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Organizational Behavior 17th Edition by Stephen P. Robbins – Test Bank 
 
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 1   What Is Organizational Behavior?

 

1) A survey of over 2,100 CFOs across 20 industries indicated that a lack of interpersonal skills is the top reason why some employees fail to advance.

 

2) Discuss the growing importance of interpersonal skills in the workplace.

 

3) ________ get things done through other people. They make decisions, allocate resources, and direct the activities of others to attain goals.

  1. A) Assistants
  2. B) Managers
  3. C) Secretaries
  4. D) Interns
  5. E) Apprentices

4) Sally Mitchell works as a manager at an environmental organization. She is currently working on a global warming project and decides which tasks related to creating awareness about the issue need to be done. In addition, she is also deciding which members of her team will work on engaging with the public and which will work on lobbying with the government. She is also assigning people as team members to ensure that tasks are undertaken on time. Which of the following categories of functions is Mitchell undertaking?

  1. A) planning
  2. B) organizing
  3. C) scrutinizing
  4. D) controlling
  5. E) envisioning

 

5) Johanna Reid, a campaign manager at a child rights organization, recently started working on an illiteracy project. During the project, she needs to motivate team members to attain their project milestones and direct them through different phases of the project. Which of the following kinds of functions will these tasks be covered under?

  1. A) planning
  2. B) organizing
  3. C) scrutinizing
  4. D) evaluating
  5. E) leading

 

6) Lesley Torres is a project manager for the campaign “Action against Deforestation in Indonesia.” She recently faced a glitch when the campaign could not be launched publicly according to schedule. Torres monitored the schedule to find the cause of the delay before speeding up the implementation process by allocating more members for the implementation phase. By doing this, which of the following functions is she performing?

  1. A) controlling
  2. B) planning
  3. C) formulating
  4. D) leading
  5. E) organizing

 

7) Which of the following functions do managers undertake as part of planning functions?

  1. A) defining an organization’s goals
  2. B) implementing strategies for achieving goals
  3. C) executing plans to integrate activities
  4. D) accomplishing goals of a project
  5. E) employing strategies to coordinate tasks

 

8) According to Henry Mintzberg, a factory supervisor giving a group of high school students a tour of the plant may be termed as a ________.

  1. A) leader
  2. B) figurehead
  3. C) resource allocator
  4. D) negotiator
  5. E) disturbance handler

9) Ellen Ortiz works as a sales manager at a telecom firm. The company has recently launched a new product in the market. Her work in the next few weeks involves sharing knowledge about the product with her team members. She will also need to inspire them to reach their sales targets and clarify any doubts about the new product. Which of the following roles is Ortiz playing?

  1. A) leader
  2. B) liaison
  3. C) disseminator
  4. D) spokesperson
  5. E) negotiator

 

10) Regina George works as a campaign manager in a not-for-profit organization in Hampshire. For the upcoming campaign against genetic engineering, she is networking with managers who are working on the issue of food safety. Through her network of contacts, she strives to gain information about the stakeholders in the food industry and other lobby groups. Which of the following roles is George most likely to be playing according to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles?

  1. A) figurehead
  2. B) leader
  3. C) liaison
  4. D) entrepreneur
  5. E) resource allocator

 

11) Annette Simpson works for a fashion house in Paris and is preparing for the company’s upcoming line of winter clothing. She is currently researching online to know what is in vogue this season. In addition, she is also networking with contacts from the press and fashion magazine editors to understand the changing tastes of consumers. Which of the following roles is Simpson playing according to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles?

  1. A) figurehead
  2. B) leader
  3. C) symbol head
  4. D) monitor
  5. E) spokesperson

 

12) According to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to transmit information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the organization.

  1. A) entrepreneur
  2. B) resource allocator
  3. C) spokesperson
  4. D) leader
  5. E) disseminator

13) The role of a(n) ________, according to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, is to transmit information to outsiders about an organization’s plans, policies, actions, and results and to serve as an expert in the organization’s industry.

  1. A) spokesperson
  2. B) disturbance handler
  3. C) entrepreneur
  4. D) leader
  5. E) liaison

14) According to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, a(n) ________ searches the organization and its environment for opportunities and initiates projects to bring about change.

  1. A) spokesperson
  2. B) disturbance handler
  3. C) entrepreneur
  4. D) resource allocator
  5. E) negotiator

 

15) According to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to make or approve significant organizational decisions and assign human, physical, and monetary assets.

  1. A) disseminator
  2. B) liaison
  3. C) entrepreneur
  4. D) resource allocator
  5. E) disturbance handlers

Quest. Category:  Concept

16) According to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, which of the following is a kind of interpersonal role?

  1. A) monitor
  2. B) disseminator
  3. C) spokesperson
  4. D) entrepreneur
  5. E) liaison

 

17) According to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles, which of the following is a kind of decisional role?

  1. A) negotiator
  2. B) disseminator
  3. C) liaison
  4. D) spokesperson
  5. E) monitor

 

18) The role of a(n) ________ is a type of informational role according to Mintzberg’s classification of managerial roles.

  1. A) figurehead
  2. B) disseminator
  3. C) liaison
  4. D) entrepreneur
  5. E) negotiator

19) Which of the following is true regarding technical skills?

  1. A) They can be learned only through formal education.
  2. B) They encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge.
  3. C) They are not required at all kinds of jobs.
  4. D) They are monopolized by professionals.
  5. E) They comprise the ability to understand and motivate people.

 

20) The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both individually and in groups, may be defined as ________.

  1. A) human skills
  2. B) technical skills
  3. C) conceptual skills
  4. D) cognitive skills
  5. E) analytical skills

 

21) Melissa Woods was recently hired as the campaign manager at an environmental organization. She has a degree in environmental sustainability and possesses substantial knowledge about the issue of global warming. She has the knowledge to lead the public relations team of the organization. However, a few months later, the board of directors of the organization expressed dissatisfaction with Melissa’s performance and asked her to resign. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation?

  1. A) Melissa had no prior experience in research and development.
  2. B) Melissa had weak interpersonal and networking skills to run the project.
  3. C) Melissa focused on the results her team achieved rather than how they achieved those results.
  4. D) Melissa is not up-to-date about the feasibility of using different modes of renewable energy.
  5. E) Melissa had a diverse network of contacts established from her previous job.

22) Joann Hayes is currently working on a project to tackle climate change. During the project, she needs to find different options to replace the use of non-renewable energy and check the feasibility of different renewable energy options before choosing the most practical one. Which of the following skills does Hayes primarily need to use for these tasks?

  1. A) human skills
  2. B) interpersonal skills
  3. C) conceptual skills
  4. D) communication skills
  5. E) interactive skills

 

23) 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong networking and interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Laura’s argument?

  1. A) Gaining the support of corporate giants would comprise a large part of the job.
  2. B) Jessica will need to prepare extensive reports about the issue of climate change.
  3. C) The role will require Jessica to give presentations to environmental experts on renewable modes of energy.
  4. D) Jessica had negligible experience in research and development.
  5. E) Jessica has weak analytical skills to solve problems associated with implementing options of renewable energy.

24) 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Laura’s argument?

  1. A) Jessica was unable to fare well in the written test which analyzed her conceptual skills.
  2. B) Jessica listened intently to the interviewers’ questions before answering them.
  3. C) Jessica was unable to communicate clearly why she was right for the job.
  4. D) Jessica was very friendly and courteous with the receptionist while greeting her.
  5. E) Jessica was high on confidence about getting the job because of her strong networking skills.

 

25) According to Fred Luthans and his associates, managers involved in traditional management activities undertook which of the following tasks?

  1. A) motivating
  2. B) socializing
  3. C) decision making
  4. D) training
  5. E) politicking

26) According to Fred Luthans and his associates’ study of 450 managers, ________ made the largest contribution to the success of managers in terms of speed of promotion within their organization.

  1. A) networking
  2. B) decision making
  3. C) planning
  4. D) controlling
  5. E) staffing

 

27) According to Fred Luthans and his associates, managers who are involved in networking activities are most likely to undertake which of the following?

  1. A) planning
  2. B) decision making
  3. C) controlling
  4. D) politicking
  5. E) staffing

 

28) Which of the following best defines organizational behavior?

  1. A) It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining.
  2. B) It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company’s output.
  3. C) It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives.
  4. D) It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior-level employees.
  5. E) It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.

29) Which of the following determinants of behavior does organizational behavior study?

  1. A) profits
  2. B) job satisfaction
  3. C) perks
  4. D) individuals
  5. E) collective bargaining

 

30) An organization is a consciously coordinated social unit composed of two or more people.

 

31) The planning function involves defining an organization’s goals and establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals.

 

32) A degree in architecture will provide a student with the human skills required for a job.

 

33) How are the management functions of planning, organizing, and leading different from one another? Explain.

 

34) Samantha Reeves works as a sales manager at Synergy Bank. Explain the nature of tasks she would be performing according to Mintzberg’s concept of leadership role.

 

35) According to Mintzberg, how does the monitor role differ from the disseminator role?

 

36) How do Mintzberg’s roles of a liaison, spokesperson, and entrepreneur differ from one another? Explain.

37) What are conceptual skills? How are they different from human skills?

 

38) What is organizational behavior?

 

39) Which of the following does systematic study use to look at relationships to attribute causes and effects?

  1. A) intuitive data
  2. B) feelings
  3. C) scientific data
  4. D) instinct
  5. E) premonition

40) Which of the following is true regarding systematic study?

  1. A) It attributes causes and effects based on intuition.
  2. B) It involves supporting decisions based on gut feelings.
  3. C) It analyzes relationships based on previous experiences.
  4. D) It involves analyzing relationships based on scientific data.
  5. E) It involves taking action based on instinct.

 

41) In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement intuitive opinions with information derived from ________.

  1. A) common sense
  2. B) direct observation
  3. C) systematic study
  4. D) speculation
  5. E) organizational theory

 

 

42) Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence, all constitute aspects of ________ study.

  1. A) organizational
  2. B) intuitive
  3. C) theoretical
  4. D) systematic
  5. E) case-based

43) ________ refers to basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific proof.

  1. A) Emergency management
  2. B) Personal knowledge management
  3. C) Property management
  4. D) Evidence-based management
  5. E) Knowledge management

 

44) ________ refers to a gut feeling not necessarily supported by research.

  1. A) Intuition
  2. B) Reasoning
  3. C) Rationality
  4. D) Logic
  5. E) Inference

45) Organizational behavior applies the knowledge gained about individuals, groups, and the effect of structure on behavior in order to make organizations work more effectively.

 

46) Evidence-based management complements systematic study by basing managerial decisions on the best available scientific evidence.

47) Why is it important to complement intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations?

 

48) What is evidence-based management (EBM)?

 

49) ________ seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

  1. A) Meteorology
  2. B) Theology
  3. C) Epistemology
  4. D) Lexicology
  5. E) Psychology

50) Which of the following disciplines blends concepts from both psychology and sociology to focus on people’s influence on one another?

  1. A) social psychology
  2. B) cosmology
  3. C) parapsychology
  4. D) lexicology
  5. E) eschatology

 

51) Which of the following is a difference between sociology and psychology?

  1. A) Sociology studies humans and animals whereas psychology focuses exclusively on humans.
  2. B) Sociology studies people in relation to their social culture whereas psychology focuses on the individual.
  3. C) Sociology incorporates research from social sciences, philosophy, and natural sciences; psychology does not.
  4. D) Sociology uses various methods of empirical investigation whereas psychology uses limited critical analyses.
  5. E) Sociology uses only qualitative techniques whereas psychology uses both qualitative and quantitative techniques.

 

52) ________ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities.

  1. A) Anthropology
  2. B) Deontology
  3. C) Epistemology
  4. D) Agnotology
  5. E) Dysteleology

53) Which of the following fields of study is most likely to involve studying organizational culture, formal organization theory, and structure?

  1. A) sociology
  2. B) deontology
  3. C) epistemology
  4. D) agnotology
  5. E) dysteleology

 

54) Austin Reed is a graduate student helping to organize a study on individual job satisfaction. The study focuses on the top five causes of satisfaction or dissatisfaction on the job. His department is surveying 200 individuals in 100 different types of organizations. Austin is most likely a graduate student in the department of ________.

  1. A) psychology
  2. B) anthropology
  3. C) political science
  4. D) entomology
  5. E) archaeology

55) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. Which faculty member is most likely to furnish information about personality, learning, and motivation?

  1. A) sociology
  2. B) psychology
  3. C) anthropology
  4. D) political science
  5. E) industrial engineering

56) Myriam is analyzing the gender roles of men and women in management in the United States and comparing them to the gender roles in management in Japan. She is surveying fifty male and fifty female managers in each country to compare their daily behavior. Myriam’s study exemplifies how ________ contributes to OB.

  1. A) anthropology
  2. B) psychology
  3. C) archaeology
  4. D) political science
  5. E) corporate strategy

57) One major study area of social psychology is change, how to implement it, and how to reduce barriers to its acceptance.

 

58) While sociology focuses on the individual, psychology studies people in relation to their social environment or culture.

59) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals.

60) Entomology is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities.

 

61) How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior?

62) Compare and contrast the fields of psychology, social psychology, and sociology.

 

63) Which of the following is true regarding contingency variables?

  1. A) They refer to situational factors that moderate the relationship between two or more variables.
  2. B) They make simple, accurate, and sweeping generalizations about concepts in organizational behavior.
  3. C) They indicate that everyone is motivated by money and financial perks.
  4. D) They refer to scientific factors which are based on universal truths.
  5. E) They remain constant irrespective of any change in the environment.

64) Raymond Mayer is conducting a study on discrimination against campaign activists based on gender. In his study, he noted that male executives who visited Indonesian villages to promote the use of renewable energy received a highly positive response. In contrast, women who visited the same villages received an antagonistic response. However, Mayer stated that his findings only applied to villages. In this study, the presence of a village is considered a ________ variable.

  1. A) global
  2. B) general
  3. C) dependent
  4. D) non-reactive
  5. E) contingency

65) ________ variables are variables that moderate the relationship between two or more variables.

  1. A) Global
  2. B) General
  3. C) Dependent
  4. D) Non-reactive
  5. E) Contingency

 

66) Human beings are simple in nature and, thus, simple, universal principles explain all kinds of organizational behavior.

67) Organizational behavior cannot offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior or make valid predictions.

68) Why do only a few absolutes apply to organizational behavior?

 

69) Which of the following is a result of globalization?

  1. A) organizations being bound by national borders
  2. B) lower production of goods in developing nations
  3. C) highly homogeneous workforce
  4. D) shared social value among all cultures
  5. E) jobs moving to nations with low-cost labor

70) Managers who oversee the movement of jobs to countries with low-cost labor are most likely to ________.

  1. A) provide poor customer service
  2. B) face opposition from labor groups
  3. C) manage a culturally homogeneous workforce
  4. D) operate in niche markets
  5. E) lose competitive advantage by exporting jobs

71) The bookselling industry was revolutionized by ________.

  1. A) Mintzberg’s Theory of Management
  2. B) evidence-based management
  3. C) Luthan’s findings on management behavior
  4. D) intuition
  5. E) the availability of Big Data

72) Gould Furniture is one of the leading furniture companies in Indonesia. In the past, the company had a homogeneous workforce of Indonesian employees. The company is desperate to cut operating and manufacturing costs and, hence, is considering outsourcing part of the manufacturing process to low-cost Vietnam. However, local community leaders across the country are strongly opposing this decision. They believe that exporting jobs to other countries is detrimental to their country in every way possible. Which of the following, if true, is the flaw in the local community leaders’ opinion?

  1. A) The country has one of the lowest rates of employment in Asia.
  2. B) Over 85 percent of Indonesia’s revenue comes from agriculture.
  3. C) The furniture market contributes to 20 percent of deforestation in the country.
  4. D) The government of Indonesia provides substantial subsidies to start-up companies.
  5. E) Gould Furniture has alliances with local furniture companies in Vietnam.

73) ________ refers to the heterogeneity of organizations in terms of gender, age, race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, and inclusion of other diverse groups.

  1. A) Workforce associability
  2. B) Workforce diversity
  3. C) Cultural similarity
  4. D) Organizational congruity
  5. E) Operational homogeneity

74) By 2020, the 55-and-older age group of the U.S. labor force will represent approximately ________ of the total labor force.

  1. A) one-quarter
  2. B) one-third
  3. C) one-half
  4. D) two-thirds
  5. E) three-quarters

 

75) A common characteristic of service jobs is that they ________.

  1. A) need substantial interaction with an organization’s customers
  2. B) offer much higher pay in comparison with other non-service jobs
  3. C) have fewer working hours than other jobs
  4. D) require very little job knowledge compared to other jobs
  5. E) provide more perks and benefits to employees

 

76) Which of the following is an example of a position in a service job?

  1. A) human resource executive
  2. B) administrative executive
  3. C) flight attendant
  4. D) environmental campaigner
  5. E) production line worker

77) Which of the following is not a reality for today’s workforce?

  1. A) Many workers never get away from the virtual workplace.
  2. B) Organizations are asking employees to put in longer hours.
  3. C) Employees have fewer outside commitments.
  4. D) Issues related to well-being have dropped as the number of employees who work at home rises.
  5. E) The line between work and non-work time has become blurred.

78) Recent studies show ________.

  1. A) the line between work and non-work is becoming less blurred
  2. B) most employees are achieving a better work-life balance
  3. C) money and recognition define career success above all else
  4. D) the majority of men and women rank autonomy as the number one indicator of career success
  5. E) attaining a balance between personal life and work is a primary career goal

79) Which of the following terms best describes organizations that allow people to communicate and work together even though they may be thousands of miles apart?

  1. A) networked organizations
  2. B) hierarchical organizations
  3. C) matrix organizations
  4. D) stable organizations
  5. E) flat organizations

80) Which of the following is the major challenge for managers in a fully networked organization?

  1. A) eliminating the need for paper communication by relying entirely on e-mail, file transfers, and the like
  2. B) retaining team members who can easily move to another employer when demand for their services changes
  3. C) managing contract and temporary workers
  4. D) maintaining a “virtual office” through the use of computers, interoffice networks, and the Internet
  5. E) managing people who work together but are geographically separated

 

81) Christopher Richardson works as a graphic designer in Sydney. He often coordinates with colleagues working in Germany. In addition, he interacts with clients across the globe. Which of the following is most likely to facilitate his communications with clients and colleagues?

  1. A) ergonomic cubicle
  2. B) lateral thinking
  3. C) sensemaking
  4. D) systems thinking
  5. E) networked organization

 

82) Which of the following is a cause of work-life conflicts?

  1. A) global organizations
  2. B) sensemaking
  3. C) privatization of essential industries
  4. D) downshifting
  5. E) use of self-managed teams

83) Which of the following is true regarding positive organizational scholarship?

  1. A) It involves monitoring negative practices in organizations and rectifying them.
  2. B) It deals with how employees should analyze weaknesses and convert them into strengths.
  3. C) It studies how organizations develop human strengths, foster vitality, and unlock potential.
  4. D) It dwells on limitations that an organization faces and how it can turn them into opportunities.
  5. E) It involves scrutinizing loopholes in organizational practices and filling gaps in processes.

 

84) ________ is a key independent variable in positive organizational behavior research.

  1. A) Engagement
  2. B) Apathy
  3. C) Despair
  4. D) Constraint
  5. E) Pessimism

85) The concept of “reflected best-self” involves ________.

  1. A) focusing on eliminating shortcomings to bring out the best in oneself
  2. B) making employees aware of their weaknesses and rectifying them
  3. C) observing and monitoring drawbacks of a team and then increasing their efficiency with the help of adequate training
  4. D) asking employees to think about when they were at their personal best in order to exploit their strengths
  5. E) studying industry-wide best practices and then implementing it

86) Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma?

  1. A) Should I work extra hours to complete my assignment?
  2. B) Should I e-mail my manager about queries on the project?
  3. C) Should I discuss with the management the perks being offered?
  4. D) Should I ask my manager for leave during Christmas?
  5. E) Should I play politics to advance my career?

 

87) The Royal Bank of Canada story highlights several issues of interest to those seeking to understand organizational behavior, including motivation, ethics, emotions, personality, and culture.

 

88) Managers at global companies have realized that economic values are generally transferable across national boundaries.

89) Workforce diversity refers to how organizations are becoming more homogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity.

90) The job of a guest relations executive at a hotel is a kind of service job.

 

91) Evidence that an organization is able to exist and grow over the long term is called organizational survival.

 

92) A way for managers to respond to the problem of unethical behavior is to provide in-house advisors who can be contacted anonymously.

 

93) Explain workforce diversity and the key managerial skills for dealing with workforce diversity. What are two trends in workforce demographics?

 

94) Explain the meaning of Big Data and discuss how its increased availability has led to new privacy concerns.

95) Using the concept of organizational survival, how would you define what makes an organization successful? Why is organizational survival important to defining organizational success?

 

96) A(n) ________ is an abstraction of reality, a simplified representation of some real-world phenomenon.

  1. A) model
  2. B) input
  3. C) process
  4. D) outcome
  5. E) objective

97) Which of the following is true regarding models?

  1. A) Models propose five types of variables.
  2. B) Models proceed from outcomes to processes.
  3. C) Models are used only in manufacturing organizations.
  4. D) Models proceed from processes to inputs.
  5. E) Models show that outcomes can influence inputs in the future.

98) With reference to a basic OB model, ________ are determined in advance of the employment relationship and refer to variables such as personality, group structure, and organizational culture that lead to processes.

  1. A) actions
  2. B) inputs
  3. C) outcomes
  4. D) processes
  5. E) goals

 

99) Which of the following is an example of an input at an individual level?

  1. A) motivation
  2. B) moods
  3. C) values
  4. D) perception
  5. E) emotions

 

100) An example of an input at an organizational level is ________.

  1. A) motivation
  2. B) conflict
  3. C) power
  4. D) communication
  5. E) structure

101) Which of the following is one of the three variables proposed by a basic OB model which refers to actions that individuals, groups, and organizations engage in as a result of inputs?

  1. A) processes
  2. B) scrutinization
  3. C) planning
  4. D) association
  5. E) evaluation

 

102) Which of the following is an example of a process at an individual level?

  1. A) group cohesion
  2. B) values
  3. C) decision making
  4. D) withdrawal behavior
  5. E) power and politics

103) An example of a process at a group level is ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) communication
  3. C) values
  4. D) culture
  5. E) emotions

104) Which of the following is an example of a process at the organizational level?

  1. A) attitudes and stress
  2. B) withdrawal behavior
  3. C) emotions and moods
  4. D) change of practices
  5. E) team responsibilities

 

105) ________ is an example of an outcome at the organizational level.

  1. A) Profitability
  2. B) Diversity
  3. C) Personality
  4. D) Mood
  5. E) Culture

 

106) Which of the following is an example of an outcome at an individual level?

  1. A) structure
  2. B) culture
  3. C) politics
  4. D) power
  5. E) attitude

107) The discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job requirements and that contributes to the psychological and social environment of the workplace is called ________ behavior.

  1. A) withdrawal
  2. B) associative
  3. C) networked
  4. D) citizenship
  5. E) cohesive

 

108) Group ________ is the extent to which members of a group support and validate one another at work.

  1. A) affect
  2. B) associability
  3. C) think
  4. D) cohesion
  5. E) maturity

109) The discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job requirements and that contributes to the psychological and social environment of the workplace is called cohesive behavior.

 

110) Group functioning refers to the quantity and quality of a group’s work output.

111) What is withdrawal behavior? Explain.

112) What is citizenship behavior?

 

113) What is group cohesion?

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 2   Diversity in Organizations

 

1) Kimberly Ortiz strongly believes in working for a company that promotes diversity. She believes that such organizations are respectful of differences and allow employees more exposure. She recently attended an interview where she was told that the company follows policies that focus on organizational diversity. However, when she finally joined the company, she had a strong feeling that the company’s claim was not true. Which of the following, if true, weakens Kimberly’s belief that the company does not encourage diversity?

  1. A) Eighty-five percent of the top management positions in the company are held by men.
  2. B) She is the only African-American member in the entire workforce.
  3. C) The workforce is not dominated by any specific ethnic or racial group.
  4. D) The previous company she worked for made a conscious effort to employ an equal number of men and women.
  5. E) Her team members believe that they are treated equally in spite of differences in performance.

 

2) ________ diversity refers to diversity in observable attributes such as race, ethnicity, sex, and age.

  1. A) Psychographic
  2. B) Additive
  3. C) Surface-level
  4. D) Disjunctive
  5. E) Conjunctive

3) Which of the following is true with respect to surface-level diversity?

  1. A) It refers to psychographic characteristics of the members of a group.
  2. B) People with surface-level diversity will also share deep-level diversity.
  3. C) It indicates differences of values, emotions and personality traits between people.
  4. D) It refers to differences in easily perceived characteristics, such as gender and race.
  5. E) It represents a person’s or group’s thought processes and feelings.

4) Differences in ________ indicate surface-level diversity.

  1. A) personality
  2. B) values
  3. C) style of work
  4. D) ethnicity
  5. E) attitudes

 

5) Which of the following most likely indicates surface-level similarity?

  1. A) Tim and Jake are colleagues who take risks and are quick decision makers.
  2. B) The employees at GenSys prefer teamwork over individual assignments.
  3. C) Nina and Chuck are colleagues who share similar views on corporate social responsibility.
  4. D) Jane and Sara grew up in the same town and went to school together.
  5. E) Hannah and Nate are both introspective and tend to be slow to reach decisions.

 

6) ________ diversity refers to diversity with respect to attributes that are less easy to observe initially but that can be inferred after more direct experience.

  1. A) Surface-level
  2. B) Additive
  3. C) Demographic
  4. D) Deep-level
  5. E) Conjunctive

 

7) Which of the following best represents deep-level similarity?

  1. A) colleagues who both hail from the same neighborhood in Alabama
  2. B) employees who are college graduates with a degree in business management
  3. C) employees who speak Spanish and share similar religious values
  4. D) employees who seek challenges in assignments and like to work collaboratively
  5. E) employees in their mid-thirties with 10 years’ work experience in the publishing industry

8) Malcolm Industries recently hired a large number of workers for the company’s new construction factory in Colorado. During the hiring process, the management made a clear effort to recruit physically strong individuals because the work at the factory involves manual labor. The jobs need to be performed by individuals who have the energy and physical stamina to work for long hours. Which of the following surface-level characteristics did the company most likely concentrate on when selecting the new workers?

  1. A) age
  2. B) values
  3. C) beliefs
  4. D) religion
  5. E) personality

 

9) A difference in ________ would indicate deep-level diversity.

  1. A) gender
  2. B) age
  3. C) ethnicity
  4. D) disability
  5. E) values

10) ________ differences between people represent deep-level diversity.

  1. A) Race
  2. B) Age
  3. C) Ethnicity
  4. D) Gender
  5. E) Personality

11) The management at Climate Action Development needs to recruit campaign managers for its Renewable Energy Project. They are looking for candidates who are assertive, extroverted, and who can tackle challenges head-on. Which of the following deep-level characteristics should they focus on to best help them recruit the right candidate for the job?

  1. A) race
  2. B) age
  3. C) ethnicity
  4. D) values
  5. E) personality

 

12) Over the past 50 years, the earnings gap between whites and other racial and ethnic groups has decreased significantly.

13) Demographics mostly reflect deep-level rather than surface-level diversity.

 

14) Two colleagues who bond over similarities of growing up in a French-speaking locality can be said to have deep-level similarities rather than surface-level similarities.

15) Differences in easily perceived characteristics, such as gender, race, ethnicity, age, and disability, give rise to surface-level diversity. The Atalissa scandal serves as a reminder that true fairness is not just a warm feeling toward the disabled, but the ethical responsibility of us all.

16) List some of the concerns that HR managers are likely to face with a changing workforce.

17) Explain the play of surface-level similarity and deep-level diversity in a workplace environment with the help of an example.

18) Define surface-level diversity and deep-level diversity.

19) The human resources department of Orbit Bank believes in being unbiased toward all employees and treating them fairly. They believe it is crucial that the company treat all their employees equally. However Susan Daniels, an employee at the bank, recently filed a lawsuit against the company, claiming that she was discriminated against. Which of the following, if true, best justifies Susan’s action?

  1. A) The company did not give her preferential treatment even though she was from the host country.
  2. B) She was asked whether she was over eighteen during the first round in the interview process.
  3. C) Her colleagues expressed their dissatisfaction over their pay and severance packages.
  4. D) She had faced a similar situation of discrimination in her previous company.
  5. E) She was given the same incentives as her colleagues in spite of performing better than them.

20) In a workplace, ________ involves overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees.

  1. A) intimidation
  2. B) risk aversion
  3. C) inequity aversion
  4. D) optimism bias
  5. E) ambiguity aversion

21) April’s colleague Nathan has consistently pestered her to go out on a date with him. Though she has refused his offer several times, he keeps persisting. She found an envelope on her desk from Nathan with inappropriate pictures and cartoons, which left her infuriated. She now intends to go discuss the matter with the human resource department of her company. Which of the following forms of discrimination is April most likely to cite?

  1. A) sexual harassment
  2. B) cyberstalking
  3. C) mobbing
  4. D) exclusion
  5. E) electronic harassment

 

22) Which of the following refers to a kind of discrimination that refers to overt threats or bullying directed at members of specific groups of employees?

  1. A) intimidation
  2. B) impact bias
  3. C) inequity aversion
  4. D) framing effect
  5. E) benefaction

23) Which of the following is the best example of the use of intimidation?

  1. A) Anya’s boss, Kira, sets difficult targets and hints that Anya may lose her job if she doesn’t meet them.
  2. B) Jill’s manager, Steve, rarely considers her business ideas, but he consistently praises the contributions of Jill’s colleague, Emily.
  3. C) Natasha’s colleagues often make jokes using cultural or ethnic stereotypes.
  4. D) Although Kathleen had spent a longer time in the organization, her colleague Gary was promoted to a management position.
  5. E) Jane’s colleagues recently forgot to invite her to a team lunch, a fact that caused her great distress.

 

24) Hazel Samuels has been working at her company for the past two years and consistently gets yelled at by her manager even when she is not at fault. He often makes derogatory references to her ethnicity. In addition, during team meetings, she is his target for practical jokes and nasty pranks. She is extremely upset and decides not to be subjected to such treatment any longer. Which of the following kinds of discrimination is she most likely to report to the human resource department in such a situation?

  1. A) intimidation
  2. B) sexual harassment
  3. C) hazing
  4. D) mobbing
  5. E) whistle-blowing

25) Which of the following is the best example of mockery as a tool of discriminatory treatment in organizations?

  1. A) Rifka’s supervisor often stereotypes Rifka because of her ethnic heritage and makes jokes about her ethnicity.
  2. B) Because she is considerably older than the rest of her team, Hannah’s colleagues often do not invite her to team lunches or informal team get-togethers.
  3. C) Joan’s boss sets impossible targets and reprimands her in front of her colleagues if she fails to complete them on time.
  4. D) Sheena is the only African-American employee in her department and often feels left out of office jokes and gossip.
  5. E) Most of Leanne’s co-workers are male and share inappropriate jokes at the office.

 

26) A person who is made fun of because he is an Arab-American is being subjected to ________, a kind of discrimination in work environments.

  1. A) mockery
  2. B) vandalism
  3. C) cyberstalking
  4. D) gaslighting
  5. E) monomania

 

27) Stacy Hanes is an African-American woman who has recently taken her first job and does not seem to like the work environment at all. Her colleagues put down her ideas at team meetings and refer to them as “stupid.” In addition, they make fun of her race and often ask her if she is educated enough to work for the company. Which of the following kinds of discrimination is Hanes most likely subject to?

  1. A) mockery
  2. B) sexual harassment
  3. C) stalking
  4. D) deception
  5. E) subterfuge

28) ________, which may occur intentionally or unintentionally, refers to keeping certain people in a work place away from job opportunities, social events, discussions, or informal mentoring.

  1. A) Exclusion
  2. B) Mockery
  3. C) Stalking
  4. D) Ragging
  5. E) Bullying

29) Jill Ivey has been working as a sales executive at Orbit Bank for the last two years. However, she has noticed that she is often not given an opportunity to attend training programs that her team members attend every quarter. She also is disappointed about the fact that she never gets to handle corporate clients, which provides better chances of a promotion. Which of the following kinds of discrimination is she most likely to have been subjected to?

  1. A) exclusion
  2. B) mockery
  3. C) gaslighting
  4. D) destabilization
  5. E) mobbing

 

30) Women being assigned marginal job roles that do not lead to promotion is an example of the ________ form of discrimination.

  1. A) hazing
  2. B) gaslighting
  3. C) coercion
  4. D) exclusion
  5. E) battery

 

31) Which of the following is true with respect to workplace discrimination?

  1. A) Discrimination occurs more at lower levels in the organization than higher levels.
  2. B) It may lead to reduced productivity and citizenship behavior.
  3. C) Only intentional discrimination is addressed by diversity management efforts.
  4. D) Forms of discrimination like exclusion are easy to root out.
  5. E) The discriminators are invariably aware of their action toward the victim.

 

32) Unfair discrimination involves noticing and being aware of individual characteristics among people in a group.

33) Effective diversity management involves eliminating unfair discrimination.

34) Women being passed over for promotion even when they are performing better than men is an example of a discriminatory practice.

35) Denying overseas assignments to certain deserving employees over others is a form of exclusion, a kind of workplace discrimination.

 

36) Explain how surface-level similarity can lead to unfair discrimination. Substantiate your answer with the help of a scenario.

 

37) Compare and contrast unfair discrimination and diversity management.

38) Explain three different kinds of workplace discrimination.

 

39) Compare and contrast exclusion and intimidation at workplaces with the help of an example.

 

40) With the help of an example, explain incivility as a form of indiscrimination at workplaces.

