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Microbiology 1st Edition By Wessner – Test Bank 

 

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 1

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these is considered to be the smallest unit of life?

 

  1. a) the nucleus
  2. b) the mitochondrion
  3. c) a plasmid
  4. d) the cell
  5. e) a prion

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) The study of microbiology includes all of the following EXCEPT _____ .

 

  1. a) plants
  2. b) viruses
  3. c) bacteria
  4. d) fungi
  5. e) algae

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3) Which of these is an example of a macromolecule?

 

  1. a) an amino acid
  2. b) a nucleoside
  3. c) a protein
  4. d) a purine
  5. e) a a monosaccharide

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Which one of the following is NOT a macromolecule?

 

  1. a) a protein
  2. b) a polypeptide
  3. c) DNA
  4. d) mRNA
  5. e) an amino acid

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5) Which of these is the most abundant cellular macromolecule (on a dry weight basis)?

 

  1. a) polypeptides.
  2. b) lipids.
  3. c) DNA.
  4. d) mRNA.
  5. e) rRNA.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6) What percent of the dry weight of the cell is composed of DNA?

 

  1. a) 2 – 5
  2. b) 12 -15
  3. c) 25 – 30
  4. d) 35 -40
  5. e) 50 – 55

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7) What are the three Domains of life?

 

  1. a) Monera, Animals, and Plants
  2. b) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
  3. c) Prokaryote, Eukaryote, and Fungi
  4. d) Animals, Plants, and Bacteria
  5. e) Animals, Plants, and Protista

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8) Which term represents the history of an organisms’s evolution?

 

  1. a) taxonomy
  2. b) descent
  3. c) classification
  4. d) phylogeny
  5. e) relative

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9) Viruses are considered “nonliving” for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they:

 

  1. a) need a host cell for replication.
  2. b) are metabolically inert.
  3. c) possess DNA that can evolve.
  4. d) do not maintain internal homeostasis.
  5. e) are not responsive to environmental changes.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10) In the study of which of these fields have unicellular microbes played an important role?

 

  1. a) biochemical pathways
  2. b) protein synthesis
  3. c) DNA replication
  4. d) mRNA synthesis
  5. e) all of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11) All of the following are properties that make microbes excellent models for studying basic processes in biology, EXCEPT that they:

 

  1. a) are easy to grow.
  2. b) are easy to manipulate genetically.
  3. c) contain a very large number of genes.
  4. d) are relatively inexpensive to maintain in the lab.
  5. e) are easy to manipulate for the production of proteins and enzymes.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

12) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

 

  1. a) All cells contain DNA as the main informational macromolecule.
  2. b) All cells contain mitochondria for energy production.
  3. c) All cells possess a plasma membrane.
  4. d) All cells utilize a similar genetic code.
  5. e) All cells contain ribosomes for protein synthesis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13) Which is a macromolecular difference between the Domains Bacteria and Archaea?

 

  1. a) Archaea contain a nucleus and Bacteria do not.
  2. b) Bacteria contain DNA and Archaea do not.
  3. c) Bacteria contain a plasma membrane and Archaea do not.
  4. d) Bacteria cell wall contains peptidoglycan and the Archaea cell wall does not.
  5. e) Archaea contain multiple types of RNA polymerase and Bacteria has only one type.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

14) Which of these is a yeast that is commonly used as a model organism to study many cellular features and processes in biological research?

 

  1. a) Escherichia coli
  2. b) Penicillin notatum
  3. c) Bacillus subtilis
  4. d) Aspergillus niger
  5. e) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15) Approximately when did primitive cells first appear on Earth?

 

  1. a) 1 billion years ago
  2. b) 2 billion years ago
  3. c) 2.5 billion years ago
  4. d) 3 billion years ago
  5. e) 3.8 billion years ago

 

 

 

 

 

 

16) Which of these are fossilized microbial mats containing photosynthetic bacteria?

 

  1. a) Stromatolites
  2. b) Biofilms
  3. c) Resin
  4. d) Cyanobacteria
  5. e) Stalagmites

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17) Which statement below is FALSE concerning the atmosphere of early earth?

 

  1. a) The atmosphere was a reducing atmosphere.
  2. b) Oxygen was present in very minute amounts.
  3. c) Carbon dioxide was present in very minute amounts.
  4. d) Hydrogen gas was present.
  5. e) Nitrogen gas was presentin very large amounts.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

18) The discovery of ribozymes provide evidence that life on the early Earth may have been based on:

 

  1. a) DNA.
  2. b) proteins.
  3. c) RNA.
  4. d) lipids.
  5. e) polysaccharides.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

19) What is the Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain?

 

  1. a) the rapid evolution of viruses
  2. b) antiphagocytic abilities of parasitic protozoa
  3. c) pathogenicity of parasitic bacteria
  4. d) presence of mitochondria in eukaryotes
  5. e) development of the nucleus in eukaryotes

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

20) What is a progenote?

 

  1. a) a type of Bacteria
  2. b) a type of Archaea
  3. c) a type of Bacteria or Archaea
  4. d) an early type of mitochondrion
  5. e) the earliest form of cellular life

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

21) What is the he most prolific source of genetic variation in living organisms?

 

  1. a) mutation
  2. b) mitosis
  3. c) transcription
  4. d) translation
  5. e) viral insertion

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

22) Which of these best describes horizontal gene transfer?

 

  1. a) mitosis followed by cytokinesis
  2. b) meiosis and subsequent formation of a zygote
  3. c) transfer of genes from mother cell to daughter cell
  4. d) DNA replication followed by crossing over
  5. e) acquisition of genes from another organism in the same generation

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

23) Which is the correct distinction between a heterotroph and an autotroph?

 

  1. a) An autotroph utilizes organic compounds as a carbon source and a heterotroph uses carbon dioxide as a carbon source.
  2. b) An autotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as a carbon source and a heterotroph utilizes organic compounds as a carbon source.
  3. c) An autotroph utilizes complex organic compounds as a carbon source and a heterotroph utilizes simple organic compounds as a carbon source.
  4. d) An autotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as an energy source and a heterotroph utilizes organic compounds as an energy source.
  5. e) an autotroph utilizes organic compounds as an energy source and a heterotroph utilizes carbon dioxide as an energy source .

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

24) Which best describes a photoautotroph?

 

  1. a) Utilizes sunlight for energy and organic molecules as a carbon source.
  2. b) Utilizes sunlight as an energy source to fix carbon dioxide.
  3. c) Emits light from the breakdown of organic carbon.
  4. d) Emits light from the fixation of carbon dioxide.
  5. e) Uses organic compounds as a source of carbon and energy.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

25) Which best describes the Cyanobacteria?

 

  1. a) First prokaryote to contain mitochondria.
  2. b) First appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago.
  3. c) Carry out oxygenic photosynthesis.
  4. d) Members of the Archaea domain.
  5. e) A type of eukaryotic algae.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

26) A chemoautotroph:

 

  1. a) obtains carbon and energy from organic molecules.
  2. b) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from organic molecules.
  3. c) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from inorganic molecules.
  4. d) obtains carbon and energy from inorganic molecules.
  5. e) obtains energy from the sun and carbon from carbon dioxide only.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

27) What term applies to the oxidation of glucose to pyruvate for the generation of energy?

 

  1. a) gluconeogenesis
  2. b) Krebs cycle
  3. c) lactate fermentation
  4. d) pentose phosphate pathway
  5. e) glycolysis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

28) Which of these is required during aerobic respiration?

 

  1. a) oxygen
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) nitrate
  4. d) pyruvate
  5. e) water

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

29) In regards to metabolic diversity, which statement below is true?

 

  1. a) Eukaryotic cells possess the greatest metabolic diversity.
  2. b) Archaea and Bacteria possess greater metabolic diversity than Eukarya.
  3. c) Animals possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.
  4. d) Plants possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.
  5. e) Protozoa possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

30)  The Earth’s ozone layer protects surface microbes from the harmful effects of:

 

  1. a) the sun’s heat.
  2. b) gamma radiation.
  3. c) ultraviolet light.
  4. d) radio waves.
  5. e) infrared radiation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

31) During nitrogen fixation, microorganisms convert:

 

  1. a) nitrate to dinitrogen gas.
  2. b) dinitrogen gas to ammonia.
  3. c) ammonia to dinitrogen gas.
  4. d) dinitrogen gas to nitrate.
  5. e) ammonia to nitrate.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

32) This early microbiology pioneer developed a set of criteria for linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease.

 

  1. a) Louis Pasteur
  2. b) Edward Jenner
  3. c) Robert Koch
  4. d) John Tyndall
  5. e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

 

 

 

 

 

Section Reference: Section 1.4 Microbes and disease

 

 

33) This early microbiologist used a swan-necked flask to help disprove the Theory of Spontaneous Generation.

 

  1. a) Louis Pasteur
  2. b) Edward Jenner
  3. c) Robert Koch
  4. d) John Tyndall
  5. e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

 

 

 

 

 

Section Reference: Section 1.4 Microbes and disease

 

 

34) Who was the first person to provide a written description of bacteria?

 

  1. a) Louis Pasteur
  2. b) Edward Jenner
  3. c) Robert Koch
  4. d) John Tyndall
  5. e) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

 

 

 

 

 

Section Reference: Section 1.4 Microbes and disease

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

35) Polypeptides are the most abundant macromolecule in the cell on a dry weight basis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

36) DNA contributes about 2 to 5% to the dry weight of the cell.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

37) Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

38) The atmosphere of the early earth contained very small amounts of carbon dioxide.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

39) The process of glycolysis is used to produce energy from simple sugars.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

40) Microbial nitrogen fixation is the conversion of ammonia into dinitrogen gas.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

41) The first person to describe bacteria observed under a microscope was Anton van Leeuwenhoek.

 

 

 

 

 

Section Reference: Section 1.4 Microbes and disease

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

42) Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called _________.

 

 

 

 

 

 

43) The main difference between the two cell types, prokaryote and eukaryote, is the presence of a ________________ in the eukaryote.

 

 

 

 

 

 

44) The three domains of life are ________, ________, and ________.

 

 

 

 

 

 

45) The ___________ __________ ___________ is an extremely important molecular technique that allowed scientists to specifically amplify a specific DNA sequence.

 

 

 

 

46) The __________ Theory is used to explain the origins of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.

 

 

 

 

 

47) The accumulation of the _______ layer from increased levels of oxygen in the atmosphere offered protection from ultraviolet light to terrestrial microbes growing on Earth’s surface.

 

 

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Carl Woese proposed using ribosomal RNA as a molecule to compare the evolutionary relationship between organisms. Explain why these molecules are considered excellent molecular chronometers for studying evolutionary time.

 

 

 

49) What is the Endosymbiotic Theory? What evidence supports this theory?

 

 

 

50) What is the importance of Koch’s Postulates? List the postulates.

 

 

Chapter Number: 2

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which term describes spherical-shaped bacteria?

 

  1. a) cocci
  2. b) bacilli
  3. c) spirilla.
  4. d) vibrios.
  5. e) pleiomorphs

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) What is the typical length of a bacterium?

 

  1. a) 5 – 10 nm
  2. b) 0.5 – 5 µm
  3. c) 20 – 40 µm
  4. d) 5 – 10 mm
  5. e) 20 – 40 mm

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3) Which term describes straight, rod-shaped bacteria?

 

  1. a) cocci
  2. b) bacilli
  3. c) spirilla.
  4. d) vibrios.
  5. e) pleiomorphs

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Which region contains the chromosome in the bacterial cell?

 

  1. a) Nucleus
  2. b) Nucleoid
  3. c) Plasmid
  4. d) Plastid
  5. e) Prophage

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5) Which is an example of an “inclusion body” found in a bacterial cell?

 

  1. a) the nucleus
  2. b) the mitochondria
  3. c) a topoisomerase
  4. d) the cell membrane
  5. e) polyhydroxybutyrate

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6) Sulfur globules are an example of inclusion bodies that may be found in some bacterial cells. What is their use?

 

  1. a) They are a carbon source
  2. b) They are used for nucleotide synthesis
  3. c) As an energy source
  4. d) They provide buoyancy
  5. e) They assist in membrane synthesis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7) How are gas vesicles used by bacterial cells?

 

  1. a) As a source of oxygen
  2. b) As a source of nitrogen
  3. c) As a source of hydrogen
  4. d) For buoyancy
  5. e) As an energy source

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8) The bacterial chromosome is a highly condensed structure that is tightly wound up around it-self to fit into the bacterial cell. What is the main enzyme responsible for condensing the DNA?

 

  1. a) DNA polymerase
  2. b) DNA ligase
  3. c) DNA topoisomerase
  4. d) DNA endonuclease
  5. e) DNA synthetase

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9) What is the main function of the FtsZ protein in the bacterial cell?

 

  1. a) DNA replication
  2. b) transcription
  3. c) translation
  4. d) cell division
  5. e) meiosis

 

 

 

 

Learning Objective: LO 2.3 Describe the functions of the bacterial cytoskeleton and other pro-tein-based structural elements in the bacterial cell.

Section Reference: Section 2.3 The bacterial cytoskeleton

 

 

10) The MreB protein in bacteria may play an important role in:

 

  1. a) determining cell shape
  2. b) motility
  3. c) energy metabolism
  4. d) meiosis
  5. e) nuclear division

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11) What is the role of the ParM protein in bacteria?

 

  1. a) iDetermination of cell shape.
  2. b) To assign plasmids to each cell during cell division.
  3. c) To assist in carrying out meiosis.
  4. d) In cell movement during chemotaxis.
  5. e) In sugar and protein metabolism.

 

 

 

 

 

 

12) What protein plays an important role in determining cell shape by directing cell wall synthesis in non-spherical bacteria?

 

  1. a) FtsZ
  2. b) MreB
  3. c) ParM
  4. d) FlaA
  5. e) PepZ

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13) What protein has been shown to play an important role in cell division through the formation of the Z-ring?

 

  1. a) FtsZ
  2. b) MreB
  3. c) ParM
  4. d) FlaA
  5. e) PepZ

 

 

 

 

 

14) Which best describes the chemical structure of the Bacteria domain cytoplasmic membrane ?

 

  1. a) A bilayer of phospholipids.
  2. b) A monolayer of phospholipids.
  3. c) A monolayer of phospholipids with sterols.
  4. d) A bilayer of phospholipids with sterols.
  5. e) A trilayer of phospholipids.

 

 

 

 

 

 

15) Some bacteria produce sterol-like molecules called ___ that help to stabilize the plasma membrane.

 

  1. a) ergosterol
  2. b) progesterone
  3. c) hopanoids
  4. d) phycols
  5. e) stigmasterols

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16) Which one of the following is NOT a key function of the cytoplasmic membrane?

 

  1. a) signal transduction
  2. b) nutrient transport
  3. c) environmental sensing
  4. d) protein synthesis
  5. e) oxidative electron transport

 

 

 

 

 

 

17) Which statement is FALSE in regards to the plasma membrane?

 

  1. a) Glucose cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
  2. b) Protons can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
  3. c) Oxygen can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
  4. d) Water can easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.
  5. e) Potassium ions cannot easily diffuse across the plasma membrane.

 

 

 

 

 

18) If cells are placed into a hypertonic solution, what reaction would you expect?

 

  1. a) The cell would lose water.
  2. b) The cell would gain water.
  3. c) The cell would pump out ions.
  4. d) The cell would lyse.
  5. e) The cell would increase in size.

 

 

 

 

 

19) What conditions must be met in order for an “active transport system” to transport of a nu-trient into a cell?

 

  1. a) The nutrient concentration must be higher on the outside of the cell.
  2. b) The nutrient concentration must be lower on the inside of the cell.
  3. c) The nutrient concentration must be equal inside and outside of the cell.
  4. d) Passive diffusion needs to drive this transport.
  5. e) Some form of energy is required for proper transport.

 

 

 

 

 

20) What does the ABC transporter system use as the source of energy for transport?

 

  1. a) pyruvate
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) ATP
  4. d) NADH
  5. e) diffusion

 

 

 

 

 

 

21) The proton motive force (PMF) across a cell membrane can be used for which of these processes?

 

  1. a) Generate ATP.
  2. b) Propel the flagella.
  3. c) Transport nutrients into the cell.
  4. d) Transport molecules out of the cell.
  5. e) All of these choices.

 

 

 

 

 

 

22) What is a signal peptide?

 

  1. a) The amino acid sequence of a protein that detects changes in the external environment and signals this change to components in the cell.
  2. b) A regulatory protein that turns on/off the expression of certain genes.
  3. c) A protein used to signal cell division.
  4. d) A short amino acid sequence on the end of a protein that is used for transport of the protein out of the cell.
  5. e) A protein in the cytoplasmic membrane that is used to communicate with other closely related cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

23) Which is the major component of the cell wall of microbes in the Bacteria domain?…

 

  1. a) cellulose
  2. b) chitin
  3. c) protein
  4. d) polysaccharide
  5. e) peptidoglycan

 

 

 

 

 

 

24) The glycan portion of peptidoglycan is composed of alternating units of which two com-pounds?

 

  1. a) glucose and fructose
  2. b) N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine
  3. c) N-acetylmannose and N-acetylglucose
  4. d) N-acetylfructose and N-acetylglucose
  5. e) N-acetylmannitol and N-acetylsorbitol

 

 

 

 

 

25) What is the main function of peptidoglycan?

 

  1. a) Controlling movement of nutrients into and outof the cell.
  2. b) Protecting the cell from harmful chemicals.
  3. c) Regulating the transport of water into the cell.
  4. d) Protecting against osmotic stress.
  5. e) Generating energy through electron transport phosphorylation.

 

 

 

 

26) Which of these enzymes is produced by many animals for the hydrolysis of the glycan chain in peptidoglycan?

 

  1. a) lysozyme
  2. b) ligase
  3. c) lipase
  4. d) aminidase
  5. e) amylase

 

 

 

 

 

 

27) What is the reaction of β-lactamase enzymes?

 

  1. a) Hydrolyze the glycan chain of peptidoglycan.
  2. b) Hydrolyze lactose to glucose and galactose.
  3. c) Inactivate antibiotics like penicillin.
  4. d) Inactivate the enzyme lysozyme.
  5. e) Prevent the transpeptidation reaction during peptidoglycan synthesis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

28) Which of these is included in the the Gram-positive cell envelope?

 

  1. a) peptidoglycan, LPS, and lipoteichoic acids.
  2. b) peptidoglycan, teichoic acids, and lipoteichoic acids.
  3. c) peptidoglycan, LPS, and teichoic acids.
  4. d) peptidoglycan, LPS, and a periplasmic space.
  5. e) teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and a periplasmic space.

 

 

 

 

 

29) Which of these is included in the Gram-negative cell envelope?

 

  1. a) peptidoglycan, LPS, and lipoteichoic acids.
  2. b) peptidoglycan, teichoic acids, and lipoteichoic acids.
  3. c) peptidoglycan, LPS, and teichoic acids.
  4. d) peptidoglycan, LPS, and a periplasmic space.
  5. e) teichoic acids, lipoteichoic acids, and a periplasmic space.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

30) Which compound binds the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria to the thin peptidog-lycan layer?

 

  1. a) lipoproteins
  2. b) lipoteichoic acid
  3. c) porin
  4. d) bactoprenol
  5. e) polysaccharide

 

 

 

 

 

 

31) The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from:

 

  1. a) ATP.
  2. b) glucose.
  3. c) a proton motive force.
  4. d) phosphoenolpyruvate.
  5. e) AMP.

 

 

 

 

32) Which of these describes the peritrichous arrangement of flagella?

 

  1. a) Flagella all around the cell.
  2. b) Flagella at both polar ends of the cell.
  3. c) Flagella in a tuft at one end of the cell.
  4. d) Flagella inside the periplasm wrapping around the cell.
  5. e) Flagella on a single side of the cell.

 

 

 

 

33) What are short fiber-like structures that protrude from the bacterial surface and are primarily used for attachment called?

 

  1. a) pili
  2. b) flagellin
  3. c) porins
  4. d) bactoprenol
  5. e) lipopolysaccharides

 

 

 

 

 

34) What is the function of the bacterial capsule?

 

  1. a) Attachment.
  2. b) Preventing phagocytosis by phagocytic cells.
  3. c) Resisting desiccation.
  4. d) All of these choices.
  5. e) None of these choices.

 

 

 

 

 

 

35) All of the following are taxonomic groups used to classify bacteria EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) Kingdom.
  2. b) Phylum.
  3. c) Class.
  4. d) Family.
  5. e) Genus.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) Magnetosomes are an example of membrane enclosed organelles found in some bacteria.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

37) If the cytoplasm has a higher solute concentration than the external environment, you would expect the cell to lose water due to osmosis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

38) The ABC transporter system uses phosphoenolpyruvate as the energy source to drive trans-port.

 

 

 

 

 

39) Diaminopimelic acid is an amino acid naturally found in peptidoglycan.

 

 

 

 

 

40) The lipopolysaccharides (LPS) of most Gram-negative bacteria is able to trigger a very strong inflammatory response in humans.

 

 

 

 

 

41) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.

 

 

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

42.The area between the inner and outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria is called the _________ space.

 

 

 

43) Protein channels in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria that allow the diffusion of small molecules (600 daltons or less) across the membrane into the periplasmic space are called ____.

 

Section Reference: Section 2.4 The cell envelope

 

 

44) The movement of a bacterial cell toward a chemical attractant is called ________.

 

 

 

45) Short hair-like protrusions on the surface of some bacterial cells, used primarily for attach-ment but some are used for motility, and called ___ .

 

 

46) The bacterial ___ functions in protection from desiccation, and phagocytosis, and in attach-ment.

 

 

 

47) _______ motility is used by myxobacteria and some cyanobacteria for smooth movement across a solid surface.

 

 

 

48) In the scientific name Bacillus cereus, the term Bacillus represents the organism’s ___ and cereus its ____.

 

 

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

49) A mutant strain of E. coli has been isolated that has a mutation in the mreB gene. Describe the phenotypic appearance of the mutant strain. Why does it have this appearance?

 

 

 

50) Describe the chemical composition of the peptidoglycan.

 

 

 

51) What advantage against antibacterials does the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria offer when compared to Gram-positive bacteria?

 

 

 

52) Describe the process of chemotaxis.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 3

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What is the defining organelle of eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) mitochondron
  2. b) chloroplast
  3. c) Golgi apparatus
  4. d) nucleus
  5. e) lysosome

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) Eukaryal proteins that are secreted outside of the cell undergo modification before secretion. Which organelles are involved in this secretion pathway?

 

  1. a) the mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum
  2. b) the mitochondria and Golgi apparatus
  3. c) the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
  4. d) the endoplasmic reticulum and lysosome
  5. e) the lysosome and mitochondria

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3) Molecular chaperones are proteins involved in which eukaryal cell process?

 

  1. a) transcription
  2. b) translation
  3. c) mitosis
  4. d) protein folding
  5. e) energy production

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Eukaryal proteins undergo various chemical modifications after the translational process to ensure correct folding of the protein for optimal activity. Which of these are examples of such modifications?

 

  1. a) hydrogen bond formation and disulfide bond formation
  2. b) attachment of lipids and glucose molecules
  3. c) acetylation and phosphorylation
  4. d) hydrogen bond formation, disulfide bond formation, acetylation and phosphorylation are cor-rect
  5. e) all of these choices are correct

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5) Which of these best describes chemiosmosis?

 

  1. a) The movement of water across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
  2. b) The movement of protons across a biological membrane for energy production.
  3. c) The movement of organic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
  4. d) The movement of inorganic nutrients across a biological membrane into or out of a cell.
  5. e) The production of energy as a result of the reactions occurring in the glycolytic pathway.

 

 

 

 

 

6) Which statement below is FALSE regarding mitochondria and chloroplasts?

 

  1. a) Both contain DNA.
  2. b) Both replicate independently of the host cell.
  3. c) Both function in energy generation.
  4. d) Both contain the enzymes for the glycolytic pathway.
  5. e) Both contain inner membranes.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7) Which of these best represents the component(s) of the plasma membrane of eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) phospholipids only
  2. b) phospholipids and sterols
  3. c) phospholipids and proteins.
  4. d) phospholipids, proteins, and sterols
  5. e) proteins and sterols

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8) What is the basic chemical structure of a phospholipid in a eukaryal cell?

 

  1. a) A glycerol molecule with cholesterol attached.
  2. b) A fatty acid with a phosphate attached at the carboxyl end.
  3. c) A glycerol molecule with two fatty acids and a phosphate attached.
  4. d) A glycerol molecule with two phosphates and a fatty acid attached.
  5. e) A glycerol molecule with cholesterol and phosphate attached.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9) What is the function of sterols in the eukaryal membrane?

 

  1. a) To increase membrane fluidity.
  2. b) To help stabilize the membrane.
  3. c) To aid in transport of nutrients into the cell.
  4. d) To participate in the synthesis and assembly of lipids in the membrane.
  5. e) To contribute to cell movement.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10) Chitin, a component of the fungal cell wall, is a polymer composed of _____.

 

  1. a) amino acids
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) acetyl-glucosamine
  4. d) silica dioxide
  5. e) dipicolinic acid

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11) What are the three major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton?

 

  1. a) microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
  2. b) centromeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
  3. c) telomeres, centromeres, and microtubules
  4. d) telomeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
  5. e) telomeres, centromeres, and microfilaments

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

12) Microtubules are composed of which protein?

 

  1. a) actin
  2. b) myosin
  3. c) tubulin
  4. d) flagellin
  5. e) keratin

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13) Movement of the eukaryal cilia and flagella involves interaction between dynein motor pro-teins and _____ .

 

  1. a) microtubules
  2. b) microfilaments
  3. c) intermediate filaments
  4. d) PMF driven motors in the membrane
  5. e) intermediate filaments and actin

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

14) Which of these is a fungus widely used by molecular biologists to investigate the workings of eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) Giardia lamblia
  2. b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  3. c) Dictyostelium discoideum
  4. d) Penicillium notatum
  5. e) Cephalosporium acremonium

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

15) What is the slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum commonly used to study?

 

  1. a) the fungal life cycle
  2. b) evolution of multi-cellularity
  3. c) flagella movement
  4. d) cell wall synthesis
  5. e) cyst formation

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16) Which alga is commonly used as a model eukaryal organism to study flagellar operation?

 

  1. a) Synechococcus elongatus
  2. b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  3. c) Euglena gracilis
  4. d) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii
  5. e) Trypanosoma cruzi

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

17) Which of these best describes the process of meiosis in eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) Asexual reproduction.
  2. b) Two rounds of DNA replication followed by cell division.
  3. c) The combining of two gametes.
  4. d) DNA replication followed by two cell divisions.
  5. e) The asexual production of diploid cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

18) The result of meiosis is the production of:

 

  1. a) four haploid cells.
  2. b) two diploid cells.
  3. c) two haploid cells.
  4. d) four diploid cells.
  5. e) two haploid cells and two diploid cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

19) When the fungus Saccharomyces cerevisiae completes meiosis, the resulting ascospores:

 

  1. a) always combine to form a diploid cell.
  2. b) will continue to replicate asexually as haploid cells.
  3. c) may combine to form a diploid cell or replicate as haploid cells.
  4. d) are all genetically identical.
  5. e) will immediately undergo meiosis a second time.

 

 

 

 

 

20) A haploid Chlamydomonas replicates asexually under favorable environmental conditions. What happens when growth conditions deteriorate?

 

  1. a) It becomes motile.
  2. b) It stops growing.
  3. c) It changes morphologically to form large aggregates.
  4. d) It changes into a gamete and fuses with another gamete.
  5. e) It changes morphologically into a spore for survival.

 

 

 

 

21) Haploid Dictyostelium replicate by mitosis when nutrients are plentiful. What happens when growth conditions deteriorate?

 

  1. a) The cells change morphologically into a resilient structure called a cyst.
  2. b) The cells change into a gamete and fuse with another gamete to produce a zygote.
  3. c) The cells become motile by means of a flagellum and move on to another food source.
  4. d) The cells aggregate to form a multicellular slug.
  5. e) The cells stop growing.

 

 

 

 

22) The eukaryal cell emerged on Earth approximately ______ years ago.

 

  1. a) four billion
  2. b) three billion
  3. c) two billion
  4. d) one billion
  5. e) 500 million

 

 

 

 

 

23) The Endosymbiotic Theory is used to explain the origin of the ____ in the eukaryotic cell.

 

  1. a) chromosome
  2. b) ribosome
  3. c) mitochondrion
  4. d) lysosome
  5. e) vacuole

 

 

 

24 What are the two lines of evidence that support the Endosymbiotic Theory for the origin of chloroplasts?

 

  1. a) They divide by mitosis and are approximately the same size as bacteria.
  2. b) They are a unit membrane enclosed structure and they divide by mitosis.
  3. c) They contain DNA and they divide by mitosis.
  4. d) They divide by binary fission and they contain DNA.
  5. e) They are a unit membrane enclosed structure and they contain DNA.

 

 

 

 

25) Chloroplasts most likely originated from which of these independent organisms?

 

  1. a) alpha-proteobacteria
  2. b) anoxygenic photobacteria
  3. c) gamma-proteobacteria
  4. d) purple sulfur bacteria
  5. e) cyanobacteriia

 

 

 

 

26) All mitochondria contain DNA that shares sequence similarity with bacteria from the Phylum _____ .

 

  1. a) Firmicutes
  2. b) Proteobacteria.
  3. c) Fusobacteria
  4. d) Aquificales
  5. e) Synergistes

 

 

 

 

 

27) Amitochondriates are eukaryal microbes that lack mitochondria. What evidence shows that some of these microbes may at one time have had mitochondria?

 

  1. a) They can respire on oxygen.
  2. b) They have peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
  3. c) They have 70S ribosomes.
  4. d) They have some alpha-proteobacterium DNA in their chromosome.
  5. e) They have circular chromosomes.

 

 

 

 

 

28) Which one of the following statements DOES NOT support the Endosymbiotic Theory for the origin of mitochondria?

 

  1. a) The mitochondria divides by binary fission.
  2. b) The mitochondria contains DNA related to bacterial DNA.
  3. c) The mitochondria contains lipids similar to bacterial lipids.
  4. d) The mitochondria replicates on the same cycle as the nucleus.
  5. e) The mitochondria is the approximate shape and size of a bacterium.

 

 

 

 

 

 

29) Which of these is an example of an insect-borne disease caused by a eukaryal microbe?

 

  1. a) malaria
  2. b) histoplasmosis
  3. c) tuberculosis
  4. d) cryptosporidiosis
  5. e) Rocky Mountain Spotted-Fever

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

30) Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted to humans by the tsetse fly and causes which disease?

 

  1. a) malaria
  2. b) histoplasmosis
  3. c) African sleeping sickness
  4. d) cryptosporidiosis
  5. e) tuberculosis

 

 

 

 

 

31) Which of these is an example of a eukaryal intestinal pathogen that is transmitted to humans through contaminated food and water?

 

  1. a) Epulopiscium fischeri
  2. b) Plasmodium vivax
  3. c) Giardia lamblia
  4. d) Listeria monocytogenes
  5. e) Legionella pneumophila

 

 

 

 

 

 

32) Which of these diseases is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?

 

  1. a) severe dysentery
  2. b) malaria
  3. c) pneumonia
  4. d) tuberculosis
  5. e) African sleeping sickness

 

 

 

 

 

 

33) Which of these organisms causes Athlete’s foot?

 

  1. a) a slime mold
  2. b) a fungus
  3. c) an amoeba
  4. d) a protozoan
  5. e) a bacterium

 

 

 

 

 

 

34) What are the main eukaryal pathogens of plants?

 

  1. a) slime molds
  2. b) fungi
  3. c) protozoans
  4. d) amoebas
  5. e) algae

 

 

 

 

 

 

35) Eukaryal microbes play a very important role in the digestion of ___ in the gut of ruminants.

 

  1. a) proteins
  2. b) nucleic acids
  3. c) phospholipids
  4. d) cellulose
  5. e) lactose

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) Mitochondria replicate independently of the host cell.

 

 

 

 

37) All eukaryal microbes possess cell walls.

 

 

 

 

38) The slime-mold Dictyostelium discoideum is classified as a fungus.

 

 

 

39) The best way to classify all eukaryal microbes is to group them into the Protist kingdom.

 

 

 

 

40) Aggregate formation in Dictyostelium cells is the result of a cell signaling mechanism that uses cyclic AMP as a signal molecule.

 

 

 

41) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.

 

 

 

42) Amebic dysentery is caused by Shigella sonnei.

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

43) Most cell walls of algae are composed of ___.

 

 

 

44) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.

 

 

 

45) When Saccharomyces undergoes meiosis, it forms four haploid cells called ___.

 

 

 

 

46) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.

 

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

47) Describe how proteins made in the cytoplasm of eukaryal cells arrive at their correct destina-tion, such as the mitochondria or nucleus.

