bones found in the bony pelvis, and name the skeletal division (axial or appendicular) for each.



80. A. List five differences between the male and female pelvis. B. Briefly explain the benefits of the pelvic adaptations in females.



81. Ms. A, aged 15, has swelling and pain in the joints of her hands and feet. A. What is the most likely diagnosis? B. What do we know about the cause of this disorder? C. What is happening in her synovial joints? D. What are some possible treatments for the symptoms of her disorder? E. Is it possible to treat the cause of her disease?




Chapter 08- The Muscular System
1. Cardiac and skeletal muscle contain visible bands that are called __________.



2. The muscular layer of the intestine is composed of visceral, or ____________, muscle.



3. The ability of a muscle to transmit electrical current is termed __________.



4. The ability of a muscle to shorten is termed ____________.



5. Binding sites on the actin molecules are covered by troponin and _________________ when the muscle is at rest.



6. The larger of the two filaments forming a cross-bridge is made of a protein called _______________.



7. The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is called ____________.



8. The compound that causes the myosin head to detach from actin is called ______________.



9. Muscles operating anaerobically are said to be in a state of _____________.



10. The polysaccharide in muscles containing multiple glucose molecules is named _____________.



11. The energy-storing compound that is similar to ATP is called ______________.



12. The increase in muscle size resulting from resistance training is termed ______________.



13. A contraction that shortens the muscle but does not increase muscle tension is called _______________.



14. Mr. M’s arm muscle is contracted because he is carrying a heavy box. This contraction, which is associated with an increase in muscle tension, is termed _______________.



15. A muscle that produces a given movement is called the _________________.



16. The muscle that opposes a given action is called the ________________.



17. The more movable attachment point of a muscle is called the ___________.



18. The pivot point of a lever system is called the _________________.



19. Raising a beer glass by flexing the arm at the elbow is an example of a __________-class lever system.



20. A term referring to a muscle that decreases the angle at a joint is ______________.



21. An adjective describing muscle fibers running in a straight line is _______________.



22. The dome-shaped muscle used in breathing is the _______________.



23. The large triangular muscle across the back of the neck and shoulders is the _______________.



24. The muscle with four origins that covers the front and sides of the thigh bone is the ______________.



25. The prime mover in plantar flexion is the _____________.



26. The innermost muscle of the abdomen is the _______________.



27. The triceps brachii _____________ the arm at the elbow.



28. The _______________ tendon is attached to the heel.



29. The cheek muscle used in whistling is the _____________.



30. The muscles located between the ribs are called the _______________.



31. Aging is associated with a gradual decrease in the number of muscle cells, or ______________.



32. Inflammation of a tendon is called __________________.



33. Inflammation of a fluid-filled sac near a joint results in _________________.



34. The medical term for muscle pain is _______________.



35. The scientific name for wryneck is__________________.



36. A sudden involuntary muscle contraction is a(n) _______________.



37. The word part sarc/o means _____________.



38. The specialized membranes that permit electric impulses to pass between cardiac muscle cells are called
A) striations
B) intercalated disks
C) cross-bridges
D) sarcomeres



39. A bundle of muscle fibers is called a(n)
A) fascicle
B) sheath
C) fascia
D) epimysium



40. The membrane surrounding individual muscle fibers is the
A) epimysium
B) deep fascia
C) endomysium
D) perimysium



41. Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system?
A) skeletal movement
B) heat generation
C) posture
D) body cooling through evaporation



42. A single neuron and all the muscle fibers it stimulates comprise a(n)
A) neuromuscular junction
B) motor end plate
C) motor unit
D) synapse



43. The two filaments that form cross-bridges are
A) actin and troponin
B) tropomyosin and myosin
C) actin and myosin
D) troponin and tropomyosin



44. Which of the following events occurs during muscle relaxation?
A) Calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft.
C) The actin binding sites are exposed.
D) The action potential travels to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.



45. The ion that binds the troponin/tropomyosin complex is
A) calcium
B) sodium
D) actin



46. The compound that binds myosin and provides the energy for the power stroke is
A) creatine phosphate
B) glucose
D) calcium



47. A substance produced during oxygen debt is
A) lactic acid
B) calcium phosphate
C) acetylcholine
D) glucose



48. The compound that stores oxygen in muscle cells is
A) hemoglobin
B) glycogen
C) creatine phosphate
D) myoglobin



49. Exercise results in
A) dilation of blood vessels
B) a decrease in the number of mitochondria
C) muscle atrophy
D) an increase in the resting heart rate



50. The partial contraction observed in resting muscle is called
A) muscle tone
B) isometric contraction
C) isotonic contraction
D) relaxation



51. Pushing the feet against the floor is an example of a(n)
A) isometric contraction
B) muscle tone
C) isotonic contraction
D) isometric and isotonic contraction



52. A muscle that steadies body parts during a movement is called a(n)
A) antagonist
B) synergist
C) prime mover
D) extrinsic muscle



53. In anatomic lever systems, the fulcrum is the
A) bursa
B) insertion
C) bone
D) joint



54. A term referring to a ring-shaped muscle is
A) orbicularis
B) levator
C) rectus
D) oris



55. A muscle that raises a body part is a(n)
A) flexor
B) levator
C) adductor
D) superioris



56. In naming muscles, the suffix –ceps means
A) shape
B) attachment points
C) size
D) direction of fibers



57. Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the head?
A) sacrospinalis
B) masseter
C) temporal
D) buccinator



58. Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the abdomen?
A) internal oblique
B) transversus abdominis
C) iliopsoas
D) rectus abdominis



59. A muscle that moves the head is the
A) gracilis
B) sternocleidomastoid
C) serratus anterior
D) rotator cuff



60. The levator ani is found in the
A) skull
B) back
C) perineum
D) eye



61. A muscle located at the angle of the jaw used for chewing is the
A) buccinator
B) masseter
C) temporal
D) deltoid



62. The muscle that closes the lips is the
A) orbicularis oris
B) orbicularis oculi
C) buccinator
D) masseter



63. An antagonist to the adductor group of the thigh is the
A) gluteus maximus
B) gluteus medius
C) iliopsoas
D) peroneus longus



64. An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the
A) soleus
B) sartorius
C) gracilis
D) tibialis anterior



65. The hamstring muscles act to
A) extend the leg
B) flex the leg
C) flex the thigh
D) adduct the thigh



66. A sudden and painful involuntary contraction of a muscle is called a
A) strain
B) spasm
C) sprain
D) fibrositis



67. Student’s elbow and housemaid’s knee are examples of
A) bunions
B) bursitis
C) tendinitis
D) carpal tunnel syndrome



68. Inflammation of connective tissues is called
A) myalgia
B) fibrositis
C) myositis
D) fibromyalgia



69. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves the tendons of the
A) fingers
B) toes
C) upper arm
D) torso



70. A spasm of visceral muscle is called (a)
A) sprain
B) strain
C) colic
D) convulsion



71. Any word containing the part brachi/o probably refers to the
A) leg
B) brain
C) arm
D) torso



72. The main flexor of the forearm is the
A) deltoid
B) brachialis
C) brachioradialis
D) triceps brachii



73. Compare the location and function of the three types of muscle tissue.



74. A new drug blocks the release of acetylcholine from neuron endings. The mad scientist Dr. C takes the drug and then tries to move her arm. What will happen? Discuss the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction in your answer.



75. JL is sitting in a chair wearing very heavy boots. She slowly straightens her leg, raising her boot. A. Is this an isotonic or isometric contraction? B. Name the prime mover and antagonist participating in this action. C. Discuss the mechanics of this action, naming the class of lever and the names and relative positions of the fulcrum, resistance, and effort.



76. Ms. V was riding her bike down a steep hill when her brakes seized. She flew over the handlebars and landed on her shoulder, tearing a number of ligaments that hold the shoulder joint in place. Name the type of injury. Should she apply ice or heat to the injured area, and why?



77. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what is the definition of brachialgia?



Chapter 09- The Nervous System- The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
1. The brain and the spinal cord make up the ____________ nervous system.



2. The voluntary nervous system is also called the _______________ nervous system.



3. The scientific name for a nerve cell is ___________.



4. The fiber of a neuron that carries impulses toward the cell body is the ____________.



5. All the spinal nerves have both sensory and motor fibers. They are therefore described as _____________.



6. A group of nerve fibers located within the central nervous system is called a(n) _____________.



7. Astrocytes and Schwann cells are examples of cells called _____________.



8. A sudden electrical change in the neuronal membrane that is transmitted along an axon is called a(n) _______________.



9. During the depolarizing phase of the action potential, ions of the element _______________ enter the neuron through channels.



10. Nerve impulse conduction is faster in axons coated with _________________.



11. A point of junction between two nerve cells is a(n) ___________.



12. _______________ are chemicals that transmit a signal across a synapse.



13. The chemical that transmits the signal across the neuromuscular junction is called ___________.



14. The dorsal and ventral horns of the spinal cord are part of the ____________ matter.



15. Myelinated nervous tissue is described as ___________ matter.



16. Sensory impulses enter the _____ horn of the spinal cord.



17. A rapid, simple, automatic response that involves few neurons is a(n) ______________.



18. A neuron that leaves the spinal cord through the ___________ horn is carrying information away from the central nervous system.



19. A reflex that does not pass through the brain is termed a ____________ reflex.



20. The number of pairs of spinal nerves is ________________.



21. There are _____ pairs of cervical spinal nerves.



22. The ___________ plexus supplies nerves to the pelvis and legs.



23. The sympathetic nervous system can be classified as ______________, based on the main neurotransmitters used.



24. The autonomic ganglia of the parasympathetic system are called ____________________.



25. An increase in heart rate would be mediated by the ___________________ branch of the autonomic nervous system.



26. Cholinergic cellular receptors bind ________________.



27. The viral disease that infects motor neurons, leading to paralysis, is ____________.



28. Paralysis of both arms is called _______________.



29. Ms. L developed numbness and paralysis following a viral infection. Lately, she has lost control of several involuntary functions, including bladder control. Her doctor has diagnosed a disorder of the spinal nerves called ________________.



30. The word part –lemma means _______________.



31. Which of the following is NOT in the central nervous system?
A) tract
B) terminal ganglion
C) white matter
D) interneuron



32. The division of the nervous system that exclusively controls skeletal muscles is the
A) peripheral nervous system
B) central nervous system
C) somatic nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system



33. The part of the nervous system that consists of ALL of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves is the
A) peripheral nervous system
B) central nervous system
C) somatic nervous system
D) autonomic nervous system



34. Fibers that conduct impulses away from the cell body are called
A) dendrites
B) axons
C) cell bodies
D) neurilemma



35. Neurons that conduct impulses to the spinal cord and brain are called
A) motor neurons
B) interneurons
C) afferent neurons
D) association neurons



36. A nerve containing only efferent fibers is a(n)
A) sensory nerve
B) mixed nerve
C) motor nerve
D) nerve tract



37. The membrane surrounding an entire nerve is called the
A) perineurium
B) endoneurium
C) epineurium
D) neurilemma



38. A collection of neuron cell bodies outside the central nervous system is called a
A) nucleus
B) ganglion
C) tract
D) nerve



39. Which of the following is NOT an example of a neuroglial cell?
A) neuron
B) astrocyte
C) Schwann cell
D) All of the options are neuroglia.



40. Before the start of the action potential, the neuron membrane is
A) depolarized
B) repolarized
C) unpolarized
D) at rest



41. Potassium channels open late in the action potential to cause membrane
A) depolarization
B) potential
C) repolarization
D) degradation



42. The outermost membrane of the myelin sheath is called the
A) neurilemma
B) gray matter
C) dendrite
D) neuroglia



43. At a synapse, transmission usually occurs
A) from the postsynaptic cell to the presynaptic cell
B) between two postsynaptic cells
C) between two presynaptic cells
D) from the presynaptic cell to the postsynaptic cell



44. Neurotransmitters bind to specific proteins on the postsynaptic membrane called
A) transporters
B) receptors
C) linkers
D) channels



45. Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?
A) acetylcholine
B) dopamine
C) dermatome
D) noradrenaline



46. The central canal of the spinal cord contains
A) blood
B) cerebrospinal fluid
C) lymph
D) saline



47. The deep groove dividing the right and left portions of the ventral white matter is the
A) posterior median sulcus
B) anterior median fissure
C) gray commissure
D) central canal



48. Motor impulses travel through the spinal cord in the
A) ascending tracts
B) descending tracts
C) gray matter
D) nerves



49. The correct order of impulse conduction through a reflex arc is
A) sensory neuron, receptor, effector, interneuron, motor neuron
B) receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
C) receptor, motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron, effector
D) effector, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, receptor



50. The knee-jerk reflex is a
A) simple reflex
B) spinal reflex
C) stretch reflex
D) All of the answers are correct.



51. The cell bodies of sensory neurons are found in the
A) white matter of the spinal cord
B) dorsal root ganglion
C) ventral root ganglion
D) plexuses



52. The brachial plexus supplies motor impulses to the muscles of the
A) neck
B) shoulder
C) pelvis
D) legs



53. The phrenic nerve arises from the
A) brachial plexus
B) lumbosacral plexus
C) abdominal plexus
D) cervical plexus



54. Sciatica reflects neuritis in a nerve from the
A) brachial plexus
B) lumbosacral plexus
C) abdominal plexus
D) cervical plexus



55. The sympathetic motor neurons originate from cell bodies in the ______ and _________ regions of the spinal cord.
A) thoracic, lumbar
B) thoracic, cervical
C) cervical, lumbar
D) lumbar, sacral



56. Which of the following is NOT an action of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) increase in blood pressure
B) stimulation of skeletal muscle
C) stimulation of the adrenal gland
D) dilation of the pupils



57. The parasympathetic ganglia are called
A) collateral ganglia
B) terminal ganglia
C) adrenergic ganglia
D) sympathetic ganglia



58. Ms. L has been experiencing muscle weakness. Her physician informs her that she has abnormal antibodies attacking the myelin sheath around neurons in her central nervous system. The most likely diagnosis is
A) poliomyelitis
B) multiple sclerosis
C) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) peripheral neuropathy



59. Mr. Y was in a motor vehicle accident and is unable to move his arms or legs. Mr. Y suffers from
A) monoplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) tetraplegia
D) diplegia



60. Based on your knowledge of word parts, cardioplegia means
A) pain in the heart
B) paralysis of the heart
C) dilation of blood vessels
D) paralysis of the arm



61. A drug called tetraethylammonium chloride (TEA) blocks potassium channels. What would be the effect of this drug on the action potential and on nerve impulse transmission?



62. Nicotine increases the amount of dopamine released from neurons following an action potential. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved with pleasurable feelings. Use this information to answer the following questions. A. Does dopamine act on the presynaptic or postsynaptic neuron? Explain your answer. B. Will nicotine increase or decrease pleasurable feelings?