41) Which of the following is a biographical characteristic of an employee?

  1. A) length of tenure
  2. B) work preferences
  3. C) personality
  4. D) values
  5. E) beliefs

42) Which of the following is true with respect to biographical characteristics?

  1. A) They are non-objective in nature and cannot be observed.
  2. B) They represent characteristics such as personality and work ethics.
  3. C) They cannot be obtained from personnel records.
  4. D) They are representative of surface-level diversity.
  5. E) They comprise features such as motivation and commitment.

 

43) Which of the following explains why the relationship between age and job performance is likely to be of increasing importance during the next decade?

  1. A) The workforce is shrinking, and older workers are compelled to work beyond retirement.
  2. B) A decline in immigration has opened up more entry-level positions for older workers.
  3. C) Increasing job opportunities are opening up in the domestic sector, resulting in a dearth of employees.
  4. D) U.S. legislation, in effect, outlaws mandatory retirement.
  5. E) A majority of people believe that productivity rises as a person grows older.

44) Raylon Inc. is in the process of recruiting a new operations manager. The human resources team has narrowed the candidate list down to two candidates but cannot come to an agreement about whom to hire. Though both candidates have the relevant qualifications for the post, one will soon be 60 years old. The other candidate is in his early thirties. Rachel, a member of the HR team, recommends hiring the older candidate, citing his years of experience and leadership ability. Tim, on the other hand, strongly recommends that the company hire the younger candidate, as he is likely to be more flexible when it comes to working. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Rachel’s argument?

  1. A) The job requires frequent travel around the company’s six factories located across the country.
  2. B) Most of the employees the operations manager will be supervising are under 30 years of age.
  3. C) Research has shown that older workers are more prone to absenteeism for health-related issues.
  4. D) Almost half of the company’s top managers are in the 45-65 age bracket.
  5. E) The company recently instituted a new production system that cuts waste by 30 percent.

 

45) Which of the following is the most likely reason why employers should employ older workers?

  1. A) They adjust to new technology promptly.
  2. B) Older workers have extensive work experience.
  3. C) Older workers are flexible and learn quickly.
  4. D) They have shorter tenures and hence lower pension benefits than younger workers.
  5. E) The rates of unavoidable absences are lower than those of younger workers.

46) Thurman Inc., a manufacturing company in Vermont, needs to hire employees for its new office in the city. The positions require the employees to travel across the country regularly. The management has specified that they are looking for employees below the age of 40 who are young and dynamic. Which of the following beliefs is the management most likely to hold?

  1. A) Younger workers make stronger judgments.
  2. B) Younger workers are more flexible to change.
  3. C) Younger workers have more experience.
  4. D) Younger workers have stronger work ethics.
  5. E) Younger workers are more committed to quality.

 

47) Angela Wells recently applied for a job at Spiga, a lounge in Paris. Having worked in several restaurants and lounges in and across France, she was confident that she would get the job. However, soon after the interview, she was informed that another candidate was offered the job, even though the other candidate had limited experience in comparison to her. Angela feels that she was discriminated against. Which of the following, if true, would best justify Angela’s assumption?

  1. A) The woman who was selected over her could speak French fluently.
  2. B) Angela is a single mother with two young children.
  3. C) Angela does not have a degree in hospitality management.
  4. D) The lounge caters to elite business clientele in Paris.
  5. E) Angela learned of the position through a friend working at the lounge.

48) Raylon Inc. needs to hire a new floor supervisor. As the company has recently made an effort to increase diversity within the organization, the HR team wants to hire a qualified female candidate for the role instead of adequately qualified male candidates. However, top management insists that optimal performance is the top priority and that the candidate hired should be the person best suited for the job. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen HR’s case for hiring the female candidate?

  1. A) There are nearly as many female employees on the floor as male employees.
  2. B) The company has recently introduced policies that provide greater benefits for working and single mothers.
  3. C) Most of the top-level managers in the company are female.
  4. D) The company policy stipulates that each employee has to work at least one week per month on a night shift.
  5. E) Both candidates have the qualifications required to perform up to expectations.

 

49) ________ refers to the biological heritage people use to identify themselves.

  1. A) Race
  2. B) Values
  3. C) Beliefs
  4. D) Religion
  5. E) GMA

50) Green Planet, an environmental organization, recently opened an office in Indonesia. The organization is currently looking for employees to staff a deforestation project in the country. They need to recruit individuals who understand the intricacies of Jakarta’s culture and the mindset of the locals and are fluent in the local language. Which of the following are they most likely to consider while they recruit for these positions?

  1. A) race
  2. B) age
  3. C) beliefs
  4. D) gender
  5. E) length of service

 

51) ________ may be defined as an individual’s current capacity to perform the various tasks in a job.

  1. A) Ability
  2. B) Age
  3. C) Duty
  4. D) Role
  5. E) Tenure

52) Recent U.S. legislation has instituted mandatory retirement at 70 in order to ensure that jobs are available for younger workers.

53) Older people are more likely to quit and change jobs than younger employees.

54) In general, older employees have lower rates of avoidable absence than do younger employees. However, they have equal rates of unavoidable absence, such as sickness absences.

55) There has been a significant decrease in the female participation in the workforce over the past 40 years.

 

56) Studies show that satisfaction tends to continually increase among nonprofessionals as they age, whereas it falls among professionals during middle age and then rises again in the later years.

57) The U.S. Bureau of the Census does not allow for classification of individuals by race.

 

58) Hispanics can be of any race.

 

59) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, employers are under no obligation to make accommodations for individuals with physical or mental disabilities.

60) A person suffering from alcoholism is not classified as disabled according to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, as alcoholism is self-induced.

61) Federal law in the United States prohibits discrimination against employees based on sexual orientation.

62) The relationship between age and job performance is likely to be an issue of increasing importance during the next decade. Explain.

 

63) Evaluate the benefits and disadvantages of an older workforce.

64) Explain how studying individuals with disabilities is an integral part of the study of organizational behavior.

 

65) What is the significance of “reasonable accommodations” for diversity management in workplaces?

 

66) Compare and contrast four different kinds of physical abilities.

67) ________ is a dimension of intellectual ability which refers to the ability to understand what is read or heard and the relationship of words to each other.

  1. A) Lateral masking
  2. B) Verbal comprehension
  3. C) Depth perception
  4. D) Spatial visualization
  5. E) Visual perception

 

68) ________ refers to a dimension of intellectual ability which involves identifying a logical sequence in a problem and using this logical sequence to solve the problem.

  1. A) Inductive reasoning
  2. B) Spatial visualization
  3. C) Form perception
  4. D) Visual perception
  5. E) Visual prosthesis

 

69) ________ is a dimension of intellectual ability which involves using logic to assess the implications of an argument.

  1. A) Deductive reasoning
  2. B) Spatial visualization
  3. C) Haptic perception
  4. D) Multistable perception
  5. E) Lateral masking

70) Religious discrimination claims have been a shrinking source of discrimination claims in the United States.

 

71) How does tenure, a biographical characteristic, play a role in the study of organizational behavior?

 

72) When does an individual’s religious belief become an employment issue? Give examples of such instances.

73) ________ is a dimension of intellectual ability which refers to the ability to do speedy and accurate arithmetic.

  1. A) Number aptitude
  2. B) Verbal comprehension
  3. C) Deductive reasoning
  4. D) Spatial visualization
  5. E) Amodal perception

 

74) Which of the following best describes spatial visualization?

  1. A) the ability to imagine how an object would look if its position were changed
  2. B) the ability to retain and recall or remember past experiences
  3. C) the ability to identify visual similarities and differences quickly and accurately
  4. D) the ability to understand what is read or heard and the relation between words
  5. E) the ability to calculate numbers in a speedy and accurate manner

75) Rene Cox works as a media officer in a global forest protection organization. Her job requires her to interact with a large number of people from the press with whom she needs to establish strong professional relationships. This requires her to remember a large number of people’s names and the organizations with which they are associated. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability will best help her accomplish this task?

  1. A) inductive reasoning
  2. B) spatial visualization
  3. C) memory
  4. D) visual perception
  5. E) polymodality

76) Gina Sanchez, an architect in California, is renovating an old school building and turning it into a retail and entertainment space. She must decide how the existing layout can be redesigned and modified to best suit the new uses. Which of the following dimensions of intelligence will most help Gina reimagine the existing building?

  1. A) haptic perception
  2. B) spatial visualization
  3. C) memory
  4. D) inductive reasoning
  5. E) deductive reasoning

 

77) Irene Jones, a project manager at a water conservation foundation, is holding a team meeting to discuss the different modes of spreading awareness about the issue of water conservation to the public. A team member, John Sullivan, states that using broadcasting media is the best way to reach out to the public. On the other hand, Pamela Riley states that print media is the right medium to spread word about the issue. Jones is now weighing the pros and cons of both her team members’ suggestions before choosing the medium that will be most appropriate for the water conservation project. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability is Jones most likely to be using to make her decision?

  1. A) number aptitude
  2. B) spatial visualization
  3. C) memory
  4. D) lateral masking
  5. E) deductive reasoning

 

78) A market researcher who uses his ability to identify a logical sequence to predict demand for a new line of winter clothing is using the ________ dimension of intellectual ability.

  1. A) spatial visualization
  2. B) inductive reasoning
  3. C) verbal comprehension
  4. D) lateral masking
  5. E) deductive reasoning

79) Jeremy Samuels works in a police department in California. His job often requires him to observe clues that criminals leave behind. His job is to analyze these clues, which helps the department catch the criminal. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Samuels most likely have?

  1. A) spatial visualization
  2. B) perceptual speed
  3. C) extent flexibility
  4. D) dynamic flexibility
  5. E) number aptitude

 

80) Lorna Perry, who works in a financial firm in Michigan, is required to calculate a large number of clients’ accounts daily. She needs to tally figures and check accuracy at a high speed. Which of the following dimensions of intellectual ability does Perry most likely use?

  1. A) number aptitude
  2. B) perpetual speed
  3. C) extent flexibility
  4. D) visual perception
  5. E) deductive reasoning

81) Audrey Smith is a renowned psychiatrist in New Jersey. While interacting with patients, she needs to understand their points of view by listening intently to what they say. It is important that she understands their problems so that she can offer advice. In such a situation, Smith is using the ________ dimension of intellectual ability.

  1. A) number aptitude
  2. B) perpetual speed
  3. C) spatial visualization
  4. D) verbal comprehension
  5. E) lateral thinking

 

82) ________ refers to an overall factor of intelligence as suggested by the positive correlations among specific intellectual ability dimensions.

  1. A) General mental ability
  2. B) Malleable intelligence
  3. C) Extelligence
  4. D) The Flynn effect
  5. E) Virtual memory

 

83) The ________ is the most widely used intelligence test in hiring decisions and takes only twelve minutes to be completed.

  1. A) Wonderlic Cognitive Ability Test
  2. B) Ammons Quick Test
  3. C) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales
  4. D) Kohs block design test
  5. E) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

84) ________ may be referred to as the capacity to undertake tasks that demand stamina, dexterity, and strength.

  1. A) Cognitive abilities
  2. B) Intellectual abilities
  3. C) Mental abilities
  4. D) Physical abilities
  5. E) Emotional intelligence

 

85) ________ refers to the ability to exert force against external objects.

  1. A) Body coordination
  2. B) Dynamic flexibility
  3. C) Static strength
  4. D) Extent flexibility
  5. E) Cognitive ability

 

86) Which of the following is a kind of physical ability which refers to the ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movements?

  1. A) equilibrium
  2. B) balance
  3. C) dynamic flexibility
  4. D) static strength
  5. E) body coordination

87) Which of the following best describes the physical ability known as trunk strength?

  1. A) the ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance
  2. B) the ability to coordinate the simultaneous actions of different parts of the body
  3. C) the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of explosive acts
  4. D) the ability to exert muscular strength using the abdominal muscles
  5. E) the ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible

 

88) Which of the following best describes the physical ability known as dynamic strength?

  1. A) the ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance
  2. B) the ability to coordinate the simultaneous actions of different parts of the body
  3. C) the ability to exert muscular force repeatedly or continuously over time
  4. D) the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of explosive acts
  5. E) the ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible

 

89) Which of the following best describes the physical ability known as dynamic flexibility?

  1. A) the ability to exert force against external objects
  2. B) the ability to make rapid, repeated flexing movements
  3. C) the ability to exert muscular force repeatedly or continuously over time
  4. D) the ability to expend a maximum of energy in one or a series of explosive acts
  5. E) the ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible

 

 

90) The ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible is known as ________.

  1. A) static strength
  2. B) stamina
  3. C) trunk strength
  4. D) extent flexibility
  5. E) balance

91) The physical ability that allows a body to maintain equilibrium despite opposing forces is known as ________.

  1. A) stamina
  2. B) extent flexibility
  3. C) static strength
  4. D) body coordination
  5. E) balance

 

92) The physical ability that allows a body to continue maximum effort at maintaining prolonged effort over time is known as ________.

  1. A) stamina
  2. B) extent flexibility
  3. C) static strength
  4. D) body coordination
  5. E) balance

93) The less complex a job in terms of information-processing demands, the more general intelligence and verbal abilities are necessary to perform successfully.

 

94) The structures and measures of intellectual abilities generalize across cultures.

95) Perceptual speed is the ability to imagine how an object would look if its position in space were changed.

 

96) Inductive reasoning is the ability to identify a logical sequence in a problem and then solve the problem.

97) Memory is not a component of intelligence and is considered as a separate faculty.

 

98) There is a strong correlation between intelligence and job satisfaction.

99) Physical abilities may be defined as the capacity to do tasks that demand stamina, dexterity, strength, and similar characteristics.

100) Diversity management refers to being unbiased by overlooking the differences between individuals in an organization.

 

101) A method of enhancing workforce diversity is to target recruiting messages to specific demographic groups who are underrepresented in the workforce.

 

102) Targeting recruiting messages to specific demographic groups underrepresented in the workforce is an example of unfair discrimination.

103) What is the relevance of the various types of intellectual ability for organizational behavior?

104) Define any four dimensions of intellectual ability.

 

105) A diversity program effective in improving representation in management is a strategy to measure the representation of minorities in managerial positions.

106) Improving recruiting practices and making selection systems more transparent are ways of preventing target groups from being underutilized.

107) Describe some ways by which management can attract, select, and recruit diverse employees in an organization.

108) Discuss the effects of diversity within a group on group performance.

109) Discuss the basic components necessary for a workforce program to encourage diversity within the organization.

 

110) Explain why affirmative action and attempts to encourage diversity within organizations may be received unfavorably by employees. What can organizations do to minimize unfavorable reactions to policies?

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 3   Attitudes and Job Satisfaction

 

1) ________ refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects, people, or events.

  1. A) Attitude
  2. B) Behavior
  3. C) Appearance
  4. D) Demeanor
  5. E) Performance

 

2) The statement, “A person who eats meat and then fights for animal rights demonstrates double standards” is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an attitude.

  1. A) cognitive
  2. B) affective
  3. C) reflective
  4. D) behavioral
  5. E) reactive

 

3) Which of the following statements represents the cognitive component of attitude?

  1. A) I have decided to inform my supervisor that I will be quitting my job.
  2. B) I intend to work during the weekend to meet the month’s deadline.
  3. C) I feel upset about having to work during Christmas.
  4. D) It is disappointing to know that I did not get a good evaluation.
  5. E) This job is not giving me an opportunity to explore my skills.

4) Abigail Jones is a sales executive at Orbit Bank in Brussels. She is the best performer on her team and often gets the highest number of corporate accounts for the company. However, she feels that she does not get sufficient credit for her hard work. During lunch, she says to her colleague, “I have been getting the largest accounts for the bank for the past eight months. Yet, my manager never acknowledges the kind of effort I put in to get these accounts.” Which component of attitude is being demonstrated by Jones?

  1. A) positive component
  2. B) cognitive component
  3. C) affective component
  4. D) behavioral component
  5. E) reflective component

 

5) Which of the following is an example of the affective component of an attitude?

  1. A) believing that one achieved all objectives of a project
  2. B) relying on the information of a company’s annual report
  3. C) perceiving whistle-blowing as the right thing to do
  4. D) feeling hurt at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing
  5. E) deciding to fire an employee because of underperformance

 

6) Johanna Rouse feels disheartened because she was not selected for the campaign exchange program in Amsterdam. Which component of an attitude does Rouse’s feeling represent?

  1. A) cognitive
  2. B) affective
  3. C) reflective
  4. D) behavioral
  5. E) reactive

7) Janice Hartley works as a writer at a fashion magazine in New York. She was recently asked by her editor to write an article on “10 must-haves for the autumn season.” Her editor has now sent back the article saying it is not interesting enough to hold the attention of the reader. Janice is upset and disappointed about the feedback. Which component of an attitude is represented in this scenario?

  1. A) positive component
  2. B) cognitive component
  3. C) affective component
  4. D) behavioral component
  5. E) evaluative component

 

8) Kimberley Mayfield recently evaluated her subordinate’s progress report. She now plans to inform her about the objectives she did not achieve and how she can perform better. By doing this, Mayfield will be demonstrating the ________ component of an attitude.

  1. A) cognitive
  2. B) affective
  3. C) reflective
  4. D) behavioral
  5. E) reactive

9) Which of the following statements is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude?

  1. A) I have decided to apply for the position of a campaigner in the climate department.
  2. B) I am thrilled to know that the human resource department is looking for a climate campaigner.
  3. C) The position of a climate campaigner is challenging and interesting.
  4. D) The position of a climate campaigner will allow me to explore my skills as a campaigner.
  5. E) I think the position of a climate campaigner involves extensive travel.

 

10) Sarah Mayer works as a security officer and is in charge of keeping track of who is in the office at any given time. She notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they go out for meals, which makes it difficult to keep track of attendance of employees. Even though Mayer has repeatedly asked the employees to sign out, they have not followed her advice. She now decides to report the issue to her supervisor. Which of the following components of an attitude is being demonstrated by Mayer?

  1. A) affective
  2. B) behavioral
  3. C) positive
  4. D) cognitive
  5. E) knowledge

 

11) Attitudes are favorable or unfavorable evaluative statements about objects, people, or events.

 

 

12) The three components of an attitude are cognition, affect, and behavior.

13) The affective component of attitude is the emotional, or feeling, segment of an attitude.

 

14) The cognitive component of an attitude describes an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something.

 

15) What are the three components of an attitude?

 

16) Why is it difficult to analyze the three components of an attitude separately? Provide a workplace example that demonstrates the three components.

 

17) The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by ________.

  1. A) Abraham Maslow
  2. B) Leon Festinger
  3. C) Geert Hofstede
  4. D) Daryl Bem
  5. E) Ivan Petrovich Pavlov

18) Which of the following does cognitive dissonance indicate between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes?

  1. A) congruity
  2. B) tenacity
  3. C) solidarity
  4. D) consistency
  5. E) incompatibility

 

19) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in ________.

  1. A) organizational dissonance
  2. B) cognitive dissonance
  3. C) attitudinal clarification
  4. D) positivity offset
  5. E) affective reactance

20) Julie recently joined a youth center as a counselor who provides support services for teenage mothers. An important part of her job involves referring pregnant teenagers to abortion clinics, should they decide to avail of such services. This aspect of her work, however, conflicts with her religious beliefs. Her manager, Kyle, is aware of this and expects her to submit her resignation at any time, but Julie continues to carry out her duties in a sincere manner and shows no signs of quitting her job. Which of the following best explains this situation?

  1. A) Julie allows her professional life to be dictated by her religious ideals.
  2. B) Julie refuses to acknowledge the hard truths of life.
  3. C) Julie has accepted that people have the freedom of choice.
  4. D) Julie is unable to empathize with the teenagers who visit the youth center.
  5. E) Julie does not realize the importance of her work to society.

Sonia works as a lab research assistant at Frost Labs, which conducts trials for cosmetic products such as sprays, dyes, ointments, soaps, and the like. She joined the firm right out of college and has been working there for almost two years now.

 

21) Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that Sonia is experiencing cognitive dissonance?

  1. A) She believes that cosmetics help boost women’s self-confidence.
  2. B) She believes that testing products on animals is an unethical practice.
  3. C) She majored in pharmacology as part of her master’s degree program in college.
  4. D) She recently received a positive performance review from her supervisor.
  5. E) She is confounded by the fact that the cosmetic industry rakes in almost $7 billion annually.

22) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument that Sonia is experiencing cognitive dissonance?

  1. A) She believes that beauty is merely a superficial aspect of one’s personality.
  2. B) She does not wear makeup as she is aware of the ingredients that go into making these products.
  3. C) She recently attended a presentation on the harmful effects of certain chemicals used in cosmetics.
  4. D) She believes that research and testing are an integral part of providing consumers with safe products.
  5. E) She feels that this field of work does not allow her to utilize her full potential.

 

23) Anna Jonas owns a manufacturing firm in Indonesia and strongly believes that it is important that workers’ rights be respected. However, because of the recent economic meltdown, she makes the management pay workers a wage which is below ethical standards. In addition, the working conditions are below standards because of low investment in safety equipment. She knows her actions are unethical but continues to do so to avoid major losses. Jonas is most likely to be experiencing ________.

  1. A) cognitive dissonance
  2. B) emotional contagion
  3. C) ethical evasion
  4. D) self-concordance
  5. E) positivity offset

24) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding cognitive dissonance?

  1. A) High dissonance is accompanied by high rewards.
  2. B) People are less inspired to reduce dissonance when it is within their control.
  3. C) People are less likely to reduce dissonance when the behavior is crucial.
  4. D) People are more motivated to reduce dissonance when attitudes are important.
  5. E) The desire to reduce dissonance is not affected by moods and emotions.

25) Joseph Pierce is the managing director of Drake Coal Power Plant in North Yorkshire. He knows that coal is a major contributor to climate change and has made his research team study impacts of coal on the environment. After knowing the facts, he faces a high degree of dissonance between his values and behavior. Which of the following is he most likely to do to reduce the dissonance between his belief and behavior?

  1. A) get government sanction to build and develop more power plants across the country
  2. B) increase revenue by building power plants in developing and underdeveloped countries
  3. C) reassure the public that there is no correlation between environment and coal production
  4. D) hire more employees to fill positions in new power plant stations
  5. E) provide locals benefits to substantiate for the effects of coal power stations

 

26) Leon Festinger argued that ________ follow(s) ________.

  1. A) behavior; attitudes
  2. B) emotions; attitude
  3. C) attitudes; behavior
  4. D) thought processes; moods
  5. E) conduct; feelings

27) Kim Anderson works as a campaign manager at an environmental organization in Ottawa. In the past few months, she has noticed that one team member, Janice Kenneth, has shown a lot of potential as the next project lead. However, Anderson heard from the grapevine that Kenneth may be quitting the job. She now needs to know whether she has the intention to lead the campaign in the next few months, which are crucial months for the campaign. Which of the following questions would best help Anderson understand Kenneth’s intention toward the project?

  1. A) How do you like your job on the whole?
  2. B) Do you like the work culture in the organization?
  3. C) Do you see yourself working with us in the next six months?
  4. D) Are you motivated enough to achieve all project milestones?
  5. E) Are you happy with your overall job performance?

 

28) With reference to cognitive dissonance, in which of the following situations is the attitude-behavior relationship most likely to be strong?

  1. A) The affective component of the attitude is weak.
  2. B) The behavior is not affected by the cognitive component of the attitude.
  3. C) The attitude does not reflect the person’s fundamental values.
  4. D) The behavior is affected by external factors and is not entirely under the control of the person.
  5. E) The attitude refers to something with which the person has direct experience.

29) Which of the following is true with regard to moderating variables in attitude relationships?

  1. A) Attitudes that our memories can easily access are more likely to predict our behavior.
  2. B) General attitudes tend to predict particular or specific behaviors.
  3. C) Attitudes are less likely to be remembered if frequently expressed or talked about.
  4. D) The relationship between an attitude and a behavior is weaker if an attitude involves a direct relation to personal experience.
  5. E) Conflicts between attitudes and behavior occur when there are no social pressures.

 

30) Oversharers can contribute to teamwork when they share personal stories related to organizational goals, according to a Harvard Business Review article.

 

31) According to Festinger, people seek consistency between their attitudes and their behaviors.

 

32) Cognitive dissonance explains the linkage between attitudes and behavior.

33) No individual can completely avoid dissonance.

34) Individuals will be more motivated to reduce dissonance when they believe the dissonance is due to something they cannot control.

 

35) If there is an inconsistency between an individual’s attitude on a specific issue and his/her behavior, there are only two courses of action available—alter the attitude or alter the behavior.

36) Attitudes that our memories can easily access are less likely to predict our behavior.

37) Discrepancies between attitudes and behavior tend to occur when social pressures to behave in certain ways hold exceptional power, as in most organizations.

38) We have thousands of attitudes, but OB focuses on a very limited number that form positive or negative evaluations employees hold about their work environments.

39) Describe a workplace example of how people seek consistency among their attitudes and their behavior by reducing cognitive dissonance. Then, sort your example into the three main components of attitudes.

 

40) Discuss the cognitive dissonance theory. How do individuals seek consistency among their attitudes, and between their attitudes and their behavior?

41) Jonathan is a scientist for a local manufacturer that employs a large percentage of the small town where he lives. Until recently, Jonathan loved his job. However, it has been discovered that the company is releasing small amounts of toxins into the local river. Jonathan is extremely bothered by this information. Based on what you know about Jonathan, describe the cognitive dissonance that he is experiencing and two ways that Jonathan can alter his behavior or attitude to reduce the dissonance.

 

42) Which of the following is most likely to be related to reduced absences and lower resignation rates?

  1. A) high job involvement
  2. B) high cognitive dissonance
  3. C) low psychological empowerment
  4. D) low organizational commitment
  5. E) high emotional contagion

43) ________ refers to a positive feeling about one’s job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.

  1. A) Job satisfaction
  2. B) Job design
  3. C) Positivity offset
  4. D) Constructive dismissal
  5. E) Picketing

44) Which of the following statements represents a person’s job attitude?

  1. A) I enjoy my work because it offers me challenges and helps me hone my networking skills.
  2. B) I believe my work has a direct impact on the processes of the organization.
  3. C) I believe my work performance indicates my caliber and potential.
  4. D) I agree with the organization about its commitment to the environment.
  5. E) I believe in the organization’s objectives about supporting the underprivileged.

45) Which of the following actions best represents Kelly’s high job involvement?

  1. A) Kelly always complains about her work to her colleagues.
  2. B) Kelly actively takes part in team activities and proactively takes up additional job responsibilities.
  3. C) Kelly shares the organization’s vision of supporting renewable energy.
  4. D) Kelly dislikes the unethical practices followed by her employer.
  5. E) Kelly wants to continue working for the organization because many of her college friends are working there.

46) High levels of both job involvement and psychological empowerment are positively related to ________.

  1. A) withdrawal behavior
  2. B) positivity offset
  3. C) organizational citizenship
  4. D) emotional contagion
  5. E) cognitive dissonance

47) Employees’ beliefs in the degree to which they influence their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their jobs, and their perceived autonomy is termed as ________.

  1. A) psychological empowerment
  2. B) organizational dissent
  3. C) organizational commitment
  4. D) employee engagement
  5. E) secondary action

 

48) The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth is referred to as ________.

  1. A) emotional contagion
  2. B) job involvement
  3. C) job stability
  4. D) emotional dissonance
  5. E) direct action

49) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera Loranzo seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years, she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. After learning about her management’s decision, she is extremely frustrated and is beginning to resent the job she does. However, she knows there is nothing she can do and continues working because of the good perks and salary benefits the job offers. How can Loranzo’s job attitude be best described?

  1. A) low job involvement
  2. B) low job satisfaction
  3. C) high psychological empowerment
  4. D) high positivity offset
  5. E) low emotional contagion

50) Ben has been working as a process executive at an accounting firm for the past two years. A hard worker, his work is of good quality and he often puts in extra hours at the office to ensure his schedules are on track. Noticing his efforts, the management offers him a 20 percent hike. Two months later, Ben submits his resignation and soon joins a startup organization, at a senior position. Which of the following best explains this situation?

  1. A) Ben felt the hike was unwarranted.
  2. B) Ben, though highly skilled, lacked ambition.
  3. C) Ben was motivated by the prospect of extrinsic rewards.
  4. D) Ben found his work to be routine and monotonous.
  5. E) Ben was gunning for a position at the competing firm all along.

51) Which of the following questions best helps understand an employee’s organizational commitment?

  1. A) Do you feel you have a good working relationship with team members?
  2. B) Do you feel the organization will take care of you and your family in times of need?
  3. C) Do you enjoy your work even in the face of challenges?
  4. D) Does the organization provide valuable feedback to help you increase productivity?
  5. E) Do you believe in the organization’s objective on sustainable work practices?

 

52) Organizational commitment is defined as ________.

  1. A) the degree to which employees identify with the organization they work for and its goals
  2. B) the state of discord caused by opposition of values between people working together
  3. C) the degree to which an employee’s sense of cognitive dissonance is related to his/her job
  4. D) the employee’s degree of disagreement or differential opinions about organizational practices
  5. E) the degree to which employees believe their work impacts their organization significantly

 

53) The human resource department of Healthy Eating, a chain of health food stores, recently conducted a survey to analyze employee commitment. Which of the following statements is most likely to indicate a high degree of organizational commitment?

  1. A) I am a great believer in the importance of a healthy diet and this is why I am glad to be working for a company that is trying to make simple, healthy food available to all.
  2. B) I enjoy working for Healthy Eating because of the growth prospects that it offers and the wide range of responsibilities each one of us has.
  3. C) Even though I only work in the production department, it’s good to know that my feedback gets considered during our interactive in-house sessions.
  4. D) The challenging nature of the work and the thoughtful and generous way the firm treats its staff has made Healthy Eating the best place I have ever worked in.
  5. E) My company offers me good perks and benefits.

54) ________ is the degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being.

  1. A) Psychological empowerment
  2. B) Employee engagement
  3. C) Perceived organizational support
  4. D) Organizational commitment
  5. E) Job involvement

 

55) Which of the following questions best helps understand the degree of perceived organizational support among employees?

  1. A) Do you believe that employee engagement has a large impact on productivity?
  2. B) Do you believe there is sufficient employee engagement in your department?
  3. C) Do your beliefs align with the organization’s vision and long-term goals?
  4. D) Do you feel the long-term goals on sustainable work practices are workable?
  5. E) Do you feel the organization has sufficient recognition rewards to value good work?

56) Lillian Stintson works for a global women’s rights organization. In the past few months, she has traveled across the globe for the campaign she was working on. In addition, she has been working weekends to meet campaign milestones. She has now decided to take a month’s holiday to relax and get a much-needed break. She knows that the organization will understand her need for a long holiday. Which of the following best represents Stintson’s feeling?

  1. A) low employee engagement
  2. B) high perceived organizational support
  3. C) low organizational commitment
  4. D) low job involvement
  5. E) high interest in whistle-blowing

 

57) Employees are most likely to perceive their organization as supportive when ________.

  1. A) they experience a cognitive dissonance between their job attitude and behavior
  2. B) the affective component of the attitude is extremely strong
  3. C) there is a weak relationship between their attitude and behavior
  4. D) they have a voice in decisions
  5. E) they experience an emotional contagion while performing their job duties

58) Antonio Guillermo’s wife was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Guillermo had to take a considerable amount of time off work to care for their children, and he was late in completing his portion of a large project. Guillermo never feared that his job was in jeopardy because of his absences or his delay in completion of work. Name the major job attitude associated with this example.

  1. A) psychological empowerment
  2. B) perceived organizational support
  3. C) organizational commitment
  4. D) employee engagement
  5. E) job involvement

 

59) Bryan Eusebius has a positive attitude toward his organization. He feels the management treats all employees fairly in matters concerning rewards, is understanding toward their needs and requirements, and allows them to have a voice in decisions. Bryan’s attitude toward his organization is indicative of ________.

  1. A) emotional contagion
  2. B) positivity offset
  3. C) perceived organizational support
  4. D) cognitive dissonance
  5. E) self-concordance

60) An individual’s involvement with, satisfaction with, and enthusiasm for the work he/she performs is known as ________.

  1. A) employee engagement
  2. B) cognitive dissonance
  3. C) emotional contagion
  4. D) positivity offset
  5. E) self-concordance

 

61) Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of disengaged employees?

  1. A) They feel a deep connection for their organization.
  2. B) They have a sense of passion for their work.
  3. C) They have the lowest levels of turnover.
  4. D) They put in time but give no attention to their work.
  5. E) They proactively take up responsibilities.

62) The human resource department of Palmer Inc. is aiming to understand the degree of employee engagement in the organization. Which of the following statements would best help them in the process?

  1. A) Do you believe in the organization’s five-year plan?
  2. B) Do you believe the organization is concerned about your well-being?
  3. C) Do you enjoy your everyday tasks and achieving project milestones?
  4. D) Do you feel the organization values your work?
  5. E) Do you agree with the organization’s stand on sustainable work practices?

63) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about the major job attitudes?

  1. A) They are highly distinct from one another.
  2. B) They are generally resistant to change.
  3. C) They tend to overlap one another.
  4. D) They are not correlated to one another.
  5. E) They increase cognitive dissonance.

 

64) Job satisfaction describes a positive feeling about a job, resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.

 

65) Job involvement measures the degree to which people identify psychologically with the organization’s mission and vision.

 

66) Employees’ beliefs in the degree to which they influence their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their jobs, and their perceived autonomy is known as psychological empowerment.

67) An individual’s involvement with, satisfaction with, and enthusiasm for the work he or she does is known as employee engagement.

68) Compare and contrast job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment.

69) The business head at Solaris Services was alarmed by the finding of a recent survey conducted in-house which revealed that most employees were dissatisfied with their work. He holds a meeting with various department heads to identify ways to stem the brewing discontent. One manager suggests providing employees with greater training opportunities. What assumption is the manager making?