 

 

 

48.Cells are able to alter the fatty acid composition of lipids in response to environmental changes in temperature. What changes would you expect in the fatty acid composition when cells move from ambient temperature to a cold temperature?

 

 

49) Describe the differences between Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya in regards to cell walls and plasma membranes.

 

 

50) What are the main lines of evidence that support the endosymbiotic hypothesis for the origin of the mitochondria and chloroplast?

 

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 4

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What is the name of the scientist who first proposed that Archaea are distinct from Bacteria and should be classified in a separate domain?

 

  1. a) Linus Pauling
  2. b) Barbara McClintock
  3. c) Carl Woese
  4. d) Stanley Cohen
  5. e) James Watson

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) In which of these are Archaea and Bacteriasignificantly different?

 

  1. a) cell size
  2. b) chromosome size and organization
  3. c) lack of a membrane-enclosed nucleus
  4. d) membrane lipid structure
  5. e) possessesion of membrane enclosed organelles

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3) What is the primary reason that Woese and Fox choose the rRNA molecule to study phyloge-netic relationships between organisms?

 

  1. a) Ribosomal RNA is abundant in the cell.
  2. b) Ribosomal RNA is a very stable molecule.
  3. c) Ribosomal RNA is a molecule found in all living organisms.
  4. d) Ribosomal RNA sequencing was very easy to perform at the time.
  5. e) Ribosomal RNA is very easy to isolate and manipulate.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) Which of these is correct regarding subunit rRNA?

 

  1. a) It serves the same biological function in all organisms.
  2. b) Its sequence changes very slowly over time.
  3. c) It is very stable and easy to work with.
  4. d) It serves the same biological function in all organisms and its sequence changes very slowly over time.
  5. e) These choices are all true.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5) In which of these aspects do Archaea DIFFER from Eukarya?

 

  1. a) Histones associated with DNA.
  2. b) The transcription process.
  3. c) The translation process.
  4. d) The replication process.
  5. e) Being diploid in chromosome number.

 

 

 

 

 

 

6) What is the size range of a typical Archaea cell?

 

a).1 – 5 nm

  1. b) 20 – 50 nm
  2. c) 1 – 5 µm
  3. d) 20 – 50 µm
  4. e) 1 – 5 mm

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the chromosome found in most aarchaeal cells?

 

  1. a) The chromosome is made of double stranded DNA.
  2. b) Histones are associated with the chromosome.
  3. c) The chromosome is found in a structure called the nucleoid.
  4. d) The chromosome is found in a single copy.
  5. e) The chromosome is linear.

 

 

 

 

 

 

8) The archaeal chromosome is:

 

  1. a) linear and contained within a nuclear membrane.
  2. b) circular and contained within a nuclear membrane.
  3. c) circular and contains histones.
  4. d) linear and contains histones.
  5. e) circular, contains histones, and contained within a nuclear membrane.

 

 

 

 

 

9) How does the Archaea cytoplasmic membrane differs from the Bacteria membrane?

 

  1. a) The Archaeal membrane contains cholesterol.
  2. b) The Archaeal membrane contains no proteins.
  3. c) The Archaeal membrane is comprised of fatty acids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ester linkage.
  4. d) The Archaeal membrane is comprised of isoprenoids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ether linkage.
  5. e) The Archaeal membrane gives the cell its characteristic shape.

 

 

 

 

 

 

10) Several Archaea have a lipid monolayer instead of a lipid bilayer comprising their cytoplasmic membrane. Why could this be an advantage?

 

  1. a) This type of chemical lipid structure is more stable at very high temperatures.
  2. b) Proteins are able to integrate more easily into this type of structure.
  3. c) This type of structure is permeable to protons.
  4. d) Carbohydrates can easily diffuse across this structure to provide nutrients for the cell.
  5. e) This type of structure offers considerable protection against osmotic pressure.

 

 

 

 

 

11) Which of these is one of the main functions of the cytoplasmic membrane in Archaea?

 

  1. a) It protects against effects of differing osmotic pressure
  2. b) It gives the cell its characteristic shapes
  3. c) It acts as a semi permeable barrier to the diffusion of molecules into and out of the cell.
  4. d) It prevents the diffusion of gases into and out of the cell.
  5. e) It allows attachment to specific receptor molecules on solid surfaces in the environment.

 

 

 

 

 

12) Some archaeal cells contain pseudopeptidoglycan as their major cell wall component. What is this material composed of?

 

  1. a) Lipids and proteins.
  2. b) Sugar polymers cross-linked via a peptide bridge.
  3. c) Sugar polymers that are linked to lipids via an ether bond.
  4. d) Proteins liked together via a glycosidic bond.
  5. e) Lipids cross-linked via a peptide bridge.

 

 

 

 

13) How do the Bacteria and Archaea differ in the way the flagellum proteins are handled?

 

  1. a) Archaea proteins are assembled inside the cell for transport out of the cell.
  2. b) Archaea proteins are excreted to the outside of the cell for self-assembly.
  3. c) Archaea proteins are added to the growing flagellum shaft at the base.
  4. d) Archaea proteins are transported through the hollow flagellum tube for assembly at the end of the flagellum.
  5. e) Archaea proteins are enclosed within a membrane and moved to the outside of the cell.

 

 

 

 

 

14) Why might the process of chemotaxis in the archaeon Halobacterium be similar to chemotaxis in Bacteria?

 

  1. a) Similar proteins in the chemotaxis signaling pathway are found in both Halobacterium and Bacteria.
  2. b) The flagellin protein is almost identical in sequence for both Halobacterium and Bacteria.
  3. c) Genes that encode proteins for flagellum assembly are found in both Halobacterium and Bac-teria.
  4. d) Both Halobacterium and Bacteria use ATP to turn the flagellum.
  5. e) fFagellum assemble is identical in both Halobacterium and Bacteria.

 

 

 

 

 

15) What is most accepted number of phyla found in the Archaea domain?

 

  1. a) two
  2. b) eight
  3. c) twelve
  4. d) twenty
  5. e) forty

 

 

 

 

 

 

16) Many cultured and characterized strains from the phylum Crenarchaeota were isolated from _____ .

 

  1. a) the ocean
  2. b) freshwater lakes
  3. c) thermal hot springs
  4. d) dry soil
  5. e) sea ice

 

 

 

 

 

17) Many of the hyperthermophilic crenarchaeotes that have been grown in culture are also _____ .

 

  1. a) mesophiles
  2. b) acidophiles
  3. c) barophiles
  4. d) osmolphiles
  5. e) alkalophiles

 

 

 

 

 

 

18) The secondary structure and amino acid composition of proteins from hyperthermophiles dif-fer somewhat from proteins in mesophiles. What would you expect to find in thermophiles?

 

  1. a) More β-sheets and the amino acids tyrosine and arginine.
  2. b) More α-helices and the amino acids tyrosine and arginine.
  3. c) More β-sheets and the amino acids cysteine and serine.
  4. d) More β-sheets and the amino acids glycine and glutamate.
  5. e) More α-helices and the amino acids cysteine and serine.

 

 

 

19) What are chaperonins (“molecular chaperones”)?

 

  1. a) Channels in the membrane for protein secretion.
  2. b) Proteins used for the secretion of other proteins.
  3. c) Proteins used for the correct folding of other proteins.
  4. d) Proteins involved in the regulation of gene expression at the level of transcription.
  5. e) Sensory proteins found in the cytoplasmic membrane to sense various environmental signals.

 

 

 

 

20) All known hyperthermophiles possess this enzyme to increase the supercoiling of the DNA and help stabilize it at high temperatures.

 

  1. a) ligase
  2. b) Taq polymerase
  3. c) thermosome
  4. d) reverse DNA gyrase
  5. e) histone

 

 

 

 

 

21) Some researchers think the crenarchaeotes may comprise about ___ of all bacterial and arc-haeal cells in moderate and cold environments marine environments.

 

  1. a) one percent
  2. b) five percent
  3. c) twenty percent
  4. d) fifty percent
  5. e) eighty percent

 

 

 

 

 

22) Which of these is true about methanogens?

 

  1. a) They are aerobic and grow on methane.
  2. b) They are anaerobic and ferment methane.
  3. c) They are anaerobic and produce methane from CO2 reduction.
  4. d) They are aerobic and ferment methane.
  5. e) They are aerobic and produce methane from CO2 reduction.

 

 

 

 

23) What does Methanobrevibacter smithii use to reduce formate in order to make methane?

 

  1. a) glucose
  2. b) oxygen
  3. c) nitrogen
  4. d) carbon dioxide
  5. e) hydrogen

 

 

 

24) You would be able to find methanogens in all of the following environments EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) the rumen of bovines.
  2. b) the bottom of a swamp.
  3. c) a well aerated aquifer.
  4. d) sediments from a freshwater lake.
  5. e) the benthic region of the ocean.

 

 

 

 

 

 

25) Which of these is characteristic of a halophile?

 

  1. a) It grows in a circle on a petri dish.
  2. b) It is extremely small in size.
  3. c) It has an absolute requirement for salt.
  4. d) It requires an acidic environment for growth.
  5. e) It grows only under anaerobic conditions.

 

 

 

 

 

26) What is the minimum salt requirement of a halophile?

 

  1. a) 10 mM
  2. b) 100 mM
  3. c) 250 mM
  4. d) 750 mM
  5. e) 1.5 M

 

 

 

27) From which area would you be able to isolate the bacterium Halobacterium?

 

  1. a) the Pacific ocean
  2. b) the Indian ocean
  3. c) Lake Michigan
  4. d) the Great Salt Lake
  5. e) the Mediterranean Sea

 

 

 

28) Where have halophiles been isolated from?

 

  1. a) hydrothermal vents
  2. b) temperate environments
  3. c) very cold environments
  4. d) both b and ce) a, b, and c are correct

 

 

 

 

 

 

29) To avoid osmotic shock, the obligate halophile Halobacterium salinarum maintains a high intracellular concentration of which chemical?

 

  1. a) potassium
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) chloride
  4. d) sodium
  5. e) glycine

 

 

 

30) Some extreme halophiles maintain high internal concentrations of potassium to avoid osmotic shock. What does halophilic bacterial DNA possess that prevents damage from potassium?

 

  1. a) A novel nucleotide..
  2. b) Their DNA is single stranded instead of double stranded.
  3. c) A high GC content.
  4. d) The DNA is enclosed inside a protective membrane sac.
  5. e) The DNA is protected by high concentrations of magnesium ions.

 

 

 

 

31) What does Halobacterium salinarum use the protein bacteriorhodopsin for?

 

  1. a) energy production
  2. b) protection from high salt concentrations
  3. c) moving water into the cell
  4. d) degradation of large polysaccharides
  5. e) sensing nutrient in the environment

 

 

 

32) What is the specific action of bacteriorhodopsin?

 

  1. a) Modification of vitamins for use in metabolism.
  2. b) Assembles ADP and phosphate to make ATP.
  3. c) Binds glucose and other sugars in the cell.
  4. d) Facilitates the movement of glucose across the cell membrane.
  5. e) Produces proton motive force using light energy.

 

 

 

 

 

33) Proteins of extreme halophiles contain high amounts of the amino acids _____ and ____ to help stabilize them in high salt environments.

 

  1. a) arginine, valine
  2. b) aspartate, glutamate
  3. c) glycine, serine
  4. d) histidine, arginine
  5. e) tyrosine, phenylalanine

 

 

 

 

34) Which member of the Archaea domain is a parasite of the archaeon Ignicoccus hospitalis and has one of the smallest genomes of all living microbes?

 

  1. a) Pyrolobus fumarii
  2. b) Thermoplasma acidophilum
  3. c) Nanoarchaeum equitans
  4. d) Nitrosopumilus maritimus
  5. e) Sulfolobus solfataricus

 

 

 

 

 

35) Besides the methanogens and the halophiles, the phylum Euryarchaeota contains many ther-mophiles and hyperthermophiles. Most of these are also classified as _____ .

 

  1. a) halophiles
  2. b) psychrophiles
  3. c) barophiles
  4. d) mesophiles
  5. e) acidophiles

 

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) All members of the Archaea live in extreme environments.

 

 

 

 

 

 

37) Evidence clearly shows that Archaea are direct descendants of the earliest life forms.

 

 

 

38) One characterized halophilic archaeal species has an unusual cellular morphology in which cells are flat and square.

 

 

 

39) The Archaea contain a cytoskeleton.

 

 

 

40) All members of the Archaea domain contain a cell wall.

 

 

41) All members of the phylum Crenarchaeota are hyperthermophiles.

 

 

 

42) Members of the archaeal phylum Euryarchaeota are similar in their rRNA gene sequence but differ greatly in their metabolic characteristics.

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

43) Woese and Fox were able to show that the Archaea were not related to either Bacteria or Archaea and should constitute a separate domain of life using _____ ______ sequences

 

 

 

44) Archaeal cells get most of their protection against osmotic pressure differences from their _____ .

 

 

 

45) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.

 

 

 

46) Halobacterium salinarum possess the red-colored protein ___ that absorbs light energy to pump protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force.

 

 

 

47) Most members of the phylum Crenarchaeota that have been isolated and characterized are classified as ___, although environmental DNA samples have shown that these organisms are also present in cold marine environments.

 

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Why did Woese and Fox use rRNA gene sequences to compare the phylogenetic relatedness between microbes?

 

 

49) How does the chemical structure of archaeal cytoplasmic membrane lipids help these bacteria survive in very hot environments?

 

 

 

50) What is the function of the protein bacteriorhodopsin in Halobacterium salinarum?

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 5

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these comprises the viral genome?

 

  1. a) single-stranded DNA
  2. b) single-stranded RNA
  3. c) double-stranded DNA
  4. d) double-stranded RNA
  5. e) All of these choices are seen in viruses.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

2) What is the viral capsid composed of?

 

  1. a) protein
  2. b) nucleic acid
  3. c) lipid
  4. d) polysaccharide
  5. e) glycogen

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3) What protective structure contains the viral nucleic acid?

 

  1. a) envelope
  2. b) nucleus
  3. c) capsid
  4. d) endosome
  5. e) vacuole

 

 

 

 

 

 

4) The field of virology started in the late _______ after Dimitri Ivanovski demonstrated that the infectious agent that caused disease in a tobacco plants could pass through a filter small enough to exclude any known bacterium.

 

  1. a) 1500s
  2. b) 1600s
  3. c) 1700s
  4. d) 1800s
  5. e) 1900s

 

 

 

 

 

5) What is the average size of a virus?

 

  1. a) 10 – 100 nm
  2. b) 0.5 – 1 µm
  3. c) 5 – 10 µm
  4. d) 100 – 500 µm.
  5. e) 1 – 10 mm

 

 

 

 

6) What general shape is a virus with helical capsid symmetry?

 

  1. a) icosahedral
  2. b) spherical
  3. c) round
  4. d) rod shaped
  5. e) square

 

 

 

7) Most viruses with helical capsid symmetry contain _______ as their nucleic acid.

 

  1. a) single-stranded DNA
  2. b) single-stranded RNA
  3. c) double-stranded DNA
  4. d) double-stranded RNA
  5. e) RNA/DNA dimer

 

 

 

 

 

8) Viruses that have icosahedral symmetry have ________ faces and 12 vertices resulting in a spherical appearance.

 

  1. a) 10
  2. b) 20
  3. c) 30
  4. d) 40
  5. e) 50

 

 

 

 

9) Enveloped viruses are mainly associated with which of the following?

 

  1. a) plants and bacteria
  2. b) animals
  3. c) bacteria
  4. d) plant and animals
  5. e) plants

 

 

 

10) What is the first step in the viral replication cycle?

 

  1. a) RNA synthesis
  2. b) genome synthesis
  3. c) entry into the cell
  4. d) attachment to the cell
  5. e) viral RNA translation

 

 

 

 

 

11) What is the most common way for non-enveloped viruses to enter animal cells?

 

  1. a) The virion fuses itself to the cell membrane.
  2. b) The virion directly injects its nucleic acid.
  3. c) Endocytosis of the virion.
  4. d) Through lysis of the cell.
  5. e) Via a hole in the cell membrane.

 

 

 

 

 

12) What is the most common way for enveloped viruses to enter animal cells?

 

  1. a) The virion fuses itself to the cell membrane.
  2. b) The virion directly injects its nucleic acid.
  3. c) Endocytosis of the virion.
  4. d) Through lysis of the cell.
  5. e) Via a hole in the cell membrane.

 

 

 

13) Plant viruses often enter into a plant cell:

 

  1. a) through fusion of the virion to the cell membrane.
  2. b) through direct injection of the viral nucleic acid.
  3. c) as a result of insects feeding on the plant.
  4. d) by endocytosis.
  5. e) by phagocytosis.

 

 

 

14) How do bacteriophages invade the bacteria cell?

 

  1. a) The bacteriophage fuses itself to the cell membrane.
  2. b) The bacteriophage directly injects its nucleic acid.
  3. c) Endocytosis of the bacteriophage.
  4. d) Through lysis of the cell.
  5. e) Via a hole in the cell membrane.

 

 

 

 

15) A single virus-infected cell may produce up to __________ new virions.

 

  1. a) 10
  2. b) 100
  3. c) 1000
  4. d) 10,000
  5. e) one million

 

 

 

 

 

 

16) Many enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called _________.

 

  1. a) exocytosis
  2. b) budding
  3. c) cell lysis
  4. d) receptor-mediated endocytosis
  5. e) phagocytosis

 

 

 

 

17) What is the premise of the coevolution hypothesis of viral evolution?

 

  1. a) Viruses appeared after the first cells were well established.
  2. b) Viruses arose from excess DNA of cells.
  3. c) Viruses first appeared before or at the same time as the first primordial cells.
  4. d) Viruses first appeared about a million years ago and continue to evolve along with their hosts.
  5. e) Viruses originated when some cells lost the ability to replicate on their own.

 

 

 

18) What is the premise of the progressive hypothesis of viral origin?

 

  1. a) Viruses evolved from symbionts of cells.
  2. b) Viruses evolved from self-replicating nucleic acid segments.
  3. c) Viruses originated from cells that lost the ability to replicate.
  4. d) Viruses were present when the first primordial cells evolved.
  5. e) Viruses arose from fragmented DNA in a cell.

 

 

 

19) Which of these findings supports the progressive hypothesis of viral origin?

 

  1. a) The presence of mitochondria and chloroplast in cells.
  2. b) The existence of obligate intracellular pathogens like Chlamydia.
  3. c) The discovery of nucleocytoplasmic large DNA viruses.
  4. d) The existence of eukaryal transposons or retrotransposon genetic elements.
  5. e) The presence of a nucleus in eukaryotic cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

20) What technique is usually used for the quantification of a bacteriophage suspension?

 

  1. a) a direct count
  2. b) a plaque assay
  3. c) a protein-based assay
  4. d) a loop dilution assay
  5. e) a PCR assay

 

 

 

21) The term for bacteriophage DNA that has integrated into the host cell chromosome and rep-licates along with the host cell chromosome.

 

  1. a) a plasmid
  2. b) a transposon
  3. c) a prophage
  4. d) a lysogen
  5. e) a retrophage

 

 

 

 

22) Term for bacteriophages that have the ability to either cause a lytic infection or integrate their genome into the host cell chromosome after entry into the host cell.

 

  1. a) lysogenic phage
  2. b) virulent phage
  3. c) transposable phage
  4. d) cytopathic phage
  5. e) retro-phage

 

 

 

23) All of the following methods can be used to quantify viruses EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) plaque assay.
  2. b) hemagglutinin assay.
  3. c) viral protein assay.
  4. d) endpoint assay to determine LD50.
  5. e) endpoint assay to determine ID50.

 

 

 

 

 

24) The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses (ICTV) classification scheme uses all of the following criteria to classify viruses EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) the host they infect.
  2. b) the type of nucleic acid they contain.
  3. c) ribosomal RNA sequence.
  4. d) virion morphology.
  5. e) presence of absence of an envelope.

 

 

25) Which Domain contains the viruses?

 

  1. a) Bacteria
  2. b) Archaea
  3. c) Eukarya
  4. d) It depends upon their host.
  5. e) They are not classified at the domain level.

 

 

 

 

26) What is the Baltimore classification scheme for viruses based on?

 

  1. a) strandedness and type of nucleic acid
  2. b) type of virion symmetry
  3. c) type of capsid found in the virion
  4. d) type of host the virus infects
  5. e) the presence or absence of an envelope

 

 

 

27) Which method listed below would provide the most reliable information for the identifica-tion of an unknown virus?

 

  1. a) electron microscopy
  2. b) hemagglutinin assay
  3. c) plaque assay
  4. d) antibody titer assay
  5. e) viral nucleic acid analysis

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

28) Viroids are infectious RNA particles that cause infections in:

 

  1. a) plants and animals.
  2. b) animals.
  3. c) bacteria and plants.
  4. d) plants
  5. e) bacteria.

 

 

 

29) Why is the human hepatitis delta virus similar to satellite viruses of plants?

 

  1. a) It has a similar nucleic acid sequence.
  2. b) It can also cause an infection in plants.
  3. c) It requires a helper virus for replication in the cell.
  4. d) It is a single-stranded DNA virus.
  5. e) It is related to the retroviruses.

 

 

30) What is a prion?

 

  1. a) An infectious RNA particle.
  2. b) A particle similar to a satellite virus.
  3. c) An infectious DNA particle.
  4. d) An infectious protein particle.
  5. e) A type of virus.

 

 

 

31) Which of these causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathies?

 

  1. a) viroids
  2. b) satellite viruses
  3. c) the human delta virus
  4. d) prions
  5. e) satellite RNAs

 

 

 

32) How do prions cause disease?

 

  1. a) By corrupting mRNA expression in the cell.
  2. b) By corrupting DNA replication in the cell.
  3. c) By preventing translation from occurring in the cell.
  4. d) By causing naturally occurring proteins in the cell to change shape.
  5. e) By preventing proper RNA transcription termination.

 

 

33) The discovery of oncogenes in this virus group led to the discovery of proto-oncogenes in human cells and an understanding of how tumors form.

 

  1. a) Poliovirus
  2. b) Retrovirus
  3. c) Rhinovirus
  4. d) Orthomyxovirus
  5. e) Paramyxovirus

 

 

 

 

34) What do proto-oncogenes encode?

 

  1. a) proteins that cause cell death
  2. b) proteins that cause apoptosis in the cell
  3. c) proteins that control cell division
  4. d) proteins that prevent virus infection
  5. e) retroviral proteins

 

 

 

35 Gene therapy technologies may use viruses:

 

  1. a) to destroy cells that are not functioning normally.
  2. b) as gene-carrying vectors for delivery to target cells.
  3. c) to cause cytopathic effects in certain cells.
  4. d) to stimulate cell destruction by the immune system.
  5. e) to cause disease and thus boost the immune system.

 

 

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) All viruses require host cell enzymes for translation.

 

 

 

 

37) Enveloped viruses acquire their envelope from host cell membranes.

 

 

 

 

38) Filtration of a bacteriophage preparation replicated in E. coli will effectively separate viable cells from phage particles.

 

 

 

39) Electron microscopy is the most precise way to identify an unknown virus.

 

 

40) All viruses that cause hepatitis in humans belong to the same virus family.

 

 

41) Viruses have been used extensively to further our knowledge on the molecular biology of the human cell.

 

 

42) Viruses are currently being used for gene therapy as the agent for delivery of the gene to the appropriate cell.

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

43) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.

 

 

44) The zone of clearing as a result of a phage infection on a lawn of E. coli growing on the sur-face of an agar plate is called a ________.

 

 

45) Small infectious RNA molecules that are able to cause disease in plants are called ________.

 

 

46) Infectious protein particles that cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are called ________.

 

 

47) Genes that are involved in the normal regulation of the cell cycle and can be altered to in-crease probability of cancer are called ___________.

 

 

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Describe the coevolution hypothesis of viral origin. What evidence supports this hypothesis?

 

 

49) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?

 

 

 

50) The ICTV virus classification scheme uses a number of viral attributes for the grouping of viruses into orders, families, genera, and species. List the viral features used to classify viruses using this scheme.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 6

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which one of the following elements is considered a microelement, usually required in minute amounts in microbiological media?

 

  1. a) phosphate
  2. b) potassium
  3. c) iron
  4. d) manganese
  5. e) magnesium

 

 

 

2) What is the function of siderophores?

 

  1. a) Transporting waste products out of the cell.
  2. b) Binding iron for transport into the cell.
  3. c) Binding glucose for transport into the cell.
  4. d) Transporting proteins out of the cell.
  5. e) Moving potassium into the cell for osmotic regulation.

 

 

 

3) An autotroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.

 

  1. a) sunlight; energy
  2. b) organic compounds; carbon
  3. c) organic compounds; energy
  4. d) inorganic compounds; energy
  5. e) carbon dioxide; carbon

 

 

4) A heterotroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.

 

  1. a) sunlight; energy
  2. b) organic compounds; carbon
  3. c) organic compounds; energy
  4. d) inorganic compounds; energy
  5. e) carbon dioxide; carbon

 

 

5) What is the most readily useable form of nitrogen by microorganisms?

 

  1. a) dinitrogen
  2. b) ammonium ion
  3. c) nitrate
  4. d) nitrite
  5. e) nitric oxide

 

 

6) What is nitrogen fixation?

 

  1. a) The oxidation of nitrate to ammonia for assimilation.
  2. b) The oxidation of ammonia to nitrate for assimilation.
  3. c) The reduction of dinitrogen to ammonia for assimilation.
  4. d) The reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen for assimilation.
  5. e) The release of an amino group from an amino acid for assimilation.

 

 

7) What is the most abundant form of nitrogen in the biosphere?

 

  1. a) ammonia
  2. b) nitrate
  3. c) nitrite
  4. d) dinitrogen
  5. e) nitrous oxide

 

 

8) A phototroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.

 

  1. a) carbon dioxide; carbon
  2. b) organic compounds; carbon
  3. c) inorganic compounds; energy
  4. d) sunlight; energy
  5. e) organic compounds; energy

 

 

9) A lithotroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.

 

  1. a) inorganic compounds; energy and electrons
  2. b) organic compounds; energy and electronss.
  3. c) inorganic compounds; carbon
  4. d) sunlight; energy
  5. e) carbon dioxide; energy

 

 

10) What is the most common solidifying agent used in microbiological media?

 

  1. a) gelatin
  2. b) agar
  3. c) alginate
  4. d) silica
  5. e) polyacrylamide

 

 

11) Which one of the following is NOT a physical factor that affects the growth rate of cells?

 

  1. a) nutrient concentration
  2. b) temperature
  3. c) pressure
  4. d) light intensity
  5. e) radiation

 

 

12) What term applies to a microbe that can synthesize all of its cellular constituents from a sim-ple carbon source and inorganic salts?

 

  1. a) autotroph
  2. b) heterotroph
  3. c) auxotroph
  4. d) prototroph
  5. e) a chemotroph

 

 

13) Term that applies to a bacterium that has an absolute requirement of oxygen for growth..

 

  1. a) aerobe
  2. b) anaerobe
  3. c) aerotolerant anaerobe
  4. d) facultative anaerobe
  5. e) facultative aerobe

 

 

14) Term for a bacterium that does not use oxygen for growth, but will grow in the presence of oxygen.

 

  1. a) aerobe
  2. b) anaerobe
  3. c) aerotolerant anaerobe
  4. d) facultative anaerobe
  5. e) facultative aerobe

 

 

15) The enzyme catalase is used to detoxify which harmful oxygen species?

 

  1. a) hydroxyl radical
  2. b) superoxide
  3. c) hydrogen peroxide
  4. d) ozone
  5. e) singlet oxygen

 

 

16) What is the term for microbes that grow optimally at a pH below 5.5?

 

  1. a) alkalophiles
  2. b) psychrophiles
  3. c) halophiles
  4. d) acidophiles
  5. e) barophiles

 

 

17) Term for microbes that grow optimally at very high salt concentrations.

 

  1. a) osmolphiles
  2. b) barophiles
  3. c) halophiles
  4. d) psychrophiles
  5. e) thermophiles

 

 

18) Term for microbes that grow optimally at a pH above 8.5.

 

  1. a) acidophiles
  2. b) alkalophiles
  3. c) barophiles
  4. d) psychrophiles
  5. e) halophiles

 

 

19) Term applied to microbes that grow optimally at temperatures below 15°C.

 

  1. a) psychrophiles
  2. b) barophiles
  3. c) alkalophiles
  4. d) mesophiles
  5. e) halophiles

 

 

20) Enrichment media that contains starch as the sole carbon source is encouraging the growth of microbes that produce _____ .

 

  1. a) glucose
  2. b) the enzyme amylase
  3. c) the enzyme cellulase
  4. d) all twenty amino acids
  5. e) all required vitamins

 

 

21) In the environment, one microorganism often provides a nutrient for another microbe that is unable to synthesize the nutrient by itself. What is this type of relationship called?

 

  1. a) auxotrophy
  2. b) prototrophy
  3. c) syntrophy
  4. d) oligotrophy
  5. e) eutrophy

 

 

22) Which of these methods can be used to obtain a viable cell count?

 

  1. a) counting chamber direct count
  2. b) turbidity measurement
  3. c) plate counts of serial dilutions
  4. d) loop dilution
  5. e) optical density

 

 

23) What would you use to measure the optical density of a bacterial culture?

 

  1. a) a Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
  2. b) a flow cytometer
  3. c) the plate count method
  4. d) a spectrophotometer
  5. e) a microscope

 

 

24) The plate count method was used to estimate the number of bacteria in a culture over time. Serial dilutions were made of culture samples at various time points. A 0.1 ml portion of the 10-6 dilution was spread over the surface of a nutrient agar plate for each time point. The plates were incubated for 24 hrs and the colony forming units (CFU) were counted on each plate. A total of 45 colonies were counted on the plate for the 30 minute time point. What was the cell population for this time point?

 

  1. a) 45 X 104 CFU/ml
  2. b) 45 X 105 CFU/ml
  3. c) 45 X 106 CFU/ml
  4. d) 45 X 107 CFU/ml
  5. e) 45 X 108 CFU/ml

 

 

25) In reference to microbial growth, what conditions prompt the “stringent response”?

 

  1. a) A shift from a warm to a cold environment.
  2. b) A shift from a nutrient rich to a nutrient poor environment.
  3. c) A shift from an oxygen rich to an oxygen poor environment.
  4. d) A shift from a state of resistance to susceptibility to a bacteriophage.
  5. e) A shift from a light to a dark environment.

 

 

26) Fresh media is inoculated with an actively growing Escherichia coli culture. You measure the optical density (OD) at the time of inoculation and record avalue of of 0.05) Two hours later you take another reading and record a optical density of 0.2) What is the generation time for your cul-ture?

 

  1. a) 30 minutes
  2. b) 40 minutes
  3. c) 50 minutes
  4. d) 60 minutes
  5. e) Cannot determine from the information given.

 

 

27) If a cell culture contains 400 cells/ml at time = 0 and it has a generation time of 30 minutes, how many cells (cells/ml) will be present after 2 hours of incubation?

 

  1. a) 1200 cells/ml
  2. b) 1600 cells/ml
  3. c) 2400 cells/ml
  4. d) 3200 cells/ml
  5. e) 6400 cells/ml

 

 

28) What is the mean growth rate for a culture that has a generation time of 1 hour?

 

  1. a) 1 hr.
  2. b) 2 hr.
  3. c) 1 hr-1.
  4. d) 2 hr-1.
  5. e) Cannot determine from the information given.

 

 

29) How long would it take a culture of E. coli with a starting cell density of 1 X 105 cells/ ml to reach a cell density of 1 X 108 cells/ml if it had a generation time of 30 minutes?

 

  1. a) 3 hours
  2. b) 4 hours
  3. c) 5 hours
  4. d) 6 hours
  5. e) 7 hours

 

 

30) If you had an E. coli culture with a starting cell density of 1 X 106 cells/ml and it had a gen-eration time of 40 minutes, what would be the cell density after incubation for 6 hours?

 

  1. a) 3 X 108 cells/ml
  2. b) 5.1 X 108 cell/ml
  3. c) 6.3 X 108 cells/ml
  4. d) 9.4 X 108 cells/ml
  5. e) 1 X 109 cells/ml

 

 

31) What is a chemosta?

 

  1. a) A system used for the continuous culture of microbial cells.
  2. b) A chemical used as a substrate for growth of microbial cells.
  3. c) The maximum growth rate that can be obtained for a useable substrate.
  4. d) A batch culture that uses a defined medium for growth.
  5. e) A nutrient that is able to control the growth rate of a bacterial culture.

 

 

32) In order for a chemostat to operate properly, what must the reservoir contain?

 

  1. a) a complex medium
  2. b) vitamins
  3. c) all twenty amino acids
  4. d) a limiting nutrient
  5. e) oxygen

 

 

33) During steady state growth in a chemostat, the growth rate of the cells is equivalent to:

 

  1. a) the nutrient concentration.
  2. b) the generation time.
  3. c) the cell yield.
  4. d) the flow rate.
  5. e) the dilution rate.