63. List three ways that neurotransmitters are removed from a synaptic cleft and cite the significance of the different methods.



64. Define a reflex arc, and list the components of a reflex arc.



65. Compare and contrast a nerve plexus and a ganglion. Name one similarity and one difference, and give an example of each.



Chapter 10- The Nervous System- The Brain and Cranial Nerves
1. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata together make up the _________________.



2. The thalamus and the hypothalamus together make up the _________________.



3. The three layers of connective tissue enclosing the brain and spinal cord are called the _________________.



4. The outermost layer of the meninges is the _________________.



5. The fluid that circulates around the brain and spinal cord is called _________________.



6. The passage connecting the third and fourth ventricles is called the _________________.



7. A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a(n) _________________.



8. An elevation on the surface of the brain is called a(n) _________________.



9. The outer layer of the cerebrum consisting of cell bodies and unmyelinated neurons is the _________________.



10. Impulses from the ear travel to the _______________ lobe.



11. Impulses travel down cranial nerve II to the ____________ lobe.



12. The primary sensory area is found in the ____________ lobe.



13. The area of the temporal lobe concerned with interpreting sounds is the ______________ area.



14. Mr. L can speak but has difficulty understanding spoken language, suggesting damage to the _______________ area.



15. Nearly all sensory impulses travel through the area of the diencephalon called the ______________.



16. A sea horse–shaped brain region involved in learning and long-term memory is the ____________.



17. The concentration of nuclei regulating sleep, appetite, the autonomic nervous system, and many other homeostatic functions is called the ________________.



18. The most superior portion of the brainstem is called the ________________.



19. The vasomotor and cardiac centers are located in the ___________ of the brainstem.



20. Cranial nerves V through VIII originate from the ____________ in the brainstem.



21. The portion of the brain containing the vermis and two lateral hemispheres is the _______________.



22. The maintenance of muscle tone and the coordination of signals from the motor cortex is the responsibility of the _________________.



23. The machine that measures electrical currents generated by neurons is called a(n) ___________________.



24. The metabolic activity of the brain is measured by a technique called ________________.



25. Smell impulses are carried by the cranial nerve named the _____________.



26. The nerves numbered I, II, and ______ contain only sensory fibers.



27. The production of gastric juices and the activity of the heart are controlled by cranial nerve number _________.



28. Inflammation of the brain is called _____________________.



29. Mr. J exhibits the symptoms of meningitis. A positive diagnosis requires the extraction of cerebrospinal fluid by a procedure called _______________.



30. Newborn KJ suffered a difficult birth. The pediatrician noticed that the muscle tone in her legs was low, and she did not consistently move her foot away from a painful stimulus. The most likely cause of KJ’s symptoms is _________________.



31. The word part that means tongue is ____________.



32. The hippocampus and the reticular formation are part of the
A) limbic system
B) frontal lobe
C) basal nuclei
D) brainstem



33. The “little brain” located beneath the posterior part of the cerebral hemispheres is the
A) medulla oblongata
B) cerebellum
C) pons
D) basal nuclei



34. The function of the dural sinuses is to
A) manufacture cerebrospinal fluid
B) supply blood to the brain
C) drain blood from the brain
D) separate the pia mater from the arachnoid



35. The layer of the meninges that most closely follows the contours of the brain is the
A) pia mater
B) choroid plexus
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid



36. Cerebrospinal fluid flows from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle via the
A) cerebral aqueduct
B) longitudinal fissure
C) foramina
D) insula



37. The vascular network that forms the cerebrospinal fluid is called the
A) ventricles
B) choroid plexus
C) dural sinus
D) arachnoid villi



38. Which of the following is NOT associated with the ventricles?
A) horns
B) choroid plexus
C) arachnoid villi
D) foramina



39. A deep groove in the brain is called a
A) sulcus
B) gyrus
C) tract
D) fissure



40. The central sulcus separates the
A) frontal and parietal lobes
B) parietal and occipital lobes
C) temporal and occipital lobes
D) temporal and frontal lobes



41. The lobe of the cerebrum that lies posterior to the parietal lobe and extends over the cerebellum is the
A) temporal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) insula



42. The visual area of the cortex is in the
A) midbrain
B) occipital lobe
C) frontal lobe
D) temporal lobe



43. Difficulty in forming words would indicate an injury to the
A) Wernicke area
B) Broca area
C) auditory association area
D) primary sensory cortex



44. Impulses from the skin are received in the
A) primary motor area of the frontal lobe
B) primary motor area of the parietal lobe
C) primary sensory area of the frontal lobe
D) primary sensory area of the parietal lobe



45. The thalamus forms the wall of the ___________ ventricle.
A) right lateral
B) left lateral
C) third
D) fourth



46. The autonomic nervous system and the pituitary gland are controlled by the
A) hypothalamus
B) reticular formation
C) cerebellum
D) cerebrum



47. The midbrain and the medulla oblongata are connected via the
A) pons
B) cerebellum
C) corpus callosum
D) dura mater



48. The part of the brainstem that contains relay centers for eye and ear reflexes is the
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) medulla oblongata
D) midbrain



49. Vital centers that regulate respiration and the heart are located in the
A) medulla oblongata
B) motor cortex
C) temporal lobe
D) basal nuclei



50. You are viewing a brain slice under the microscope. The structure contains an outer layer of gray matter and an inner layer of white matter. The white matter is distributed in a treelike pattern. The brain slice was probably taken from the
A) cerebrum
B) medulla oblongata
C) thalamus
D) cerebellum



51. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum?
A) maintaining muscle tone
B) maintaining balance
C) coordinating voluntary muscles
D) initiating movements of voluntary muscles



52. Which of the following is NOT a method for studying the brain?



53. The oculomotor nerve controls movements of the
A) tongue
B) eye
C) facial muscles
D) jaw



54. The cranial nerves containing all or mostly motor fibers are
A) V, VII, IX, and X
B) III, IV, VI, XI, and XII
C) I, II, and VIII
D) V, VI, X, and XI



55. The cranial nerve concerned with the sense of smell is the
A) vagus nerve
B) trigeminal nerve
C) olfactory nerve
D) hypoglossal nerve



56. The cranial nerve that supplies motor impulses to the tongue is the
A) hypoglossal nerve
B) glossopharyngeal nerve
C) facial nerve
D) accessory nerve



57. Multi-infarct dementia results from
A) the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid
B) a series of small cerebrovascular accidents
C) a bacterial infection of the meninges
D) a birth trauma



58. Bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull results in a(n)
A) concussion
B) subdural hematoma
C) epidural hematoma
D) hydrocephalus



59. Glaucoma is associated with excess eye fluid. The excess fluid exerts pressure on the nerve receiving visual input from the eye, known as the
A) oculomotor nerve
B) trochlear nerve
C) optic nerve
D) trigeminal nerve



60. Injury to cranial nerve VII would result in
A) trigeminal neuralgia
B) hemiplegia of the face
C) a drooping eyelid
D) difficulty moving the tongue



61. Abnormal electrical activity in the brain that results in seizures is a disorder called
A) cerebral palsy
B) epilepsy
C) aphasia
D) Parkinson disease



62. Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of Alzheimer disease?
A) intellectual impairment
B) tremor
C) impaired balance
D) limb rigidity



63. What is the meaning of the word part gyr/o?
A) shallow
B) deep
C) circle
D) cut



64. Describe the areas of the cerebral cortex that are involved in communication.



65. Describe the cranial nerves that supply the tongue.



66. Compare and contrast Parkinson disease and Alzheimer disease.



67. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what does glossoplegia mean?



Chapter 11- The Sensory System
1. The muscle that regulates the size of the pupil is the ____________.



2. The jellylike material that fills the eyeball is called the ___________.



3. The transparent portion of the sclera that covers the anterior of the eye is the ___________.



4. The fluid that fills the space anterior to the lens is the _____________.



5. The tunic of the eye that contains photoreceptors is the ______________.



6. The membrane that lines the eyelid is the ______________.



7. The bending of light rays as they pass through the eye is called _____________.



8. The cranial nerve that carries visual impulses from the retina to the brain is the ____________.



9. Visual impulses are transmitted from the retina to the cortex of the ___________ lobe.



10. The ear ossicle that is in contact with the oval window is the ________________.



11. The three small bones of the middle ear are collectively called the ________________.



12. The external part of the ear is called the _______________.



13. The middle ear cavity and pharynx are connected by a channel called the _________.



14. The coiled portion of the inner ear that contains the organ of hearing is the _______________.



15. Receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints that help judge the position of the body are called _______________.



16. Naturally occurring painkillers that can be released in response to massage and acupressure are called __________.



17. A receptor may gradually stop responding to a continued mild stimulus. This process is called ___________.



18. Farsightedness that develops with age is called ______________.



19. An irregularity in the curvature of the lens or cornea results in a condition called __________.



20. A condition caused by excess pressure of the aqueous humor is _______________.



21. Infection of the middle ear cavity is called ____________.



22. The procedure of cutting the tympanic membrane to relieve excess pressure is called _________.



23. “Swimmer’s ear” is also known as ___________.



24. Pinkeye is the common name for an infection called ______________.



25. Opacity of the lens is termed ______________.



26. The suffix –opia means _______________.



27. Which of the following is a special sense?
A) pressure
B) taste
C) touch
D) proprioception



28. Which of the following is a general sense?
A) proprioception
B) equilibrium
C) vision
D) hearing



29. Olfactory epithelium is involved in the sense of
A) taste
B) smell
C) balance
D) pain



30. Which area of the tongue is particularly sensitive to sweet tastes?
A) the anterior sides
B) the posterior part
C) the tip
D) the lateral portion



31. The middle, pigmented layer of the eye is the
A) sclera
B) conjunctiva
C) retina
D) choroid



32. The blind spot is also called the
A) macula lutea
B) fovea centralis
C) optic disk
D) cornea



33. The point of sharpest vision is called the
A) rods
B) fovea centralis
C) optic disk
D) cornea



34. Tears are produced in the
A) lacrimal gland
B) salivary gland
C) aqueous humor
D) conjunctiva



35. Which of the following structures does NOT play a major role in light refraction?
A) aqueous humor
B) lens
C) iris
D) cornea



36. The receptors for vision are the
A) cilia and maculae
B) rods and cones
C) foveae and maculae
D) ossicles and hair cells



37. Rhodopsin is the pigment found in the
A) cones
B) vestibule
C) rods
D) choroid



38. The extrinsic eye muscle that circles the bottom part of the eyeball is the
A) superior rectus
B) inferior rectus
C) inferior oblique
D) superior oblique



39. Which of the following is an intrinsic eye muscle?
A) iris
B) lateral rectus
C) superior rectus
D) suspensory ligament



40. The nerve that governs most of the extrinsic eye muscles is the
A) abducens nerve
B) oculomotor nerve
C) trochlear nerve
D) optic nerve



41. Your sister just poked you in the eye. The pain resulting from her unprovoked action will be transmitted along which cranial nerve?
A) optic nerve
B) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
C) vestibulocochlear nerve
D) oculomotor nerve



42. The scientific name for the eardrum is the
A) oval window
B) round window
C) tympanic membrane
D) tectonic membrane



43. The ossicle of the ear that is in contact with the tympanic membrane is the
A) malleus
B) incus
C) meatus
D) stapes



44. Ceruminous glands secrete
A) wax
B) tears
C) sweat
D) blood



45. The receptor for hearing is the
A) retina
B) macula
C) organ of Corti
D) olfactory epithelium



46. Cranial nerve VIII is named the
A) vestibulocochlear nerve
B) optic nerve
C) trigeminal nerve
D) trochlear nerve



47. The receptors for static equilibrium are located in the
A) vestibule
B) otoliths
C) cristae
D) semicircular canals



48. Your professor has asked you if you want to write a 50-page essay. You shake your head “no.” This motion will be sensed by the
A) vestibule
B) maculae
C) cristae
D) cochlear duct



49. The receptors that detect the position of the head in relation to gravity are the
A) proprioceptors
B) maculae
C) cristae
D) semicircular canals



50. The semicircular canals detect
A) changes in arm position
B) spinning movements
C) changes in muscle tension
D) movements in a straight line



51. You are descending in an elevator but are otherwise motionless. Which sensory receptors will be activated?
A) cristae
B) maculae
C) otoliths
D) rods



52. If you hold your arm motionless in the air, which receptors are most important in informing you of your hand position?
A) proprioceptors
B) pressure receptors
C) tactile corpuscles
D) free nerve endings



53. Your biceps is contracted. Which receptors inform you about the amount of muscle tension?
A) proprioceptors
B) free nerve endings
C) tactile corpuscles
D) chemoreceptors



54. The receptors for pain are
A) tactile corpuscles
B) proprioceptors
C) chemoreceptors
D) free nerve endings



55. An analgesic is used to treat
A) dizziness
B) deafness
C) cataracts
D) pain



56. JA was on holidays at the lake. He jumped in the water and shrieked, “It’s freezing! Five minutes later he was splashing around happily, no longer conscious of the cold water. This reflects the process of
A) accommodation
B) sensory adaptation
C) narcotics
D) analgesia



57. A hereditary disorder that prevents normal vibration of the stapes is
A) trachoma
B) otitis media
C) otosclerosis
D) ossiculitis



58. Night blindness is due to a deficiency in vitamin
A) C
B) K
C) A
D) D



59. Color blindness is due to a deficiency in
A) rods
B) cones
C) vitamin A
D) iron



60. How does the sensory system help to maintain homeostasis? Provide an example.



61. List four structures that protect the eye, and briefly describe the contribution of each.



62. List four structures that refract light in the eye. Which structure can change the amount of refraction?



63. What sort of photoreceptor would be more abundant in a bat: rods or cones? Explain your reasoning.



64. List one function of the extrinsic eye muscles and two functions of the intrinsic eye muscles.



65. Explain how we know both the pitch and the loudness of a particular sound.



66. Mr. M has just arrived at your hot-tub party. He jumps in the hot tub and immediately starts complaining about the heat. Five minutes later, he asks you if you turned down the heat. You tell him no and explain why his perception of temperature has changed. What did you tell him? Name the receptors involved in perceiving hot temperatures.



67. Ms. M has an abnormally short eyeball. A. Does she suffer from myopia or hyperopia? B. Does she need a convex lens or a concave lens? Defend your choice.



68. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what is the definition of an otoscope?



Chapter 12- The Endocrine System
1. Hormones attach to plasma membrane proteins called ______.



