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Modern Dental Assisting 10th ed By Doni L. Bird – Test Bank 

 

 

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 03: The Dental Healthcare Team

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following are members of the dental healthcare team?
a. Dental assistant c. Dental supply representative
b. Dentist d. Both a and b

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Both the dental assistant and the dentist are members of the dental healthcare team.
B Both the dental assistant and the dentist are members of the dental healthcare team.
C The dental supply person provides an important support service but is not a member of the dental healthcare team.
D The dental assistant and dentist are both members of the dental healthcare team.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 21              TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. The degree awarded when a dentist graduates from a dental university is:
a. Doctor of Dental Surgery (DDS). c. Doctor of Oral Surgery (DOS).
b. Doctor of Medical Dentistry (DMD). d. either a or b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A dentist graduating from a dental university can receive either a DDS or DMD.
B A dentist graduating from a dental university can receive either a DDS or DMD.
C Doctor of Oral Surgery is an incorrect degree title.
D A dentist graduating from a dental university may receive either a DDS or a DMD degree, depending upon the school attended.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. The ADA recognizes how many dental specialties?
a. Five c. Nine
b. Seven d. Eleven

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Five is not the correct number of recognized dental specialties.
B Seven is not the correct number of recognized dental specialties.
C The American Dental Association currently recognizes nine dental specialties, including the newest recognized specialty, oral and maxillofacial radiology.
D Eleven is not the correct number of recognized dental specialties.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dental Specialists

 

  1. The dental team member who assesses the patient’s oral health needs and who is legally responsible for the care of the patient is:
a. the dentist. c. the dental assistant.
b. the dental hygienist. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The dentist is the licensed dental professional who assesses the patient’s oral health needs and who is legally responsible for the patient’s care.
B The dental hygienist removes deposits on the teeth, exposes radiographs, places topical fluoride and sealants, and provides patients with home care instructions.
C The dental assistant assumes many of the dental office duties that do not require the professional skill and judgment of the dentist.
D Only choice a is correct.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 21

TOP:   Roles and Responsibilities of Dental Healthcare Team Members

 

  1. Duties of the clinical dental assistant include:
a. handling dental insurance claims.
b. coordinating financial arrangements with patients.
c. providing oral evacuation during dental procedures.
d. performing oral prophylaxis.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Handling dental insurance claims is one of the duties of the business assistant.
B Coordinating financial arrangements with patients is one of the duties of the business assistant.
C Duties of the clinical dental assistant include mixing dental materials, exchanging instruments, and providing oral evacuation during dental procedures.
D Oral prophylaxis is one of the duties of the dental hygienist.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 21

TOP:   Roles and Responsibilities of Dental Healthcare Team Members

 

  1. Which member of the dental team manages patient records, payroll, insurance billing, and financial arrangements?
a. Clinical dental assistant c. Dental hygienist
b. Business assistant d. Dentist

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The clinical dental assistant is primarily responsible for assisting the dentist at chairside.
B The dental team member who works with financial records and makes financial arrangements in the dental office is the business assistant. The business assistant also manages patient records, payroll, and insurance billing for the dental practice.
C The business assistant usually manages the patient records, insurance billing, and financial matters for the patients of the dental healthcare team. The dental hygienist typically performs specific patient care functions such as dental prophylaxis.
D The dentist is responsible for providing patient care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 21

TOP:   Roles and Responsibilities of Dental Healthcare Team Members

 

  1. Requirements for a registered dental hygienist (RDH) include:
a. four academic years of college study.
b. an associate degree in an ADHA (American Dental Hygienists Association) accredited dental hygiene program.
c. passing the written national or regional board examinations and the clinical state board examination.
d. certification to administer local anesthesia.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The minimal education requirement for a dental hygienist is two academic years of college study.
B An associate degree in an ADA (American Dental Association), rather than ADHA (American Dental Hygienists Association), accredited dental hygiene program is required.
C Requirements for a registered dental hygienist (RDH) include passing the written national or regional board examinations and the clinical state board examination.
D In many states, dental hygienists with certification are allowed to administer local anesthesia; however, it is not a requirement for licensure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Registered Dental Hygienist

 

  1. Which type of technique do the dentist and chairside assistant use when they work together?
a. Shared team responsibility c. Two-handed dentistry
b. Single-handed dentistry d. Four-handed dentistry

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A This is an incorrect term to describe the technique of the dentist and chairside assistant working together.
B The technique of single-handed dentistry does not involve both dentist and chairside assistant.
C The technique of two-handed dentistry does not involve both dentist and chairside assistant working together. It implies that the dentist is working alone.
D The technique of four-handed dentistry is used when the dentist and the chairside assistant work together to perform patient care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Chairside Assistant

 

  1. What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental assisting program?
a. Six months c. Three months
b. One academic year d. Two academic years

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A This is not the minimum length of an ADA-approved program for dental assisting.
B Dental assistant programs that are accredited through the American Dental Association must be at least one academic year in length.
C This is not the minimum length of an ADA-approved program for dental assisting.
D This is not the minimum length of an ADA-approved program for dental assisting.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Dental Assistant

 

  1. The sterilization assistant is responsible for:
a. processing all instruments and managing biohazard waste.
b. completing the written prescription for dental laboratory work.
c. placing topical fluoride and dental sealants.
d. vacuuming the carpets.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The sterilization assistant is responsible for processing all instruments and managing biohazard waste.
B Any of the assistants may complete the laboratory prescription form; however, it must be signed by the dentist.
C The dental hygienist is usually responsible for placing topical fluoride and dental sealants; however, these are expanded dental assisting functions in many states.
D The sterilization assistant is not responsible for vacuuming the carpets under this job title. Anyone in the office may vacuum carpets.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 24              TOP:   Sterilization Assistant

 

  1. A dental assistant who has received additional training and is legally allowed to provide certain intraoral patient care procedures is a(n):
a. certified dental assistant (CDA).
b. registered dental assistant (RDA).
c. expanded-functions dental assistant (EFDA).
d. licensed dental assistant (LDA).

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A More than CDA credentials are required for a dental assistant to legally perform state-approved expanded functions.
B More than RDA credentials are required for a dental assistant to legally perform state-approved expanded functions.
C Many states allow an expanded-functions dental assistant (EFDA) to provide certain intraoral patient care procedures under the individual state’s dental practice act.
D An LDA is not a recognized dental assisting credential.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 24

TOP:   Expanded-Functions Dental Assistant

 

  1. What is required before a dental laboratory technician can perform a task?
a. A prescription from a dentist c. Radiographs and models
b. A model of the case d. A phone call or fax from the dental office

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A A dental laboratory technician must have a written prescription from a dentist before beginning any type of dental laboratory task.
B A model may be required to complete a case, but it cannot be used until the prescription is received.
C Radiographs are not usually part of a dental laboratory case.
D A dentist may place a phone call to discuss a case, but it cannot substitute for a written prescription.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 25

TOP:   Dental Laboratory Technician

 

  1. The dental specialty that involves the diagnosis and surgical treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects in the oral and maxillofacial regions is:
a. oral pathology. c. orthodontics.
b. oral and maxillofacial radiology. d. oral and maxillofacial surgery.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Oral pathologists work closely with the oral surgeon to help provide a diagnosis, usually from a biopsy.
B Oral and maxillofacial radiologists use a variety of imaging techniques to aid in diagnosis.
C The specialty of orthodontics deals with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malocclusions of the teeth.
D Oral and maxillofacial surgery is the dental specialty that deals with the diagnosis and surgical treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects in the oral and maxillofacial regions.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. The dental specialty that involves the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malocclusion is:
a. orthodontics. c. endodontics.
b. periodontics. d. prosthodontics.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Orthodontics involves the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malocclusion.
B Periodontics is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of oral tissues supporting and surrounding the teeth.
C Endodontics is concerned with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases and injuries of the pulp.
D Prosthodontics is concerned with the restoration and replacement of natural teeth and tissues.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. Which dental specialty became the first new dental specialty in 36 years when it was granted recognition by the ADA in 1999?
a. Oral pathology c. Oral and maxillofacial radiology
b. Dental public health d. Pediatric dentistry

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Oral pathology was an established dental specialty before 1999.
B Dental public health was an established dental specialty before 1999.
C The American Dental Association recognized the specialty of oral and maxillofacial radiology in 1999. The dental radiologist uses new and sophisticated imaging techniques to locate and diagnose diseases of the jaw, head, and neck.
D Pediatric dentistry was an established dental specialty before 1999.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. The training required for a dental degree in the United States includes:
a. an undergraduate degree. c. an apprenticeship.
b. four years of dental education. d. both a and b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The training required for a dentist in the United States is an undergraduate degree and four years of dental training.
B The training required for a dentist in the United States is an undergraduate degree and four years of dental training.
C Apprenticeships have been replaced by formal education in the United States.
D The training required for a dentist in the United States is an undergraduate degree and four years of dental training.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 21-22       TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. Practice options available to a dentist include:
a. private practice. c. teaching.
b. partnerships. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A dentist graduating from a dental university may work in private practice or group practice or may seek other options such as the military; community or public health clinics or teaching and research are also options.
B A dentist graduating from a dental university may work in private practice or group practice or may seek other options such as the military; community or public health clinics or teaching and research are also options.
C A dentist graduating from a dental university may work in private practice or group practice or may seek other options such as the military; community or public health clinics or teaching and research are also options.
D A dentist graduating from a dental university may work in private practice or group practice or may seek other options such as the military; community or public health clinics or teaching and research are also options.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. A general dentist may legally perform all dental and specialty functions.
a. True b. False