 

 

34) Which method listed below will result in sterilization of an environmental water sample?

 

  1. a) Boiling the sample for ten minutes.
  2. b) Adding bleach to the sample.
  3. c) Autoclaving the sample.
  4. d) Heating the sample to 70°C for 30 minutes.
  5. e) Microwaving the sample for 3 minutes.

 

 

35) Which is the best definition of an antiseptic?

 

  1. a) A chemical agent that is applied to hospital equipment to kill or inhibit microbes.
  2. b) A chemical agent that is applied to living tissue to kill and inhibit microbes.
  3. c) An antibiotic that is applied to living tissue.
  4. d) A physical agent that is used to sterilize hospital equipment.
  5. e) A physical agent that is used on human tissue to inhibit microbial growth.

 

 

36) Alcohols like ethanol and isopropanol are commonly used as antiseptics because they are very effective at reducing the bacterial load. What is thier mode of action?

 

  1. a) disrupting the plasma membrane
  2. b) inhibiting DNA replication
  3. c) inhibiting protein synthesis
  4. d) disruption of the peptidoglycan
  5. e) inhibiting transcription

 

 

37) Many disinfectants are strong oxidizing agents and disrupt many cellular functions. Which of these is an example of an oxidizing agent?

 

  1. a) isopropanol
  2. b) carbolic acid
  3. c) triclosan
  4. d) chlorine bleach
  5. e) phenol

 

 

38) Many pharmaceutical products are heat sensitive so they are sterilized:

 

  1. a) by ultraviolet radiation.
  2. b) by ionizing radiation.
  3. c) with ozone gas.
  4. d) with chlorine gas.
  5. e) by freezing.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

39) An autotroph is an organism that obtains its energy from the sun.

 

 

40) A heterotroph is an organism that uses organic carbon as its carbon source.

 

 

41) Generation time is the average time it takes an actively growing cell in a population to divide.

 

 

42) Prototrophic microbes need to be grown on a complex medium because they have several growth factor requirements.

 

 

43) Microbes that have an absolute requirement for oxygen are called obligate aerobes.

 

 

44) The bile salts in MacConkey agar, which inhibits the growth of many bacteria, make this media differential in nature.

 

 

45) Pasteurization is a method of sterilization.

 

 

46) The use of a good antiseptic, such as Betadine, results in sterilization.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

47) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.

 

 

48) A microbe that grows optimally at a temperature below 15°C is called a __________.

 

 

50) A microbe that grows in the presence of oxygen but does not use oxygen for growth is called a(n) __________ __________.

 

 

51) The process commonly used by the dairy industry to reduce the number of microbes in milk and destroy any pathogens that may be present is called ______________.

 

 

52) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

53) The growth curve generated for a microbial batch culture consists of four phases. Explain what is happening to the culture during each of the phases.

 

 

 

54) What are the ingredients in MacConkey agar makes it both selective and differential? Give an example for its use.

 

 

55) Compare and contrast sterilization to disinfection. Give an example for both.

 

 

 

56) Would ionizing radiation be safe to use on food? Why?

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 7

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What did the experiment by Fred Griffith in 1928 with the R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrate?

 

  1. a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.
  2. b) R strain phenotype could spontaneously revert to S strain phenotype.
  3. c) Genetic material from one strain could be transferred to another strain.
  4. d) The ability of these bacteria to kill mice.
  5. e) That some strains of Streptococcus were not pathogenic.

 

 

2) What did the experiment by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty in 1944 with the R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrate?

 

  1. a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.
  2. b) R strain phenotype could spontaneously revert to S strain phenotype.
  3. c) Genetic material from one strain could be transferred to another strain.
  4. d) The ability of these bacteria to kill mice.
  5. e) That some strains of Streptococcus were not pathogenic.

 

 

3) The Hershey and Chase experiment was able to conclusively demonstrate that DNA, not protein, was the genetic material. They were able to distinguish DNA from protein since labeled _____ incorporated into DNA while labeled _____ incorporated into proteins.

 

  1. a) nitrogen; sulfur
  2. b) magnesium; nitrogen
  3. c) nitrogen; magnesium
  4. d) phosphorous; sulfur
  5. e) sulfur; nitrogen

 

4) The Watson and Crick model showed that in the DNA molecule:

 

  1. a) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
  2. b) purines paired with purines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
  3. c) purines paired with purines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
  4. d) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
  5. e) pyrimidines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.

 

 

5) How do nucleotides connect to adjacent nucleotides in the Watson-Crick model of DNA?

 

  1. a) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the 2’ deoxy of the other.
  2. b) Via a hydrogen bond between the nitrogenous base of one nucleotide and the nitrogenous base of the other.
  3. c) Via a hydrogen bond between the nitrogenous base of one nucleotide and the 5’ phosphate of the other.
  4. d) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the nitrogenous base of the other.
  5. e) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the 5’ phosphate of the other.

 

 

6) The Watson-Crick model of DNA shows that the base adenine pairs with:

 

  1. a) cytosine while guanine pairs with thymine.
  2. b) guanine while cytosine pairs with thymine.
  3. c) thymine while cytosine pairs with guanine.
  4. d) either thymine or guanine, while cytosine pairs with either thymine or guanine.
  5. e) either thymine or cytosine while guanine pairs with either thymine or cytosine.

 

 

7) The main differences between Bacteria and Archaea chromosomal DNA when compared to Eukarya chromosomal DNA, is that the Bacteria or Archaea chromosome usually:

 

  1. a) is circular while Eukarya is linear.
  2. b) is diploid while Eukarya is haploid.
  3. c) consist of several chromosomes while Eukarya has a single chromosome.
  4. d) contains the base uracil while Eukarya has thymine in place of uracil.
  5. e) is found in a non-condensed form while Eukarya DNA is highly condensed and packaged.

 

 

8) Replication of the bacterial chromosome begins at how many locations?

 

  1. a) one
  2. b) two
  3. c) three
  4. d) four
  5. e) five

 

 

 

 

 

9) What is the first protein to bind to the oriC region of the DNA molecule to start the replication process?

 

  1. a) DNA polymerase
  2. b) the primase
  3. c) DnaA
  4. d) gyrase
  5. e) DnaI

 

 

10) After the DNA is unwound at the site of DNA replication initiation,what binds to the unwound DNA to prevent it from reannealing?

 

  1. a) DNA gyrase
  2. b) single-stranded DNA binding protein
  3. c) DnaA
  4. d) DNA polymerase
  5. e) DnaB

 

 

11) What, in bacteria, is analogous to the autonomously replicating sequence (ARS) in yeast?

 

  1. a) the promoter
  2. b) a plasmid
  3. c) a transposon
  4. d) the oriC
  5. e) a prophage

 

 

12) Which statement below is FALSE regarding replication of the bacterial chromosome?

 

  1. a) Replication occurs in a bidirectional manner from the origin of replication.
  2. b) The leading strand is replicated in the 5’ to 3’ direction and the lagging strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
  3. c) The primase adds a short RNA primer to serve as a starting point for the DNA polymerase to add new bases.
  4. d) DNA replication is a semi-conservative process, where one strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a complementary strand.
  5. e) The incoming nucleotide triphosphate is covalently attached to the free 3’ hydroxyl.

 

 

 

 

 

 

13) Which enzyme removes the RNA primer and fills in the gap during DNA replication in bacteria?

 

  1. a) DNA polymerase III
  2. b) DNA polymerase I
  3. c) primase
  4. d) ligase
  5. e) DNAase

 

 

14) What are the main enzymes responsible for replication of DNA in eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) DNA pol III and DNA pol I
  2. b) DNA pol III and DNA pol α
  3. c) DNA pol I and DNA pol ε
  4. d) DNA pol α and DNA pol ε
  5. e) DNA pol ε and DNA pol δ

 

 

15) Replication termination in E. coli involves which two  proteins?

 

  1. a) Tus protein and topoisomerase II.
  2. b) helicase and DnaG.
  3. c) helicase and topoisomerase II.
  4. d) Tus protein and DnaG.
  5. e) Tus protein and helicase.

 

 

16) Term for a special sequence at the end of the chromosome in eukaryal cells.

 

  1. a) a terminator
  2. b) a centromere
  3. c) a telomere
  4. d) an antiorigin.
  5. e) an enhancer

 

 

17) Which enzyme is responsible for adding the final bases to the end of a chromosome during DNA replication in eukaryal cells?

 

  1. a) DNA polδ
  2. b) DNA polα
  3. c) DNA primase B
  4. d) telomerase
  5. e) topoisomerase

 

 

18) Which of these best differentiates DNA and RNA?

 

  1. a) RNA is single-stranded and DNA is double stranded.
  2. b) RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
  3. c) RNA contains the base uracil in place of thymine, which is in DNA.
  4. d) Both a and b are true.
  5. e) a, b, and c are true.

 

 

19) A gene can best be described as a segment of DNA that:

 

  1. a) encodes for a protein.
  2. b) encodes for a protein or functional RNA.
  3. c) is transcribed as well as the associated regulatory regions.
  4. d) encodes for a protein as well as the associated regulatory regions.
  5. e) is transcribed.

 

 

20) Messenger RNA (mRNA) can best be described as a molecule that contains the code for a:

 

  1. a) protein.
  2. b) polypeptide.
  3. c) protein, rRNA or tRNA.
  4. d) polypeptide, tRNA, or rRNA.
  5. e) polypeptide or regulatory RNA.

 

 

21) What are micro RNAs?

 

  1. a) mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins
  2. b) small regulatory RNAs
  3. c) tRNAs
  4. d) rRNAs
  5. e) small mRNAs

 

 

22) For the initiation of transcription in bacteria, RNA polymerase binds to what region on the gene?

 

  1. a) promoter
  2. b) operator
  3. c) enhancer region
  4. d) origin of replication
  5. e) Shine-Dalgarno sequence

 

 

23) What is the sigma factor of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme responsible for?

  1. a) initiation of transcription
  2. b) recognition of the promoter region
  3. c) transcription elongation
  4. d) transcription termination
  5. e) ribosome binding

 

 

24) Most bacterial promoters consist of two regions: __________ and ___________.

 

  1. a) Pribnow box and operator.
  2. b) enhancer region and operator.
  3. c) enhancer region and -35 region.
  4. d) -35 region and operator.
  5. e) Pribnow box and -35 region.

 

 

25) In eukaryal cells, what does RNA polymerase II transcribe?

 

  1. a) tRNA genes
  2. b) small regulatory RNAs
  3. c) the 5S and 18S rRNAs
  4. d) mRNA genes
  5. e) rRNAs genes

 

 

26) What does Rho-independent termination of transcription in bacteria involve?

 

  1. a) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly A sequence.
  2. b) The formation of a hairpin loop only.
  3. c) A poly U sequence followed by a poly A sequence.
  4. d) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly U sequence.
  5. e) A poly A sequence followed by a hairpin loop.

 

 

27) Transcription termination in eukaryal cells is more complex than in bacterial cells as the RNA molecule undergoes further processing before becoming a functional mRNA. Which of these BEST describes this processing?

 

  1. a) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 5’ end and removing internal sequences called introns.
  2. b) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 5’ end and removing internal sequences called exons.
  3. c) Capping the 5’ end with 7-methyl guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end and removing internal sequences called introns.
  4. d) Capping the 5’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end and removing internal sequences called exons.
  5. e) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine and adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end.

 

 

28) What is a codon?

 

  1. a) Four bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
  2. b) Four bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
  3. c) Three bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
  4. d) Three bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
  5. e) Two bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

 

 

29) Initiation of translation in bacteria starts with the binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit to the mRNA molecule. The ribosomal binding site is nearer the _________ end of the mRNA molecule and is called the ________.

 

  1. a) 3’; Pribnow box
  2. b) 3’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
  3. c) 3’; Rho sequence
  4. d) 5’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
  5. e) 5’; Rho sequence

 

 

30) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic. What does this term mean?

 

  1. a) Tt can be translated more than once.
  2. b) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
  3. c) Tt can be translated from either end.
  4. d) Tt is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
  5. e) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.

 

 

31) After the translational process the polypeptide folds into the appropriate conformation for proper functioning. What group of proteins aids in protein folding?

 

  1. a) proteases
  2. b) cytokines
  3. c) chaperonins
  4. d) peptidases
  5. e) lipases

 

 

 

 

32) Which of these would a signal peptide be used for?

 

  1. a) To regulate translation.
  2. b) To move a protein to the outside of the cell.
  3. c) To help a protein fold correctly.
  4. d) To help regulate the activity of an enzyme.
  5. e) To initiate DNA replication.

 

 

33) Which of these is a term for a point mutation that results in a change in the amino acid specificity of the codon?

 

  1. a) frameshift
  2. b) silent
  3. c) nonsense
  4. d) missense
  5. e) amber

 

 

34) Which of these is a point mutation that results in changing a codon from an amino acid codon to a stop codon?

 

  1. a) frameshift
  2. b) silent
  3. c) nonsense
  4. d) missense
  5. e) deletion

 

 

35) Which of these results from a deletion of base pairs such that the amino acid sequence is disrupted from that point downward?

 

  1. a) transversion mutation
  2. b) transition mutation
  3. c) nonsense mutation
  4. d) missense mutation
  5. e) frameshift mutation

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) The DNA replication process in Archaea more closely resembles that in Eukarya than in Bacteria.

 

 

37) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

 

 

38) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis.

 

 

39) In the same bacterial cell, different sigma factors are able to control the expression of large blocks of genes.

 

 

40) The RNA polymerase in Archaea is more similar to Bacteria RNA polymerase than Eukarya RNA polymerase II.

 

 

41) All living organisms use the same genetic code for the translation of mRNA.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

42) Basic proteins that help to package the DNA in eukaryal cells are called ________.

 

 

43) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the  _____ _______ sequence.

 

 

44) The site on the DNA molecule that is recognized by the sigma subunit of the RNA polymerase for binding to start transcription is called the _________.

 

 

45) The -10 element of the bacterial promoter is also referred to as the _______ _____.

 

 

46) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S ribosome.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

47) Describe the structure of DNA according to the Watson – Crick Model.

 

 

48) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.

 

 

49) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.

 

 

50) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?

 

 

 

 

Package Title: Wessner Testbank

Course Title: Microbiology WileyPLUS

Chapter Number 8

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Most likely, “host specificity” of a virus is determined by

 

  1. a) the type of nucleic acid it contains.
  2. b) the presence or absence of an envelope.
  3. c) viral enzymes.
  4. d) interactions between viral attachment proteins and host cell receptors.
  5. e) viral nucleic acid replication strategies.

 

 

2) The viral attachment protein specifically binds to a host cell receptor. All of the following are examples of known host cell receptors except

 

  1. a) DNA.
  2. b) proteins.
  3. c) glycoproteins.
  4. d) lipopolysaccharides.
  5. e) sialic acids.

 

 

3) The ability of a virus or bacteriophage to specifically attach to a host cell occurs through the interactions of the viral attachment protein with the host cell receptor. This binding determines

 

  1. a) the rate of viral replication.
  2. b) the host range.
  3. c) the mechanism of viral entry.
  4. d) whether or not the virus will contain an envelope.
  5. e) the rate of viral RNA replication.

 

 

4) E. coli strain K12 is susceptible to infection by phage T2. T2 binds to K12 via two attachment proteins. These two proteins specifically bind to the following two host cell receptor proteins found on the surface of strain K12.

 

  1. a) lipopolysaccharide and cytochrome c
  2. b) flagellin and cytochrome c
  3. c) OmpF and lipopolysaccharide
  4. d) OmpF and flagellin
  5. e) flagellin and lipopolysaccharide

 

 

5) Antibody produced in response to a viral infection is able to neutralize viral attachment by

 

  1. a) binding nucleic acid polymerases and preventing viral nucleic acid replication.
  2. b) binding ribosomes and preventing viral protein translation.
  3. c) activating macrophages to phagocytize the virus.
  4. d) binding to the viral attachment proteins to prevent attachment to the host cell receptor.
  5. e) binding to the host cell receptor molecule to prevent the attachment of the virus.

 

 

6) Antiviral drugs that act at the level of host recognition are designed to

 

  1. a) prevent endocytotic vesicle formation.
  2. b) prevent virus binding to the host cell receptor.
  3. c) enhance antibody production.
  4. d) inactivate viral nucleic acid polymerases.
  5. e) bind to viral metabolic enzymes.

 

 

7) The second step in viral replication is entry. For bacteriophage, entry usually involves

 

  1. a) phagocytosis.
  2. b) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  3. c) direct entry of the nucleic acid into the cell.
  4. d) membrane fusion mechanism of entry.
  5. e) digestion of the peptidoglycan.

 

 

8) HIV enters the cell through a/an _________ mechanism.

 

  1. a) phagocytic
  2. b) receptor-mediated endocytotic
  3. c) membrane fusion
  4. d) acid-dependent endosomal
  5. e) receptor-independent endocytotic

 

 

9) The influenza virus gains entry into a host cell by

 

  1. a) direct injection of its nucleic acid.
  2. b) receptor-independent endocytosis.
  3. c) lysis of the cell membrane.
  4. d) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  5. e) pinocytosis.

 

 

10) The influenza virus gains entry into a host cell by an endocytotic process. The viral nucleocapsid leaves the endosome and enters the cytoplasm through a membrane fusion mechanism. Fusion of the viral envelope with the endosomal membrane is facilitated by

 

  1. a) a conformation change in the hemagglutinin to expose a fusion protein.
  2. b) the production of a lipase by the influenza virus.
  3. c) sialic acid residues of the receptor proteins.
  4. d) specific viral protein recognition of pores in the endosome vesicle.
  5. e) the production of proteases by the influenza virus.

 

 

11) Most non-enveloped animal viruses enter the host cell by

 

  1. a) membrane fusion.
  2. b) pinocytosis.
  3. c) injection of nucleic acid into host cell.
  4. d) lysis of host cell membrane.
  5. e) receptor mediated endocytosis.

 

 

12) Most non-enveloped viruses enter the host cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis. The virus or its nucleic acid is able to leave the endosome and enter the cytoplasm

 

  1. a) through the production of a lipase to lyse the endosome membrane.
  2. b) as a result of digestive enzymes found in the endosome.
  3. c) through the fusion of the capsid proteins with endosome proteins by digesting the endosomal membrane.
  4. d) through pores formed from viral capsid proteins.

 

 

13) Plant viruses often gain entry into host cells by

 

  1. a) receptor mediated endocytosis.
  2. b) injury caused by insects to host cell.
  3. c) membrane fusion mechanism.
  4. d) pinocytosis.
  5. e) direct injection of nucleic acid into the host cell.

 

14) Fuzeon is an antiviral drug that prevents membrane fusion for entry into the cell by HIV. The mode of action for this drug is

 

  1. a) to prevent formation of a viral lipase that lyses the cell membrane.
  2. b) to prevent attachment of the virus to the host cell receptor.
  3. c) to interrupt receptor mediated endocytosis.
  4. d) to bind to gp41 membrane fusion protein of HIV.
  5. e) to digest the envelope of HIV, thereby preventing membrane fusion.

 

 

15) The Baltimore classification scheme for viruses divides all viruses into seven groups based on

 

  1. a) their shape and host.
  2. b) host and presence or absence of an envelope.
  3. c) how they produce mRNA and replicate their genome.
  4. d) their shape and presence or absence of an envelope.
  5. e) their shape, host, and presence or absence of an envelope.

 

 

16) The Baltimore classification scheme classifies viruses based on their mechanism of mRNA synthesis. Using this classification scheme, all viruses are placed into ______ classes.

 

  1. a) seven
  2. b) five
  3. c) four
  4. d) ten
  5. e) twenty five

 

 

17) Class I viruses, double-stranded DNA viruses, usually utilize the following polymerases for mRNA synthesis and DNA replication

 

  1. a) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  2. b) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  3. c) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  4. d) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  5. e) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

 

 

18) Class III viruses, double-stranded RNA viruses, utilize the following polymerase for genome synthesis

 

  1. a) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  2. b) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  3. c) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  4. d) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  5. e) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

 

 

 

 

 

19) Class V viruses, negative sense single-stranded RNA viruses, utilize the following polymerase for mRNA synthesis

 

  1. a) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  2. b) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  3. c) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  4. d) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  5. e) don’t need polymerase, nucleic acid can act directly as mRNA.

 

 

20) Class VII viruses, double-stranded DNA viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase, replicate their genome using the following polymerase

 

  1. a) host cell DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  2. b) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  3. c) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  4. d) viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  5. e) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

 

 

21) For most double-stranded DNA eukaryal viruses, DNA replication occurs in the _________ and translation occurs in the __________.

 

  1. a) cytoplasm, cytoplasm
  2. b) cytoplasm, nucleus
  3. c) nucleus, nucleus
  4. d) nucleus, cytoplasm
  5. e) mitochondria, cytoplasm

 

 

22) Most RNA viruses utilize

 

  1. a) an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  2. b) a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
  3. c) an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  4. d) a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
  5. e) reverse transcriptase.

 

23) A bacteriophage genome that is integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called

 

  1. a) a prophage.
  2. b) a virulent phage.
  3. c) a transforming phage.
  4. d) a genome phage.

 

 

24) Phage lambda (λ) is referred to as a temperate phage. What is a temperate phage?

 

  1. a) A phage that always causes a lytic infection.
  2. b) The same thing as a lysogen.
  3. c) A phage that only lyses a cell at a specific temperature.
  4. d) A phage that can undergo either a lytic or lysogenic phase of replication.
  5. e) A bacteriophage that contains single-stranded RNA for its genome.

 

 

25) Protease inhibitors are routinely used in the treatment of an HIV infection to slow down the progression of the disease. How do these inhibitors work?

 

  1. a) They inhibit the process of translation for the production of viral proteins.
  2. b) They inhibit the process of entry by interacting with the fusion peptide.
  3. c) They block the attachment process by interacting with the viral attachment protein.
  4. d) They inhibit the proteolytic modification of the viral capsid to form an infectious virion.
  5. e) They inhibit the activity of the viral enzyme reverse transcriptase.

 

 

26) Most enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process

 

  1. a) exocytosis.
  2. b) budding.
  3. c) Golgi transport.
  4. d) cell lysis.
  5. e) cytokinesis.

 

 

27) Most non-enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process

 

  1. a) exocytosis.
  2. b) budding.
  3. c) Golgi transport.
  4. d) cell lysis.
  5. e) cytokinesis.

 

 

28) The intact virion of the tobacco mosaic virus is assembled by this method

 

  1. a) the capsid is first assembled and the nucleic acid is packaged into the capsid.
  2. b) part of the capsid is assembled and the nucleic acid is packaged into the capsid.
  3. c) the capsid proteins assemble around the viral nucleic acid.
  4. d) the nucleic acid is inserted into the cell membrane and the capsid acquires the nucleic acid as it buds through the membrane,
  5. e) the capsid is assembled in the cytoplasm and the nucleic acid is packaged in the nucleus.

 

 

29) Bacteriophage T4 lyses the bacterial host cell for release of newly formed virions. The cell wall of the bacterium is broken down by this virally encoded enzyme

 

  1. a) lysozyme.
  2. b) protease.
  3. c) β-lactamase.
  4. d) nuclease.
  5. e) peptidase.

 

 

30) Which of the following viral replication processes would not be a good target for an antiviral drug?

  1. a) Attachment
  2. b) Viral entry
  3. c) Translation of viral proteins
  4. d) Uncoating of viral capsid
  5. e) Assembly of virus capsid

 

 

31) Many antiviral drugs are nucleoside analogs. The nucleoside analogs primarily target these enzymes

 

  1. a) host cell DNA polymerases.
  2. b) host cell RNA polymerases.
  3. c) host cell nucleases.
  4. d) viral nucleic acid polymerases.
  5. e) viral nucleases.

 

 

32) The reason nucleoside analogs are effective against viral nucleic acid polymerases is because

 

  1. a) viral polymerases have a very high rates of polymerization.
  2. b) viral polymerases have a low rate of polymerization.
  3. c) viral polymerases have a high affinity for incorporation of the analogs.
  4. d) viral polymerase activity is inhibited by the analogs.
  5. e) viral polymerase activity is enhanced by the analogs.

 

33) AZT is a nucleotide analog used to treat people infected with

 

  1. a) herpes virus.
  2. b) HIV.
  3. c) papilloma virus.
  4. d) influenza virus.
  5. e) polio virus.

 

 

34) The enzyme _______ has a high affinity for AZT and will incorporate it into a newly synthesized DNA strand. This will effectively terminate DNA replication because the incoming nucleotide cannot be bound to AZT.

 

  1. a) host cell DNA polymerase
  2. b) viral reverse transcriptase
  3. c) host cell RNA polymerase
  4. d) viral RNA polymerase
  5. e) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

 

 

35) An HIV mutant has been identified that is resistant to the drug AZT. Most likely the mutation occurred in the viral gene that encodes for

 

  1. a) the DNA integrase.
  2. b) the viral attachment protein.
  3. c) reverse transcriptase.
  4. d) gp41 membrane fusion protein.
  5. e) viral mRNA polymerase.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) The main function of a host cell receptor is to specifically bind to the viral attachment protein.

 

 

37) The second step in viral replication, “entry”, is prevented by some antiviral drugs.

 

 

38) Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

 

 

39) The single-stranded RNA of positive-sense RNA viruses can act directly as mRNA for translation in the cytoplasm of the host cell.

 

40) Translation of mRNA for the production of viral proteins always takes place in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

 

41) Most enveloped viruses exit the host cell through cell lysis.

 

 

42) A nucleoside analog is a short nucleotide sequence that is complementary to a viral promoter sequence.

 

 

Question Type: Short Answer

 

 

43) Host __________ is determined through the specific binding of the viral attachment protein to the host cell receptor.

 

 

44) Antibodies produced in response to a viral infection may specifically bind to the virus particle to effectively block _______________ to the host cell.

 

 

45) _________ __________ _________ is initiated by the binding of a virus to a host cell receptor for the entry of the virus into the host cell via an endosome.

 

 

46) A viral fusion peptide contains a short hydrophobic amino acid sequence that helps facilitate membrane fusion of the viral envelope to the cell membrane for entry into the host cell. The protein _____________ functions as a fusion peptide for HIV entry into the host cell.

 

 

47) A bacterial cell that contains the integrated genome of a temperate bacteriophage is called a ______.

 

 

48) Most enveloped viruses exit their host cell through a process called __________.

 

 

  1. A chemical that is structurally similar to a normal nucleoside is called a nucleoside _______.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

50) Several antiviral drugs that are produced today prevent attachment of the virus to the host cell. What information do you need to know to design the drugs? Briefly describe possible mechanisms of the drugs.

 

 

51) The capsid for many mammalian viruses must be removed after it enters the cytoplasm. Why is this important? Give an example of a virus where capsid removal occurs in the cell membrane.

 

 

52) Drugs that inhibit the acidification of the endosome block the replication of many viruses that enter the cell through receptor-mediated endocytosis. Why are these drugs effective?

 

 

53) What are the functions of the retrovirus enzymes reverse transcriptase and integrase for the replication of the virus?

 

 

54) Describe the series of events that usually occur for an enveloped virus to exit the cell with an intact envelope containing the outer envelope viral proteins.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 9

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What is the “sexual transfer” of genes in bacteria called?

 

  1. a) transformation
  2. b) transduction
  3. c) transfection
  4. d) conjugation
  5. e) coupling

 

 

2) Compared to the eukaryal chromosome, the bacteria chromosome:

 

  1. a) is more complex.
  2. b) contains genes that are usually present in only one copy.
  3. c) contains only a small percent of DNA that encodes for functional proteins.
  4. d) is diploid in number.
  5. e) is difficult to manipulate.

 

 

3) Which of the these is TRUE regarding replication of a plasmid in a bacterial cell?

 

  1. a) It is only replicated when part of the chromosome.
  2. b) It requires replication of the chromosome first.
  3. c) It requires a unique DNA polymerase.
  4. d) It is independent of chromosome replication.
  5. e) It occurs only after cell division.

 

 

4) In order for a plasmid to be replicated in a cell, it must contain which of these?

 

  1. a) The code for a DNA polymerase.
  2. b) An origin of replication.
  3. c) The code for DNA gyrase.
  4. d) A strong promoter sequence.
  5. e) A Pribnow Box.

 

 

 

 

5) Under what conditions will two different plasmids be incompatible?

 

  1. a) If they contain some identical genes.
  2. b) If they contain genes from different organisms.
  3. c) If they use similar methods of replication initiation.
  4. d) If they use different DNA polymerases.
  5. e) If they do not contain at least one similar gene.

 

 

6) What is an organism’s complete collection of alleles called?

 

  1. a) wild-type
  2. b) prototype
  3. c) phenotype
  4. d) genotype
  5. e) histotype

 

 

7) Suppose a mutant strain of Escherichia coli K12 contains a mutation in the trpE gene and is no longer able to make tryptophan. What is this mutant called?

 

  1. a) An auxotroph.
  2. b) A prototroph.
  3. c) An autotroph.
  4. d) A phenotroph.
  5. e) A lithotroph.

 

 

8) Escherichia coli strain K12 is considered a wild-type strain and does not have any nutritional vitamin requirements. What term applies to this strain?

 

  1. a) An autotroph.
  2. b) An auxotroph.
  3. c) A phototroph.
  4. d) A prototroph.
  5. e) A lithotroph.

 

 

9) Bacterial mutants have been very useful for studying and understanding:

 

  1. a) biosynthetic pathways.
  2. b) capsule production.
  3. c) antibiotic resistance.
  4. d) carbon metabolism.
  5. e) all of these choices.

 

 

10) Which term applies to the transfer of genes from mother to daughter cell?

 

  1. a) vertical gene transfer
  2. b) lateral gene transfer
  3. c) horizontal gene transfer
  4. d) meiosis
  5. e) transduction

 

 

11) Suppose a microbe has died and lysed, exposing its DNA to the environment. Some of this DNA was taken up by another unrelated microbe and incorporated into its genome. This is an example of which process?

 

  1. a) transduction
  2. b) vertical gene transfer
  3. c) conjugation
  4. d) horizontal gene transfer
  5. e) endocytosis

 

 

12) The ________ protein is important in the process of recombination.

 

  1. a) RecZ
  2. b) RecA
  3. c) TpnB
  4. d) TpnC
  5. e) TpnZ

 

 

13) Which of the following processes would still occur in a RecA mutant?

 

  1. a) conjugation
  2. b) transformation
  3. c) transduction
  4. d) both conjugation and transformation
  5. e) both transformation and transduction

 

14) Term for the uptake of extracellular DNA into a bacterial cell and incorporation into its ge-nome.

 

  1. a) transduction
  2. b) conjugation
  3. c) transformation
  4. d) reversion
  5. e) transfection

 

 

15) Term for cells that can naturally take up extracellular DNA.

 

  1. a) porous
  2. b) competent
  3. c) conjugant
  4. d) susceptible
  5. e) primed

 

 

16) Term for the direct transfer of DNA from a living donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium.

 

  1. a) transduction
  2. b) transformation
  3. c) transfection
  4. d) conjugation
  5. e) electroporation

 

 

17) Suppose a strain of Escherichia coli is identified as an Hfr strain. In a conjugational experi-ment between the donor Hfr strain and a recipient E. coli strain that is F-, what would you expect to result?

 

  1. a) The recipient to become F+.
  2. b) The recipient to become an Hfr strain.
  3. c) The recipient to remain F-.
  4. d) The donor to become F-.
  5. e) The donor to transfer the entire F-plasmid.

 

 

18) What is the difference between an Hfr strain and an F-prime strain of Escherichia coli?

 

  1. a) The F-prime strain is not able to convert the recipient strain to F+.
  2. b) The F-prime strain is able to transfer any gene on the chromosome to the recipient cell.
  3. c) The F-prime strain has an F- phenotype.
  4. d) The Hfr strain is able to transfer more genes to the recipient than the F-prime strain.
  5. e) The Hfr strain is unable to mate with an F- strain.

 

 

 

19) Term for the transfer of donor DNA to a recipient bacterium via a bacteriophage.

 

  1. a) transduction
  2. b) transfection
  3. c) transformation
  4. d) conjugation
  5. e) lytic infection

 

 

20) The original map of the Escherichia coli chromosome was constructed using which process?

 

  1. a) conjugation
  2. b) transformation
  3. c) transduction
  4. d) both conjugation and transformation
  5. e) both conjugation and transduction

 

 

21) Bacteriophages vary in their ability to infect different strains of bacteria. This is because some bacteria contain _________ __________ that cut the phage DNA after it enters the cell.

 

  1. a) general nucleases
  2. b) DNA helicases
  3. c) DNA gyrases
  4. d) restriction endonucleases
  5. e) DNA topoisomerases

 

 

22) Genetic elements that are able to “jump” around on the chromosome.

