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Microbiology An Introduction 12th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora – Test Bank 

 

Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora)

Chapter 5   Microbial Metabolism

 

5.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?

  1. A) dehydrogenase
  2. B) cellulase
  3. C) coenzyme A
  4. D) β-galactosidase
  5. E) sucrase

Answer:  C

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

2) Figure 5.1

 

 

Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?

  1. A) isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid
  2. B) α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+
  3. C) NAD+
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) NADH and isocitric acid

Answer:  C

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Global Outcome:  3

 

3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?

  1. A) photoheterotroph – light
  2. B) photoautotroph – CO2
  3. C) chemoautotroph – Fe2+
  4. D) chemoheterotroph – glucose
  5. E) chemoautotroph-NH3

Answer:  B

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

Global Outcome:  2

 

4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?

  1. A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
  2. B) The complete Kreb’s cycle is utilized.
  3. C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
  4. D) It generates ATP.
  5. E) It requires cytochromes.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.15

 

 

5) Figure 5.2

 

 

What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?

  1. A) decarboxylation
  2. B) transamination
  3. C) dehydrogenation
  4. D) oxidation
  5. E) reduction

Answer:  B

Section:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

Learning Outcome:  5.24

Global Outcome:  2

6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

  1. A) It is reduced to lactic acid.
  2. B) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
  3. C) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
  4. D) It is catabolized in glycolysis.
  5. E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.

Answer:  E

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.15

 

 

7) Figure 5.3

 

 

How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?

  1. A) It would bind to a.
  2. B) It would bind to b.
  3. C) It would bind to c.
  4. D) It would bind to d.
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

8) Figure 5.4

 

 

How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) fermentation
  3. C) photophosphorylation
  4. D) oxidative phosphorylation
  5. E) substrate-level phosphorylation

Answer:  E

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Global Outcome:  2

 

 

9) Fatty acids are oxidized in

  1. A) the Krebs cycle.
  2. B) the electron transport chain.
  3. C) glycolysis.
  4. D) the pentose phosphate pathway.
  5. E) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.

Answer:  A

Section:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1; 6.3

Learning Outcome:  5.17

10) Figure 5.5

 

 

Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  C

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Global Outcome:  3

 

11) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?

  1. A) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.
  2. B) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.
  3. C) ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
  4. D) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.9

 

12) Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE?

  1. A) It involves the direct transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate metabolic compound to ADP.
  2. B) No final electron acceptor is required.
  3. C) It occurs in glycolysis.
  4. D) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP.
  5. E) It occurs to a lesser degree in the Krebs cycle than in glycolysis.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.9

13) Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE?

  1. A) Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.
  2. B) The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.
  3. C) Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.
  4. D) It requires CO2.
  5. E) It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.9

 

14) A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy

  1. A) by glycolysis only.
  2. B) by aerobic respiration only.
  3. C) by fermentation or aerobic respiration.
  4. D) only in the absence of oxygen.
  5. E) only in the presence of oxygen.

Answer:  A

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.16

 

 

15) The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) precursors for nucleic acids.
  2. B) precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
  3. C) three ATPs.
  4. D) NADPH.
  5. E) precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.12

 

16) Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?

  1. A) substrate-level phosphorylation
  2. B) oxidation-reduction
  3. C) carbohydrate catabolism
  4. D) beta oxidation
  5. E) enzymatic reactions

Answer:  D

Section:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.17

Global Outcome:  7

17) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from

  1. A) CO2.
  2. B) H2
  3. C) C6H12O6.
  4. D) sunlight.
  5. E) chlorophyll.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.19

 

 

18) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?

  1. A) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
  2. B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
  3. C) the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2and H2O
  4. D) the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation
  5. E) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation

Answer:  B

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.16

 

19) Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration?

  1. A) cytochromes
  2. B) flavoproteins
  3. C) a source of electrons
  4. D) oxygen
  5. E) quinones

Answer:  D

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.15

 

20) Which one of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Krebs cycle enzyme, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

  1. A) citric acid
  2. B) α-ketoglutaric acid
  3. C) NAD+
  4. D) NADH
  5. E) ADP

Answer:  D

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.6

21) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from

  1. A) CO2.
  2. B) H2
  3. C) C6H12O6.
  4. D) H2
  5. E) chlorophyll.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

 

22) Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to

  1. A) increase.
  2. B) decrease.
  3. C) stay the same.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.2

Learning Outcome:  5.17

 

23) Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy?