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A General dentists may legally perform all dental and specialty functions. They may prefer, however, to refer cases that are more difficult or require specialized training to a specialist.
B General dentists may legally perform all dental and specialty functions. They may prefer, however, to refer cases that are more difficult or require specialized training to a specialist.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. The dental specialty that is concerned with the restoration and replacement of natural teeth and tissues is:
a. orthodontics. c. endodontics.
b. periodontics. d. prosthodontics.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Orthodontics involves the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malocclusion.
B Periodontics is concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of oral tissues supporting and surrounding the teeth.
C Endodontics is concerned with the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases and injuries of the pulp.
D Prosthodontics is concerned with the restoration and replacement of natural teeth and tissues.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. The dental specialty that uses new and sophisticated imaging techniques to locate and diagnose diseases of the jaw, head, and neck is:
a. oral pathology. c. oral and maxillofacial radiology.
b. oral and maxillofacial surgery. d. pediatric dentistry.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Oral pathology is the specialty of dentistry that treats diseases of the oral structures.
B Oral and maxillofacial surgery is the dental specialty that deals with the diagnosis and surgical treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects in the oral and maxillofacial regions.
C Oral and maxillofacial radiology is the dental specialty that uses imaging techniques to locate and diagnose diseases of the jaw, head, and neck.
D Pediatric dentistry is the specialty of dentistry that is concerned with neonatal through adolescent patients.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. Pediatric dentistry does not treat:
a. patients with special needs. c. seniors.
b. children. d. adolescents.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Pediatric dentistry is the specialty of dentistry that is concerned with neonatal through adolescent patients.
B Pediatric dentistry is the specialty of dentistry that is concerned with neonatal through adolescent patients.
C Pediatric dentistry is the specialty of dentistry that is concerned with neonatal through adolescent patients.
D Pediatric dentistry is the specialty of dentistry that is concerned with neonatal through adolescent patients.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. If a patient does not respond to the root canal treatment in your dental office, he or she may be referred to a(n):
a. orthodontist. c. prosthodontist.
b. endodontist. d. oral pathologist.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A An orthodontist is the specialist who treats malocclusion.
B An endodontist is the specialist that deals with diseases of the dental pulp.
C A periodontist is the specialist who provides replacement of natural teeth.
D An oral pathologist is the specialist who treats disease of oral structures.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. The technique that utilizes a circulating assistant is _____-handed dentistry.
a. six c. three
b. two d. four

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The technique of six-handed dentistry is used when the dentist and the chairside assistant work with a circulating assistant together to perform patient care.
B The technique of two-handed dentistry does not involve both dentist and chairside assistant working together. It implies that the dentist is working alone.
C Three-handed dentistry is not a technique.
D The technique of four-handed dentistry is used when the dentist and the chairside assistant work together to perform patient care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Circulating Assistant

 

  1. Regulation of the functions an EFDA can legally perform is decided by the:
a. dentist. c. ADAA.
b. ADA. d. State Board of Dentistry.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The State Board of Dentistry regulates the functions that can be delegated to the EFDA. The dentist can use his or her judgment in delegating the functions as regulated by the State Board of Dentistry.
B The ADA is not a regulating agency; the State Board of Dentistry regulates the functions that can be delegated to the EFDA.
C The ADAA is not a regulating agency; the State Board of Dentistry regulates the functions that can be delegated to the EFDA.
D The State Board of Dentistry regulates the functions that can be delegated to the EFDA.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 24

TOP:   Expanded-Functions Dental Assistant

 

  1. The ________ normally does not work in the dental office with the other members of the dental health team.
a. dental laboratory technician c. dental hygienist
b. business assistant d. dentist

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The dental laboratory technician usually is employed in a separate laboratory from the dental office.
B The business assistant usually manages the patient records, insurance billing, and financial matters for the patients of the dental healthcare team.
C The dental hygienist typically performs specific patient care functions such as dental prophylaxis.
D The dentist is responsible for providing patient care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 25

TOP:   Dental Laboratory Technician

 

  1. A __________ may be helpful if the assistant is having difficulty with dental materials.
a. dental supply person c. detail person
b. dental equipment technician d. both a and c

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The dental supply person is a rep who can arrange for the detail person to be contacted, and the detail person will have specific product information concerning a company’s product.
B The dental equipment technician should be contacted regarding equipment needs.
C The dental supply person is a rep who can arrange for the detail person to be contacted, and the detail person will have specific product information concerning a company’s product.
D The dental supply person is a rep who can arrange for the detail person to be contacted, and the detail person will have specific product information concerning a company’s product.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 25-26       TOP:   Supporting Services

 

  1. Specialty training is usually ______ beyond dental school.
a. six months c. two to three years
b. one year d. two to six years

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Specialty programs are two to six years beyond dental school.
B Specialty programs are two to six years beyond dental school.
C Specialty programs are two to six years beyond dental school.
D Specialty programs are two to six years beyond dental school.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. A dentist is not trained and therefore cannot legally perform specialty procedures.
a. True b. False

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A A dentist is trained and therefore can legally perform specialty procedures; however, the dentist may prefer to refer difficult cases to a specialist.
B A dentist is trained and therefore can legally perform specialty procedures; however, the dentist may prefer to refer difficult cases to a specialist.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22              TOP:   Dentist

 

  1. What is the minimum length of an ADA-accredited dental hygiene program?
a. Six months c. Two academic years
b. One academic year d. Four academic years

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A ADA requires accredited dental hygiene programs to be at least two academic years in length and must grant an associate’s degree.
B ADA requires accredited dental hygiene programs to be at least two academic years in length and must grant an associate’s degree.
C ADA requires accredited dental hygiene programs to be at least two academic years in length and must grant an associate’s degree.
D Although many programs are four years in length, ADA requires accredited dental hygiene programs to be at least two academic years in length and must grant an associate’s degree.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Registered Dental Hygienist

 

  1. A duty that may not be delegated to a dental hygienist in most states is:
a. removing deposits on teeth. c. providing restorative treatment.
b. placing sealants. d. administering local anesthesia.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Removing deposits on teeth, placing sealants, and administering local anesthesia are legal in many states.
B Removing deposits on teeth, placing sealants, and administering local anesthesia are legal in many states.
C Providing restorative treatment is not a delegable duty to hygienists in most states.
D Removing deposits on teeth, placing sealants, and administering local anesthesia are legal in many states.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 22-23       TOP:   Registered Dental Hygienist

 

  1. The circulating assistant is usually not responsible for:
a. caring for treatment rooms.
b. completing the written prescription for dental laboratory work.
c. placing topical fluoride and dental sealants.
d. seating and dismissing patients.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Caring for treatment rooms, completing the written prescriptions, and seating and dismissing patients are all duties.
B Caring for treatment rooms, completing the written prescriptions, and seating and dismissing patients are all duties.
C The dental hygienist or EFDA is responsible for placing topical fluoride and dental sealants.
D Caring for treatment rooms, completing the written prescriptions, and seating and dismissing patients are all duties.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 23              TOP:   Circulating Assistant

 

  1. Appointment control and office communications are generally the role of the:
a. dentist. c. business assistant.
b. circulating assistant. d. EFDA.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The dentist is responsible for the care of the patients; the business assistant is responsible for the smooth and efficient operation of the business office.
B The business assistant is responsible for the smooth and efficient operation of the business office; the circulating assistant may assist in those duties.
C The business assistant is responsible for the smooth and efficient operation of the business office.
D The business assistant is responsible for the smooth and efficient operation of the business office.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 24              TOP:   Business Assistant

 

  1. Dental public health dentists treat the ______ rather than the individual.
a. association c. family
b. community d. general dentist

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The focus of dental public health is the community, not associations.
B Dental public health dentists treat the community rather than the individual.
C The focus of dental public health is the community; families are treated as part of communities.
D The focus of dental public health is the community, not other dental professionals.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. Dental public health dentists are active in:
a. dental screening within a community. c. Head Start programs.
b. fluoridation programs. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Dental screening and oral health education within a community, fluoridation programs, and Head Start programs are all activities of dental public health.
B Dental screening and oral health education within a community, fluoridation programs, and Head Start programs are all activities of dental public health.
C Dental screening and oral health education within a community, fluoridation programs, and Head Start programs are all activities of dental public health.
D Dental screening and oral health education within a community, fluoridation programs, and Head Start programs are all activities of dental public health.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

 

  1. The specialty of dentistry that works very closely with oral surgeons is:
a. oral pathology. c. endodontics.
b. orthodontics. d. prosthodontics.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A A major function of oral pathology is biopsies, and they work very closely with oral surgeons.
B Although all specialists work together, a major function of oral pathology is biopsies, and they work very closely with oral surgeons.
C Although all specialists work together, a major function of oral pathology is biopsies, and they work very closely with oral surgeons.
D Although all specialists work together, a major function of oral pathology is biopsies, and they work very closely with oral surgeons.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 22

TOP:   Dental Specialties Recognized by the American Dental Association

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 21: Principles and Techniques of Instrument Processing and Sterilization

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following patient care items is classified as a semicritical instrument?
a. Dental burs c. Lead apron
b. Dental hygiene scalers d. Rubber dam forceps

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Surgical forceps, scalpels, bone chisels, scalers, and burs are classified as critical instruments.
B Surgical forceps, scalpels, bone chisels, scalers, and burs are classified as critical instruments.
C The position indicator device (PID) of the x-ray tube head, the lead apron, and the curing light that only comes into contact with intact skin are examples of noncritical instruments.
D Plastic-handled brushes, high-volume evacuator (HVE) tips, rubber dam forceps, x-ray film holders, and amalgam carriers are classified as semicritical instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 336            TOP:   Semicritical Instruments

 

  1. _______ is the process of killing all microorganisms, including bacterial spores.
a. Disinfection c. Ultrasonic cleaning
b. Sterilization

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Disinfection destroys pathogenic microorganisms, but not spores and resistant viruses.
B Sterilization is the process of killing all microorganisms, including endospores.
C Ultrasonic cleaning does what its name implies: it cleans. It does not kill all microorganisms.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Methods of Sterilization

 

  1. An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning:
a. critical, semicritical, and noncritical instruments.
b. critical and semicritical instruments.
c. semicritical and noncritical instruments.
d. noncritical instruments only.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning noncritical instruments only. Critical instruments are to be sterilized by heat. The majority of semicritical items in dentistry are heat-tolerant and should also be sterilized. If the item will be damaged by heat, it should receive, at a minimum, high-level disinfection.
B An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning noncritical instruments only. Critical instruments are to be sterilized by heat. The majority of semicritical items in dentistry are heat-tolerant and should also be sterilized. If the item will be damaged by heat, it should receive, at a minimum, high-level disinfection.
C An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning noncritical instruments only. The majority of semicritical items in dentistry are heat-tolerant and should also be sterilized. If the item will be damaged by heat, it should receive, at a minimum, high-level disinfection.
D An Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)-registered intermediate-level or low-level disinfectant is suitable for cleaning noncritical instruments only.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 336            TOP:   Noncritical Instruments

 

  1. Personal protective equipment (PPE), including _____, must always be used when processing instruments.
a. vinyl or latex gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing
b. utility gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing
c. utility gloves, eyewear, and protective clothing, but not a mask
d. utility gloves, a mask, and protective clothing, but not eyewear