 

  1. a) chromatin
  2. b) transposons
  3. c) conjugants
  4. d) resolvase
  5. e) transductants

 

 

23) The process of molecular cloning was mainly brought about through the discovery of these.

 

  1. a) bacteriophages
  2. b) transposons
  3. c) transformations
  4. d) restriction enzymes
  5. e) conjugation events

 

 

24) Term for a plasmid cloning vector that is able to replicate in different genera of bacteria.

 

  1. a) fertility plasmid
  2. b) resistance plasmid
  3. c) shuttle vector
  4. d) transfection vector
  5. e) cosmid vector

 

 

25) Which of these is an example of a reporter gene that is used to study gene regulation in bac-teria?

 

  1. a) trpE
  2. b) recA
  3. c) lacZ
  4. d) glyA
  5. e) hisB

 

 

26 The first DNA cloning experiment required ALL of the following EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) DNA ligase.
  2. b) DNA polymerase.
  3. c) restriction enzymes.
  4. d) plasmid vector with antibiotic resistance gene.
  5. e) competent cells.

 

 

27 Early plasmid vectors used for cloning DNA contained:

 

  1. a) a single restriction enzyme site.
  2. b) unique restriction enzyme sites for several restriction enzymes.
  3. c) multiple restriction enzymes sites for several restriction enzymes.
  4. d) antibiotic resistance genes but no restriction enzyme sites.
  5. e) multiple restriction sites for a unique restriction enzyme.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

28) The first plasmid cloning vectors required some restriction enzyme sites that were present in only one copy on the plasmid.

 

 

29) The enzyme ___________ hydrolyzes the chromogenic substrate X-gal.

 

  1. a) α-amylase
  2. b) β-lactamase
  3. c) xylanase
  4. d) β-galactosidase
  5. e) glucuronidase

 

 

30) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.

 

 

31) Mutations are able to occur spontaneously without any preexposure to a mutagen.

 

 

32) A suppressor mutation, which restores the wild-type phenotype in a previously mutant cell, always occurs in the gene that contained the original mutation.

 

33) An auxotroph is a nutritional mutant of a wild-type strain.

 

34) The transfer of DNA from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium is an example of hori-zontal gene transfer.

 

 

35) The uptake and recombination of environmental DNA by a bacterium is called transduction.

 

 

36) Conjugation requires direct cell contact in order for DNA to move from the donor to reci-pient strain.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

37) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell, it must contain an ______ of replica-tion that is recognized by the cell.

 

 

38) A microorganism that does not have any nutritional requirements is called a(n) ______________.

 

 

39) ________________ occurs when a segment of DNA from one bacterium integrates into the chromosome of a recipient strain.

 

 

40) Bacterial cells that are able to take up DNA directly from the environment for recombination are called _______________.

 

 

41) Host cell enzymes that degrade foreign DNA, like viral DNA, that enters the cell are called _________ enzymes.

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

42) What is a wild-type strain? Can you have more than one wild-type strain for a specific bac-terial species? Explain.

 

 

43) Describe the process of homologous recombination between a pair of DNA molecules sharing sequence homology. In your explanation, discuss the recombination proteins that are required.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 10

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Term for the process in which a peptide fragment expressed from a plasmid is able to combine with a peptide fragment expressed from the chromosome to form a functional peptide.

 

  1. a) α-Complementation
  2. b) Peptide binding
  3. c) Reciprocal crossover
  4. d) Hybridization
  5. e) Genetic complementation

 

 

2) Which of these is contained in an expression vector but not in a regular cloning vector?

 

  1. a) restriction enzyme site
  2. b) antibiotic resistance gene
  3. c) strong promoter
  4. d) origin of replication
  5. e) selectable marker

 

 

3) A his-tag or strep-tag is part of the cloning area in expression vectors. How do these sequences function?

 

  1. a) To increase gene expression from the cloned DNA.
  2. b) In regulation of expression of the cloned DNA.
  3. c) As unique restriction enzyme sites to aid in cloning DNA.
  4. d) Affinity sequences to aid in purification of the recombinant protein.
  5. e) As signal sequences for the secretion of the recombinant protein.

 

 

4) Which of these is another term for the Sanger method of DNA sequencing?

 

  1. a) chemical degradation method
  2. b) dideoxy sequencing.c) restriction method
  3. d) label method
  4. e) gel method

 

 

 

5) The Sanger method of sequencing uses ALL of the following EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) dideoxynucleotides.
  2. b) DNA polymerase.
  3. c) a short oligo primer.
  4. d) deoxynucleotides
  5. e) restriction enzymes.

 

 

6) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing has been automated and uses a(n):

 

  1. a) thermal-stable DNA polymerase to allow for multiple rounds of DNA synthesis.
  2. b) trideoxynucleotides in the synthesis reactions.
  3. c) radiolabeled nucleotides for fragment detection.
  4. d) agarose gel electrophoresis for fragment separation.
  5. e) chemical digestion method for fragment generation.

 

 

7) What is an open-reading frame?

 

  1. a) A non-translated region on the chromosome.
  2. b) an unknown gene.
  3. c) A gene that no longer has a function.
  4. d) The protein encoding sequence of a gene.
  5. e) The intron region of a gene.

 

 

8) Many scientists deposit their gene sequences in GenBank to make them publicly available to other scientist via the internet. Approximately how many base pairs have been deposited thus far?

 

  1. a) 10,000
  2. b) 100,000
  3. c) 1 million

d).10 million

  1. e) greater than 10 million

 

9) What is a transcriptome?

 

  1. a) The coding region on the chromosome.
  2. b) The coding region on the chromosome minus the introns.
  3. c) The coding region on the chromosome plus the control regions.
  4. d) The transcripts encoded for by the genes within a genome.
  5. e) The mount of mRNA in the cell.

 

 

10) What was the Northern blot hybridization technique used to measure?

 

  1. a) The transcriptional expression of a specific gene.
  2. b) The translational expression of a specific gene.
  3. c) The the frequency of transcription initiation.
  4. d) The amount of DNA in a cell.
  5. e) The rate of chromosomal replication.

 

 

11) Microarray analysis may be used to study:

 

  1. a) gene expression in cells grown under different conditions.
  2. b) protein expression in cells grown under different conditions.
  3. c) rate of chromosomal replication in cells.
  4. d) enzyme activity in cells.
  5. e) growth rate of cells when grown under different conditions.

 

 

12) Two-dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (2D-PAGE) separates proteins based on what property?

 

  1. a) size
  2. b) charge
  3. c) hydrophobicity
  4. d) size and charge
  5. e) size and hydrophobicity

 

 

13) Which of these can be used to determine protein structure?

 

  1. a) amino acid sequencing
  2. b) X-ray crystallography and NMR
  3. c) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE)
  4. d) denaturing gel electrophoresis
  5. e) mass spectrometry

 

 

14) What is the isoelectric point of a protein?

 

  1. a) The pH at which the protein has the greatest charge.
  2. b) The pH at which a protein has a negative charge.
  3. c) The pH at which a protein has no charge.
  4. d) The proton potential of a protein in an acrylamide gel.
  5. e) The proton potential of a protein in a cell.

 

 

15) What are paralogs?

 

  1. a) Genes that arise from a duplication event in an organism.
  2. b) Mutant genes in an organism.
  3. c) Genes that are seldom expressed in an organism.
  4. d) Genes that are expressed at a high level in an organism.
  5. e) Genes that have no function in an organism.

 

 

16) Term for genes from different organisms that encode for proteins that carry out the same function but have different sequences.

 

  1. a) homologs
  2. b) paralogs
  3. c) orthologs
  4. d) metalogs
  5. e) semilogs

 

 

17) Which of these is TRUE regarding horizontal gene transfer?

 

  1. a) It does not result in permanent change.
  2. b) It does not play a role in microbial evolution.
  3. c) It does not result in any significant consequences for the organism involved.
  4. d) It is always occurring in nature.
  5. e) It does not alter the genome of the organism.

 

 

18) Suppose it is observed that a small section of a microorganism’s chromosome varies signifi-cantly in GC content from the majority of the chromosome. What likely caused this?

 

  1. a) spontaneous mutations
  2. b) induced mutations
  3. c) horizontal gene transfer
  4. d) vertical gene transfer
  5. e) site-directed mutagenesis

 

 

19) What is metagenomics?

 

  1. a) A culture-dependent method that may be used to determine genome sequences.
  2. b) A culture-dependent method that may be used to find new enzymes.
  3. c) A culture-dependent method that may be used to study groups of microbes in an ecosystem.
  4. d) A culture-independent method that may be used to document microbial community composi-tion.
  5. e) A culture –independent method that may be used for the isolation of different organisms.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

20) Transformants are recombinant bacteria that have received new DNA via a bacteriophage.

 

 

21) An expression vector contains a strong promoter next to the cloning site.

 

 

22) Affinity tags often used in modern expression vectors to produce a fusion protein from the gene of interest, aids in recombinant protein purification.

 

 

23) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing requires an oligonucleotide primer.

 

 

24) An open-reading frame (ORF) is the non-translated part of a gene.

 

 

25) A transcriptome refers to all the proteins produced in a single cell.

 

 

26) The Southern blot uses a DNA probe to hybridize to DNA fragments that have been sepa-rated by electrophoresis.

 

 

27) The Northern blot uses a DNA probe to hybridize to DNA fragments that have been sepa-rated by electrophoresis.

 

 

28) DNA microarray technology allows a researcher to analyze gene expression in an organism cultured under different growth conditions.

 

 

29) The isoelectric point  is the pH at which a protein has zero charge.

 

 

30) Paralogs are genes that arose from a duplication event in the cell.

 

 

31) Orthologs are genes that arose from a duplication event in the cell.

 

 

32) Horizontal gene transfer occurs when an organism acquires genetic information from another organism in its own generation.

 

 

33) Analysis of the genome sequence of an organism shows that an area of the genome contains stretch of several thousand base pairs that differ significantly in % G + C content from the rest of the genome. Most likely this DNA was originally obtained from another organism.

 

 

34) Metagenomics uses a culture-independent based genomic analysis of microbial communities to determine community composition.

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

35) Recombinant DNA technology was greatly facilitated by the discovery of ______ enzymes.

 

 

36) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleo-tides.

 

 

37) In analyzing a genome sequence, a computer program identifies the beginning and the end of a protein encoding sequence. This sequence is referred to as a(n) _______ _______ frame.

 

 

38) The complete complement of proteins in the cell that results from the translation of all the mRNA transcripts is called the ____________.

 

 

39) A technique used to examine all mRNA production in the cell simultaneously for any set of growth conditions is called a/an ________________.

 

 

40) The pH at which a protein’s charge is completely neutral is the protein’s ______________ point.

 

41) A gene in a cell undergoes duplication. This gene may evolve a novel function while the original gene encodes for a protein with normal function. These genes would be considered ____________.

 

 

42) Genes from different organisms that differ significantly in their sequence but encode for pro-teins that perform identical functions are called ________.

 

 

43) ___________________ gene transfer occurs when an organism acquires a gene from another organism and incorporates the genetic information into its genome.

 

 

44)  iA culture-independent method that is used to study genomes from microbial communities in their natural environments is called _______________ .

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

45) Dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are used in the Sanger sequencing method. What are ddNTPs, and  what is the explanation for the theory behind this method?

 

 

46) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 11

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Expression of genes that are constitutive is:

 

  1. a) regulated by repression.
  2. b) unregulated.
  3. c) regulated by induction.
  4. d) regulated by activation.
  5. e) regulated by attenuation.

 

 

2) The expression of genes required for biofilm formation occurs only after a cell has attached to a surface that is suitable for biofilm development. What is this type of gene expression called?

 

  1. a) attenuation
  2. b) feedback inhibition
  3. c) induction
  4. d) repression
  5. e) inhibition

 

 

3) What is an effector molecule?

 

  1. a) A protein that binds to an operator region of a gene.
  2. b) An activator protein for gene expression.
  3. c) A small RNA molecule that inhibits translation of mRNA.
  4. d) A small molecule that binds to an enzyme to regulate its activity.
  5. e) A small molecule that binds to the operator region of a gene.

 

 

4) How is chemotaxis regulated?

 

  1. a) By increased gene expression.
  2. b) By decreased gene expression.
  3. c) By a series of signal transduction events.
  4. d) By allosteric enzymes.
  5. e) By an induction-type mechanism.

 

 

 

5) What is the function of methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)?

 

  1. a) To phosphorylate CheY.
  2. b) To control the direction of flagellar rotation.
  3. c) To dephosphorylate CheY.
  4. d) To sense the presence of a specific chemical.
  5. e) To drive the flagellum motors.

 

 

6) What would characterize the phenotype of a CheY mutant?

 

  1. a) Loss of motility.
  2. b) Constant tumbling.
  3. c) Smooth swimming.
  4. d) Inability to sense certain chemicals.
  5. e) Movement toward repellents and away from attractants.

 

 

7) What would characterize the phenotype of a CheB mutant?

 

  1. a) loss of motility.
  2. b) constant tumbling.
  3. c) smooth swimming.
  4. d) inability to sense certain chemicals.
  5. e) movement toward repellents and away from attractants.

 

 

8) During negative regulation of gene expression the repressor protein binds to the operator to inhibit transcription. What is the effector molecule that controls the activity of the repressor pro-tein called?

 

  1. a) corepressor
  2. b) inducer
  3. c) activator
  4. d) corepressor or inducer
  5. e) corepressor or activator

 

 

9) Which of these is required for transcription that is regulated by positive control?

 

  1. a) activator protein
  2. b) repressor protein
  3. c) inducer protein
  4. d) attenuator protein
  5. e) DNA polymerase.

 

 

10) Which of these controls the expression of the lac operon?

 

  1. a) An activator protein only.
  2. b) An attenuation mechanism.
  3. c) A repressor protein only.
  4. d) Both repression and activation mechanisms.
  5. e) Both repression and attenuation mechanisms.

 

 

11) How will E. coli growing in a medium containing both lactose and glucose react?

 

  1. a) By preferentially utilizing lactose first.
  2. b) By preferentially utilizing glucose first.
  3. c) By utilizing both at the same time.
  4. d) Neither compound will be utilized for growth.
  5. e) One will sometimes be utilized over the other.

 

 

12) Mutants that constitutively expressed β-galactosidase were placed into two different groups. Where were the mutations for constitutive expression located?

 

  1. a) In either the lacZ or lacI genes.
  2. b) In either the lacZ or lacY genes.
  3. c) In either the lacZ gene or operator region.
  4. d) In either the lacI or lacY genes.
  5. e) In either the lacI gene or operator region.

 

 

13) When does repression of the lac operon occur?

 

  1. a) When allolactose binds to the operator region.
  2. b) When allolactose binds to the repressor protein.
  3. c) When the repressor protein binds to the operator region.
  4. d) When allolactose binds to β-galactosidase.
  5. e) When the repressor protein binds to the promoter.

 

14) A mutation in the lacI gene results in an active repressor protein that can no longer bind allo-lactose. Which would be true of the phenotype of the mutant strain?

 

  1. a) It would be constitutive for β-galactosidase expression.
  2. b) It would overexpress LacZ.
  3. c) It would be the same as the wild-type strain.
  4. d) It would repress β-galactosidase when lactose is present.
  5. e) It would be overexpress β-galactosidase when lactose is present.

 

 

15) Isopropyl β-d-1- thiogalactopyranoside (IPTG), a lactose analog, acts as an inducer of the lac operon. What is its mode of action?

 

  1. a) It functions as a co-activator of gene expression.
  2. b) It inactivates the LacI repressor protein.
  3. c) It activates the enzyme β-galactosidase.
  4. d) It binds the RNAP for enhanced binding to the promoter.
  5. e) It binds to the operator to enhance transcription initiation.

 

 

16) Attenuation is a regulator mechanism in bacteria that relies on:

 

  1. a) the inactivation of a repressor protein.
  2. b) the activation of an activator protein.
  3. c) transcription and translation occurring simultaneously.
  4. d) transcription termination occurring by a rho-dependent mechanism.
  5. e) translation termination occurring at a stop codon.

 

 

17) Which of these is typically involved in a two-component regulatory system?

 

  1. a) Histidine kinase and a response regulator.
  2. b) Repressor protein and an activator protein.
  3. c) Repressor protein and a co-repressor.
  4. d) An activator protein and a co-activator.
  5. e) A repressor protein and an inducer.

 

 

18) Which component of the two-component regulatory system frequently senses changes in the external environment?

 

  1. a) repressor protein
  2. b) activator protein
  3. c) histidine kinase
  4. d) response regulator
  5. e) transport protein

 

19) The transfer of T-DNA into a plant cell by Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a highly regulated process. This process only occurs if a plant becomes wounded and excretes various compounds that are detected by A. tumefaciens for expression of its virulence genes. Regulation of virulence gene expression is under the control of which type of system?

 

  1. a) A two-component system.
  2. b) An inducer/repressor system.
  3. c) An activator/co-activator system.
  4. d) A co-repressor/repressor system.
  5. e) A repressor/co-activator system.

 

 

20) How is quorum sensing, a type of cell to cell communication, mediated?

 

  1. a) By direct cell contact.
  2. b) By transfer of genetic information.
  3. c) By chemical signaling.
  4. d) By two-component regulation.
  5. e) By an induction mechanism.

 

 

21) Which autoinducer is used by many Gram-negative bacteria?

 

  1. a) a homoserine lactone derivative
  2. b) an activator protein
  3. c) a repressor protein
  4. d) a metabolic intermediate
  5. e) allolactose

 

 

22) Once the autoinducer excreted by Vibrio fischeri reaches a critical concentration, it is able to diffuse back into the cell. What is its next action?

 

  1. a) Bind to the bacterial luciferase to produce luminescence.
  2. b) Inactivate a transcriptional repressor to allow transcription of the lux genes.
  3. c) Bind to a transcriptional activator protein to activate transcription of the lux genes.
  4. d) Be cleaved by a protease to produce luminescence.
  5. e) Bind to the promoter to enhance transcription of the lux genes.

 

 

23) The term for a large group of genes whose expression is under the control of a single regula-tory system.

 

  1. a) operon
  2. b) super operon
  3. c) regulon
  4. d) transcriptome
  5. e) biome

 

 

24) What is a “reporter gene”?

 

  1. a) A gene that is expressed under adverse environmental conditions.
  2. b) The fusion of two different structural genes.
  3. c) The fusion of a gene of interest to a regulatable promoter.
  4. d) The fusion of a promoter region of interest to a gene whose product can easily be measured.
  5. e) A gene whose product can easily be measured.

 

 

25) Which is true of catabolite repression?

 

  1. a) It results in diauxic growth.
  2. b) It results in decreased growth rates.
  3. c) It results in increased growth rates.
  4. d) It occurs because of the toxicity of certain chemicals.
  5. e) It only occurs when lactose is present.

 

 

26) The catabolite activator protein (CAP) activates transcription of the lac operon when it binds this coactivator.

 

  1. a) lactose
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) cyclic-AMP
  4. d) ATP
  5. e) allolactose

 

 

27) What does sigma factor helps the RNA polymerase do?

 

  1. a) Assemble tRNA subunits.
  2. b) Bind to activator proteins.
  3. c) Attach the ribosomal subunits.
  4. d) Identify the promoter region of a gene.
  5. e) Release from the transcribed DNA.

 

 

28) The use of sigma factor by RNAP for promoter identification is a type of

 

  1. a) induction.
  2. b) global regulation.
  3. c) activation.
  4. d) attenuation.
  5. e) quorum sensing.

 

29) Small non-coding RNA molecules (sRNA) affect gene expression at the level of:

 

  1. a) transcription initiation.
  2. b) transcription termination.
  3. c) protein activity.
  4. d) translation.
  5. e) transcription activation.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

30) An effector molecule always inactivates an allosteric enzyme.

 

 

31) Chemotaxis is a time-based or temporal response to a chemical gradient.

 

 

32) During chemotaxis, bacteria are able to determine if they are moving in the correct direction by measuring external chemical concentration at different points around the cell.

 

 

33) An activator protein enhances transcription by binding to the DNA molecule upstream of the promoter to enhance the binding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter.

 

 

34) Negative control of gene regulation involves the binding of a repressor molecule to the pro-moter to block transcription.

 

 

35) The enzyme β-galactosidase hydrolyzes lactose to glucose and fructose.

 

 

36) Diauxic growth is the preferential utilization of one carbon source over another carbon source.

 

 

37) The phenotype of a lacI mutant that has the lacI gene partially deleted is constitutive expres-sion of β-galactosidase.

 

 

38) The two component regulatory system typically consists of a histidine kinase and a response regulator.

 

 

39) Based on current research, quorum sensing has only been shown to occur in bioluminescent bacteria.

 

 

40) Small non-coding RNA (sRNA) always inhibit translation initiation.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

41) The regulated movement of a microbe towards or away from a chemical is called __________.

 

 

42) The directed movement toward a light source is called ______________.

 

 

43) Repressor proteins bind to the control region of a gene called the ___________.

 

 

44) The two-component regulatory systems uses a _______ ________ and a response regulator.

 

 

45) The type of regulation that relies on a critical cell density is called ______ _______.

 

 

46) RNA polymerase uses different ______ ________ for the global regulation of large blocks of genes.

 

 

47) The catabolite activator protein (CAP) enhances transcription of the lac operon by binding to an activator binding site upstream of the lac promoter. To become active, CAP must bind the co-activator ___________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Give example of genes that are usually expressed constitutively. Why are these genes consti-tutively expressed?

 

 

49) How does lactose regulate the expression of the lac operon?

 

 

50) What is quorum sensing? How is it involved in the bioluminescence of the bacterium Vibrio fischeri?

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 12

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What does the term fermentation refer to in an industrial microbiology setting?

 

  1. a) The anaerobic growth of microbes.
  2. b) The production of acids and alcohols.
  3. c) The production of all fermentation products.
  4. d) The mass culturing of microbes for the production of a product.
  5. e) A low energy yielding catabolic process.

 

 

2) Which of these would be an example of a “primary metabolite” fermentation product?

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) penicillin
  3. c) streptomycin
  4. d) bacitracin
  5. e) erythromycin.

 

 

3) Which of these would be an example of a “secondary metabolite” fermentation product?

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) acetone
  3. c) butanol
  4. d) penicillin
  5. e) propanol

 

 

4) How do fed batch reactors maximize cell density, and therefore product yield?

 

  1. a) By limiting a nutrient over time.
  2. b) By maximizing cell growth rate.
  3. c) By supplying excess essential vitamins.
  4. d) By providing excess oxygen for growth.
  5. e) By maintaining an anaerobic environment.

 

 

 

 

5) A fed-batch reactor is different from a chemostat because a chemostat culture:

 

  1. a) promotes density with a limiting nutrient.
  2. b) replaces cultures with fresh medium.
  3. c) has very high cell densities.
  4. d) uses excess nutrients.
  5. e) is aerated while a fed-batch culture is anaerobic.

 

6) Which of the following methods have been used to increase product production by an industrial microbial strain?

 

  1. a) site-directed mutagenesis
  2. b) random mutagenesis
  3. c) transformation
  4. d) transduction
  5. e) all of these choices have been used.

 

 

7) Under what condition would directed enzyme evolution be more appropriate that site-directed mutagenesis?

 

  1. a) When attempting to produce an altered enzyme.
  2. b) When you want the enzyme to catalyze a different type of reaction.
  3. c) If very little is known about the enzyme structure.
  4. d) If you want to permanently disable the enzyme.
  5. e) If you want the enzyme expressed in a different organism.

 

 

8) Which of these utilizes “error-prone polymerase chain reaction”?

 

  1. a) site-directed mutagenesis
  2. b) directed enzyme evolution
  3. c) random mutagenesis of the genome
  4. d) gene linkage experiments
  5. e) gene regulation experiments

 

 

9) Expression vectors are used for which of these processes?

 

  1. a) site-directed mutagenesis
  2. b) directed enzyme evolution
  3. c) recombinant protein production
  4. d) random mutagenesis
  5. e) DNA shuffling experiments

 

 

10) For optimal expression of a eukaryal gene in bacteria, the expression vector must contain all of the following  except one. Which would it NOT include?

 

  1. a) a bacterial promoter
  2. b) a bacterial termination sequence
  3. c) a bacterial ribosomal binding site
  4. d) a protein to remove the introns
  5. e) a regulatable promoter

 

 

11) Eukaryal proteins that are expressed in bacteria frequently have low biological activity. Why?

 

  1. a) The introns were not removed from the mRNA.
  2. b) The protein was not modified by glycosylation..
  3. c) Eukaryotic proteins are only partly translated by bacteria.
  4. d) The eukaryal genetic code is different from bacterial genetic code.
  5. e) The translation termination rarely occurs correctly.

 

 

12) Why is an affinity tag fusion protein is produced?

 

  1. a) To increase the biological activity of the protein.
  2. b) To increase overall expression of the cloned gene.
  3. c) To facilitate the purification of the recombinant protein.
  4. d) To ensure correct transcription termination.
  5. e) To ensure that translation starts correctly.

 

 

13) When are secondary metabolites are produced?

 

  1. a) During biosynthesis of amino acids.
  2. b) During catabolism.
  3. c) After exponential growth has ceased.
  4. d) Before exponential growth begins.
  5. e) As byproducts of aromatic amino acid biosynthesis.

 

 

14) Which was the first recombinant human protein produced and marketed commercially?

 

  1. a) insulin
  2. b) human growth hormone
  3. c) recombinant factor VIII
  4. d) cytochrome c oxidase
  5. e) thyroid hormone

 

 

15) Which of these is NOT considered a biofuel?

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) methane
  3. c) solar cells
  4. d) algal lipids
  5. e) butanol

 

 

16) Which primary fraction of plant biomass is used as feedstock for biofuels production?

 

  1. a) disaccharides
  2. b) cellulose
  3. c) pectin
  4. d) chitin
  5. e) protein

 

 

17) Although plant biomass is plentiful for use as biofuel, which major problem needs to be overcome?

 

  1. a) Increasing the efficiency of breakdown of cellulose into glucose.
  2. b) Decreasing the cost of production of plant biomass.
  3. c) Increasing the production of cars that can run on ethanol.
  4. d) Polluting by-products of the conversion of glucose to ethanol.
  5. e) Increasing use of biofuels may drive crop prices down.

 

18) Most motor vehicles sold in this country burn ethanol rather than gasoline.

 

  1. a) United States
  2. b) Canada
  3. c) Mexico
  4. d) Russia
  5. e) Brazil

 

 

19) Current biofuel research is focused on the use of microalgae for the production of this material.

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) methanol
  3. c) biodiesel.
  4. d) cellulase
  5. e) methane

 

 

20) Why might butanol be a better biofuel than ethanol?

 

  1. a) Butanol has a higher octane rating.
  2. b) Butanol is easier to produce.
  3. c) Butanol contains more energy per unit volume.
  4. d) Butanol can be produced from cheaper feedstocks.
  5. e) Butanol costs less to produce.

 

 

21) Why are bioplastics often preferred over conventional plastics?

 

  1. a) Bioplastics are stronger.
  2. b) Bioplastics are less dense.
  3. c) Bioplastics are biodegradable.
  4. d) Bioplastics are cheaper to produce.
  5. e) Bioplastics are more pliable.

 

 

22) Polyhydroxyalkanoates are associated with the production of this material.

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) methane
  3. c) biodiesel
  4. d) butanol
  5. e) bioplastics

 

 

23) Why do microorganisms accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates?

 

  1. a) It is a waste product of metabolism.
  2. b) It is used for cell wall synthesis.
  3. c) It is a form of stored energy. .
  4. d) It acts as an outer capsule.
  5. e) For osmotic protection.

 

 

24) Why is the use of cyanobacteria for the production of bioplastics is an attractive commercial investment?

 

  1. a) Their PHA are stronger than those found in other bacteria.
  2. b) The cost of production is less.
  3. c) Their bioplastics are lighter than other types.
  4. d) Their bioplastics are more pliable.
  5. e) The PHA produced are easier to work with than other types.

 

 

25) Why are microbial enzymes for the production of many pharmaceutical drugs sometimes favored over chemical synthesis?

 

  1. a) Microbial enzymes catalyze stereospecific reactions.
  2. b) Microbial enzymes are easier to obtain.
  3. c) Microbial enzymes are cheaper to produce.
  4. d) Microbial enzymes are more temperature sensitive.
  5. e) Microbial enzymes catalyze the reaction at a faster rates.

 

 

26) Amylase enzymes followed by glucose isomerase are used to make which sweetener?

 

  1. a) NutraSweet™ (aspartame)
  2. b) high fructose corn syrup
  3. c) saccharin.
  4. d) sucrose
  5. e) Splenda™ (sucralose)

 

 

27) What vitamin is used to treat pernicious anemia?

 

  1. a) C
  2. b) B1
  3. c) B12
  4. d) niacin
  5. e) B6

 

 

28) The main advantage of using microorganisms for the production of amino acids over chemical synthesis is …

 

  1. a) cost.
  2. b) stereospecificity.
  3. c) increased production yield.
  4. d) ease of purification.
  5. e) a single microbe will produce all 20 amino acids.

 

29) Millions of tons of this amino acid, commonly used as a flavor enhancer, are produced annually.

 

  1. a) methionine
  2. b) glycine
  3. c) glutamate
  4. d) valine
  5. e) leucine

 

 

30) Which of these amino acids are commonly used as supplements in animal feed to promote growth?

 

  1. a) glycine and glutamate
  2. b) methionine and lysine
  3. c) proline and valine
  4. d) tryptophan and tyrosine
  5. e) aspartate and histidine

 

 

31) Which of these amino acids are used for the production of the sweetener aspartame?

 

  1. a) glycine and asparagine
  2. b) glutamate and asparagine
  3. c) aspartate and phenylalanine
  4. d) aspartate and glycine
  5. e) tryptophan and proline

 

 

32) Microbes used for the production of amino acids are regulatory mutants for overproduction of the amino acid. The regulatory mutants are selected for by growing the microbe in the presence what material?

 

  1. a) an antibiotic
  2. b) a mutagen
  3. c) an amino acid analog
  4. d) the amino acid of interest
  5. e) an excess of glucose

 

 

33) The introduction of DNA into plants for the creation of transgenic plants often uses a plasmid mediated process from which bacterium?

 

  1. a) Rhizobium legmuninosarum
  2. b) Pseudomonas syringae
  3. c) Corynebacterium glutamicum
  4. d) Xanthomonas campestris
  5. e) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

 

 

34) Insect resistant transgenic plants are produced by the insertion of a gene into the plant genome from which insect toxin-producing bacterium?

 

  1. a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  2. b) Bacillus thuringiensis
  3. c) Corynebacterium glutamicum
  4. d) Pseudomonas syringae
  5. e) Xanthomonas campestris

 

 

35) Roundup Ready™ transgenic plants were created by inserting a glyphosate resistant gene from ___________________ into the plant chloroplast genome.

 

  1. a) Rhizobium
  2. b) Agrobacterium
  3. c) Pseudomonas
  4. d) Xanthomonas
  5. e) Corynebacterium

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) In industry, fermentation must be done anaerobically.

 

 

37) Bioprospecting is the search for microorganisms that possess useful features for commercial applications.

 

 

38) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability.

 

 

39) PCR can be used to introduce mutations into a microbial genome.

 

 

40) All secondary metabolites produced by microorganisms are used as antibiotics.

 

 

41) Some types of anti-cholesterol drugs, such as the statins, are produced by microbes.

 

42) The preferred fuel of choice for the original Model T Ford was gasoline.

 

Answer: False

 

 

43) Cyanobacteria are known to accumulate polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHA).

 

 

44) Modern laundry detergents contain proteases, lipases, amylases, and oxidases for the removal of stains.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

45) Bioreactors or fermentors are used in industry to maximize cell density and therefore also increase product ________.

 

 

46) Expression of eukaryal DNA in bacterial cells requires the insertion of _______ into the plasmid expression vector.

 

 

47) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.

 

 

48) The bacterium Bacillus megaterium naturally accumulates the storage granule poly-β-hydroxybutyrate. This storage product is used to make _________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

49) What are the advantages of using microbial enzymes for the synthesis of certain chemical over conventional chemical synthesis?

 

 

50) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?

 

51) Explain how the Ti plasmid- from Agrobacterium is used to create transgenic plants.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 13

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) A chemical reaction that has a negative ΔG0

 

  1. a) is an endergonic reaction.
  2. b) will require an input of energy.
  3. c) is not a spontaneous reaction.
  4. d) is an energy yielding reaction.
  5. e) will absorb energy.

 

 

2) How do enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction?

 

  1. a) By lowering the activation energy.
  2. b) By increasing the standard free energy.
  3. c) By lowering the standard free energy.
  4. d) By increasing the activation energy.
  5. e) By lowering the reduction potential.

 

 

3) Which of these is an example of a coenzyme?

 

  1. a) glucose
  2. b) iron
  3. c) NAD+
  4. d) cytochrome c
  5. e) a kinase

 

 

4) Which of these is the most widely used form of energy in cell processes?