  1. A) chemoautotroph
  2. B) chemoheterotroph
  3. C) photoautotroph
  4. D) photoheterotroph

Answer:  A

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

 

24) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?

  1. A) chemoautotroph
  2. B) chemoheterotroph
  3. C) photoautotroph
  4. D) photoheterotroph

Answer:  B

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

25) Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?

  1. A) chemoautotroph
  2. B) chemoheterotroph
  3. C) photoautotroph
  4. D) photoheterotroph

Answer:  D

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

 

 

26) Cyanobacteria are a type of

  1. A) chemoautotroph.
  2. B) chemoheterotroph.
  3. C) photoautotroph.
  4. D) photoheterotroph.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

 

27) Which of the following statements are TRUE?

 

1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.

2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.

3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.

4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.

5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels.

 

  1. A) 2, 4, 5
  2. B) 1, 3, 4
  3. C) 2, 3, 5
  4. D) 1, 2, 3
  5. E) All of the statements are true.

Answer:  A

Section:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.2

 

28) Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as

  1. A) aerobic respirers.
  2. B) anaerobic respirers.
  3. C) heterolactic fermenters.
  4. D) homolactic fermenters.
  5. E) alcohol fermenters.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.16

Global Outcome:  2

 

29) Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?

  1. A) Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.
  2. B) ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.
  3. C) ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.
  4. D) Anabolic reactions are degradative.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.1

 

30) Which of the following is TRUE about this reaction?

 

NO3-+ 2H+         NO2- + H2O

Nitrate ion                               Nitrite ion

 

  1. A) This process requires O2.
  2. B) This process occurs anaerobically.
  3. C) This process requires the entire electron transport system.
  4. D) This process requires light.
  5. E) This process requires O2and the electron transport system.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.15

Global Outcome:  2

 

31) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE?

  1. A) It involves glycolysis.
  2. B) It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.
  3. C) NADH is generated.
  4. D) ATP is generated.
  5. E) NADH and ATP are generated.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.12

 

 

32) Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation?

  1. A) The maltose is toxic.
  2. B) O2is in the medium.
  3. C) Not enough protein is provided.
  4. D) The temperature is too low.
  5. E) The temperature is too high.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.2

Learning Outcome:  5.15

33) Figure 5.6

 

 

The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that

  1. A) these bacteria don’t use O2.
  2. B) these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.
  3. C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
  4. D) these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  3.2

Learning Outcome:  5.15

Global Outcome:  3

 

 

34) An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all of the following EXCEPT

  1. A) allosteric inhibition.
  2. B) competitive inhibition.
  3. C) feedback inhibition.
  4. D) noncompetitive inhibition.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.5

35) If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down?

  1. A) Kreb’s cycle
  2. B) glycolysis
  3. C) pentose phosphate pathway
  4. D) Krebs cycle and glycolysis

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.12

 

36) Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?

  1. A) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
  2. B) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.
  3. C) Two NADH molecules are generated.
  4. D) One molecule of ATP is expended.
  5. E) Two molecules of water are generated.

Answer:  D

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.11

 

 

37) Figure 5.7

 

 

The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d

Answer:  B

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Global Outcome:  3

38) A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely

  1. A) fermenting the glucose.
  2. B) oxidizing the glucose.
  3. C) using the peptides.
  4. D) not growing.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.2

Learning Outcome:  5.17

 

 

39) Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ → Fe3+. This reaction is an example of

  1. A) oxidation.
  2. B) reduction.
  3. C) fermentation.
  4. D) photophosphorylation.
  5. E) the Calvin-Benson cycle.

Answer:  A

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.8

 

Figure 5.8

 

 

40) In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  E

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.14

 

41) Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  D

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.14

 

42) In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled “1” is

  1. A) NAD+.
  2. B) ATP synthase.
  3. C) a plasma membrane.
  4. D) a cell wall.
  5. E) cytoplasm.

Answer:  C

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.14

 

43) In Figure 5.8, the path labeled “2” is the flow of

  1. A) electrons.
  2. B) protons.
  3. C) energy.
  4. D) water.
  5. E) glucose.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.14

 

44) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  A

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.14

Global Outcome:  7

 

45) A urease test is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis because

  1. A) urease is a sign of tuberculosis.
  2. B) tuberculosis produces urease.
  3. C) urea accumulates during tuberculosis.
  4. D) some bacteria reduce nitrate ion.
  5. E) bovis can cause tuberculosis.