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Personal protective equipment (PPE), including utility gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing, must always be used when processing instruments. Vinyl or latex gloves are not acceptable.
B Personal protective equipment (PPE), including utility gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing, must always be used when processing instruments.
C Personal protective equipment (PPE), including utility gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing, must always be used when processing instruments.
D Personal protective equipment (PPE), including utility gloves, a mask, eyewear, and protective clothing, must always be used when processing instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 337

TOP:   Personal Protective Equipment

 

  1. When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items, the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through _____.
a. percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
b. percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye and nose, but not the mouth.
c. percutaneous injury, but not contact with mucous membranes.
d. contact with mucous membranes, but not percutaneous injury.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items, the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
B When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items, the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
C When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items, the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.
D When transporting and processing contaminated patient care items, the dental assistant can be exposed to microorganisms through percutaneous injury or contact with mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or mouth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 337

TOP:   Transporting and Processing Contaminated Patient Care Items

 

  1. The ideal instrument-processing area should be:
a. large enough for several assistants to work at one time.
b. dedicated only to instrument processing.
c. part of the operatories and dental laboratory.
d. open to the outside through a door or windows.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Usually only one assistant will be processing at a time.
B The ideal instrument-processing area should be dedicated to equipment and supplies necessary for processing.
C The instrument-processing area should not be part of the operatories and dental laboratory.
D The area should not have a door or windows that open to the outside, to prevent dust from entering the area.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 337            TOP:   Instrument-Processing Area

 

  1. There are sections of the instrument-processing area that govern the workflow pattern. The processing should flow in a single loop from dirty, to _____, to storage.
a. sterile c. preclean, to clean
b. clean, to sterile d. preclean, to clean, to sterile

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Instruments must be cleaned before sterilization.
B The processing of instruments should proceed in a single loop—from dirty, to clean, to sterile, to storage—without ever “doubling back.”
C Instruments must be sterilized before reuse.
D Precleaning and cleaning are considered to be parts of the same procedure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 338            TOP:   Workflow Pattern

 

  1. The purpose of a holding solution is to _____ instruments.
a. clean
b. disinfect
c. prevent the drying of blood and debris on
d. sterilize

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A holding solution does not clean instruments.
B A holding solution does not disinfect instruments.
C A holding solution is used for instruments that cannot be cleaned immediately, to prevent the drying of blood and debris on the instruments.
D A holding solution does not sterilize instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 339            TOP:   Holding Solution

 

  1. The least desirable method of precleaning dental instruments is:
a. hand scrubbing. c. instrument washing machines.
b. ultrasonic cleaning. d. rinsing in a holding solution.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Hand scrubbing is the least desirable method of cleaning instruments, because it requires direct hand contact with contaminated instruments.
B Ultrasonic cleaning is an acceptable method of precleaning.
C Instrument washing machines are an acceptable method of precleaning.
D Rinsing in a holding solution is an acceptable method of precleaning.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 339            TOP:   Hand Scrubbing

 

  1. The ultrasonic cleaner cleans dirty instruments using sound waves, which cause:
a. cavitation. c. vibrations.
b. implosion. d. both a and b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Cavitation and implosion are both aspects of the operation of an ultrasonic cleaner.
B Cavitation and implosion are both aspects of the operation of an ultrasonic cleaner.
C Vibrations are caused by the sound waves but are not part of the cleaning process.
D The sound waves produced by the ultrasonic cleaner cause cavitation (bubble formation), and the bubbles burst by implosion (bursting inward). The mechanical cleaning action of the bursting bubbles combines with the chemical action of the ultrasonic solution to remove debris.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 340            TOP:   Ultrasonic Cleaning

 

  1. The ultrasonic cleaning solution:
a. should be a dilution of the surface disinfectant.
b. should have an antimicrobial activity that will disinfect the instruments.
c. should be specially formulated for use only in the ultrasonic cleaner.
d. must not have enzymatic activity, because such products have been removed from the market.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The ultrasonic cleaning solution should not be a dilution of the surface disinfectant. You should use ultrasonic solutions that are specially formulated for use only in an ultrasonic cleaner.
B The antimicrobial activity does not disinfect instruments; it merely prevents the microorganisms from increasing in number.
C The ultrasonic cleaning solution should be specially formulated for use only in the ultrasonic cleaner.
D Some ultrasonic products that are on the market have enzymatic activity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 340

TOP:   Ultrasonic Cleaning Solutions

 

  1. The ultrasonic cleaner should be cleaned and disinfected:
a. every other day. c. at least once a day.
b. once a week. d. once every 28 days.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The ultrasonic cleaner should be cleaned and disinfected more than every other day. Daily cleaning and disinfecting are recommended.
B The ultrasonic cleaner should be cleaned and disinfected more than once a week. Daily cleaning and disinfecting are recommended.
C The ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated. It should be discarded and the unit disinfected at least once a day, or more often if it becomes visibly cloudy.
D The ultrasonic cleaner should be cleaned and disinfected more than once every 28 days. Daily cleaning and disinfecting are recommended.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 341

TOP:   Care of the Ultrasonic Cleaner

 

  1. After instruments have been through the cleaning cycle of the ultrasonic cleaner, they should be:
a. bagged. c. placed in the sterilizer.
b. rinsed with clear water. d. put away.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The instruments need to be rinsed and dried before bagging.
B It is important to rinse instruments that have been through the cleaning cycle in the ultrasonic cleaner thoroughly with water before bagging them for the sterilizer.
C The ultrasonic cleaning solution should be rinsed off the instruments.
D Instruments must be sterilized before storage.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 341

TOP:   Procedure 21-1: Operating the Ultrasonic Cleaner

 

  1. Why are instruments bagged before sterilization?
a. To protect them from becoming contaminated after sterilization
b. To allow them to be grouped into special setups by procedure
c. To keep them from rusting
d. Both a and b

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Protecting instruments from becoming contaminated after sterilization and allowing instruments to be grouped into special setups by procedure are both reasons why instruments are bagged prior to sterilization.
B Protecting instruments from becoming contaminated after sterilization and allowing instruments to be grouped into special setups by procedure are both reasons why instruments are bagged prior to sterilization.
C Drying the instruments and treating them with a rust inhibitor will prevent rusting.
D Instruments are bagged before sterilization to protect them from contamination after they are sterilized and to allow them to be packaged in setups by procedure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 343            TOP:   Packaging Instruments

 

  1. A method of sterilizing unwrapped patient care items for immediate use is:
a. flash sterilization. c. autoclaving.
b. dry heat sterilization. d. chemiclaving.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Flash sterilization is a method for sterilizing unwrapped patient care items for immediate use and should only be used under certain conditions.
B Because of the time required for dry heat sterilization, it is not recommended as a method for immediate recirculation of instruments.
C Because of the time required for autoclaving, it is not recommended as a method for immediate recirculation of instruments.
D Because of the time required for chemiclaving, it is not recommended as a method for immediate recirculation of instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 343

TOP:   Sterilization of Unwrapped Instruments

 

  1. A process indicator is an example of _____ monitoring of the sterilization process.
a. physical c. internal chemical
b. external chemical d. biologic

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A A process indicator is an example of external chemical monitoring. Physical monitoring involves looking at the gauges and readings on the sterilizer and recording the temperature, pressure, and exposure time.
B A process indicator is an example of external chemical monitoring of the sterilization process. Process indicators are placed outside the instrument packages before sterilization. Examples are autoclave tape and color-change markings on packages or bags.
C A process indicator is an example of external chemical monitoring. Process integrators are an example of internal chemical monitoring. They are placed inside instrument packaging. They respond to a combination of pressure, temperature, and time.
D A process indicator is an example of external chemical monitoring. Biologic monitoring involves biologic indicators known as spore tests, which are vials or strips of paper that contain harmless bacterial spores. If the spores are killed, the sterilization cycle was successful.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 353            TOP:   Process Indicators

 

  1. Process indicators that change color are useful for:
a. monitoring sterilization.
b. identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature.
c. determining whether an instrument package has been processed.
d. both b and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Process indicators do not guarantee sterilization.
B Identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature and determining whether an instrument package has been processed are both uses for process indicators that change color.
C Identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature and determining whether an instrument package has been processed are both uses for process indicators that change color.
D Process indicators do not guarantee sterilization; they only show whether a package has been processed and that the package has been exposed to a certain temperature.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 353            TOP:   Process Indicators

 

  1. The best way to determine that sterilization has actually occurred is to use:
a. process integrators. c. process indicators.
b. biologic monitors. d. color-changing sterilization bags or tape.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Using process integrators is not the correct method to confirm sterilization.
B Biologic monitoring, or spore testing, is the best way to determine whether sterilization has occurred. The CDC recommends at least weekly biologic monitoring of sterilization equipment.
C Using process indicators is one method used to confirm sterilization, but it is not the best method.
D Using color-changing sterilization bags or tape is one method used to confirm sterilization, but it is not the best method.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 354            TOP:   Biologic Monitoring

 

  1. Sterilization destroys:
a. all microbial forms, including bacterial spores.
b. all microbial forms, except bacterial spores.
c. bacteria, including bacterial spores and viruses, but not fungi.
d. bacteria, including bacterial spores and fungi, but not viruses.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Sterilization destroys all microbial forms, including bacterial spores. Sterile is an absolute term; there is no such thing as “partially sterile” or “almost sterile.”
B Sterilization destroys all microbial forms, including bacterial spores.
C Sterilization destroys all microbial forms, including bacterial spores.
D Sterilization destroys all microbial forms, including bacterial spores.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Methods of Sterilization

 

  1. All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient’s _____ must be heat-sterilized.
a. blood, saliva, or mucous membranes
b. blood or saliva, but not mucous membranes
c. saliva or mucous membranes, but not blood
d. blood or mucous membranes, but not saliva

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient’s blood, saliva, or mucous membranes must be heat-sterilized.
B All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient’s blood, saliva, or mucous membranes must be heat-sterilized.
C All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient’s blood, saliva, or mucous membranes must be heat-sterilized.
D All reusable items among the instruments (critical and semicritical) that come in contact with the patient’s blood, saliva, or mucous membranes must be heat-sterilized.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Methods of Sterilization

 

  1. When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items, is it the heat or the pressure that kills the microorganisms?
a. Heat c. Both heat and pressure
b. Pressure

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items it is the heat, not the pressure, that actually kills the microorganisms.
B When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items it is the heat, not the pressure, that actually kills the microorganisms.
C When using an autoclave to sterilize dental instruments and other items it is the heat, not the pressure, that actually kills the microorganisms.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Steam Autoclave

 