  1. A) Employees feel that their efforts are not being adequately recognized by the management.
  2. B) Employees are highly skilled and value economic rewards over and above opportunities for growth.
  3. C) Employees are stifled by the degree of centralized control and bureaucracy within the organization.
  4. D) Employees feel that their employer does not value them enough to make investments in them.
  5. E) Employees feel excluded from organizational issues that have an influence on them.

70) Which of the following statements is true about measuring job satisfaction?

  1. A) The single global rating system is not very time consuming.
  2. B) The summation of job facets approach takes into account cognitive dissonance experienced by employees.
  3. C) The summation of job facets approach prevents managers from zeroing in on problems.
  4. D) The summation of job facets approach involves responding to one particular question.
  5. E) The single global rating approach is rarely used for measuring job satisfaction.

71) The single global rating approach to measuring job satisfaction is more sophisticated than the summation of job facets approach.

 

72) Asking employees how they feel about key elements in a job and then adding the results to create an overall job satisfaction score is the single global rating approach to job satisfaction.

73) Rachel, a sales executive at a bank, earns $35,000 a year. Her company often allows her to work her schedule around her daughter’s school athletic events. She believes in the goals of her organization and works hard toward achieving them. Rachel’s husband, Peter, has recently joined an engineering firm as a designer. He earns $75,000 a year. His job involves working long hours from Monday to Friday, and his work is often stressful. But he enjoys his work and is passionate about the projects he works on. Due to Peter’s time constraints, his wife, Rachel, attends all their children’s school events. How would you compare Rachel and Peter’s levels of job satisfaction? Describe how you would measure their satisfaction level if the level of comfortable living in their country is $40,000. In addition, name at least three major job attitudes that play a part in each of their satisfaction levels.

74) Which of the following is true about the correlation between salary and job satisfaction?

  1. A) Pay is not related to job satisfaction for employees in underdeveloped countries.
  2. B) Salary and perks do not have a role in overall happiness of employees from poor countries.
  3. C) Pay does not play a critical role in job satisfaction when an individual reaches a level of comfortable living.
  4. D) Financial perks and benefits always create job satisfaction irrespective of standards of living.
  5. E) High salary level always creates organizational commitment.

75) In Indonesia, comfortable living occurs at about $30,000. Based on the measurement of comfortable living, which of the following is most likely to be true?

  1. A) People earning approximately $25,000 are content with their jobs.
  2. B) People earning below $30,000 are as happy with jobs as those earning $35,000.
  3. C) People earning below $30,000 experience a positive correlation between pay and job satisfaction.
  4. D) People earning $50,000 have higher levels of job satisfaction than those earning $40,000.
  5. E) People’s earnings have no relation to their job satisfaction if they earn $25,000.

76) Charles, Anna, Elle, and Adam are college friends and work in New York City. Comfortable living in New York occurs at about $40,000 a year. Charles makes $24,000 a year, Anna makes $30,000 a year, Elle makes $50,000 a year, and Adam makes $75,000 a year. Which of the following is most likely to be true with reference to correlation between pay and job satisfaction?

  1. A) Charles is more satisfied with his job in comparison with Anna.
  2. B) Anna is more satisfied with the job than Adam.
  3. C) Charles and Adam share identical levels of job satisfaction related to pay.
  4. D) Elle and Adam are most likely to have a similar level of job satisfaction.
  5. E) Charles and Anna have the same levels of job satisfaction in relation to their pay.

77) Dennis Galvan works as a campaigner at Green Earth, an environmental organization. Every month, his organization arranges a team outing where they indulge in football and other team-building activities. The human resource department ensures that there are regular interactions between employees through team dinners and cultural events. According to the information given in this case, which of the following is most likely to be the reason for Galvan’s high level of satisfaction toward his job?

  1. A) salary packaging
  2. B) promotion and growth
  3. C) constructive dismissal
  4. D) social context
  5. E) profile of work

78) Christina Hutchins was recently recruited by a publishing firm in Manhattan. During her first month on the job, she demonstrated positive core self-evaluations. Which of the following did she most likely do?

  1. A) mentioned that she was confident about her basic competence
  2. B) expressed dissatisfied with the nature of work
  3. C) set less ambiguous goals and objectives
  4. D) gave up easily on tasks when faced with difficulties
  5. E) did not consider her work as challenging and fulfilling

79) Employees with positive core self-evaluations believe in their inner worth and basic competence and are more satisfied with their jobs than those with negative core self-evaluations. The concept of positive core self-evaluations indicates that ________.

  1. A) promotions and growth opportunities influence job satisfaction
  2. B) employees should be regularly monitored and provided feedback
  3. C) job conditions have a direct influence on job satisfaction
  4. D) personality plays a role in job satisfaction
  5. E) pay always has a direct correlation with job satisfaction

 

80) Job conditions—especially the intrinsic nature of the work itself, social interactions, and supervision—are important predictors of job satisfaction.

81) People who have positive core self-evaluations (CSEs)—who believe in their inner worth and basic competence—are more satisfied with their jobs than people with negative CSEs.

 

82) The relationship between pay and job satisfaction virtually disappears when one earns a pay package sufficient for or more than the comfortable living amount.

83) What are the major causes of job satisfaction?

 

84) Job satisfaction leads to employee’s organizational citizenship behavior (OCB).

85) Is there a relationship between employees whose personal values fit with the organization’s CSR mission and job satisfaction? Explain.

 

86) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework aids in understanding the consequences of ________.

  1. A) increasing growth opportunities
  2. B) emotional contagion
  3. C) dissatisfaction
  4. D) regular feedback
  5. E) high employee engagement

87) The ________ response includes actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and undertaking some forms of union activity.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) acceptance

88) Henry Hutchins is discontent with his job but believes that his supervisor is a good man who will do whatever is necessary to reduce his dissatisfaction with the job. He has decided to just wait and give his supervisor some time until conditions improve. Henry’s response to this problem is termed as ________.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) ratification

89) Susan Daniels works for an event management company and is discontent with her job because she was passed over for a promotion. She has now composed a list of concerns and plans to discuss the issue with her supervisor. Daniels’ response to the problem is referred to as ________.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) acceptance

90) Maria Womack works for a bank in Michigan and is dissatisfied with the way her manager treats her. She is planning to quit her job and find a new position with another competitor bank. Her action represents the ________ response.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) acceptance

 

91) Steve Werner is unhappy with his job and takes every possible vacation and sick day to avoid going to work. In addition, whenever he goes to work, he shows up late and skips important meetings. Werner is expressing his dissatisfaction through the ________ response.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) acceptance
  5. E) neglect

92) Joe Dailey is unhappy with his job because he has not received the promotion due to him several years ago. However, in spite of this, he speaks up to support his company’s actions even when the local newspaper is criticizing them. Which of the following types of response represents his behavior?

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) acceptance

 

93) Sarah Mayer works as a marketing executive and has been unhappy with her job profile for several months now. Over the months, she has regularly discussed with her manager how her skills lie in administrative tasks instead of in marketing. In addition, she discusses how she can make a smooth transition into the administrative role. Which type of response is Mayer using in this situation?

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) performance

94) Attending union meetings as a way of coping with job dissatisfaction is an example of a(n) ________ response.

  1. A) exit
  2. B) voice
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) neglect
  5. E) ratification

95) To get his company through some hard economic times, Ben’s working hours have just been reduced from 40 hours a week to 33. Ben is upset about the reduction in time and pay, but he shows up at work every morning and is willing to patiently wait until economic times improve and he can go back to working full time. Which of the following types of response is being displayed by Ben?

  1. A) voice
  2. B) neglect
  3. C) loyalty
  4. D) exit
  5. E) acceptance

96) Which of the following is a type of response to dissatisfaction that is constructive and passive?

  1. A) loyalty
  2. B) neglect
  3. C) voice
  4. D) reflect
  5. E) exit

 

97) The performance variables productivity, absenteeism, and turnover are generally considered a part of the ________ behaviors in the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework.

  1. A) voice and neglect
  2. B) neglect and loyalty
  3. C) voice and exit
  4. D) loyalty and voice
  5. E) exit and neglect

98) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework expands employee response to include voice and loyalty-constructive behaviors that allow individuals to ________.

  1. A) revolt against the management
  2. B) reject unionization and focus on team-building activities
  3. C) identify psychologically with their jobs
  4. D) tolerate unpleasant situations or revive satisfactory working conditions
  5. E) decrease emotional contagion

99) ________ is moderately correlated with organizational citizenship behavior.

  1. A) Emotional contagion
  2. B) Job satisfaction
  3. C) Absenteeism
  4. D) Turnover rate
  5. E) Cognitive dissonance

 

100) Job dissatisfaction is more likely to translate into ________ when employees feel or perceive they have many available alternatives and when employees have high human capital.

  1. A) high productivity
  2. B) employee engagement
  3. C) increased customer satisfaction
  4. D) turnover
  5. E) organizational citizenship behavior

101) Under which of the following conditions is job dissatisfaction most likely to result in turnover?

  1. A) Employees have negative core self-evaluation.
  2. B) Employees have high education and ability.
  3. C) Employment opportunities are scarce.
  4. D) Employees experience emotional contagion.
  5. E) Employees have supportive relationships with their co-workers.

102) Job dissatisfaction and antagonistic relationships with co-workers predict a variety of behaviors organizations find undesirable, including unionization attempts, substance abuse, undue socializing, and tardiness. These behaviors are indicators of a broader syndrome called ________.

  1. A) employee withdrawal
  2. B) organizational commitment
  3. C) job involvement
  4. D) cognitive dissonance
  5. E) positivity offset

103) Rashid is dissatisfied at work. He feels he is paid too little and asked to do too much. To compensate for his perceived unjust pay, he regularly takes work supplies, such as computer ink cartridges, staplers, and reams of paper, home for personal use. Rashid’s behavior is an example of ________.

  1. A) employee OCB
  2. B) customer satisfaction
  3. C) high productivity
  4. D) turnover rate
  5. E) deviant behavior

104) Jason has been spending a great deal of work time talking to his co-workers about how dissatisfied he is with the job. He also has spent quite a bit of time discussing unionization. In the last week, Jason has arrived at work intoxicated twice. His behavior can be classified as ________ behavior.

  1. A) citizenship
  2. B) deviant
  3. C) organizational commitment
  4. D) positive affect
  5. E) satisficing

105) Synergy Inc. is a medium-sized logistics company. The management is facing tough times as the workers are dissatisfied and are engaging in a number of deviant workplace behaviors such as stealing and substance abuse during working hours. The management is considering various options to curb these counterproductive behaviors. What would be a better way to deal with such forms of workplace deviance?

  1. A) The management should let employees realize their wrongdoing on their own.
  2. B) The management should attack the source of the problem, i.e., the dissatisfaction.
  3. C) The management must introduce surveillance to ensure smooth flow of work.
  4. D) The management must suspend employees who engage in deviant workplace behaviors.
  5. E) The management must restrict the activities that adversely affect productivity.

106) Why should managers be interested in their employees’ attitudes?

  1. A) They result from behavior.
  2. B) They lead to self-concordance.
  3. C) They give warnings of potential problems.
  4. D) They result in emotional contagion.
  5. E) They result in cognitive dissonance.

107) The most important thing a manager can do to raise employee satisfaction is to focus on ________.

  1. A) employee pay
  2. B) benefits
  3. C) work hours
  4. D) intrinsic parts of the job
  5. E) employee productivity

108) A satisfied workforce does not guarantee successful organizational performance. In order to improve organizational effectiveness, managers ________.

  1. A) must use 360-degrees appraisal procedures
  2. B) must provide classroom training
  3. C) must make jobs easier and targets achievable
  4. D) must offer periodic salary increments
  5. E) must try to improve employee attitudes

 

109) “Voice” is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

 

110) Actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions is part of the loyalty response to dissatisfaction.

111) “Exit” is a passive and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

 

112) “Neglect” is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

 

113) To effectively control the undesirable consequences of job dissatisfaction, employers should try to control the different responses to dissatisfaction.

Answer:  FALSE

 

114) Creating a satisfied workforce guarantees successful organizational performance.

 

115) Sally has just been passed over for a promotion and is still earning less than $40,000 a year. She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction. Describe two active responses that Sally might undertake due to her dissatisfaction. Design a plan that Sally’s immediate supervisor can use to diffuse the situation and keep her on board with the company.

116) Karen is upset with her supervisor because she was denied her requested vacation days. She is experiencing a very low level of job satisfaction but cannot afford to quit her job. Describe three negative, passive responses that Karen might take due to her dissatisfaction. Imagine that her manager actively catches her in a manifestation of workplace deviance. Predict the outcome of Karen’s behavior.

 

117) Compare and contrast the four ways that employees can express job dissatisfaction.

 

118) What are core self-evaluations? Differentiate between positive and negative core self-evaluations.

119) Discuss whether employee satisfaction is related to positive customer outcomes.

 

120) Is there a relationship between job satisfaction and turnover? Explain.

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 4   Emotions and Moods

 

1) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience?

  1. A) affect
  2. B) knowledge
  3. C) insight
  4. D) attention
  5. E) cognition

 

2) Which of the following is a characteristic of emotions?

  1. A) Emotions are reactions to a person or event.
  2. B) Emotions last for a longer time period than moods.
  3. C) Emotions are never action-oriented in nature.
  4. D) Emotions lack a contextual stimulus.
  5. E) Emotions involve less intense feelings than moods.

 

3) Which of the following terms best describes an intense feeling directed at someone or something?

  1. A) perception
  2. B) cognition
  3. C) mood
  4. D) reasoning
  5. E) emotion

4) Ashley Madison works as a receptionist at a fashion magazine. One morning, her boss walks into the office and yells at her, telling her that the front office is a mess and she needs to clean it immediately. After her boss leaves the room, Madison goes to the front office and violently slams trash into the bin. Which of the following best describes Madison’s anger?

  1. A) a recognition
  2. B) an insight
  3. C) a mood
  4. D) an emotion
  5. E) a perception

 

5) ________ refers to feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that lack a contextual stimulus.

  1. A) Affect
  2. B) Cognition
  3. C) Mood
  4. D) Thought
  5. E) Reaction

6) Robert Springer woke up in the morning and felt a sense of joy and peace as he got ready for work. At work, though challenges came his way, he tackled them without getting stressed about them. This feeling lasted for several days that week. What is one of the reasons that Springer’s feeling can be categorized as a mood and not as an emotion?

  1. A) It is more intense than emotions.
  2. B) It is brought about by a specific event.
  3. C) It is prolonged in nature.
  4. D) It is a positive feeling.
  5. E) It is indicated by a facial expression.

7) When Ariana Winter is told that her dog has been killed by a car, she feels deeply saddened. Her feelings are then overcome by a surge of anger at the car driver. However, minutes later, she is able to laugh and talk about the good memories spent with her pet. What is one of the reasons that Winter’s reaction can be categorized as an emotion?

  1. A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.
  2. B) It lasted for a brief time period.
  3. C) It is not action-oriented.
  4. D) It is a negative feeling.
  5. E) It is cognitive in nature.

8) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding moods?

  1. A) Moods are always brought about by a specific event.
  2. B) Moods last for a very short period of time, such as a few seconds.
  3. C) As compared to emotions, moods are more likely to be clearly revealed by facial expressions.
  4. D) Moods are more fleeting than emotions.
  5. E) Moods are cognitive in nature.

 

9) Katherine Connor started her day with a cup of coffee while reading the newspaper. However, something about the day makes her feel low. When she reaches the office, she feels upset and distracted from work although she cannot pinpoint a reason for feeling this way. She continues to feel upset and distracted through the rest of the day. Which of the following is she most likely to be experiencing?

  1. A) a response
  2. B) a reaction
  3. C) a counteraction
  4. D) an attitude
  5. E) a mood

10) Erin Corbett works at a software company and is in charge of the help desk. A short while ago, she received a call from a discontented customer about a problem he is facing due to the company’s software. Though she tried to help the customer with the software, he refused to listen to her. He continued yelling at her and finally banged the phone down. Corbett feels exasperated after hanging up the phone and goes for a cup of coffee to calm herself down. What makes Corbett’s anger an emotion, rather than a mood?

  1. A) The cause of her behavior is unclear.
  2. B) The feeling of being angry is prolonged.
  3. C) The anger has a contextual stimulus.
  4. D) The response is void of action.
  5. E) The response is cognitive in nature.

 

11) Alana Gore works as a campaign manager at a nonprofit organization in Manhattan. She was recently asked by her supervisor to give a presentation on the progress of the ongoing climate campaign. However, throughout the presentation, her colleague Kelly Simmons interrupts her by asking irrelevant questions. In addition, she tries to insult her by constantly criticizing key findings and objectives achieved. Though Gore initially tried to be patient, she eventually loses her cool and retorts back, asking her to keep her questions and clarifications for the end of the presentation. Which of the following is a reason why Gore’s reaction can be categorized as an emotion instead of a mood?

  1. A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.
  2. B) It is not action-oriented.
  3. C) It incorporates both positive and negative dimensions of affect.
  4. D) It is less cognitive in nature than moods.
  5. E) It is caused by a specific event.

12) ________ are cognitive in nature, have an unclear, general cause, and last for several hours or days.

  1. A) Emotions
  2. B) Feelings
  3. C) Perceptions
  4. D) Moods
  5. E) Reactions

 

13) ________ are caused by a specific event, are very brief, and are accompanied by distinct facial expressions.

  1. A) Emotions
  2. B) Perceptions
  3. C) Attitudes
  4. D) Moods
  5. E) Reactions

14) Which of the following is not true regarding positive and negative emotions in different cultures?

  1. A) In China, people report experiencing fewer positive and negative emotions than people in other cultures.
  2. B) Compared to Mainland Chinese, Taiwanese are similar to Latin Americans in their experience of culture.
  3. C) The emotions felt by people in China are less intense than the emotions felt by people in other cultures.
  4. D) Compared to Mainland Chinese, Taiwanese are more like U.S. workers in their experience of emotions.
  5. E) On average, Taiwanese report more positive and fewer negative emotions than their Chinese counterparts.

 

15) Which of the following is not an example of moral emotions?

  1. A) sympathy for the suffering of others
  2. B) contempt for those who behave ethically
  3. C) guilt about our own immoral behavior
  4. D) anger about injustice done to others
  5. E) disgust at violations of moral norms

 

16) Which of the following is one of the six essentially universal emotions agreed on by a majority of researchers?

  1. A) anger
  2. B) shame
  3. C) apathy
  4. D) indifference
  5. E) distress

17) ________ is a pure marker of low negative affect.

  1. A) Boredom
  2. B) Nervousness
  3. C) Contentment
  4. D) Relaxation
  5. E) Serenity

 

18) ________ is a pure marker of high positive affect.

  1. A) Contentment
  2. B) Excitement
  3. C) Fatigue
  4. D) Boredom
  5. E) Relaxation

19) ________ is a pure marker of low positive affect.

  1. A) Stress
  2. B) Relaxation
  3. C) Boredom
  4. D) Nervous
  5. E) Alert

 

20) Which of the following mood dimensions is a pure marker of high negative affect?

  1. A) depression
  2. B) relaxation
  3. C) fatigue
  4. D) boredom
  5. E) nervousness

21) Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of ________ at the low end.

  1. A) nervousness
  2. B) relaxation
  3. C) anxiety
  4. D) stress
  5. E) depression

 

 

22) Jane Hastings recently joined her first job as a communication executive and is working on creating press releases for an upcoming campaign. The campaign is getting launched publicly in the next week and Hastings will need to interact with the media and give sound bites on the issue. This is the first time she will be interacting with the press and she is experiencing emotions of anxiousness, nervousness, and stress. Which of the following mood dimensions is she experiencing?

  1. A) low positive affect
  2. B) neutral affect
  3. C) low negative affect
  4. D) high positive affect
  5. E) high negative affect

 

23) Heather Donahue, who works as a receptionist at a finance firm in New Jersey, has been dissatisfied with her job for several months now. She finds the job uninteresting because of its monotonous nature where all she needs to do is receive calls. During work hours, she often experiences emotions such as tiredness, weariness, and boredom. Which of the following mood dimensions is she most likely to be experiencing?

  1. A) low positive affect
  2. B) neutral affect
  3. C) low negative affect
  4. D) high positive affect
  5. E) high negative affect

24) Jean Ervin works as a fund raising executive at a women’s rights organization in San Diego. Though she has been with the organization for only a year now, she has already been promoted and often gets excellent feedback from her manager. Her manager says that the key to Ervin’s good performance is that she is happy with the work she does and she is excited about the challenges in tasks, which she takes up with a lot of enthusiasm. Which of the following mood dimensions is Ervin most likely to be feeling?

  1. A) low positive affect
  2. B) neutral affect
  3. C) low negative affect
  4. D) high positive affect
  5. E) high negative affect

 

25) Emotions such as relaxation, serenity, and calmness comprise the ________ mood dimension.

  1. A) low positive affect
  2. B) neutral affect
  3. C) low negative affect
  4. D) high positive affect
  5. E) high negative affect

 

26) ________ refers to the tendency of most individuals to experience a mildly positive mood at zero input when nothing in particular is going on.

  1. A) Low positive affect
  2. B) Positivity offset
  3. C) Blunted affect
  4. D) Negativity bias
  5. E) Residual positivity

27) Which of the following is most likely to be experienced during a positivity offset?

  1. A) nervousness
  2. B) depression
  3. C) stress
  4. D) anxiety
  5. E) relaxation

 

28) A research group in Arizona recently conducted a survey among workers of a coal power plant to understand emotions and their happiness quotient. Employees at the plant often complained about poor working conditions and low insurance benefits. However, the group was surprised with the findings of the survey because employees had a positive mood 70 percent of the time during work hours. Which of the following concepts would best explain such findings?

  1. A) butterfly effect
  2. B) framing effect
  3. C) anchoring bias
  4. D) distinction bias
  5. E) positivity offset

 

29) Moods are more intense than emotions and invariably arise because of a specific event acting as a stimulus.

30) Emotions can turn into moods when one loses focus on the event or object that started the feeling.

31) Moods are usually accompanied by distinct facial expressions.

 

32) Emotions tend to last for several days, for a much longer time period than moods.

33) Studying facial expressions is a good way to identify basic emotions.

 

34) Nervousness is a pure marker of low negative affect.

35) Negative affect is a mood dimension consisting of nervousness, stress, and anxiety at the high end and relaxation, tranquility, and poise at the low end.

 

36) Positivity offset may be defined as the tendency of most individuals to experience a negative mood when nothing in particular is going on.

37) What are affect, emotions, and moods?

 

38) Explain how emotions and moods are different from each other.

39) Which of the following is true about emotions?

  1. A) They are experienced over several days or months.
  2. B) They are never caused by specific events.
  3. C) They are less intense than moods.
  4. D) They are critical to rational thinking.
  5. E) They are less fleeting than moods.

 

40) ________ refers to individual differences in strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

  1. A) The Hawthorne effect
  2. B) Affect intensity
  3. C) Intelligence quotient
  4. D) Positivity offset
  5. E) Ambiguity effect

41) Ben Ervin often experiences emotions in a much stronger manner than most of his other colleagues. Events that do not provoke any significant emotional response from another person send him into fits of happiness, anger, or depression. In view of such a situation, Ervin is displaying a high level of ________.

  1. A) intelligence quotient
  2. B) sentience quotient
  3. C) intellectual giftedness
  4. D) butterfly effect
  5. E) affect intensity

 

42) ________ refers to the tendency of people to associate two events when in reality there is no connection.

  1. A) Affect intensity
  2. B) Focusing effect
  3. C) Distinction bias
  4. D) Omission bias
  5. E) Illusory correlation

43) Gerard Yoder believes that every time he picks up his daughter, Penny, from school, it brings him good luck. The last time he picked her up from school, he won a lottery ticket. Today, after he received her from school, he reached his office and found out that he has been promoted. Which of the following concepts best describes Yoder’s belief?

  1. A) affect intensity
  2. B) bandwagon effect
  3. C) illusory superiority
  4. D) positive bias
  5. E) illusory correlation

44) On which day of the week does the positive effect tend to be highest?

  1. A) Sundays
  2. B) Mondays
  3. C) Saturdays
  4. D) Tuesdays
  5. E) Wednesdays

 

45) Which of the following is an example of an epicurean activity which helps increase a person’s positive mood?

  1. A) attending a meeting
  2. B) playing video games
  3. C) going on a ski vacation
  4. D) eating a meal with friends
  5. E) watching a movie

 

 

46) Which of the following is an example of a sedentary activity that does not play a crucial role in increasing positive mood?

  1. A) playing video games at home
  2. B) going for a hike in the mountains
  3. C) going on a ski vacation
  4. D) eating a meal with family members
  5. E) going to a party with friends

47) Which of the following statements is true regarding sources of moods and emotions?

  1. A) Reduced sleep makes a person more alert during waking hours.
  2. B) Physical and informal activities increase positive mood.
  3. C) Weather has a controlling effect on moods.
  4. D) Intensity of negative emotions increases with age.
  5. E) Mounting levels of stress at work create positive emotions.

48) Carlos is upset because his boss gave him work to finish over the weekend. It is Friday. Which of the following is most likely to help Carlos lift his spirits?

  1. A) watching TV with his friends
  2. B) playing a video game at home
  3. C) attending a meeting
  4. D) going to a party with his friends
  5. E) attending a training session

The findings of a recent company survey at Rader Industries showed that employees are experiencing high levels of work stress. To offset this, a manager suggests instituting a leave policy whereby employees must go on a mandatory vacation for seven days in the year.

 

49) The manager’s suggestion is based on which of the following assumptions?

  1. A) Employees are not experiencing a lack of work-life balance.
  2. B) Employees’ workload can be adjusted to accommodate their requests to go on leave.
  3. C) Employees have been misusing the company’s policy that allows them to exchange unused leave for cash.
  4. D) Employees have been able to go on leave whenever they wanted to.
  5. E) Employees have been working on regular working days of the year.

50) Under which of the following conditions, if true, would the manager’s suggestion most likely be accepted?

  1. A) The company recently acquired a new client and work volumes are expected to increase.
  2. B) The company halted its hiring plans for the year in order to focus on developing talent in-house.
  3. C) The company allows employees to exchange their unused leave for cash at the end of every year.
  4. D) The company promotes work-life balance, by offering employees flexible working arrangements.
  5. E) The company has a “use it or lose it” policy whereby unused leave lapses at the end of every year.

51) Under which of the following conditions, if true, would the manager’s suggestion least likely be accepted?

  1. A) The company conducts one-day offsite events on an annual basis to allow employees some time to unwind.
  2. B) The skills required by the company are highly specialized, and hence the company is short-staffed.
  3. C) The employees, though experiencing high levels of stress, also report high levels of job engagement.
  4. D) The company’s employees have reported high stress levels for more than three years in a row.
  5. E) The company’s leading competitor was recently voted as one of the best places to work due to its focus on employee well-being.

 

52) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true about differences between men and women in relation to emotional reactions?

  1. A) Men are more emotionally expressive than women.
  2. B) Men experience emotions more intensely than women.
  3. C) Women express anger more frequently than men.
  4. D) Women tend to hold onto emotions longer than men.
  5. E) Men display positive emotions more frequently than women.

53) The term affect intensity refers to the individual differences in the strength with which individuals experience their emotions.

54) Activities that are formal or sedentary are more strongly associated with increases in positive mood than activities that are physical, informal, or epicurean.

 

55) Poor or reduced sleep impairs decision making and makes it difficult to control emotions.

 

56) Interestingly, research indicates that our responses to moral emotions differ from our responses to other emotions.

57) Explain the significance of emotions.

58) Explain how stress affects emotions and moods.

 

59) What impact do social activities have on one’s moods?

 

60) Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.

 

61) A situation in which an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work is known as ________.

  1. A) emotional labor
  2. B) self-concordance
  3. C) emotional liability
  4. D) negative affect
  5. E) cognitive deviance

 

62) Johanna Godfrey works as a guest relations executive at a five star deluxe hotel in Washington. During the course of her job, she needs to greet and smile at guests irrespective of her state of mind. In addition, when any guest faces problems, she needs to be calm and composed and help resolve issues. This shows that Johanna’s job requires ________.

  1. A) emotional labor
  2. B) cognitive dissonance
  3. C) self-concordance
  4. D) positivity offset
  5. E) social loafing

 

63) Sally works as a customer care executive at a telecom office in Ohio. She often needs to interact with a regular customer and she finds him extremely annoying. However, because of the nature of her work, she conceals her emotions well and politely talks to him and clarifies all his questions. Which of the following is being experienced by Sally?

  1. A) illusory correlation
  2. B) emotional dissonance
  3. C) positive affect
  4. D) emotional selection
  5. E) positivity offset

64) Carrie recently received the Employee of the Year award at the call center where she works as a customer service representative. She was chosen for the award because she is known to be highly courteous toward even the most difficult of callers and is efficient at handling their queries. A month after receiving the award, Carrie submits her resignation. According to her exit interview, she felt burnt out. Which of the following best explains this situation?

  1. A) Carrie was overwhelmed by the award.
  2. B) Carrie lacked the skills and motivation to perform her job in an effective manner.
  3. C) Carrie felt the strain of having to constantly fake positive emotions towards her customers.
  4. D) Carrie was demotivated by the lack of recognition and respect from her peers.
  5. E) Carrie was unable to empathize with her callers and the problems that they faced.

 

65) ________ refers to inconsistencies between the emotions people feel and the emotions they project.

  1. A) Collective efficacy
  2. B) Emotional dissonance
  3. C) Social loafing
  4. D) Positivity offset
  5. E) Self-concordance

 

66) ________ emotions are emotions that people actually experience, despite what they might display.

  1. A) Felt
  2. B) Conditional
  3. C) Surface
  4. D) Disseminative
  5. E) Cognitive

 

67) Which of the following terms refers to the practice of hiding inner feelings and foregoing emotional expressions in response to display rules?

  1. A) surface acting
  2. B) anchoring bias
  3. C) active camouflage
  4. D) bandwagon effect
  5. E) framing effect

 

68) Which of the following statements is true regarding surface acting?

  1. A) It involves foregoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.
  2. B) It involves changing one’s likes and dislikes to be in sync with display rules.
  3. C) It involves displaying one’s true feelings explicitly toward a person.
  4. D) It deals with expressing felt emotions toward a person or event.
  5. E) It involves trying to modify one’s true inner feelings based on display rules.

69) Which of the following is an example of surface acting?

  1. A) an employee expressing her true admiration for her colleague
  2. B) an employee masking her emotions of distrust toward the management
  3. C) an employee striving to like her job even though it feels uninteresting
  4. D) an employee retorting back at an annoying customer
  5. E) a colleague making an effort to get along with a difficult team mate

 

70) The practice of modifying one’s true inner feelings based on display rules is known as ________.

  1. A) surface acting
  2. B) deep acting
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) behavioral contagion
  5. E) collective efficacy

 

71) Which of the following is an example of deep acting?

  1. A) Sasha ignores a colleague’s question because she knows he has a personal grudge against her.
  2. B) Andy conceals her emotions and politely talks to a customer even though he is annoying her.
  3. C) Liza smiles at her manager even though last week she was passed over for a promotion.
  4. D) Dave tries to get along with a co-worker because they will soon be working together on a project.
  5. E) Javier is tired of working long hours and calls in sick on Monday to skip work.

72) Surface acting deals only with ________ emotions.

  1. A) negative
  2. B) weak
  3. C) cognitive
  4. D) strong
  5. E) displayed

 

73) Displayed emotions are innate and cannot be learned.

 

74) Deep acting is hiding inner feelings and foregoing emotional expressions in response to display rules.

 

75) What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions?

76) What is emotional labor? What is its relation to emotional dissonance? Explain.

77) ________ refers to a model which suggests that workplace events cause emotional reactions on the part of employees, which then influence workplace attitudes and behaviors.

  1. A) Ironic process theory
  2. B) Implicit personality theory
  3. C) Disengagement theory
  4. D) Affective events theory
  5. E) Construal level theory

 

78) Which of the following is true according to the affective events theory?

  1. A) Employees react emotionally to events at work, which affects their job performance and satisfaction.
  2. B) Employees who score high on emotional stability are more likely to react strongly to negative events.
  3. C) Employees who experience emotional dissonance at work can only be motivated with the help of money.
  4. D) An employee’s emotions are independent of the employee’s age and gender.
  5. E) Employees scoring high on the personality trait of extraversion tend to be more successful at the workplace.

79) Which of the following is an example of an uplifting event according to the affective events theory?

  1. A) meeting a project milestone
  2. B) being passed over for a promotion
  3. C) colleagues refusing to carry their share of work
  4. D) receiving conflicting directions from different managers
  5. E) receiving a gift from a colleague on a birthday

80) According to the affective events theory, work events trigger positive or negative emotional reactions among employees and these reactions influence their job performance and satisfaction.

 

81) Discuss the affective events theory.

82) Rachel Hartley is a former top management graduate student who now works as a project manager at a retail firm. However, in spite of her strong educational background, she often finds it difficult to manage her team efficiently. She is not able to understand her team’s emotions when they feel frustrated with a work challenge or when they need appreciation for a job well done. Which of the following does Hartley suffer from?

  1. A) downing effect
  2. B) low emotional dissonance
  3. C) depressive realism
  4. D) low cognitive dissonance
  5. E) low emotional intelligence

83) Which of the following terms refers to a person’s ability to detect and to manage emotional cues and information?

  1. A) emotional intelligence
  2. B) self-concordance
  3. C) emotional spectrum
  4. D) illusory correlation
  5. E) cognitive dissonance

84) Alejandro is constantly annoying people in the office. He speaks his mind freely without taking into consideration how it will affect others, doesn’t try to smile when he’s in a bad mood, and can’t understand why other people are upset with him. Alejandro’s inability to be self-aware indicates that he has a very low ________.