Answer:  B

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  5.18

 

46) Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome. This pharmaceutical agent could be described as

  1. A) an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.
  2. B) a hydrolase.
  3. C) a genetic transposable element.
  4. D) a protease inhibitor.
  5. E) a competitive inhibitor for reverse transcriptase.

Answer:  A

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Global Outcome:  7

 

47) Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?

 

  1. anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate
  2. shared metabolic pathways
  3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions
  4. both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously

 

  1. A) 1 only
  2. B) 1, 2, 3
  3. C) 1, 2, 3, 4
  4. D) 2, 4
  5. E) 2, 3, 4

Answer:  B

Section:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.25

 

 

5.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.1

2) The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.12

 

3) In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.2

 

4) An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.3

 

5) The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.4

 

6) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.15

 

7) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.20

 

 

8) Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.4; 5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.21

 

9) Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  5.4; 5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  5.21

10) Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  5.4

 

5.3   Essay Questions

 

1) Compare and contrast photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.

Section:  5.4; 5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  5.21

Global Outcome:  8

 

2) Rhodopseudomonas is an anaerobic photoautotroph that uses organic compounds as an electron donor. It is also capable of chemoheterotrophic metabolism. Diagram the metabolic pathways of this bacterium.

Section:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Application

ASMcue Outcome:  3.1

Learning Outcome:  5.23

Global Outcome:  2

 

3) Differentiate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch fermentation.

Section:  5.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Application

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a; 8.3

Learning Outcome:  5.18

Global Outcome:  8

 

 

4) Streptococcus lacks an electron transport chain. How does this bacterium reoxidize NADH? Where is the NADH formed?

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  5.16

Global Outcome:  8

 

5) You look in the refrigerator and find some orange drink you had forgotten was there. The drink now has an “off” taste and bubbles. What is the most likely explanation for the changes in the drink?

Section:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  5.16

Global Outcome:  8

6) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.

Section:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Global Outcome:  8

 

7) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.

Section:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  7.3a

Learning Outcome:  5.22

Global Outcome:  8

 

Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e, (Tortora)

Chapter 17   Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host

 

17.1   Multiple-Choice Questions

 

1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?

  1. A) innate immunity
  2. B) naturally acquired active immunity
  3. C) naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. D) artificially acquired active immunity
  5. E) artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer:  D

Section:  17.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.20

Global Outcome:  5

 

2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?

  1. A) innate immunity
  2. B) naturally acquired active immunity
  3. C) naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. D) artificially acquired active immunity
  5. E) artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer:  E

Section:  17.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  17.20

Global Outcome:  5

 

3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

  1. A) innate immunity
  2. B) naturally acquired active immunity
  3. C) naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. D) artificially acquired active immunity
  5. E) artificially acquired passive immunity

Answer:  B

Section:  17.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.20

 

4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?

  1. A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors
  2. B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules
  3. C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens
  4. D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
  5. E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins

Answer:  D

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.4

 

5) Newborns’ immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of

  1. A) innate immunity.
  2. B) naturally acquired active immunity.
  3. C) naturally acquired passive immunity.
  4. D) artificially acquired active immunity.
  5. E) artificially acquired passive immunity.

Answer:  C

Section:  17.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.20

 

6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?

  1. A) clonal deletion
  2. B) activation of complement
  3. C) opsonization
  4. D) ADCC
  5. E) agglutination

Answer:  A

Section:  17.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.11

 

7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?