2. The building blocks of protein hormones are ______.



3. ACTH acts on the adrenal ______.



4. A hormone from the posterior pituitary that is involved in water balance is ______.



5. Growth hormone is also known as ______.



6. The hormone produced by the pineal gland is ______.



7. The most important male sex hormone is ______.



8. The hormone secreted by the pancreatic islets that lowers blood sugar is ______.



9. A hormone from the adrenal cortex that helps regulate sodium and potassium balance is ______.



10. The hormone secreted from the thymus that promotes T-cell growth is _____.



11. The hormone secreted by the pancreatic islets that raises blood sugar is ______.



12. A portal system links the hypothalamus to the ______.



13. Cretinism results from a lack of _____________ in children.



14. The disease that results from the lack of insulin is______.



15. Enlargement of the thyroid gland is called _____.



16. The disease resulting from underactivity of the adrenal cortex is _____.



17. The disorder resulting from excess growth hormone in an adult is _____.



18. Excess secretion of cortisol causes a disorder called _____.



19. The hormone secreted from the kidneys that increases red blood cell synthesis is _____.



20. The hormone that can be used to induce labor is _____.



21. Excess stress can inhibit the immune system due to the actions of a hormone called _____.



22. Lipid hormones are made from _______.



23. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone secretions are regulated by negative feedback. Increased blood calcium levels result in
A) increased calcitonin and decreased parathyroid hormone
B) increased calcitonin and increased parathyroid hormone
C) decreased calcitonin and decreased parathyroid hormone
D) decreased calcitonin and increased parathyroid hormone



24. The large gland located on either side of the larynx is the
A) parathyroid gland
B) pituitary gland
C) thyroid gland
D) adrenal gland



25. The islets of Langerhans are found in the
A) kidney
B) adrenal gland
C) pancreas
D) pituitary gland



26. What effect would a large increase in cortisol have on glucagon and insulin secretion?
A) Both insulin and glucagon would be increased.
B) Both insulin and glucagon would be decreased.
C) Insulin would be decreased, glucagon would be increased.
D) Insulin would be increased, glucagon would be decreased.



27. Which hormone opposes the effects of parathyroid hormone?
A) calcitonin
B) glucagon
C) growth hormone
D) prolactin



28. Cortisol is produced by the
A) adrenal cortex
B) adrenal medulla
C) pancreas
D) thyroid gland



29. Which of the following is a gonadotropic hormone?
A) testosterone
B) aldosterone
C) luteinizing hormone
D) oxytocin



30. Which of the following hormones is synthesized in the posterior pituitary?
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) growth hormone
C) melatonin
D) None of the answers are correct.



31. The target tissues for oxytocin are the
A) breasts and pineal gland
B) uterus and breasts
C) thyroid and parathyroids
D) pituitary and hypothalamus



32. Which of the following is NOT a product of the adrenal gland?
A) cortisol
B) aldosterone
C) progesterone
D) epinephrine



33. The gland that produces calcitonin is the
A) parathyroid gland
B) thyroid gland
C) anterior pituitary gland
D) posterior pituitary gland



34. An example of a mineralocorticoid is
A) glucagon
B) cortisol
C) aldosterone
D) testosterone



35. The stalk connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland is called the
A) pituitary cortex
B) infundibulum
C) anterior lobe
D) hypophysis



36. Diabetes insipidus results from a lack of
A) glucagon
B) aldosterone
C) calcitonin
D) antidiuretic hormone



37. Mr. R is 54 years old. For the past 2 years, he has suffered from high blood sugar, frequent urination, and thirst. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
B) non–insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
C) diabetes insipidus
D) hypoglycemia



38. Deficiency of thyroxine in an adult can result in
A) cretinism
B) myxedema
C) acromegaly
D) tetany



39. Local hormones produced by most body tissues are
A) prostaglandins
B) pituitary hormones
C) steroids
D) protein hormones



40. A hormone that increases sodium loss and lowers blood pressure is
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) atrial natriuretic peptide
D) calcitonin



41. The best treatment for anaphylaxis is
A) epinephrine
B) cortisol
C) insulin
D) growth hormone



42. Oral contraceptives contain
A) estrogen and progesterone
B) testosterone and estrogen
C) testosterone and progesterone
D) estrogen and aldosterone



43. The suffix –poiesis means
A) sodium
B) milk
C) forming
D) swelling



44. A word ending for a hormone that controls another gland is
A) –tropin
B) –megaly
C) –poiesis
D) –nephrin



45. Nephromegaly is
A) insufficient kidney growth
B) enlargement of the kidney
C) adrenal atrophy
D) excess adrenal growth



46. Which system, the endocrine system or the nervous system, would be the better choice to regulate growth? Explain why.



47. Using the example of thyroid hormones, explain how negative feedback is used to regulate hormone levels.



48. Describe the anatomy of the parathyroid glands.



49. List the three hormones involved in calcium regulation, and briefly describe the effect of each on blood calcium levels.



50. Ms. Z, age 52, is complaining of a lack of energy. She says she is often cold, even in the summer. You give her a check-up and notice that her face is swollen, her heart rate is abnormally low, and her hair is dry. What endocrine disease does Ms. Z have, and how can she be treated?



51. Describe the cause of Cushing disease, and list four symptoms associated with this disorder.



52. Mr. J suffers from abnormally low blood sugar. His doctor suspects a pancreatic tumor that is secreting a single pancreatic hormone. What is the name of this hormone? Explain your answer.




Chapter 13- The Blood
1. The liquid portion of the blood is ___________.



2. Proteins in blood that bind to antigens are called ___________.



3. The substance that makes up over 90% of blood plasma is ___________.



4. The element needed for the formation of hemoglobin is ___________.



5. The cells that give rise to all blood cells are found in the ___________.



6. Red blood cells are also called ___________.



7. Cell fragments involved in hemostasis are called ___________.



8. The protein that carries oxygen in red blood cells is ___________.



9. The most numerous blood cells are ___________.



10. White blood cells are also called ___________.



11. Activated lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called ___________.



12. Thrombocytes first assist in hemostasis by forming a(n) ___________.



13. The contraction of smooth muscles in the wall of a blood vessel causes ___________.



14. A substance that inhibits blood clot formation is called a(n) ___________.



15. The insoluble protein that forms a blood clot is ___________.



16. A person whose blood reacts with anti-B serum and anti-A serum has blood type ___________.



17. The scientific term for excessive bleeding is ___________.



18. The transfer of blood from one person to another is called ___________.



19. The rupture of red blood cells is called ___________.



20. A disease caused by the lack of vitamin B12 is ___________.



21. A disease that results from destruction of red bone marrow is ___________.



22. A cancer that results in abnormal production of white blood cells is ___________.



23. An inherited disease resulting from a defect in clotting factor VIII is ___________.



24. The average total volume of blood in the body is about
A) 5 liters
B) 5 pints
C) 500 ml
D) 70 kg



25. The most abundant protein in plasma is
A) fibrinogen
B) thrombin
C) complement
D) albumin



26. The main carbohydrate in plasma is
A) glucose
B) amino acids
C) glycogen
D) albumin



27. A system of enzymes that is used to combat pathogens is called
A) complement
B) antibodies
C) phagocytosis
D) hemostasis



28. Which blood cell lacks a nucleus?
A) monocyte
B) neutrophil
C) megakaryocyte
D) erythrocyte



29. Which of the following cells would be capable of protein synthesis?
A) platelet
B) erythrocyte
C) neutrophil
D) None of the answers are correct.



30. Blood is considered to be
A) loose connective tissue
B) liquid connective tissue
C) epithelial tissue
D) None of the answers are correct.



31. Platelets are derived from large bone marrow cells called
A) macrophages
B) erythrocytes
C) megakaryocytes
D) thrombocytes



32. The level of erythropoietin production would rise
A) moving from high altitude to low altitude
B) as a consequence of polycythemia
C) as a consequence of hemorrhage
D) None of the answers are correct.



33. Macrophages develop from
A) monocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils
D) eosinophils



34. A band cell is an immature
A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) eosinophil



35. The most abundant type of leukocyte is the
A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) eosinophil



36. Which of the following cells are phagocytes?
A) plasma cells and lymphocytes
B) macrophages and neutrophils
C) neutrophils and platelets
D) eosinophils and basophils



37. The prevention of blood loss is called
A) homeostasis
B) hemostasis
C) vascularization
D) transfusion



38. Which of the following is a clotting factor?
A) creatinine
B) thrombin
C) albumin
D) alkaline phosphatase



39. Which of the following events occurs before the others in the clotting process?
A) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
B) formation of prothrombinase
C) conversion of prothrombinase to thrombin
D) trapping of blood cells in a network of threads



40. A person with type A blood has antibodies to
A) A antigen
B) B antigen
C) A and B antigens
D) neither antigen



41. Ms. M has type B blood. Which type of donor blood will NOT induce a transfusion reaction?
A) type A blood
B) type AB blood
C) type O blood
D) None of the answers are correct.



42. The clumping of red cells when they are mixed with matching antiserum is called
A) transfusion
B) agglutination
C) hemolysis
D) hemostasis



43. The gamma globulin fraction of the plasma contains
A) antibodies
B) clotting factors
C) iodine
D) gases



44. An inherited hemolytic form of anemia is
A) pernicious anemia
B) sickle cell anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) nutritional anemia



45. A low white cell count is called
A) thrombocytopenia
B) leukopenia
C) leukemia
D) polycythemia



46. Myelogeneous leukemia arises in
A) lymphoid tissue
B) red bone marrow
C) yellow bone marrow
D) blood plasma



47. A centrifuge is used to
A) measure the clotting time of blood
B) spin blood to separate it
C) test the hemoglobin content of blood
D) count the cells in a given volume of blood



48. The BUN is a test for
A) nitrogenous waste
B) enzymes
C) clotting factors
D) hemoglobin



49. A person with a hematocrit of 33% is suffering from
A) anemia
B) leukopenia
C) polycythemia
D) leukocytosis



50. A person with a red cell count of 7 million cells per mL blood is suffering from
A) anemia
B) leukopenia
C) polycythemia
D) leukocytosis



51. A person with a white cell count of 2,000 cells per ml blood is suffering from
A) anemia
B) leukopenia
C) polycythemia
D) leukocytosis



52. Estimation of the percentage of each white blood cell type in a smear is called a
A) complete blood count
B) differential white count
C) hematocrit
D) red cell count



53. Excess red blood cell production due to a bone marrow abnormality is called
A) polycythemia vera
B) sickle cell disease
C) aplastic anemia
D) leukopenia



54. Erythropenia would most likely refer to
A) a lack of white blood cells
B) an excess of white blood cells
C) a lack of red blood cells
D) an excess of red blood cells



55. A prefix meaning “blood” is
A) hemato
B) leuko
C) lympho
D) morpho



56. List the three functions of blood, and name an element of blood involved in each function.



57. Compare and contrast lymphocytes and monocytes. Name two similarities and two differences.



58. Define hemostasis, and list the three steps of hemostasis.



59. Compare and contrast plasma and serum. Name one similarity and one difference.



60. Mr. S needs a blood transfusion. He has type O blood. His brother has type A blood. Mr. S asks if he can use his brother’s blood. What will be the doctor’s response? Would this transfusion cause an agglutination reaction? Defend your answer, discussing the antigens and/or antibodies present in the donor and recipient blood.



61. Ms. M, who is Rh-negative, is having her second child. Her first child was Rh-positive. Is her second child at risk of any Rh-related conditions? Explain why or why not.



62. Individuals with leukemia often suffer from anemia as well. Explain why.



63. Ms. Q, a vegan, is very pale and constantly fatigued. Based on her diet and her symptoms, Dr. M suggests that she take iron pills. Dr. M also orders a test to confirm his diagnosis. What is his diagnosis? Which test could he order to confirm his diagnosis?



64. Mr. M has kidney disease. A consequence of his kidney disease is that he suffers from anemia. How could kidney disease result in anemia?



Chapter 14- The Heart and Heart Disease
1. The thick muscular layer of the heart wall is the ___________.



2. The heart wall layer that is part of the pericardium is the _____________.



3. Intercalated disks are found in the heart wall layer called the _____________.



4. The space between the visceral and parietal layers of the pericardium is called the ____________.



5. The right side of the heart pumps blood through the ____________ circuit.



6. The ____________ side of the heart pumps blood over longer distances than the other side.



7. The lower chambers of the heart are called the _________________.



8. The two upper chambers of the heart are separated by the ___________________.



9. The right atrioventricular valve is also known as the _____________ valve.



10. The ____________ valve is at the exit of the right ventricle.



11. The aortic and pulmonary valves are collectively known as the ___________ valves.



12. A dilated vein that returns blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium is the __________.



13. The blood supply to the myocardium is called the __________ circulation.



14. The ventricles contract during the cardiac cycle phase called ____________.



15. The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is called the ____________.



16. The heart rate is usually set by a collection of conducting cells called the ___________.



17. Impulses can travel directly from the SA node to the AV node via the _________________.



18. Tachycardia could result from the activation of the _______________ division of the autonomic nervous system.



19. The heart rate is slowed down by activation of the ______________ division of the autonomic nervous system.



20. An abnormally slow heart rate is termed _________________.



21. A heart rate of 180 bpm is termed ________________.



22. The heart sound that occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole is usually described by the syllable _________.