  1. Within a steam autoclave, the _____ cycle precedes the _____ cycle.
a. drying; heat-up c. heat-up; sterilizing
b. depressurization; sterilizing d. sterilizing; heat-up

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Within a steam autoclave the drying cycle follows the heat-up cycle, sterilizing cycle, and depressurization cycle. Autoclaves usually operate through four cycles: heat-up, sterilization, depressurization, and drying.
B Within a steam autoclave the depressurization cycle follows the sterilization cycle. Autoclaves usually operate through four cycles: heat-up, sterilization, depressurization, and drying.
C Within a steam autoclave, the heat-up cycle precedes the sterilization cycle. Autoclaves usually operate through four cycles: heat-up, sterilization, depressurization, and drying.
D Within a steam autoclave the sterilizing cycle follows the heat-up cycle. Autoclaves usually operate through four cycles: heat-up, sterilization, depressurization, and drying.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Steam Autoclave

 

  1. The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that:
a. it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.
b. it does not require ventilation.
c. a longer cycle time ensures superior penetration of closed containers.
d. the unsaturated chemical solution is reusable and is automatically recycled, eliminating the need to refill the sterilizer.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.
B The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments. The primary disadvantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that adequate ventilation is essential because residual chemical vapors containing formaldehyde and methyl alcohol can be released when the chamber door is opened at the end of the cycle.
C The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments. As in steam autoclaving, closed containers and aluminum foil cannot be used in a chemical vapor sterilizer because they prevent the sterilizing agent from reaching the instruments inside.
D The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments. The unsaturated chemical solution is not reusable.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 348

TOP:   Unsaturated Chemical Vapor Sterilization: Advantages

 

  1. Instruments must be absolutely dry or they will rust when using which type of sterilization process?
a. Chemical vapor c. Steam autoclave
b. Cold sterilization d. Flash sterilization

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Instruments must be clean and completely dry before being wrapped for chemical vapor sterilization; otherwise, the instruments will rust during the sterilization process.
B Cold sterilization uses moisture, and a lack of complete dryness will probably not lead to rusting of instruments.
C Steam autoclaving uses moisture, and a lack of complete dryness will probably not lead to rusting of instruments.
D Flash sterilization uses moisture, and a lack of complete dryness will probably not lead to rusting of instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 349

TOP:   Procedure 21-3: Sterilizing Instruments with Unsaturated Chemical Vapor

 

  1. Which type of sterilization used in the dental office requires the highest temperature?
a. Steam autoclave c. Dry heat sterilization
b. Chemical vapor d. Chemical liquid sterilization

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The steam autoclave operates at approximately 250° F.
B A chemical vapor sterilizer operates at approximately 270° F.
C Dry heat sterilizers operate at the highest temperature, approximately 320° F to 370° F.
D Chemical liquid sterilization works at room temperature.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 349            TOP:   Dry Heat Sterilization

 

  1. Failure of the sterilization process will be reported by the monitoring service immediately by:
a. phone to the dental office as a positive result.
b. phone to the dental office as a negative result.
c. mail to the dental office to document that the cultures were read as a positive result.
d. mail to the dental office to document that the cultures were read as a negative result.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Failure of the sterilization process will be reported by the monitoring service immediately by phone to the dental office, as a positive result. A positive report indicates that sterilization did not occur.
B Failure of the sterilization process will be reported by the monitoring service immediately by phone to the dental office as a positive result. A positive report indicates that sterilization did not occur. A negative result indicates the spores did not grow and that sterilization did occur.
C Failure of the sterilization process will be reported by the monitoring service immediately by phone to the dental office as a positive result. A positive report indicates that sterilization did not occur. It is phoned so that the situation can be corrected as soon as possible.
D Failure of the sterilization process will be reported by the monitoring service immediately by phone to the dental office as a positive result. A positive report indicates that sterilization did not occur. It is phoned so that the situation can be corrected as soon as possible.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 351            TOP:   Sterilization Failures

 

  1. Chemical liquid sterilization requires at least _____ hour(s) of contact time for sterilization to occur.
a. 1 c. 5
b. 10 d. 24

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The correct contact time to achieve sterilization is not 1 hour.
B Sterilization in glutaraldehyde, a chemical liquid sterilant, requires a 10-hour contact time for sterilization to occur. Anything less than 10 hours is considered disinfection, not sterilization.
C The correct contact time to achieve sterilization is not 5 hours.
D The correct contact time to achieve sterilization is not 24 hours.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 351            TOP:   Liquid Chemical Sterilants

 

  1. Recommended methods for sterilizing dental handpieces include which of the following?
a. Chemical liquid sterilization c. Chemical vapor sterilization
b. Steam sterilization d. Both b and c

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Manufacturers recommend heat-sterilizing handpieces, not chemical liquid sterilization.
B Steam sterilization and chemical vapor sterilization are both accepted methods for handpiece sterilization.
C Steam sterilization and chemical vapor sterilization are both accepted methods for handpiece sterilization.
D Dental handpieces should be sterilized by either steam or chemical vapor sterilization, because handpiece sterilization temperatures should not exceed 275° F.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 355            TOP:   Sterilizing Techniques

 

  1. How can instrument rusting be prevented?
a. Instrument must be completely dry c. Leaving instrument wet in packaging
b. Lubrication of hinges in instrument d. Both a and b

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Instrument rusting can be prevented by ensuring that the instrument is completely dry and by lubrication of instrument hinges.
B Instrument rusting can be prevented by ensuring that the instrument is completely dry and by lubrication of instrument hinges.
C Leaving instruments wet when packaging will cause rusting of the instruments.
D Instrument rusting can be prevented by ensuring that the instrument is completely dry and by lubrication of instrument hinges.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 342-343

TOP:   Drying, Lubrication, and Corrosion Control

 

  1. Some ultrasonic cleaning solutions have:
a. disinfectants. c. antimicrobial activity.
b. enzyme activity. d. both b and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Ultrasonic cleaning solutions have no disinfectant chemicals and do not disinfect.
B Ultrasonic cleaning solutions can have enzyme activity and antimicrobial activity.
C Ultrasonic cleaning solutions can have enzyme activity and antimicrobial activity.
D Ultrasonic cleaning solutions can have enzyme activity and antimicrobial activity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 340

TOP:   Ultrasonic Cleaning Solutions

 

  1. Which of the following is correct about ultrasonic cleaner solution?
a. It is highly contaminated.
b. It should be discarded at least once a day.
c. It becomes visibly cloudy when needing to be changed.
d. All of the above are correct.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated and should be discarded at least once a day or sooner if it becomes visibly cloudy.
B Ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated and should be discarded at least once a day or sooner if it becomes visibly cloudy.
C Ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated and should be discarded at least once a day or sooner if it becomes visibly cloudy.
D Ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated and should be discarded at least once a day or sooner if it becomes visibly cloudy.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 341

TOP:   Care of the Ultrasonic Cleaner

 

  1. Which of the following is not a form of sterilization monitoring?
a. Physical c. Chemical
b. Structural d. Biologic

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A There are three forms of sterilization monitoring: physical, chemical, and biologic.
B There are three forms of sterilization monitoring: physical, chemical, and biologic.
C There are three forms of sterilization monitoring: physical, chemical, and biologic.
D There are three forms of sterilization monitoring: physical, chemical, and biologic.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 352-353   TOP:   Sterilization Monitoring

 

  1. Sterilization errors would include:
a. proper packaging. c. proper loading.
b. proper timing. d. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Sterilization errors would include improper packaging, improper timing, and improper loading.
B Sterilization errors would include improper packaging, improper timing, and improper loading.
C Sterilization errors would include improper packaging, improper timing, and improper loading.
D Sterilization errors would include improper packaging, improper timing, and improper loading.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 352

TOP:   Table 21-7: Results of Sterilization Errors

 

  1. Which of the following is incorrect about liquid chemical sterilants?
a. They have a use-life of usually 30 days.
b. They are highly toxic.
c. They require 10 hours for sterilization.
d. They may be disposed of by dumping down the sink.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Liquid chemical sterilants are highly toxic, have a use-life of usually 30 days, and require 10 hours for sterilization to occur.
B Liquid chemical sterilants are highly toxic, have a use-life of usually 30 days, and require 10 hours for sterilization to occur.
C Liquid chemical sterilants are highly toxic, have a use-life of usually 30 days, and require 10 hours for sterilization to occur.
D Liquid chemical sterilants require special disposal methods and may not be dumped down the sink.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 351

TOP:   Procedure 21-5: Sterilizing Instruments with Liquid Chemical Sterilants

 

  1. Which type of sterilization method will not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments?
a. Chemical vapor sterilization c. Steam autoclave
b. Flash sterilization d. Liquid chemical sterilization

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.
B The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.
C The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.
D The major advantage of the chemical vapor sterilizer is that it does not rust, dull, or corrode dry metal instruments.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 348

TOP:   Unsaturated Chemical Vapor Sterilization: Advantages

 

  1. Which of the following is not a chemical used to create vapor for sterilizing with chemical vapor sterilization?
a. Ketone c. Alcohol
b. Formaldehyde d. Sodium hypochlorite

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Sodium hypochlorite is household bleach and is not used as a chemical to produce the vapor with a chemical vapor sterilizer.
B Sodium hypochlorite is household bleach and is not used as a chemical to produce the vapor with a chemical vapor sterilizer.
C Sodium hypochlorite is household bleach and is not used as a chemical to produce the vapor with a chemical vapor sterilizer.
D Sodium hypochlorite is household bleach and is not used as a chemical to produce the vapor with a chemical vapor sterilizer.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 348

TOP:   Unsaturated Chemical Vapor Sterilization

 

  1. As a dental assistant you are placing instruments into the instrument package, and the explorer tears a hole in the package. You should:
a. staple the hole. c. use a new instrument package.
b. ignore the hole. d. use a paper clip.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Never use staples to seal an instrument package.
B Instrument packages must be sealed to maintain sterilization.
C Instrument packages must be sealed to maintain sterilization.
D Never use paper clips to seal an instrument package.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 343            TOP:   Packaging Materials

 

  1. Autoclaves usually operate through four cycles. Which cycle allows the steam under pressure to be released from within the chamber?
a. Heat-up c. Sterilizing
b. Drying d. Depressurization

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The heat-up cycle achieves the correct temperature.
B The drying cycle dries the instrument packages.
C The sterilizing cycle achieves the sterilization of instruments.
D The depressurization cycle allows the steam under pressure to be released from the chamber.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Steam Autoclave

 