  1. A) cognitive intelligence
  2. B) self-esteem
  3. C) negative affect
  4. D) emotional intelligence
  5. E) job satisfaction

85) Wanda Elder works as a human resource executive. Being helpful is inherent in her nature, and she regularly interacts with employees, helping them understand their needs and easing difficulties. She reads emotional cues of people with ease and knows how to express her emotions without violating organizational norms. Which of the following is Elder characterized by?

  1. A) high cognitive dissonance
  2. B) low self-esteem
  3. C) high emotional dissonance
  4. D) high emotional intelligence
  5. E) low job satisfaction

86) Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would be a significant factor when considering a candidate for the job of a(n) ________.

  1. A) event planner who needs to coordinate with several people
  2. B) engineer working on developing a software program
  3. C) web researcher who needs to consolidate online travel information
  4. D) copy-editor who checks spelling and grammatical errors in manuscripts
  5. E) technical writer who needs to create a 1000-word article every day

 

87) Which of the following statements is true regarding emotional intelligence (EI)?

  1. A) It refers to a score derived from standardized tests to measure intelligence.
  2. B) It refers to an aptitude for intellectual activities that cannot be acquired with personal effort.
  3. C) It comprises a person’s ability to detect others’ and one’s own feelings.
  4. D) It is based on rationality instead of intuitive appeal to make judgments.
  5. E) It refers to a person’s ability to suppress his/her true emotions and express organizationally accurate emotions.

88) Which of the following is an argument used against emotional intelligence?

  1. A) It is not genetically influenced and thus is void of an underlying biological factor.
  2. B) It does not have the capacity to predict criteria that matter.
  3. C) It can be learned by experience.
  4. D) It cannot be measured easily and measures of EI are diverse.
  5. E) It is not closely related to intelligence and personality.

89) Elvira wants to hire three new customer service representatives. She is considering using a measure of EI to help select her new employees. Explain what EI is and how it could be useful to Elvira for the job that she’s hiring for. Include the reasons why she should not depend entirely on the EI measures for her selection.

90) What is emotional intelligence? Briefly explain the arguments for and against emotional intelligence.

91) Which of the following is not true regarding emotion regulation?

  1. A) It can be defined as a person’s ability to understand the meaning of emotions.
  2. B) Persons engaging in emotion regulation might try to cheer themselves when they’re feeling down.
  3. C) It involves identifying and modifying the emotions one feels.
  4. D) Emotion regulation is a strong predictor of task performance for some jobs and organization citizenship behavior.
  5. E) Surface acting has only a minimal effect on emotion regulation.

92) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of moods and emotions on decision making?

  1. A) Moods and emotions have no direct influence on decision making.
  2. B) People in good moods are less likely than others to use heuristics to make decisions.
  3. C) Positive emotions tend to diminish problem-solving skills and analytical skills.
  4. D) People with positive emotions are slower at processing information than depressed people.
  5. E) Depressed people tend to weigh all possible options rather than the most likely ones.

93) Amber and Emma were recently hired by a marketing agency. Though there is a lot of work that has been allotted to both of them, Amber is always in a good mood. Emma, on the other hand, appears to be depressed with her job. Compared to Emma, Amber is more likely to ________.

  1. A) take an extended time at processing information
  2. B) have poor problem-solving skills
  3. C) make poorer decisions
  4. D) find better solutions to problems
  5. E) weigh all possible options rather than the most likely ones

94) Dawn Wang heads an ad agency in Texas and regularly needs to work with copywriters, artists, and designers to come up with effective branding solutions for products. For one of the company’s esteemed clients, Wang and her team need to brainstorm ideas for a slogan for the client’s new line of clothing. In such a situation, why is it particularly important for Wang to keep her team happy?

  1. A) People take a long time at processing information when they are in a good mood.
  2. B) People tend to weigh all options to make less likely decisions when in a good mood.
  3. C) People are less likely to use rules of thumb when they are in a good mood.
  4. D) People tend to make decisions quickly when they are in a good mood.
  5. E) People are more creative and produce more ideas when they are in a good mood.

95) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation?

  1. A) Displaying a negative emotion at a negotiation can never be effective.
  2. B) Angry negotiators who have less power than opponents have better outcomes.
  3. C) Individuals who do poorly in a negotiation are more willing to be cooperative in future negotiations.
  4. D) Feeling bad about your performance during a negotiation tends to impair future negotiations.
  5. E) Individuals who do poorly in a negotiation develop positive perceptions of their counterpart.

96) Tiffany Crowe works as a showroom executive at a clothing boutique in London. Today, she is in a positive mood and instantly greets and smiles at a customer who walks into the store. The customer feels welcomed by her response. While browsing the store, Crowe helps the customer with products and passes on her positive mood to the customer. The customer leaves the store feeling content with a smile on her face. Which of the following best describes this situation?

  1. A) emotional contagion
  2. B) positivity offset
  3. C) cognitive dissonance
  4. D) framing effect
  5. E) bandwagon effect

97) Green Earth, an environmental organization in Oklahoma, recently recruited Phyllis Galvan as a project coordinator. Galvan’s manager has noticed that ever since she has joined, she has been extremely positive about her work and takes up challenges without complaining. In addition, she maintains a positive ambience by helping out colleagues and smiling at everyone she interacts with. Her behavior has had a positive effect on her colleagues, who have started behaving in a similar manner. Which of the following concepts is demonstrated in this example?

  1. A) emotional dissonance
  2. B) Ben Franklin effect
  3. C) unit bias
  4. D) anchoring effect
  5. E) emotional contagion

98) As part of their sales training, the staff at Penny Stores is encouraged to build personal relationships with the store’s patrons. Apart from receiving product training, the staff is taught to follow a scripted sales process wherein they must greet the customers, introduce themselves, and enquire about their purchase. They are also encouraged to engage in casual conversation with the customer. In a recent survey conducted by the marketing department, it was revealed that customers were dissatisfied with the level of service at Penny Stores. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation?

  1. A) Customers come to Penny Stores to make high-involvement purchases.
  2. B) Customers associate superior service with efficiency and not friendliness.
  3. C) Penny Stores offer an extensive range of consumer products.
  4. D) The training period for the staff is three weeks long.
  5. E) The staff at Penny Stores is friendly but not familiar.

99) People often behave in ways that violate established norms and threaten the organization, its members, or both. Such actions are called ________.

  1. A) workplace deviant behaviors
  2. B) social alienation behaviors
  3. C) role engulfment
  4. D) behavioral contagion
  5. E) behavioral modernity

100) Jonathan Cowan is upset because he was passed over for a promotion he had really worked hard for. In response to his anger toward the manager and the company, he has started gossiping about the manager with his colleagues and assigning blame on him unnecessarily. Jonathan’s behavior is an example of ________.

  1. A) deviant workplace behavior
  2. B) distinction bias
  3. C) cognitive dissonance
  4. D) positivity offset
  5. E) emotional dissonance

101) Which of the following is an example of deviant workplace behavior?

  1. A) sabotaging one’s organization’s computers
  2. B) taking blame for not achieving a deadline
  3. C) putting forward one’s views in a brainstorming session
  4. D) working during the weekend to make up for backlog
  5. E) requesting a two-day leave during the Christmas season

 

102) Racial diversity also has an effect: if diversity is low, the minority will engage in emotion regulation, perhaps to “fit in” with the majority race as much as possible; if diversity is high and many different races are represented, the majority race will employ emotion regulation, perhaps to integrate themselves with the whole group.

103) People in good moods tend to be more creative than people in bad moods.

104) Depressed people are more likely than others to use heuristics, or rules of thumb, to help make good decisions quickly.

 

105) As the escalation over The Interview illustrates, emotions can greatly influence decision making, even sparking conflict with potentially disastrous consequences.

 

106) People who have a stressful day at work also have trouble relaxing after they get off work.

107) Zach is a pharmaceutical sales representative and must put on a smile every day at work with his clients. Discuss the emotional labor exerted by Zach. Explain the significance of the emotional intelligence demanded of Zach in order to be successful, and describe how he applies his emotions and moods in his job.

108) Discuss the emotional labor experienced by a customer service executive. Explain how a worker’s emotional state can affect customer service and customers.

 

109) Suppression used in crisis situations appears to help an individual recover from the event emotionally, while suppression used as an everyday emotion regulation technique can take a toll on mental ability, emotional ability, health, and relationships.

 

110) You are right to want to strategize how to calm the situation since it hurts you, your coworkers, and the company.

111) How can managers influence moods? Explain.

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 5   Personality and Values

 

1) According to Gordon Allport, ________ is defined as the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine a person’s unique adjustments to his/her environment.

  1. A) cognitive dissonance
  2. B) heredity
  3. C) personality
  4. D) descent
  5. E) genealogy

 

2) Who defined personality as the dynamic organization within the individual of those psychophysical systems that determine a person’s unique adjustments to his/her environment?

  1. A) Leon Festinger
  2. B) Dr. Sigmund Freud
  3. C) Gordon Allport
  4. D) Abraham Maslow
  5. E) Ivan Pavlov

3) ________ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

  1. A) Talent
  2. B) Skill
  3. C) Knowledge
  4. D) Heredity
  5. E) Personality

4) Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.

  1. A) talent
  2. B) skill
  3. C) knowledge
  4. D) genealogy
  5. E) personality

 

5) Which of the following is the most common means of measuring personality?

  1. A) in-depth interviews
  2. B) self-report surveys
  3. C) career portfolio
  4. D) reference interviews
  5. E) stress interviews

Quest. Category:  Concept

 

 

6) Which of the following is a drawback of self-report surveys?

  1. A) They can hold only a limited number of questions.
  2. B) They involve a large number of people in the evaluation process.
  3. C) They may have biased results if the surveyor’s judgment is biased.
  4. D) They comprise a large number of complex statistical data.
  5. E) They may result in the respondent lying to create a good impression.

7) In ________, a co-worker or another observer does an independent assessment of personality, with or without the subject’s knowledge.

  1. A) observer-ratings surveys
  2. B) paid surveys
  3. C) knowledge surveys
  4. D) deviation surveys
  5. E) cadastral surveys

 

8) Tracy Winter works at a publishing firm in London and recently received an e-mail from the human resource department of her company asking her to study the behavior of a colleague, Cindy Camp, including her attention toward her work, without Camp’s knowledge. Winter now needs to scrutinize Camp’s behavior and notice if she is free from distractions and pays sufficient attention to her tasks. Which of the following is Winter conducting?

  1. A) observer-ratings survey
  2. B) informational interview
  3. C) knowledge survey
  4. D) participant observation
  5. E) focus group survey

 

9) Which of the following terms refers to factors such as one’s biological, physiological, and inherent psychological makeup determined at conception?

  1. A) social identity
  2. B) heredity
  3. C) behavioral contagion
  4. D) self-concordance
  5. E) social loafing

10) Which of the following statements is true about personality?

  1. A) Personality is free from the influence of the environment.
  2. B) Personality remains constant over time.
  3. C) Personality can be measured solely through personal interviews.
  4. D) Personality is influenced by hereditary factors.
  5. E) Parents highly influence the development of their offspring’s personality.

 

11) Which of the following does the heredity approach state?

  1. A) An individual’s personality is determined by the social background one is brought up in.
  2. B) An individual’s personality is determined by molecular structure of the genes.
  3. C) An individual’s personality is influenced by the economic settings he/she is surrounded by.
  4. D) A person’s personality traits are created by the company he/she keeps i.e., his/her friends and family.
  5. E) A person’s personality traits are largely influenced by global trends and characteristics.

 

12) A drawback of self-report surveys is the level of accuracy.

 

13) As compared to observer-ratings surveys, self-reporting surveys are a better predictor of success on the job.

14) What are the two main means of measuring personality? Discuss.

 

15) Does heredity determine a person’s personality? Explain.

16) The ________ is a personality assessment consisting of 100 questions where respondents are classified as extraverted or introverted, sensing or intuitive, thinking or feeling, and judging or perceiving.

  1. A) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
  2. B) Birkman Method
  3. C) Karolinska Scales of Personality
  4. D) Keirsey Temperament Sorter
  5. E) Taylor-Johnson Temperament Analysis

17) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the ________ type are practical and prefer routine and order and focus on details.

  1. A) sensing
  2. B) extraverted
  3. C) feeling
  4. D) perceiving
  5. E) intuitive

18) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the ________ type are flexible and spontaneous.

  1. A) thinking
  2. B) judging
  3. C) introverted
  4. D) sensing
  5. E) perceiving

 

19) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the judging type ________.

  1. A) are quiet, shy and introverted
  2. B) rely on unconscious processes
  3. C) prefer their world to be ordered
  4. D) are flexible and spontaneous
  5. E) rely on personal values and emotions

20) Which of the following are characteristics of the intuitive type of people according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

  1. A) prefer routine and order and focus on details
  2. B) outgoing, sociable, and assertive in nature
  3. C) rely on unconscious processes and look at the overall picture
  4. D) use reason, rationality, and logic to handle problems and situations
  5. E) rely on their personal values and emotions to make decisions

 

21) Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, she is assertive in making decisions, and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following types is Athers most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

  1. A) perceiving
  2. B) brooder
  3. C) extraverted
  4. D) introverted
  5. E) solitary

22) Elaine Chamberlain works as a research executive at an environmental organization. Though her colleagues are helpful and friendly, because of her shy nature, she often eats her lunch at her desk and has limited interactions with them. She is glad that her nature of work does not require her to interact with her co-workers to a high extent. Which of the following types is Chamberlain most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

  1. A) social
  2. B) introverted
  3. C) exhibitionist
  4. D) gregarious
  5. E) extraverted

23) Valerie Sinclair, a climate campaigner at an environmental organization, invariably uses rationale to make decisions for project implementation. She believes that the right decisions can be made only through scrutiny and analysis. Each time she needs to make a decision, she weighs all options before taking action. Which of the following is a characteristic of Sinclair’s personality type according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

  1. A) intuitive
  2. B) introverted
  3. C) thinking
  4. D) feeling
  5. E) perceiving

24) Amber Downing, a human resource executive, is in charge of the recruitment process in her organization. During the hiring process, she often needs to coordinate with prospective employees. The organizational process does not require her to inform employees who do not get through the selection process. However she believes that it is rude not to give them an update. She thus makes sure that she sends them e-mails informing them about the selection process. Which of the following types is Downing characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification?

  1. A) sensing
  2. B) judging
  3. C) thinking
  4. D) feeling
  5. E) introverted

25) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, introverted-intuitive-thinking-judging type of people are ________.

  1. A) visionaries
  2. B) organizers
  3. C) conceptualizers
  4. D) executors
  5. E) methodists

26) People with an ESTJ personality type are characterized as ________ according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification.

  1. A) irrational
  2. B) perplexed
  3. C) decisive
  4. D) disoriented
  5. E) emotional

27) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people with an ENTP personality type are most likely to be ________.

  1. A) illogical
  2. B) innovative
  3. C) intuitive
  4. D) skeptical
  5. E) stubborn

 

28) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of “E or I” stand for?

  1. A) enthusiastic/ingenious
  2. B) emotional/impulsive
  3. C) extraverted/introverted
  4. D) emotive/illustrative
  5. E) empathetic/innovative

29) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of S versus N stand for?

  1. A) sensing/intuitive
  2. B) social/perceiving
  3. C) stable/negligent
  4. D) sympathetic/thinking
  5. E) shrewd/feeling

 

30) What is the major problem with the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator as a measure of personality?

  1. A) It has an excess of classifications, which tends to confuse a person.
  2. B) It forces a person to be categorized as either one type or another.
  3. C) It does not have a clear demarcation between different personality types.
  4. D) It tends to overemphasize intuitive traits over analytical traits.
  5. E) It indicates results related exclusively to job performance.

 

31) The ________ is a personality assessment model that taps basic dimensions encompassing most of the significant variation in human personality, namely extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience.

  1. A) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
  2. B) Big Five model
  3. C) Birkman method
  4. D) Keirsey Temperament Sorter
  5. E) Forté Profile

 

32) Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others?

  1. A) conscientiousness
  2. B) agreeableness
  3. C) extraversion
  4. D) openness to experience
  5. E) emotional stability

 

33) Which dimension of the Big Five model is a measure of reliability?

  1. A) extraversion
  2. B) agreeableness
  3. C) conscientiousness
  4. D) openness to experience
  5. E) emotional stability

 

34) According to the Big Five model, a highly conscientious person is most likely to be ________.

  1. A) distracted, disorganized, and unreliable
  2. B) calm, self-confident, and secure
  3. C) cold, disagreeable, and antagonistic
  4. D) responsible, organized, and dependable
  5. E) reserved, timid, and quiet

35) According to the Big Five model, a person who scores ________ is easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable.

  1. A) low on emotional stability
  2. B) low on openness to experience
  3. C) high on agreeableness
  4. D) high on extraversion
  5. E) low on conscientiousness

 

36) Which of the following dimensions of the Big Five model indicates a person’s ability to withstand stress?

  1. A) emotional stability
  2. B) extraversion
  3. C) openness to experience
  4. D) agreeableness
  5. E) conscientiousness

 

37) According to the Big Five model, the ________ dimension addresses a range of interests and fascination with novelty.

  1. A) emotional stability
  2. B) extraversion
  3. C) openness to experience
  4. D) agreeableness
  5. E) conscientiousness

38) Marina Lyon works as a reservation executive at a travel and tourism company. Though her job requires her only to efficiently book flight tickets for customers, she has also opted to undergo training to learn the process of hotel reservations. In addition, every evening she reads travelogues to be aware of upcoming travel destinations and trends. She loves the industry she works in and is eager to learn as much as she can. Considering the information given in this case, which dimension of the Big Five model best describes Lyon’s personality?

  1. A) extraversion
  2. B) agreeableness
  3. C) conscientiousness
  4. D) openness to experience
  5. E) emotional stability

 

39) ________ has been found to be more important than other traits in the success of CEOs of private equity companies.

  1. A) Extraversion
  2. B) Agreeableness
  3. C) Conscientiousness
  4. D) Emotional stability
  5. E) Openness to experience

40) Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of highly conscientious people according to the Big Five model?

  1. A) They engage in numerous risky behaviors, such as smoking and drinking.
  2. B) They tend to indulge in irresponsible behavior and be disorganized.
  3. C) They do not adapt well to changing contexts.
  4. D) They focus on learning instead of performing a job efficiently.
  5. E) They excessively emphasize being creative.

 

41) Among the Big Five model traits, ________ is most strongly related to life satisfaction, job satisfaction, and low stress levels.

  1. A) extraversion
  2. B) agreeableness
  3. C) conscientiousness
  4. D) emotional stability
  5. E) openness to experience

42) With reference to the Big Five Model, which of the following is a difference between highly agreeable and less agreeable people?

  1. A) Highly agreeable people tend to do better in interpersonally oriented jobs than less agreeable people.
  2. B) Highly agreeable people are less compliant and less rule abiding than less agreeable people.
  3. C) Highly agreeable people tend to be less satisfied in their jobs than less agreeable people.
  4. D) Highly agreeable people engage in less organization citizenship behavior than less agreeable people.
  5. E) Highly agreeable people have more tendency to engage in organizational deviance than less agreeable people.

43) Which of the following differentiates introverts from extraverts?

  1. A) Introverts tend to be happier in their jobs in comparison to extraverts.
  2. B) Introverts express feelings more freely compared to extraverts.
  3. C) Introverts experience more positive emotions than extraverts.
  4. D) Introverts are generally more assertive than extraverts.
  5. E) Introverts are less impulsive than extraverts.

44) People scoring high on the ________ dimension of the Big Five model are more likely to be absent from work and engage in risky behavior than those who score low.

  1. A) agreeableness
  2. B) conscientiousness
  3. C) openness
  4. D) extraversion
  5. E) emotional stability

45) The most widely used and best known personality frameworks are the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and the Big Five Personality model. Both describe a person’s total personality through exploration of the facets of personality.

 

46) According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification, people belonging to the judging type prefer control and like their world to be ordered and structured.

 

47) According to the Big Five model, a person who scores high on the openness to experience dimension is conventional and finds comfort in the familiar.

 

48) According to the Big Five model, the agreeableness dimension refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others.

49) One problem with the MBTI is that the model forces a person into one type or another; that is, you’re either introverted or extraverted. There is no in-between.

 

50) According to the Big Five model, a drawback of introverts is that they tend to be more impulsive than extraverts and engage in risky behavior.

51) What are the various classifications used in the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) framework?

 

52) Describe the personality traits of people who fit into each of the following Myers-Briggs Type Indicator categories: INTJ, ESTJ, and ENTP.

53) Briefly describe the five key traits in the Big Five model.

 

54) Describe conscientiousness and explain how it can predict behavior at work.

55) Valerie Clark works as a campaigner at the Oceans Protection Foundation in Japan. During campaign implementation activities, she prefers to follow structured processes and ensures her team undertakes activities in an orderly fashion. In addition, she takes responsibility for milestones to be achieved and key project activities. Her colleagues and team members find that they can depend on her for support and guidance and admire her quality of never giving up on a challenge. Explain the categories of personalities Clark would most likely fit into according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and the Big Five model.

 

56) ________ refers to bottom-line conclusions individuals have about their capabilities, competence, and worth as a person.

  1. A) Core self-evaluation
  2. B) Authoritarianism
  3. C) Self-monitoring
  4. D) Machiavellianism
  5. E) Agreeableness

57) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations?

  1. A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals.
  2. B) They view themselves as powerless over their environment.
  3. C) They tend to question their capabilities and capacities.
  4. D) They lack persistence to achieve goals.
  5. E) They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers.

58) People with positive core self-evaluations feel that they are powerless over their environment.

 

59) Explain the effect of core self-evaluation on job performance.

60) Describe the personality trait of self-monitoring.

61) Which of the following personality traits indicates the degree to which a person is unemotional and pragmatic and believes that ends can justify means?

  1. A) extraversion
  2. B) Machiavellianism
  3. C) agreeableness
  4. D) self-concordance
  5. E) narcissism

 

62) A high Mach would be most productive in which of the following positions?

  1. A) a manager who leads team members in different geographic locations
  2. B) an executive who has to follow stringent rules while closing a sale
  3. C) a legal liaison who works from home and coordinates with people through the phone
  4. D) a freelance researcher whose work is free from interpersonal communication
  5. E) a sales person whose major part of the salary consists of sales commission

 

63) ________ refers to the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive admiration, and have a sense of entitlement.

  1. A) Asceticism
  2. B) Stoicism
  3. C) Cynicism
  4. D) Narcissism
  5. E) Machiavellianism

64) During an annual review, Michel Godfrey made the following assertion: “When I look at myself and my performance, I see that what I have achieved is outstanding and something no one in the organization has the capacity to undertake. Surprisingly, it has not won me the admiration of my colleagues like it should have. I also believe that I do not just deserve a raise, but need one, since without me, let’s face it, the place would simply fall apart.” Which of the following personality traits best describes Michel’s personality?

  1. A) minimalism
  2. B) monasticism
  3. C) stoicism
  4. D) narcissism
  5. E) Machiavellianism

65) Which of the following is true about narcissists?

  1. A) They go out of their way to be helpful to colleagues.
  2. B) They have an inferiority complex about themselves.
  3. C) They are more likely to emerge as leaders.
  4. D) They do not require admiration or importance of people.
  5. E) They are meek, timid, and shy in nature.

66) Individuals scoring ________ have a strong ability to adjust their behavior to external, situational factors and can behave differently in different situations.

  1. A) low on openness
  2. B) high on narcissism
  3. C) low on agreeableness
  4. D) high on self-monitoring
  5. E) low on conscientiousness

67) Individuals low in self-monitoring ________.

  1. A) tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation
  2. B) are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance, and believe ends can justify means
  3. C) have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive admiration, and are arrogant
  4. D) are easily distracted, disorganized, and unreliable
  5. E) tend to dislike themselves and view themselves as powerless over their environment

 

68) As compared to high self-monitors, low self-monitors ________.

  1. A) tend to be more adaptable to external situations
  2. B) pay closer attention to the behavior of others
  3. C) have low consistency between personalities and actions
  4. D) are less likely to emerge as leaders
  5. E) show less commitment to their organizations

 

69) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Kate’s chances of being selected?

  1. A) Kate is socially inept and tends to display her true disposition and attitude in every situation.
  2. B) Kate behaves differently in different situations and occasionally presents striking contradictions between her public persona and her private self.
  3. C) Kate has a strong sense of independence and often gets work done without any support from others.
  4. D) Kate is often in agreement with others’ ideas and opinions.
  5. E) Kate is gregarious and comfortable in changing contexts and ambiguous situations.

70) Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Kate’s chances of being selected?

  1. A) Kate generally considers herself to be better than her colleagues.
  2. B) Kate is a go-getter—she is prepared to go to any length to get ahead.
  3. C) Kate has a conventional mindset and focuses on being efficient at her work.
  4. D) Kate often conforms to others’ ideas and opinions rather than come up with her own.
  5. E) Kate is enterprising and adept at interacting with diverse groups of individuals.

 

71) John Hardley recently joined as marketing director of H2O, a water sports gear company. Though in the last five years the company has had a drastic dip in sales, ever since Hardley has joined he has turned the figures around. In addition to revamping the look of the brand, he has initiated several marketing campaigns through broadcast media to increase customer base for the company. Over the past six months, Hardley has managed to get the company to an all-time high peak of sales. Which of the following statements best describes Hardley?

  1. A) Hardley is a low self-monitor.
  2. B) Hardley is a narcissist.
  3. C) Hardley scores high in Machiavellianism.
  4. D) Hardley has a proactive personality.
  5. E) Hardley is a low risk-taking person.

72) Those with a ________ personality identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs, compared to others who passively react to situations.

  1. A) high self-monitoring
  2. B) proactive
  3. C) high Mach
  4. D) type A
  5. E) narcissist

 

73) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding people with proactive personalities?

  1. A) They react passively to situations.
  2. B) They tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation.
  3. C) They tend to be selfish and exploitive and believe others exist for their benefit.
  4. D) They are more likely than others to be seen as leaders.
  5. E) They are narcissistic in nature and require constant admiration.

 

74) Which of the following, if true, would reduce the likelihood that Bryan will be selected?

  1. A) Bryan has had little exposure to Chinese culture.
  2. B) Bryan is proficient in Chinese.
  3. C) Bryan traveled to Beijing last year on a different assignment.
  4. D) Bryan does not cope very well in ambiguous situations.
  5. E) Bryan sometimes displays striking contradictions between his public persona and his private self.

75) Which of the following, if true, would increase the likelihood that Bryan will be selected?

  1. A) Bryan’s application was rejected the last time he applied for an international assignment.
  2. B) Bryan has trained several employees in the last six months.
  3. C) Bryan has had little exposure to Chinese culture.
  4. D) Bryan displays striking contradictions between his public persona and his private self.
  5. E) Bryan is quite sociable and can “think on his feet.”

76) High Mach employees win in the short term, but lose the gains in the long term because they are not well liked.

 

77) The degree to which norms, cues, or standards dictate appropriate behavior is known as consistency.

78) Research suggests that personality traits better predict behavior in weak situations than in strong ones.

 

79) An organization in a dynamic and changing environment that needs employees who can easily change tasks and teams should seek individuals with personalities that fit with the organization’s overall culture rather than with a specific task.

80) Michelle Young, who works as a sales manager at a bank, often has to deal with a lot of stress to meet monthly targets for her team. However, irrespective of stressful situations, she manages to handle problems with ease and a smile on her face. Her team members are often surprised at how she deals with such situations with so much confidence. They believe the reason she manages to be such a good role model of handling volatile situations is because she is confident of her capabilities and sees herself as an effective manager. Describe Young’s personality in terms of the Big Five model and core self-evaluation.

81) Percy Collins works as a life advisor at an insurance firm and often looks for constant admiration from his manager every time he sells a policy. He also feels that he is the best at his work and no other advisor in his company has the ability or the skills to sell the amount of policies that he can. During meetings and team-building exercises, colleagues often find him rude, distant, and antagonistic. What categories according to the Big Five model and other personality traits are Collins most likely to be characterized by?

 

82) Percy Collins works as a life advisor at an insurance firm and often looks for constant admiration from his manager every time he sells a policy. He also feels that he is the best at his work and no other advisor in his company has the ability or the skills to sell the amount of policies that he can. During meetings and team-building exercises, colleagues often find him rude, distant, and antagonistic. Identify and describe the personality trait exhibited by Collins.

83) Describe the personality characteristics of Machiavellianism.

 

84) Describe the typical characteristics associated with a proactive personality.

 

85) Explain characteristics of a proactive personality who is of the investigative type according to Holland’s typology.

86) Which of the following terms describes basic convictions that “a specific mode of conduct or end-state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct”?

  1. A) values
  2. B) attitudes
  3. C) emotions
  4. D) feelings
  5. E) traditions

 

87) When we rank an individual’s values in order of their ________, we obtain the person’s value system.

  1. A) intensity
  2. B) content
  3. C) context
  4. D) fluidity
  5. E) flexibility

 

88) Which of the following is true regarding values?

  1. A) They are void of a judgmental element.
  2. B) They are invariably fluid and flexible in nature.
  3. C) They have content and intensity attributes.
  4. D) They never change irrespective of external factors.
  5. E) They are always established in a person’s later years.

89) Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS), which consists of two sets of values, namely ________ values and ________ values.

  1. A) instrumental; terminal
  2. B) fluid; stable
  3. C) flexible; essential
  4. D) unique; general
  5. E) flexible; enduring

90) According to the Rokeach Value Survey, ________ values refer to desirable end-states.

  1. A) essential
  2. B) instrumental
  3. C) critical
  4. D) flexible
  5. E) terminal

91) According to the Rokeach Value Survey, ________ values refer to preferable modes of behavior.

  1. A) terminal
  2. B) critical
  3. C) instrumental
  4. D) essential
  5. E) flexible

92) Which of the following is a terminal value according to the Rokeach Value Survey?

  1. A) personal discipline
  2. B) self-reliance
  3. C) goal-orientation
  4. D) social recognition
  5. E) self-improvement

93) Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach Value Survey?

  1. A) economic success
  2. B) social recognition
  3. C) personal discipline
  4. D) world peace
  5. E) meaning in life

94) Values contain a judgmental element in which they carry an individual’s ideas as to what is right, good, or desirable.

 

95) An individual’s value system is obtained by ranking the person’s values in terms of their intensity.

96) Discuss with examples terminal values and instrumental values as identified by the Rokeach Value Survey.

 

97) Which of the following is true regarding the baby boomer generation?

  1. A) They lead lives shaped mainly by globalization.
  2. B) They are more questioning and entrepreneurial than other generations.
  3. C) They give high importance to achievement and material success.
  4. D) They give the highest importance to flexibility and life options.
  5. E) They rate highest in friendship and pleasure on the RVS.

98) John Holland’s personality-job fit theory presents six personality types. Which of the following is one of these six types?

  1. A) analytic
  2. B) imaginative
  3. C) practical
  4. D) investigative
  5. E) intuitive

99) With reference to John Holland’s personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the realistic type will be most suitable for the job of a(n) ________.

  1. A) economist
  2. B) teacher
  3. C) mechanic
  4. D) lawyer
  5. E) biologist

 

100) Help Aid, a non-profit organization in Indonesia, works at providing education in underdeveloped countries. They are now looking to hire a teacher who can educate children in Namibia and prepare them for jobs which will enable them to sustain themselves. According to Holland’s personality-job fit theory, people belonging to which of the following personality types will best suit Help Aid’s requirement?

  1. A) conventional
  2. B) realistic
  3. C) enterprising
  4. D) artistic
  5. E) social

101) With reference to John Holland’s personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the ________ type prefer verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain powers.

  1. A) realistic
  2. B) conventional
  3. C) artistic
  4. D) enterprising
  5. E) investigative

102) With reference to John Holland’s personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the investigating type prefer ________.

  1. A) activities that involve helping and developing others
  2. B) activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding
  3. C) physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination
  4. D) ambiguous and imaginative activities that allow creative expression
  5. E) activities in which there are opportunities to influence others

 

103) Personality assessments have been increasingly used in diverse organizational settings.

104) Managers today are less interested in an applicant’s ability to perform a specific job than with his or her flexibility to meet changing situations and commitment to the organization.

 

105) Millennials have high expectations, seek meaning in their work, and have life goals oriented toward becoming rich and famous.

106) According to John Holland’s personality-job fit theory, individuals belonging to the realistic type are disorderly, impractical, and emotional.

 

107) According to John Holland’s personality-job fit theory, individuals belonging to the conventional type prefer ambiguous activities that allow creative expression.

108) Discuss John Holland’s personality-job fit theory.

 

The personality-job fit theory describes six personality types. These types are:

  1. a) Realistic: Prefers physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination
  2. b) Investigative: Prefers activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding
  3. c) Social: Prefers activities that involve helping and developing others
  4. d) Conventional: Prefers rule-regulated, orderly, and unambiguous activities
  5. e) Enterprising: Prefers verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain power
  6. f) Artistic: Prefers ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression

 

109) With reference to the Hofstede’s framework, a class or caste system that discourages upward mobility is more likely to exist in a nation that scores ________.

  1. A) high on individualism
  2. B) low on masculinity
  3. C) high on power distance
  4. D) low on uncertainty avoidance
  5. E) high on long-term orientation

110) Alex was sent to Beijing to help local managers solve the problem of growing worker dissatisfaction at their manufacturing facility located in the city. As part of his visit, he decided to have a town hall meeting with the workers to understand the problems that they were facing and the reasons for their discontent. The turnout at the meeting was substantial; however, when asked for their opinions and suggestions, the crowd fell silent. As a result, Alex was unable to determine the reason for employee dissatisfaction. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation?