23. A heart sound resulting from normal ventricular filling could be called a(n) _________ murmur.



24. Atrial septal defect results when the ____________ between the right and left atria fails to close after birth.



25. Inflammation of the serous membrane surrounding the heart results in _____________.



26. The medical term for a heart attack is ______________.



27. Until middle age, the gender most likely to develop heart disease is _______________.



28. A heart murmur would most simply be detected by an instrument called a(n) ________________.



29. Electrical changes in the heart are detected by an instrument called a(n) ___________________.



30. A plant-derived substance that slows and strengthens heart muscle contractions is ________________.



31. A small tube inserted into a coronary artery to prevent repeated blockage is called a(n) _______________.



32. A word part that means suppression is _________.



33. Endocarditis is
A) inflammation of the epithelial lining of the heart
B) inflammation of a serous membrane
C) a form of heart disease that follows rheumatic fever
D) a congenital heart defect



34. The outermost layer of the heart wall is called the
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) septum



35. The part of the heart capable of generating the largest force is the
A) right atrium
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle



36. The heart chamber that receives blood from the lungs is the
A) right atrium
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle



37. The left ventricle receives blood from the
A) pulmonary veins
B) left atrium
C) right ventricle
D) pulmonary artery



38. Threads that attach the valve flaps to the ventricle walls are called
A) chordae tendineae
B) ductus arteriosus
C) stenoses
D) stents



39. The valve preventing blood from re-entering the left ventricle is the
A) mitral valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) pulmonary valve
D) aortic valve



40. The semilunar valves are the
A) mitral and bicuspid
B) aortic and mitral
C) pulmonary and bicuspid
D) aortic and pulmonary



41. The coronary sinus
A) supplies blood to the heart
B) supplies blood to the head
C) drains into the superior vena cava
D) collects blood from the myocardium



42. The first vessels that branch off the aorta are the
A) pulmonary arteries
B) coronary arteries
C) carotid artery
D) subclavian artery



43. The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle with each contraction is called the
A) cardiac output
B) heart rate
C) stroke volume
D) cardiac cycle



44. The atrioventricular valves are closed during the entire period of
A) ventricular systole
B) atrial systole
C) the cardiac cycle
D) atrial diastole



45. Atrial systole occurs when
A) the atria are contracting
B) the atria are relaxing
C) the ventricles are contracting
D) blood is ejected into the aorta



46. The order in which impulses travel through the heart is
A) bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, sinoatrial node, AV node
B) Purkinje fibers, bundle of His, AV node, sinoatrial node
C) sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
D) atrioventricular node, bundle of His, sinoatrial node, Purkinje fibers



47. The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A) bundle of His
B) Purkinje fibers
C) atrioventricular node
D) sinoatrial node



48. Activation of the parasympathetic system
A) increases the heart rate
B) increases heart contractility
C) decreases the heart rate
D) decreases heart contractility



49. Exercise is often associated with
A) bradycardia
B) tachycardia
C) flutter
D) fibrillation



50. Mr. B’s pacemaker is malfunctioning, and his heart is beating 50 times a minute. Mr. B’s condition can be described as
A) bradycardia
B) tachycardia
C) flutter
D) fibrillation



51. The second heart sound, often interpreted as a “dup,” is largely caused by the
A) opening of the atrioventricular valves
B) closing of the atrioventricular valves
C) opening of the semilunar valves
D) closing of the semilunar valves



52. The ductus arteriosus is
A) an opening in a septum
B) a vessel present in the fetus
C) a rupture in an artery
D) a heart valve



53. A congenital narrowing of the aortic arch is called
A) pericarditis
B) coarctation
C) ischemia
D) occlusion



54. An area of tissue damaged by a heart attack is called a(n)
A) thrombosis
B) occlusion
C) infarct
D) plaque



55. Which of the following describes a risk factor for heart disease that can be modified?
A) Mr. J’s father died of atherosclerosis.
B) Mr. J smokes.
C) Mr. J is male.
D) Mr. J tends to deposit fat in abdomen.



56. Which of the following pieces of equipment uses x-rays to visualize structures?
A) echocardiograph
B) electrocardiograph
C) fluoroscope
D) stethoscope



57. Angioplasty is used to
A) open restricted arteries
B) restore a normal heart rhythm
C) slow down the heart
D) study the structure of the heart



58. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents are used to
A) increase heart rate and stroke volume
B) correct cardiac arrhythmias
C) dissolve blood clots
D) reduce the rate and strength of cardiac contractions



59. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what does bradyesthesia mean?
A) slow perception
B) fast perception
C) slow heart rate
D) fast heart rate



60. What does the word part scler/o mean?
A) soft
B) hard
C) slow
D) fast



61. Diagnosis of myocardial infarction can be made with electrocardiography and by blood tests for the enzyme
A) aminotransferase
B) creatine kinase MB
C) cholinesterase
D) maltase



62. Explain why the heart is described as a double pump.



63. Ms. M, a trained triathlete, has a cardiac output of 15 L/minute and a heart rate of 150 bpm when she exercises at intermediate intensity. A. How much blood does her right ventricle pump per minute? B. What is her stroke volume?



64. Mr. L suffered a myocardial infarction that incapacitated his sinoatrial node. His atrioventricular node is now acting as the pacemaker. How will his heartbeat differ from normal? What is the eventual treatment for his condition?



65. What is the difference between a myocardial infarction and angina pectoris? Use the following terms (or derivatives) in your answer: infarct, ischemia, thrombus, and occlusion.



66. Based on your knowledge of word parts from this and previous chapters, what does angiogenesis mean?



Chapter 15- Blood Vessels and Blood Circulation
1. Any vessel that carries blood away from the heart is called a(n) ___________.



2. The microscopic vessels that allow for exchanges between the blood and body cells are the ____________.



3. A small artery is called a(n) _____________.



4. The pulmonary circuit carries blood to the ___________.



5. The most inferior portion of the aorta is the ______________.



6. The vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle are the _____________.



7. The vessels that supply blood to the diaphragm are the _______________.



8. The first branch of the subclavian artery is the __________________.



9. A communication between any two vessels is called a(n) ________________.



10. The union of the radial and ulnar arteries in the hand forms the ___________________.



11. The longest vein of the body is the __________________ vein.



12. The ___________ veins drain the areas supplied by the carotid arteries.



13. The large vein that drains the upper part of the body and empties into the right atrium of the heart is the ______________.



14. The lumbar veins drain into the ___________ vena cava.



15. The azygos vein drains into the ___________ vena cava.



16. A large channel that drains deoxygenated blood is called a(n) _____________.



17. The dilated channels that drain the ophthalmic veins are called the __________.



18. A circulatory pathway that carries blood to a second capillary bed before it returns to the heart is called a(n) _____________.



19. The splenic vein drains into the ________________.



20. Fluid is drawn into capillaries as a result of ______________ pressure.



21. A decrease in the diameter of a blood vessel is termed _________________.



22. Arteriolar diameter is regulated by an area of the brain called the ___________ center.



23. The flaps in veins that ensure one-way flow of blood are called ___________.



24. Comparing men and women, the pulse rate is generally faster in ____________.



25. The two major determinants of blood pressure are peripheral resistance and _______________.



26. Blood pressure is measured manually by an instrument called a(n) __________________.



27. The blood pressure that occurs during heart muscle relaxation is called _____________ pressure.



28. High blood pressure is called __________________.



29. The enzyme produced in the kidneys that may play a role in essential hypertension by increasing water retention is called _________________.



30. Hardening of the arteries is technically known as ______________.



31. A weakened area of a blood vessel wall that bulges outward is called a(n) _______________.



32. Mr. M ripped his ear in a wrestling competition. The first-aid attendant attempted to diminish the bleeding by pressing the ______________ artery against the side of the skull.



33. Shock resulting from a significant decrease in blood volume is termed ________________.



34. The word part meaning diaphragm is _________.



35. Sensory receptors in the large arteries that respond to changes in blood pressure are called _______.



36. You are viewing a blood vessel under the microscope. You see three distinct layers, one of which is a thick muscular layer. The layers are separated by extensive elastic tissue. This vessel is most likely a(n)
A) capillary
B) arteriole
C) vein
D) artery



37. The blood vessels with the thinnest walls are the
A) capillaries
B) arterioles
C) veins
D) arteries



38. Which of the following vessels is found in the pulmonary circulation?
A) lung capillaries
B) aorta
C) superior vena cava
D) coronary arteries



39. The carotid arteries supply blood to the
A) arm
B) thorax
C) head
D) heart



40. Which of the following vessels supplies blood to the intestine?
A) axillary
B) mesenteric
C) suprarenal
D) tibial



41. The aorta ends when it branches into the
A) axillary arteries
B) inferior mesenteric arteries
C) common iliac arteries
D) testicular arteries



42. The __________ artery becomes the femoral artery.
A) external iliac
B) internal iliac
C) superior mesenteric
D) deep femoral



43. The phrenic, renal, and ovarian arteries are branches of the
A) aortic arch
B) ascending aorta
C) thoracic aorta
D) abdominal aorta



44. The superficial palmar arch is formed by the union of
A) the radial and ulnar arteries
B) branches of the mesenteric vessels
C) the internal carotid arteries and the basilar artery
D) the branches of the tibial arteries



45. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are in the
A) leg
B) thorax
C) arm
D) head



46. The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the union of the
A) femoral and iliac veins
B) subclavian and jugular veins
C) gastric and splenic veins
D) carotid and subclavian veins



47. Which of the following vessels drains into the superior vena cava?
A) lumbar vein
B) azygos vein
C) hepatic portal vein
D) femoral vein



48. A blood cell is journeying from the left thumb to the heart. It would probably NOT pass through the
A) left brachiocephalic vein
B) superior vena cava
C) left jugular vein
D) left subclavian vein



49. The vein that drains blood from the chest wall is the
A) gastric vein
B) inferior mesenteric vein
C) popliteal vein
D) azygos vein



50. Which of the following is NOT a cranial venous sinus?
A) superior sagittal sinus
B) confluence of sinuses
C) transverse sinus
D) coronary sinus



51. A system in which blood circulates through two capillary beds before returning to the heart is called a(n)
A) circulating system
B) portal system
C) sinus
D) anastomosis



52. The portal circulation does NOT receive blood from the
A) spleen
B) stomach
C) pancreas
D) kidney



53. The presence of albumin in capillary blood results in
A) osmotic pressure, drawing fluid into the capillary
B) osmotic pressure, pushing fluid out of the capillary
C) hydrostatic pressure, drawing fluid into the capillary
D) hydrostatic pressure, pushing fluid out of the capillary



54. Assuming that all other factors remain the same, increased blood pressure would most likely result in
A) increased interstitial fluid
B) decreased interstitial fluid
C) increased blood osmotic pressure
D) decreased blood osmotic pressure



55. The main process involved in capillary exchange is
A) pinocytosis
B) active transport
C) diffusion
D) phagocytosis



56. Which of the following does NOT help to move blood back to the heart?
A) vein valves
B) skeletal muscle contraction
C) chest expansion
D) vein dilation



57. More blood will flow into a capillary bed if
A) the precapillary sphincter is constricted
B) the precapillary sphincter is dilated
C) blood pressure decreases
D) the blood osmotic pressure increases



58. The pulse can be easily determined by palpating the
A) abdominal aorta
B) jugular vein
C) dorsalis pedis artery
D) posterior communicating artery



59. Among the following four individuals, the pulse rate would generally be highest in the
A) newborn girl
B) 10-year old boy
C) 70-year old man
D) 25-year old woman



60. Which of the following changes would increase blood pressure?
A) reduced stroke volume
B) increased vasodilation
C) increased blood viscosity
D) reduced heart rate



61. Blood pressure readings are reported as
A) cardiac output/peripheral resistance
B) systolic pressure/diastolic pressure
C) diastolic pressure/systolic pressure
D) peripheral resistance/cardiac output



62. Diastolic pressure
A) averages about 120 mm Hg
B) occurs during relaxation of the heart muscle
C) cannot be measured by a sphygmomanometer
D) is highest in the capillaries



63. Ms. L has a blood pressure reading of 125/75 mm Hg. What is her diastolic pressure?
A) 125 mm Hg
B) 200 mm Hg
C) 100 mm Hg
D) 75 mm Hg



64. High blood pressure that has no apparent medical cause is called
A) essential hypertension
B) hypotension
C) atherosclerosis
D) phlebitis



65. Which of the following drugs would NOT be used to treat hypertension?
A) a drug that relaxes blood vessels
B) a drug that inhibits renin production
C) a diuretic
D) a drug that increases heart rate



66. A clot that breaks loose and floats in the blood is called a(n)
A) aneurysm
B) thrombus
C) embolus
D) plaque



67. Vein inflammation is called
A) phlebitis
B) arteriosclerosis
C) atherosclerosis
D) venosclerosis



68. ML has cut her knee, which is bleeding profusely. The emergency medical technician tried to slow the bleeding by applying pressure to the
A) subclavian artery
B) femoral artery
C) peroneal artery
D) dorsalis pedis



69. A severe allergic reaction can result in
A) anaphylactic shock
B) hypovolemic shock
C) cardiogenic shock
D) septic shock



70. Shock is a condition in which
A) blood pressure is abnormally high.
B) blood flow to the body tissues is inadequate
C) the vein valves become inflamed
D) fatty deposits form in arteries



71. Based on your knowledge of word parts, an intestinal cell would most likely be called a(n)
A) enterocyte
B) stomacyte
C) hepatocyte
D) phrenocyte



72. List the route a blood cell would take to travel from the left ventricle to the diaphragm.



73. While traveling through the Milky Way, you meet an alien surprisingly like yourself. One of the few differences is that the alien does not have a hepatic portal system. Instead, the relevant blood vessels drain directly into the inferior vena cava. Discuss the implications of this structural change in terms of nutrient processing.



74. Mr. J is taking your pulse. He places his thumb on your wrist, counts under his breath, and announces that your pulse rate is 137. Is this an accurate measurement? Explain why or why not.



75. Mr. Q, aged 72, has a blood pressure reading of 90/60 mm Hg and complains of dizziness, cold extremities, and episodes of fainting. A. What is his systolic pressure? B. What is his diastolic pressure? C. What is the term that defines lower-than-normal blood pressure? D. Which cardiovascular factors could be modified to increase Mr. Q’s blood pressure?



76. Severe shock is often associated with a rapid heart rate. Explain why.




Chapter 16- The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Tissue
1. The nutrient type that is absorbed into lymphatic capillaries instead of blood capillaries is ______________.



2. The fluid that surrounds cells is called ____________________.



3. The fluid that is carried in the lymphatic system is called ___________________.



4. The special capillaries in the small intestine that absorb digested nutrients are the ___________________.



5. The tissue that makes up the lymphatic capillaries is called _________________.



6. The large lymphatic vessel that drains all of the body except the upper right portion is named the ___________________.



7. The enlarged portion of the thoracic duct is called the _______________.



8. The indented portion of lymph nodes that serves as an exit site for lymphatic vessels is called the __________.



9. The tonsils located on either side of the soft palate are the ___________________.



10. The pharyngeal tonsil is also called the ________________.



11. A small mass of tissue along the path of a lymphatic vessel is called a ___________.



12. The _______________ lymph nodes are found in the neck.



13. The hormone produced by the thymus gland is called ___________________.



14. Macrophages found in the lungs are called ____________.



15. The system consisting of monocytes and macrophages that destroy worn-out blood cells, bacteria, and cancer cells is called the _________________.



16. The general term for any disease of the lymph nodes is ___________________.



17. Surgical removal of the spleen is known as ___________________.



18. Lymph vessel blockage by filariae results in a disease called ______________.



19. Inflammation of lymphatic vessels is known as _________________.



20. A common form of malignant lymphoma in which Reed-Sternberg cells are not present in biopsied lymph nodes is __________________.



21. A word part meaning gland is _______________.



22. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?
A) oxygen delivery to tissues
B) absorption of digested fats
C) transport of absorbed amino acids from the intestine to the liver
D) thermoregulation



23. Which of the following substances would NOT be found in lymph?
A) proteins
B) water
C) lymphocytes
D) red blood cells



24. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of lymphatic vessels?
A) They have thin walls.
B) They are blind-ended.
C) They can contract to propel lymph.
D) They transport lymph to the tissues.