 

  1. a) glucose
  2. b) NADH
  3. c) pyruvate
  4. d) ATP
  5. e) citrate

 

 

 

 

5) The biochemical reaction, PEP + ADP → Pyruvate + ATP, is an example of which of these?

 

  1. a) An oxidation/reduction reaction.
  2. b) Oxidative phosphorylation.
  3. c) Substrate-level phosphorylation.
  4. d) An aldolase catalyzed reaction.
  5. e) An electron transport reaction.

 

 

6) How is the activity of an allosteric enzyme regulated?

 

  1. a) By a coenzyme.
  2. b) By covalent modification.
  3. c) Through the binding of an effector molecule.
  4. d) Through the binding of a competitive inhibitor.
  5. e) By substrate binding.

 

 

7) Oxidative phosphorylation uses ALL of the following for energy production EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) electrons from NADH.
  2. b) membrane-associated electron transport chain.
  3. c) an ATP synthase.
  4. d) phosphoenolpyruvate.
  5. e) a proton motive force.

 

 

8) When oxygen reacts with hydrogen gas, water is produced as the product in this oxidation-reduction reaction. Hydrogen donates electrons to oxygen in the reaction. Which statement be-low is true about this reaction?

 

  1. a) Oxygen is oxidized to water.
  2. b) Oxygen is being reduced in the reaction.
  3. c) Hydrogen is being reduced in the reaction.
  4. d) The electron donor in this reaction is reduced.
  5. e) The electron acceptor in this reaction is oxidized.

 

9) The standard reduction potential (E0’) for ferredoxin (Fdox/Fdred) is (-0.43 V). Based on this, which of these would you expect to be true?

 

  1. a) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron donor.
  2. b) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor.
  3. c) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron donor.
  4. d) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor.
  5. e) Cannot be determined without knowledge of the other reactant.

 

 

10) What does a large positive ΔE0’ indicate for a redox reaction?

 

  1. a) It is endergonic.
  2. b) It has a positive ΔG0’.
  3. c) It will require an input of energy.
  4. d) It is spontaneous.
  5. e) It is energetically unfavorable.

 

 

11) Which of these is TRUE for a chemoorganoheterotroph?

 

  1. a) Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and organic carbon as a carbon source.
  2. b) Uses inorganic carbon as an electron source and organic carbon as a carbon source.
  3. c) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and inorganic carbon as a carbon source.
  4. d) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and a carbon source.
  5. e) Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and a carbon source.

 

 

12) Which of these is TRUE for a chemolithoautotroph?

 

  1. a) inorganic molecules as energy sources and inorganic carbon as a carbon source.
  2. b) organic molecules as electron sources and inorganic carbon as a carbon source.
  3. c) organic molecules as energy sources and organic carbon as a carbon source.
  4. d) inorganic molecules as electron sources and organic carbon as a carbon source.
  5. e) inorganic molecules as energy sources and organic carbon as a carbon source.

 

 

13) Cyanobacteria carry out oxygenic photosynthesis producing oxygen as a byproduct from the oxidation of water, which serves as the electron donor for the light-dependent reactions. How would cyanobacteria be classified?

 

  1. a) chemoorganoautotroph
  2. b) chemoorganoheterotroph
  3. c) photolithoheterotroph
  4. d) photoorganoautotroph
  5. e) photolithoautotroph

 

14) How many NET molecules of ATP are produced during the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of glycolysis for every molecule of glucose that is converted into two molecules of pyruvate?

 

  1. a) one
  2. b) two
  3. c) four
  4. d) six
  5. e) ten

 

 

15) What are the NET products of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway, when operating in the cata-bolic direction?

 

  1. a) Two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.
  2. b) Two pyruvate, four ATP, and four NADH.
  3. c) Two CO2, four pyruvate, two ATP, and four NADH.
  4. d) Two CO2, two pyruvate, four ATP, and four NADH.
  5. e) Two CO2, two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.

 

 

16) Which of these are mportant products of the pentose phosphate pathway that are used in bio-synthesis?

 

  1. a) pyruvate, ribose-5-phosphate, and NADPH
  2. b) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
  3. c) pyruvate, citrate, and erythrose-4-phosphate
  4. d) pyruvate, erythrose-4-phosphate, and ribose-5-phosphate
  5. e) citrate, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate

 

 

17) Microorganisms that rely solely on fermentation reactions for energy production make ATP primarily by this method.

 

  1. a) oxidative phosphorylation
  2. b) electron transport phosphorylation
  3. c) membrane bound ATPase
  4. d) substrate-level phosphorylation
  5. e) the oxidation of NADH

 

 

18) Fermentation can most accurately be described by which of these?

 

  1. a) The reoxidation of NADH by an electron transport chain.
  2. b) A process that occurs in the absence of oxygen.
  3. c) An energy producing process found in all anaerobes.
  4. d) The direct reoxidation of NADH by an internal organic molecule.
  5. e) The use of a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen.

 

 

 

19) Lactic acid is a common fermentation product. It is produced when ___________ is reduced by electrons received from NADH.

 

  1. a) ethanol
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) pyruvate
  4. d) acetyl-CoA
  5. e) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde

 

 

20) The products of yeast fermentation, when including the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of gly-colysis for one molecule of glucose, are two ethano molecules as well as these others.

 

  1. a) two ATP and two NADH
  2. b) two ATP, two NADH, and two CO2
  3. c) four ATP and two NADH
  4. d) two ATP and two CO2
  5. e) four ATP, two NADH, and two CO2

 

 

21) When does feedback inhibition of an enzyme occur?

 

  1. a) If an end product of the pathway binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme.
  2. b) If a competitive inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.
  3. c) If the coenzyme fails to bind to the active site of the enzyme.
  4. d) If an end product of the pathway binds to the active site of the enzyme.
  5. e) If a noncompetitive inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.

 

 

22) The pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction catalyzes the oxidation and decarboxylation of pyru-vate into which of these products?

 

  1. a) an acetyl group + CO2.
  2. b) lactic acid
  3. c) citrate
  4. d) ethanol + CO2
  5. e) acetic acid and CO2

 

 

23) Which of these sets are products of the TCA (Krebs) Cycle?

 

  1. a) NADH, ATP, CO2, and oxaloacetate
  2. b) NADH, FADH2, and ATP
  3. c) NADH, FADH2, and oxaloacetate
  4. d) NADH, FADH2, CO2, and ATP
  5. e) NADH, FADH2, CO2, and oxaloacetate

 

 

24) Which of these is NOT an electron carrier used in the electron transport system?

 

  1. a) flavoproteins
  2. b) iron-sulfur proteins
  3. c) ATPase
  4. d) quinones
  5. e) cytochromes

 

 

25) Which statement is TRUE with respect to the electron transport system?

 

  1. a) The electron transport system accepts electrons directly from glucose.
  2. b) In bacteria, the electron transport system is located in the cytoplasm.
  3. c) A proton motive force is generated as electrons move through the system to a terminal accep-tor.
  4. d) In prokaryotes, protons are transported into the cell as electrons move through the system.
  5. e) ATP is produced by a process called substrate-level phosphorylation.

 

 

26) Which of these occurs in anaerobic respiration, but not in aerobic respiration?

 

  1. a) A fermentation product is produced.
  2. b) The terminal cytochrome oxidase is replaced by a cytochrome reductase.
  3. c) Glucose is only partially oxidized to CO2.
  4. d) NADH dehydrogenase is replaced by NADH oxidase.
  5. e) Glycolysis.

 

 

27) Which of the following would NOT be appropriate as a terminal electron acceptor during an-aerobic respiration?

 

  1. a) nitrate (NO3-)
  2. b) sulfate (SO42-)
  3. c) sulfur (S0)
  4. d) ferric iron (Fe3+)
  5. e) hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

 

 

28) What can the proton motive force generated by the electron transport system be used for?

 

  1. a) NADH oxidation, ATP synthesis, and flagella rotation
  2. b) NADH oxidation, ATP synthesis, and nutrient transport
  3. c) ATP synthesis, flagella rotation, and nutrient transport
  4. d) NADH oxidation, flagella rotation, and nutrient transport
  5. e) oxygen reduction and ATP synthesis

 

 

29) How is ATP is primarily produced in chemolithotrophs?

 

  1. a) Fermentation reactions.
  2. b) Anaerobic respiration.
  3. c) Electrons moving through an electron transport system to generate a proton motive force.
  4. d) Glycolysis and TCA cycle reactions.
  5. e) Using reduced inorganic molecules as electron acceptors for the electron transport system.

 

 

30) Term for the primary pathway for fatty acid oxidation?

 

  1. a) Calvin cycle
  2. b) pentose phosphate pathway
  3. c) Parnas pathway
  4. d) β-oxidation pathway
  5. e) reductive TCA pathway

 

 

31) Enzymes that break down proteins into individual amino acids.

 

  1. a) amylases
  2. b) proteases
  3. c) reductases
  4. d) dehydrogenases
  5. e) lipases

 

 

32) The product(s) of the light reactions of photosynthesis.

 

  1. a) glucose and ATP
  2. b) glucoseonly
  3. c) ATPonly
  4. d) glucose and NADPH
  5. e) ATP and NADPH

 

 

33) What is the chromophore of the chlorophyll molecule composed of?

 

  1. a) A carotenoid molecule with an atom of iron in the center.
  2. b) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of iron in the center.
  3. c) A phycoerythrin with an atom of iron in the center.
  4. d) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.
  5. e) A phycoerythrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.

 

 

34) Chlorophyll a maximally absorbs light energy at what frequency(ies)?

 

  1. a) 430 nm and 662 nm
  2. b) 550 nm
  3. c) 750 nm and 850 nm
  4. d) 900 nm
  5. e) 800 nm and 950 nm

 

 

35) Which organisms contain bacteriochlorophyll?

 

  1. a) cyanobacteria
  2. b) cyanobacteria and purple non-sulfur bacteria
  3. c) cyanobacteria and green sulfur bacteria
  4. d) cyanobacteria, purple sulfur bacteria, and green sulfur bacteria
  5. e) purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur, and green sulfur bacteria

 

 

36) Where is the reaction center of photosystems located?

 

  1. a) In the cytoplasm.
  2. b) In the periplasmic space.
  3. c) Within a biological membrane.
  4. d) Either in the cytoplasm or within a membrane.
  5. e) Within the cell wall.

 

 

37) Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria are able to use _______ as an electron source.

 

  1. a) light
  2. b) CO2
  3. c) H2S
  4. d) H2O
  5. e) nitrate

 

 

38) How is ATP generated during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

 

  1. a) Substrate-level phosphorylation.
  2. b) A proton motive force driven ATP synthase.
  3. c) Electron driven NADPH synthase.
  4. d) Carbon dioxide fixation.
  5. e) Chlorophyll a.

 

 

 

 

 

39) The purple sulfur bacteria produce reducing power during the light reactions of photosynthe-sis by what process?

 

  1. a) cyclic photophosphorylation
  2. b) the Calvin cycle
  3. c) reverse electron flow
  4. d) the reverse TCA cycle
  5. e) the Parnas pathway

 

 

40) Cyanobacteria use _______ as an electron source for the reduction of NADP+.

 

  1. a) sulfur
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) water
  4. d) carbon dioxide
  5. e) nitrate

 

 

41) How would the “dark reactions” of photosynthesis best be described?

 

  1. a) energy generating reactions
  2. b) carbon dioxide fixing reactions
  3. c) glycolytic reactions
  4. d) reducing power generating reactions
  5. e) part of photosystem II

 

 

42) The key carbon dioxide fixation reaction in the Calvin Cycle is carried out by which enzyme?

 

  1. a) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
  2. b) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
  3. c) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
  4. d) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
  5. e) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate transcarboxylase

 

 

43) For what purpose is the reductive TCA cycle used by the green sulfur bacteria?

 

  1. a) carbon dioxide fixation
  2. b) generation of reducing power
  3. c) glucose breakdown
  4. d) energy generation
  5. e) respiration

 

 

44) Nitrogen fixation is the reduction of _______ to ammonia for cell use.

 

  1. a) nitrate
  2. b) nitrite
  3. c) hydroxylamine
  4. d) dinitrogen
  5. e) nitric oxide

 

 

45) How many ATP molecules is required to “fix” a molecule of nitrogen?

 

  1. a) one
  2. b) two
  3. c) four
  4. d) eight
  5. e) sixteen

 

 

46) Which nitrogen species is most readily incorporated into an organic molecule in the cell?

 

  1. a) dinitrogen
  2. b) nitrate
  3. c) nitrite
  4. d) ammonia
  5. e) nitric oxide

 

 

47) Which amino acids are the primary nitrogen donors for biosynthetic reactions in the cell?

 

  1. a) glycine and glutamate
  2. b) glycine and serine
  3. c) glutamine and glutamate
  4. d) glutamine and serine
  5. e) serine and glutamate

 

 

48) What is dissimulative nitrate reduction?

 

  1. a) The production of nitrate from ammonia.
  2. b) The incorporation of nitrate into cellular material.
  3. c) Anaerobic reduction of nitrate.
  4. d) Nitrogen fixation.
  5. e) The production of nitrate from nitrite.

 

 

49) What is denitrification?

 

  1. a) The reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen.
  2. b) The production of nitrate from ammonia.
  3. c) The reduction of dinitrogen to nitrate.
  4. d) The assimilation of nitrate by the cell.
  5. e) The assimilation of ammonia by the cell.

 

 

50) Which of these best describes assimilatory sulfatereduction?

 

  1. a) The reduction of sulfate to elemental sulfur.
  2. b) The reduction of sulfate for incorporation into cellular material.
  3. c) The reduction of sulfate to sulfide for excretion by the cell.
  4. d) A type of anaerobic respiration.
  5. e) An energy yielding process.

 

 

51) The biosynthesis of amino acids requires starting intermediates from which of these path-ways?

 

  1. a) glycolysisonly
  2. b) the TCA cycleonly
  3. c) glycolysis and TCA cycle
  4. d) the pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis
  5. e) glycolysis, TCA cycle, and the pentose phosphate pathway

 

 

52) The most common lipids in the cell are synthesized from ___________ and ____________.

 

  1. a) fatty acids and sterol
  2. b) fatty acids and glycerol
  3. c) fatty acids and hopanoids
  4. d) hopanoids and sterols
  5. e) glycerol and hopanoids

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

53) ATP molecules are the primary energy molecules for all cells.

 

 

54) A reaction that has a negative ΔG°’ is exergonic.

 

 

55) During glycolysis, the transfer of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP is an exam-ple of substrate-level phosphorylation.

 

 

56) A chemical that receives electrons during an oxidation/reduction reaction is being oxidized.

 

 

57) The process of oxidative phosphorylation involves an electron transport chain.

 

58) An organism that uses light as an energy source is called an autotroph.

 

 

59) The only function of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway is the catabolism of glucose.

 

 

60) A net gain of four ATP are produced during glycolysis from the conversion of glucose to py-ruvate.

 

 

61) Anaerobic respiration is the same metabolic process as fermentation.

 

 

62) Fermentation reactions reoxidize NADH.

 

 

63) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.

 

 

64) Energy production by chemolithotrophs result of inorganic molecule oxidation and passage of electrons into an electron transport chain for the generation of a proton motive force to drive an ATPase for the synthesis of ATP.

 

 

65) The β-oxidation pathway is used for the breakdown of nucleotides for use as carbon source.

 

 

66) Some enzymes are able to exist and remain active outside the cell.

 

 

67) The final product of the light reaction of photosynthesis is glucose.

 

 

68) Oxygen is produced by all photosynthetic microorganisms.

 

 

69) The most common carbon dioxide fixation pathway used by cyanobacteria is the Calvin cycle.

 

70) Most cells prefer to assimilate nitrogen as ammonia.

 

 

71) The assimilation of sulfate requires energy.

 

 

72) The starting intermediate for the synthesis of the amino acid glutamate is α-ketoglutarate.

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

73) Metabolic processes in the cell that yield energy are called ____________.

 

 

74) Enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction by lowering the _________ _________ of the reaction.

 

 

75) ATP that is produce directly from a biochemical reaction in the cell as the result of a phos-phate transfer to ADP is called ____________ phosphorylation.

 

 

76) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.

 

 

77) Organism that use inorganic molecules as electron sources are called ______________.

 

 

78) The pentose phosphate pathway is important for producing the intermediate ribose-5-phosphate for the synthesis of __________________.

 

 

79) The use of an exogenous terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen is called __________ __________.

 

80) During the respiratory process, as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain, a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.

 

 

81) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.

 

82) The type of photosynthesis that does NOT produce oxygen is called ___________ photosyn-thesis.

 

 

83) The pathway of carbon dioxide fixation used by cyanobacteria is called the ___________ __________.

 

 

84) The reduction of dinitrogen to ammonia for assimilation is called nitrogen ________.

 

85) The reduction of nitrate to a gaseous form of nitrogen, such as dinitrogen, is called __________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

86) Distinguish between substrate-level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.

 

 

87) Distinguish between anaerobic respiration and fermentation.

 

 

88) Describe the components of the respiratory electron transport chain. Indicate if they are both an electron and proton acceptor, or an electron only acceptor.

 

 

89) Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light reactions in the green-sulfur bacteria.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 14

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What is the oxidation state of carbon in methane?

 

  1. a) +1
  2. b) + 2
  3. c) -1
  4. d) -2
  5. e) -4

 

 

2) What is the oxidation state of carbon in carbon dioxide?

 

  1. a) 0
  2. b) -2
  3. c) -4
  4. d) +2
  5. e) +4

 

 

3) What is the oxidation state of carbon in lactic acid (C3H6O3)?

 

  1. a) 0
  2. b) -2
  3. c) -4
  4. d) +2
  5. e) +4

 

 

4) Which of these is linked with production of cement for construction of highways?

 

  1. a) A decrease in sand.
  2. b) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
  3. c) A decrease in limestone.
  4. d) A decrease in fossil fuel consumption.
  5. e) An increase of atmospheric nitrogen.

 

 

 

5) When considering biogeochemical cycles, the earth is divided into these three major reservoirs.

 

  1. a) Ocean, terrestrial, and earth’s crust.
  2. b) Atmosphere, earth’s crust, and land.
  3. c) Atmosphere, terrestrial, and aquatic.
  4. d) Terrestrial, aquatic, and earth’s crust.
  5. e) Ocean, freshwater, and terrestrial.

 

 

6) Why is carbon dioxide considered a greenhouse gas?

 

  1. a) It is fixed by plants during photosynthesis.
  2. b) It is produced during the oxidation of organic compounds.
  3. c) It is found in high concentrations in greenhouses.
  4. d) It absorbs heat attempting to escape the atmosphere.
  5. e) It is utilized by suspended microbes in the atmosphere.

 

 

7) Which carbon reservoir is most actively cycled?

 

  1. a) the atmosphere
  2. b) ocean waters
  3. c) underground limestone
  4. d) forest mulch
  5. e) ocean sediments

 

 

8) The main primary producers in aquatic environments are _______, while in terrestrial envi-ronments the main primary producers are __________.

 

  1. a) plants, plants
  2. b) microbes, microbes
  3. c) plants, microbes
  4. d) microbes, plants
  5. e) microbes and plants contribute equally in both environments

 

 

9) Which of these would occur in an “ideal” food web?

 

  1. a) Organic carbon production > carbon dioxide production.
  2. b) Organic carbon production < carbon dioxide production.
  3. c) Organic carbon production = carbon dioxide consumption.
  4. d) Carbon dioxide consumption < than organic carbon production.
  5. e) Carbon dioxide consumption > organic carbon production.

 

 

10) Which of these is true regarding soil humus?

 

  1. a) It is quickly broken down by microorganisms.
  2. b) It is a minor component of organic carbon in the soil.
  3. c) It is degraded very slowly over time.
  4. d) It is primarily inorganic in composition.
  5. e) It is a polymer of glucose.

 

 

11) Which of these statements is TRUE regarding oxygen use and utilizers of methanogenesis?

 

  1. a) It is aerobic, and carried out by Bacteria.
  2. b) It is aerobic, and carried out by Archaea.
  3. c) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Bacteria.
  4. d) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Archaea.
  5. e) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Eukarya.

 

 

12) In methane-producing environments large polymers are broken down by a consortium of mi-crobes. This consortium includes:

 

  1. a) obligate aerobic bacteria and methanogens.
  2. b) polymer hydrolyzing microbes, fermenters, and methanogens.
  3. c) aerobic polymer hydrolyzing microbes and fermenters.
  4. d) primary aerobic respiratory microbes and methanogens.
  5. e) sulfate-reducing microbes and methanogens.

 

 

13) Many metabolic reactions in anaerobic environments are driven by methanogens because of the rapid utilization of this material during methanogenesis.

 

  1. a) carbon dioxide
  2. b) sulfate
  3. c) formate
  4. d) hydrogen
  5. e) nitrogen

 

14) Which compound listed below would NOT be utilized by an obligate methylotroph?

 

  1. a) methanol
  2. b) dimethylamine
  3. c) acetate
  4. d) formate
  5. e) formaldehyde

 

 

15) Bacteria that rely on methanotrophy for carbon and energy metabolism utilize one of these two unique pathways for carbon assimilation.

 

  1. a) Serine pathway and the ribulose monophosphate pathway.
  2. b) Acetyl-CoA pathway and the serine pathway.
  3. c) Reductive TCA pathway and the acetyl-CoA pathway.
  4. d) Ribulose monophosphate pathway and the reductive TCA pathway.
  5. e) Acetyl-CoA pathway and the ribulose monophosphate pathway.

 

 

16) How can Type I and Type II methanotrophs be distinguished from one another?

 

  1. a) By carbon assimilation pathways and Gram stain.
  2. b) By Gram stain and cellular shape.
  3. c) By Gram stain and internal membrane structures.
  4. d) By carbon assimilation pathways and internal membrane structures.
  5. e) By cellular shape and internal membrane structures.

 

 

17) Methanotrophs, in contrast to non-methanotrophic methylotrophs,contain this enzyme.

 

  1. a) methane carboxylase
  2. b) methane lyase
  3. c) methane monooxygenase
  4. d) methane dehydrogenase
  5. e) methane kinase

 

 

18) Methane utilization by methylotrophs is an environmentally important process. Why?

 

  1. a) Methane is a dead-end energy source.
  2. b) The process prevents methane, a greenhouse gas, from entering the atmosphere.
  3. c) Methane is toxic to fish.
  4. d) Methane inhibits photosynthesis.
  5. e) The process prevents lakes from becoming anoxic.

 

 

19) The anaerobic oxidation of methane by some archaeons may occur syntrophically with these organisms.

 

  1. a) nitrogen fixing bacteria
  2. b) nitrifying bacteria
  3. c) denitrifying bacteria
  4. d) iron-oxidizing bacteria
  5. e) sulfate-reducing bacteria

 

 

20) Which one of the following is NOT a reservoir for oxygen?

 

  1. a) the atmosphere
  2. b) carbon dioxide
  3. c) nitrate
  4. d) ammonia
  5. e) water

 

 

21) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in ammonia?

 

  1. a) -3

b)-1

  1. c) 0
  2. d) +1
  3. e) +3

 

 

22) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in nitrate?

 

  1. a) -3
  2. b) -1
  3. c) +1
  4. d) +3
  5. e) +5

 

 

23) Which is the major nitrogen reservoir on Earth?

 

  1. a) plants
  2. b) microbes
  3. c) the atmosphere
  4. d) ocean biomass
  5. e) organic matter in soil

 

 

24) Which of these summarizes the overall process of nitrogen fixation?

 

  1. a) ammonia →→→ N2
  2. b) N2 →→→ ammonia → biomass
  3. c) NO3- →→→ ammonia → biomass
  4. d) NO3- →→→N2
  5. e) ammonia →→→ NO3-

 

 

25) Which of these summarizes the overall reaction for nitrification?

 

  1. a) NO3- → NO2-
  2. b) biomass → ammonia
  3. c) NO3- →→→ ammonia → biomass
  4. d) NO3- →→→N2
  5. e) ammonia →→→ NO3-

 

 

26) Which of these summarizes the overall process of denitrification?

 

  1. a) N2 → NH3
  2. b) biomass → ammonia
  3. c) NO3- →→→ ammonia → biomass
  4. d) NO3- →→→N2
  5. e) ammonia →→→ NO3-

 

 

27) Which of these best describes nitrification?

 

  1. a) chemoorganotrophic
  2. b) chemolithotrophic
  3. c) phototrophic
  4. d) heterotrophic
  5. e) obligate anaerobic

 

 

28) Why is the process of denitrification detrimental to the soil?

 

  1. a) It leads to acidification of the soil.
  2. b) It leads to loss of utilizable nitrogen from the soil.
  3. c) It leads to loss of oxygen in the soil.
  4. d) It leads to loss of organic matter from the soil.
  5. e) It leads to the production of toxic nitrogen intermediates.

 

 

29) Which industrial process is used for the production of ammonia for land application?

 

  1. a) Mattox
  2. b) Havel – Brill
  3. c) Dalgarno
  4. d) Haber-Bosch
  5. e) Anderson-Plamann

 

 

30) How can denitrification of soil be reduced?

 

  1. a) By adding lime to the soil.
  2. b) By adding ammonia to the soil.
  3. c) By keeping the soil well aerated.
  4. d) By adding potash to the soil.
  5. e) By flooding the soil with water.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

31) The oxidation state of carbon in carbonate (CO32-) is +4)

 

32) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

 

 

33) The carbon reservoir in the atmosphere is actively cycled.

 

 

34) Members of the Plantae are the primary producers in aquatic environments.

 

 

35) Methanogenesis is an anaerobic process.

 

 

36) Methanogenesis helps drive a number of other microbial processes in anaerobic environments through the remove of hydrogen gas.

 

37) Methane cannot be oxidized back to CO2 under anaerobic conditions.

 

 

38) Methane is a very potent greenhouse gas.

 

 

39) The oxidation state of nitrogen in dinitrogen (N2) is +1.

 

40) The process of denitrification is an anaerobic process.

 

 

41) The process of nitrification is carried out by chemoautotrophic bacteria.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

41) The oxidation state of the carbon atom in methanol (CH3OH) is ______.

 

 

42) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas _______ ________.

 

 

43) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.

 

44) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.

 

 

45) The enzyme ___________ ____________ is used by methanotrophs to oxidize methane to methanol.

 

 

46) The chemoautotrophic process that results in the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is called ____________.

 

 

47)  The anaerobic process that results in the reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen gas is called ______________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) What two major human activities have contributed to an increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere? What are the consequences of high carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

 

49) Describe the processes involved in the decomposition of polymers in an anaerobic environ-ment for the ultimate production of methane.

 

 

 

50) Describe the metabolic process of nitrification and  specific roles of representative microor-ganisms responsible for the process.

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 15

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) What is the best classification of primary producers found in hydrothermal vents on the ocean bottom?

 

  1. a) photosynthetic
  2. b) organotrophs
  3. c) chemolithoautotrophs
  4. d) chemoorganoheterotrophs
  5. e) photolithoautotrophs

 

 

2) Microbes are able to generate energy through the:

 

  1. a) oxidation of organic compounds only.
  2. b) reduction of organic compounds only.
  3. c) oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds.
  4. d) reduction of inorganic and organic compounds.
  5. e) synthesis of ATP.

 

 

3) Which of these is NOT an advantage of living in a biofilm community?

 

  1. a) protection from predation
  2. b) water availability
  3. c) protection from toxins
  4. d) nutrient availability
  5. e) genetic exchange

 

 

4) Which of these is the LEAST important physiological activity to consider when studying an ecosystem?

 

  1. a) primary production by chemolithotrophs
  2. b) primary production by phototrophs
  3. c) decomposition by chemoorganotrophs
  4. d) methane production by methanogens
  5. e) biogeochemical cycling of the elements

 

 

5) Which of these regulates the formation of biofilms?

 

  1. a) photosynthesis
  2. b) quorum sensing
  3. c) water availability
  4. d) catabolite repression
  5. e) end product repression

 

6) Today, the most effective technique for analyzing microbial community structure is based on this analysis.

 

  1. a) Sequencing small subunit rRNA.
  2. b) Identification of the catabolic enzymes present.
  3. c) Isolation and characterization of microbes from the community.
  4. d) Enrichment culture technique for microbial isolation.
  5. e) Identification of metabolic intermediates that accumulate in the environment.

 

 

7) In the microbial world, an “operational taxonomic unit” is defined as any group of microbes that share at least __________ sequence identity of their SSU gene.

 

  1. a) 100%
  2. b) 97%
  3. c) 90%
  4. d) 80%
  5. e) 50%

 

 

8) FISH is a fluorescent microscopic technique used to differentiate microbes using this fluores-cently labeled material.

 

  1. a) antibody
  2. b) antigen
  3. c) protein
  4. d) DNA probe
  5. e) lipid

 

 

9) What is the estimated percentage of microbial species on Earth have been grown in culture?

 

  1. a) 1 -5%
  2. b) 5 – 10 %
  3. c) 10 – 15%
  4. d) 15-20%
  5. e) 20 – 25%

 

 

10) Which of these represents MOST of the ocean’s biomass?

 

  1. a) fish
  2. b) sea mammals
  3. c) fish and sea mammals
  4. d) marine plants
  5. e) microbes

 

 

11) What is the % salinity of the ocean?

 

  1. a) 1% or less
  2. b) 3.5%
  3. c) 8%
  4. d) 15%
  5. e) 35%

 

 

12) Which elements necessary for microbial life are often limiting in the ocean?

 

  1. a) magnesium and calcium
  2. b) nitrogen and phosphorous
  3. c) magnesium and chloride
  4. d) sodium and calcium
  5. e) potassium and magnesium

 

 

13) Which of these characterizes dead zones in the ocean?

 

  1. a) Low temperatures.
  2. b) Lacking microbial life.
  3. c) Being hypoxic.
  4. d) Being oligotrophic.
  5. e) Lacking nutrients.

 

 

14) What is the average temperature of the world’s ocean waters?

 

  1. a) 2 to 3°C
  2. b) 8 to 10°C
  3. c) 12 to 15°C
  4. d) 18 to 20°C
  5. e) 22 to 25°C

 

 

15) The coastal marine waters contain on average about _________ microbial cells per ml.

 

  1. a) 10
  2. b) 100
  3. c) 10,000
  4. d) 1 million
  5. e) 100 million

 

 

16) Which of the following groups is the most abundant in the ocean?

 

  1. a) viruses
  2. b) fungi
  3. c) phytoplankton
  4. d) Bacteria
  5. e) Eukarya

 

 

17) Which of these best summarizes the contribution of cyanobacteria in the open ocean?

 

  1. a) primary carbon production
  2. b) oxygenation of the waters
  3. c) nitrogen fixation
  4. d) primary carbon production and oxygenation of the waters
  5. e) primary carbon production, oxygenation of the waters, and nitrogen fixation

 

 

 

18) Approximately what percent of primary production reaches the ocean floor?

 

  1. a) one
  2. b) five
  3. c) ten
  4. d) twenty
  5. e) forty

 

 

19) To grow the widest diversity of marine microbes from the open ocean requires growth media that contain which of the following?

 

  1. a) High amounts of various organics.
  2. b) High amounts of carbohydrates.
  3. c) High amounts of proteins.
  4. d) Very low carbon concentrations.
  5. e) Very low amounts of proteins and high amounts of carbohydrates.

 

 

20) How would you best classify most of the microbes from marine environments that cannot be isolated?

 

  1. a) obligate anaerobes
  2. b) obligate oligotrophs
  3. c) obligate acidophiles
  4. d) extreme halophiles
  5. e) extreme thermophiles

 

 

21) Proteorhodopsin has been found in many marine bacteria, including the SAR-11 group. What is this protein’s function?

 

  1. a) In the digestion of proteins.
  2. b) As a light-driven proton pump.
  3. c) As a photosynthetic reaction center.
  4. d) As a repressor for global regulation.
  5. e) As an activator for global regulation.

 

 

22) In terrestrial environments, where is the greatest microbial diversity found?

 

  1. a) lakes
  2. b) rivers and streams
  3. c) soil
  4. d) rocks
  5. e) springs

 

 

23) Soil texture classification is based on the percent of __________ that make up the soil.

 

  1. a) air, water, and solids
  2. b) water and solids
  3. c) sand, silt, and clay
  4. d) sand and water
  5. e) clay and sand

 

24) Most of the organic matter in soil comes from the decomposition of what material?

 

  1. a) animals
  2. b) plants
  3. c) fungi
  4. d) protozoa
  5. e) algae

 

 

25) Where is the soil’s rhizosphere?

 

  1. a) Areas in contact with bodies of water.
  2. b) Areas in direct contact with the atmosphere.
  3. c) Areas surrounding plant roots.
  4. d) Patches that support nitrogen fixation.
  5. e) Zones that contain animal life.