  1. A) A small portion of the workers at the facility belong to the baby boomers generation.
  2. B) There is an unequal distribution of power in the company.
  3. C) The employees are genuinely concerned about improving their lot.
  4. D) Alex was sent to Beijing as he was one of the few employees who were conversant in the local language.
  5. E) On previous occasions, the company has yielded to employee demands.

111) With reference to the Hofstede’s Framework for Assessing Cultures, ________ emphasizes a tight social framework in which people expect others in groups of which they are a part to look after them and protect them.

  1. A) uncertainty avoidance
  2. B) long-term orientation
  3. C) masculinity
  4. D) collectivism
  5. E) power distance

112) According to Hofstede’s framework, ________ indicates the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations.

  1. A) collectivism
  2. B) power distance
  3. C) long-term orientation
  4. D) uncertainty avoidance
  5. E) individualism

 

113) According to Hofstede’s framework, individualism describes the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally.

114) According to Hofstede’s five value dimensions of national culture, people in a culture with long-term orientation look to the future and value thrift, persistence, and tradition.

115) All dimensions of fit (person-job fit and person-organization fit) are sometimes broadly referred to as person-environment fit. Explain.

116) Describe the five value dimensions of national culture as identified by the Hofstede’s framework for assessing cultures.

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 6   Perception and Individual Decision Making

 

1) ________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment.

  1. A) Sensation
  2. B) Impression
  3. C) Apprehension
  4. D) Attribution
  5. E) Perception

 

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?

  1. A) Perception of reality is independent of one’s personality.
  2. B) Our perception of a target is not affected by the context of the situation in which the perception is made.
  3. C) Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality.
  4. D) Our perception of reality is independent of our past experiences.
  5. E) We form a perception of a target by looking at it in isolation.

3) When two people witness something at the same time and in the same situation yet interpret it differently, factors that operate to shape their perceptions reside in the ________.

  1. A) perceivers
  2. B) target
  3. C) timing
  4. D) context
  5. E) situation

4) David Myers is of the opinion that people who drive SUVs are rash drivers. He feels that people driving SUVs do not respect road rules and always violate traffic regulations. What personal factor is most likely to be affecting Myers’ perception of SUV drivers?

  1. A) his financial background
  2. B) his expectations
  3. C) his interest
  4. D) his motive
  5. E) his personality

5) Extremely attractive or unattractive individuals are most likely to be noticed in a group. Which of the following statements best describes the reason behind this?

  1. A) Our perception of reality depends on our past experiences.
  2. B) Our perception of reality depends on our personality.
  3. C) We don’t look at targets in isolation.
  4. D) The time at which we see an object can influence our perception of the object.
  5. E) Our motives and expectations affect our perception of a target.

6) During team meetings Amber Downing always notices that Rhona Law tends to ask innumerable questions and suggest ideas at each discussion. However, Law stands out in the meetings only because she is the only one making suggestions. If both of them were part of team meetings where almost all members made suggestions and asked questions, Law would not have drawn as much attention from Downing. Which of the following factors has most likely influenced Downing’s perception of Law?

  1. A) expectation
  2. B) interest
  3. C) past experience
  4. D) context
  5. E) motive

7) Monica Walden feels that people who use plastic bags are insensitive toward the environment. She believes that people have a certain obligation toward their environment and should take it upon themselves to protect and preserve it. Which of the following factors has most likely influenced Walden’s perception of plastic bag users?

  1. A) location
  2. B) time
  3. C) characteristic of the target
  4. D) expectation
  5. E) context

 

8) Which of the following is a factor present in a target which may affect a person’s perception?

  1. A) attitude
  2. B) motive
  3. C) interest
  4. D) novelty
  5. E) experience

9) Which of the following is a factor present in a situation which may affect a person’s perception?

  1. A) similarity
  2. B) size
  3. C) expectation
  4. D) time
  5. E) experience

10) Which of the following is a factor present in a perceiver which may affect perception?

  1. A) interest
  2. B) similarity
  3. C) sound
  4. D) proximity
  5. E) background

 

11) Alicia Akers works as a marketing executive. She always talks in a high pitch and often draws a lot of attention wherever she is. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind people noticing Akers?

  1. A) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver’s past experiences.
  2. B) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver’s personality.
  3. C) Characteristics of the target affect people’s perception.
  4. D) The time at which we observe behavior affects perception.
  5. E) Motives and interests of the perceiver affects perception of behavior.

 

12) A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee behaviors than to behaviors of six or nine months earlier. This shows that the manager’s perception is affected by a(n) ________ bias.

  1. A) self-serving bias
  2. B) availability
  3. C) impact
  4. D) distinction
  5. E) hindsight

 

13) ________ refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it’s wrong.

  1. A) Escalation of commitment
  2. B) Fundamental attribution error
  3. C) Randomness error
  4. D) Risk aversion
  5. E) Availability bias

14) The tendency to believe falsely, after an outcome of an event is actually known, that one would have accurately predicted that outcome is known as a(n) ________ bias.

  1. A) self-serving
  2. B) confirmation
  3. C) impact
  4. D) hindsight
  5. E) anchoring

15) People are usually not aware of the factors that influence their view of reality.

 

16) People’s behavior is based on their perception of what reality is, not on reality itself.

 

17) The perception of a target is unaffected by the perceiver’s personality or past experiences.

 

18) The tendency to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic is known as the contrast effect.

 

19) A person’s tendency to believe he or she can predict the outcome of random events is known as the self-serving bias.

20) Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it’s wrong.

21) To stop lie-detection for written communications we can look in e-mail messages as liars omit personal pronouns, use noncommittal expressions, change tenses, skip topics, provide too much detail, or add qualifying statements.

 

22) What is perception? Discuss the factors that influence perception.

 

23) What is selective perception?

 

24) Explain with an example the contrast effect.

25) What is an anchoring bias?

 

26) Describe the confirmation bias.

 

27) What is escalation of commitment? Explain.

 

28) Explain the hindsight bias.

29) ________ explains the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we assign to a given behavior.

  1. A) Attribution theory
  2. B) Equity theory
  3. C) Object relations theory
  4. D) Attachment theory
  5. E) Cultural schema theory

 

30) Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual’s behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused. That determination, however, depends largely on three factors. Which of the following is one of these three factors?

  1. A) traceability
  2. B) consistency
  3. C) verifiability
  4. D) relatedness
  5. E) affect intensity

31) Which of the following is an example of internally caused behavior?

  1. A) An employee was late for a team meeting because of a heavy downpour.
  2. B) An employee was laid off because the company was attempting to cut costs by laying off employees.
  3. C) An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy.
  4. D) An employee could not attend an interview because of a delayed flight.
  5. E) An employee could not come to work because he met with an accident.

32) Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior?

  1. A) An employee postpones a meeting because he overslept.
  2. B) An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.
  3. C) An employee was fired because he violated a company policy.
  4. D) An employee was promoted when he achieved more than the assigned objectives.
  5. E) An employee closed a sale with an important corporate client because of his excellent negotiation skills.

 

33) According to the attribution theory, ________ is one of the three main factors which attempt to determine an individual’s behavior.

  1. A) distinctiveness
  2. B) perverseness
  3. C) flexibleness
  4. D) resilience
  5. E) timorousness

 

 

34) When individuals observe another person’s behavior, they attempt to determine whether it is internally or externally caused. Which of the following attempts to explain this phenomenon?

  1. A) Pygmalion effect
  2. B) emotional dissonance
  3. C) attribution theory
  4. D) two-factor theory
  5. E) framing effect

35) With reference to the attribution theory, which of the following terms indicates the extent to which an individual displays different behaviors in different situations?

  1. A) flexibility
  2. B) integrity
  3. C) consensus
  4. D) consistency
  5. E) distinctiveness

 

36) If a person responds to a particular situation in the same way over a long time period, then the attribution theory states that the behavior demonstrates ________.

  1. A) distinctiveness
  2. B) consensus
  3. C) consistency
  4. D) discontinuity
  5. E) traceability

 

37) According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to external causes.

  1. A) low on distinctiveness
  2. B) low on adaptability
  3. C) low on consistency
  4. D) high on stability
  5. E) low on consensus

38) Janice Yoder works in an environmental campaigning organization and often needs to interact with a large team for project implementation activities. However, she always finds it difficult to work as a part of a team. She always seems to have major disagreements with team members which lead to antagonistic relations between them. Though she has moved from one team to another, her relations with colleagues always seem to be hostile and cold. How would the attribution theory describe this behavior?

  1. A) low on consensus
  2. B) high on reliability
  3. C) high on adaptability
  4. D) high on consistency
  5. E) low on distinctiveness

 

39) According to the attribution theory, if everyone who faces a similar situation responds in the same way, we can say the behavior shows ________.

  1. A) distinctiveness
  2. B) tractability
  3. C) consensus
  4. D) consistency
  5. E) manageability

 

40) Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. How would attribution theory describe this behavior?

  1. A) It shows consensus.
  2. B) It shows similarity.
  3. C) It shows consistency.
  4. D) It shows reliability.
  5. E) It shows distinctiveness.

41) According to the attribution theory, which of the following behaviors is most likely to be attributed to an external cause?

  1. A) a behavior that scores high on consensus
  2. B) a behavior that scores low on distinctiveness
  3. C) a behavior that scores high on consistency
  4. D) a behavior that scores low on traceability
  5. E) a behavior that scores high on rigidity

 

42) Samantha is never late for work, but last Monday she arrived an hour late because of heavy traffic. According to the attribution theory, Samantha’s behavior on that day scores ________.

  1. A) high on reliability
  2. B) low on distinctiveness
  3. C) high on traceability
  4. D) low on consistency
  5. E) high on stability

43) Megan Cardova, who works as a sales executive at Orbit Bank, has been failing to meet her sales targets for the last 10 months. Recently, she had a face-to-face discussion with her manager where she said that the unrealistic targets were the reason for her underperformance. The manager, however, noticed that all the other team members were achieving their targets and sometimes were even achieving more than the set numbers. Which of the following is Cardova’s behavior most likely to be characterized as according to the attribution theory?

  1. A) low distinctiveness
  2. B) high rigidity
  3. C) high traceability
  4. D) low consensus
  5. E) low consistency

44) According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to internal causes.

  1. A) low on consistency
  2. B) high on rigidity
  3. C) low on distinctiveness
  4. D) high on consensus
  5. E) low on conformity

 

 

45) Which of the following terms best describes the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others?

  1. A) fundamental attribution error
  2. B) bandwagon effect
  3. C) contrast effect
  4. D) emotional dissonance
  5. E) self-fulfilling prophecy

46) Naomi Fisher, a sales manager at Pure, a water purifier company, had a new member, Leah Marshall, join her team. Though during Leah’s interview, Naomi felt she would be a productive sales executive, her performance has often been below the mark. Consistently in the past three months, Leah has been unable to reach her targets and is falling substantially behind on her annual targets. Naomi assumes that Leah is not determined and motivated enough to do what it takes. Which of the following, if true, weakens Naomi’s assumption?

  1. A) Leah has often arrived late for team meetings conducted in the morning.
  2. B) Leah has been assigned a sales territory where consumers are from low income groups.
  3. C) Leah has good interpersonal skills and gets along well with her customers.
  4. D) Research showed that the company’s largest competitor had a lower turnover than they did.
  5. E) Naomi recently received feedback from other team members that Leah is often uncooperative.

47) Johanna Murray, a climate campaigner at The National Footprint Foundation, is known in her organization to be a campaigner of caliber and high performance. She recently worked on a campaign against global warming during which she worked extremely hard to achieve project milestones. However, the campaign failed as it could not achieve the desired objective. Due to this, her manager, Brenda Owens, gave her a poor performance appraisal. In the appraisal, Brenda said that Johanna was not motivated and failed to reach out to 25,000 people through Internet media to spread awareness about climate change. Which of the following, if true, weakens Brenda’s statement?

  1. A) Johanna lacks experience in publicizing campaigns using Internet media.
  2. B) Brenda was unable to make time for Johanna to brief her on the tasks involved in carrying out the campaign’s media strategy.
  3. C) Johanna recently moved from the agriculture campaign to the climate campaign.
  4. D) Johanna’s previous job involved an extensive amount of researching on environmental issues.
  5. E) Brenda is known in the organization to be a fair and unbiased manager.

 

48) Johanna Springer, who works as a sales executive at Pascal’s Bank, is upset at the way her manager, Emma Womack, always calls her in for one-on-one meetings to discuss her underperformance. Though Springer makes a higher number of sales calls and works longer hours than last year, her sales figures are still low. She knows that the main reason behind her underperformance is the recent economic meltdown in the country. However, her manager feels that Springer’s underperformance is the result of her laid-back attitude and has nothing to do with external factors. In this situation, Womack’s behavior is characterized by a(n) ________.

  1. A) anchoring bias
  2. B) contrast effect
  3. C) fundamental attribution error
  4. D) self-fulfilling prophecy
  5. E) Pygmalion effect

 

49) ________ bias indicates the tendency of an individual to attribute his or her own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors.

  1. A) Status quo
  2. B) Self-serving
  3. C) Distinction
  4. D) Congruence
  5. E) Anchoring

50) Jane Allen, a campaign manager at a non-profit organization, often takes full credit for project successes even when her team members’ contributions play a big role in achieving milestones. However, when projects receive setbacks, she blames her team members and sometimes states that the situation was beyond her control. Allen’s behavior is an example of a(n) ________ bias.

  1. A) impact
  2. B) anchoring
  3. C) confirmation
  4. D) distinction
  5. E) self-serving

 

51) Laura Simpson, a campaign manager at a child rights organization in Jakarta, planned a marathon for celebrities to raise money for underprivileged children. Though all arrangements for the event had been made, a few days before the event she realized that on the same day there was a political rally happening in the city which would block access to the route on which the marathon was supposed to be undertaken. In such a situation, what is Simpson, who suffers from a self-serving bias, most likely to say?

  1. A) I did not do sufficient research on public events in the city.
  2. B) My colleagues did not inform me about the rally.
  3. C) The director had warned me of this. I should have known better.
  4. D) I should have weighed feasibility options for the event.
  5. E) I should have established better contacts to know about this update.

 

52) Attribution theory tries to explain the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the meaning we attribute to a given behavior.

53) According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores high on consensus and distinctiveness, we tend to consider it as an internally caused behavior.

 

54) According to attribution theory, the more consistent a behavior, the more we are inclined to attribute it to external causes.

 

55) The tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors and put the blame for failures on external factors is known as the confirmation bias.

56) The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is known as the randomness error.

57) Discuss the attribution theory.

58) Compare the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias.

 

59) Victoria Hastings works as a sales manager at a bank and her behavior is characterized by the fundamental attribution error and halo effect. Explain with the help of an example what Hastings’ behavior is most likely to be toward her team in such a situation.

60) Individuals engage in ________ because it is impossible for them to assimilate everything they see and can take in only certain stimuli.

  1. A) selective perception
  2. B) cognitive dissonance
  3. C) self-serving bias
  4. D) emotional labor
  5. E) self-fulfilling prophecy

61) You are more likely to notice a car like your own due to ________.

  1. A) stereotyping
  2. B) self-serving bias
  3. C) halo effect
  4. D) selective perception
  5. E) contrast effect

62) Harriet Kirby, a fund raising manager at a women’s rights organization, experienced a bad incident last year with the public relations manager of a banking company who had committed to sponsor a charity event. The bank backed out at the last minute. This year, when a renowned international bank executive showed interest in sponsoring the organization’s upcoming annual event, Kirby rejected their participation. She felt that banks have a casual approach toward charity events and it is risky to involve them in the event. Which of the following best characterizes Kirby’s decision?

  1. A) selective perception
  2. B) cognitive dissonance
  3. C) self-serving bias
  4. D) bandwagon effect
  5. E) self-fulfilling prophecy

 

63) ________ refers to the tendency of people to draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic.

  1. A) Confirmation bias
  2. B) Self-serving bias
  3. C) Randomness error
  4. D) Halo effect
  5. E) Hindsight bias

64) Amanda Winter worked as a public engagement coordinator at Safe Food Alliance until three months ago when her manager, Laura Morris, promoted her to the position of a sustainable food campaigner. However, soon after this, Laura noticed that Amanda was facing major difficulties in achieving campaign milestones and the project was falling behind schedule due to her lack of performance. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that Laura was influenced by the halo effect in her decision to promote Amanda?

  1. A) Laura is known to micromanage most of her projects.
  2. B) Laura uses cultural stereotyping in order to speed up the process of decision making.
  3. C) Laura has made good hiring decisions in the past and is known to be an unbiased judge of character.
  4. D) Laura sat in on only one of Amanda’s presentations prior to giving her the promotion.
  5. E) Laura worked closely with Amanda over a period of eight months.

 

65) Which of the following describes the halo effect?

  1. A) attributing our own successes to internal factors and failures to external factors
  2. B) judging someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs
  3. C) interpreting a person’s behavior in comparison to others recently encountered
  4. D) drawing a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic
  5. E) underestimating the influence of external factors when making judgments about people

66) William Davies, a guest relations executive at a five star deluxe hotel, regularly interacts with bureaucrats, politicians, celebrities, and other prosperous individuals. He feels that all rich people are kind, hardworking, and friendly. Which of the following best characterizes Davies’ perception?

  1. A) confirmation bias
  2. B) self-serving bias
  3. C) randomness error
  4. D) halo effect
  5. E) hindsight bias

67) ________ refers to the evaluation of a person’s characteristics that is affected by comparisons with other people recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.

  1. A) Halo effect
  2. B) Contrast effect
  3. C) Confirmation bias
  4. D) Stereotyping
  5. E) Anchoring bias

68) Which of the following statements is true regarding a contrast effect?

  1. A) It attributes success to internal factors and blames failure on external factors.
  2. B) It involves judging a person on the basis of perception of the group to which he or she belongs.
  3. C) It involves evaluation of a person’s features based on comparison with another person.
  4. D) It indicates a tendency to draw a general conclusion about a person on the basis of one feature.
  5. E) It indicates a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to accept subsequent data.

69) Jessica recently joined a new company and was first introduced to Michelle, her cubicle neighbor. Michelle came across as amiable and cheerful. During lunch she met another colleague, Carrie, who did not come across as friendly as Michelle. In this situation, Jessica’s interpretation of Carrie’s personality is most likely to be affected by ________.

  1. A) confirmation bias
  2. B) contrast effect
  3. C) fundamental attribution error
  4. D) self-serving bias
  5. E) bandwagon effect

70) Judging someone on the basis of one’s perception of the group to which the person belongs is called ________.

  1. A) confirmation bias
  2. B) stereotyping
  3. C) framing effect
  4. D) self-serving bias
  5. E) bandwagon effect

 

71) Which of the following is a shortcut used in judging others by making generalizations?

  1. A) hindsight bias
  2. B) randomness error
  3. C) stereotyping
  4. D) illusory superiority
  5. E) telescoping effect

72) Rose Buffay needs to give a presentation to the board of directors of her organization next week. She knows that her presentation will play an important role in her performance appraisal in the next quarter. However, she knows that two of her colleagues, John Roy and Keith Mathews, will also be giving a presentation on the same issue. She is nervous because she believes that men have a better flair for giving presentations. Buffay’s perception of Roy and Mathews is most likely characterized by ________.

  1. A) a halo effect
  2. B) a contrast effect
  3. C) a hindsight bias
  4. D) stereotyping
  5. E) a confirmation bias

 

73) A manager believes that he should not hire older workers because they can’t learn new skills. This belief is an example of ________.

  1. A) an anchoring bias
  2. B) a fundamental attribution error
  3. C) a confirmation bias
  4. D) a self-serving bias
  5. E) stereotyping

74) Which of the following terms refers to choices made from among two or more alternatives?

  1. A) inquiry
  2. B) decision
  3. C) perception
  4. D) intuition
  5. E) rationalization

75) A(n) ________ refers to a discrepancy between the current state of affairs and some desired state.

  1. A) problem
  2. B) decision
  3. C) instinct
  4. D) intuition
  5. E) perception

 

76) A candidate is likely to receive a more favorable evaluation if preceded by mediocre applicants and a less favorable evaluation if preceded by strong applicants. This is an example of the halo effect.

 

77) Stereotyping helps individuals make quick decisions through generalizations.

 

78) In an interview, information elicited early from an interviewee carries greater weight than information elicited later.

79) Explain the relationship between decision making and perception.

 

80) Which of the following is a decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome?

  1. A) rational decision-making model
  2. B) flexible decision-making model
  3. C) distributive decision-making model
  4. D) associative decision-making model
  5. E) integrative decision-making model

81) Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model?

  1. A) It takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals.
  2. B) It involves constructing simplified models without capturing all their complexity.
  3. C) It deals with satisficing decisions by seeking solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient.
  4. D) It assumes that an individual is able to identify all relevant options in an unbiased manner.
  5. E) It is an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience.

82) What is the first step in the rational decision-making model?

  1. A) developing alternatives
  2. B) defining the problem
  3. C) identifying the decision criteria
  4. D) weighing the decision criteria
  5. E) evaluating the alternatives

83) Anne Warner, a climate campaigner at an environmental organization, is in charge of implementing a campaign activity where she needs to increase the use of renewable energy in the villages of Vietnam. For her project, she uses the rational decision-making model to implement activities. She has just completed identifying an appropriate criteria for decision making and has allocated weights to the criteria. Which of the following is Warner most likely to undertake next according to the model?

  1. A) develop options of wind, solar, and hydro energy
  2. B) analyze the problems of the project
  3. C) determine goals of the project
  4. D) select hydro energy as the best option
  5. E) weigh advantages between solar and wind energy

84) With reference to decision making, which of the following does satisficing involve?

  1. A) weighing each criteria before making a decision
  2. B) seeking solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient
  3. C) scrutinizing and evaluating each alternative in detail
  4. D) selecting the best option with the highest utility
  5. E) finding optimal solutions to problems

85) Emily Boyce, a project manager at an insurance firm, regularly satisfices while making decisions. She often comes across complicated problems which would take a long time to resolve. Due to the pressing deadlines, she often meets project goals by satisficing a large number of her decisions. Which of the following is Boyce most likely to do?

  1. A) seek complete information while making decisions
  2. B) search for solutions that are reasonable
  3. C) identify all possible options to solutions
  4. D) analyze each alternative in an unbiased manner
  5. E) choose the optimal solution to each problem

86) A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity is known as ________.

  1. A) optimal decision making
  2. B) intuitive decision making
  3. C) bounded rationality
  4. D) active selection
  5. E) incremental decision making

87) ________ is an unconscious process created from distilled experience.

  1. A) Process consultation
  2. B) Action research
  3. C) Intuitive decision making
  4. D) Active selection
  5. E) Emotional intelligence

 

88) Which of the following is true about intuitive decision making?

  1. A) It is a slow process of decision making.
  2. B) It is devoid of emotions.
  3. C) It is the most rational way of making a decision.
  4. D) It occurs within conscious thought.
  5. E) It involves making decisions based on distilled experience.

89) Phyllis Stintson needs to decide whether to start a campaign against deforestation in Indonesia. Though her research team has provided substantial information on the high feasibility of the project, Stintson does not go ahead with the project. If Stintson made her decision by drawing unconscious references from several different experiences in the past, her decision is most likely influenced by which of the following?

  1. A) optimization
  2. B) intuition
  3. C) fundamental attribution error
  4. D) framing effect
  5. E) anchoring bias

 

90) The rational decision-making model takes into consideration the fact that all information pertaining to a problem might not be available to the decision maker.

 

91) Men make better decisions than women.

 

92) What is bounded rationality? How is it related to decision making?

 

93) What is intuitive decision making? Explain.

 

94) Which of the following terms refers to a situation in which a person inaccurately perceives another person and the resulting expectations cause the other person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception?

  1. A) confirmation bias
  2. B) self-fulfilling prophecy
  3. C) attribution theory
  4. D) contrast effect
  5. E) bandwagon effect

95) Sarah Covington, a sales manager at Synergy Corporation Bank, often keeps low expectations of her team. She feels that they are underqualified for their job and do not have substantial experience to sell a large number of accounts. Covington’s team does not feel motivated enough and invariably underperforms and misses targets on a regular basis. Which of the following concepts best explains Covington’s team’s poor performance?

  1. A) hindsight bias
  2. B) self-fulfilling prophecy
  3. C) confirmation bias
  4. D) contrast effect
  5. E) bandwagon effect

96) The tendency to seek out information that reaffirms past choices and to discount information that contradicts past judgments is known as a(n) ________ bias.

  1. A) distinction
  2. B) omission
  3. C) impact
  4. D) confirmation
  5. E) anchoring

97) ________ bias refers to the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is easily accessible.

  1. A) Anchoring
  2. B) Availability
  3. C) Overconfidence
  4. D) Confirmation
  5. E) Hindsight

98) Which of the following types of biases is most likely to play a significant role during a negotiation?

  1. A) impact bias
  2. B) normalcy bias
  3. C) distinction bias
  4. D) anchoring bias
  5. E) status quo bias

 

99) Consumers increasingly choose to purchase goods and services from organizations with effective corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives.

100) Women are more likely than men to overanalyze problems before making a decision and to rehash a decision once made.

 

101) Explain the effect of gender on decision making.

102) The ________ bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information.

  1. A) hindsight
  2. B) overconfidence
  3. C) anchoring
  4. D) availability
  5. E) self-serving

103) Jeanne Edwards works as a campaign manager at Rainforest Alliance Trust, a forest protection organization in Indonesia. She is currently working on the Palm Oil Campaign, which aims to establish stringent laws against companies which aggravate deforestation by extracting palm oil for commercial use. Her role is to establish allies with other forest protection organizations and companies which use eco-friendly products that set good examples for other companies to follow. Jeanne allied with Griffin and Powell, a large multinational company, which, unknown to Jeanne, also has strong ties with local logging groups in Jakarta. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Jeanne had an availability bias while establishing an ally with the company?

  1. A) Griffin and Powell ensures that all their CSR initiatives on forests are regularly and substantially publicized.
  2. B) Jeanne has adequate experience in leading such campaigns.
  3. C) Jeanne is well acquainted with various research techniques.
  4. D) Jeanne has access to environmental records maintained by the Information Ministry.
  5. E) Rainforest Alliance Trust has strong networks with local environmental research organizations.

104) Johanna Murray, a climate campaigner at The National Footprint Foundation, is known in her organization to be a campaigner of caliber and high performance. She has strong networks with the Ministry of Environment and allies with several environmental organizations in the country. Over the years, she has gained substantial knowledge on the issue of climate change. However, recently when she prepared a consolidated report on a conference she attended on climate change, it reflected major loopholes and limited information from the conference. Which of the following, if true, substantiates that Johanna had an anchoring bias?

  1. A) Johanna was moved by the arguments put forth by the first speaker.
  2. B) Johanna participated actively in the interactive session conducted at the end.
  3. C) The speakers at the conference consisted of renowned environmental scientists and activists.
  4. D) Johanna has attended several conferences where the panel consisted of eminent scientists.
  5. E) Johanna was shocked by the startling facts shown during the concluding session.

 

105) According to the concept of ________, decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes, ideally to provide the greatest good for the greatest number.

  1. A) utilitarianism
  2. B) selective perception
  3. C) self-fulfilling prophecy
  4. D) halo effect
  5. E) contrast effect

106) Individuals who report unethical practices by their employer to outsiders are known as ________.

  1. A) change agents
  2. B) boundary spanners
  3. C) early adopters
  4. D) whistle-blowers
  5. E) free riders

107) A focus on utilitarianism creates an environment that hinders productivity and efficiency.

 

108) Explain how stereotyping can cause problems for some managers when making ethical decisions. Provide an example.

109) What are the three ethical decision criteria? Explain.

 

110) Which of the following is a component of the three-component model of creativity?

  1. A) expertise
  2. B) logical thinking skills
  3. C) extrinsic task motivation
  4. D) intuition
  5. E) analytical skills

 

111) The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative thinking skills, and ________.

  1. A) external locus of control
  2. B) intrinsic task motivation
  3. C) emotional intelligence
  4. D) positivity offset
  5. E) selective perception

112) Describe and explain the four steps of creative behavior.

 

113) Explain the three components of creativity. Name two biases and give examples of how they would affect creativity.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 7   Motivation Concepts

 

1) ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

  1. A) Leadership
  2. B) Management
  3. C) Learning
  4. D) Emotional labor
  5. E) Motivation

 

2) The ________ dimension of motivation measures how long a person can maintain effort.

  1. A) direction
  2. B) persistence
  3. C) intensity
  4. D) knowledge
  5. E) experience

 

3) The ________ element of motivation describes how hard a person tries.

  1. A) intelligence
  2. B) experience
  3. C) direction
  4. D) intensity
  5. E) persistence

4) Motivation is defined as the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

5) Organizations influence their employees to volunteer.

 

6) Describe the three key elements in the definition of motivation.

7) Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs?

  1. A) safety
  2. B) physiological
  3. C) social
  4. D) esteem
  5. E) psychological

 

8) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Joanna?

  1. A) social
  2. B) esteem
  3. C) physiological
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) safety

9) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Josephine?

  1. A) social
  2. B) esteem
  3. C) physiological
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) safety

 

10) Which of the following needs would most motivate Jonathan?

  1. A) social
  2. B) esteem
  3. C) physiological
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) safety

11) According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following is a lower-order need?

  1. A) social
  2. B) safety
  3. C) esteem
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) recognition

12) If we consider Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in the context of Japan, Greece, and Mexico, where uncertainty-avoidance characteristics are strong, then ________ needs would be on top of the hierarchy.

  1. A) self-actualization
  2. B) security
  3. C) social
  4. D) esteem
  5. E) growth

 

13) Which of the following needs in Maslow’s hierarchy refers to the drive to become what one is capable of becoming?

  1. A) social
  2. B) self-actualization
  3. C) physiological
  4. D) esteem
  5. E) safety

14) Why is Maslow’s theory criticized?

  1. A) The concept of self-actualization was unfounded.
  2. B) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes.
  3. C) The esteem need is a more powerful motivator than self-actualization.
  4. D) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied.
  5. E) It does not adequately describe how an organization can satisfy higher-order needs.

15) According to Douglas McGregor’s Theory Y, a manager assumes that employees ________.

  1. A) need to be directed
  2. B) prefer to be controlled
  3. C) learn to accept responsibility
  4. D) need to be micromanaged
  5. E) attempt to avoid work

 

16) If Alberta is categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit?

  1. A) She will empower her subordinates.
  2. B) She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters.
  3. C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing.
  4. D) She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers.
  5. E) She will let her employees choose their own goals.

17) The ________ theory is also called motivation-hygiene theory.

  1. A) hierarchy of needs
  2. B) goal-setting
  3. C) self-determination
  4. D) cognitive evaluation
  5. E) two-factor

18) Which of the following theories proposes the idea of a dual continuum?

  1. A) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory
  2. B) self-determination theory
  3. C) two-factor theory
  4. D) cognitive evaluation theory
  5. E) McClelland’s theory of needs

 

19) According to the two-factor theory, ________.

  1. A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the next one becomes dominant
  2. B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it
  3. C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility
  4. D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction
  5. E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation

20) Which of the following is a motivational factor according to Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

  1. A) quality of supervision
  2. B) recognition
  3. C) pay
  4. D) relationships with others
  5. E) company policies

 

21) According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following is considered a hygiene factor?

  1. A) promotional opportunities
  2. B) quality of supervision
  3. C) achievement
  4. D) recognition
  5. E) responsibility

22) According to Herzberg, when ________ are adequate, people won’t be dissatisfied, but they will also not be satisfied.

  1. A) achievement needs
  2. B) affiliation needs
  3. C) motivational factors
  4. D) power needs
  5. E) hygiene factors

23) McClelland’s theory is based on which of the following needs?

  1. A) stability, growth, and security
  2. B) achievement, power, and affiliation
  3. C) self-actualization, stability, and safety
  4. D) hygiene, control, and security
  5. E) control, status, and self-actualization

 

24) Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?

  1. A) Joe
  2. B) Mary
  3. C) Tim
  4. D) Sarah
  5. E) Doug

 

25) Which of these five employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on a vacation?

  1. A) Joe
  2. B) Mary
  3. C) Tim
  4. D) Sarah
  5. E) Doug

26) Erika wants to become the head of the HR department. Although the role comes with a generous salary hike and will put her in charge of several subordinates, she is mainly pursuing this position because she believes she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to know this. According to McClelland’s theory of needs, which of the following needs is Erika primarily driven by in this case?

  1. A) the need for stability
  2. B) the need for achievement
  3. C) the need for security
  4. D) the need for affiliation
  5. E) the need for power

 

27) Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland’s theory of needs?

  1. A) People with a high achievement need prefer tasks that have a high level of risk.
  2. B) People with a high achievement need are interested in motivating others to do well.
  3. C) People with a high need for power and affiliation often make good managers in large firms.
  4. D) People with a high achievement need experience great satisfaction from success that comes by luck.
  5. E) People with a high need for power and a low need for affiliation often make the best managers.

 

 

 

28) Which of following needs, as detailed by Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, best corresponds to McClelland’s need for affiliation?

  1. A) safety
  2. B) social
  3. C) esteem
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) physiological

29) According to Maslow, lower-order needs are satisfied internally while higher-order needs are satisfied externally.

 

30) Under Theory Y, managers believe that employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it.

 

31) According to Herzberg, the opposite of “satisfaction” is “dissatisfaction.”

32) McClelland’s theory of needs proposes that the factors that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction.

 

33) According to McClelland’s theory of needs, when jobs have a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback and an intermediate degree of risk, high achievers are strongly motivated.

34) Briefly explain Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory.

35) Compare and contrast a Theory X manager and a Theory Y manager.