25. Which of the following lymphatic vessels drains into the right lymphatic duct?
A) right mammary vessels
B) right tibial vessels
C) right iliac vessels
D) right femoral vessels



26. Which of the following lymphatic vessels drains into the thoracic duct?
A) right cervical vessels
B) right occipital vessels
C) right femoral vessels
D) right cubital vessels



27. Lymphatic vessels located just below the skin are described as
A) thoracic
B) superficial
C) terminal
D) deep



28. The veins that receive lymph from the two terminal lymphatic vessels are the
A) pulmonary veins
B) subclavian veins
C) carotid veins
D) brachial veins



29. Lymph from the arm and breast passes through the
A) inguinal nodes
B) cervical nodes
C) axillary nodes
D) tracheobronchial nodes



30. The lymph nodes in the knee are called the
A) popliteal nodes
B) tibial nodes
C) inguinal nodes
D) mesenteric nodes



31. Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
A) destruction of old red blood cells
B) removal of impurities
C) storage of blood
D) absorption of digested fats



32. The trabecula, subcapsular sinus, and hilum are found in the
A) lymph nodes
B) spleen
C) thymus
D) adenoids



33. T cells develop in the
A) spleen
B) thymus
C) bone marrow
D) tonsils



34. Peyer patches are part of the
A) lymphatic system
D) All of the answers are correct.



35. The small mounds of lymphoid tissue found at the back of the tongue are called the
A) adenoids
B) palatine tonsils
C) pharyngeal tonsils
D) lingual tonsils



36. Macrophages are phagocytes that develop from
A) monocytes
B) platelets
C) basophils
D) neutrophils



37. Kupffer cells are phagocytes located in the
A) spleen
B) lung
C) tonsils
D) liver



38. Splenomegaly is
A) enlargement of the spleen
B) removal of the spleen
C) congenital absence of the spleen
D) atrophy of the spleen



39. Inflammation of the lymph nodes is called
A) lymphedema
B) lymphangitis
C) lymphadenitis
D) lymphectomy



40. Hodgkin disease is
A) a benign tumor of the lymph nodes
B) a malignant tumor of the lymph nodes
C) a benign tumor of the spleen
D) a malignant tumor of the spleen



41. The word part –megaly means
A) excessive enlargement
B) surgical removal
C) gland
D) resembling



42. Discuss the locations and roles of valves in the lymphatic system.



43. Compare and contrast veins and lymphatic vessels.



44. Mr. L received a gunshot wound to the abdomen that necessitated a splenectomy. Discuss the functions of the spleen, and speculate about the possible implications of this surgery.



45. Based on your knowledge of word parts, define adenopathy.




Chapter 17- Body Defenses, Immunity, and Vaccines
1. The power of an organism to produce disease is called its _________________.



2. An individual’s condition, or susceptibility to disease, is called his/her _______________.



3. Hairlike extensions that sweep impurities out of the respiratory tract are called __________.



4. White blood cells take in foreign material by the process of     _______________.



5. The substance released during the inflammatory reaction that causes small blood vessels to dilate is ___________.



6. The mixture of leukocytes and fluid that forms in an inflamed region is called the ___________.



7. JL has a cat with distemper. The veterinarian tells her that there is no chance that she will catch her cat’s disease. JL’s immunity to feline distemper is called _____________.



8. A foreign substance that enters the body and induces an immune response is a(n) _______________.



9. A circulating protein that binds a specific antigen is called a(n) ________________.



10. Lymphocytes that suppress the immune response are called _________________.



11. The process by which a T cell acquires the ability to combine with a specific antigen is called ____________.



12. Following exposure to an antigen, B cells differentiate into either plasma cells or ____________ cells.



13. Antibodies are secreted by a type of B cell called _______________ cells.



14. Antibodies are contained in the plasma portion called the ________________.



15. A pathogen coated with antibodies may be destroyed by a group of nonspecific blood proteins called ____________.



16. Immunity gained through the placenta is passive ______________ adaptive immunity.



17. Immunity gained following a vaccination is _______________ artificial adaptive immunity.



18. A solution used for immunization is called a(n) ____________________.



19. An altered toxin used to induce immunity is called a(n) _________________.



20. The MMR vaccine protects against mumps, measles, and ________________.



21. A solution containing antibodies that is administered to provide short-term immunity is called a(n) __________.



22. A normally harmless substance that induces an inappropriate immune response is called a(n) _____________.



23. The medical term for the skin rash called hives is __________________.



24. An immune reaction to a substance that is normally harmless to most people is termed a(n) _______________.



25. Diseases in which the immune system perceives one’s own cells as foreign are collectively called ____________ diseases.



26. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused by a pathogen called _____________.



27. Treatment of cancer by stimulation of a patient’s immune system is termed _________________.



28. A common response to tissue transplantation, in which antibodies are produced against the transplanted tissue, is ________________.



29. The word part tox means ______________.



30. JL and ML are identical twins and are thus genetically identical. JL is experiencing severe stress from exams and a failed relationship, whereas ML is having a wonderful time working as a lifeguard. JL catches a cold, but ML, despite repeated exposure, does not. JL and ML differ in terms of their
A) predisposition
B) virulence
C) individual immunity
D) portal of entry



31. In a particular population, two strains of influenza have been identified that enter the body through the mucous membranes of the nose and mouth. One strain produces only mild symptoms and is not very contagious. The other strain incapacitates sufferers for 3 weeks and is highly contagious. These two strains differ in their
A) predisposition
B) virulence
C) portal of entry
D) None of the answers are correct.



32. Which of the following cells or substances participates in nonspecific immune defenses?
A) natural killer cells
B) antibodies
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) None of the answers are correct.



33. The inflammatory reaction and interferon participate in
A) humoral immunity
B) cell-mediated immunity
C) population immunity
D) nonspecific defenses



34. A substance that causes blood vessels to dilate is
A) interferon
B) complement
C) histamine
D) antibody



35. Which of the following is NOT a classic symptom of inflammation?
A) redness
B) swelling
C) heat
D) cyanosis



36. Which of the following statements illustrates species immunity?
A) Hypertension is more prevalent in African American populations than in Caucasian populations.
B) A low dose of a pathogen may fail to produce an infection.
C) Ms. J suffers from cold sores, but her boyfriend does not despite repeated exposure.
D) Mr. L has the measles, but his dog will not catch the measles despite repeated exposure.



37. An immunoglobulin is a(n)
A) venin
B) antibody
C) toxoid
D) antigen



38. Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
A) helper cell
B) plasma cell
C) cytotoxic cell
D) memory cell



39. Ms. Q suffers from an autoimmune disease in which her immune system is excessively active. The rheumatologist suggests that her disease may be caused by a lack of
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) plasma cells
C) regulatory T cells
D) memory cells



40. Humoral immunity results from the action of
A) mucus
B) interferons
C) plasma cells
D) cytotoxic T cells



41. Macrophages participate in
A) phagocytosis
B) antigen presentation
C) immunity
D) All of the answers are correct.



42. T cells are activated by binding proteins on the macrophages called
A) MHC receptors and antigen fragments
B) MHC receptors alone
C) MHC receptors and immunoglobulins
D) immunoglobulins and antigen fragments



43. Which of the following would NOT be induced by the antibody-antigen reaction?
A) pathogen agglutination
B) complement recruitment
C) interferon production
D) NK cell activation



44. ALL processes that involve an injection result in a form of immunity called
A) natural adaptive immunity
B) passive immunity
C) active immunity
D) artificial adaptive immunity



45. A process that results in antibody production by the recipient induces a form of immunity called
A) active immunity
B) nonspecific immunity
C) passive immunity
D) immunotherapy



46. Which of the following is used to confer passive immunity?
A) toxoid
B) vaccine
D) antiserum



47. An attenuated organism is
A) weakened
B) killed
C) dormant
D) toxic



48. Immunization against Haemophilus influenzae type B protects children against
A) rabies
B) meningitis
C) whooping cough
D) All of the answers are correct.



49. Vaccinations can contain
A) antitoxins
B) antivenins
C) toxoids
D) All of the answers are correct.



50. An immune serum can contain
A) antibodies
B) antivenins
C) antitoxins
D) All of the answers are correct.



51. Administration of an immune serum induces a form of immunity called
A) natural adaptive passive immunity
B) artificial adaptive passive immunity
C) natural adaptive active immunity
D) artificial adaptive active immunity



52. A sensitivity reaction in a human receiving animal antiserum is called
A) rejection syndrome
B) serum sickness
C) autoimmunity
D) hay fever



53. A substance that provokes an allergic reaction is a(n)
A) antigen
B) allergen
C) protein, usually
D) All of the answers are correct.



54. Abnormal reactivity to one’s own tissues is called
A) anaphylaxis
B) autoimmunity
C) allergy
D) rejection syndrome



55. Rejection syndrome can occur as a result of
A) administration of immune serum
B) transplantation
C) autoimmunity
D) vaccination



56. A cancer of the blood-forming cells in bone marrow is
A) Hodgkin disease
B) multiple myeloma
C) lymphoma
D) Kaposi sarcoma



57. Cancer treatments that attempt to stimulate the patient’s immune system are called
A) immunotherapy
B) immune surveillance
C) transplantation
D) complement



58. Mr. D suffers from malignant melanoma. His physician is trying a revolutionary treatment in which antigen-presenting cells are extracted, injected with some of Mr. D’s tumor, and re-injected into Mr. D’s bloodstream. The goal of the treatment is to activate cytotoxic T cells to seek out and destroy the tumor. This treatment is an example of
A) chemotherapy
B) radiation
C) immunotherapy
D) immune surveillance



59. The transfer of a cornea from a cadaver to a living recipient would be defined as
A) transplantation
B) vaccination
C) immunization
D) inflammation



60. Ms. C has recently received a heart transplant. Unfortunately, she is producing large quantities of antibodies against antigens in the donor heart. Ms. C is suffering from
A) serum sickness
B) acquired immune deficiency syndrome
C) allergy
D) rejection syndrome



61. List the four classic symptoms of inflammation, and describe the cause of each symptom.



62. Describe the events that occur after a B cell is exposed to its specific antigen.



63. Mr. Z has a rare disorder in which he does not produce memory cells. What are memory cells, and what will be the effect of this disorder?



64. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what does myelotoxin mean?




Chapter 18- Respiratory System
1. Respiratory gases move across membranes from higher concentration to lower concentration. This simple physical process is called ____________.



2. The movement of gases between the alveoli and the blood is called the ________________ exchange of gases.



3. The membrane around the lung is the ____________.



4. The small air sacs in the lungs through which gases are exchanged are the ____________.



5. The part of the respiratory tract that contains the vocal cords is the ____________.



6. The leaf-shaped cartilage that covers the larynx during swallowing is the ____________.



7. A small subdivision of a bronchus is a(n) ____________.



8. The ease with which one can expand the lungs and thorax is called ________________.



9. The active phase of normal, relaxed breathing is ______________.



10. Inhalation is enabled by contraction of a large dome-shaped muscle called the _____________.



11. The iron-containing protein that carries oxygen in the blood is ____________.



12. The enzyme involved in the conversion of carbon dioxide into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions is called ____________.



13. The nerve that stimulates the diaphragm is the ____________.



14. A rise in the blood level of carbon dioxide is called ________________.



15. The amount of air moved into or out of the lungs in quiet breathing is the ____________.



16. Ms. L is breathing rapidly during a road race. This altered breathing pattern is called _____________.



17. A lower-than-normal oxygen concentration in arterial blood is termed _______________.



18. Small tumors that form as a result of chronic sinusitis are called _____________.



19. Young RS, age 2, is suffering from an upper respiratory infection. She wakes up in the night with a loud barking cough and breathing difficulties. RS is likely suffering from the condition commonly known as ___________.



20. The medical term for hay fever is ________________.



21. COPD stands for chronic __________ pulmonary disease.



22. Alveoli are destroyed in sufferers of the chronic disease called ___________.



23. Premature babies can suffer from a collapsed lung, or ________________, as a result of insufficient surfactant production.



24. A malignant lung cancer originating in a bronchus is called ________________.



25. The process by which fluid is removed from the pleural space is called _____________.



26. The technique used on a person who is not breathing and does not have a heartbeat is _____________.



27. A __________________ can be used to examine the respiratory tract and take a biopsy of a lung tumor.



28. The word part or/o means __________________.



29. The diaphragm contracts during the phase of respiration called
A) external exchange of gases
B) internal exchange of gases
C) pulmonary ventilation
D) gas transport



30. At the lungs,
A) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse from the blood into the alveoli
B) oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli
C) carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood and oxygen diffuses into the alveoli
D) both oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse from the alveoli into the blood



31. The most superior portion of the pharynx is the
A) laryngeal pharynx
B) septum
C) nasopharynx
D) oropharynx



32. Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to the tissue that lines the trachea?
A) epithelial
B) squamous
C) pseudostratified
D) columnar



33. The pleural space is located
A) between neighboring alveoli
B) between the layers of the membrane covering the lungs
C) between the ribs
D) in the nasal cavity



34. The Adam’s apple is formed by the
A) thyroid cartilage
B) glottis
C) cricoid cartilage
D) hyoid bone



35. Cartilage rings surround the
A) esophagus
B) trachea
C) alveoli
D) nasal cavities



36. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the mediastinum?
A) heart
B) lungs
C) esophagus
D) lymph nodes



37. Which of the following structures is part of the nasal septum?
A) vomer
B) conchae
C) nasopharynx
D) All of the answers are correct.



38. The amount of air that can be expelled from the lungs by maximum exhalation following maximum inhalation is the
A) vital capacity
B) total lung capacity
C) residual volume
D) forced vital capacity



39. The neck and abdominal muscles are involved in a
A) quiet exhalation
B) forceful exhalation
C) quiet inspiration
D) None of the answers are correct.