 

 

26) Soil microbes surrounding the plant root contribute to plant growth by providing the plants with all of the following EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) a source of fixed nitrogen.
  2. b) soluble phosphorus.
  3. c) water.
  4. d) a usable carbon source.
  5. e) protection from pathogens.

 

 

27) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposi-tion.

  1. a) fungi
  2. b) Gram positive bacteria
  3. c) Gram negative bacteria
  4. d) Archaea
  5. e) slime molds

 

 

28) What are humic substances?

 

  1. a) clay particles
  2. b) recalcitrant organic molecules
  3. c) glucose molecules
  4. d) carbonates and phosphates
  5. e) silt and sand

 

 

29) All of the following but one are xenobiotics that frequently contaminate our terrestrial envi-ronments. Which one does NOT represent a xenobiotic?

 

  1. a) polychlorinated biphenyls
  2. b) polycyclic aromatics
  3. c) lignin
  4. d) trichloroethylene
  5. e) nitroaromatics

 

 

30) Which of these pairs best categorizes water below the thermocline in a lake during the sum-mer?

 

  1. a) warm and aerobic
  2. b) low density and anaerobic
  3. c) cold and aerobic
  4. d) low density and aerobic
  5. e) cold and anaerobic

 

 

31) From the study of deep subsurface microbiology, what is the approximate upper temperature limit for microbial growth?

 

  1. a) 80°C
  2. b) 90°C
  3. c) 100°C
  4. d) 110°C
  5. e) 120°C

 

 

32) What is the deepest that viable microorganisms have been found in the Earth’s crust?

  1. a) 100 meters
  2. b) 500 meters
  3. c) 1000 meters
  4. d) 1500 meters
  5. e) 3000 meters

 

 

33) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes that live deep within the Earth?

 

  1. a) carbon dioxide and oxygen
  2. b) hydrogen gas and ferrous iron
  3. c) nitrate and sulfate
  4. d) sulfate and ferric iron
  5. e) nitrate and ferric iron

 

 

34) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes living in hydrothermal vents?

 

  1. a) nitrate and methane
  2. b) methane and sulfide
  3. c) sulfide and nitrate
  4. d) sulfate and nitrate
  5. e) sulfate and methane

 

 

35) Moderate temperature and neutral pH geothermal springs in terrestrial environments may contain __________ as primary producers.

 

  1. a) chemolithotrophs
  2. b) oxygenic phototrophs
  3. c) anoxygenic phototrophs
  4. d) oxygenic and anoxygenic phototrophs
  5. e) oxygenic and anoxygenic phototrophs and chemolithotrophs

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) Microbes can form a biofilm on any type of surface.

 

 

37) Biofilms in the environment are usually comprised of a single species.

 

 

38) Most of the ocean is oligotrophic or nutrient poor.

 

39) Estimates of overall microbial abundance in the ocean indicate that more Archaea are present than Bacteria.

 

 

40) The greatest diversity of microbial life in a terrestrial environment is found in lakes.

 

 

41) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

42) A community of organisms living in a specified area that are interacting with each other and their environment is called a(n) ________________.

 

 

43) The specific function role of an organism in an ecosystem is called the ___________.

 

 

44) The part of the soil that immediately surrounds the plant root is called the __________.

 

45) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called __________.

 

 

46) The depth of a stratified lake that is characterized by a rapid decrease in temperature and oxygen is called the ________________

 

 

47) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Briefly describe the formation of a biofilm.

 

 

49) Describe how FISH is used to detect certain groups of microorganisms.

 

 

50) Describe the beneficial relationship that exists between plants and microorganisms.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 16

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which one of the following is an extrinsic factor that affects that rate of food spoilage?

 

  1. a) The storage temperature
  2. b) The pH of the food
  3. c) The skin on a fruit
  4. d) The water content of the food
  5. e) The nutrient content of the food

 

 

2) Which one of the following foods would have the highest water activity?

 

  1. a) Almonds
  2. b) Honey
  3. c) Dried Beans
  4. d) Apple
  5. e) Rice

 

 

3) Evidence of microbial food spoilage requires the presence of at least _________ microbes per gram.

 

  1. a) 100
  2. b) 1000
  3. c) 10,000

d 100,000

  1. e) 1,000,000

 

 

4) Lyophilization is

 

  1. a) the acidification of food for long term storage.
  2. b) a type of canning technique.
  3. c) sun-dried food.
  4. d) freeze-drying of food.
  5. e) salting of food for storage.

 

 

 

5) When you add salt to meat for preservation you are

 

  1. a) increasing the water activity of the meat.
  2. b) decreasing the water activity of the meat.
  3. c) increasing the pH of the meat.
  4. d) decreasing the pH of the meat.
  5. e) decreasing the nutrient content of the meat.

 

 

6) The most common food preservation method used in US households is

 

  1. a) canning.
  2. b) curing meat.
  3. c) refrigeration.
  4. d) heating.
  5. e) freeze-drying.

 

 

7) Canning is a technique used in food preservation. The food to be canned is heated to boiling for an hour

 

  1. a) in the presence of high salt.
  2. b) under acidic conditions.
  3. c) with a preservative added for long term storage.
  4. d) under pressure of 10 – 15 psi.
  5. e) and immediately chilled after boiling.

 

 

8) The most common disease associated with improperly canned food is

 

  1. a) botulism.
  2. b) tetanus.
  3. c) gastroenteritis.
  4. d) colitis.
  5. e) stomach ulcer.

 

 

9) Pasteurization is a method of preservation that involves heating the liquid to _______ °C for 30 min.

 

  1. a) 45
  2. b) 63
  3. c) 85
  4. d) 100
  5. e) 121

 

10) Most milk sold in stores today has an extended shelf life primarily because of

 

  1. a) canning techniques.
  2. b) refrigeration.
  3. c) Tyndallization.
  4. d) high temperature short term pasteurization.
  5. e) the addition of chemical preservatives.

 

 

11) Pickling is a preservation method that uses __________ to help preserve the food.

 

  1. a) alcohol
  2. b) heat
  3. c) acid
  4. d) freezing
  5. e) spices

 

 

12) Small protein molecules produced by a microorganism that adversely affect a closely related microorganism are called

 

  1. a) siderophores.
  2. b) bacteriocins.
  3. c) lysozymes.
  4. d) beta-blockers.
  5. e) proteases.

 

 

13) Which of the following type of radiation may be used to sterilize food?

 

  1. a) Long range ultra-violet
  2. b) Visible light
  3. c) Radio waves
  4. d) Ionizing
  5. e) Infrared

 

 

14) Vacuum packaging inhibits the growth of microbes that

 

  1. a) are obligate anaerobes.
  2. b) rely on fermentation for energy metabolism.
  3. c) are aerotolerant anaerobes.
  4. d) rely on aerobic respiration for growth.
  5. e) are chemolithotrophs.

 

 

15) All of the following microbes play an important role in the production of fermented milk products except for

 

  1. a) Lactobacillus.
  2. b) Leuconostoc.
  3. c) Lactococcus.
  4. d) Saccharomyces.
  5. e) Streptococcus.

 

 

16) Which one of the following foods is not a fermented milk product?

 

  1. a) Swiss cheese
  2. b) Kefir
  3. c) Butter
  4. d) Butter milk
  5. e) Yogurt

 

 

17) This microorganism is often used to make fermented semi-dry sausages and salami.

 

  1. a) Leuconostoc
  2. b) Pediococcus
  3. c) Saccharomyces
  4. d) Aspergillus
  5. e) Lactobacillus

 

 

18) What bacterium is used in the production of Swiss cheese to give it its characteristic flavor and also the holes from carbon dioxide production?

 

  1. a) Pediococcus
  2. b) Leuconostoc
  3. c) Propionibacterium
  4. d) Clostridium
  5. e) Pseudomonas

 

 

19) The fungus Penicillium is used in the production of

 

  1. a) blue cheese.
  2. b) cheddar cheese.
  3. c) limburger cheese.
  4. d) American cheese.
  5. e) Colby cheese.

 

 

20) The protease rennin is used in the production of

 

  1. a) butter.
  2. b) yogurt.
  3. c) kefir.
  4. d) cheese.
  5. e) ice cream.

 

 

21) Fermented soybean products, like miso and tempeh, are produced using

 

  1. a) lactic acid bacteria.
  2. b) molds.
  3. c) propionate bacteria.
  4. d) acetic acid bacteria.
  5. e) Saccharomyces.

 

 

22) Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by

 

  1. a) lactic acid bacteria.
  2. b) the yeast Saccharomyces.
  3. c) various molds.
  4. d) sulfate-reducing bacteria.
  5. d) acetic acid bacteria.

 

 

23) Staphylococcus aureus causes foodborne illness through

 

  1. a) the production of an enterotoxin that contaminates prepared foods.
  2. b) a break in the skin during food preparation.
  3. c) the ingestion of the microbe which grows in the large intestine to produce symptoms.
  4. d) the production of an exotoxin after ingestion of the microbe.
  5. e) the consumption of undercooked meat.

 

 

24) Which microbe listed below causes foodborne intoxication?

 

  1. a) Shigella
  2. b) Salmonella
  3. c) Staphylococcus
  4. d) Campylobacter
  5. e) Vibrio

 

 

25) An example of an organism that causes a foodborne infection is

 

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus.
  2. b) Campylobacter jejuni.
  3. c) Clostridium perfringens.
  4. d) Clostridium botulinum.
  5. e) Bacillus cereus.

 

 

26) All of the following are goals of wastewater treatment except

 

  1. a) reduction of total organic content (TOC).
  2. b) removal of harmful pathogens.
  3. c) enhancement of the taste of water.
  4. d) removal of nitrogen.
  5. e) removal of phosphorus.

 

 

27) The main goal of the primary treatment phase of wastewater treatment is the

 

  1. a) reduction of total organic content (TOC).
  2. b) removal of pathogenic microbes.
  3. c) reduction of nitrogen.
  4. d) removal of particulate matter.
  5. e) removal of toxic chemicals.

 

 

28) Which of the following methods use microbial biofilms for secondary phase of wastewater treatment?

 

  1. a) trickling filter
  2. b) activated sludge
  3. c) anaerobic digester
  4. d) nitrification tank
  5. e) oxidation pond

 

 

29) The activated sludge method of wastewater treatment uses

 

  1. a) a microbial biofilm for organic carbon reduction.
  2. b) an inoculum from the previous activated sludge treatment.
  3. c) chemolithotrophic bacteria for carbon reduction.
  4. d) special chemicals for the removal of organic pollutants.
  5. e) large screens to filter out particulate matter.

 

 

30) The ________________ is a measure of the amount of oxygen required for the microbial oxidation of organic compounds in a water source.

 

  1. a) chemical oxygen demand
  2. b) biological oxygen demand
  3. c) respiration rate
  4. d) carbon dioxide production
  5. e) cell yield

 

 

31) The release of high levels of nitrogen and phosphorus into streams after wastewater treatment will result in

 

  1. a) the production of high quality water for plant irrigation.
  2. b) water that tastes bad.
  3. c) eutrophication of the stream.
  4. d) increased nutrients for the fish in the stream.
  5. e) increase in oxygen levels in the stream.

 

 

32) The gas __________ is frequently recovered from anaerobic digesters at a waste treatment plant.

 

  1. a) methane
  2. b) carbon dioxide
  3. c) hydrogen
  4. d) nitrogen
  5. e) argon

 

 

33) Anaerobic digesters at wastewater treatment plants are used to

 

  1. a) reduce nitrogen and phosphorus in wastewater.
  2. b) remove toxic organic pollutants.
  3. c) remove potential pathogens.
  4. d) treat wastewater effluent.
  5. e) treat sludge and particulates collected during waste treatment.

 

 

34) Ozonation is a wastewater treatment used to

 

  1. a) remove organic pollutants.
  2. b) disinfect wastewater.
  3. c) reduce nitrogen levels in the water.
  4. d) remove heavy metals that may be present in wastewater.
  5. e) remove phosphorus from wastewater.

 

35) All of the following are processes that may be used in the treatment of drinking water except

 

  1. a) filtration.
  2. b) activated sludge digestion.
  3. c) flocculation.
  4. d) chlorination.
  5. e) sedimentation.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) The pH of an orange is an intrinsic factor that affects the shelf-life of the fruit.

 

 

37) Foods with high water activity will usually spoil faster than foods with a low water activity.

 

38) The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years. Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.

 

 

39) Canning is the most prominent method of food preservation in industrialized countries today.

 

 

40) Pasteurization is a process of food preservation that results in sterilization.

 

 

41) Chemical food preservatives like sodium benzoate, acetic acid, and propionate are all weak acids.

 

 

42) Irradiation of food by gamma radiation will make the food radioactive.

 

 

43) Many bacteria that are used for the production of various fermented milk products belong to the lactic acid bacteria group.

 

44) A person eats some leftover potato salad from a picnic and becomes ill within three hours. This type of food poisoning is referred to as a “food-infection”.

 

45) One of the main reasons for wastewater treatment is to reduce the BOD.

 

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

46) Food storage temperature is an ____________ factor that affects the rate at which a food will spoil.

 

 

47) The amount of water in a food that is available to microorganisms is referred to as ________ ______.

 

 

48) Small proteins produced by some bacterial to inhibit the growth of closely related bacteria are called __________________.

 

 

49) The bacterium that gives Swiss cheese its characteristic flavor and holes is in the genus ____________.

 

 

50) Vinegar is made by bacteria from one of two genera, either Gluconobacter or ________________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

51) Describe the process of vinegar production by the trickle method. Name the two genera of bacteria involved. Why do they produce vinegar?

 

 

52) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.

 

 

53) Describe the activated sludge method for treatment of wastewater effluent. What is the major goal of this method?

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 17

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these is TRUE of an ectosymbiont?

 

  1. a) It is always harmful to the host.
  2. b) It is either harmful or beneficial to the host.
  3. c) It is always beneficial to the host.
  4. d) It is best described as a mutualistic relationship.
  5. e) It is best described as a commensal relationship.

 

 

2) Which of these is true of a mutualistic relationship?

 

  1. a) Neither organism benefits or is harmed by the relationship.
  2. b) One member benefits and the other member is harmed.
  3. c) One member benefits and the other member does not receive any benefit.
  4. d) Both organisms benefit.
  5. e) Both members are harmed from the relationship.

 

 

3) What is an endophyte?

 

  1. a) A parasite of a plant.
  2. b) A parasite of an animal.
  3. c) A symbiont that lives inside plant cells.
  4. d) A member of the plant root rhizosphere.
  5. e) A member of the intestinal tract microbial community.

 

 

4) Which of these is characteristic of the nitrogenase enzyme?

 

  1. a) It is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
  2. b) It converts dinitrogen to nitrate.
  3. c) It requires hydrogen gas for activity.
  4. d) It is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen.
  5. e) It is found in all plant symbionts.

 

 

 

 

5) The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen binding protein.

 

  1. a) cytochrome c
  2. b) flavoprotein
  3. c) leghemoglobin
  4. d) menaquinone
  5. e) nitrate reductase

 

 

6) Once rhizobia enter the plant cell through the infection thread they undergo rapid multiplica-tion and differentiation into pleomorphic nitrogen fixing cells called _____ .

 

  1. a) shizonts
  2. b) bacteroids
  3. c) elementary bodies
  4. d) reticulate forms
  5. e) nitromorphs

 

 

7) The host-range specificity between specific legumes with specific rhizobia involves the tran-scriptional inactivation of the bacterial nod genes through the secretion of specific ___________ by the plant.

 

  1. a) flavonoids
  2. b) sugars
  3. c) fatty acids
  4. d) nucleotides
  5. e) lactones

 

 

8) In order to make sufficient ATP for symbiotic nitrogen fixation, the plant supplies the sym-bionts with ____________ for energy production.

 

  1. a) NADH
  2. b) glucose
  3. c) C3 acids
  4. d) fatty acids
  5. e) C4-dicarboxylic acids

 

 

9) Which of these is TRUE of a lichen?

 

  1. a) It is classified as a plant.
  2. b) It is comprised of a fungus and usually an green alga.
  3. c) It is comprised of a fungus and an archaeal symbiont.
  4. d) It is a type of slime mold.
  5. e) It is comprised of a protozoan and anarchaeal symbiont.

 

 

10) The mycobiont of a lichen receives sugars from the photobiont as a benefit from this rela-tionship while the photobiont receives _______________ from the mycobiont as a benefit.

 

  1. a) amino acids
  2. b) ATP
  3. c) inorganic nutrients and protection from desiccation
  4. d) protection from predation
  5. e) vitamins and amino acids

 

 

11) Lichens reproduce asexually by ___________, which are hyphal -packaged algae cells.

 

  1. a) soredia
  2. b) ascus
  3. c) conidia
  4. d) zygospores
  5. e) sporozoites

 

 

12) What is the human microbiome composed of?

 

  1. a) Microbes that live in the intestinal tract of humans.
  2. b) All the microbes that cause disease in humans.
  3. c) All microbes that live on or within the human body.
  4. d) Microbes that contribute to the health of humans.
  5. e) Microbes that live on human skin.

 

 

13) The most common inhabitants of the human skin are members of which phyla?

 

  1. a) Proteobacteria and Bacteroidetes
  2. b) Proteobacteria and Firmicutes
  3. c) Bacteroidetes and Firmicutes
  4. d) Firmicutes and Actinobacteria
  5. e) Actinobacteria and Proteobacteria

 

14) The vagina of women of child-bearing age has an acidic pH. This is due to the colonization by which organisms?

 

  1. a) staphylococci
  2. b) lactobacilli
  3. c) Candida sp
  4. d) Bacteroides sp
  5. e) micrococci

 

 

15) Which of these is the MOST abundant bacterial group in the colon?

 

  1. a) members of the phylum Proteobacteria
  2. b) the family Enterobacteriaceae
  3. c) obligate anaerobes
  4. d) facultative anaerobes
  5. e) lactobacilli.

 

 

16) The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are _____ .

 

  1. a) sulfate-reducing bacteria
  2. b) halobacteria
  3. c) sulfide oxidizing bacteria
  4. d) methanogens
  5. e) fermenters

 

 

17) Herbivores require microorganisms to help them with the digestion of this compound.

 

  1. a) starch
  2. b) glycogen
  3. c) cellulose
  4. d) proteins
  5. e) nucleic acids

 

 

18) Some herbivorous cecal fermenters obtain additional nutrients from their food sources by this method.

 

  1. a) Regurgitating their food and chewing it again.
  2. b) Retaining it in their large intestine for long periods of time.
  3. c) Eating their feces.
  4. d) Selectively eating certain plants.
  5. e) Moving the cecal-digested food back to the small intestine for absorption.

 

 

19) Which of these is TRUE of ruminants?

 

  1. a) They possess a single stomach chamber and long cecum.
  2. b) They are considered to be hindgut fermenters.
  3. c) They are inefficient in the digestion of plant material.
  4. d) They obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms.
  5. e) They often consume their own feces.

 

 

20) Many of the rumen bacteria specialize in the breakdown of these macromolecules.

 

  1. a) proteins
  2. b) cellulose polymers
  3. c) peptidoglycans
  4. d) nucleic acids
  5. e) fatty acids

 

 

21) Acetogenesis is the production of acetic acid from which material(s)?

 

  1. a) lactate
  2. b) pyruvate
  3. c) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
  4. d) oxaloacetate
  5. e) glucose

 

 

22) Microbes in the rumen are very efficient at converting ____________ and _________ into amino acids.

 

  1. a) ammonia and urea
  2. b) glucose and pyruvate
  3. c) starch and cellulose
  4. d) fatty acids and acetate
  5. e) pyruvate and lactate

 

 

23) When the diet of a ruminant is drastically changed from grass to a starch rich diet, the rumi-nant may become very ill or die because:

 

  1. a) the microbes in the rumen cannot break down starch.
  2. b) of the production of large amounts of acid, resulting in acidosis.
  3. c) they lack a source of protein.
  4. d) they are unable to regurgitate the starch as cud.
  5. e) the starch is broken down very slowly and the rumen becomes clogged.

 

 

24) Most microbial symbionts of invertebrates are in this group.

 

  1. a) yeast
  2. b) Archaea
  3. c) protozoa
  4. d) algae
  5. e) Bacteria

 

 

25) Scientist are able to make an insect symbiont free by this method.

 

  1. a) Hatching insect eggs in a sterile environment.
  2. b) Treating the insect with an antibiotic.
  3. c) Mating the insect with a symbiont free insect.
  4. d) Irradiating insect eggs.
  5. e) Putting the insect on a different diet.

 

 

26) How do primary endosymbionts of insects differ from secondary endosymbionts?

 

  1. a) Primary endosymbionts provide the insect with nutrients.
  2. b) Secondary endosymbionts protect the insect from harmful bacteria.
  3. c) Secondary endosymbionts do not remain with the host after three or four generations.
  4. d) Primary endosymbionts show evidence of co-speciation with the host insect.
  5. e) Secondary endosymbionts can easily be cultured.

 

 

27) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a primary endosymbiont?

 

  1. a) They all have reduced genomes.
  2. b) They are found in specialized cells called bacteriocytes.
  3. c) They provide the host with nutrients.
  4. d) They are passed on maternally.
  5. e) They are required for survival or fertility.

 

 

28) The bacterial genus ___________ is a secondary symbiont and is capable of changing the female to male ratio of an insect to primarily female.

 

  1. a) Rickettsia
  2. b) Wolbachia
  3. c) Pseudomonas
  4. d) Culex
  5. e) Bordetella

 

 

 

29) Lower termites feed primarily on wood and contain symbiotic:

 

  1. a) bacteria in their intestine.
  2. b) bacteria and archaeons in their intestine.
  3. c) fungi in their intestine.
  4. d) protozoa, bacteria, and archaeons in their intestine.
  5. e) protozoa and fungi in their intestine.

 

 

30) Cellulose consumed by the lower termite is hydrolyzed by cellulases produced by _____ .

 

  1. a) fungi
  2. b) bacteria
  3. c) archaeons
  4. d) the termite
  5. e) yeast

 

 

31) How do termites obtain nitrogen in their diet?

 

  1. a) From digestion of proteins.
  2. b) From digestion of nucleic acids.
  3. c) From nitrogen fixing bacteria in their gut.
  4. d) From urea.
  5. e) From nitrogen fixing protozoa.

 

 

32) The hydrogen and carbon dioxide produced in the gut of the lower termite are used to pro-duce __________ by symbiotic microbes.

 

  1. a) methane
  2. b) lactate
  3. c) fatty acids
  4. d) amino acids
  5. e) glucose

 

 

33) Which of these contains zooxanthellae as photosynthetic symbionts?

 

  1. a) shipworms
  2. b) termites
  3. c) lichens
  4. d) coral
  5. e) tubeworms

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

34) Most microbe-host relationships are harmful.

 

 

35) The nitrogenase enzyme is irreversibly inactivated by hydrogen.

 

 

36) Bradyrhizobium japonicum will form nodules on soybeans but not on peas, alfalfa, or beans.

 

 

37) Once rhizobia enter into the plant cell and differentiate they will not proliferate again.

 

 

38) Plaque on human teeth is considered a biofilm.

 

 

39) The human colon contains more microbial cells than human cells that make up the entire body.

 

 

40) Intestinal microorganisms are important for the proper functioning of the immune system.

 

 

41) Hindgut fermenters have greater fermentation efficiency than ruminants.

 

 

42) Most endosymbionts of invertebrates can easily be cultured.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

43) A group of microorganisms that are interdependent on one another for the stability of the community is called a/an__________________

 

 

44) The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member benefits and the other member is not affected is called _________________.

 

 

45) Endophytes are microorganisms that live within the tissue of ___________.

 

 

 

46) All microorganisms that live on or within the human body are referred to collectively as the human ________________.

 

 

47) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Describe the process of rhizobial recognition of its host legume for the initiation of nodule formation.

 

 

49) Describe the process of rumen fermentation and nutrient acquisition by ruminants.

 

 

50) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 18

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these would need to occur for a disease to be considered infectious?

 

  1. a) A susceptible host encounters an infectious agent.
  2. b) An infectious agent colonizes a host.
  3. c) An infectious agent colonizes a host and can be transmitted to another host.
  4. d) An infectious agent causes damage to the host.
  5. e) An infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host.

 

 

2) What does a high case-to-infection ratio (CI) indicate?

 

  1. a) That the disease is usually fatal.
  2. b) That most people infected by the pathogen will develop the disease.
  3. c) That most people infected by the pathogen will not develop the disease.
  4. d) That the disease is usually very mild.
  5. e) That the pathogen is transmitted by an aerosol route.

 

 

3) Which of these is true of an attenuated strain of a pathogenic microbe infecting a susceptible healthy host?

 

  1. a) The microbe will NOT replicate in the host.
  2. b) The microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease.
  3. c) The microbe will replicate in the host and cause disease.
  4. d) The microbe will replicate in the host and ultimately kill the host.
  5. e) The microbe will NOT replicate in the host but will cause disease.

 

 

4) In order to cause disease, successful infectious pathogens must be able to do ALL of the following EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) gain entry to the host.
  2. b) attach to and/or invade host cells.
  3. c) evade host defenses.
  4. d) exit the host.
  5. e) kill the host.

 

 

5) Term for pathogen properties that aid it in causing disease.

 

  1. a) virulence factors
  2. b) pathogenics
  3. c) proteases
  4. d) enhancers
  5. e) promoters

 

 

6) All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) pili.
  2. b) lipoteichoic acid.
  3. c) attachment proteins.
  4. d) chitinases.
  5. e) surface glycoproteins.

 

 

7) What often determines the host range of a pathogen?

 

  1. a) It’s ability to replicate inside a host cell.
  2. b) The exit strategy of the pathogen.
  3. c) The ability of pathogen to attach to a host cell.
  4. d) It’s ability to destroy antibody.
  5. e) Nutrient availability.

 

 

8) Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following?

 

  1. a) acquire nutrients
  2. b) evade host defenses
  3. c) attach to host cells
  4. d) exit the host successfully
  5. e) enter host cells

 

 

9) The Herpes simplex I virus is able to avoid detection by the host immune system through this mechanism.

 

  1. a) Antigenic variation.
  2. b) The production of proteases that destroy antibodies.
  3. c) The establishment of latency in sensory neurons.
  4. d) The production of cytotoxins that kill macrophages.
  5. e) The inhibition of B-cells.

 

 

10) Pathogens may cause damage to the host by ALL of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) induction of apoptosis in the host cell.
  2. b) production of an exotoxin.
  3. c) production of an endotoxin.
  4. d) lysis of host cell.
  5. e) replication in the host.

 

 

11) How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host?

 

  1. a) an aerosol route
  2. b) a fomite
  3. c) contaminated food or water
  4. d) a vector-borne route
  5. e) sexual contact

 

 

12) How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?

 

  1. a) By an aerosol route.
  2. b) As a result of an insect bite.
  3. c) From mother to offspring.
  4. d) By a sexual route.
  5. e) By ingesting contaminated water.

 

 

13) What is studied in the field of epidemiology?

 

  1. a) Pathology of infectious diseases.
  2. b) Patterns of infectious disease spread.
  3. c) The causes of infectious diseases.
  4. d) The study of patterns of all diseases.
  5. e) The causes of all diseases.

 

 

14) What is the morbidity rate of a disease?

 

  1. a) The number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population.
  2. b) The number of deaths due to an infectious agent.
  3. c) The ratio of the number of deaths to the number of individuals with the disease.
  4. d) The total number of cases of a disease.
  5. e) The number of deaths within a population.

 

 

15) Term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period.

 

  1. a) prevalence
  2. b) incidence
  3. c) occurrence
  4. d) infectious dose 50
  5. e) mortality rate

 

 

16) Term for newly identified infectious diseases or those with a recent significant increase in incidence.

 

  1. a) emerging diseases
  2. b) new diseases
  3. c) modern diseases
  4. d) future diseases
  5. e) special diseases

 

 

17) Which of these is true of an endemic disease?

 

  1. a) It quickly appears and then disappears in a population.
  2. b) It is present in a population at numbers higher than expected.
  3. c) It is always epidemic on a worldwide scale.
  4. d) It is constantly present in a given population.
  5. e) It is spread by an animal vector.

 

 

18) Term for an epidemic that occurs on multiple continents.

 

  1. a) endemic disease
  2. b) outbreak
  3. c) pandemic
  4. d) emerging disease
  5. e) re-emerging disease

 

19) Which of these is an example of a common-source epidemic?

 

  1. a) A single case of H1N1 influenza is reported in a small town.
  2. b) A prison has a higher rate of tuberculosis than is typical.
  3. c) A number of children show up at school with measles.
  4. d) Several cases of food poisoning from a wedding.
  5. e) A local hospital sees cases of several different “staph” infections in a week

 

 

20) Which disease listed below is NOT an example of a propagated disease?

 

  1. a) measles
  2. b) influenza
  3. c) salmonellosis
  4. d) tuberculosis
  5. e) chicken pox

 

 

21) Term for a clustering of virulence genes on the chromosome of a pathogenic microbe.

 

  1. a) transposon
  2. b) pathogenicity island
  3. c) operon
  4. d) promoter
  5. e) enhancer region

 

 

22) Which one of the following statements is NOT one of Koch’s postulates?

 

  1. a) Identify the suspected microbe in every person with the disease.
  2. b) Isolate the suspected microbe in pure culture.
  3. c) Identify virulence factors from the isolated microbe.
  4. d) Inoculate the isolated microbe into a susceptible host to see if it causes the disease.
  5. e) Recover the microbe from the experimentally inoculated host.

 

 

23) Which of these outcomes is the focus of molecular Koch’s postulates?

 

  1. a) The isolation of the pathogen.
  2. b) The identification of the pathogen.
  3. c) The determination of the LD50.
  4. d) The determination of the ID50.
  5. e) The identification of virulence factor genes.

 

 

24) The emergence of HIV/AIDS disease was most likely a result of:

 

  1. a) an increase in virulence of an existing human retrovirus.
  2. b) a change in human behavior that allowed the virus to spread.
  3. c) a mutation in an existing retrovirus that allowed for increased spread between humans.
  4. d) a rare zoonotic transfer of a retrovirus strain to humans.
  5. e) an increase in homosexual activity among humans.

 

 

25) The emergence of Lyme disease was most likely a result of:

 

  1. a) an increase in virulence of the spirochete.
  2. b) a change in human activity that allowed for an increased risk for contact with the pathogen.
  3. c) a mutation in an existing spirochete that allowed for increase spread between humans.
  4. d) a rare zoonotic transfer of the spirochete strain to humans.
  5. e) an increase in the tick population.

 

 

 

26) Pathogenic E. coli strain O157:H7 evolved from a non-pathogenic strain as a result of this genetic change.

 

  1. a) A mutation in a virulence gene.
  2. b) A mutation that resulted in antibiotic resistance.
  3. c) The acquisition of virulence genes from Shigella.
  4. d) The use of antibiotic supplements in animal feeds.
  5. e) A mutation that resulted in increased capsule production.

 

 

27) This is an example of a pathogen that has become more of a threat because it is increasingly harder to control with antimicrobials.

 

  1. a) MRSA
  2. b) E.coli O157:H7
  3. c) HIV/AIDS
  4. d) Ebola virus
  5. e) Measles virus

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

28) Primary pathogens are distinguished from opportunistic pathogens in that they always cause a more severe disease.

 

 

29) Individuals that are carriers of a particular pathogen but do not develop the disease cannot transmit the pathogen to other individuals.

 

 

 

30) A single mutation in a pathogenic gene may cause the pathogen to become avirulent.

 

 

31) A pathogen that causes disease in a healthy host when displaced from its usual location in the body could be termed opportumistic.

 

 

32) Most pathogens need to avoid host defenses and attach to host cells before they are able to replicate and establish the disease state in the host.

 

 

33) The ability of Staphylococcus aureus to become antibiotic resistant is referred to as antigenic variation.

 

 

34) Endotoxins are toxins that are made in the cell and excreted to the external environment.

 

 

35) A fomite is an inanimate object used for the transmission of a pathogenic agent.

 

 

36) Vertical transmission of a pathogenic agent occurs from mother to child.

 

 

37) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.

 

 

38) Koch’s Postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

39) The replication of a microbial pathogen on or within a host is called a(n) __________________.

 

 

40) When the virulence of a pathogen is decreased to such a degree that it no longer can cause disease it is termed a(n) _______________ strain.

 

 

41) A(n) _____________________ disease is an infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to a human.

 

 

 

42) The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called _______________.

 

 

43) A(n) ________________ is a toxin made inside the pathogen and excreted into the external environment.

 

 

44) Borrelia burgdorferi, the agent of Lyme disease, is found in nature in the white-footed mice and deer. Mice and deer are said to be _______________ for this pathogen.

 

 

45) The number of deaths due to a specific disease over a specified number in the population is referred to as the ______________ rate.

 

 

46) A(n) _____________ disease is one that is always present in a population.

 

 

47) When the incidence of a disease occurs at a level higher than expected, it is called a(n) ______________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Distinguish between a primary pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen.