 

36) Explain how a manager motivates employees with reference to Herzberg’s two-factor theory.

37) Explain, in terms of McClelland’s theory of needs, the relationship between the need for achievement and job performance.

38) Explain the similarities between Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory and McClelland’s theory of needs.

 

39) Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation?

  1. A) self-serving theory
  2. B) motivation-hygiene theory
  3. C) two-factor theory
  4. D) self-determination theory
  5. E) goal setting theory

40) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive evaluation theory?

  1. A) People need extrinsic rewards in order to be motivated.
  2. B) Extrinsic rewards tend to reduce intrinsic interest in a task.
  3. C) Intrinsic rewards are almost as effective as extrinsic rewards.
  4. D) Externally imposed standards of work largely improve intrinsic motivation.
  5. E) Extrinsic rewards, including verbal praise, significantly decrease intrinsic motivation.

41) Self-determination theory proposes that in addition to being driven by a need for autonomy, people seek ways to achieve ________.

  1. A) competence and positive connections
  2. B) high rewards
  3. C) recognition and status
  4. D) career growth
  5. E) power and control

 

42) Rachel’s parents used to pay her an allowance every week to feed the cats and to do a few other chores around the house. However, once her mother lost her job, her parents stopped giving her an allowance. Although Rachel quit making her bed every morning, she still continued to feed the cats. Which of the following best explains why Rachel continues to feed the cats?

  1. A) Without the extrinsic reward, the task itself is eliminated.
  2. B) With the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation.
  3. C) Without the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation.
  4. D) Without the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation.
  5. E) With the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation.

43) The concept of ________ considers how strongly people’s reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values.

  1. A) self-serving bias
  2. B) self-fulfilling prophecy
  3. C) self-concordance
  4. D) self-actualization
  5. E) self-efficacy

 

44) People who pursue goals for intrinsic reasons are more likely to attain their goals and are happy even if they do not.

 

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?

  1. A) Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control.
  2. B) Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback.
  3. C) Generalized goals produce a higher level of output than specific goals.
  4. D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals.
  5. E) Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

46) According to goal-setting theory, goals are more likely to have a stronger impact on performance when ________.

  1. A) goals have long time frames for completion
  2. B) tasks are complex rather than simple
  3. C) tasks are novel rather than well learned
  4. D) goals are easy rather than difficult
  5. E) tasks are independent rather than interdependent

 

47) MBO emphasizes goals that are ________.

  1. A) tangible, verifiable, and measurable
  2. B) achievable, controllable, and profitable
  3. C) inspirational, verifiable, and creative
  4. D) tangible, rewarding, and assigned
  5. E) profitable, attainable, and self-set

 

48) MBO provides individual employees with ________.

  1. A) personal performance objectives
  2. B) greater work supervision
  3. C) predefined targets
  4. D) generalized feedback
  5. E) clear-cut growth paths

49) Unlike in the case of goal-setting theory, MBO strongly advocates ________.

  1. A) self-generated feedback
  2. B) explicit time periods
  3. C) jointly set goals
  4. D) independent tasks
  5. E) specific performance objectives

50) The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.

  1. A) two-factor
  2. B) self-determination
  3. C) goal-setting
  4. D) self-efficacy
  5. E) reinforcement

 

51) ________ refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

  1. A) Emotional contagion
  2. B) Affect intensity
  3. C) Self-efficacy
  4. D) Self-determination
  5. E) Reinforcement

52) According to Albert Bandura, the most important source of increasing self-efficacy is ________.

  1. A) arousal
  2. B) vicarious modeling
  3. C) verbal persuasion
  4. D) enactive mastery
  5. E) cognitive learning

 

 

53) Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job?

  1. A) verbal persuasion
  2. B) enactive mastery
  3. C) vicarious modeling
  4. D) arousal
  5. E) cognitive learning

 

54) One of the sources of self-efficacy is ________, becoming more confident because you see someone else doing the task.

  1. A) arousal
  2. B) enactive mastery
  3. C) visualization
  4. D) vicarious modeling
  5. E) verbal persuasion

55) With reference to the four sources of self-efficacy as proposed by Albert Bandura, verbal persuasion involves becoming more confident ________.

  1. A) because you have gained relevant experience with the particular task or job
  2. B) because you see someone else doing the particular task or job
  3. C) because someone convinces you that you have the skills necessary to be successful
  4. D) because you are rewarded for performing a similar task well
  5. E) because you get energized or “psyched up” to perform the particular task or job

56) Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers?

  1. A) arousal
  2. B) enactive mastery
  3. C) focused training
  4. D) vicarious modeling
  5. E) verbal persuasion

 

57) The Pygmalion effect is also called the ________ effect.

  1. A) halo
  2. B) self-concordance
  3. C) Galatea
  4. D) self-determination
  5. E) pseudocertainty

58) The best way for a manager to use verbal persuasion is through the ________, a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true.

  1. A) confirmation bias
  2. B) Pygmalion effect
  3. C) anchoring bias
  4. D) framing effect
  5. E) Electra complex

59) A(n) ________ is any consequence immediately following a response that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated.

  1. A) conclusion
  2. B) reinforcer
  3. C) goal
  4. D) objective
  5. E) referent

 

60) The proponents of reinforcement theory view behavior as ________.

  1. A) the result of a cognitive process
  2. B) environmentally caused
  3. C) a reflection of the inner state of the individual
  4. D) a function of one’s power need
  5. E) a product of heredity

61) ________ argues that people learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don’t want.

  1. A) Theory Y
  2. B) Theory X
  3. C) Social cognitive theory
  4. D) Operant conditioning theory
  5. E) McClelland’s theory of needs

 

62) To get the best results while using reinforcement theory, rewards should be ________.

  1. A) small and given only once
  2. B) large and given at irregular intervals
  3. C) given prior to the desired behavior response
  4. D) given immediately following the desired behavior
  5. E) presented publicly with a large number of witnesses

 

63) Helen, a high school teacher, wants her students to actively participate more in class. She has decided to use reinforcement theory to get the required results. Which of the following methods is she most likely to use?

  1. A) She is going to call on students who never participate.
  2. B) She is going to yell at students, telling them that they are not making good grades.
  3. C) She is going to ask the students that always participate to allow the others to have a chance.
  4. D) She is going to model what active participation should look like at the beginning of class.
  5. E) She is going to give students an extra mark each time that they contribute.

64) The concept of operant conditioning is a part of the broader concept of ________, which argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner.

  1. A) equity theory
  2. B) expectancy theory
  3. C) cognitive behavioral therapy
  4. D) behaviorism
  5. E) humanism

 

65) What is the limitation of reinforcement theory in explaining changes in behavior?

  1. A) It does not adequately describe the original behavior.
  2. B) It places too much emphasis on feelings and attitudes.
  3. C) Most behavior is, in fact, environmentally caused.
  4. D) It ignores the effect of rewards and punishments on behavior.
  5. E) It does not recognize the effect of cognitive variables.

 

66) According to social learning theory, which of the following processes demonstrates whether an individual is capable of performing the modeled activities?

  1. A) attentional process
  2. B) retention process
  3. C) motor reproduction process
  4. D) reinforcement process
  5. E) motivation process

67) George is trying to teach his two-year old son to gently caress their cat. George softly strokes the animal and every time his son does the same, he rewards him with kind words like “good job!” The child is very attentive during the process and claps his hands when his father praises him. However, as soon as George leaves, the boy lunges for the cat and grabs it by the tail. Which process of social-learning theory is failing?

  1. A) attentional processes
  2. B) justification processes
  3. C) retention processes
  4. D) motor reproduction processes
  5. E) reinforcement processes

 

68) In equity theory, individuals assess the ________.

  1. A) cost-benefit ratio
  2. B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off
  3. C) quantity-quality trade-off
  4. D) outcome-input ratio
  5. E) quality of outcome

69) Karen graduated from college four years ago and has been working at Betaphy Inc. ever since. She has consistently received good performance evaluations for the quality of her work. She recently found out that her company hired a fresh college graduate with no experience at a salary higher than hers. Which of the following theories will Karen most likely use to evaluate this situation?

  1. A) reinforcement
  2. B) goal setting
  3. C) equity
  4. D) expectancy
  5. E) operant conditioning

 

70) According to the equity theory, there are four referent comparisons. The referent comparison known as other-inside refers to ________.

  1. A) an employee’s experiences in a different position inside the employee’s current organization
  2. B) an employee’s experiences in a different position outside the employee’s current organization
  3. C) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee’s organization
  4. D) an employee’s experiences in a similar position outside the employee’s current organization
  5. E) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee’s organization

 

71) Self-inside, one of the four referent comparisons in the equity theory, refers to ________.

  1. A) an employee’s experiences in a different position inside the employee’s current organization
  2. B) an employee’s experiences in a different position outside the employee’s current organization
  3. C) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee’s organization
  4. D) an employee’s experiences in a similar position outside the employee’s current organization
  5. E) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee’s organization

 

72) Other-outside is a referent comparison that refers to ________.

  1. A) an employee’s experiences in a similar position outside the employee’s current organization
  2. B) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee’s organization
  3. C) an employee’s experiences in a different position inside the employee’s current organization
  4. D) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee’s organization
  5. E) an employee’s experiences in a different position outside the employee’s current organization

73) Jim is a salaried employee whose job is to develop content for online Web sites. He discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues even though their jobs and levels of performance are very similar. According to the equity theory, what impact is this discovery most likely to have on his behavior and performance?

  1. A) He will reduce the amount of work that he does on a daily basis.
  2. B) He will compare his earnings to those of another group of employees.
  3. C) He will increase his productivity and/or the overall quality of his work.
  4. D) He will seek a position within the company commensurate with his pay.
  5. E) He will begin to look for a position outside of the company.

Megan graduated from college three years ago and has been working at Sterba Inc. ever since. A conscientious employee, she has consistently received good performance evaluations. She recently found out that a younger colleague, who was just recruited to her team, is drawing a higher salary than she is for doing the same type of work.

 

74) Following this discovery, Megan starts coming to work late and her productivity begins to suffer. Which of the following is most similar to the scenario mentioned above based on the equity theory?

  1. A) Dawn starts coming to work early and stays late once she learns that the mid-term review is around the corner.
  2. B) Greg believes he works harder than any of the other members in his department as they often leave the office before him.
  3. C) Lisa starts working longer hours after learning that her co-workers earn less than she does for the same work.
  4. D) Myrtle produces a higher number of units to compensate for the lower quality of her output.
  5. E) Beth submits her resignation after she was passed over for promotion for the second time.

75) Based on the equity theory, which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Megan is trying to gain a sense of equity by distorting her perception of herself?

  1. A) She thinks that her colleague is paid more because she is an Ivy League graduate.
  2. B) She believes that she is less capable than her colleague.
  3. C) She assumes that her colleague received a higher package due to changes in industry standards.
  4. D) She believes that her salary is not commensurate with her skills and experience.
  5. E) She believes that she is doing a lot better career-wise compared to the people with whom she graduated.

76) Based on the equity theory, which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Megan is trying to gain a sense of equity by changing her inputs?

  1. A) She asks her boss for a raise, citing her years of experience with the company.
  2. B) She claims that extrinsic rewards make work seem like a chore and less enjoyable.
  3. C) She accepts additional responsibilities but fails to carry them out effectively.
  4. D) She takes long breaks from work and shirks her responsibilities.
  5. E) She constantly interrupts her colleague, refusing to let her get any work done.

 

77) Jackie thinks that she is paid a lot less than other employees in her division and feels extremely resentful. She starts taking long breaks and generally wastes time. Her actions resulted from a perceived lack of ________ justice.

  1. A) interactional
  2. B) interpersonal
  3. C) procedural
  4. D) distributive
  5. E) associative

78) Edith believes that the methods for determining salary hikes and bonuses in her company are extremely unfair. In this case, Edith perceives a lack of ________ justice.

  1. A) interpersonal
  2. B) distributive
  3. C) associative
  4. D) procedural
  5. E) interactional

 

79) Which of the following types of justice relates most strongly to job satisfaction, employee trust, withdrawal from the organization, job performance, and citizenship behaviors?

  1. A) associative justice
  2. B) interactional justice
  3. C) distributive justice
  4. D) procedural justice
  5. E) integrative justice

80) Why do people who perceive themselves as victims of interactional injustice often blame their immediate supervisor rather than the organization at large?

  1. A) Interpersonal justice or injustice is intimately tied to the conveyer of the information.
  2. B) Interactional injustice usually occurs during face-to-face encounters.
  3. C) When people are not treated with respect, they tend to retaliate against those closest at hand.
  4. D) Interactional injustice is in the eyes of those who perceive they are disrespected.
  5. E) Interactional injustice is most often the result of the impersonal policies of the organization.

81) According to goal-setting theory, a specific goal will produce a higher level of output than a generalized goal.

 

82) Feedback influences self-efficacy.

 

 

83) Goal-setting theory strongly advocates participation in decision making, whereas MBO demonstrates that managers’ assigned goals are usually just as effective.

 

84) Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

 

85) The Pygmalion effect is not a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true.

86) Goal-setting theory takes a behavioristic approach, whereas reinforcement theory takes a cognitive approach.

87) Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities.

 

88) Interpersonal justice refers to an individual’s perception of the degree to which he or she is treated with dignity, concern, and respect.

89) Workers around the world prefer rewards based on seniority over rewards based on performance and skills.

90) Why are people motivated by challenging goals?

91) Explain what an MBO program is and discuss the common elements of MBO programs and goal-setting theory.

 

92) What is self-efficacy?

93) What are the four ways of increasing self-efficacy as proposed by Albert Bandura?

 

94) In the context of social learning, explain the four processes that determine a model’s influence on an individual.

95) What are the four referent comparisons that add to the complexity of equity theory?

96) According to the equity theory, what are the choices made by employees who perceive inequity?

 

97) Discuss distributive justice, procedural justice, and interpersonal justice.

98) Explain how the different relationships in expectancy theory are related to distributive justice and procedural justice in equity theory.

 

99) The investment of an employee’s physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance is called ________.

  1. A) vicarious modeling
  2. B) self-determination
  3. C) job engagement
  4. D) management by objectives
  5. E) job analysis

 

100) An overly high level of engagement can lead to a loss of perspective and, ultimately, burnout.

101) Practicing managers and scholars have become interested in facilitating job engagement, believing factors deeper than liking a job or finding it interesting drives performance.

 

102) Which of the following theories discusses three relationships: effort-performance relationship, performance-reward relationship, and rewards-personal goals relationship?

  1. A) goal-setting theory
  2. B) self-efficacy theory
  3. C) equity theory
  4. D) expectancy theory
  5. E) self-determination theory

103) Logan is an employee who processes health insurance forms. Initially he was criticized by his supervisor for sloppy work, but thereafter he improved considerably. Now he consistently processes his forms without errors and even does more than his fair share of work. However, Logan’s supervisor has not responded to the extra effort he has put in, giving him no praise or monetary benefits. This leads Logan to believe that his supervisor is biased against him. According to the expectancy theory, in this situation, there is a problem in the ________ relationship.

  1. A) rewards-personal goals
  2. B) performance-awareness
  3. C) performance-reward
  4. D) performance-objectives
  5. E) performance-achievement

104) Oscar is looking for a new job. He used to be the company’s top sales representative and was eagerly expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional manager’s friends was promoted to district manager instead. According to the expectancy theory, Oscar’s dissatisfaction with his current job stems from a breakdown in the ________ relationship.

  1. A) performance-reward
  2. B) effort-performance
  3. C) reward-personal goal
  4. D) satisfaction-effort
  5. E) personal goal-self actualization

105) According to the expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship is the degree to which ________.

  1. A) the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to desired outcomes
  2. B) organizational rewards satisfy an individual’s personal goals or needs
  3. C) organizational rewards are perceived as attractive by the individual
  4. D) the individual believes that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance
  5. E) organization rewards correspond with the individual’s level of effort

 

106) Mark is an excellent technical writer. He has never missed a deadline and all his projects are of superior quality. He now wants to telecommute two days a week, so that he can spend more time with his family. He feels that he has proven his reliability. However, his boss is unable to comply with his request and gives him a substantial raise instead. According to the expectancy theory, Mark’s disappointment demonstrates a breakdown in the ________ relationship.

  1. A) performance-reward
  2. B) effort-performance
  3. C) rewards-personal goals
  4. D) effort-satisfaction
  5. E) performance-achievement

107) With reference to the expectancy theory, which of the following examples indicates a weak rewards-personal goals relationship?

  1. A) An employee lacks the skills required to reach the desired performance level.
  2. B) An organization’s appraisal system assesses nonperformance factors such as creativity and initiative.
  3. C) An organization rewards its employees based on factors such as seniority and skill level.
  4. D) An employee believes that his manager does not like him and hence expects a poor appraisal.
  5. E) An employee works hard in order to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Beijing.

 

108) If a manager incorrectly assumes that all employees want the same thing, then according to the expectancy theory, it is most likely to result in a weak ________ relationship.

  1. A) performance-achievement
  2. B) effort-performance
  3. C) performance-reward
  4. D) rewards-personal goals
  5. E) effort-satisfaction

109) Expectancy theory predicts employees will exert a high level of effort if they perceive a strong relationship between effort and performance, performance and rewards, and rewards and satisfaction of personal goals.

110) What are the three relationships in Vroom’s expectancy theory?

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 8   Motivation: From Concepts to Applications

 

1) Job design is defined as the ________.

  1. A) degree to which the job rewards competence
  2. B) way the elements in a job are organized
  3. C) degree to which the job contributes to profit margins
  4. D) degree of decision-making power with the immediate superiors
  5. E) way the job is evaluated in terms of its relative worth to other jobs

 

2) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines skill variety?

  1. A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
  2. B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance
  3. C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure
  4. D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
  5. E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities tapping different abilities

3) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines task identity?

  1. A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
  2. B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance
  3. C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure
  4. D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
  5. E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities

 

4) Adam Sears is an assembly line employee with Swenson Motors. Though Adam is popular among his supervisors and colleagues, Adam experiences low morale and lack of motivation. He feels frustrated that his job is restricted to fixing nuts and bolts on the car parts. He fears that he has no chances of advancing in his career as he cannot completely assemble a car. Which of the following is true with regard to Adam?

  1. A) Adam’s job has high task complexity.
  2. B) Adam’s job has a high span of control.
  3. C) Adam’s job has low role definition.
  4. D) Adam’s job has low task identity.
  5. E) Adam’s job has high task significance.

5) According to the job characteristics model, task significance is the degree to which ________.

  1. A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
  2. B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance
  3. C) a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling work and determining its procedure
  4. D) a job bears an impact on the lives or work of other people
  5. E) a job requires a variety of different activities

6) Samantha Barnes is an emergency medical technician. Recently, during an emergency call, she was able to resuscitate a man who had a cardiac arrest. Subsequently, she spent some time calming the 12-year-old daughter of the patient and looked after her until the rest of the patient’s family arrived at the hospital. Based on this description, it can be concluded that Samantha’s job is high in ________.

  1. A) task identity
  2. B) feedback
  3. C) extrinsic rewards
  4. D) task significance
  5. E) job rotation

7) According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which ________.

  1. A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work
  2. B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance
  3. C) a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion
  4. D) a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people
  5. E) a job requires a variety of different activities

 

8) According to the job characteristics model, ________ indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance.

  1. A) task significance
  2. B) autonomy
  3. C) feedback
  4. D) task identity
  5. E) skill variety

9) Which of the following series of dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) combine to create meaningful work?

  1. A) autonomy, task identity, and feedback
  2. B) skill variety, autonomy, and task significance
  3. C) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback
  4. D) feedback, task identity, and task significance
  5. E) skill variety, task identity, and task significance

 

10) The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined into a single predictive index called ________.

  1. A) extrinsic motivation score
  2. B) personal outcome score
  3. C) job diagnostic score
  4. D) motivating potential score
  5. E) potential development score

 

11) Which of the following statements is true regarding the job characteristics model?

  1. A) The operation of the model is universal and unaffected by cultural factors.
  2. B) The operation of the model is relatively individualistic in nature.
  3. C) The operation of the model requires employees to have similar skill sets.
  4. D) The operation of the model cannot be quantitatively measured.
  5. E) The operation of the model fulfills only extrinsic motivational needs.

12) The job characteristics model describes any job in terms of five core job dimensions, and these five dimensions are skill variety, task significance, recognition, reward, and feedback.

 

 

13) John Dunker is one of the best firefighters in his squad, and he recently received an award for his outstanding performance. From this information, it may be concluded that John’s job has low task significance.

 

14) Feedback is the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about one’s own performance.

15) Jobs with high autonomy give workers a feeling of personal responsibility for the results.

16) What are the various dimensions of the job characteristics model?

 

17) Andrew is a software tester. He runs through the same types of programs day after day looking for bugs and reporting them. He is taking night classes on programming. Often, he knows the best solution to many of the bugs, but he is still learning to code. Describe two job characteristics that Andrew is striving to improve, and explain two ways that Andrew’s manager can redesign his current job to help him reach his goals.

18) Compare and contrast the job characteristics model and mutual assistance programs in terms of how they lend meaning to an employee’s role.

 

19) Explain how participative management can enhance skill variety, task identity, and autonomy as described in the Job Characteristics Model (JCM).

20) How would you relate skill variety, job rotation, and skill-based pay?

 

21) Which of the following statements is true regarding job rotation?

  1. A) It decreases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change.
  2. B) It decreases employee motivation.
  3. C) It decreases productivity in the short run.
  4. D) It decreases supervisory workload.
  5. E) It decreases the flexibility in scheduling work.

22) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is defined as ________.

  1. A) job enlargement
  2. B) job analysis
  3. C) job rotation
  4. D) job sharing
  5. E) job enrichment

 

23) A prerequisite condition for job rotation is the ________.

  1. A) presence of high level of autonomy among workers
  2. B) presence of high need for affiliation among workers
  3. C) presence of employees with similar skill sets and requirements
  4. D) presence of alternative work arrangements for employees to avail
  5. E) presence of employee involvement programs

24) Managers at Flavors, a restaurant chain, train their employees such that in the absence of employees, someone trained in the same skills can step in and do the job equally well. Thus, many modules in training are extensive as they provide employees with details of the skill sets required for different jobs. In practice, this lengthy training program does help the company as a well-trained and flexible workforce  is at their disposal at all times. The managers at Flavors use ________.

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) vertical enhancement
  3. C) telecommuting
  4. D) job sharing
  5. E) flextime

 

25) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument of adopting job rotation?

  1. A) The employees of the company have similar skill sets which are suited to transfer of learning.
  2. B) The company has been conducting professional training programs to keep all employees up-to-date with the developments in the field.
  3. C) AmWeb, one of the major rival firms, witnessed a substantial rise in profits following its cross-training program for employees.
  4. D) The research evidence favoring job rotation has rarely used samples from the service industry.
  5. E) The company is now entering its busiest business season with multiple project deadlines.

26) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument in favor of adopting job rotation?

  1. A) The company is currently facing numerous budget constraints.
  2. B) The company can enhance productivity of existing employees in various areas for different projects.
  3. C) Two front-level managers have resigned in the last quarter as they were not promoted.
  4. D) The company has launched a new brand which is cannibalizing one of its existing products.
  5. E) The company has recently given employees new responsibilities by combining their routine tasks into natural work units.

 

27) One of the methods of job enrichment is to expand jobs vertically. This method involves modifying the ________ dimension of the job.

  1. A) task significance
  2. B) autonomy
  3. C) feedback
  4. D) task identity
  5. E) skill variety

28) Job enrichment is the process of ________.

  1. A) periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level
  2. B) expansion of jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work
  3. C) redistribution of power within the organization through work councils and board representations
  4. D) distribution of a significant degree of power between subordinates and supervisors
  5. E) evaluation of an employee wherein subordinates, peers, and managers provide comprehensive feedback

29) The job characteristics model describes five dimensions of a job. A job can be enriched by modifying one or more of these five dimensions. Which of the following methods of job enrichment involves modifying skill variety and task identity dimensions of a job?

  1. A) combining tasks
  2. B) forming natural work units
  3. C) establishing client relationships
  4. D) expanding jobs vertically
  5. E) opening feedback channels

 

30) Job rotation can be applied in any setting where cross-training is feasible, from manufacturing floors to hospital wards.

31) Job enrichment improves employees’ skills by periodically shifting an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.

32) To enhance the amount of autonomy employees enjoy, a company must provide its employees with tasks combined into natural work units.

 

33) What is job enrichment? Describe various methods of job enrichment based on the job characteristics model.

34) Nora Elm is a newly appointed HR manager at Seven Oaks, a famous PR firm that is not doing too well at present. As she assumed the post of the HR manager, everyone impressed upon her the need to energize the employees and motivate them to give their best to the job. After she met with the employees and managers, she felt that many employees were demotivated because they had attained their maximum potential in their current job roles. Additionally, she felt that though the management believed strongly in its employee-friendly nature, this nature was not manifested in its actions. Those employees who were on the board had begun to mimic the management’s action of attributing the lack of any constructive change to company policies. Describe any two changes that Nora should propose at the meeting with a rationale for each.

 

35) ________ is not a benefit of flextime.

  1. A) Reduced absenteeism
  2. B) Decreased work/life balance
  3. C) Increased productivity
  4. D) Reduced tardiness
  5. E) Increased autonomy

36) Beyond redesigning the nature of the work itself and involving employees in decisions, another approach to making the work environment more motivating is to alter work arrangements to meet employee needs. Which of the following is designed to give employees greater control of their schedule?

  1. A) flextime
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) job rotation
  4. D) job enlargement
  5. E) job enrichment

37) Employees who use the flextime option have to ________.

  1. A) work from the office for three days of the week
  2. B) work from home on a relatively permanent basis
  3. C) work from the office based on a schedule fixed with the compatible partner they function with
  4. D) work from the office during the common core period and put in the extra hours per their convenience
  5. E) work from home only two days a week

 

38) An arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job is called ________.

  1. A) flextime
  2. B) job sharing
  3. C) gainsharing
  4. D) telecommuting
  5. E) job rotation

39) Janice and Shane are both senior software analysts. They have worked together on projects for six years and get along very well. Janice is anticipating the arrival of her first child and will not be able to work on a full-time basis in the future. Shane is contemplating opening his own business as a home media installation consultant and does not want to continue to work full time. They both need some income. Which of the following alternative job structures would be best for Janice and Shane?

  1. A) job enlargement
  2. B) telecommuting
  3. C) job rotation
  4. D) job sharing
  5. E) job enrichment

 

40) Which of the following statements is true regarding job sharing?

  1. A) It expands jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work.
  2. B) It is also called cross-training.
  3. C) It allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job.
  4. D) It involves periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level.
  5. E) Job sharing is a method of job enrichment.

41) Which of the following alternative work arrangements enables the organization to draw on the talents of more than one individual in a given job?

  1. A) telecommuting
  2. B) flextime
  3. C) gainsharing
  4. D) profit sharing
  5. E) job sharing

 

42) Which of the following is the major drawback of job sharing from management’s perspective?

  1. A) increase in supervisory workload
  2. B) increased costs for providing supporting infrastructure (such as desk and computer) to two employees instead of one
  3. C) difficulty in finding compatible partners
  4. D) difficulty in designing the reward structure
  5. E) difficulty in coordinating schedules

43) After the training and development manager at Add Worth, Nicole Hayes, resigned, the CEO has made it a priority that the position be filled soon by someone of equal expertise and experience as Nicole. To locate the right candidate, Jennifer Ray, the HR manager, has been contacting recruitment firms, checking job sites, and pushing for referrals from the employees. However, she has only found candidates with little or no experience in the field who were willing to work full time for the position. At the next meeting with the CEO, Jennifer proposes an alternative strategy; she suggests hiring two experienced candidates who are open to the idea of handling the training needs on a part-time basis as a team. The CEO listens to her proposal but is not too convinced by it. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Jennifer’s proposal to use job sharing for the vacant position?

  1. A) Trainers are exempted from the requirement of being at the office throughout the common core period of the workday.
  2. B) The employees of the company on the work council have planned to demand the flextime option.
  3. C) A good proportion of the company’s prized workforce comprises employees from the baby boomer generation who are set to retire in the impending future.
  4. D) The headhunting firms that Jennifer contacted are usually helpful in generating a good pool of potential candidates.
  5. E) A rival firm recently adopted telecommuting to reduce administrative costs cutting into its bottom line.

44) The option of working at home at least twi days a week on a computer linked to the employer’s office is termed as ________.

  1. A) job sharing
  2. B) social loafing
  3. C) offshoring
  4. D) telecommuting
  5. E) homeshoring

 

45) Amanda McPherson is a working mother with one child and an ailing parent to look after in addition to her duties as a wife and job responsibilities as a legal consultant. Since Amanda always feels pressed for time, the news that the consultancy she works for would allow her to work from home two days a week came as a great relief to her. She now feels more motivated to work for the company, as the company has taken into account her personal and professional needs. The company has allowed Amanda to use the option of ________.

  1. A) gainsharing
  2. B) offshoring
  3. C) telecommuting
  4. D) homeshoring
  5. E) job sharing

46) An MNC in a developing country is operating amidst severe space constraints, and the infrastructural conditions in the city are bad, causing a lot of lost man-hours. Anticipating rapid growth in the months to come, the company has created a recruitment plan based on its revenue expectations. However, it wants to manage this expansion without undertaking an expensive physical expansion. Which of the following could be a solution for the company?

  1. A) profit sharing
  2. B) groupshifting
  3. C) telecommuting
  4. D) gainsharing
  5. E) codetermining

 

47) For management, the major downside of telecommuting is ________.

  1. A) decreased productivity
  2. B) increased turnover
  3. C) reduced morale
  4. D) difficulty in scheduling work
  5. E) less direct supervision of employees

 

48) Telecommuting is an option that suits professionals like ________.

  1. A) trainers
  2. B) nurses
  3. C) analysts
  4. D) receptionists
  5. E) sales representatives

49) Which of the following factors represents the influence of social aspects of the work environment on motivation?

  1. A) task identity
  2. B) autonomy
  3. C) feedback
  4. D) interdependence
  5. E) skill variety

 

50) The job characteristic model fails to consider the role ________ plays in employee motivation.

  1. A) job design
  2. B) meaningfulness
  3. C) social support
  4. D) growth need
  5. E) responsibility

51) Which of the following statements is true regarding a merit-based pay plan?

  1. A) It bases pay levels on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do.
  2. B) It is also called competency-based pay plan.
  3. C) Unions typically resist merit-based pay plan.
  4. D) It distributes compensation based on an established formula designed around a company’s profitability.
  5. E) A typical merit-based pay plan provides no base salary and pays the employee only for what he or she produces.

 

52) A flextime arrangement requires all employees to be at their jobs during the common core period.

 

53) The term virtual office describes working from home on a relatively permanent basis.

 

54) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of flextime.

55) Describe telecommuting as an alternative work arrangement.

 

56) Discuss the relationship between social and physical work context and employee satisfaction.

 

 

57) ________ is a participative process that uses employees’ input to increase their commitment to the organization’s success.

  1. A) Job enrichment
  2. B) Employee involvement
  3. C) Vertical integration
  4. D) Groupshifting
  5. E) Job sharing

58) To be effective, an employee involvement program must ________.

  1. A) rightsize the company by eliminating obsolete positions
  2. B) incorporate the unique demands of different cultures
  3. C) mandatorily establish work councils in the company
  4. D) eliminate the influence of employees in managerial decision making
  5. E) implement autocratic ways of handling its employees

 

59) Which of the following is the distinct characteristic of participative management programs?

  1. A) joint decision making
  2. B) representative participation
  3. C) performance norms
  4. D) establishment of work councils
  5. E) autocratic decision making

 

60) Employee involvement and participation (EIP) management is a method of management where ________.

  1. A) representatives of workers form work councils and these councils must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees
  2. B) few representatives of workers sit on a company’s board of directors
  3. C) subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors
  4. D) low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department
  5. E) low-level workers are responsible for making corporate policy decisions

61) The two major forms of employee involvement are participative management and ________.

  1. A) organizational restructuring
  2. B) job sharing
  3. C) representative participation
  4. D) job rotation
  5. E) job enlargement

 

62) Representative participation is characterized by ________.

  1. A) joint decision making by employees and management
  2. B) democratic leadership behaviors
  3. C) open and honest two-way communication
  4. D) a significant positive impact on employee morale and performance
  5. E) compliance with the legal need to redistribute power within organizations

 

63) The two most common forms of representative participation are ________ and board representatives.

  1. A) quality circles
  2. B) work councils
  3. C) employee unions
  4. D) task teams
  5. E) cross-functional teams

64) The main drawback of representative participation as an employee involvement measure is that ________.

  1. A) it is a time-consuming process
  2. B) it is able to exert its impact only in the short run
  3. C) it is primarily symbolic in its impact
  4. D) it is consistent with the Theory Y view of motivation
  5. E) it is likely to require a major change in organizational roles

65) Woodworth & Baines is a retail chain that has taken up numerous measures to improve employee attitude, motivation, and organizational performance. New training programs, employee engagement initiatives, and an employee welfare council were the three main strategies implemented as part of the employee empowerment program. Norman Kilner was one of twenty employees nominated to the employee welfare council where they were required to interact with the management to promote the interests of the employees. Additionally, the job roles of these twenty employees were vertically enhanced to give them more autonomy in the organization. However, six months into the employee empowerment program, a survey by HR revealed no actual change in employee attitudes. Similarly, a survey conducted by the production manager revealed that work productivity had not increased by any substantial measure either. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?

  1. A) Management strengthened the regulations relating to employee absenteeism in this period.
  2. B) Management retained the degree of control they had in the organizational affairs.
  3. C) The company moved from a merit-based to a piece-rate pay system in the last quarter.
  4. D) The employees performed poorly because of the lack of training and development programs.
  5. E) Management implemented a 360-degree feedback system for performance appraisals.