40. Most of the carbon dioxide transported in the blood is carried
A) dissolved in plasma
B) bound to hemoglobin
C) bound to albumin
D) in the form of bicarbonate ions



41. Oxygen moves from the lungs into the blood via
A) diffusion
B) active transport
C) endocytosis
D) pinocytosis



42. Chemoreceptors that regulate breathing are located in the
A) brachiocephalic vein and superior vena cava
B) carotid artery and aorta
C) cerebellum and pons
D) coronary sinus and alveoli



43. The substance that binds to the central chemoreceptors is
A) carbon dioxide
B) hydrogen ions
C) bicarbonate ions
D) oxygen



44. Orthopnea means
A) a breathing difficulty that is relieved by sitting upright
B) cessation of breathing
C) difficult or labored breathing
D) rhythmic variation in breathing



45. Which of the following breathing patterns would result in the greatest increase in blood acidity?
A) apnea
B) tachypnea
C) hyperpnea
D) dyspnea



46. Hypoxemia is
A) excess carbon dioxide in the blood
B) deficiency of oxygen in the blood
C) excess oxygen in the tissues
D) excess oxygen in the blood



47. Epistaxis is the medical term for
A) a runny nose
B) a nosebleed
C) a cough
D) the common cold



48. An example of an upper respiratory infection is
A) pneumonia
B) acute coryza
D) tuberculosis



49. The fluid that accumulates in the alveoli of patients with pneumonia is called
A) serum
B) exudate
C) blood
D) mucus



50. Which of the following is NOT associated with an allergic response?
A) hay fever
B) asthma
C) allergic rhinitis
D) acute coryza



51. The C in COPD stands for
A) congestive
B) chronic
C) cumulative
D) compliant



52. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with COPD?
A) dilation and destruction of alveoli
B) chronic inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles
C) formation of tubercles
D) dyspnea



53. The term pneumothorax refers to accumulation of air in the
A) alveoli
B) bronchi
C) pericardial space
D) pleural space



54. Air or fluid may be removed from the pleural space by
A) hemothorax
C) tracheostomy
D) thoracentesis



55. An incision into the trachea is called a
A) bronchoscopy
B) tracheostomy
C) tracheotomy
D) thoracentesis



56. Ms. L was pulled from the ocean unconscious. She is not breathing but has a strong heartbeat and no evidence of any obstruction. The best treatment for Ms. L is
A) pneumonectomy
B) artificial respiration
C) oxygen therapy
D) tracheotomy



57. The word part that means breathing is
A) pleur/o
B) pneum/o
C) pneumon/o
D) spir/o



58. Discuss the importance of the pleurae in pulmonary ventilation.



59. Would a deficiency in hemoglobin be more detrimental to oxygen transport or carbon dioxide transport? Explain.



60. Mr. J has an increase in the acidity of his cerebrospinal fluid. How will this change in blood pH affect his breathing pattern? Explain the mechanism involved.



61. Compare and contrast emphysema and chronic bronchitis.




Chapter 19- Digestive System
1. The process by which complex nutrients are broken down into smaller components is called ___________.



2. The three main functions of the digestive system are digestion, absorption, and _____________.



3. Goblet cells are found in the layer of the digestive tract wall called the ____________.



4. The outermost layer of the digestive tract wall is called the _______________.



5. The layer of a serous membrane that covers organs is called the ___________ layer.



6. The serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and folds over the abdominal organs is the __________.



7. The crown of the tooth is covered with a very hard substance called ___________.



8. The teeth between the incisors and the molars are called the __________.



9. The first part of the small intestine is the __________.



10. The small tube containing lymphoid tissue that is attached to the cecum is the __________.



11. The longitudinal muscle in the wall of the large intestine forms bands called ____________.



12. The largest of the salivary glands are the __________.



13. Glycogen is stored in the accessory digestive organ called the ____________.



14. The abdominal gland that secretes glucagon and digestive enzymes is the ___________.



15. The substance that is synthesized in the liver and emulsifies fat is called ______________.



16. The muscular organ that stores bile is called the _____________.



17. The ____________ delivers bile to the duodenum.



18. The enzyme that digests starch is called ______________.



19. Individual nucleotides are produced by the actions of enzymes called _____________.



20. In digestion, large food molecules are split into their building blocks using water and enzymes. The term for this process is __________.



21. The enzyme that breaks down lactose is called ___________.



22. Glycerol is produced from the breakdown of _______________.



23. Trypsin breaks down proteins into _____________.



24. The process by which nutrients pass from the digestive tract into the blood is called ____________.



25. The millions of tiny fingerlike projections in the lining of the small intestine are called __________.



26. Fats are usually absorbed into a specialized vessel called a(n) ___________.



27. The hormone that increases stomach motility and secretion is called ______________.



28. Contraction of the gallbladder is stimulated by an intestinal hormone called ______________.



29. A yellowish coloration caused by liver disease is called __________.



30. Inflammation of the liver is called __________.



31. Inflammation of the stomach and the intestine is termed __________.



32. The word part hepat/o refers to the ____________.



33. Which of the following is the correct order of tissue from the outermost to the innermost layer in the wall of the digestive tract?
A) submucosa, serous membrane, smooth muscle, mucous membrane
B) smooth muscle, serous membrane, mucous membrane, submucosa
C) serous membrane, smooth muscle, submucosa, mucosa
D) mucous membrane, submucosa, smooth muscle, serous membrane



34. The layer of the digestive tract wall that forms the teniae coli is the
A) mucosa
B) serosa
C) smooth muscle layer
D) submucosa



35. Which of the following is NOT a subdivision of the peritoneum?
A) endothelium
B) mesentery
C) greater omentum
D) mesocolon



36. The lesser omentum is between the
A) pancreas and spleen
B) stomach and liver
C) liver and gallbladder
D) cecum and appendix



37. The portion of the peritoneum attached to the small intestine is the
A) lesser omentum
B) mesentery
C) greater omentum
D) mesocolon



38. The normal number of cuspids in the adult mouth is
A) 1
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12



39. The hardest substance found in a tooth is
A) enamel
B) dentin
C) gingiva
D) pulp



40. The pyloric sphincter regulates the flow of food into the
A) stomach
B) jejunum
C) duodenum
D) esophagus



41. The vermiform appendix is attached to the
A) duodenum
B) rectum
C) sigmoid colon
D) cecum



42. The portion of the large intestine that empties into the rectum is the
A) sigmoid colon
B) anus
C) transverse colon
D) descending colon



43. The waste product of protein metabolism that is synthesized in the liver is
A) bilirubin
B) bile
C) glycogen
D) urea



44. The salivary glands under the tongue are called the
A) submandibular glands
B) sublingual glands
C) parotid glands
D) submaxillary glands



45. Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of
A) albumin
B) white blood cells
C) red blood cells
D) urea



46. Which of the following functions is accomplished by bile?
A) conversion of fats into glycerol and fatty acids
B) emulsification of proteins
C) emulsification of fats
D) All of the answers are correct.



47. The cystic duct and common hepatic duct merge to form the
A) pancreatic duct
B) common bile duct
C) biliary duct
D) hepatic vein



48. Which of the following substances is a protease?
A) lipase
B) hydrochloric acid
C) lactase
D) trypsin



49. Which of the following enzymes is NOT synthesized by the pancreas?
A) amylase
B) pepsin
C) lipase
D) trypsin



50. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) activates a protein-digesting enzyme produced in the
A) pancreas
B) esophagus
C) stomach
D) duodenum



51. Your dog has just consumed a large pat of butter. Most of the nutrients in the butter will be absorbed in the form of
A) amino acids
B) sugars
C) glycerol and free fatty acids
D) nucleotides



52. You are eating a mixed meal consisting of protein, carbohydrate, and fat. Which nutrient type will be absorbed into the lacteals?
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) fat
D) None of the answers are correct.



53. Most nutrients are absorbed in the
A) stomach
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) mouth



54. Folds in the cell membrane of intestinal cells are called
A) villi
B) rugae
C) microvilli
D) teniae coli



55. When highly acidic chyme arrives in the duodenum, which substance will neutralize the acidity?
A) trypsin
B) bicarbonate
C) bile
D) water



56. Which of the following hormones acts on the pancreas?
A) gastric-inhibitory peptide
B) cholecystokinin
C) secretin
D) All of the answers are correct.



57. Secretin and cholecystokinin are hormones produced in the
A) stomach
B) gallbladder
C) liver
D) duodenum



58. Caries is the scientific name for
A) indigestion
B) inflammation of the gums
C) tooth decay
D) inflammation of the salivary glands



59. The viral disease mumps is an example of
A) parotitis
B) gastritis
C) periodontitis
D) emesis



60. The formation of stones in the gallbladder is called
A) cholecystitis
B) cholelithiasis
C) pancreatitis
D) peritonitis



61. Dr. W has discovered a new hormone. He names the hormone enteromodulin because it is synthesized in the
A) stomach
B) liver
C) intestine
D) pancreas



62. The hepatic portal system carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. Explain why this is necessary.



63. Discuss the role of bile in digestion.



64. You have prepared a sandwich consisting of ham (protein), whole-wheat bread (starch), and butter (fat). Just for fun, you incubate your sandwich with lipase for 1 hour. After the hour, which portions of your sandwich will be appreciably digested? Explain your answer.



65. Compare and contrast protein digestion in the stomach and in the small intestine. Discuss the enzymes and other factors involved as well as hormones regulating these enzymes.



66. Many digestive processes are regulated by feedback. Discuss this statement, referring to the secretion and action of secretin.




Chapter 20- Metabolism, Nutrition, and Body Temperature
1. Any reactions in which complex substances are broken down into simpler ones are described as ________________.



2. The phase of metabolism in which food components are built into body materials is ____________.



3. Chemical reactions that require oxygen are described as _____________.



4. The process of glycolysis terminates the production of an organic compound called _______________.



5. The aerobic phase of cellular respiration occurs in the cell organelle called the _________________.



6. The amount of energy needed to maintain life when a person is sleeping is called the ______________.



7. The units used to measure the metabolic rate are ______________.



8. The storage form of glucose is __________________.



9. The nutrient type that yields the largest amount of ATP per gram is _____________.



10. Calories consumed in excess of requirements are stored in tissue called ____________.



11. Amino acids and fatty acids that can be synthesized by the body are described as ________________.



12. Retinol is also known as vitamin ________.



13. A deficiency in the vitamin called __________ can result in neural tube defects in the embryo.



14. Minerals that are required in the diet in very small amounts are called ________________.



15. Fats should make up no more than ___________ % of the calories in the diet.



16. Blood glucose levels normally range from 85 to ___ mg/dL during the day.



17. Glucose is a monosaccharide, whereas starches are _________________.



18. Fats containing many double bonds and that are liquid at room temperature are described as _______________.



19. Fatty acids to which hydrogen atoms have been artificially added are called ________________.



20. The body can metabolize approximately ____ ounce(s) of pure alcohol per hour.



21. Severe malnutrition in infancy is termed ______________.



22. A BMI between 25 and ____ is defined as overweight.



23. The abbreviation BMI stands for _____________________.



24. In an exercising individual, the tissue generating the most heat is _______________.



25. The part of the brain involved in the regulation of body temperature is the _______________.



26. In cold weather, superficial blood vessels _______________ to minimize heat loss.



27. A drug that is used to fight fever is called a(n) _________________.



28. An excessively low body temperature is called _________________.



29. The word part –pyr/o can be best defined as _____________.



30. For the first time ever, the latest USDA Food Guide Pyramid includes the vital importance of __________as a component in maintaining a healthy lifestyle.



31. Which of the following is an example of a catabolic reaction?
A) Free fatty acids and glycerol are converted into triglycerides.
B) Starches and glycogen are converted into glucose.
C) Tryptophan and histidine are converted into a peptide.
D) Two glucose molecules are converted into maltose.



32. The end products of cellular respiration are
A) pyruvic acid and oxygen
B) water and glucose
C) carbon dioxide and water
D) lactic acid and pyruvic acid



33. The anaerobic phase of metabolism yields how many ATP molecules per glucose?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 32
D) 36



34. Which situation describes the measurement of basal metabolism?
A) Ms. J measures her energy output while jogging.
B) Mr. D measures his energy requirements while he is sleeping.
C) Ms. G measures her energy output while eating popcorn.
D) All of the answers are correct.



35. The compound that will generate ATP without further digestion is
A) glycogen
B) starch
C) cellulose
D) glucose



36. Fats are made of fatty acids and
A) glucose
B) glycogen
C) glycerol
D) minerals



37. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the relative caloric content of different nutrients?
A) Proteins, fats, and sugars yield the same amount of energy per gram.
B) Proteins yield more energy per gram than fats or sugars.
C) Fats yield more energy per gram than sugars or proteins.
D) Sugars yield more energy per gram than fats or proteins.



38. An essential amino acid
A) can be synthesized in the body
B) cannot be used for energy
C) must be ingested in the diet
D) All of the answers are correct.



39. A mineral found in hemoglobin is
A) sodium
B) iron
C) zinc
D) calcium



40. Which of the following is a mineral?
A) folate
B) biotin
C) cobalt
D) calciferol



41. Vitamin B2 is
A) folate
B) thiamin
C) riboflavin
D) retinol



42. Rickets can result from a deficiency in
A) vitamin D
B) calciferol
C) calcium
D) All of the answers are correct.



43. Conventional nutritional guidelines suggest that daily caloric intake should be divided between the three nutrient types as
A) 60% protein, 20% fat, 20% carbohydrate
B) 33% fat, 33% carbohydrate, 33% protein
C) 55% carbohydrate, 15% protein, 30% fat
D) 55% carbohydrate, 30% protein, 15% fat



44. The lowest glycemic effect would most likely result from the consumption of
A) a slice of white toast
B) six hard candies
C) one sweet potato
D) one half-cup of white rice



45. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A) lactose
B) sucrose
C) cellulose
D) glucose



46. Saturated fats
A) can be hydrogenated to form trans-fatty acids
B) are usually solid at room temperature
C) are always derived from plants
D) All of the answers are correct.



47. Which of the following statements about alcohol is true?
A) Alcohol is a nutrient.
B) Alcohol metabolism does not yield energy.
C) Alcohol interferes with the activity of liver enzymes.
D) All of the statements are true.



48. Low levels of blood protein and the presence of ascites fluid in the abdomen is characteristic of children with
A) obesity
B) kwashiorkor
C) cirrhosis
D) rickets



49. Most body heat is lost through the
A) lungs
B) urine
C) feces
D) skin



50. Which of the following is NOT a process for heat loss from the body?
A) oxidation
B) conduction
C) radiation
D) evaporation



51. The normal body temperature is about
A) 25°C
B) 37°C
C) 37°F
D) 97°C



52. A body temperature of 99°F would most likely induce
A) shivering
B) sweating
C) constriction of skin arterioles
D) None of the answers are correct.



53. A sudden fall in temperature that follows a fever is called the
A) lysis
B) pyresis
C) crisis
D) antipyresis



54. Ms. J was hiking in the Andes wearing too many clothes. She has a headache and a rapid pulse, and she is sweating profusely. Ms. J is most likely suffering from
A) heat exhaustion
B) heat cramps
C) heat stroke
D) hypothermia



55. Based on your knowledge of word parts, the term glycogenolysis most likely means
A) the synthesis of glycogen
B) the breakdown of glycogen
C) an anabolic reaction involving glucose
D) a catabolic reaction involving proteins



56. Compare and contrast glucose metabolism in a muscle cell that has adequate oxygen supplies and a cell that is oxygen-deficient.



57. Mr. T has developed a completely fat-free diet plan. He claims that it is not necessary to eat fat because the body can synthesize fat from other substances. Discuss the validity of his claim based on information presented in this chapter.