  1. A) dentritic cells
  2. B) macrophages
  3. C) mature B cells
  4. D) natural killer cells
  5. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.16

8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as

  1. A) agglutination.
  2. B) opsonization.
  3. C) ADCC.
  4. D) apoptosis.
  5. E) neutralization.

Answer:  E

Section:  17.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.11

 

9) CD4+ T cells are activated by

  1. A) interaction between CD4+and MHC II.
  2. B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
  3. C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
  4. D) cytokines released by B cells.
  5. E) complement.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.14

 

10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?

  1. A) TCcell
  2. B) B cell
  3. C) THcell
  4. D) natural killer cell
  5. E) basophil

Answer:  C

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.13

 

11) The specificity of an antibody is due to

  1. A) its valence.
  2. B) the H chains.
  3. C) the L chains.
  4. D) the constant portions of the H and L chains.
  5. E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.

Answer:  E

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.5

12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?

  1. A) They originate in bone marrow.
  2. B) They have antibodies on their surfaces.
  3. C) They are responsible for the memory response.
  4. D) They are responsible for antibody formation.
  5. E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.

Answer:  E

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.8

 

13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?

  1. A) The cells originate in bone marrow.
  2. B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland.
  3. C) It can inhibit the immune response.
  4. D) B cells make antibodies.
  5. E) T cells react with antigens.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.12

 

14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n)

  1. A) antigen.
  2. B) T cell.
  3. C) B cell.
  4. D) memory cell.
  5. E) APC.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.8

 

15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

  1. A) IgG.
  2. B) IgM.
  3. C) IgA.
  4. D) IgD.
  5. E) IgE.

Answer:  C

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are

  1. A) IgG.
  2. B) IgM.
  3. C) IgA.
  4. D) IgD.
  5. E) IgE.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

17) The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are

  1. A) IgG.
  2. B) IgM.
  3. C) IgA.
  4. D) IgD.
  5. E) IgE.

Answer:  E

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are

  1. A) IgM.
  2. B) IgA.
  3. C) IgD.
  4. D) IgE.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are

  1. A) IgG.
  2. B) IgM.
  3. C) IgA.
  4. D) IgD.
  5. E) IgE.

Answer:  B

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is

  1. A) IgG.
  2. B) IgM.
  3. C) IgA.
  4. D) IgD.
  5. E) IgE.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

Figure 17.1

 

 

21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient’s secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  C

Section:  17.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  17.19

Global Outcome:  3

 

22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient’s response to a second and distinct/different antigen?

  1. A) a
  2. B) b
  3. C) c
  4. D) d
  5. E) e

Answer:  E

Section:  17.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  17.19

Global Outcome:  3

 

23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (c) indicates

  1. A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a).
  2. B) the secondary response.
  3. C) the primary response.
  4. D) exposure to a new antigen.
  5. E) the T-cell response.

Answer:  B

Section:  17.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analysis

ASMcue Outcome:  7.2a

Learning Outcome:  17.19

Global Outcome:  3

 

24) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
  2. B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
  3. C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell.
  4. D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.5

 

 

25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?

  1. A) something foreign in the body
  2. B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies
  3. C) a chemical that combines with antibodies
  4. D) a pathogen
  5. E) a protein that combines with antibodies

Answer:  B

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.4

26) Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?

  1. A) cytotoxic T cells
  2. B) helper T cells
  3. C) NK cells
  4. D) M cells
  5. E) B cells

Answer:  D

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.12

 

27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?

  1. A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC.
  2. B) APC phagocytizes antigen.
  3. C) B cell is activated.
  4. D) THcell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.
  5. E) THcell produces cytokines.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.9

 

 

Figure 17.2

 

 

28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?

  1. A) a and b
  2. B) a and c
  3. C) b and c
  4. D) c and d
  5. E) b and d

Answer:  D

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.5

29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?

  1. A) a and b
  2. B) a and c
  3. C) b and c
  4. D) c and d

Answer:  A

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.5

 

30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?

  1. A) a and b
  2. B) a and c
  3. C) b and c
  4. D) c and d
  5. E) b and d

Answer:  A

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.5

 

31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?

  1. A) a and c
  2. B) b
  3. C) b and c
  4. D) a and d
  5. E) e

Answer:  E

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.5

 

32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens?