  1. Ultrasonic cleaners are used to:
a. loosen and remove debris from instruments.
b. disinfect instruments.
c. reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
d. both a and c.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Ultrasonic cleaners are used to loosen and remove debris from instruments and reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
B Ultrasonic cleaners are used to loosen and remove debris from instruments and reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
C Ultrasonic cleaners are used to loosen and remove debris from instruments and reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.
D Ultrasonic cleaners are used to loosen and remove debris from instruments and reduce risk of hand injury from cuts and punctures that can occur with hand scrubbing.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 344            TOP:   Ultrasonic Cleaning

 

  1. Another term for biologic monitoring is _____ testing.
a. bacterial c. spore
b. culture d. chemical

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Spore testing is another term for biologic monitoring.
B Spore testing is another term for biologic monitoring.
C Spore testing is another term for biologic monitoring.
D Spore testing is another term for biologic monitoring.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 354            TOP:   Biologic Monitoring

 

  1. The CDC, ADA, and OSAP recommend at least ________ biologic monitoring of all sterilizing equipment.
a. daily c. weekly
b. bi-weekly d. monthly

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A All sterilizers should be biologically monitored at least weekly as recommended by the CDC, ADA, and OSAP.
B All sterilizers should be biologically monitored at least weekly as recommended by the CDC, ADA, and OSAP.
C All sterilizers should be biologically monitored at least weekly as recommended by the CDC, ADA, and OSAP.
D All sterilizers should be biologically monitored at least weekly as recommended by the CDC, ADA, and OSAP.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 354            TOP:   Biologic Monitoring

 

  1. What is the best method to remove debris from the head of the handpiece?
a. Wipe off with disinfectant.
b. Flush the handpiece for 10 to 20 seconds.
c. Place in ultrasonic cleaner.
d. Run water through the handpiece.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Wiping off with disinfectant removes only the visible debris.
B Flush the handpiece for 10 to 20 seconds to remove any loose debris that has become lodged in the head of the handpiece.
C Never place a handpiece in an ultrasonic cleaner; it will ruin the turbine and bearings.
D Water does not run through the turbine chamber, where debris can collect.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 355            TOP:   Flushing Techniques

 

  1. Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed ____° F.
a. 300 c. 275
b. 270 d. 325

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed 275° F.
B Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed 275° F.
C Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed 275° F.
D Handpiece sterilization temperatures should never exceed 275° F.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 355            TOP:   Sterilizing Techniques

 

  1. Instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone are _____ instruments
a. noncritical c. critical
b. semicritical d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Critical instruments are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
B Critical instruments are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
C Critical instruments are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
D Critical instruments are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 336            TOP:   Critical Instruments

 

  1. Which of the following is not an advantage of “flash” sterilization?
a. Short exposure time c. Inability to wrap items
b. Temperature d. None of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Short exposure time and high temperatures are advantages of “flash” sterilization.
B Short exposure time and high temperatures are advantages of “flash” sterilization.
C The inability to wrap items is not an advantage of “flash” sterilization.
D Short exposure time and high temperatures are advantages of “flash” sterilization.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   pp. 346-348   TOP:   Flash Sterilization

 

  1. What is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred?
a. Use biologic monitoring.
b. Check the sterilizer.
c. Check the single-parameter indicator.
d. All of the above are equally good methods.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Biologic monitoring is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred.
B Biologic monitoring is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred.
C Biologic monitoring is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred.
D Biologic monitoring is the best method of determining whether sterilization has occurred.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 354            TOP:   Biologic Monitoring

 

  1. Where is a process indicator placed?
a. Inside the instrument package c. Within the chamber
b. Outside of the instrument package d. All of the above

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The process indicator is placed on the outside of the instrument package to indicate that the package has been exposed to heat.
B The process indicator is placed on the outside of the instrument package to indicate that the package has been exposed to heat.
C The process indicator is placed on the outside of the instrument package to indicate that the package has been exposed to heat.
D The process indicator is placed on the outside of the instrument package to indicate that the package has been exposed to heat.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 353            TOP:   Process Indicators

 

  1. Which of the following will not cause a sterilization failure?
a. Excessive packaging c. Overloading of sterilizer
b. Using correct packaging material d. Inadequate instrument cleaning

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Excessive (too thick) packaging may prevent the sterilizing agents from reaching the instruments and cause sterilization failure.
B Several factors can cause the sterilization process to fail, including improper instrument cleaning or packaging and sterilizer malfunction. Using correct packaging is one safeguard against sterilization failure.
C Overloading of sterilizer increases the time it takes to reach the proper temperature and can slow the penetration to the center of the load, causing sterilization failure.
D Inadequate instrument cleaning can lead to dried blood and/or cement remaining on instruments, which can insulate organisms from sterilizing agents, causing sterilization failure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 352            TOP:   Sterilization Failures

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 47: Laboratory Materials and Procedures

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that:
a. overhead costs rise.
b. the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases.
c. more work will be completed by the commercial laboratory.
d. there is less work to do for the private dental laboratory technician.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases and keep overhead costs to a minimum.
B The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases.
C The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases and keep overhead costs to a minimum. If a case cannot be handled in the office laboratory, it will be sent to a commercial laboratory.
D The advantage of more equipment and expertise in the office dental laboratory is that the dentist or private laboratory technician can handle larger cases and keep overhead costs to a minimum. If a case cannot be handled in the office laboratory, it will be sent to a commercial laboratory.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 802            TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. The _____ is used to polish or trim custom trays, provisional coverage, dentures, and indirect restorations.
a. sandblaster c. vacuum former
b. model trimmer d. dental lathe

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The dental lathe is used to polish or trim custom trays, provisional coverage, dentures, and indirect restorations. The sandblaster is a hand-held unit that sprays sand at a high speed, creating etching or pitting on the surface of metals, porcelains, or acrylic.
B The dental lathe is used to polish or trim custom trays, provisional coverage, dentures, and indirect restorations. The model trimmer is a machine used to trim stone or plaster models.
C The dental lathe is used to polish or trim custom trays, provisional coverage, dentures, and indirect restorations. The vacuum former is a small electrical appliance used to construct custom trays for bleaching, mouth guards, and positioners for orthodontics.
D The dental lathe is used to polish or trim custom trays, provisional coverage, dentures, and indirect restorations.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 805            TOP:   Dental Lathe

 

  1. Which form of gypsum products is used for the creation of dies?
a. Plaster c. Dental stone
b. Model plaster d. High-strength stone

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A High-strength stone is used for the creation of dies. Plain plaster is not used in dentistry for models.
B High-strength stone is used for the creation of dies. Model plaster is used primarily for pouring preliminary impressions and making diagnostic models.
C High-strength stone is used for the creation of dies. Dental stone is used when a more durable diagnostic cast is required, or for use as a working model in the making of dentures.
D High-strength stone is used for the creation of dies.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 807            TOP:   High-Strength Stone

 

  1. Which of the following gypsum products has the highest powder-to-water ratio?
a. Model plaster
b. Dental stone
c. High-strength stone
d. All gypsum products have the same powder-to-water ratio.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Model plaster has the highest powder-to-water ratio. The crystals in plaster are irregular in shape and very porous, similar in appearance to a sponge. Because of the porous and irregular crystals, model plaster requires the most water for mixing, which produces a weaker cast.
B Model plaster has the highest powder-to-water ratio. Dental stone has a powder-to-water ratio that is in between that of model plaster and high-strength stone.
C Model plaster has the highest powder-to-water ratio. High-strength stone has the lowest powder-to-water ratio because the crystals are the least porous.
D Model plaster has the highest powder-to-water ratio. All of the gypsum products, model plaster, dental stone, and high-strength dental stone, have different powder-to-water ratios.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 807            TOP:   Model Plaster

 

  1. A model consists of the _____ portion, which represents the teeth and tissues of the mouth, and the _____ portion, which forms the base of the cast.
a. art; anatomical c. anatomical; art
b. anatomical; foundation d. oral cavity; foundation

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The art portion is the base of the cast, and the anatomical portion represents the teeth.
B Foundation is not a term used to describe the parts of a model.
C The anatomical portion of the cast is created from the gypsum impression and represents the teeth and tissues; the art portion forms the base of the cast.
D Neither of these terms is used to describe the parts of a model.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 808            TOP:   Pouring Dental Models

 

  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the pouring methods used to create the base portion of a dental model?
a. The art portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used.
b. The completed box should extend at least 1 inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used.
c. The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large mixture of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step.
d. The “box” used in the box-and-pour method is made of baseplate wax.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The anatomical portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used.
B The completed box should extend at least ½ inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used.
C The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large mixture of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step.
D The “box” used in the box-and-pour method is a wax made specifically for that purpose, called boxing wax.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 809            TOP:   Inverted-Pour Method

 

  1. A trimmed maxillary model will be _____ at the anterior portion, and the mandibular model will be _____ at the anterior portion.
a. pointed; rounded c. rounded; rounded
b. rounded; pointed d. pointed; pointed

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The trimmed maxillary model will be pointed at the anterior portion, and the mandibular portion will be rounded at the anterior portion.
B The trimmed maxillary model will be pointed at the anterior portion, and the mandibular portion will be rounded at the anterior portion.
C The trimmed maxillary model will be pointed at the anterior portion, and the mandibular portion will be rounded at the anterior portion.
D The trimmed maxillary model will be pointed at the anterior portion, and the mandibular portion will be rounded at the anterior portion.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   pp. 812-813

TOP:   Procedure 47-4: Trimming and Finishing Dental Models

 

  1. When constructing ________ with a vacuum former, you will use a heavier-gauge, flexible plastic that does not require a spacer but does require an attachment for the strap.
a. an impression tray c. a vital bleaching tray
b. provisional coverage d. a mouth guard

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A When constructing an impression tray, you will use a rigid, heavy-gauge plastic that requires a spacer and a handle.
B When constructing provisional coverage, you will use a lighter-gauge plastic that does not require a spacer or handle.
C When constructing a vital bleaching tray, you will use a lighter-gauge plastic that does not require a spacer or a handle.
D When constructing a mouth guard with a vacuum former, you will use a heavier-gauge, flexible plastic that does not require a spacer but does require an attachment for the strap.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 814

TOP:   Vacuum-Formed Thermoplastic Resin

 

  1. The dental wax that is used for recording occlusal rims and for denture wax-ups and that is supplied in sheets is called ________ wax.
a. bite registration c. utility
b. baseplate d. boxing