58. Alcohol can cause both obesity and malnutrition. Explain why.



59. You are sitting by the pool in your bathing suit. There is no wind, and you feel quite warm. After a brief swim, you exit the pool to discover that someone stole your towel. Moreover, the wind is blowing, and you feel very cold. Compare and define the processes of heat loss from the skin that are occurring before and after your swim.



60. Young Ms. S has a mild fever and is suffering from a bacterial infection. Her mother wants to treat the fever, but her father, a physiology student, recommends that the fever be allowed to continue. What is the rationale behind the father’s decision?




Chapter 21- Body Fluids
1. Water moves readily between fluid compartments by the process of ____________.



2. Any fluid outside cells is called _______________ fluid.



3. The fluid in joint cavities is called ______________.



4. The fluid in the central nervous system is called ______________.



5. The abdominal organ that controls salt excretion is the ___________.



6. The thirst center is located in the ______________.



7. Excessive thirst is called _______________.



8. The anion found in DNA and RNA is _______________.



9. The anion critically involved in bone formation is ____________.



10. The major hormone that decreases blood calcium levels is produced in the ___________.



11. Aldosterone is produced in the ________________.



12. The hormone that increases water reabsorption, but not sodium reabsorption, in the kidney is _____________.



13. High blood calcium stimulates the release of ________________.



14. A substance that helps to maintain a constant pH of a solution is a(n) _______________.



15. The kidneys are involved in pH regulation by altering the excretion of _____________ cations.



16. The gas that lowers blood pH is called _____________.



17. Prolonged vomiting can result in metabolic _______________.



18. Emphysema can be associated with an acid-base disorder called ____________.



19. Mr. B suffers from chronic heartburn. He ingests large quantities of antacids and complains of tingling sensations and muscle twitches. He is probably suffering from an acid-base disorder called__________.



20. The accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called ________.



21. The dilution of body fluids resulting from excessive water intake is called ______________.



22. Any escape of fluid into a cavity or space is called a(n) _______________.



23. A solution that draws water out of cells is described as ________________.



24. The sugar that is commonly administered intravenously is called ___________.



25. A word part meaning “poison” is ____________.



26. The hormone __________ in atrial myocardial cells causes the kidneys to excrete water and sodium, thus reducing blood pressure.



27. Lymph
A) is found inside cells
B) is particularly rich in potassium ions
C) constitutes approximately 1% of a person’s body weight
D) None of the answers are correct.



28. The vitreous and aqueous humors are found in the
A) joints
B) brain
C) blood vessels
D) eye



29. The primary cation in the interstitial fluid is
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) potassium
D) phosphate



30. Water volume is maintained at a constant level by the actions of
A) the hypothalamus
B) buffers
C) calcitonin
D) All of the answers are correct.



31. The concentration of electrolytes in body fluids is regulated by the actions of
A) the hypothalamus
B) buffers
C) calcitonin
D) All of the answers are correct.



32. The kidney does NOT directly influence
A) fluid volume
B) the plasma sodium concentration
C) the plasma carbon dioxide concentration
D) the plasma calcium concentration



33. The most important osmoreceptors are located in the
A) kidney
B) hypothalamus
C) heart
D) cerebellum



34. The activity of the thirst center will be increased if
A) blood osmolarity is increased
B) calcium ions are less concentrated in the blood
C) urine output is abnormally low
D) blood volume is increased



35. A cation that plays a major role in bone formation is
A) phosphate
B) calcium
C) sodium
D) potassium



36. The most abundant anion in plasma membranes is
A) phosphate
B) calcium
C) chloride
D) potassium



37. Aldosterone
A) stimulates the production of large amounts of urine
B) increases sodium retention by the kidney
C) acts on osmoreceptors to stimulate thirst
D) is secreted from the pituitary gland



38. Antidiuretic hormone
A) regulates acid-base balance
B) is secreted when water intake is too low
C) stimulates the production of large amounts of urine
D) increases bone formation



39. Blood calcium levels are increased by
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) calcitonin
D) parathyroid hormone



40. A decrease in the rate and depth of breathing could theoretically alleviate
A) metabolic alkalosis
B) respiratory acidosis
C) dehydration
D) edema



41. Blood pH is kept relatively constant by
A) hemoglobin
B) changes in the rate and depth of breathing
C) the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
D) All of the answers are correct.



42. Symptoms of high plasma pH may include
A) confusion
B) coma
C) muscle twitches
D) All of the answers are correct.



43. Respiratory acidosis could result from
A) diarrhea
B) vomiting
C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) All of the answers are correct.



44. Acidosis resulting from lactic acid accumulation could be alleviated by
A) decreasing hydrogen excretion from the kidney
B) increasing the respiration rate
C) increasing calcitonin secretion
D) All of the answers are correct.



45. Mr. J has suffered a brain injury, and his thirst center is no longer operational. Mr. J must ensure he consumes adequate fluids to avoid
A) edema
B) ascites
C) dehydration
D) water intoxication



46. Addison disease is a disorder of the
A) pancreas
B) adrenal medulla
C) hypothalamus
D) adrenal cortex



47. Congestive heart failure often results in
A) dehydration
B) pulmonary edema
C) water intoxication
D) ascites



48. Ms. S is suffering from edema. A solution that would alleviate this disorder is
A) normal saline
B) a 25% serum albumin solution
C) 5% dextrose
D) lactated Ringer’s solution



49. Normal saline contains
A) sodium chloride
B) bicarbonate
C) potassium chloride
D) albumin



50. Mr. J was born without sweat glands. Will this have a significant effect on his ability to maintain normal water balance? Explain your answer, discussing the relative amounts of fluids lost via different body systems.



51. Mr. B is on a very restrictive low-carbohydrate diet and has developed an acid-base imbalance. A. Name Mr. B’s acid-base disorder. Be as specific as possible. B. Discuss two ways in which Mr. B’s body will respond to this change in blood pH.



52. Define edema and discuss three causes of edema.




Chapter 22- The Urinary System
1. The body system that eliminates carbon dioxide is the __________.



2. Urine moves from the kidneys to the bladder through the ____________.



3. The fibrous connective tissue surrounding the kidney is called the ___________.



4. The triangular-shaped region on the floor of the bladder is called the ___________.



5. The external opening of the urethra is called the _____________.



6. The cluster of capillaries within the Bowman capsule is the ________.



7. The vessel that carries blood into the glomerulus is the ______________.



8. The blood vessels that surround the nephron loop are called the ________.



9. The small coiled tube that forms urine is called the ___________.



10. The section of the nephron forming a U-shaped tube is the __________.



11. Filtration occurs between the glomerulus and the ____________.



12. Renin is produced in a specialized region of the kidney called the ____________.



13. Angiotensin is activated by a renal enzyme called ____________.



14. Substances move from the glomerulus to the glomerular capsule by the process of _____________.



15. The process of tubular reabsorption involves the movement of substances from the nephron into the ___________.



16. The active transport of penicillin from the blood into the nephron is an example of the process of __________.



17. The collecting duct becomes more permeable to water in the presence of the hormone called _____________.



18. Inadequate production of antidiuretic hormone results in a disease called ___________.



19. Another term for urination is ____________.



20. The concentration of dissolved substances in urine is indicated by its ____________.



21. The main nitrogenous waste material in the urine is _______.



22. The presence of white blood cells in the urine is known as ______.



23. Large kidney stones that fill the renal pelvis and extend into the calyces are called ______________.



24. A “dropping” of the kidney is known as _________.



25. Inflammation of the bladder that cannot be treated with antibiotics is called _________.



26. The anemia observed in chronic renal failure reflects a deficiency of the hormone __________.



27. In the case of kidney failure, waste products can be removed from the body by the process of ____________.



28. Mr. J is suffering from kidney failure. Four times daily, the fluid within his peritoneal cavity is changed. This process is called ________.



29. The word part –cele means ____________.



30. The largest volume of water is excreted by the
A) respiratory system
B) integumentary system
C) urinary system
D) digestive system



31. The term retroperitoneal means
A) within the kidney
B) behind the kidney
C) within the peritoneum
D) behind the peritoneum



32. The outer portion of the kidney is called the
A) adrenal cortex
B) adrenal medulla
C) renal cortex
D) renal medulla



33. The funnel-shaped basin forming the upper end of the ureter is called the
A) renal pelvis
B) trigone
C) urethral meatus
D) calyx



34. Which of the following best represents the path of a blood cell as it passes through the kidney?
A) peritubular capillaries, glomerulus, afferent arteriole, renal vein
B) afferent arteriole, glomerulus, glomerular capsule, collecting duct
C) glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, renal vein
D) renal artery, efferent arteriole, glomerulus, renal vein



35. Which of the following structures is found in the renal medulla?
A) glomerulus
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) peritubular capillaries
D) distal convoluted tubule



36. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the nephron?
A) glomerulus
B) nephron loop
C) collecting duct
D) All of the listed structures are part of the nephron.



37. The part of the nephron that drains into the nephron loop is the
A) afferent arteriole
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) collecting duct
D) glomerular capsule



38. The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of cells in the
A) nephron loop and distal convoluted tubule
B) glomerulus and Bowman capsule
C) distal convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole
D) efferent arteriole and peritubular capillaries



39. The juxtaglomerular apparatus synthesizes
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) aldosterone
C) renin
D) epinephrine



40. An active process that moves substances from the blood into the nephron is
A) tubular reabsorption
B) tubular filtration
C) tubular secretion
D) osmosis



41. Materials are driven out of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule because of
A) osmotic pressure
B) blood pressure
C) concentration gradients
D) active transport



42. Substances are reabsorbed from the distal convoluted tubule into the
A) peritubular capillaries
B) collecting duct
C) nephron loop
D) glomerulus



43. Antidiuretic hormone increases
A) water reabsorption in the collecting duct
B) sodium and water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
C) hydrogen ion secretion
D) filtration



44. The average daily urine output is
A) 10 to 15 pints
B) 1 to 1.5 liters
C) 10 to 15 liters
D) 10 to 15 milliliters



45. Micturition is an action of the
A) respiratory system
B) integumentary system
C) digestive system
D) urinary system



46. Urine normally contains
A) red blood cells
B) glucose
C) urea
D) casts



47. The presence of white blood cells in the urine is described as
A) hematuria
B) polyuria
C) pyuria
D) glycosuria



48. The use of shock waves to shatter kidney stones is called
A) lithotripsy
B) dialysis
C) cystoscopy
D) cystectomy



49. Inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney results in
A) cystitis
B) urethritis
C) pyelonephritis
D) glomerulonephritis



50. Renal failure can result from
A) hydronephrosis
B) polycystic kidney
C) acute glomerulonephritis
D) All of the answers are correct.



51. Which of the following is NOT usually a symptom of chronic renal failure?
A) dehydration
B) enuresis
C) edema
D) anemia



52. Peritoneal dialysis
A) does not use a dialysis membrane
B) must always be performed in a hospital
C) is a common treatment for cystitis
D) purifies the blood by the process of filtration



53. Based on your knowledge of word parts, nephrectomy is most likely the removal of the
A) bladder
B) urethra
C) ureter
D) kidney



54. The word part cyst/o is best defined as
A) tumor
B) through
C) sac
D) bump



55. You have labeled a glucose molecule with a fluorescent marker so that you can follow its path through the kidney. You observe your glucose molecule in the renal artery and in the glomerular (Bowman) capsule, but you do not detect it in the collecting duct or in the urine. Trace the path of this glucose molecule as it enters and leaves the kidney, describing the processes by which it moves between the blood and the nephron.



56. Mr. S is consuming a wide variety of medications. Due to a nasty drug interaction, the secretion of both antidiuretic hormone and aldosterone is suddenly increased. How will these two hormones modify water and sodium reuptake by the kidney and the volume of Mr. S’s urine output?



57. Explain why the following signs can indicate chronic renal failure. A. Hypertension. B. Anemia. C. Edema.



58. Based on your knowledge of word parts, explain what is meant by the term pyelocystitis.




Chapter 23- The Male and Female Reproductive Systems
1. The testes are found within a sac called the _____________.



2. During embryonic development, each testis normally passes out of the abdominal cavity through the ____________.



3. The testes are suspended within the scrotum by the ________.



4. Following meiosis, the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is ___________.



5. The reproductive organ in which a fetus develops is the ______________.



6. The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union between the duct from the seminal vesicle and the _________.



7. The muscular layer of the uterus is called the ____________.



8. The ____________ gland surrounds the urethra and contracts to aid ejaculation.



9. The tube that carries the ovum to the uterus is the _______________.



10. The lip-like folds of tissue in the vulva are called the ____________.



11. The recessed area at the top of the vagina around the cervix is the ______________.



12. The lower narrow region of the uterus is the ____________.



13. Simple sugars are added to semen by the ___________.



14. Semen passes from the ejaculatory duct into the ___________.



15. The part of spermatozoa that produces movement is the ____________.



16. The enzyme-containing cap on the head of spermatozoa is the ____________.



17. The steroid produced in significant quantities during the luteal and follicular phases is ______________.



18. Early development of the follicle is controlled by the pituitary hormone called ______________.



19. The sex steroid called _____________ induces the development of male secondary sex characteristics.



20. Luteinizing hormone stimulates the activity of the _________ cells in the male.



21. Most menopausal symptoms reflect a deficiency in the ovarian hormone _____________.



22. The normal age-related cessation of menstruation that occurs in women is called _______________.



23. The use of artificial methods to prevent birth is called ____________.



24. The emergency contraceptive pill consists of several doses of the hormone ________.



25. An x-ray study of the breast is a(n) _________________.



26. A viral disorder characterized by blisters on and around the genital organs is called ____________.



27. Inflammation of the coiled tube that stores sperm is called __________________.



28. Surgical removal of the uterus is called ____________.



29. The word parts mamm/o and mast/o both mean ___________.



30. Based on your knowledge of word parts, metropathy is a disease of the ______________.



31. The interstitial cells of the testis produce
A) luteinizing hormone
B) mucus
C) a thin alkaline fluid
D) testosterone



32. The ligaments holding the ovary in place include the
A) broad ligament
B) inguinal ligament
C) patellar ligament
D) aponeurosis



33. The glans penis is formed by the
A) corpus cavernosum
B) corpus spongiosum
C) seminal vesicles
D) spermatic cord



34. The prepuce is NOT present in individuals who have undergone
A) hysterectomy
B) circumcision
C) vasectomy
D) tubal ligation



35. The fold of membrane that is sometimes found near the vaginal opening is the
A) prepuce
B) labia
C) clitoris
D) hymen



36. The coiled tube on the testis that stores spermatozoa is the
A) vas deferens
B) epididymis
C) seminal vesicle
D) seminiferous tubule



37. Which of the following gland(s) is found in women?
A) greater vestibular glands
B) prostate gland
C) bulbourethral gland
D) seminal vesicle



38. The labia and clitoris are part of the
A) obstetric perineum
B) vulva
C) vestibule
D) uterus



39. Which of the following structures contributes the most liquid to the semen?
A) seminiferous tubules
B) epididymis
C) vas deferens
D) seminal vesicles



40. Which of the following statements is NOT true of semen?
A) It neutralizes the pH of the vagina.
B) It contains sugars.
C) It is acidic.
D) It contains secretions from the seminal vesicles.