 

 

49) Why is Koch’s third postulate sometimes problematic?

 

 

50) Give two specific examples of emerging pathogens and explain what factors may have contributed to their emergence.

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 19

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these is an example of “non-sterile immunity”?

 

  1. a) The complete destruction of the measles virus by the immune system response.
  2. b) The removal of a toxin from the body by a specific antibody response.
  3. c) Preventing the spread of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by encasing it in tubercles in the lungs.
  4. d) Immunization against the polio virus for the development of a quick immune response to de-stroy the virus.
  5. e) Immune recognition and destruction of a Rhinovirus strain to which a person was previously exposed.

 

 

2) Which is an example of innate immunity?

 

  1. a) The development of a specific antibody response.
  2. b) An immunization.
  3. c) The development of a specific cell mediated response.
  4. d) The removal of a bacterial cell in the lungs by a resident macrophage.
  5. e) A quick immune response against an influenza virus because of a previous exposure.

 

3) Which of these results in immunological memory?

 

  1. a) The innate immune response.
  2. b) The adaptive immune response.
  3. c) The non-specific immune response.
  4. d) Passive immunity from mother to offspring.
  5. e) Immune mechanisms present at birth.

 

 

4) All of the following are important properties of the skin that help protect us against pathogen colonization EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) our resident microbial population.
  2. b) keratinized epithelial cells on the surface.
  3. c) a layer of oil above the epidermis.
  4. d) high skin temperature.
  5. e) moderately acidic (pH 5) environment.

 

 

5) Which one of the following is NOT part of the mucosal surface defense barrier against micro-bial invasion?

 

  1. a) lysozyme
  2. b) keratinized cells
  3. c) ciliated epithelial cells
  4. d) lactoferrin
  5. e) mucus

 

 

6) Which one of the following is NOT a nonspecific natural defense barrier against microbial in-vasion?

 

  1. a) ciliated epithelial cells
  2. b) lysozyme
  3. c) mucus
  4. d) antimicrobial peptides
  5. e) antibodies

 

 

7) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense barrier against infection of the small intes-tine?

 

  1. a) large numbers of resident microbes
  2. b) bile salts
  3. c) peristalsis
  4. d) mucus
  5. e) antimicrobial peptides

 

 

8) All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) swelling.
  2. b) heat.
  3. c) constriction of blood vessels.
  4. d) redness.
  5. e) formation of pus.

 

 

9) What is the term for small proinflammatory protein molecules that are secreted by various cells to signal other cells of the immune system?

 

  1. a) lactoferrins
  2. b) cytokines
  3. c) immunogens
  4. d) antigens
  5. e) defensins.

 

 

10) Vasodilation is the increase in the diameter of blood vessels. Which of the following does NOT cause vasodilation?

 

  1. a) lysozyme
  2. b) the inflammatory response
  3. c) histamine
  4. d) prostaglandins
  5. e) serotonin

 

 

11) What are the most numerous white blood cells in the body?

 

  1. a) eosinophils
  2. b) lymphocytes
  3. c) neutrophils
  4. d) basophils
  5. e) monocytes

 

 

12) The inflammatory response will sometimes produce a fever. Why is fever considered a de-fense mechanism?

 

  1. a) Fever slows the body’s metabolism.
  2. b) Fever decreases the inflammatory response.
  3. c) Fever prevents a person from becoming cold.
  4. d) Fever inhibits or decreases pathogen growth.
  5. e) Fever stimulates antibody production.

 

 

13) Which of these most directly can lead to septic shock?

 

  1. a) A pathogen invades the bloodstream.
  2. b) The inflammatory response spreads through the entire body.
  3. c) The pathogen infects a vital organ.
  4. d) The inflammatory response is repressed.
  5. e) An infection is established in deep tissue.

 

 

 

14) Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) are molecular signatures of microbes that are easily recognized by a host as being of foreign origin. Which of the following is NOT an ex-ample of a PAMP?

 

  1. a) lipopolysaccharide
  2. b) membrane-associated ETS protein
  3. c) lipid A
  4. d) teichoic acid
  5. e) mannose of yeast cell walls

 

 

15) Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) recognize PAMPs and play an important role in non-specific surveillance of foreign microbe recognition. What organisms contain PRRs besides hu-mans? (Pick most complete answer.)

 

  1. a) other vertebrates
  2. b) vertebrates and invertebrates
  3. c) vertebrates and plants
  4. d) plants and invertebrates
  5. e) other vertebrates, invertebrates, and plants

 

 

16) What are toll-like receptors (TLRs)?

 

  1. a) PAMPs found in invertebrates.
  2. b) PAMPs found in vertebrates.
  3. c) PRRs found in vertebrates and invertebrates.
  4. d) PRRs found only in vertebrates.
  5. e) PAMPs found in vertebrates and invertebrates.

 

 

17) In vertebrates, TLRs are found on the surface of many types of cells. On which of these cells would you NOT expect to find TLRs?

 

  1. a) red blood cells
  2. b) monocytes
  3. c) macrophages
  4. d) neutrophils
  5. e) dendritic cells

 

 

18) TLR-3 recognizes double-stranded RNA. The presence of double stranded RNA in a cell usually indicates the cell is infected by which of these?

 

  1. a) a Gram negative bacterium
  2. b) an RNA virus
  3. c) a Gram positive bacterium
  4. d) a protozoan
  5. e) yeast

 

 

19) A component often added to vaccines to enhance the immune response to microbial compo-nents in the vaccine.

 

  1. a) stimulant
  2. b) complement
  3. c) adjuvant
  4. d) pyrogen
  5. e) antagonist

 

 

20) An example of a secreted PRR is mannose-binding lectin. What is a lectin?

 

  1. a) A lipid that binds proteins.
  2. b) A carbohydrate that binds proteins.
  3. c) A carbohydrate that binds carbohydrates.
  4. d) A protein that binds carbohydrates.
  5. e) A protein that binds other proteins.

 

 

21) Term for the coating of a microbial surface by PRRs, complement, and/or antibodies for the enhancement of phagocytosis.

 

  1. a) marking
  2. b) recognition
  3. c) opsonization
  4. d) adjuvant
  5. e) endocytosis

 

 

22) Which of these would induce the liver to produce C-reactive protein?.

 

  1. a) A Gram positive bacterial infection.
  2. b) Inflammation.
  3. c) Complement activation.
  4. d) Phagocytosis.
  5. e) The presence of mannose.

 

 

23) Which of the following is true of complement?

 

  1. a) They are a large group of serum proteins.
  2. b) They are a type of antibody.
  3. c) They are mainly produced by macrophages.
  4. d) They are mainly produced by lymphocytes.
  5. e) They are considered to be a PAMP.

 

 

24) The classical pathway of complement activation starts with the binding of C1 to the surface of the microbe by recognition of ANY of the following on the pathogen surface EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) C-reactive protein.
  2. b) bound antibody.
  3. c) mannose-binding lectin.
  4. d) LPS of Gram negative bacteria.
  5. e) teichoic acids of Gram positive bacteria.

 

 

25) The C3b fragment is produced as a result of complement activation. C3b acts as a PRR by recognizing and binding to cell wall components of microbes. What will be the result of this binding?

 

  1. a) Stimulation of antibody production.
  2. b) The start of a membrane attack complex.
  3. c) Enhancement of phagocytosis.
  4. d) Chemical attraction of lymphocytes.
  5. e) Stimulation of the inflammatory response.

 

 

26) Type one interferons play a major role in combating which of these infections?

 

  1. a) protozoans
  2. b) Gram negative bacteria
  3. c) Gram positive bacteria
  4. d) viruses
  5. e) yeasts.

 

 

27) Neutrophils are commonly referred to as _________________ because of their odd shaped nucleus.

 

  1. a) monocytes
  2. b) lymphocytes
  3. c) dendritic cells
  4. d) polymophonuclear leukocytes
  5. e) multinuclear leukocytes

 

 

28) Macrophages are phagocytic cells found in certain body tissues. Macrophages are differen-tiated from which of these cells?

 

  1. a) monocytes
  2. b) basophils
  3. c) lymphocytes
  4. d) eosinophils
  5. e) neutrophils

 

 

29) During the process of phagocytosis, microbes are contained within the phagosome. The pha-gosome fuses with vesicles in the cell that contain components for the destruction and degrada-tion of the microbe. Which one of the following strategies is NOT used to destroy the phagocy-tized microbe?

 

  1. a) degradation by enzymes
  2. b) inactivation by acidification
  3. c) lysis via membrane pores
  4. d) destruction by antibodies
  5. e) destruction by toxic oxygen radicals

 

 

30) What is the main function of eosinophils?

 

  1. a) To cause hay fever.
  2. b) To protect against helminths.
  3. c) To protect against fungi.
  4. d) To stimulate the inflammatory response.
  5. e) To protect against bacteria.

 

 

31) When the antibody class IgE binds to mast cells or basophils, what does it stimulate them to do?

 

  1. a) enhance phagocytosis
  2. b) produce more antibody
  3. c) undergo degranulation
  4. d) activate complement
  5. e) differentiate into lymphocytes

 

 

32) Natural Killer (NK) cells specialize in destroying these.

 

  1. a) fungi
  2. b) protozoa
  3. c) parasitic worms
  4. d) pathogen infected cells
  5. e) viruses

 

 

33) What is the action of the granzymes released by Natural Killer cells?

 

  1. a) To lyse pathogen infected cells.
  2. b) To induce apoptosis in pathogen infected cells.
  3. c) To enhance phagocytosis.
  4. d) To produce pores in the pathogen membrane.
  5. e) To destroy parasitic worms.

 

 

34) What is a hemocyte?

 

  1. a) A type of phagocytic red blood cell.
  2. b) An antibody producing cell found in invertebrates.
  3. c) A major phagocyte found in insects.
  4. d) A complement producing cell in the bloodstream.
  5. e) Macrophages found in the liver.

 

 

35) The invertebrate immune response involves ALL of the following EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) phagocytic amoebocytes.
  2. b) antimicrobial peptides.
  3. c) antibody producing B-cells.
  4. d) opsonization of microbes by lectins.
  5. e) melanin encapsulation of microbes.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) Iron is usually freely available in the body for access by invading pathogens.

 

 

37) Iron deficiency may protect the body against certain pathogens.

 

 

38) Septic shock may be induced by exposure to a large amount of LPS.

 

 

39.TLR binding to PAMPs is very important for the initiation of the adaptive immune response.

 

 

40) The classical pathway of complement activation is initiated through the recognition of bound antibody to antigen on the microbe surface.

 

 

41) Macrophages are neutrophils that have undergone differentiation once they enter tissue.

 

 

42) NK cells can recognize and destroy cancer cells.

 

 

43) Insects are able to produce antimicrobial peptides to protect themselves from some patho-gens.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

44) If an individual is resistant to infection and disease development by a specific pathogen, the person is said to be _______________ to the infectious agent.

 

 

45) The body’s programmed nonspecific response to tissue injury is called ___________________.

 

 

46) ________ ________ receptors are an important group of PRRs that recognize specific PAMPs.

 

 

47) A component often added to vaccines to stimulate the immune response to pathogen compo-nents in the vaccine is called a/an _____________

 

 

48) A special type of endocytosis whereby large particles or cells are taken into a cell enclosed in an endosome for digestion is called __________________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

49) Describe the natural defenses found in the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine that act as barriers to infection.

 

 

50) What are the visible signs of inflammation and what causes these symptoms?

 

 

51) How do toll-like receptors (TLRs) function to recognize foreign cells in the body?

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 20

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which of these best describes an antigen?

 

  1. a) A receptor on an immune cell.
  2. b) An immune receptor that binds to a ligand.
  3. c) Any component that can be specifically bound by an immune receptor.
  4. d) Any type of ligand.
  5. e) Any type of immunogen.

 

 

2) Which of these is able to bind to T cell receptors on a specific T cell?

 

  1. a) Any epitope on an antigen.
  2. b) Any epitope.
  3. c) Any antigen.
  4. d) Only a single unique epitope on an antigen.
  5. e) Any ligand.

 

 

3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the primary immune response?

 

  1. a) The response only involves T cells.
  2. b) Only a few cells can initially recognize the specific antigen.
  3. c) The response is slow and may take several weeks to develop.
  4. d) Clonal expansion of B cells and T cells occur after antigen exposure.
  5. e) Memory cells produced during this response can last for years.

 

 

4) Which of these can activate T cells during the adaptive immune response?

 

  1. a) Only B cells.
  2. b) B cells and macrophages.
  3. c) Macrophages and dendritic cells.
  4. d) B cells and dendritic cells.
  5. e) B cells or macrophages or dendritic cells.

 

 

 

 

5) Macrophages perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) present antigen on MHC I type molecules.
  2. b) present antigen on MHC II type molecules.
  3. c) phagocytize bacteria.
  4. d) produce antibody.
  5. e) activate T cells.

 

6) What is the function of interleukin-2?

 

  1. a) A growth factor for T-cells.
  2. b) An antigen presenting molecule on the surface of B cells.
  3. c) An activator of dendritic cells.
  4. d) A chemoattractant for PMNs.
  5. A trigger for degranulation of PMNs.

 

 

7) What is the effector function of CD8+ cells?

 

  1. a) Stimulation of B-cells for antibody production.
  2. b) Antibody production.
  3. c) The cytotoxic killing of infected cells.
  4. d) Stimulation of macrophages.
  5. e) Stimulation of dendritic cells.

 

 

8) Exogenous antigen can be taken up by antigen-presenting cells through phagocytosis, processed, and presented to T cells on their surface by these.

 

  1. a) MHC I molecules
  2. b) MHC II molecules
  3. c) interleukin 2 molecules
  4. d) tumor necrosis factor alpha
  5. e) interferon gamma

 

 

9) Antigen-presenting cells infected by a virus can present processed viral antigen on their surface to T cells through these.

 

  1. a) MHC I molecules
  2. b) MHC II molecules
  3. c) interleukin 2 molecules
  4. d) tumor necrosis factor alpha
  5. e) interferon gamma

 

 

10) Endogenous antigens originate in pathogen infected cells. Which of these process and present pathogen associated antigens on the cell surface?

 

  1. a) MHC I molecules
  2. b) MHC II molecules
  3. c) T cell receptors
  4. d) interleukin-2
  5. e) tumor necrosis factor alpha

 

 

11) The process of antigen cross presentation is especially important in:

 

  1. a) developing a strong antibody response.
  2. b) developing an appropriate response to viruses that do not infect APCs.
  3. c) developing an appropriate response to virus-infected APCs.
  4. d) processing of exogenous antigen.
  5. e) processing of endogenous antigen.

 

 

12) Which of these is NOT a function of dendritic cells?

 

  1. a) Activate naïve CD4+ T cells.
  2. b) Activate naïve CD8+ T cells.
  3. c) Function as a “professional” phagocyte.
  4. d) Activate effector CD4+ T cells
  5. e) Activate memory CD4+ T cells.

 

 

13) What are the two main functions of B cells?

 

  1. a) Activation of naïve CD4+ T cells and antibody production.
  2. b) Activation of effector CD8+ T cells and antibody production.
  3. c) Activation of naïve CD4+ T cells and effector CD8+ T cells.
  4. d) Activation of effector CD4+ T cell and antibody production.
  5. e) Activation of naïve CD4+ T cells and effector CD4+ T cells.

 

14) Which of these is true of B cell receptors (BCRs)?

 

  1. a) They are able to bind soluble antigen.
  2. b) They present processed antigen to T cells.
  3. c) They comprise the MHC complex of B cells.
  4. d) They are different from antibody produced by the B cell.
  5. e) They activate naïve T cells.

 

 

 

15) TH2 cells function by releasing cytokines that:

 

  1. a) cause proliferation of antigen activated CD8+ T cells.
  2. b) enhance phagocytosis by macrophages.
  3. c) enhance phagocytic killing by macrophages.
  4. d) enhance phagocytosis by neutrophils.
  5. e) cause proliferation of antigen activated B cells.

 

 

16) TH1 cells function in which of these processes?

 

  1. a) The humoral immune response.
  2. b) The cell-mediated immune response.
  3. c) The innate immune response.
  4. d) The production of antibody.
  5. e) The activation of complement by antigen-antibody complex.

 

 

17) Which of these are B cell receptors (BCR) able to bind? (Choose the most complete answer.)

 

  1. a) Only proteins.
  2. b) Only polysaccharides.
  3. c) Only lipids.
  4. d) Only proteins and polysaccharides.
  5. e) Proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids.

 

 

18) T independent activation of B cells usually requires which of the following?

 

  1. a) An internal protein antigen.
  2. b) Dendritic cell activation of the B cell.
  3. c) A highly repetitive antigen like some polysaccharides.
  4. d) Macrophage activation of the B cell.
  5. e) Toll-like receptor activation of the B cell.

 

 

19) What are plasma cells?

 

  1. a) Antibody producing cells.
  2. b) The same as memory B cells.
  3. c) Any lymphocyte in the blood stream.
  4. d) The same as memory CD8+ T cells.
  5. e) T-helper cells.

 

 

 

20) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is able to bind __________ antigen(s).

 

  1. a) one
  2. b) two
  3. c) three
  4. d) four
  5. e) six

 

 

21) What is function of the FC region of the antibody molecule…?

 

  1. a) It binds the antigen.
  2. b) It binds complement.
  3. c) It binds specific receptors on phagocytes.
  4. d) Options b and c are correct.
  5. e) Options a, b, and c are all correct.

 

 

22) Every mature B cell is capable of producing antibodies with:

 

  1. a) a single unique specificity.
  2. b) at least a hundred specificities.
  3. c) at least a thousand specificities.
  4. d) at least one-hundred thousand specificities.
  5. e) at least a million specificities.

 

 

23) When does antibody diversity occur in a B cell?

 

  1. a) After a mature B cell is exposed to an antigen.
  2. b) After stimulation by TH1 cell.
  3. c) After stimulation by TH2 cell.
  4. d) During B cell maturation.
  5. e) After a mature B cell processes an antigen.

 

 

24) What is the first antibody made in the primary immune response?

 

  1. a) IgA
  2. b) IgD
  3. c) IgE
  4. d) IgG
  5. e) IgM

 

 

 

25) Which of these is the antibody secreted in the largest amount by the body?

 

  1. a) IgA
  2. b) IgD
  3. c) IgE
  4. d) IgG
  5. e) IgM

 

 

26) Which of these is the major antibody present in serum?

 

  1. a) IgA
  2. b) IgD
  3. c) IgE
  4. d) IgG
  5. e) IgM

 

 

27) Which antibody is involved in the initiation of anaphylactic or allergic reactions?

 

  1. a) IgA
  2. b) IgD
  3. c) IgE
  4. d) IgG
  5. e) IgM

 

 

28) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) performs all the following activities except one. Which activity does it NOT perform?

 

  1. a) degranulation of basophils
  2. b) toxin neutralization
  3. c) opsonization
  4. d) complement activation
  5. e) crossing of the placenta

 

 

29) Immunoglobulin A (IgA) in secretions has ______ antigen binding sites.

 

  1. a) two
  2. b) three
  3. c) four
  4. d) six
  5. e) eight

 

 

30) Immunoglobulin M (IgM) has ___________ antigen binding sites.

 

  1. a) two

b)four

  1. c) six
  2. d) eight
  3. e) ten

 

 

31) Antibodies protect the host from infections by performing all of the following activities except one. Select the activity it does NOT perform.

 

  1. a) antigen degradation
  2. b) complement activation
  3. c) agglutination
  4. d) opsonization
  5. e) ADCC killing of infected cells by NK cells

 

 

32) Which of these could be accomplished with an ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)?

 

  1. a) Detection of specific antibodies in serum.
  2. b) Separation of B cells from T cells.
  3. c) Identification of the classes of antibodies present in serum.
  4. d) Identification of antigens on various pathogens.
  5. e) Agglutination of red blood cells.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

33) The spleen is an example of a secondary lymphoid tissue.

 

 

34) Lymph nodes are an example of primary lymphoid organs.

 

 

35) Every time an antigen is encountered the immune memory response increases.

 

 

36) CD4+ T cells can be activated by binding soluble antigen.

 

 

 

37) The main effector function of activated CD4+ T cells is the secretion of cytokines.

 

 

38) CD8+ T cells are activated through TCR-binding to a specific antigen presented by the MHC II molecules on the surface of a macrophage.

 

 

39) CD4+ T cells are activated through binding to specific antigen presented by the MHC II molecules on the surface of a dendritic cell.

 

 

40) Dendritic cells are able to activate both naïve CD4+ and naïve CD8+ T cells.

 

 

41) TH2 cells play an important role in the humoral immunity response.

 

 

42) TH1 cells play an important role in the cell-mediated immune response.

 

 

43) Some B cells are able to be activated by certain antigens without the help of a T-helper cell.

 

 

44) Antibodies produced by a single B cell are all identical to one another.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

45) The cytokine _________________ functions as a growth factor for T cells by promoting cell division.

 

 

46) CD8+ T cells are activated by specifically binding to an antigen displayed on the surface of an antigen presenting cell in the major histocompatibility (MHC) marker type _______.

 

 

47) Salts or oils commonly added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of the vaccine antigens are called _________________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Describe how an endogenous antigen is processed and displayed on an antigen presenting cell.

 

48) Describe how a CD8+ cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.

 

 

50) Describe the role of TH2 in antibody production.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 21

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) All of the following are examples of how virulence factors facilitate establishment of disease by a pathogen EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) gaining entry into the host.
  2. b) evade or overcome host defenses.
  3. c) obtain nutrients from the host.
  4. d) antibiotic resistance.
  5. e) lyse host cells for nutrients.

 

 

2) Which of these virulence factors is NOT possessed by the pathogen Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

  1. a) Fimbriae for attachment.
  2. b) Secretory IgA protease.
  3. c) Production of urease.
  4. d) Endotoxin.
  5. e) The ability to change surface pilin antigens.

 

 

3) Select the example of a virulence factor that does not directly cause damage to host cells but elicits a strong, damaging inflammatory host response.

 

  1. a) immunoglobulin protease
  2. b) endotoxin
  3. c) cytotoxin
  4. d) fimbriae
  5. e) urease

 

 

4) For most pathogenic bacteria, what is the first step it takes to facilitate entry into its host?

 

  1. a) attachment
  2. b) toxin production
  3. c) protease production
  4. d) sequestering iron
  5. e) lysis of the host cell

 

 

5) Staphylococcus aureus produces a fibronectin-binding protein as a virulence factor to aid in which activity?

 

  1. a) host cell lysis
  2. b) sequestering iron
  3. c) attachment
  4. d) toxin mediated cell inactivation
  5. e) avoiding antibodies

 

 

6) Enteropathogenic and enterohemorrhagic strains of Escherichia coli attach to host cells in the intestinal lumen via this mechanism.

 

  1. a) fimbriae and capsule
  2. b) capsule and the surface protein intimin
  3. c) fimbriae and the surface protein intimin
  4. d) fimbriae and LPS
  5. e) LPS and capsule

 

 

7) What is the primary effect of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on the host?

 

  1. a) Attacks cells of the immune system.
  2. b) Triggers an intense inflammatory response.
  3. c) Acts as a neurotoxin.
  4. d) Causes diarrhea.
  5. e) Lyses epithelial cells.

 

 

8) Neisseria meningitidis is the causative agent of meningitis. Which of these accounts for the damage caused by this bacterial infection?

 

  1. a) A potent exotoxin that lyses epithelial cells.
  2. b) A potent neurotoxin that targets brain cells.
  3. c) A cytolytic toxin that destroys B-cells.
  4. d) An endotoxin-induced inflammatory response.
  5. e) An exotoxin that destroys macrophages.

 

 

9) Which component of lipopolysaccharide is responsible for inducing a strong inflammatory response?

 

  1. a) phospholipid
  2. b) lipid A
  3. c) core polysaccharide
  4. d) O-antigen
  5. e) teichoic acid

 

 

10) Lipoteichoic acids are associated with which of these bacteria?

 

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. b) Escherichia coli
  3. c) Shigella sonnei
  4. d) Klebsiella pneumoniae
  5. e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

 

 

11) Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins. What does the term “A-B” refer to?

 

  1. a) Their antigen-binding properties.
  2. b) Their antibody-binding toxins.
  3. c) Their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit.
  4. d) Their action on the brain.
  5. e) Their activation of B-cells.

 

 

12) Cattle may serve as a reservoir for E.coli strain O157:H7 because this strain does not cause any disease in cattle. This strain of E. coli can cause a potentially lethal Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) in humans. Why don’t cattle develop HUS?

 

  1. a) The shiga toxin is not expressed in cattle.
  2. b) E. coli is unable to effectively colonize the bovine intestine.
  3. c) A protease in the cattle destroys the toxin.
  4. d) Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor.
  5. e) They produce antibody against the shiga toxin.

 

 

13) Which of these symptoms is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum?

 

  1. a) uncontrolled twitching
  2. b) flaccid paralysis
  3. c) spastic paralysis
  4. d) meningitis
  5. e) encephalitis

 

 

14) Tetanus toxin acts on inhibitory neurons by preventing the release of _________ from the neurons.

 

  1. a) acetylcholine
  2. b) glutamate and glutamine
  3. c) glycine and GABA
  4. d) acetylcholine and glutamate
  5. e) glycine and glutamate

 

 

15) The DTaP vaccine is designed to protect against which diseases?

 

  1. a) diarrhea, tetanus, and polio
  2. b) diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
  3. c) diarrhea, tetanus, and pertussis
  4. d) diphtheria, tetanus, and polio
  5. e) diarrhea, measles, and polio

 

 

16) Which cells are destroyed by hemolysins?

 

  1. a) lymphocytes
  2. b) macrophages
  3. c) epithelial cells
  4. d) red blood cells
  5. e) heart cells

 

 

17) Perfringolysin is produced by Clostridium perfringens. What is its mechanism to cause lysis?

 

  1. a) Through pore formation within the host cell membrane.
  2. b) By disruption of protein synthesis.
  3. c) By disruption of membrane synthesis.
  4. d) Through the breakdown of membrane phospholipids.
  5. e) By destroying host cell membrane proteins.

 

 

18) Which of these bacteria causes gangrene?

 

  1. a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  3. c) Staphylococcus aureus
  4. d) Clostridium perfringens
  5. e) Bacillus subtilis

 

 

19) Staphylococcus aureus produces a potent exotoxin which causes cell damage that induces a very strong inflammatory response in the host. What is this toxin?

 

  1. a) pneumolysin
  2. b) α-toxin
  3. c) enterotoxin
  4. d) streptolysin O
  5. e) Protein A

 

 

20) Listeriolysin is a cytolysin produced under acidic conditions by Listeria monocytogenes. What does this exotoxin allows the pathogen to do?

 

  1. a) lyse lymphocytes
  2. b) invade epithelial cells
  3. c) escape the endosome to avoid digestion
  4. d) lyse macrophages
  5. e) lyse neurons

 

 

21) Toxic shock syndrome caused by Staphylococcus aureus is mediated by an exotoxin that acts as a _____ .

 

  1. a) cytotoxin
  2. b) neurotoxin
  3. c) hemolysin
  4. d) superantigen
  5. e) superantibody

 

 

22) Which of these are associated with Type III secretion systems?

 

  1. a) Gram positive bacteria
  2. b) Gram negative bacteria
  3. c) Staphylococcus aureus
  4. d) Streptococcus pyogenes
  5. e) pathogenic fungi

 

 

23) How does the bacterial capsule act as a virulence factor?

 

  1. a) It prevents both phagocytosis and complement activation.
  2. b) It prevents complement activation.
  3. c) It prevents phagocytosis only.
  4. d) It acts as an enterotoxin.
  5. e) It allows the bacterium to bind to the cell surface and lyse the host cell.

 

 

24) Siderophores are a virulence factor because they allow the pathogen to perform what action?

 

  1. a) Lyse lymphocytes.
  2. b) Bind the Fc region of the antibody molecule.
  3. c) Scavenge for free iron.
  4. d) Compete with the host cells for glucose.
  5. e) Invade host cells.

 

 

25) What is the genus of the organism that causes pertussis?

 

  1. a) Corynebacterium
  2. b) Mycoplasma
  3. c) Streptococcus
  4. d) Mycobacterium
  5. e) Bordetella

 

 

26) What is the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsillitis in children?

 

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. b) Corynebacterium tuberculosis
  3. c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  4. d) Streptococcus pyogenes
  5. e) Streptococcus pneumoniae

 

 

27) A person may develop strep throat several times because of the antigenic variations of this.

 

  1. a) teichoic acids
  2. b) capsule proteins
  3. c) M-protein
  4. d) lipopolysaccharide
  5. e) streptolysin-O

 

 

28) A person who has strep throat should always be treated with antibiotics to reduce the risk of sequelae. What are the two most common sequelae?

 

  1. a) Toxic shock syndrome and scarlet fever.
  2. b) Glomerulonephritis and scarlet fever.
  3. c) Toxic shock syndrome and pneumonia.
  4. d) Glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever.
  5. e) Scarlet fever and rheumatic fever.

 

 

29) Impetigo can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Impetigo is a type of __________ .

 

  1. a) pneumonia
  2. b) sequelae
  3. c) toxic shock syndrome
  4. d) ear infection
  5. e) skin infection

 

 

30) By what mechanism does the enzyme streptokinase allow Streptococcus pyogenes to spread through tissue?

 

  1. a) By lysing smooth muscle cells.
  2. b) By lysing skin epithelial cells.
  3. c) By breaking down fibrin clots.
  4. d) By lysing red blood cells.
  5. e) By lysing white blood cells.

 

 

31) Streptococcus pyogenes is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis because of this compo-nent of its capsule.

 

  1. a) hyaluronic acid
  2. b) lipid A
  3. c) lipopolysaccharides
  4. d) teichoic acid
  5. e) Protein A

 

 

32) What directly causes the damage during an active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection?

 

  1. a) A potent cytolysin that targets alveolar macrophages.
  2. b) A cell-mediated inflammatory response.
  3. c) A cytolysin that destroys lung tissue.
  4. d) Growth of the bacterium in macrophages.
  5. e) An exotoxin that enters into the bloodstream and targets heart muscle.

 

 

33) Pathogenicity islands are blocks of genes on the bacterial chromosome that most likely arose from this process.

 

  1. a) spontaneous mutation
  2. b) horizontal gene transfer
  3. c) vertical gene transfer
  4. d) chemically induced mutagenesis
  5. e) mutation via gamma radiation

 

 

34) Which of these is NOT a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer?

 

  1. a) transduction
  2. b) transformation
  3. c) conjugation
  4. d) mother cell to daughter cell
  5. e) transposable elements

 

 

35) Where is the diphtheria toxin gene located?

 

  1. a) A pathogenicity island.
  2. b) A conjugative plasmid.
  3. c) A transposon.
  4. d) A prophage.
  5. e) A cryptic plasmid.

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

36) Many pathogenic bacteria adhere to host cells via fimbriae.

 

 

37) A toxin that is part of the cell structure and usually found in the surface elements of the cell is called an endotoxin.

 

 

38) Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

 

 

39) Enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus are weak superantigens.

 

 

40) Type III secretion systems of Gram negative bacteria allow for the direct secretion of toxin into the target cell.

 

 

41) Cellulitis is inflammation of the connective tissue and may be caused by Streptococcus pyo-genes.

 

 

 

42) Horizontal gene transfer by bacteriophage is thought to be a very rare mechanism.

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

43) A substance produced by a pathogenic agent that enables it to gain entry into the host, avoid host defenses, or obtain nutrients is called a(n) __________ factor.

 

 

44) A bacterial toxin that is secreted by the cell is called a(n) _________.

 

 

45) The scientific name of a causative agent of bacterial meningitis is ____________ meningiti-dis.

 

 

46) Cytolysins are cytotoxins that act on the ________ membrane to lyse the cell.

 

 

47) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.

 

 

48) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

49) Describe the mechanism of tetanus toxin in causing spastic paralysis.

 

 

50) The capsule is considered a virulence factor for many pathogens. Explain how the capsule aids the pathogen in establishing the disease process.

 

51) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 22

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Which is TRUE of an acute viral infection?

 

  1. a) They rarely occur.
  2. b) They occur over a long period of time.
  3. c) They result in a slow onset of symptoms.
  4. d) They have a relatively short duration.
  5. e) They are always very mild in nature.

 

2) Rhinovirus is a cause of the common cold. What type of infection does it usually cause?

 

  1. a) acute
  2. b) latent
  3. c) persistent
  4. d) latent or persistent, with equal likelihood
  5. e) acute or latent, with equal likelihood

 

 

3) The type of viral infection in which the viral genome is present in infected cells but the virus only replicates sporadically.

 

  1. a) acute
  2. b) latent
  3. c) persistent
  4. d) lytic
  5. e) chronic

 

 

4) This is an example of a virus that typically causes a latent infection.

 

  1. a) rotavirus
  2. b) Norwalk virus
  3. c) herpes virus
  4. d) rhinovirus
  5. e) influenza virus

 

 

 

 

5) Which of these causes the common “cold sore”?