  1. A) capsule
  2. B) flagellum
  3. C) pili
  4. D) ribosome
  5. E) plasmid

Answer:  A

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.7

33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?

  1. A) IgA
  2. B) IgG
  3. C) IgM
  4. D) IgD
  5. E) IgE

Answer:  C

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  8.3

Learning Outcome:  17.6

 

 

34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?

  1. A) CTL
  2. B) Treg
  3. C) TH
  4. D) dendritic cells
  5. E) B cells

Answer:  A

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  3.4

Learning Outcome:  17.12

 

35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step?

  1. A) Antibodies are produced.
  2. B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
  3. C) Antigen enters M cell.
  4. D) THcell produces cytokines.
  5. E) THcells proliferate.

Answer:  E

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.13

 

36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells

  1. A) activate CD8+cells to CTLs.
  2. B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
  3. C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.
  4. D) kill parasites.
  5. E) convert B cells to T cells.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.14

37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?

  1. A) granzymes
  2. B) hapten
  3. C) IL-1
  4. D) IL-2
  5. E) perforin

Answer:  E

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.12

 

38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens?

  1. A) 105
  2. B) 1010
  3. C) 1015
  4. D) 1020
  5. E) 1025

Answer:  C

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.10

 

39) Thymic selection

  1. A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.
  2. B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self.
  3. C) destroys MHC molecules.
  4. D) destroys CD4+cells that attack self.
  5. E) activates B cells.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.14

 

40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?

  1. A) They destroy virus-infected cells.
  2. B) They destroy tumor cells.
  3. C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
  4. D) They are stimulated by an antigen.
  5. E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.12

41) An antibody’s Fc region can be bound by

  1. A) antibodies.
  2. B) macrophages.
  3. C) T helper cells.
  4. D) B cells.
  5. E) CTLs.

Answer:  B

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.5

 

 

42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in

  1. A) increased number of viral infections.
  2. B) increased number of bacterial infections.
  3. C) autoimmunity.
  4. D) increased severity of bacterial infections.
  5. E) transplant rejection.

Answer:  C

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  7.12

 

43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying

  1. A) eukaryotic pathogens.
  2. B) prions.
  3. C) extracellular viruses.
  4. D) bacterial pathogens.
  5. E) bacterial toxins.

Answer:  A

Section:  17.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.18

 

44) IL-2, produced by TH cells,

  1. A) activates macrophages.
  2. B) stimulates THcell maturation.
  3. C) causes phagocytosis.
  4. D) activates antigen-presenting cells.
  5. E) activates TCcells to CTLs.

Answer:  B

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.14

45) Which of the following statements about IL-12 is FALSE?

  1. A) It activates macrophages.
  2. B) It inhibits some tumor cells.
  3. C) It activates the TH1 pathway.
  4. D) It causes autoimmune diseases.
  5. E) It causes THcells to respond to HIV.

Answer:  D

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.3

 

 

17.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.15

 

2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.3

 

3) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.3

 

4) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.3

 

5) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.3

 

6) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible the significant diversity of antigen targets.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.12

7) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.8

 

8) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.8

 

9) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.

Answer:  TRUE

Section:  17.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.1

Global Outcome:  5

 

10) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can be bound to antibody.

Answer:  FALSE

Section:  17.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Comprehension

Learning Outcome:  17.4

 

17.3   Essay Questions

 

1) A person has antibodies against the measles virus. Identify three ways in which these antibodies could be acquired.

Section:  17.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.20

Global Outcome:  8

 

2) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.

Section:  17.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

ASMcue Outcome:  2.2

Learning Outcome:  17.9

Global Outcome:  8

 

3) A very ill 48 year old man comes to the Emergency Room and is diagnosed with pneumonia and thrush. Suspicious, the attending physician orders an HIV antibody test which comes back positive within a few hours. Why does a patient with acquired immunodeficiency have antibodies to HIV?

Section:  17.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.3

Global Outcome:  8

4) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.

Section:  17.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.17

Global Outcome:  8

 

5) What adaptive immune responses, if any, could one expect to function normally in a human born without a thymus?

Section:  17.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Knowledge

Learning Outcome:  17.14

Global Outcome:  8