41. The head of the spermatozoon contains large amounts of
B) mitochondria
C) cytoplasm
D) All of the answers are correct.



42. An acrosome would be found in a
A) follicle
B) spermatozoon
C) corpus luteum
D) ovum



43. Menses results from
A) a decline in estrogen and progesterone
B) an increase in estrogen and progesterone
C) an increase in luteinizing hormone
D) an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone



44. The uterine proliferative phase occurs during
A) the follicular phase
B) the secretory phase
C) ovulation
D) menstruation



45. Progesterone levels are highest during
A) the follicular phase
B) the proliferative phase
C) ovulation
D) the secretory phase



46. Testosterone causes
A) a surge in LH secretion
B) the development of spermatozoa
C) breast development
D) endometrial thickening



47. High levels of progesterone result in
A) decreased levels of luteinizing hormone
B) ovulation
C) follicular development
D) menstruation



48. Increased activity of the interstitial cells results in
A) decreased estrogen secretion
B) increased-follicle stimulating hormone secretion
C) increased progesterone secretion
D) decreased luteinizing hormone secretion



49. Menopause occurs when
A) the follicle differentiates into the corpus luteum
B) the aging ovary no longer produces mature follicles
C) the endometrial lining is shed
D) spermatozoa production ceases



50. Which of the following birth control methods affects gametogenesis?
A) vasectomy
B) birth control patch
C) intrauterine device
D) All of the answers are correct.



51. A sexually transmitted infection caused by a spirochete is
A) genital herpes
B) chlamydia
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea



52. A hysterectomy would be an effective treatment for
A) fibroids
B) breast cancer
C) ovarian cancer
D) salpingitis



53. Cryptorchidism is
A) a twisting of the spermatic cord
B) a testis that remains in the abdomen
C) an abnormal protrusion of the testis through the abdominal wall
D) inflammation of the testis



54. A Pap smear tests for cancer of
A) the ovary
B) the breast
C) part of the uterus
D) the oviducts



55. Based on your knowledge of word parts, mastitis is
A) pain in the testis
B) inflammation of the breast
C) inflammation of the uterus
D) pain in the ovary



56. Describe the function of semen, and name the glands that contribute secretions to semen.



57. Compare and contrast the role of LH in the regulation of the male and female gonad.



58. Briefly describe three distinct methods used by female contraceptives to prevent birth.



59. Ms. J, a 32-year-old mother of four, suffers from severe dysmenorrhea and uterine fibroids. Her physician suggests a hysterectomy. Ms. J replies that she is too young to endure the symptoms of menopause. Is Ms. J’s assumption that hysterectomy results in menopausal symptoms correct or incorrect? Explain.



60. Use your knowledge of word parts to explain the meaning of metroparalysis.




Chapter 24- Development and Birth
1. The period of development within the uterus is called _______________.



2. The union of the ovum and the sperm cell results in the formation of a(n) ___________.



3. Following implantation, the fertilized egg is known as a(n) ___________.



4. The structure composed of maternal and fetal tissue that nourishes the fetus is called the __________.



5. A hormone synthesized by the placenta that prepares the breasts for lactation and alters maternal metabolism is ________________.



6. The tissue connecting the fetus with the placenta is called the ____________.



7. The vessel that carries oxygenated blood to the fetus is called the ____________.



8. The small swellings on the sides of the embryo that will develop into arms and legs are called __________.



9. A developing offspring at 6 weeks gestation is known as a(n) ______________.



10. The development of all body systems has been initiated by the end of the ________ trimester.



11. The gender of the fetus can be visually identified during the __________ trimester.



12. The cheese-like coating protecting fetal skin late in development is called the ____________.



13. One of the factors initiating labor may be the inhibition of maternal progesterone by the fetal hormone ______________.



14. Parturition is facilitated by the actions of a hormone that softens the cervix and relaxes the pubic symphysis. This hormone is called ____________.



15. An episiotomy would be performed during the __________ stage of labor.



16. The baby is delivered during the ______________ stage of labor.



17. The fertilization of two ova by two spermatozoa results in _______________ twins.



18. Milk passes from the mammary gland lobes to the nipple via the __________ ducts.



19. The hormone that stimulates milk let-down is _____________.



20. The mammary glands produce small amounts of a fluid called _____________ for several days following parturition.



21. The implantation of a zygote in the oviduct results in a(n) ___________________.



22. Premature detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall results in __________________.



23. Untreated pregnancy-induced hypertension can lead to a more serious disorder called _______________.



24. Infections associated with childbirth are called ___________________.



25. The word part zyg/o means ________________.



26. The ___________ is a small hole in the right atria of the fetus that allows blood to bypass the right ventricle and the pulmonary circuit.



27. The average length of gestation is
A) 3 months
B) 38 weeks
C) 42 weeks
D) 1 year



28. The fertilized egg normally attaches to the
A) myometrium
B) oviduct
C) fimbriae
D) endometrium



29. The normal chromosome number of the zygote is
A) 23
B) 46
C) 69
D) None of the answers are correct.



30. After implantation, the fertilized egg is known as a(n)
A) zygote
B) fetus
C) embryo
D) egg



31. The hormone produced by embryonic cells that maintains the corpus luteum is
A) luteinizing hormone
B) human placental lactogen
C) progesterone
D) human chorionic gonadotropin



32. The umbilical cord contains
A) one artery and one vein
B) two arteries and two veins
C) two arteries and one vein
D) one artery and two veins



33. The placenta secretes
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) relaxin
D) All of the answers are correct.



34. The enlargement of the uterus during pregnancy is directly stimulated by
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) luteinizing hormone
D) human placental lactogen



35. The heartbeat appears during
A) the second trimester
B) the fourth gestational week
C) the third gestational month
D) the third trimester



36. Which of the following maternal changes would NOT normally be associated with pregnancy?
A) decreased heartbeat
B) increased respiration
C) increased urinary frequency
D) constipation



37. The most common technique used to follow fetal development and determine the position of the placenta is
A) amniocentesis
B) x-rays
C) ultrasonography
D) magnetic resonance imaging



38. An important factor in the initiation of labor is
A) an increase in maternal progesterone
B) a decrease in maternal oxytocin
C) in increase in maternal prostaglandins
D) a decrease in fetal cortisol



39. Labor can be artificially initiated by the administration of
A) progesterone
B) oxytocin
C) prolactin
D) relaxin



40. The placenta is normally expelled from the uterus during the
A) first stage of labor
B) second stage of labor
C) third stage of labor
D) fourth stage of labor



41. Labor has officially begun when
A) the cervix is completely dilated
B) regular uterine contractions begin
C) the baby enters the vagina
D) the baby exits the vagina



42. Parturition is officially complete when
A) the afterbirth is delivered
B) the baby is born
C) bleeding is controlled
D) lactation is initiated



43. Identical twins
A) result from the fertilization of one egg by one spermatozoa
B) usually share an umbilical cord
C) can be genetically distinct from each other
D) All of the answers are correct.



44. Pregnancy hormones that prepare the breast for lactation include
A) prolactin
B) human chorionic mammosomatotropin
C) progesterone
D) All of the answers are correct.



45. Colostrum is secreted by the
A) mammary glands
B) uterine glands
C) placenta
D) amniotic membrane



46. A baby capable of living outside the uterus is described as
A) stillborn
B) viable
C) ectopic
D) preterm



47. The placenta is attached near the cervix in cases of
A) eclampsia
B) placenta previa
C) abruptio placentae
D) tubal pregnancy



48. An example of a malignant tumor of placental tissue is
A) eclampsia
B) hydatid mole
C) choriocarcinoma
D) abruptio placentae



49. Based on your knowledge of word parts, tocography is a recording made during
A) parturition
B) embryonic development
C) lactation
D) fetal development



50. Name one similarity and one difference between the the foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus.



51. Compare and contrast human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Name one difference and one similarity.



52. Explain why the role of oxytocin in labor is an example of positive feedback. Do any other roles of oxytocin exhibit this same principle?



53. List four advantages of breastfeeding.



54. Based on your knowledge of word parts, what would a tocolytic drug arrest?



Chapter 25- Heredity and Hereditary Diseases
1. The threadlike nuclear bodies that contain the genes are called _______________.



2. The Austrian monk who used peas to elucidate the basic principles of heredity was named ______________.



3. Genes are segments of a substance called ____________.



4. Human cells contain one pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of ____________.



5. A gene that only expresses its effect in a homozygous individual is termed ___________.



6. One’s genetic makeup is called the ______________.



7. Eye color is a trait that is part of an individual’s _____________.



8. An individual who is heterozygous for a recessive gene is called a(n) ____________.



9. The number of chromosomes in a human ovum is _____________.



10. The type of cell division that produces spermatozoa is called ___________.



11. In a species with 24 chromosomes in somatic cells, meiosis would result in germ cells containing _______ chromosomes.



12. Normal females have ___ copies of the X chromosome.



13. The gamete that determines the sex of the offspring is the ___________.



14. Any trait carried on the X chromosome is described as _____________.



15. Recessive sex-linked diseases are most common in individuals of the __________ gender.



16. Traits determined by more than one gene pair are termed ____________.



17. A change in the DNA sequence of a gene is an example of a(n) ____________.



18. Any disorder present at the time of birth is termed _________________.



19. A baby with six fingers has a condition called __________.



20. Down syndrome results from an extra copy of chromosome ____.



21. A complete family history designed to elucidate the inheritance of a particular disease is called a(n) _________.



22. The prenatal screening method that extracts fetal cells from the fluid surrounding the fetus is called __________.



23. A picture of chromosomes lined up in pairs is a(n) _______________.



24. A genetic disease that can be controlled by large doses of thiamin and dietary control is ______________.



25. The word part –cele means __________



26. The units of heredity are called
B) proteins
C) genes
D) enzymes



27. Chromosomes contain
A) genes
C) alleles
D) All of the answers are correct.



28. A recessive gene
A) is only found on the X chromosome
B) only alters the phenotype in homozygous individuals
C) only alters the phenotype in heterozygous individuals
D) never alters the phenotype



29. An individual that is heterozygous for a completely dominant trait
A) is a carrier
B) will show the dominant phenotype
C) will show the recessive phenotype
D) will show a phenotype intermediate between the dominant and recessive phenotypes



30. An example of genotype is
A) heterozygous alleles
B) height
C) brown eyes
D) gender



31. If a person is a carrier for a particular disease,
A) the disease must be dominant, and the person’s genotype must be heterozygous
B) the disease must be recessive, and the person’s genotype must be heterozygous
C) the disease must be dominant, and the person’s genotype must be homozygous recessive
D) the disease must be recessive, and the person’s genotype must be homozygous dominant



32. The skin cells of the elephant contain 56 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will an elephant spermatozoon contain?
A) 56
B) 23
C) 46
D) 28



33. The platypus has five pairs of sex chromosomes and 21 pairs of autosomes. When a platypus cell undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells have?
A) 5
B) 21
C) 26
D) 52



34. A normal male has the genotype



35. An individual with the genotype XO would most likely be
A) male
B) female
C) both male and female
D) neither male nor female



36. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked trait?
A) hemophilia
B) red-green color blindness
C) testicles
D) cystic fibrosis



37. Which of the following is NOT true of sex-linked disorders?
A) They are transmitted from mother to son.
B) They appear almost exclusively in males.
C) They are usually recessive traits.
D) They are usually carried on the Y chromosome.



38. Eye color is determined by three pairs of genes. Its mode of inheritance is best described as
A) multifactorial
B) sex-linked
C) recessive
D) dominant



39. The ability of a particular gene to determine phenotype can be altered by
A) environmental factors
B) gender
C) other genes
D) All of the answers are correct.



40. Which of the following is true of multifactorial traits?
A) They always cause disease.
B) They are inherited from fathers only.
C) They are determined by more than one gene pair.
D) They are inherited from mothers only.



41. A chemical that causes a chromosome to break is called a(n)
A) mutation
B) talipes
C) mutagen
D) karyotype



42. All mutations are
A) harmful
B) the result of an agent
C) changes in the genotype
D) All of the answers are correct.



43. A disorder that is congenital but NOT hereditary is
A) fetal alcohol syndrome
B) cystic fibrosis
C) Huntington disease
D) albinism



44. Duchenne muscular dystrophy results from a defect in the dystrophin gene and is detectable at birth. This disorder is best described as
A) congenital, nonhereditary, and nongenetic
B) noncongenital, hereditary, and genetic
C) congenital, hereditary, and genetic
D) congenital, nonheriditary, and genetic



45. Huntington disease is
A) congenital, nonhereditary, and nongenetic
B) noncongenital, hereditary, and genetic
C) congenital, hereditary, and genetic
D) congenital, nonheriditary, and genetic



46. Trisomy 21 is usually
A) congenital, nonhereditary, and nongenetic
B) noncongenital, hereditary, and genetic
C) congenital, hereditary, and genetic
D) congenital, nonheriditary, and genetic



47. A disorder resulting from a change in chromosome number is
A) Huntington disease
B) Down syndrome
C) cystic fibrosis
D) spina bifida



48. One common method for sampling embryonic cells during pregnancy involves removal of cells from the
A) chorion
B) cervix
C) vernix caseosa
D) fetal liver



49. A genetic disease that can be controlled by diet is
A) phenylketonuria
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Huntington disease



50. A chromophobe is afraid of
A) heights
B) color
C) disease
D) bacteria



51. Ms. L has dry, brittle ear wax, but both of her parents have wet, sticky ear wax. Ear wax consistency is determined by a single gene pair, in which one trait is clearly dominant over the other trait. (A) Which trait is dominant, dry ear wax or wet ear wax? Explain. (B) What is the genotype of Ms. L and her parents?



52. Young L, a male, is afflicted with a muscle wasting disease. His mother’s two brothers also had the disease. No other family members (his father, his father’s relatives, his mother, or his mother’s female relatives) have the disease. Is this muscle wasting disease (A) autosomal or sex-linked, and (B) dominant or recessive? Defend your answers.



53. Can a disease be genetic but not hereditary? Explain, using a specific example and defining the two terms.



54. Define mutagen, and give several examples.



55. Based on your knowledge of word parts, define (A) dactylitis and (B) karyogenesis.