 

66) Which of the following is Theory X consistent with?

  1. A) the autocratic style of managing people
  2. B) the principles of participative management
  3. C) the vertical enhancement of jobs to enhance autonomy
  4. D) the use of recognition and achievements to motivate employees
  5. E) the reduced need of supervision and direction from managers

67) Participative management is characterized by the symbolic representation of employees in work councils and board meetings.

68) Employee involvement and participation (EIP) is a process that uses employees’ input to increase their commitment to organizational success.

69) What is employee involvement and why is it important? What are the two major forms of employee involvement?

70) Internal equity refers to the ________.

  1. A) list of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required in a particular job
  2. B) arrangement of the elements of different jobs in the organization
  3. C) worth of the job to the organization
  4. D) organization’s pay relative to pay elsewhere in its industry
  5. E) framework of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that the job involves

71) The external competitiveness of an organization’s pay relative to elsewhere in the industry is measured by its ________.

  1. A) external benefit
  2. B) external rotation
  3. C) external costs
  4. D) external equity
  5. E) external liability

72) ________ bases a portion of an employee’s pay on some individual and/or organizational measure of performance.

  1. A) Guaranteed pay program
  2. B) Variable-pay program
  3. C) Flexible benefits program
  4. D) Modular plans program
  5. E) Base pay program

73) The ________ pay plan has long been popular as a means of compensating production workers by paying a fixed sum for each unit of production completed.

  1. A) competency-based
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) piece-rate
  4. D) profit-sharing
  5. E) merit-based

74) Which of the following is an example of a piece-rate plan?

  1. A) $20 for each hour of work
  2. B) $2 for each unit produced
  3. C) stock options at cheaper prices
  4. D) straight commission plan
  5. E) spot bonuses

 

75) A(n) ________ pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings.

  1. A) piece-rate
  2. B) merit-based
  3. C) employee stock ownership
  4. D) profit-sharing
  5. E) gainsharing

76) Daichi Inc. is a Japanese software development firm known for its high quality products. Recently, the company held its annual conference and awarded all those employees who were in the top five percent with substantial monetary rewards. Their performance was evaluated on the basis of target achievement, client feedback, and quality ratings. Employees whose performance had not changed drastically were given a minor raise and those who fared badly received no incentives. Many employees blamed the company for creating differences among employees because they felt that it would harm the company in the long run, but Daichi Inc. truly believes that to retain and motivate its best performers, a large incentive is a good step. Daichi Inc. is using a(n) ________ here.

  1. A) piece-rate plan
  2. B) employee stock ownership plan
  3. C) modular plan
  4. D) merit-based plan
  5. E) flexible benefits plan

 

77) Which of the following represents a pay plan that rewards employees for recent performance rather than historical performance?

  1. A) bonus
  2. B) flexible benefits
  3. C) modular plans
  4. D) cafeteria plans
  5. E) base salary

 

78) What is an advantage of bonuses over merit-based pay plan?

  1. A) Employees don’t view bonuses as a part of their salary.
  2. B) Bonuses improve flexibility of the workforce.
  3. C) Bonuses are paid based on a formula.
  4. D) Bonuses improve performance of the group as a whole.
  5. E) Employees are rewarded for recent performance.

 

79) In which of the following variable-pay programs is the pay level based on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do?

  1. A) bonuses
  2. B) piece-rate pay
  3. C) skill-based pay
  4. D) gainsharing
  5. E) merit-based pay

 

80) A ________ plan distributes compensation based on some established formula designed around revenue of the company.

  1. A) piece-rate
  2. B) merit-based
  3. C) skill-based
  4. D) profit-sharing
  5. E) competency-based

81) ________ is a formula-based group incentive plan that uses improvements in group productivity from one period to another to determine the total amount of money allocated.

  1. A) Employee stock ownership plan
  2. B) Gainsharing
  3. C) Profit sharing
  4. D) Piece-rate pay plan
  5. E) Merit-based pay plan

 

82) Which of the following statements is true regarding gainsharing?

  1. A) Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits.
  2. B) Gainsharing involves paying employees based on the number of new skills acquired by them in a specific time period.
  3. C) Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits.
  4. D) Employees working under gainsharing plans have a greater feeling of psychological ownership.
  5. E) Gain sharing encourages social loafing.

 

83) At Dortix, a manufacturing company, at the end of every quarter, the total production of each department is calculated and compared with the predetermined targets; the rewards for each set of divisional employees are determined this way. Dortix uses a ________ plan to incentivize its employees.

  1. A) profit sharing
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) core-plus
  4. D) modular
  5. E) bonus

 

84) Which of the following variable pay programs is free from dependence on company profits?

  1. A) profit sharing
  2. B) job sharing
  3. C) bonuses
  4. D) employee stock ownership plans
  5. E) gainsharing

85) An advantage of the ________ plan is that because benefits accrue to groups of workers, high-performing workers pressure weaker performers to work harder, improving performance for the group as a whole.

  1. A) modular
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) skill-based pay
  4. D) flexible benefits
  5. E) profit sharing

86) Exsell is a popular consumer goods company known for hiring the best resources and using the best technology to produce an extensive range of goods. The manufacturing units consider productivity to be the only criterion; targets are upgraded, supervised, and rewarded amply. The groups with the highest productivity in each manufacturing unit owned by Exsell are incentivized using a substantial monthly monetary reward program. Of late, there have been some rumors about the company not doing very well in the market. Many claims of defective quality, declining market share, and employee unrest have been doing the rounds. However, the CEO of Exsell recently held a conference with the organization and the media to share its expansion plans for the coming year. He ended the conference with a discussion of how the profit margin of the company had grown substantially but many employees were left in doubt. Which of the following, if true, would indicate the need for Exsell to replace gainsharing with profit sharing as a variable pay program for its employees?

  1. A) The company used a merit-based pay plan for decades to reward the employees who deserved recognition for good performance.
  2. B) The company has opened multiple product categories and is experiencing brand dilution.
  3. C) Executives who receive and evaluate client feedback have found a lot of quality concerns with the products dispatched in recent times.
  4. D) The economy is showing signs of robust growth after last year’s recession and losses.
  5. E) The consumer goods industry has traditionally had higher barriers to entry than other industries of similar size and reach.

87) At Esco Retail, all employees are constantly driven to work hard. The company places maximum emphasis on stocking high quality goods and providing high quality service to retain the edge they have in the retail industry. To promote organizational commitment further, the company incentivizes employees by enabling them to purchase company shares at below-market prices as a part of their benefits. This mode of providing incentives represents the use of ________.

  1. A) flexible benefits plans
  2. B) merit-based plans
  3. C) modular plans
  4. D) employee stock ownership plans
  5. E) core-plus plans

88) Which of the following statements is true regarding an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP)?

  1. A) Under this plan, employees acquire company shares, often at below-market prices.
  2. B) There exists a strong correlation between ESOPs and employee performance.
  3. C) The financial stake in the company is adequate to use ESOPs as an effective means to motivate employees.
  4. D) ESOPs are effective because, like bonuses, they reward recent performance.
  5. E) ESOPs are also called competency-based pay plans.

89) For employee stock ownership plans to be effective in improving performance, they must ________.

  1. A) be based solely on productivity like gainsharing plans
  2. B) be implemented such that employees psychologically experience ownership
  3. C) be determined on the basis of performance appraisals and recent performance
  4. D) be planned such that they are unaffected by company profitability
  5. E) be based on the market compensation philosophy

 

90) The major advantage of flextime is that it can be used for all categories of jobs.

91) Internal equity refers to the worth of the job to the organization.

92) A variable-pay program bases a portion of an employee’s pay on some individual and/or organizational measure of performance.

 

93) The chief concern of both individual and team piece-rate workers is financial risk.

 

94) When the profits of Emm Corp rose steadily over two quarters three years back, the employees of the company were given the offer of purchasing the company’s shares at subsidized rates. Many of the employees who bought the shares have become extremely rich after the phenomenal growth Emm Corp has had in the following years. This is an example of a bonus.

95) List and describe different variable-pay programs.

 

96) Differentiate between bonuses and gainsharing plans.

97) Compare and contrast the benefits of intrinsic rewards, such as recognition, and extrinsic rewards, such as pay, as forms of motivation.

98) Individualized rewards that allow each employee to choose the compensation package that best satisfies his or her current needs and situation are called ________.

  1. A) variable pay programs
  2. B) standardized benefits packages
  3. C) employee recognition programs
  4. D) employee involvement programs
  5. E) flexible benefits plans

99) Which of the following statements is true regarding flexible benefits?

  1. A) Flexible benefits are awarded through uniform packages to cover the requirements of a married couple with two children.
  2. B) Flexible benefits are in accordance with the belief that employees have identical needs that must be rewarded identically.
  3. C) Gainsharing and profit-sharing plans are two major types of flexible benefits.
  4. D) Flexible benefits can be altered to meet employee needs based on age, marital status, and number and age of dependents.
  5. E) Flexible benefits are given based on an employee’s skills, competence, and productivity.

100) ________ are predesigned packages, or modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees.

  1. A) Modular plans
  2. B) Employee stock ownership plans
  3. C) Profit-sharing plans
  4. D) Merit-based plans
  5. E) Flextime plans

 

101) Core-plus plans consist of ________.

  1. A) predesigned packages of benefits that an employee must accept as a whole
  2. B) monetary benefits which are linked to one’s performance appraisals
  3. C) fractions of a company’s profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula
  4. D) pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits
  5. E) essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits that an employee can choose from

102) Sally Peterson, who works as an entry-level editor, wants to go for dental reconstruction surgery and sent a query to her HR department asking for a list of preferred hospitals. The HR looked through her healthcare plan, which provides only a minimum coverage for routine drugs and vision care. Consequently, the HR manager informed her that if she wishes to carry on with the dental procedure, she will have to pay for it on her own. Which of the following benefits plans should she choose to meet her needs?

  1. A) a basic modular plan
  2. B) a standardized benefits package
  3. C) a core-plus plan
  4. D) a fringe benefits plan
  5. E) a 401k plan

 

103) Flexible spending plans consist of ________.

  1. A) a core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of others from which employees can select
  2. B) no base salary; the employee is paid only for what he or she produces on the basis of a fixed sum for each unit of production completed
  3. C) a fraction of a company’s profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula
  4. D) pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits
  5. E) modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees

104) A flexible benefits package is designed for a male with a wife and two children at home.

105) Flexible spending plans allow employees to set aside pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular benefits, such as healthcare and dental premiums.

 

106) List and describe the various flexible benefits plans.

107) Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?

  1. A) bonus
  2. B) profit-sharing plan
  3. C) employee stock option
  4. D) employee recognition
  5. E) gainsharing

108) Jack Holmes is a middle-aged, lower-level employee at an automobile service center. Though he is not paid very well, he loves his job. His supervisor speaks to him with respect, and he is the favored candidate for mentoring new employees because of the vast experience he holds in the job. Based on this information, which of the following is most likely to be the reason Jack likes his job?

  1. A) recognition
  2. B) prospects of growth
  3. C) salary
  4. D) flextime
  5. E) job sharing

109) Which of the following statements is true regarding employee recognition?

  1. A) Employee recognition is an extrinsic reward.
  2. B) Critics argue that employee recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by management.
  3. C) Employee recognition programs are expensive.
  4. D) Centralized programs across multiple offices in different countries can hinder the process of employee recognition programs.
  5. E) Employee stock option is a more powerful workplace motivator than recognition.

 

110) On an organizational level, job design and by the extrinsic rewards of pay and benefits are the only ways to motivate employees.

111) Recent studies indicate that employee recognition programs are associated with self-esteem, self-efficacy, and job satisfaction and the broader outcomes from intrinsic motivation are well documented.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 9   Foundations of Group Behavior

 

1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

  1. A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
  2. B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
  3. C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
  4. D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
  5. E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

 

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

  1. A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
  2. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
  3. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
  4. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
  5. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

 

3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.

  1. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
  2. B) predetermined designation of tasks of members
  3. C) pursuit of particular organizational goals
  4. D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
  5. E) creation of timelines and rationale

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

  1. A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
  2. B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is less than that of informal groups.
  3. C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
  4. D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
  5. E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

 

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory.

  1. A) social exchange
  2. B) expectancy
  3. C) social identity
  4. D) reinforcement
  5. E) equity

 

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

  1. A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
  2. B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group’s performance.
  3. C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
  4. D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an ingroup view members of an out-group.
  5. E) It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

  1. A) Ingroup homogeneity
  2. B) Xenocentrism
  3. C) Ingroup favoritism
  4. D) Black sheep effect
  5. E) Hindsight bias

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) ingroup favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

 

9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying, “You guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) ingroup favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

 

10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  5. E) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

 

11) In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  3. C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  4. D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

12) Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

 

13) Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

14) Often, our identification with our workgroups is stronger than with our organizations. Both are important to positive outcomes in attitudes and behaviors. Additionally, if we have low identification in relation to the group, there may be increased competition and decreased organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) by group members. If we have low identification with our organizations, we may experience decreased satisfaction and OCB.

 

15) Ingroups and outgroups pave the way for social identity threat, which is akin to stereotype threat.

16) Describe the characteristics of the social identity theory.

17) Describe the relationship between distinctiveness and groupshift.

 

18) Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) adjourning
  2. B) performing
  3. C) storming
  4. D) forming
  5. E) norming

19) Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?

  1. A) introduction
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) evolution
  5. E) norming

20) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

  1. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
  2. B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
  3. C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
  4. D) intragroup conflict within the group
  5. E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

 

21) By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

  1. A) norming
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) adjourning
  5. E) performing

22) During the third stage of group development, ________.

  1. A) conflicts over leadership are common
  2. B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
  3. C) intragroup conflicts occur
  4. D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
  5. E) groups disband

Quest. Category:  Concept

23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

  1. A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
  2. B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  3. C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
  4. D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
  5. E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

24) When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

  1. A) storming
  2. B) norming
  3. C) inertia
  4. D) forming
  5. E) performing

25) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

  1. A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  2. B) During the performing stage, there is conflict over who will control the group.
  3. C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
  4. D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
  5. E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

26) Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
  2. B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
  3. C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level beginning in the first stage.
  4. D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
  5. E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

27) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

  1. A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
  2. B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
  3. C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
  4. D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and groupshift to break out of the phases of inertia.
  5. E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

 

 

28) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team members may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members, and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

  1. A) forming
  2. B) inertia following the first meeting
  3. C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
  4. D) storming
  5. E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

29) The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

  1. A) the phase of inertia before transition
  2. B) the determination of the group’s direction
  3. C) the transition to plan the major changes
  4. D) a period of accelerated activity
  5. E) the adoption of new perspectives

30) The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

  1. A) performing
  2. B) inertia
  3. C) equilibrium
  4. D) transition
  5. E) first meeting

 

31) Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

  1. A) better perspectives and patterns
  2. B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
  3. C) promotion of diversity
  4. D) deadlines and time constraints
  5. E) role perception and expectation

32) A batch of trainees has been assigned a new project, and the team is unsure of the details of the project and how they will pursue its completion as a group with specific tasks and roles. This

 

 

33) During the forming stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness.

 

34) The development of temporary work groups is best understood in terms of the five-stage group development model.

35) List and briefly describe the stages in the five-stage model of group development.

36) Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model.

 

37) Role perception is defined as ________.

  1. A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
  2. B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
  3. C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  4. D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
  5. E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group

38) Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, has very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She feels that as a nurse she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she can serve her patients well, and she often goes to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice’s ________.

  1. A) role fuzziness
  2. B) role ambiguity
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) role perception
  5. E) role status

 

39) Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

  1. A) fuzziness
  2. B) expectation
  3. C) conflict
  4. D) perception
  5. E) enhancement

 

40) Most people assume that police officers should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) similarity
  3. C) role expectation
  4. D) uncertainty reduction
  5. E) dispersion of responsibility

41) When ________, the result is role conflict.

  1. A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
  2. B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
  3. C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
  4. D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
  5. E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

42) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

  1. A) role conflict
  2. B) social loafing
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) role fuzziness
  5. E) groupshift

 

43) Role perception indicates our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation.

44) Role expectations at work are often conveyed through the psychological contract.

45) Explain the following terms: role perception and role expectation.

 

46) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.

 

47) Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?

  1. A) status
  2. B) norms
  3. C) dyads
  4. D) goals
  5. E) cliques

48) Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

  1. A) dress codes
  2. B) rules in informal groups
  3. C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
  4. D) distribution of pay
  5. E) the manner in which a job must be done

49) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

  1. A) appearance
  2. B) social arrangement
  3. C) performance
  4. D) reference
  5. E) organizational

 

50) A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew, the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

  1. A) performance norms
  2. B) appearance norms
  3. C) resource allocation norms
  4. D) reference norms
  5. E) leisure norms

51) ________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.

  1. A) Deviance
  2. B) Conflict
  3. C) Divergence
  4. D) Conformity
  5. E) Appearance

52) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference
  3. C) organizational
  4. D) control
  5. E) nominal

 

53) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a(n) ________ for him.

  1. A) nominal group
  2. B) organizational group
  3. C) control group
  4. D) intervention group
  5. E) reference group

54) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

  1. A) undue hardship
  2. B) deviant workplace behavior
  3. C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
  4. D) progressive discipline
  5. E) wrongful termination

 

55) Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

  1. A) It is involuntary in nature.
  2. B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
  3. C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
  4. D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
  5. E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

 

56) Status refers to the ________.

  1. A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
  2. B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
  3. C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
  4. D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  5. E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

57) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

  1. A) control over the resources needed by the group
  2. B) contribution to goals
  3. C) ability to conform to group norms
  4. D) personality
  5. E) talent

 

58) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

  1. A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
  2. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.
  3. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
  4. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
  5. E) Compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

 

59) A company’s dress code policy comes under the performance norms.

60) The popular thinking is that to increase creativity in groups, for instance, norms should be loosened. However, research on gender-diverse groups indicates that strong political correctness (PC) norms increase group creativity.

 

61) An individual’s personal characteristics, like good looks or friendly personality, represent one of the dimensions of the status characteristics theory.

 

62) High-status members of groups are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.

63) What are four common classes of norms?

 

64) What is the relationship between performance norms, cohesiveness, and group productivity?

 

65) How can norms be used to reduce deviant workplace behavior?

66) According to the status characteristics theory, what are the three sources of status?

 

67) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect that size of the group has on the performance of the group?

  1. A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
  2. B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
  3. C) Compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better at problem solving.
  4. D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding, then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
  5. E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

 

68) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) groupshift
  5. E) social facilitation

69) When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) groupshift
  5. E) ingroup favoritism

70) Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

  1. A) difficult task assignments
  2. B) high collective efficacy
  3. C) severe time constraints
  4. D) dispersion of responsibility
  5. E) heavy workload

71) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

  1. A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
  2. B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
  3. C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
  4. D) increasing the size of the group
  5. E) increasing the group’s workload

72) Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing?

  1. A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.
  2. B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when employees work collectively.
  3. C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
  4. D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
  5. E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

73) ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family, and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

  1. A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.
  2. B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
  3. C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
  4. D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
  5. E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

74) Greater performance diversity creates greater social loafing the longer a group is together, which decreases satisfaction and performance.

 

75) How does group size affect a group’s behavior?

76) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

  1. A) Assertiveness
  2. B) Social dominance
  3. C) Authoritativeness
  4. D) Cohesiveness
  5. E) Diversity

77) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

  1. A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
  2. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.
  3. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
  4. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
  5. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

78) ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

  1. A) Homogeneity
  2. B) Diversity
  3. C) Conformity
  4. D) Civility
  5. E) Universality

79) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

  1. A) increased ambiguous responsibility
  2. B) increased conformity pressures
  3. C) increased diversity of views
  4. D) increased dispersion of accountability
  5. E) increased pace of decision making

 

80) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

  1. A) acceptance of solution
  2. B) speed
  3. C) efficiency
  4. D) clear responsibility
  5. E) legitimacy

81) When compared to individual decision making, group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) creativity
  3. C) acceptance of final solutions
  4. D) speed
  5. E) accuracy

82) ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

  1. A) Groupshift
  2. B) Social loafing
  3. C) Ingroup favoritism
  4. D) Cyber loafing
  5. E) Groupthink

83) Sonia Soans is a corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity, she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From this scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) groupshift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

84) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager to minimize groupthink?

  1. A) increase the group size
  2. B) encourage group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
  3. C) prevent all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
  4. D) ask the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
  5. E) seek input from employees before the group leader presents his or her opinions

85) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

  1. A) social desirability bias
  2. B) groupshift
  3. C) halo effect
  4. D) social loafing
  5. E) ingroup favoritism

 

86) Groupshift is seen when ________.

  1. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
  2. B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
  3. C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  4. D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus

87) The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed they had major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

  1. A) conformity
  2. B) groupshift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

88) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Mark’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Mark thought that EuAir should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
  2. B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for EuAir to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.
  3. C) Mark agreed with Joe’s opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
  4. D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with EuAir.
  5. E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing EuAir to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

89) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced groupshift in the meeting?

  1. A) Mark argued that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
  2. B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.
  3. C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
  4. D) Mark stated that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
  5. E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

90) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Joe’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
  2. B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
  3. C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
  4. D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price-sensitive group of customers.
  5. E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

91) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airline, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced groupshift during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
  2. B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
  3. C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
  4. D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.
  5. E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

92) Surface-level diversity refers to attitudes, values, and opinions which are different in diverse groups.

93) Group decisions are generally less accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the group.

 

94) Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.

95) Amy Jones has to come up with a strategy to regulate the excessive use of the Internet by her employees in such a way that they accept and commit to the solution themselves. It is advisable for her to use group decision making rather than individual decision making in this situation.

 

 

96) Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.

 

97) Describe cohesiveness as a property of groups. How can a group be made more cohesive?

98) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group decisions as compared to individual decisions.

99) Discuss the impact of brainstorming on the possibility of groupthink.

 

100) Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) electronic meeting groups

101) Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) ingroup favoritism
  2. B) groupshift
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

 

102) Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

  1. A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
  2. B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
  3. C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
  4. D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
  5. E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

103) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) ingroup

 

104) For seven years, Bonnie Patterson has been a manager at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her workday involves holding meetings, and she likes to follow a well-defined schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the other, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference group
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) nominal group
  5. E) groupthink

105) Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

  1. A) nominal and electronic
  2. B) brainstorming
  3. C) brainstorming and electronic
  4. D) electronic and interacting
  5. E) interacting and brainstorming

 

106) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than individuals working alone.

 

107) The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.

108) Describe the nominal group technique.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 10   Understanding Work Teams

 

1) The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________.

  1. A) they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals
  2. B) they represent a better way to use employee talents
  3. C) they reduce the need for coordination and supervision
  4. D) they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs
  5. E) they strengthen the worth of individual team players over the team

 

2) More and more organizations are resorting to teams as they represent a better way to use employee talents.

 

3) Teams and traditional departments have the same level of flexibility and responsiveness to external changes.

4) Which of the following statements best defines a work group?

  1. A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members.
  2. B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort.
  3. C) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.
  4. D) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a coordinated fashion to the task at hand.
  5. E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and outcomes.

 

5) Work groups are characterized by ________.

  1. A) the emphasis on generating positive synergy
  2. B) the goal of sharing information among members
  3. C) the mutual and team-based accountability for results
  4. D) the need to attain collective performance
  5. E) the availability of complementary skill sets

6) The goal of work groups is ________.

  1. A) generating positive synergy
  2. B) improving collective performance
  3. C) inculcating a climate of trust
  4. D) sharing relevant information
  5. E) enhancing team efficacy

7) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team?

  1. A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today.
  2. B) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments.
  3. C) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.
  4. D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the company.
  5. E) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets.

 

8) A work team is characterized by ________.

  1. A) the goal of sharing information
  2. B) the presence of neutral to negative synergy
  3. C) the availability of complementary skills among members
  4. D) the individual accountability for outcomes and results
  5. E) the mere accumulation of individual efforts

9) Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams?

  1. A) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers.
  2. B) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues.
  3. C) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills.
  4. D) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function.
  5. E) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.

 

10) The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________.

  1. A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team
  2. B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results
  3. C) developing the various team member’s skills such that they are random and varied
  4. D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs
  5. E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work

11) The goal of a work group is to share information.

12) Nancy is a part of a group at work that stresses collective goals and performance. Nancy is amazed at how well the members of the team use their skills to benefit themselves and their team members. Whenever a problem arises, the team, as a whole, works to provide reasons and solutions. She enjoys working in this group as there is a lot of positive energy. This group that Nancy is a part of is a work group.

 

13) Discuss the difference between a work group and a work team.

 

14) A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving the work environment but they do not have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a(n) ________ team.

  1. A) cross-functional
  2. B) virtual
  3. C) self-managed work
  4. D) problem-solving
  5. E) independent

15) Problem-solving teams can ________.

  1. A) implement the recommended changes to resolve a problem
  2. B) assume responsibility for the outcomes of a solution they implemented
  3. C) provide recommendations after a discussion amongst department members
  4. D) resolve problems of different departments in an organization simultaneously
  5. E) combine the expertise of employees across different divisions and organizational levels

 

16) The supervisors of the production division of one of the branches of Georgia Mills have been informed of some irregularities noticed in inventory of raw materials by some trusted subordinates. To get a clearer picture, the supervisors had a quick meeting with the subordinates who reported the matter over lunch. The subordinates recommended rotating the schedule of employees who account for the incoming and used up stock so as to pinpoint the defaulting employee. The supervisors agreed that this was a good strategy but admitted that the matter must be escalated to the production manager before such a change can be implemented. They followed up this meeting with subsequent sessions to evaluate how the change worked. The supervisors and subordinates form a(n) ________ team in this scenario.

  1. A) cross-functional
  2. B) independent
  3. C) problem-solving
  4. D) virtual
  5. E) self-managed

17) ________ teams are defined as groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.

  1. A) Independent
  2. B) Self-managed work
  3. C) Cross-functional
  4. D) Problem-solving
  5. E) Traditional

18) Nick, the director of manufacturing at a large electronics company, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control for working on high priority projects. Nick gives the team members the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work and making all functional decisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other’s performance. This is an example of a ________ team.

  1. A) problem-solving
  2. B) self-managed work
  3. C) cross-functional
  4. D) virtual
  5. E) task-resolution

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams?

  1. A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees.
  2. B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well.
  3. C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction.
  4. D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other.
  5. E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.

20) Which of the following teams is more likely to be made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas?

  1. A) problem-solving
  2. B) self-managed work
  3. C) cross-functional
  4. D) traditional
  5. E) departmental

21) To retain its edge in the organic health food market, Natura has established a high-priority team comprised of senior executives from the company’s production, marketing, and research divisions. These employees work together closely to study consumer attitudes about organic health foods and come up with a closely monitored development and marketing strategy for new products. This ensures that each division is informed of the specific needs, timelines, and expected outcomes of the strategy. It also makes Natura a company that adapts to changes in market trends swiftly. The team Natura uses here is of the ________ type.

  1. A) problem-solving
  2. B) self-managed work
  3. C) cross-functional
  4. D) traditional
  5. E) departmental

22) GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company’s C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team.

  1. A) command
  2. B) cross-functional
  3. C) self-managed work
  4. D) problem-solving
  5. E) task

23) Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team?

  1. A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels.
  2. B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department.
  3. C) Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades.
  4. D) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short.
  5. E) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.

 

24) Which of the following types of teams allows for collaboration between team members who are physically dispersed?

  1. A) problem-solving teams
  2. B) self-managed work teams
  3. C) task teams
  4. D) virtual teams
  5. E) command teams

25) Virtual teams are characterized by ________ in comparison to teams which interact face-to-face.

  1. A) low popularity among companies
  2. B) low social rapport and direct interaction
  3. C) low sharing of unique information
  4. D) low need for supervision
  5. E) low need for publicizing throughout the organization

 

26) Which of the following is desirable when a crucial project is delegated to a virtual team?

  1. A) encouraging less interaction among members so they completely focus on the project
  2. B) avoiding publicity of the team’s progress and success in the organization
  3. C) promoting a sense of independence over group spirit to encourage competition
  4. D) engaging in close monitoring of the work being done by the team throughout the project
  5. E) discouraging the sharing of unique information as it benefits some employees unfairly

27) Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems?

  1. A) They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team.
  2. B) They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal.
  3. C) They are effectively teams of teams.
  4. D) They are more successful when they have boundary spanners.
  5. E) They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.

28) Problem-solving teams discuss a problem, generate potential solutions, and implement them successfully.

29) In self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated.

 

30) Cross-functional teams consist of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

31) Virtual teams should be managed differently than face-to-face teams in an office, partially because virtual team members may not interact along traditional hierarchical patterns.

32) Describe and discuss self-managed work teams.

33) What is a cross-functional team?

 

34) What are some special challenges that virtual teams face? For virtual teams to be effective, what should management ensure?

35) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams?

  1. A) team efficacy
  2. B) company reputation
  3. C) adequate resources
  4. D) member flexibility
  5. E) leadership and structure

36) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors?

  1. A) team efficacy
  2. B) climate of trust
  3. C) common purpose
  4. D) social loafing
  5. E) specific goals

 

37) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables belongs to the composition category?

  1. A) adequate resources
  2. B) conflict level
  3. C) team efficacy
  4. D) performance evaluation system
  5. E) personality of team members

38) According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team?

  1. A) leadership and structure
  2. B) team efficacy
  3. C) member flexibility
  4. D) performance evaluation and reward systems
  5. E) abilities of members

39) Jean Wills, a trainer with Leverage Inc., is infuriated because the conference hall that she had booked for her morning session with a new batch of trainees will be occupied by the HR team for the day. Jean feels that the company only superficially commits to training and that it is not a priority as this lack of facilities for training is a recurring phenomenon. Recently, she had asked the HR department to supply printed copies of her material for the orientation and training modules to the new trainees, and HR refused, saying the soft copies available on the systems would suffice. Which of the following contextual areas is the source of problem between the training department and the HR department in this scenario?

  1. A) performance evaluation
  2. B) reward systems
  3. C) adequate resources
  4. D) leadership
  5. E) structure

40) Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each other’s backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members’ work and looking for mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli’s team?

  1. A) adequate resources
  2. B) climate of trust
  3. C) team structure
  4. D) performance evaluations
  5. E) leadership

41) In which of the following teams is leadership of most importance to coordinate the efforts of various teams in order to produce a desired outcome?

  1. A) technical teams
  2. B) self-managed work teams
  3. C) problem-solving teams
  4. D) management teams
  5. E) multiteam systems

 

42) Which of the following reward systems is likely to reinforce team effort and commitment?

  1. A) job sharing
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) piece-rate pay
  4. D) merit-based pay
  5. E) skill-based pay

43) Which of the following pairs of personality dimensions contribute to high team effectiveness?

  1. A) introversion and reflexivity
  2. B) type A and type B
  3. C) reflexivity and submissiveness
  4. D) conscientiousness and openness to experience
  5. E) perfectionism and rule consciousness

44) People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they’re good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their support is truly needed.

  1. A) conscientiousness
  2. B) positivity
  3. C) emotional stability
  4. D) agreeableness
  5. E) openness to experience

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition?

  1. A) A team’s performance is merely the summation of its individual members’ abilities.
  2. B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations.
  3. C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups.
  4. D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled.
  5. E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader.

46) The controller role in a team is responsible for ________.

  1. A) initiating creative ideas
  2. B) examining details and enforcing rules
  3. C) offering insightful analysis of options
  4. D) coordinating and integrating group tasks
  5. E) providing directions and following up with implementation

47) The adviser role in a team is responsible for ________.

  1. A) providing structure
  2. B) fighting external battles
  3. C) offering insightful analysis of options
  4. D) coordinating and integrating group tasks
  5. E) encouraging the search for more information

 

48) Which of the following terms describes the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service?

  1. A) social conformity
  2. B) organizational value
  3. C) organizational demography
  4. D) diversity
  5. E) organizational multiculturalism

49) Organizational demography suggests that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help the organization in ________.

  1. A) promoting diversity and multiculturalism
  2. B) reducing discrimination in the workplace
  3. C) determining appropriate compensation packages
  4. D) assessing the training needs at an occupational level
  5. E) predicting employee turnover in the company

50) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________.

  1. A) increased employee satisfaction
  2. B) decreased level of conflicts
  3. C) higher employee motivation
  4. D) higher employee turnover
  5. E) higher team efficacy

51) Which of the following is true with regard to the impact of diversity on team effectiveness?

  1. A) High levels of diversity among team members benefit the group from the stage of forming.
  2. B) Race and gender diversity bear the highest positive impact on team performance.
  3. C) Leadership has a negligible role to play in diverse teams because the members manage themselves autonomously.
  4. D) Elements of diversity are undesirable as they interfere with team processes in the long run.
  5. E) Cultural diversity serves as an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints once the team has worked out its differences.

 

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team?

  1. A) Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes.
  2. B) Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams.
  3. C) Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform as compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams.
  4. D) Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints.
  5. E) Culturally diverse teams are more affected by surface-level diversity than by deep-level diversity.

 

53) Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________.

  1. A) require a variety of viewpoints
  2. B) are simple and routine
  3. C) involve emotional labor
  4. D) are highly technical
  5. E) required for completing the work are highly independent

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams?

  1. A) The most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members.
  2. B) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines.
  3. C) As team size increases, social loafing decreases.
  4. D) When teams have excess members, mutual accountability increases.
  5. E) Members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for time.

55) Which of the following statements represents a strategy that is desirable for making effective teams?