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Bite registration wax is soft and may come in horseshoe-shaped wafers.
B Baseplate wax is used to record the occlusal rims for the initial arch form, for setting denture teeth, and for denture wax-up. Baseplate wax is supplied in sheets.
C Utility wax is supplied, depending on the intended use, in strips, sticks, or ropes.
D Boxing wax is supplied in long, narrow strips measuring 1 to 1½ inches wide and 12 to 18 inches long.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 821            TOP:   Baseplate Wax

 

  1. ________ wax is pre-formed with a thin sheet of aluminum foil between the layers.
a. Sticky c. Baseplate
b. Inlay casting d. Bite registration

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Sticky wax is a very brittle wax, but when heated it becomes very tacky and is useful in creating a wax pattern or joining acrylic resin together.
B Inlay casting wax is used to create a pattern of the indirect restoration on a model.
C Baseplate wax is used for the initial arch form for setting denture teeth.
D Bite registration wax is pre-formed with a thin sheet of aluminum foil between the layers.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 821            TOP:   Bite Registration Wax

 

  1. Type _____ baseplate wax is a softer wax used for denture construction.
a. I c. III
b. II

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Type I baseplate wax is a softer wax used for denture construction.
B Type II baseplate wax is a wax of medium hardness used in moderate climates.
C Type III baseplate wax is a harder wax for use in tropical climates.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 821            TOP:   Baseplate Wax

 

  1. Infection control in the dental laboratory is:
a. as important as it is when you are with a patient.
b. not as critical as it is when you are with a patient.
c. not a consideration because impressions are disinfected before entering the dental laboratory.
d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Infection control in the dental laboratory is as important as it is when you are with a patient. Items brought in are contaminated and exposure control is as important as it is in the treatment rooms.
B Infection control in the dental laboratory is as important as it is when you are with a patient. Items brought in are contaminated and exposure control is as important as it is in the treatment rooms.
C Infection control in the dental laboratory is as important as it is when you are with a patient. Items brought in are contaminated and exposure control is as important as it is in the treatment rooms.
D Infection control in the dental laboratory is as important as it is when you are with a patient. Items brought in are contaminated and exposure control is as important as it is in the treatment rooms.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 803            TOP:   Safety in the Laboratory

 

  1. Safety precautions in the laboratory include all except:
a. PPE should be worn while working in the laboratory.
b. manufacturer’s instructions should be followed for equipment operation.
c. this is the appropriate place for eating and drinking in the dental office.
d. the work areas should be kept clean before and after procedures.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A PPE should always be worn while working in the laboratory.
B Manufacturer’s instructions should be followed for equipment operation.
C No eating or drinking is permitted in the laboratory area.
D The work areas should be kept clean before and after procedures.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 803            TOP:   Safety in the Laboratory

 

  1. Which are methods used to protect against biohazard contamination from impressions?
a. Disinfecting impressions in the treatment room before bringing them to the laboratory
b. Disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items after use
c. Disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items before use
d. All are methods that can reduce contamination from impressions.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Disinfecting impressions in the treatment room before bringing them to the laboratory as well as disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items before and after use are all methods that can reduce contamination from impressions.
B Disinfecting impressions in the treatment room before bringing them to the laboratory as well as disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items before and after use are all methods that can reduce contamination from impressions.
C Disinfecting impressions in the treatment room before bringing them to the laboratory as well as disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items before and after use are all methods that can reduce contamination from impressions.
D Disinfecting impressions in the treatment room before bringing them to the laboratory as well as disinfecting laboratory benches and other contaminated items before and after use are all methods that can reduce contamination from impressions.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 803            TOP:   Safety in the Laboratory

 

  1. Water should be running through a model trimmer:
a. never. c. after trimming.
b. at all times when trimming. d. before trimming only.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Water should be running through the model trimmer at all times during the trimming process.
B Water should be running through the model trimmer at all times during the trimming process.
C Water should be running through the model trimmer at all times during the trimming process.
D Water should be running through the model trimmer at all times during the trimming process.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 803-804

TOP:   Dental Laboratory Equipment

 

  1. The _________ is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.
a. bite record c. centric relation
b. articulator d. both a and c

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A The bite record, or centric relation, is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.
B The bite record, or centric relation, is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.
C The bite record, or centric relation, is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.
D The bite record, or centric relation, is the measurement of where the teeth are positioned when the joints are aligned correctly and before the teeth actually come together.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 805            TOP:   Face Bow

 

  1. When mixing gypsum, it is important to use the correct amount of water and powder. If additional powder is added after mixing has begun, the mix will be:
a. stronger. c. unaffected.
b. weaker. d. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Using more powder at the beginning of the mix will strengthen a mix. However, adding more powder after the mix has begun will weaken it.
B When mixing gypsum, it is important to use the correct amount of water and powder. If additional powder is added after mixing has begun, the mix will be weakened.
C When mixing gypsum it is important to use the correct amount of water and powder. If additional powder is added after mixing has begun, the mix will be weakened.
D When mixing gypsum it is important to use the correct amount of water and powder. If additional powder is added after mixing has begun, the mix will be weakened.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 807

TOP:   Gypsum Products, Powder-to-Water Ratio

 

  1. The powder-to-water ratio for high-strength stone is ___:100.
a. 45 c. 19
b. 30 d. 12

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A 45:100 is the powder-to-water ratio for model plaster.
B 30:100 is the powder-to-water ratio for dental stone.
C The powder-to-water ratio for high-strength stone is 19:100.
D The powder-to-water ratio for high-strength stone is 19:100.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 807

TOP:   Gypsum Products, Powder-to-Water Ratio

 

  1. A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain ____ mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.
a. 1 to 2 c. 3 to 4
b. 2 to 3 d. 5 to 6

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain 3 to 4 mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.
B A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain 3 to 4 mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.
C A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain 3 to 4 mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.
D A custom impression tray should fit and adapt well to the model and should maintain 3 to 4 mm of impression material between itself and the teeth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 809

TOP:   Criteria for Creating Custom Tray Impressions

 

  1. The purpose of ________ is to prevent a custom impression tray from sitting too deeply when taking the impression.
a. a spacer c. undercuts
b. stops d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A A spacer creates room in the impression tray for the impression material.
B The purpose of stops is to prevent a custom impression tray from sitting too deeply when taking the impression.
C Undercuts are areas that need to be filled in before making a spacer.
D The purpose of stops is to prevent a custom impression tray from sitting too deeply when taking the impression. A spacer creates room in the impression tray for the impression material. Undercuts are areas that need to be filled in prior to making a spacer.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 813

TOP:   Guidelines for Creating a Custom Tray

 

  1. The first step in making a custom tray is to:
a. prepare the resin. c. prepare a diagnostic model.
b. make a spacer. d. place blockout material.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The first step in making a custom tray is to take an impression of the patient and fabricate a diagnostic model. After the model is made, blockout material is placed, a spacer is made, and the resin is prepared.
B The first step in making a custom tray is to take an impression of the patient and fabricate a diagnostic model. After the model is made, blockout material is placed, a spacer is made, and the resin is prepared.
C The first step in making a custom tray is to take an impression of the patient and fabricate a diagnostic model.
D The first step in making a custom tray is to take an impression of the patient and fabricate a diagnostic model. After the model is made blockout material is placed, a spacer is made, and the resin is prepared.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 809

TOP:   Criteria for Creating Custom Impression Trays

 

  1. The type of resin that is formed into a diagnostic model using heat and a vacuum is:
a. self-cured. c. thermoplastic.
b. light-cured. d. auto-cured.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A self-cured resin is also referred to as an auto-cured resin and sets by a chemical reaction.
B A light-cured resin requires the application of ultraviolet light to cure.
C The type of resin that is formed into a diagnostic model using heat and a vacuum is thermoplastic resin. It is heated with a vacuum former and molded into the desired shape.
D A self-cured resin is also referred to as an auto-cured resin and sets by a chemical reaction.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 814

TOP:   Vacuum-Formed Thermoplastic Resin

 

  1. A self-cured resin tray should be used:
a. after the heat has diminished. c. immediately after construction.
b. while it is giving off heat. d. after 24 hours.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A As a self-cured resin polymerizes, it gives off heat. After the heat diminishes, it can no longer be shaped and requires 24 hours to become dimensionally stable.
B As a self-cured resin polymerizes, it gives off heat. After the heat diminishes, it can no longer be shaped and requires 24 hours to become dimensionally stable.
C As a self-cured resin polymerizes, it gives off heat. After the heat diminishes, it can no longer be shaped and requires 24 hours to become dimensionally stable.
D As a self-cured resin polymerizes, it gives off heat. After the heat diminishes, it can no longer be shaped and requires 24 hours to become dimensionally stable.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 814            TOP:   Acrylic Resin Tray Material

 

  1. A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for:
a. bleaching trays. c. impression tray.
b. provisional coverage. d. both a and b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for bleaching trays and provisional coverage. A heavier resin is used for impression trays.
B A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for bleaching trays and provisional coverage. A heavier resin is used for impression trays.
C A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for bleaching trays and provisional coverage. A heavier resin is used for impression trays.
D A light gauge of vacuum-formed resin material is used for bleaching trays and provisional coverage. A heavier resin is used for impression trays.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 814

TOP:   Vacuum-Formed Thermoplastic Resin

 

  1. Light-cured resin can be used to make trays for ________ impressions.
a. edentulous c. partially edentulous
b. dentulous d. all types of impressions

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Light-cured resin can be used for edentulous, dentulous, and partially edentulous impressions.
B Light-cured resin can be used for edentulous, dentulous, and partially edentulous impressions.
C Light-cured resin can be used for edentulous, dentulous, and partially edentulous impressions.
D Light-cured resin can be used for edentulous, dentulous, and partially edentulous impressions.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 814

TOP:   Light-Cured Resin Tray Materials

 

  1. A dental assistant should wait _____ minutes before removing a model from an impression.
a. 10 c. 30
b. 15 d. 45 to 60

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A dental assistant should wait 45 to 60 minutes before removing a model from an impression.
B A dental assistant should wait 45 to 60 minutes before removing a model from an impression.
C A dental assistant should wait 45 to 60 minutes before removing a model from an impression.
D A dental assistant should wait 45 to 60 minutes before removing a model from an impression.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 811

TOP:   Procedure 47-3: Pouring Dental Models Using the Inverted-Pour Method

 