 

  1. a) rhinovirus
  2. b) varicella zoster virus
  3. c) rotavirus
  4. d) coronavirus
  5. e) herpes simplex I virus

 

 

6) This type of viral infection results in the continuous production of virions over several years.

 

  1. a) acute infection
  2. b) latent infection
  3. c) persistent infection
  4. d) lytic infection
  5. e) spontaneous infection

 

 

7) The polio virus and hepatitis A virus are both spread by a ___________ route of transmission.

 

  1. a) respiratory
  2. b) sexual
  3. c) blood-borne
  4. d) fecal-oral
  5. e) vector-borne

 

 

8) The influenza virus is spread by a ______________ route of transmission.

 

  1. a) respiratory
  2. b) sexual
  3. c) blood-borne
  4. d) fecal-oral
  5. e) vector-borne

 

 

9) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is frequently spread through sexual contact. What type of transmission is this?

 

  1. a) horizontal
  2. b) vertical
  3. c) vector
  4. d) congenital
  5. e) mechanical

 

 

10) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be transmitted by ALL of the following me-chanisms EXCEPT:

 

  1. a) through a mosquito bite.
  2. b) mother to fetus.
  3. c) blood transfusion.
  4. d) sexual contact.
  5. e) through breast milk.

 

 

11) The Ebola virus is transmitted by a ____________ mechanism.

 

  1. a) respiratory
  2. b) zoonotic
  3. c) fecal-oral
  4. d) sexual
  5. e) mechanical

 

 

12) Viral transfer by a mechanical mechanism involves which of these?

 

  1. a) Direct host to host contact.
  2. b) Transfer from mother to fetus.
  3. c) An insect vector.
  4. d) Fecal-oral route of transmission.
  5. e) Blood-borne transmission.

 

 

13) By which mechanism is the yellow fever virus is transmitted to humans?

 

  1. a) a zoonosis
  2. b) a mosquito bite
  3. c) respiratory route
  4. d) direct contact
  5. e) fecal-oral route

 

 

14) How does the polio virus cause cell death?

 

  1. a) By preventing host cell protein synthesis.
  2. b) Through destruction of the cytoplasmic membrane.
  3. c) By inhibition of DNA replication.
  4. d) Through destruction of the nuclear membrane.
  5. e) By repression of host cell transcription.

 

 

15) Bunyaviruses causes cell death by a process called “cap-snatching”. This process results in:

 

  1. a) destruction of host cell mRNA.
  2. b) inhibition of DNA replication.
  3. c) deterioration of the cytoplasmic membrane.
  4. d) inhibition of translation.
  5. e) destruction of the endoplasmic reticulum.

 

 

16) Many viral-infected cells will undergo apoptosis and die. Why is this important for the or-ganism as a whole?

 

  1. a) It limits the production of new viruses by the cell.
  2. b) It triggers a strong adaptive immune response.
  3. c) It causes considerable tissue destruction.
  4. d) It triggers a strong cell-mediated immune response.
  5. e) It prevents tissue necrosis.

 

 

17) What are syncytia?

 

  1. a) transformed cells
  2. b) cell lysed by viruses
  3. c) cells undergoing apoptosis
  4. d) multinucleated giant cells
  5. e) cells with inclusion bodies

 

 

18) What produces the sneezing associated with a rhinovirus infection?

 

  1. a) A toxin produced by the virus.
  2. b) The destruction of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea.
  3. c) The host inflammatory response.
  4. d) A secondary respiratory infection.
  5. e) Macrophage activation.

 

 

19) Viruses may cause some autoimmune diseases. This may occur when:

 

  1. a) a viral infection causes cells to go into apoptosis.
  2. b) viral toxins are produced that kill cells.
  3. c) tissue destruction occurs as a result of an over-exaggerated cell mediated immune response.
  4. d) viral antigens resemble host antigens and cross react with effector cells and antibodies.
  5. e) viruses destroy certain types of tissues, like nerves.

 

 

20) Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by this virus.

 

  1. a) herpes simplex II virus
  2. b) HIV
  3. c) papillomavirus
  4. d) retrovirus
  5. e) paramyxovirus

 

 

21) The papillomavirus infects keratinocytes that are not actively dividing. What does this virus do to gain nucleotides to support viral replication, ?

 

  1. a) It stimulates the cell to enter into “S-phase” of the cell cycle
  2. b) It contains genes that encodes for enzymes for nucleotide synthesis.
  3. c) It degrades the nuclear DNA of the host cell to release free nucleotides.
  4. d) It stimulates the cell to enter into apoptosis.
  5. e) It lyses the cell to release nucleotides.

 

 

22) How does the papillomavirus causes tumor formation?

 

  1. a) By stimulating the host cell to replicate its DNA.
  2. b) By inhibiting tumor suppressor proteins in the host cell.
  3. c) By cap-snatching.
  4. d) By inhibiting apoptosis of the host cell.
  5. e) By inducing meiosis in the host cell.

 

 

23) How do retroviruses cause cancer?

 

  1. a) Through the inhibition of tumor suppressor genes.
  2. b) By encouraging frequent cell lysis.
  3. c) By directly inducing the cell to enter into S-phase.
  4. d) By preventing the cell from entering into apoptosis.
  5. e) Through the integration of their DNA into a proto-oncogene.

 

 

24) Which virus group has played a pivotal role in helping us understand the cell cycle and the identification of proto-oncogenes?

 

  1. a) papillomaviruses
  2. b) herpes viruses
  3. c) retroviruses
  4. d) adenoviruses
  5. e) polioviruses

 

 

25) A transducing retrovirus is one that contains a(n) ________________ gene from a previous host cell. When this gene is transduced into a new host genome, the cell will be transformed into a cancer cell.

 

  1. a) phosphorylase
  2. b) oncogene
  3. c) DNA polymerase
  4. d) reverse transcriptase
  5. e) protease

 

 

26) Why do RNA viruses have a high mutation rate?

 

  1. a) Their RNA is a single stranded molecule.
  2. b) Their RNA contains unusual nucleotides.
  3. c) Their RNA-dependent RNA polymerases lack a proofreading function.
  4. d) Their RNA is quickly degraded by nucleases.
  5. e) Their RNA is not methylated after synthesis.

 

 

27) The process of mutational change in the surface proteins of viruses.

 

  1. a) antibody drift
  2. b) antigenic drift
  3. c) receptor modification
  4. d) antigen destabilization
  5. e) antibody destabilization

 

 

28) Some viruses are able to evolve at a fast rate, resulting in implications for

 

  1. a) developing an effective immune response through vaccination.
  2. b) treatment of the viral infection.
  3. c) developing an immune response to the initial infection.
  4. d) Both a and b are correct implications.
  5. e) The implications in a, b, and c are all correct.

 

 

29) Which of these would lead to a recombination in viruses?

 

  1. a) Crossover events during meiosis.
  2. b) Errors during DNA replication.
  3. c) Crossover events during mitosis.
  4. d) Errors during RNA replication.
  5. e) Co-infection of a cell by two different strains of the virus.

 

 

30) The coronavirus that causes SARS is thought to have evolved from other coronaviruses through this process.

 

  1. a) spontaneous mutation
  2. b) recombination
  3. c) errors in DNA replication
  4. d) induced mutation
  5. e) reassortment

 

 

31) This is an example of a virus known to undergo evolutionary change by reassortment.

 

  1. a) influenza virus
  2. b) papilloma virus
  3. c) hepatitis type B virus
  4. d) herpes virus
  5. e) adenovirus

 

 

32) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus. This is referred to as _____________ .

 

  1. a) transformation.
  2. b) transduction.
  3. c) antigenic shift.
  4. d) antigenic drift
  5. e) transmutation.

 

 

33) Which of the following processes does NOT contribute to virus evolution?

 

  1. a) point mutations
  2. b) recombination
  3. c) transformation
  4. d) reassortment
  5. e) spontaneous mutations

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

34) Viral infections are always acute and cause extensive damage to host cells.

 

 

35) A herpes simplex I viral infection lasts a lifetime.

 

 

36) Many of the clinical symptoms associated with viral infection are caused by the host immune response.

 

 

37) Some viruses cause certain types of cancer.

 

 

38) Most cancer causing viruses are RNA viruses.

 

 

39) RNA viruses have much higher spontaneous mutation rates than DNA viruses.

 

 

40) Some viruses, like the influenza virus, are able to cause disease in humans multiple times be-cause they quickly alter their antigenic proteins through mutation.

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

41) A viral infection of short duration is referred to as a(n) ________ infection.

 

 

42) Herpes viruses produce a type of infection in which the viral genome is present in the host cell with only sporadic production of viruses. This type of infection is referred to as a(n) ___________ infection.

 

 

43) The transmission of a virus from mother to fetus is referred to as ___________ transmission.

 

 

44) Multinucleated giant cells that are formed as a result of a viral infection are called _______.

 

 

45) Warts are caused by the _______________.

 

 

46) Genes capable of transforming normal cells into cancer cells are called ____________ .

 

 

47) Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus. This is referred to as __________ __________.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Distinguish between an acute viral infection and a persistent viral infection.

 

 

49) Explain how the immune response contributes to the clinical symptoms of the common cold caused by the rhinovirus.

 

 

 

50) Describe how the papilloma virus is able to transform a normal cell into a cancer cell.

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 23

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) How do spores of the causative agent of Dutch elm disease, Ophiostoma novo-ulmi, spread from a dead infected tree to a non-infected tree?

 

  1. a) an airborne route of transmission
  2. b) woodpeckers
  3. c) an elm beetle
  4. d) squirrels that live in the dead tree
  5. e) mosquitos

 

 

2) What is the causative agent of malaria?

 

  1. a) a fungus
  2. b) a virus
  3. c) a bacterium
  4. d) a protozoan
  5. e) a helminth

 

 

3) The “definitive host” for Plasmodium falciparum is the host in which it:

 

  1. a) causes malaria.
  2. b) completes its sexual life cycle.
  3. c) replicates asexually.
  4. d) goes through its complete life cycle.
  5. e) causes a mild form of malaria.

 

 

4) By which route is Giardia lamblia transmitted from infected host to susceptible host?

 

  1. a) aerosol
  2. b) direct contact
  3. c) vector-borne
  4. d) fecal-oral
  5. e) blood-borne

 

 

 

5) What do humans ingest in food or water in in order to contact Giardia lamblia?

 

  1. a) trophozoites
  2. b) gametocytes
  3. c) sporozoites
  4. d) schizonts
  5. e) cysts

 

 

6) What is the key mechanism in establishing giardial diarrhea?

 

  1. a) The excretion of an enterotoxin by Giardia.
  2. b) The destruction of intestinal epithelial cells by Giardia.
  3. c) The attachment of Giardia trophozoites to intestinal epithelia.
  4. d) The invasion of Giardia into the intestinal epithelial cells.
  5. e) The production of a cytolytic exotoxin by Giardia.

 

 

7) AIDS patients are more susceptible to developing pneumonia caused by ___________ than individuals with a normal functioning immune system.

 

  1. a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. b) Staphylococcus aureus
  3. c) Haemophilus influenza
  4. d) Pneumocystis jiroveci
  5. e) Klebsiella pneumoniae

 

 

8) Which of these is an example of an opportunistic disease-causing protozoan in AIDS patients?

 

  1. a) Plasmodium vivax
  2. b) Trypanosoma brucei
  3. c) Giardia lamblia
  4. d) Entamoeba histolytica
  5. e) Toxoplasma gondii

 

 

9) Which of these may result in Candida albicans causing disease in immunocompetent people?

 

  1. a) A change in the microflora because of antibiotic therapy.
  2. b) A change in the antigenicity of the fungus.
  3. c) The production of a potent exotoxin by the fungus.
  4. d) Consumption of contaminated water containing the fungus.
  5. e) Sexual transmission of the fungus.

 

 

10) Candida albicans frequently causes the disease ___________ in AIDS patients, which is characterized by thick white lesions in the mouth.

 

  1. a) cankers
  2. b) thrush
  3. c) leishmaniasis
  4. d) chancre
  5. e) impetigo

 

 

11) How is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense, transmitted to humans?

 

  1. a) By a water-borne route.
  2. b) By an aerosol route.
  3. c) Through the bite of a tsetse fly.
  4. d) By direct contact.
  5. e) Through sexual contact.

 

 

12) How do trypanosomes evade host defense mechanisms to cause disease?

 

  1. a) By killing phagocytic cells.
  2. b) By avoiding phagocytosis through capsule production.
  3. c) By replicating inside white-blood cells.
  4. d) By binding the Fc region of immunoglobulins.
  5. e) By an antigenic variation mechanism.

 

 

13) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the causative agent of what disease?

 

  1. a) malaria
  2. b) African sleeping sickness
  3. c) yellow fever
  4. d) diarrheal disease
  5. e) dengue fever

 

 

14) Why are trypanosomes not endemic to the United States?

 

  1. a) Because of an active vaccination program.
  2. b) Because the insect vector is absent.
  3. c) Because the weather is too cold.
  4. d) Because antibiotics keep the disease in check.
  5. e) Because of rigorous water treatment standards.

 

 

15) How do many phytopathogenic fungi obtain nutrients from plant host cells?

 

  1. a) By excreting enzymes to breakdown plant cell walls.
  2. b) By excreting exotoxins to kill plant cells.
  3. c) By stimulating the host cells to excrete sugars.
  4. d) By stimulating the plant to increase photosynthesis.
  5. e) By producing proteins to scavenge nutrients away from the plant.

 

16) The plant pathogen Magnaporthe grisea produces specialized cell structures called ____________ that penetrate the plant cuticle to allow the fungi to invade the plant.

  1. a) hyphae
  2. b) conidia
  3. c) ascospores
  4. d) appressoria
  5. e) cysts

 

 

17) How does the fungus Amanita cause disease?

 

  1. a) From the ingestion of a potent toxin it produces.
  2. b) Through the invasion of the intestinal mucosa.
  3. c) By inhalation of fungal spores that germinate in the lungs to cause pneumonia.
  4. d) By invading the neuronal tissue and causing disease.
  5. e) Through the invasion of muscle cells.

 

 

18) The toxin α-amanitin specifically inhibits this.

 

  1. a) DNA polymerase.
  2. b) RNA polymerase II.
  3. c) cell membrane synthesis.
  4. d) ribosomal function.
  5. e) DNA helicase.

 

 

19) Humans typically come into contact with saxitoxin through the ingestion of:

 

  1. a) contaminated poultry.
  2. b) raw shellfish.
  3. c) contaminated drinking water.
  4. d) raw vegetables.
  5. e) raw beef.

 

 

 

 

20) Malaria was eradicated in the United States by 1951. This was primarily accomplished by:

 

  1. a) successful vaccine development.
  2. b) the use of preventative drugs.
  3. c) successful antibiotic therapy.
  4. d) reduction of the mosquito population.
  5. e) the quarantine of infected individuals.

 

 

21) Name for the infective stage of the malarial parasite in the mosquito.

 

  1. a) gametocyte
  2. b) sporozoite
  3. c) merozoite
  4. d) oocyst
  5. e) zygote

 

 

22) When an Anopheles mosquito feeds on a person with malaria, it ingests the ___________ form of the parasite.

 

  1. a) gametocyte
  2. b) sporozoite
  3. c) merozoite
  4. d) oocyst
  5. e) zygote

 

 

23) Most of the clinical symptoms observed in an individual with malaria result from this activity.

 

  1. a) Sporozoite infection of the liver.
  2. b) Sporozoite infection of muscle.
  3. c) Lysis of red blood cells by merozoites.
  4. d) Infection of white-blood cells by merozoites.
  5. e) Parasite infection of the brain cells.

 

 

24) What resulted from the deletion of the merozoite surface protein 7 gene (msp7) in a strain of Plasmodium falciparum?

 

  1. a) Poor replication of the pathogen in the liver.
  2. b) Poor attachment to and invasion of red blood cells.
  3. c) Poor differentiation of merozoite into gametocytes.
  4. d) The disruption of the life cycle in the mosquito.
  5. e) Increased destruction of red blood cells.

 

25) The merozoite form of Plasmodium sp. specializes in the digestion and use of _____________ as its primary nutrient source.

 

  1. a) DNA
  2. b) RNA
  3. c) membrane lipids
  4. d) mitochondria
  5. e) hemoglobin

 

 

26) The anti-malarial drug chloroquine was used for years to prevent malaria. This drug worked by inhibiting the formation of hemozoin in the parasite, which resulted in:

 

  1. a) destabilization of the parasitic cytoplasmic membrane.
  2. b) the inhibition of transcriptional processes in the parasite.
  3. c) the inhibition of translational processes in the parasite.
  4. d) accumulation of toxic metabolic products in the parasite.
  5. e) destabilization of the endoplasmic reticulum in the parasite.

 

 

27) Which of these is used in the most reliable test for the diagnosis of malaria in an individual?

 

  1. a) An ELISA-based test of a serum sample.
  2. b) Microscopic examination of a stained blood smear.
  3. c) A biopsy of liver tissue.
  4. d) Antibody-coated latex beads to test a blood sample.
  5. e) Tissue culture techniques for growth of the pathogen from a blood sample.

 

 

28) What is Ascaris lumbricoides, a helminth that causes ascariasis, commonly called?

 

  1. a) hookworm
  2. b) roundworm
  3. c) tapeworm
  4. d) pinworm
  5. e) whipworm

 

 

29) How does transmission of Ascaris lumbricoides occur?

 

  1. a) By eating improperly cooked pork.
  2. b) Through a respiratory route.
  3. c) By consuming fecal contaminated food or water.
  4. d) Through a blood-borne route.
  5. e) Via an arthropod vector.

 

 

30) What can result from an ascaris infection in children?

 

  1. a) Poor nutrient absorption and growth.
  2. b) Damage to the liver.
  3. c) Damage to the heart.
  4. d) Rashes.
  5. e) Damage to the bladder.

 

 

31) What is the intermediate host in the life cycle of Schistosoma?

 

  1. a) mosquito
  2. b) tick
  3. c) body louse
  4. d) freshwater snail
  5. e) cat

 

 

32) The fungus Pyrenophora tritici-repentis causes disease in wheat. Only strains of P. tritici-repentis that contain the ToxA gene are able to cause disease; other strains are avirulent. The appearance of the toxin gene is recent; how does research indicate this gene was acquired?

 

  1. a) It is the result of mutation in a pigment gene in the fungus.
  2. b) It is the result of a mutation that up-regulated the expression of the previously non-expressed gene.
  3. c) It was transferred from a pathogenic bacterium to P. tritici-repentis.
  4. d) It was transferred from another pathogenic fungus to P. tritici-repentis.
  5. e) It was acquired through the rearrangement of two other genes in P. tritici-repentis.

 

 

33) Malaria has influenced human evolution because it has contributed to the development of ______________ in humans.

  1. a) asthma
  2. b) hemochromatosis
  3. c) sickle cell disease
  4. d) diabetes mellitus
  5. e) myasthenia gravis

 

 

 

33) α-amanitin has influenced fruit fly evolution because it has contributed to the development of ______________.

 

  1. a) increased competition for fungal food
  2. b) resistance to parasites infecting the flies
  3. c) immunity to the toxin in organisms that feed on fruit flies
  4. d) lower populations of fruit flies
  5. e) increased mutations in fruit fly genomes

 

 

34) Why are individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait partially protected from developing malaria?

 

  1. a) They make antibody against the malarial pathogen.
  2. b) Their infected red blood cells become sickled and are destroyed.
  3. c) They develop a strong cell-mediated response against the malarial pathogen.
  4. d) Their red blood cells cannot be infected by the malarial pathogen.
  5. e) Their red blood cells contain very little hemoglobin.

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

35) The female Anopheles mosquito serves as the definitive host in the life cycle of the malarial pathogen Plasmodium falciparum.

 

 

36) The classical symptoms of giardiasis occur when the protozoan enters the bloodstream of its human host.

 

 

37) The fungus Candida albicans is an opportunistic pathogen that may cause disease in some individuals on antibiotic therapy.

 

 

38) The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci primarily causes disease in immunocompromised individuals.

 

 

39) The parasite Trypanosoma brucei is able to avoid host defense mechanisms through the production of a potent exotoxin.

 

 

40) Trypanosomes have a complex life cycle that involves both an insect and mammal host.

 

 

41) The fusing of gametes of the Plasmodium parasite is completed in the human host.

 

 

42) The form of the Plasmodium parasite that infects the red blood cells is called a merozoite.

 

 

43) Some eukaryal pathogens have influenced the evolution of their human host.

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

44) People develop giardiasis by consuming water containing Giardia lamblia ____________.

 

 

45) _______________ are algae that produce potent neurotoxins in large blooms called red tides.

 

 

46) The life cycle form of the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum that is transferred from the mosquito to a human is called a(n) _____________________.

 

 

47) The malarial parasite obtains nutrients by digesting ___________ from host red blood cells.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.

 

 

49) Explain how the trypanosome, that causes sleeping sickness, evades the host immune response to cause disease.

 

 

50) Explain how the malarial parasite causes disease in humans.

 

 

 

Package Title: Test Bank

Course Title: Wessner1e

Chapter Number: 24

 

 

Question Type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) The original meaning of antibiotic was …

 

  1. a) any compound that will kill viruses or bacteria.
  2. b) any compound that will kill microbes.
  3. c) any compound produced by a microbe that will kill another microbe.
  4. d) any compound produced by a microbe that will kill a virus.
  5. e) any compound that will only kill bacteria.

 

 

2) Many antibiotics that are used today are semi-synthetic. Modification of the original antibiotic is done to improve one or more of the following characteristics except ….

 

  1. a) increased stability.
  2. b) improved resistance to modifying enzymes.
  3. c) decreased toxicity.
  4. d) decreased absorption.
  5. e) increased spectrum of activity.

 

 

3) Ampicillin is a semi-synthetic antibiotic derivative of penicillin G. Ampicillin is acid-resistant, whereas penicillin G is not resistant to acid. Why is this important?

 

  1. a) Ampicillin is resistant to β-lactamases.
  2. b) Ampicillin can be taken orally.
  3. c) Ampicillin is effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
  4. d) Ampicillin is less toxic.
  5. e) Ampicillin is more stable in solution.

 

 

4) The mode of action of β-lactam antibiotics in bacteria is directed against …

 

  1. a) cell membrane synthesis.
  2. b) peptidoglycan synthesis.
  3. c) protein synthesis.
  4. d) transcription.
  5. e) DNA replication.

 

 

5) The mode of action of aminoglycosides is to inhibit __________ synthesis.

 

  1. a) protein
  2. b) RNA
  3. c) DNA
  4. d) membrane
  5. e) peptidoglycan

 

6) β-lactam antibiotics bind to proteins located within the cell wall known as penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs). The enzymatic action of PBPs is to function as a(a)…

 

  1. a) ATP kinase.
  2. b) dehydrogenase.
  3. c) transpeptidase.
  4. d) hydrolase.
  5. e) isomerase.

 

 

7) Many aminoglycosides are toxic to humans because they …

 

  1. a) interfere with lipid synthesis in human cells.
  2. b) disrupt kidney function.
  3. c) interfere with protein synthesis in human cells.
  4. d) cause the heart to beat abnormally.
  5. e) block DNA replication in human cells.

 

 

 

8) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target protein synthesis?

 

  1. a) aminoglycosides
  2. b) macrolides
  3. c) tetracylcines
  4. d) rifamycins
  5. e) chloramphenicols

 

 

9) The mode of action of quinolones is to inhibit …

 

  1. a) protein synthesis.
  2. b) DNA synthesis
  3. c) cell wall synthesis.
  4. d) amino acid transport.
  5. e) transcription.

 

 

 

10) The mode of action of sulfa drugs is to inhibit …

 

  1. a) peptidoglycan synthesis.
  2. b) folic acid biosynthesis.
  3. c) transcription.
  4. d) tryptophan biosynthesis.
  5. e) protein synthesis.

 

 

11) Azoles are a class of antifungal drugs that target ___________ biosynthesis, causing cell membrane disruption.

 

  1. a) sterol
  2. b) glycerol
  3. c) fatty acid
  4. d) transport protein
  5. e) folic acid

 

 

12) Metronidazole or “Flagyl” is commonly used to treat some _____________ infections.

 

  1. a) viral
  2. b) fungal
  3. c) protozoan
  4. d) intracellular bacterial
  5. e) ear

 

 

13) Acyclovir is a commonly used anti-herpes drug. It is a structural analog of dideoxyguanine. You would expect this drug to interfere with …

 

  1. a) viral capsid assembly.
  2. b) viral capsid synthesis.
  3. c) viral DNA replication.
  4. d) transcription of viral DNA.
  5. e) the entry of the virus into the cell.

 

14) Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiviral drug used to treat HIV infections. AZT is somewhat selective for use in HIV treatment because it has an affinity for the viral enzyme

 

  1. a) RNA polymerase.
  2. b) DNA polymerase.
  3. c) topoisomerase.
  4. d) reverse transcriptase.
  5. e) neuraminidase.

 

 

 

15) Which one of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?

 

  1. a) enzymatic inactivation of the drug
  2. b) removal of the drug from inside the cell
  3. c) blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell
  4. d) incorporation of the drug into cell material
  5. e) alteration of the drug’s target site

 

 

16) An R-plasmid was found in a strain of Salmonella typhi that conferred resistance to a β-lactam antibiotic. Most likely, this plasmid contained a gene that encoded for a/an …

 

  1. a) penicillin binding protein.
  2. b) β-lactamase.
  3. c) efflux pump.
  4. d) phosphotransferase enzyme.
  5. e) acetyltransferase enzyme.

 

 

17) Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has acquired the mecA gene from an unknown source. This gene encodes for a methicillin resistant …

 

  1. a) efflux protein.
  2. b) penicillin-binding protein.
  3. c) β-lactamase.
  4. d) acetyltransferase.
  5. e) porin.

 

 

18) The enzyme chloramphenicol _______________ is encoded by a gene commonly found on some R-plasmids and covalently modifies chloramphenicol so it can longer bind to its target site.

 

  1. a) phophoryltransferase
  2. b) hydrolase
  3. c) dehydrogenase
  4. d) isomerase
  5. e) acetyltransferase

 

 

19) The two most common ways drug resistance bacteria may develop in a person taking an antimicrobial drug are …

 

  1. a) the bacteria acquire an R-plasmid during this period of time and some of the bacteria developed a resistance mutation.
  2. b) the bacteria acquire an R-plasmid during this period of time and the person may be immunocompromised.
  3. c) some of the bacteria develop a resistance mutation and the person may be immunocompromised.
  4. d) the person may be immunocompromised and the person did not properly take the antimicrobial drug.
  5. e) the person did not properly take the antimicrobial drug and some of the bacteria developed a resistance mutation.

 

 

20) Mutational resistance to an antimicrobial drug usually occurs …

 

  1. a) only in the presence of the drug.
  2. b) spontaneously in the absence of the drug.
  3. c) in the presence of the drug and a mutagen.
  4. d) as a result of horizontal gene transfer.
  5. e) only in the presence of a mutagen.

 

 

21) Antimicrobial drug resistance due to the acquisition of new genes occurs in bacteria by the following mechanism(s)

 

  1. a) conjugation.
  2. b) conjugation and transposition.
  3. c) conjugation and transduction.
  4. d) transduction and transposition.
  5. e) conjugation, transposition, and transduction.

 

 

22) All of the following are approaches used to help reduce the incidence of antimicrobial drug resistance except …

 

  1. a) the use of very high concentrations of the drug.
  2. b) use of a narrow spectrum antibiotic to treat a specific infection.
  3. c) use of a combination of antibiotics.
  4. d) good hygiene, such as frequent hand washing to prevent the spread of drug resistant microbes.
  5. e) the use of antibiotics only when absolutely necessary.

 

 

 

23) The three main factors associated with the development of an epidemic are …

 

  1. a) host factors, agent factors, and treatment factors.
  2. b) host factors, treatment factors, and environmental factors.
  3. c) treatment factors, agent factors, and environmental factors.
  4. d) host factors, agent factors, and environmental factors.
  5. e) host factors, agent factors, and risk factors.

 

 

24) Control strategies that may be used to control yellow fever are …

 

  1. a) vaccination and destruction of mosquito breeding grounds.
  2. b) use of antibiotics and vaccination.
  3. c) use of antibiotics and destruction of mosquito breeding grounds.
  4. d) frequent hand washing and vaccination.
  5. e) frequent hand washing and use of antibiotics.

 

 

25) The best way to prevent a cholera epidemic is …

 

  1. a) prophylactic use of antibiotics.
  2. b) frequent hand washing.
  3. c) proper drinking water treatment.
  4. d) quarantine of infected individuals.
  5. e) vaccination.

 

 

26) The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a(an) …

 

  1. a) attenuated vaccine.
  2. b) subunit vaccine.
  3. c) polysaccharide vaccine.
  4. d) killed vaccine.
  5. e) DNA vaccine.

 

 

 

27) The first pertussis vaccine produced used killed whole cells of Bordetella pertussis. A major problem with this vaccine was it …

 

  1. a) would only produce weak immunity against the pathogen.
  2. b) would only produce a cell-mediated immune response.
  3. c) caused severe side-effects in some individuals.
  4. d) required yearly booster shots.
  5. e) was only effective in about half the population.

 

 

28) Subunit vaccines are generally considered safer than attenuated vaccines because …

 

  1. a) subunit vaccines do not require booster shots.
  2. b) attenuated vaccines may cause disease in some individuals.
  3. c) attenuated vaccines only elicit a humoral immune response.
  4. d) attenuated vaccines elicit a weak immune response.
  5. e) subunit vaccines elicit both a humoral and cell-mediated immune response.

 

 

29) Conjugate vaccines are composed of ______________ linked to an immunogenic protein.

 

  1. a) toxins
  2. b) polysaccharide antigens
  3. c) protein antigens
  4. d) lipid antigens
  5. e) DNA fragments

 

 

30) If ninety percent of a population is immune to a particular disease they protect the susceptible ten percent by a concept known as …

 

  1. a) acquired immunity.
  2. b) herd immunity.
  3. c) natural immunity.
  4. d) artificial immunity.
  5. e) passive immunity.

 

 

31) The original polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk in 1952 was a(a) …

 

  1. a) subunit vaccine.
  2. b) acellular vaccine.
  3. c) killed virus vaccine.
  4. d) attenuated virus vaccine.
  5. e) conjugate vaccine.

 

 

32) The World Health Organization has targeted this disease for eradication through vaccination programs in small pockets of the world where the disease is still present.

 

  1. a) AIDS
  2. b) malaria
  3. c) tuberculosis
  4. d) yellow fever
  5. e) polio

 

 

 

 

Question Type: True/False

 

 

33) Bloodletting, or the intentional draining of blood from an ill individual, was a method commonly used in the middle ages to cure disease.

 

 

34) Cephalosporins are a type of β-lactam antibiotic.

 

 

35) The use of antimicrobial drugs is directly linked to the development of antibiotic resistance.

 

 

36) For an antimicrobial drug to work properly, a person’s acquired immune response must be functioning properly.

 

 

37) Environmental microbes that do not cause disease are always sensitive to antimicrobial drugs because they were never exposed to these drugs.

 

 

38) Unlike bacteria, viruses do not develop resistance to antiviral drugs.

 

 

39) The use of antibiotics in farm animals may contribute to the increased number of antibiotic resistant microbes observed in human infections.

 

 

40) Modern vaccines elicit effective immune responses in everyone that is vaccinated.

 

 

 

Question Type: Text Entry

 

 

41) The mode of action for aminoglycoside antibiotics is to inhibit _____________ synthesis.

 

 

42) Tetracylines are considered to be __________-_______________ antibiotics because they show activity against a wide range of bacteria.

 

 

43) Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiviral drug used to treat a(n) _________ infection.

 

 

44) Proteins that remove antimicrobial drug from a cell by pumping them out are called ___________ pumps.

 

 

45) Some Gram-negative bacteria are able to block the transport of β-lactam antibiotics across the outer membrane through the mutational alteration of _____________ which previously allowed the transport of the antibiotic across the outer membrane.

 

 

46) Gram-negative bacteria are naturally resistant to certain antibacterial drugs because the drug is unable to cross the __________ ______________ of the microbe.

 

 

47) The Sabin polio vaccine was a(n) ________________ vaccine.

 

 

Question Type: Essay

 

 

48) Describe two unique targets for antimicrobial drugs in bacteria.

 

 

49) A person with an impaired immune system is given a bacteriostatic drug to treat a bacterial infection. After ending antibiotic therapy the person redevelops the same infection. Explain what may have gone wrong.

 

 

50) A person is prescribed antibiotics for a bacterial infection. After taking the drug for a few days the person stops taking the drug. Two weeks later the person develops the same infection. This time the bacterial isolate is resistant to the antibiotic. What type of resistance, mutational or acquired has occurred, and why?