  1. When preparing impressions for pouring, it is important to:
a. dry the impression completely with a blast of air.
b. use a gentle stream of air to remove excess moisture.
c. have the impression saturated with moisture.
d. leave disinfecting solution in the impression.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Overdrying an impression will cause distortion.
B After the impression has been disinfected, it should be rinsed and a gentle stream of air should be used to remove excess moisture.
C Excess moisture should be removed by use of a gentle stream of air.
D After the impression has been disinfected, it should be rinsed and a gentle stream of air should be used to remove excess moisture.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 810

TOP:   Procedure 47-3: Pouring Dental Models Using the Inverted-Pour Method

 

  1. When positioning the bite-fork in the patient’s mouth during a face-bow registration, the patient should bite:
a. quickly. c. slowly.
b. firmly. d. and slide.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A When positioning the bite-fork in the patient’s mouth during a face-bow registration, the patient should bite slowly.
B When positioning the bite-fork in the patient’s mouth during a face-bow registration, the patient should bite slowly.
C When positioning the bite-fork in the patient’s mouth during a face-bow registration, the patient should bite slowly.
D When positioning the bite-fork in the patient’s mouth during a face-bow registration, the patient should bite slowly.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 806

TOP:   Procedure 47-1: Taking a Face-Bow Registration

 

  1. When taking a face-bow registration, the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with the patient’s:
a. midline. c. lower cuspid.
b. upper first molar. d. nose.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A When taking a face-bow registration, the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with the patient’s midline.
B When taking a face-bow registration, the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with the patient’s midline.
C When taking a face-bow registration, the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with the patient’s midline.
D When taking a face-bow registration, the vertical indicator rod should be aligned with the patient’s midline.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 806

TOP:   Procedure 47-1: Taking a Face-Bow Registration

 

  1. A plaster mix should not be:
a. completed in 2 minutes. c. completed in 30 seconds.
b. pressed lightly on the vibrator. d. mixed slowly.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A plaster mix should be completed in 2 minutes, mixed slowly, and pressed lightly on the vibrator.
B A plaster mix should be completed in 2 minutes, mixed slowly, and pressed lightly on the vibrator.
C A plaster mix should be completed in 2 minutes, mixed slowly, and pressed lightly on the vibrator.
D A plaster mix should be completed in 2 minutes, mixed slowly, and pressed lightly on the vibrator.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 808

TOP:   Procedure 47-2: Mixing Dental Plaster

 

  1. When pouring an impression, the plaster should not be placed:
a. in small increments. c. to the same place.
b. in large amounts. d. in a continuous flow.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A When pouring an impression the plaster should be placed in small increments, to the same place, to create a continuous flow.
B When pouring an impression, the plaster should be placed in small increments, to the same place, to create a continuous flow.
C When pouring an impression, the plaster should be placed in small increments, to the same place, to create a continuous flow.
D When pouring an impression, the plaster should be placed in small increments, to the same place, to create a continuous flow.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 810

TOP:   Procedure 47-3: Pouring Dental Models Using the Inverted-Pour Method

 

  1. Light-cured resin tray material should be cured:
a. for 10 minutes. c. for 2 minutes.
b. off the model. d. without the spacer.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Light-cured resin tray material should be cured for 2 minutes on the model with the spacer.
B Light-cured resin tray material should be cured for 2 minutes on the model with the spacer.
C Light-cured resin tray material should be cured for 2 minutes on the model with the spacer.
D Light-cured resin tray material should be cured for 2 minutes on the model with the spacer.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 818

TOP:   Procedure 47-6: Creating a Light-Cured Tray

 

  1. Before constructing a light-cured tray, paint the model with a(n):
a. adhesive. c. monomer.
b. plaster. d. separator.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Before constructing a light-cured tray, the model is painted with a separator.
B Before constructing a light-cured tray, the model is painted with a separator.
C Before constructing a light-cured tray, the model is painted with a separator.
D Before constructing a light-cured tray, the model is painted with a separator.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 817

TOP:   Procedure 47-6: Creating a Light-Cured Tray

 

  1. When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife after it has cured.
a. True b. False

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife before it has cured.
B When constructing custom trays it is best to remove excess material with a lab knife before it has cured.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 818

TOP:   Procedure 47-6: Creating a Light-Cured Tray

 

  1. A device that holds maxillary and mandibular models in an occlusal relationship is a(n):
a. face bow. c. bite block.
b. occlusal register. d. articulator.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A device that holds maxillary and mandibular models in an occlusal relationship is an articulator.
B A device that holds maxillary and mandibular models in an occlusal relationship is an articulator.
C A device that holds maxillary and mandibular models in an occlusal relationship is an articulator.
D A device that holds maxillary and mandibular models in an occlusal relationship is an articulator.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 805

TOP:   Dental Laboratory Equipment

 

  1. Air bubbles in a stone cast are caused by:
a. using a vibrator. c. impression material that is too thick.
b. adding stone in small increments. d. improper pouring of the impression.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Stone should be added in small increments, and a vibrator should be used to force the air to the surface.
B Stone should be added in small increments, and a vibrator should be used to force the air to the surface.
C The impression material used would not affect air bubbles in the cast.
D Improper pouring of the impression is the most probable cause of air bubbles. Stone should be added in small increments, and a vibrator should be used to force the air to the surface.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 808

TOP:   Procedure 47-2: Mixing Dental Plaster

Bird & Robinson: Modern Dental Assisting, 10th Edition

 

Chapter 59: Dental Sealants

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Properly placed dental sealants are ___% effective in protecting development of cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.
a. 70 c. 90
b. 80 d. 100

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Properly placed dental sealants are 100% effective in protecting development of cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.
B Properly placed dental sealants are 100% effective in protecting development of cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.
C Properly placed dental sealants are 100% effective in protecting development of cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.
D Properly placed dental sealants are 100% effective in protecting development of cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1017          TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. Sealants are indicated for:
a. children but not adults.
b. posterior but not anterior teeth.
c. the smooth surfaces of teeth but not pits and fissures.
d. pits and fissures.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Sealants are used primarily on children, but in certain circumstances adults can also benefit from their use. Sealants are indicated for some maxillary central and lateral incisors.
B Sealants are indicated for teeth with deep pits and fissures, preferably in recently erupted teeth (i.e., less than four years). The rationale for this is that teeth continue to mineralize following eruption and are most prone to decay immediately after eruption. Occasionally they may be used for lingual pits in anterior teeth.
C Sealants are indicated for teeth with deep pits and fissures.
D Sealants are indicated for pits and fissures.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018          TOP:   Indications for Sealants

 

  1. Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay, because:
a. proximal decay will spread to the occlusal surface.
b. posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.
c. sealants are placed on smooth surfaces and the proximal area is a smooth surface.
d. sealants are placed on smooth surfaces and the proximal area is a rough surface.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay, because posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.
B Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay, because posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.
C Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay, because posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.
D Contraindications to sealant placement include proximal decay, because posterior proximal tooth preparation will usually include the occlusal pits and fissures.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 1019-1020

TOP:   Contraindications to Sealants

 

  1. The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first ___ years of eruption.
a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 9

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first 3 years of eruption.
B The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first 3 years of eruption.
C The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first 3 years of eruption.
D The highest risk period for decay occurs within the first 3 years of eruption.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018

TOP:   Box: Indications for Sealant Placement

 

  1. The most common cause of sealant loss is:
a. use of unfilled material.
b. use of outdated material.
c. moisture contamination during placement.
d. bruxism.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The most common cause of sealant loss is moisture contamination during placement. Filled and unfilled sealants penetrate the fissures equally well. There is no difference in microleakage, and they have similar rates of retention.
B The most common cause of sealant loss is moisture contamination during placement.
C The most common cause of sealant loss is moisture contamination during placement.
D The most common cause of sealant loss is moisture contamination during placement. Bruxism, or the grinding of teeth, is not considered to be a cause of sealant loss.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1025          TOP:   Factors in Sealant Retention

 

  1. The first step in placing dental sealants is to _____ the surface.
a. etch c. clean
b. isolate d. prime

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Etching is the third step.
B Isolating the surface is the second step.
C The first step in the sealant process is to thoroughly clean the teeth to remove any plaque and debris from the occlusal surface.
D Priming the surface is not a step in the sealant procedure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1021

TOP:   Procedure 59-1: Application of Dental Sealants

 

  1. A sealant that is polymerized by chemical reactions is called:
a. acrylate. c. self-cured.
b. filled resin. d. unfilled resin.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Acrylate is a salt or ester of acrylic acid.
B A filled resin is a sealant material that contains filler particles.
C The type of material that is polymerized by chemical reaction is a self-cured resin.
D An unfilled resin is a sealant material that does not contain filler particles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1016          TOP:   Key Terms

 

  1. Self-cured sealant materials are supplied as a two-part system that includes:
a. a base. c. filled resins.
b. a catalyst. d. both a and b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A A base is one part of the two-part system, but this is not the only correct choice.
B A catalyst is one part of the two-part system, but this is not the only correct choice.
C Filled resins are not part of self-cured sealant materials.
D Self-cured resins are supplied as a two-part system.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1019          TOP:   Method of Polymerization

 

  1. The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with _____, to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
a. citric acid c. eugenol
b. phosphoric acid d. pumice

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Citric acid is sometimes used to treat root surfaces during periodontal therapy, but it is not used to etch teeth prior to placement of sealants. The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with phosphoric acid, to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
B The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with phosphoric acid, to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
C Eugenol is used in dental cement for its soothing, obtundant qualities, but it is not used to etch teeth prior to the placement of sealants. The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with phosphoric acid, to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.
D Pumice may be used to remove stain and prepare teeth for placement of sealants, but it is not used to etch teeth. The retention of the sealant is obtained by etching the enamel with phosphoric acid, to roughen it and open the pores in enamel for penetration of the resin sealant.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1020          TOP:   Placement Technique

 

  1. Enamel that has been etched has the appearance of being:
a. shiny. c. wet.
b. frosty. d. slightly yellow.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Etched enamel does not appear shiny, wet, or slightly yellow.
B Etched enamel appears frosty.
C Etched enamel does not appear shiny, wet, or slightly yellow.
D Etched enamel does not appear shiny, wet, or slightly yellow.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1022

TOP:   Procedure 59-1: Application of Dental Sealants

 

  1. Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to ____-containing products.
a. acrylate c. sodium bicarbonate
b. eugenol d. Bis-GMA

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to eugenol-containing products. Sealant material contains acrylate resins.
B Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to eugenol-containing products.
C Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to eugenol-containing products. Sodium bicarbonate may be used to clean fissures prior to the placement of sealant.
D Sealant material should not be stored in proximity to eugenol-containing products. Many current sealants are a form of flowable composite derived from Bis-GMA.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 1024          TOP:   Storage and Use

 

  1. The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is:
a. they are not recommended by the American Dental Association.
b. they have not been shown to significantly reduce decay.
c. lack of public awareness.
d. they are not effective for prevention of pit and fissure decay in posterior teeth.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Dental sealants are nontoxic and extremely effective and have been recommended by the American Dental Association for 20 years. The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is lack of public awareness.
B Dental sealants significantly reduce decay. The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is lack of public awareness.
C The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is lack of public awareness.
D Dental sealants significantly reduce decay. They are extremely effective for prevention of pit and fissure decay in posterior teeth. The primary reason why very few children are protected by dental sealants is lack of public awareness.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1025

TOP:   Legal and Ethical Implications

 

  1. Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will do which of the following?
  2. Promote microleakage.
  3. Arrest the progression of caries.
  4. Preserve existing restorations .
  5. Preserve tooth structure.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 4 d. 4 only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will: 1) reduce microleakage, 2) arrest the progression of caries, 3) preserve existing restorations, and 4) preserve tooth structure.
B Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will: 1) reduce microleakage, 2) arrest the progression of caries, 3) preserve existing restorations, and 4) preserve tooth structure.
C Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will: 1) reduce microleakage, 2) arrest the progression of caries, 3) preserve existing restorations, and 4) preserve tooth structure.
D Clinical researchers have shown that sealing the margins of amalgam and composite restorations with unfilled resins will: 1) reduce microleakage, 2) arrest the progression of caries, 3) preserve existing restorations, and 4) preserve tooth structure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1025          TOP:   Eye to the Future

 

  1. If you use an air polishing device that used sodium bicarbonate for cleaning enamel prior to sealant placement, the etching step should be repeated for a second time, or _____ should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water prior to applying the etch.
a. surgical soap c. 3% hydrogen peroxide
b. chlorhexidine d. sodium hypochlorite

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A A 3% hydrogen peroxide solution should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water before applying the etch.
B A 3% hydrogen peroxide solution should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water before applying the etch.
C A 3% hydrogen peroxide solution should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water before applying the etch.
D A 3% hydrogen peroxide solution should be applied to the surface for 10 seconds to neutralize the sodium bicarbonate and then thoroughly rinsed off with water before applying the etch.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Difficult         REF:   p. 1021

TOP:   Procedure 59-1: Application of Dental Sealants

 

  1. Utilization of sealants is only about ____% in low-income children.
a. 50 c. 15
b. 75 d. 30

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Utilization of sealants is only about 30 percent; this high-risk group that could benefit greatly from sealants.
B Utilization of sealants is only about 30 percent; this high-risk group that could benefit greatly from sealants.
C Utilization of sealants is only about 30 percent; this high-risk group that could benefit greatly from sealants.
D Utilization of sealants is only about 30 percent; this high-risk group that could benefit greatly from sealants.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1017          TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. Which is not a reason that pits and fissures are more susceptible to decay than smooth surfaces?
a. They do not benefit from the effects of fluoride.
b. The enamel at the base of fissures is thinner.
c. Saliva cannot clean deep pits and fissures.
d. All are reasons pits and fissures are susceptible.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Pit and fissures are more susceptible to decay than smooth surfaces because the enamel is thinner at the base of the fissure, saliva cannot clean deep pits, and fluoride is not as readily absorbed.
B Pit and fissures are more susceptible to decay than smooth surfaces because the enamel is thinner at the base of the fissure, saliva cannot clean deep pits, and fluoride is not as readily absorbed.
C Pit and fissures are more susceptible to decay than smooth surfaces because the enamel is thinner at the base of the fissure, saliva cannot clean deep pits, and fluoride is not as readily absorbed.
D Pit and fissures are more susceptible to decay than smooth surfaces because the enamel is thinner at the base of the fissure, saliva cannot clean deep pits, and fluoride is not as readily absorbed.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1017          TOP:   Introduction

 

  1. Which is true regarding a properly placed sealant over small initial carious lesions?
a. The decay will continue to develop under the sealant.
b. Bacteria can survive under a sealant.
c. The number of bacteria in small carious lesions decreases over time.
d. The number of bacteria in small carious lesions increases over time.

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A The decay will not continue to develop under the sealant.
B Bacteria can survive under a sealant.
C The number of bacteria in small carious lesions that had been properly placed decreases dramatically over time.
D The number of bacteria in small carious lesions that had been properly placed decreases dramatically over time.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018          TOP:   Dental Caries and Sealants

 

  1. The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is:
a. the type of material used. c. that the patient be recalled.
b. that it be properly placed. d. that the child continues to brush.

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is that it be properly placed.
B The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is that it be properly placed.
C The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is that it be properly placed.
D The single most important factor in the success of a sealant is that it be properly placed.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018          TOP:   Dental Caries and Sealants

 

  1. Which teeth would be the most likely candidates for sealants?
a. Premolars
b. Teeth that are well coalesced
c. Teeth that have been erupted for six years
d. Primary molars with deep pits and fissures

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Premolars are not high risk teeth.
B Teeth that are well coalesced are not likely candidates.
C Sealants are indicated for teeth with deep pits and fissures, preferably in recently erupted teeth, meaning within the previous 4 years.
D Even though primary molars are flatter if pits and fissures are deep, primary molars should be sealed.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018          TOP:   Indications for Sealants

 

  1. Which is an indication for sealants?
a. Presence of small interproximal decay c. Adjacent teeth with occlusal decay
b. A partially erupted tooth d. Patient has adequate fluoride program

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Teeth that have presence of interproximal decay should not be sealed.
B Partially erupted teeth cannot be properly sealed.
C When the teeth beside the tooth in question have fillings or need fillings, that tooth may also develop decay.
D Sealants work best in conjunction with a fluoride program.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1018          TOP:   Indications for Sealants

 

  1. Dental sealants replace other preventive care.
a. True b. False

 

 

ANS:  B

 

  Feedback
A Dental sealants are an additional part of a patient’s overall preventive care.
B Dental sealants are an additional part of a patient’s overall preventive care.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Easy               REF:   p. 1019          TOP:   Contraindications to Sealants

 

  1. An advantage of a tinted sealant material over clear or colorless material is that it:
a. is easier to see during application. c. is stronger.
b. aids in recall checks for sealant retention. d. both a and b.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Tinted sealant material is easier to see during application and recall checks for sealant retention.
B Tinted sealant material is easier to see during application and recall checks for sealant retention.
C Tinted sealants are not stronger than clear or colorless sealants.
D Tinted sealant material is easier to see during application and recall checks for sealant retention.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1019          TOP:   Color

 

  1. Filled sealant resins, as compared with unfilled:
a. require occlusal adjustment. c. may be visible on x-rays.
b. have a lower wear rate. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Filled sealant resins, as compared with unfilled, require occlusal adjustment, have a lower wear rate, and are visible on x-rays.
B Filled sealant resins, as compared with unfilled, require occlusal adjustment, have a lower wear rate, and are visible on x-rays.
C Filled sealant resins, as compared with unfilled, require occlusal adjustment, have a lower wear rate, and are visible on x-rays.
D Filled sealant resins as compared with unfilled require occlusal adjustment, have a lower wear rate, and are visible on x-rays.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   pp. 1019-1020

TOP:   Fillers

 

  1. The technique error most commonly leading to failure is:
a. moisture. c. not using enough material.
b. fail to cure properly. d. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:  A

 

  Feedback
A Moisture from saliva or failure to keep the area totally dry is the leading reason why sealants fail.
B Moisture from saliva or failure to keep the area totally dry is the leading reason why sealants fail.
C Moisture from saliva or failure to keep the area totally dry is the leading reason why sealants fail.
D Moisture from saliva or failure to keep the area totally dry is the leading reason why sealants fail.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1020          TOP:   Placement Technique

 

  1. _____ can be used in interproximal spaces to prevent the etchant from contacting adjacent teeth during the etching procedure.
a. Dental floss c. Mylar strips
b. Wedges d. Any of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Mylar strips can be used in interproximal spaces to prevent etchant from contacting adjacent teeth during the etching procedure.
B Mylar strips can be used in interproximal spaces to prevent etchant from contacting adjacent teeth during the etching procedure.
C Mylar strips can be used in interproximal spaces to prevent etchant from contacting adjacent teeth during the etching procedure.
D Mylar strips can be used in interproximal spaces to prevent etchant from contacting adjacent teeth during the etching procedure.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1023

TOP:   Preventing Problems with Sealants

 

  1. _______ is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
a. Rubber cup polishing c. Microabrasion
b. Bristle-brush polishing d. Scaling

 

 

ANS:  C

 

  Feedback
A Microabrasion is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
B Microabrasion is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
C Microabrasion is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.
D Microabrasion is sometimes used before sealant application to open fissures and remove slight decay.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1024          TOP:   Microabrasion

 

  1. Which of the following indicates a sealant may have to be replaced or adjusted?
a. The explore catches.
b. Floss does not easily pass through contact.
c. The shine is not even.
d. All of the above are indications.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A When checking a sealant it should be shiny across the entire surface, it should be smooth and not catch with an explorer, and floss should run through the contacts easily.
B When checking a sealant it should be shiny across the entire surface, it should be smooth and not catch with an explorer, and floss should run through the contacts easily.
C When checking a sealant it should be shiny across the entire surface, it should be smooth and not catch with an explorer, and floss should run through the contacts easily.
D When checking a sealant it should be shiny across the entire surface, it should be smooth and not catch with an explorer, and floss should run through the contacts easily.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1023

TOP:   Procedure 59-1: Application of Dental Sealants

 

  1. What is the claimed benefit of fluoride-released sealant materials?
a. They are of no value.
b. They create a fluoride-rich layer that may make pits and fissures more resistant to decay.
c. They aid in rematerializing incipient decay.
d. Both b and c are benefits.

 

 

ANS:  D

 

  Feedback
A Fluoride-released sealant materials create a fluoride-rich layer that may make pits and fissures more resistant to decay and aid in rematerializing incipient decay.
B Fluoride-released sealant materials create a fluoride-rich layer that may make pits and fissures more resistant to decay and aid in rematerializing incipient decay
C Fluoride-released sealant materials create a fluoride-rich layer that may make pits and fissures more resistant to decay and aid in rematerializing incipient decay
D Fluoride-released sealant materials create a fluoride-rich layer that may make pits and fissures more resistant to decay and aid in rematerializing incipient decay.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Medium         REF:   p. 1024          TOP:   Fluoride Release