  1. A) Combining people with extremely high and extremely low abilities helps make a balanced team.
  2. B) Individuals should ideally have one role in a team as multiple roles reduce their effectiveness and efficiency.
  3. C) Diversity should be avoided as diverse teams involve a lot of conflict in day-to-day functioning.
  4. D) If a natural work unit is larger, its size must be maintained for the nature of the job requires large teams.
  5. E) The preference of individual members to work as a part of groups must be considered when forming teams.

56) Which of the following statements is true with regard to team processes?

  1. A) This category comprises variables that relate to how teams should be staffed.
  2. B) Effective teams invest time and effort to discuss and agree on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually.
  3. C) Once a specific goal is chosen, effective teams resist making any changes in them so as to maintain the momentum of the team.
  4. D) Effective teams do not engage in task and relationship conflicts.
  5. E) Effective teams begin by selecting the right kind of people to be members of the team.

57) ________ illustrates a process loss from using teams.

  1. A) Organizational demography
  2. B) Role conflict
  3. C) Social loafing
  4. D) Multitasking
  5. E) Profit-sharing

58) Gerald Murphy is a manager at Wright & Wayner, a publishing house which is a very employee-friendly company. The demarcation between managers and subordinates is flexible and the nature of these reporting relationships is flexible and informal. Gerald recently assigned five of eight of his subordinates to work on a new publication project with a fairly tight deadline because he believed that these efficient employees would function even better with each other’s support. A week before the deadline, however, Gerald realized that the group had been shirking work as each of the members thought that the project was not just his or her responsibility. Additionally, under the guise of working together, the team was actually doing their personal work, surfing the Internet, or just socializing. This scenario reflects ________.

  1. A) gainsharing
  2. B) high process gains
  3. C) reflexive goal-setting
  4. D) job sharing
  5. E) social loafing

59) A team that has a good plan but is also willing to adjust its master plan and adapt when conditions call for it demonstrates high ________, an important variable in successful team processes.

  1. A) goal specificity
  2. B) goal congruency
  3. C) conformity
  4. D) diversity
  5. E) reflexivity

60) While discussing their marketing campaign for a new product, the members of the cross-functional team responsible for Carver Inc. realized that a couple of changes relating to their prior plan would be beneficial. The offer of a franchising that had earlier been brushed off by the company head was discussed thoroughly, and it was decided that it would be implemented on a trial basis initially and on full scale if found to work well. From the information provided, it can be concluded that this cross-functional team has a high degree of ________.

  1. A) demography
  2. B) reflexivity
  3. C) conformity
  4. D) diversity
  5. E) uncertainty

61) Hank Murphy was selected to develop an advanced personal communication device with his own self-managed work team. Hank was assured that resource allocation and timelines were flexible for this project provided the work was a cut above that provided by the rest of the employees. As a part of the project guidelines, Hank included the demand that the device being developed by the team should also be marketed exclusively by them without resorting to franchising or cobranding. This was to ensure that customers recognized the product as reflecting the values of their company. Work on this project began with a lot of vigor and once the device was developed, Hank’s team implemented their marketing strategy. However, even three months after the product’s release, visibility remained low in the market and many reviewers did not consider the device to be much of an innovation. Which of the following statements, if true, would indicate a lack of reflexivity in Hank’s self-managed work team?

  1. A) Hank’s team members developed multiple blueprints of the device, which were thoroughly discussed, improvised, and synthesized into the final plan for the product.
  2. B) In the first few weeks of the project, Hank had witnessed a moderate level of conflict between the team members as each one had his own idea about how best to go about this high-priority project.
  3. C) The device was later marketed as a part of a national level tie-up with E-store outlets and did remarkably well in its second stint in the market.
  4. D) In Hank’s team, the members took accountability for the group’s performance as a whole and reported their individual progress to him as well.
  5. E) Hank’s team used e-mail and instant messaging to communicate unique information when some of the team members were not available for face-to-face interactions.

62) Effective teams translate their common purpose into ________ goals.

  1. A) universal
  2. B) generic
  3. C) vast
  4. D) specific
  5. E) diverse

 

63) The belief that effective teams have in their ability to succeed is called ________.

  1. A) goal specificity
  2. B) reflexivity
  3. C) mental model
  4. D) common purpose
  5. E) team efficacy

64) Alberto’s team is developing a database for the water pollution data of three cities. Before he begins on this intensive project, he wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts?

  1. A) plan a team outing for the team members
  2. B) make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people
  3. C) spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each
  4. D) provide client’s software and database training for all the team members
  5. E) create team goals that are very challenging

65) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy?

  1. A) providing vast and generic goals
  2. B) helping the team achieve small successes
  3. C) creating a team such that it has diverse members
  4. D) ensuring that team goals are substantially difficult
  5. E) reducing the number of members on a team drastically

 

66) ________ are defined as organized mental representations of the key elements within a team’s environment that team members share.

  1. A) Path-goal models
  2. B) Task models
  3. C) Mental models
  4. D) Individual models
  5. E) Specific models

67) Managers facing job candidates who lack team skills should do all of the following except ________.

  1. A) avoid hiring the job candidate
  2. B) hire the candidate, but assign them to tasks where teamwork is not important
  3. C) provide the candidate with the type of training that can help improve his or her ability to be a successful member of a team
  4. D) choose the individual with the best technical skills regardless of his or her ability to perform as a member of a team
  5. E) bring the candidate on board, but assign the individual to an area where teamwork is not a priority

 

68) With a deadline approaching, all seven members of Sharon’s product development team were working round-the-clock and still the work was not completed in time. After the project was completed, Sharon spoke individually with the members to determine the cause for this delay. Many members complained, saying the work given to them was not in accordance with their roles. Some were unclear about which team member to approach when faced with a problem, and many underestimated the time and effort the project demanded. This team is characterized by ________.

  1. A) a clear role allocation for all team members
  2. B) dissimilar mental models
  3. C) high degree of role clarity
  4. D) excessively large team size
  5. E) a strong climate of trust

69) Which of the following is not a common characteristic of an effective team?

  1. A) The team has adequate resources.
  2. B) The team has effective leadership.
  3. C) The team has a climate of trust.
  4. D) The team has a performance and evaluation system that reflects team contributions.
  5. E) The team is the right size for the task—about 15-20 people.

70) When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions.

  1. A) task conflicts
  2. B) disciplinary conflicts
  3. C) relationship conflicts
  4. D) resource allocation conflicts
  5. E) discriminatory conflicts

 

71) Which of the following is an example of a task conflict?

  1. A) Will and Hilda have been removed from the team they worked with after they were overheard making derogatory comments about one of their colleague’s racial origin.
  2. B) Henry and Solomon have been reprimanded by their project lead for spending too much time using the Internet for personal use at work.
  3. C) Linda and Dorothy had a disagreement over which of their employees should be assigned to work on a high-priority project.
  4. D) Sally and her manager have just had a heated argument because Sally feels she has been overlooked for a promotion that was her rightful due.
  5. E) The company head has resigned after longstanding conflict between him and his top management employees.

72) Which of the following must be avoided if one wants to create and maintain an effective team?

  1. A) task conflicts
  2. B) reflexivity
  3. C) specific goals
  4. D) relationship conflicts
  5. E) congruent mental models

 

73) When individuals engage in ________, they coast on the group’s effort because their particular contributions cannot be identified.

  1. A) task conflicts
  2. B) gainsharing
  3. C) retaliating
  4. D) process gains
  5. E) social loafing

74) Shane Dermott is a manager at a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using multiple teams of specialists. One of his most successful teams has been performing very well for years and so it came as a surprise to Shane when he noticed a sharp drop in the team’s performance. He decided to speak with the team members individually and find a solution. After interviewing all 7 team members, he determined that one of the team members performed routine administrative tasks that were hardly visible to any of the other team members and understood that this was a case of social loafing which demotivated the entire group. Which of the following would most likely improve the performance of the employee who was social loafing?

  1. A) encouraging him to work more independently
  2. B) making him individually responsible for definite and crucial tasks
  3. C) empowering him to make decisions autonomously
  4. D) providing him with administrative training
  5. E) giving him additional assignments to complete

75) Jason Jones has been asked to assemble an eight-member self-managed work team of experienced employees to work on a project that combines the functional areas of research, production, marketing, and distribution. Jason is apprehensive about managing a team so large; he knows from prior experience that larger teams do not always result in greater productivity. Jason has also been informed by the management that this team is being established as the project must progress according to the predetermined timeline. The work lagging behind by one division will cause a cumulative delay in all the successive stages of the project’s execution. Which of the following measures, if adopted by Jason, would best ensure that the team members are working efficiently?

  1. A) implementing a training program to provide the team members with the necessary technical and human relations skills for the project
  2. B) discouraging team members from restricting themselves to their own functional areas by experimenting with and learning the jobs done by other members of the team
  3. C) instructing the team members to finalize the plan for the project right at the beginning and ensuring that it is implemented without any changes
  4. D) assigning the specific tasks of the project to each team member by keeping in mind their preferences and abilities
  5. E) implementing a group-based incentive he has planned for this team

76) Jason Jones has been asked to assemble an eight-member self-managed work team of experienced employees to work on a project that combines the functional areas of research, production, marketing, and distribution. Jason is apprehensive about managing a team so large; he knows from prior experience that larger teams do not always result in greater productivity. Jason has also been informed by the management that this team is being established as the project must progress according to the predetermined timeline. The work lagging behind by one division will cause a cumulative delay in all the successive stages of the project’s execution. Jason plans to implement a group-based incentive that he feels would motivate each of the team members to work efficiently. Which of the following is an assumption made by Jason in implementing this plan?

  1. A) Increasing the number of experienced employees in the team will reduce the need for supervision.
  2. B) Each employee in the team is motivated to work equally hard to ensure that the group’s performance is satisfactory.
  3. C) Since the team is comprised of employees who are highly skilled in their respective areas, the output of the group will be of high quality.
  4. D) Each employee will work well within the boundaries of their divisional functions, and conflicts will be relatively fewer.
  5. E) Each employee will be committed to working within the resources allocated.

 

77) A climate of trust among team members is a contextual factor relating to team effectiveness.

78) FDS is a government agency which holds its yearly appraisals in December and provides employees with merit-based incentives based on their individual performance ratings. Merit is the only criterion for incentives at FDS and this is likely to have a strong positive impact on group performance.

 

79) Leadership of multiteam systems is also much different than for standalone teams. While leadership of all teams affects team performance, a multiteam leader must both facilitate coordination between teams and lead each team.

 

80) Conscientiousness and openness to experience are two personality dimensions of the Big Five personality model that predict better performance in teams.

81) The term team cohesion means members are emotionally attached to one another and motivated toward the team because of their attachment. Team cohesion is a useful tool to predict team outcomes.

82) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline.

 

83) Research shows we are better off putting our efforts into creating an egalitarian atmosphere and choosing our teammates based on what they can contribute to our team.

 

84) Specificity refers to the degree to which a team reflects on and adjusts its master plan when necessary.

85) The team effectiveness model identifies three categories of key components making up effective teams. What are these three categories? Give examples of each category.

 

86) How does a climate of trust improve effectiveness of teams?

87) Compare the role of a leader in (a) a self-managed team, (b) a multiteam, and (c) a diverse team.

88) How must roles be allocated to ensure effective team performance?

 

89) What is organizational demography? What is its significance?

 

90) Discuss the effect of team size on effectiveness of teams.

91) What is meant by member preferences? How can it be altered?

 

92) How do mental models contribute to task conflicts?

93) What is the relationship between task conflicts and reflexivity among team members?

 

94) What is social loafing? How can the management undermine the tendency of social loafing?

 

95) Which of the following will be useful in creating team players?

  1. A) technical training
  2. B) academic training
  3. C) job rotation
  4. D) cross-training
  5. E) negotiation training

96) Diane Fielding, owner of the famous Mint chain of restaurants, planned to revamp the whole concept and structure of her outlets. With this purpose in mind, she selected five managers from her existing outlets based on their performance in relation to targets, experience, and motivation. Each manager was asked to take up an aspect of the restaurant’s functioning like menu, décor, and customer service measures. Diane was sure that this group of high performers possessed a clear understanding of the ground realities, which made them the best candidates to contemplate and implement the required changes. In order to reward them, she announced a hefty bonus for their collective performance. Six months later, after the changes were implemented, Diane realized that the group had made many questionable decisions, which were resulting in problems. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?

  1. A) The team members had skills that were complementary to each other and added value to the project.
  2. B) The team members had high levels of affective commitment to their jobs as Diane was a good leader.
  3. C) Typically, these managers viewed each other as competition as Diane only rewarded the highest earning outlet with incentives.
  4. D) Two of the branches of Mint were located in the suburbs, while the other three outlets were located in busy areas and witnessed more customers.
  5. E) The team members were clear about their duties, and role ambiguity was minimal.

97) A software development firm has witnessed substantial growth and seeks to expand and reorganize its structure to meet the demands from clients in a better manner. HR has been given a clear directive that one of the major criteria for selection of recruits would be the candidate’s ability to function as a team player. This is because the company is revamping all its major functions from the traditional departmental model to an arrangement of flexible teams. Joe Sanchez, one of the firm’s oldest and most experienced employees, has demonstrated considerable ability in developing the best programs, but he prefers to work alone. The company does not wish to lose resources like Sanchez and others who lack the ability to work in groups, but teamwork is essential to its reorganization. Which of the following strategies will help rectify this problem?

  1. A) encouraging the formation of more diverse teams
  2. B) informing all employees that ability to work in teams will be a major determinant for promotions and bonuses
  3. C) increasing the size of teams so the contribution of people like Joe will not affect team performance overall
  4. D) applying merit-based compensation systems instead of gainsharing
  5. E) encouraging employees like Joe to work more independently

98) For creating good team players, an organization’s reward system must be reworked to encourage competitive efforts rather than cooperative ones.

 

99) Problems such as lack of trust or lack of sharing information among team members in a competitive group can be swiftly changed by rewarding collective performance over individual performance.

100) A trauma team in a hospital is one example of an action team with shared mental models.

 

101) Explain how organizations can create team players.

102) Which of the following is true with regard to use of individuals and teams?

  1. A) Teams and individuals can be used interchangeably for all kinds of jobs without any significant impact seen on effectiveness.
  2. B) Teamwork requires less time and resources when compared to individual work.
  3. C) Individuals have increased communication, supervision, and conflict-management demands when compared to teams.
  4. D) Individuals are bound by a collective common purpose that is organizationally determined, and this typically reduces their performance.
  5. E) Task complexity and requirement of different perspectives must be used as criteria when assigning work to teams over individuals and vice versa.

 

103) Work should be performed by an individual if ________.

  1. A) the work is complex and requires different perspectives
  2. B) the work creates a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals
  3. C) the work is simple and does not require diverse input
  4. D) several tasks that are interdependent are to be performed for completing the work
  5. E) performing the work requires learning a new technology or understanding a new system

104) The work of your group would be better done in teams if the members of the team are ________.

  1. A) independent
  2. B) autonomous
  3. C) individualistic
  4. D) interdependent
  5. E) reflexive

 

105) Using teams makes sense when the assignment involves independent tasks.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 11   Communication

 

1) Which of the following statements is true with regard to communication?

  1. A) Communication cannot be used to motivate and control employees in an organization.
  2. B) Communication involves the transfer and understanding of meaning.
  3. C) Communication involves the mere imparting of meaning to another person or group.
  4. D) Perfect communication is not dependent on a channel and its richness.
  5. E) Perfect communication results in dissimilar mental models.

 

2) Norah Baines is one of the most devoted teachers at Oakwood Academy. She has been working with the institution for seven years and is expecting a promotion soon. However, Norah’s candidacy for this promotion is passed over in favor of another less experienced male employee as Norah plans to start a family soon. Consequently, Norah writes a formal letter voicing her concerns. Norah’s letter fulfills the ________ function of communication.

  1. A) motivation
  2. B) accommodation
  3. C) facilitation
  4. D) control
  5. E) informal

3) The emotional expression function of communication involves ________.

  1. A) managers motivating employees by setting specific goals
  2. B) management communicating company policies to employees
  3. C) managers training employees in decision-making strategies
  4. D) members of the organization following their job descriptions
  5. E) members of the organization showing their satisfaction and frustrations

 

4) Synergy Inc. has recently assigned some of its best employees to form a cross-functional team and complete a project from a new client. Many of the employees on this team are apprehensive about the structure and dynamics of how they will function as a group and accomplish this goal. To energize the employees, their immediate manager is holding a meeting with them next week where he will provide them some additional training in strategies and methods that may work well for the team. The manager’s initiative to hold this meeting fulfills the ________ function of communication.

  1. A) filtering
  2. B) information
  3. C) emotional expression
  4. D) control
  5. E) informal

5) Before communication can take place, a ________ is required.

  1. A) filter
  2. B) channel
  3. C) receiver
  4. D) purpose
  5. E) decoder

 

6) In a communication process, the ________ initiates a message by encoding a thought.

  1. A) receiver
  2. B) decoder
  3. C) transmitter
  4. D) sender
  5. E) receptor

 

7) The ________ is the actual physical product of the sender’s encoding.

  1. A) channel
  2. B) filter
  3. C) message
  4. D) noise
  5. E) medium

8) With reference to the communication process, the ________ is the medium through which the message travels.

  1. A) feedback
  2. B) noise
  3. C) encoder
  4. D) channel
  5. E) decoder

 

9) With reference to the communication process, the ________ is the one to whom the message is directed, who must first translate the symbols into understandable form.

  1. A) creator
  2. B) receiver
  3. C) encoder
  4. D) sender
  5. E) transmitter

 

10) Stacey was at work when Ann, her sister, called to confirm their dinner plan the following weekend at their Aunt Hilda’s farmhouse. Stacey said she would call Joe, her husband, and get back to her. However, when Stacey called her back, Ann could not hear most of what she said because Jennifer, Ann’s daughter, was crying loudly in the background. Who is the first sender in this scenario?

  1. A) Joe
  2. B) Stacey
  3. C) Jennifer
  4. D) Ann
  5. E) Hilda

11) Stacey was at work when Ann, her sister, called to confirm their dinner plan the following weekend at their Aunt Hilda’s farmhouse. Stacey said she would call Joe, her husband, and get back to her. However, when Stacey called her back, Ann could not hear most of what she said because Jennifer, Ann’s daughter, was crying loudly in the background. Who represents the noise in the communication process depicted in this scenario?

  1. A) Hilda
  2. B) Joe
  3. C) Jennifer
  4. D) Ann
  5. E) Stacey

 

12) Formal information channels are characterized by ________.

  1. A) the transmission of spontaneous messages
  2. B) the emergence in response to individual choices
  3. C) the absence of noise in the communication cycle
  4. D) the personal and social nature of usage
  5. E) the compliance with the organizational authority chain

13) Which of the following statements is true regarding an informal communication channel?

  1. A) It traditionally follows the authority chain within the organization.
  2. B) It generally transmits messages related to the professional activities of members.
  3. C) It is established by the organization.
  4. D) It is generally used for communicating personal or social messages.
  5. E) Information regarding change in the policies of the organization is transmitted through it.

14) When the receiver of a communication translates the message, it is known as ________.

  1. A) encoding
  2. B) conveying
  3. C) transmitting
  4. D) filtering
  5. E) decoding

 

15) In a communication process, ________ is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended.

  1. A) filtering
  2. B) signal
  3. C) feedback
  4. D) encoding
  5. E) noise

16) Which of the following is the final step in the communication process?

  1. A) silence
  2. B) feedback loop
  3. C) all-channel transmission
  4. D) decoding
  5. E) encoding

17) The four functions of communication are control, motivation, emotional expression, and information.

 

18) In the communication process, decoding precedes encoding.

 

19) It’s important to remember that persuasion can benefit or harm an organization.

 

20) Brian Grazer found, good communication makes organizations successful. Communication is powerful: no group or organization can exist without sharing meaning among its members.

21) What are the seven key parts of the communication process?

 

22) Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is called ________.

  1. A) intrapersonal communication
  2. B) downward communication
  3. C) upward communication
  4. D) lateral communication
  5. E) horizontal communication

23) Which of the following is an example of downward communication?

  1. A) Harry is reporting the work he has done for the day to his supervisor.
  2. B) Ben, an assembly line worker, is communicating some safety concerns he has to his manager.
  3. C) Silas has just sent a request for leave to his supervisor and is hoping that it will be accepted.
  4. D) John and Jack, the production and the marketing managers, have met to discuss the budget constraints they are facing.
  5. E) Ray is holding his monthly meeting with his team in which he informs them of their monthly targets.

24) Which of the following is a disadvantage of downward communication?

  1. A) communication apprehension
  2. B) inferiority complex
  3. C) inability to convey feedback
  4. D) one-way nature
  5. E) fear of authority chain

25) Communication that flows to a higher level in the group or organization is called ________.

  1. A) intrapersonal communication
  2. B) downward communication
  3. C) upward communication
  4. D) lateral communication
  5. E) horizontal communication

26) Which of the following is an example of upward communication?

  1. A) Jennifer has just received an outstanding performance rating as a part of the yearly appraisals.
  2. B) Sherry is holding a project initiation meeting with her team to familiarize them with the guidelines and requirements.
  3. C) The assembly line workers have conducted a signature campaign asking for the revision of the old pay scales.
  4. D) The management has recently given a copy of the new safety policies that the employees must abide by in their daily work.
  5. E) The heads of the different departments of Carver Inc. have met to discuss their plans for the coming year.

27) Communication that takes place among members of work groups at the same level is known as ________ communication.

  1. A) diagonal
  2. B) grapevine
  3. C) upward
  4. D) lateral
  5. E) downward

28) Reuben Williams, the marketing manager for F&B Industries, is frustrated. He feels that the production division repeatedly lets his division down. Although the latest marketing strategy announced that a new product would be available in the market by July, the production division was unable to complete the production of the first batch till August. The production manager claims that manpower is short and the targets placed on the production division are unreasonably high. To resolve this deadlock, they will be meeting soon. This meeting is an example of ________ communication.

  1. A) lateral
  2. B) grapevine
  3. C) diagonal
  4. D) upward
  5. E) downward

29) Which of the following is a unique advantage of lateral communication?

  1. A) Lateral communication helps in the transmission of ideas and information.
  2. B) Lateral communication occurring with management’s knowledge and support can be beneficial even if it does not follow the formal vertical structure.
  3. C) Lateral communication facilitates emotional expression, enhances motivation, and helps the organization control its employees effectively.
  4. D) Lateral communication facilitates coordination at the intradepartmental level.
  5. E) Lateral communication works quickly as it does not follow the stages of the communication process.

30) Gehring Services is a company organized around a strong management which values experience, knowledge, and structure. The company has a detailed framework of rules, procedures, and guidelines in place to help employees respond to problems in an orderly manner. Mails, memos, and notifications are used to communicate between managers, employees, and the management. Despite such provisions to help in structuring and executing work, the company incurs losses for delays and quality issues. One of their key clients had asked for two similar projects to be delivered by the teams headed by Briony and Benedict. While Benedict’s team completed the project successfully on time, Briony’s team had to implement numerous last-minute changes to meet client specifications, and she ended up delivering the project over a week late. Which of the following, if true, would explain this delay in Briony’s submission?

  1. A) Briony’s team was comprised of members who generated a lot of positive synergy while working together.
  2. B) Briony and Benedict had teams comprising equal members and were allocated company resources in equitable manner.
  3. C) The company stipulated that all communication be in the upward or downward mode only to ensure clarity and control.
  4. D) Briony had a good track record with clients who trusted her to do a good job.
  5. E) The management allowed Briony’s team an extension to complete the project.

31) Which of the following statements is true regarding oral communication?

  1. A) It is tangible and verifiable.
  2. B) It can be stored for an indefinite period.
  3. C) The sender can quickly obtain feedback from the receiver.
  4. D) As compared to written communication, it is more likely to be well thought out, logical, and clear.
  5. E) In the case of oral communication, the possibility of distortion of the message decreases.

 

32) Written communication is characterized by ________.

  1. A) a high degree of potential distortion
  2. B) the speed of transmission and feedback
  3. C) the availability of nonverbal cues
  4. D) a high degree of tangibility and verifiability
  5. E) minimal time required for transmission and feedback

Quest. Category:  Concept

 

33) Genepa Corporation manufactures home appliances and other electronic products. Genepa is planning to introduce a new refrigerator model. The marketing manager at Genepa has developed a marketing plan for this new product and wants to communicate this plan to all the employees in the marketing department. Which of the following is most likely to be the best form of communication for communicating this plan?

  1. A) nonverbal communication
  2. B) oral communication
  3. C) written communication
  4. D) grapevine communication
  5. E) lateral communication

 

34) Which of the following forms of communication is characterized by the use of only body movements, intonations, facial expressions, and physical distance to communicate?

  1. A) written communication
  2. B) downward communication
  3. C) nonverbal communication
  4. D) lateral communication
  5. E) upward communication

35) Which of the following modes of communication does not come under the purview of nonverbal communication?

  1. A) physical distance
  2. B) personal e-mails
  3. C) intonations
  4. D) facial expressions
  5. E) body movement

 

36) Which of the following statements is true with regard to nonverbal communication?

  1. A) Nonverbal communication has a high degree of potential distortion.
  2. B) E-mails and memos are examples of nonverbal communication.
  3. C) The importance of nonverbal cues is low as they have no fixed meanings.
  4. D) Level of interest and the perceived status between a sender and a receiver can be studied through body language.
  5. E) Messages received through oral and nonverbal communication cannot be contradictory to each other.

 

37) Managers can identify influencers (highly networked people trusted by their coworkers) by noting which individuals are small talkers (those who regularly communicate about insignificant, unrelated issues).

38) Communication that flows from one level of a group or organization to a lower level is called downward communication.

 

39) Lateral communications are often created to short-circuit the vertical hierarchy within an organization.

 

40) Automated performance reviews have allowed managers to review their subordinates without discussions, which is efficient but misses critical opportunities for growth, motivation, and relationship-building.

41) One disadvantage of oral communication is the lack of a built-in feedback mechanism.

42) Crossed arms convey a feeling of approachability.

 

43) Explain and provide a workplace example for each of the following communication situations: oral communication in downward flowing direction; written communication in upward flowing direction; and nonverbal communication in lateral flowing direction.

 

44) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of oral communication.

45) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of written communication.

46) Describe the various forms of nonverbal communication.

47) The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that rigidly follows the formal and hierarchical levels of command.

  1. A) matrix
  2. B) chain
  3. C) wheel
  4. D) all channel
  5. E) cross-functional

48) Peter is working on a project. He feels that the parameters need to be changed to meet client specifications. First, he must talk to his immediate supervisor, who will then discuss the issue with her department director before any change can be implemented. Peter is most likely to be a part of the ________ type of small-group communication networks.

  1. A) star network
  2. B) mesh network
  3. C) chain network
  4. D) all-channel network
  5. E) ring network

 

49) The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication.

  1. A) matrix
  2. B) chain
  3. C) wheel
  4. D) all channel
  5. E) cross-functional

50) Carol Zelner, the manager of a small event management company, is known for her efficiency. She provides the team with clearly defined tasks, guidelines, and directives. Further, she is always available to provide feedback or resolve troubles. Recently, with Carol on leave for about three weeks, the team had a lot of problems. The team members lacked the requisite information on client details, locations, and budgets and had to repeatedly cross-check with each other or the clients. Which of the following, if true, would best explain the problems faced by Carol’s team currently?

  1. A) Members of Carol’s team have a high degree of satisfaction with their role in the team’s communication.
  2. B) Carol selects employees for her company by evaluating their personality traits to ensure that they fit well into the team-based environment of the company.
  3. C) Carol encourages all group members to actively communicate with each other.
  4. D) Carol’s team primarily consists of individuals from low-context cultures.
  5. E) The communication in Carol’s team follows the approach represented by a wheel network.

 

51) The ________ network is a type of formal small-group network that permits the entire group to actively communicate with each other.

  1. A) matrix
  2. B) virtual
  3. C) wheel
  4. D) chain
  5. E) all-channel

52) The all-channel network is practiced most commonly in ________.

  1. A) traditional teams
  2. B) self-managed teams
  3. C) cross-functional teams
  4. D) problem-solving groups
  5. E) work groups

 

53) Ideally, a chain network should be used when ________.

  1. A) high speed of information transfer is desired
  2. B) accuracy of information is most important
  3. C) the network is expected to facilitate emergence of a leader
  4. D) high member satisfaction is desired
  5. E) the teams using the chain network are self-managed teams

 

54) The criteria of member satisfaction is best met by the ________ type of formal small-group network.

  1. A) hierarchical
  2. B) wheel
  3. C) chain
  4. D) traditional
  5. E) all-channel

55) Which of the following represents the informal communication network in an organization?

  1. A) feedback loop
  2. B) grapevine
  3. C) chain network
  4. D) all-channel network
  5. E) wheel network

 

56) The informal communication network in an organization is ________.

  1. A) determined by organization
  2. B) based on clear and factual information
  3. C) rooted in issues of minimal importance to employees
  4. D) characterized by ambiguity
  5. E) controlled by the management

 

 

57) As a consequence of the information circulated by the grapevine in an organization, employees experience ________.

  1. A) increased clarity
  2. B) increased power
  3. C) increased member satisfaction
  4. D) increased certainty
  5. E) increased anxiety

58) Which of the following is a desirable strategy for managers aiming to reduce the negative consequences of rumors?

  1. A) initiating disciplinary action against the employee who started the rumor
  2. B) refusing to comment on issues that appear to be controversial and unfair
  3. C) creating a more informal communication environment at the workplace
  4. D) encouraging employees to communicate their concerns and suggestions
  5. E) ignoring the rumor as rumors grow because of the attention given to them

59) Communicating through e-mail provides ________.

  1. A) a host of nonverbal cues to understand the message better
  2. B) the best means to convey negative information
  3. C) a cheaper alternative to the conventional communication through letters
  4. D) a secure communication link that nobody else can access
  5. E) an option to hold real-time meetings with people in different locations

 

60) Which of the following is a recommendation to effectively manage e-mail?

  1. A) check e-mail every morning
  2. B) do not declare e-mail bankruptcy
  3. C) check e-mails in batches
  4. D) reserve e-mail for communicating negative messages
  5. E) merge the use of the company and personal e-mail accounts

61) When you need to gauge the receptivity of a recipient, which type of communication is best?

  1. A) Twitter
  2. B) e-mail
  3. C) traditional letters
  4. D) social media
  5. E) oral communication

62) Which of the following types of electronic communications is preferable for one- or two-line messages?

  1. A) blogs
  2. B) video conferencing
  3. C) instant messaging
  4. D) grapevine
  5. E) e-mails

 

63) Which of following is true regarding text messaging?

  1. A) They represent the best means to communicate long messages that must be archived.
  2. B) The guidelines for business use of texting are still evolving.
  3. C) They represent a secure mode of communication that cannot be intercepted.
  4. D) Instant messaging is not dependent on the availability of Internet or computers.
  5. E) Text messaging is transmitted primarily via computers.

64) Which of the following is true regarding social networking?

  1. A) Individuals between ten and eighteen years of age are the fastest growing group of users of Facebook.
  2. B) Many organizations have developed their own in-house social networking applications.
  3. C) The use of social networking sites eliminates cyber loafing at work.
  4. D) Social networking sites are primarily for interpersonal communication and have no business-related uses.
  5. E) Social networking is a protected activity that cannot be intercepted.

 

65) E-Way is an electronics company that is developing a new cellphone that will be released in the market soon. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that the company should use social media to promote the new cellphone?

  1. A) E-Way’s last two releases received a lot of criticism from consumers.
  2. B) One of E-Way’s rival companies had used social media unsuccessfully to advertise its new product.
  3. C) The production team overshot the budget and the marketing team has low funds.
  4. D) The target consumers for the cellphone are not restricted to any demographic category.
  5. E) The company has a tightly integrated production and distribution mechanism.

66) A(n) ________ is a Web site about a single person or company.

  1. A) e-mail account
  2. B) social networking site
  3. C) blog
  4. D) instant messaging portal
  5. E) file transfer protocol

67) ________ is a condition in which information inflow exceeds an individual’s processing capacity.

  1. A) Information scarcity
  2. B) Information richness
  3. C) Information architecture
  4. D) Information inequity
  5. E) Information overload

 

68) Rumors are characterized by clarity and verifiability.

 

69) Facebook is a hybrid social networking service that allows users to post microblog entries or tweets to their subscribers about any topic, including work.

70) 65% of all remote meetings are done via audio only.

71) Social networking is not tool for prospective employees, hiring managers, employees, and human resource divisions.

 

72) The exchange given through oral communication has social, cultural, and emotional components.

 

73) Discuss the use of text messaging in business settings. What are the advantages of this method of communication? What are its drawbacks?

74) Discuss the three common small-group networks. Evaluate each on their effectiveness. Is there any one best network?

 

75) Janice is a part of a work team comprised of five members. Explain the various ways in which this team may be organized and how it would impact the team’s communication.

76) How would you relate the concepts of wheel network and information overload?

77) Explain how the grapevine functions and why it exists in organizational communication.

78) What are the benefits and drawbacks of e-mail?

 

79) Which of the following communication channels provides the highest information richness?

  1. A) e-mail
  2. B) face-to-face conversations
  3. C) online group discussions
  4. D) voice mail
  5. E) memos and letters

80) Which of the following communication channels provides the lowest information richness?

  1. A) online group discussions
  2. B) face-to-face conversations
  3. C) telephone conversations
  4. D) voice mail
  5. E) reports and bulletins

 

81) When the middle-level manager of the production department at Wilson Works was laid off, many employees who worked under him became apprehensive about their job security. They were aware of the current trend toward laying off employees in the economy. The termination of their manager combined with the fact that their division had performed only moderately well in the last two quarters led the employees to believe that they were at a high risk of losing their jobs as well. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument that the production manager should hold face-to-face meetings to assure the employees in the production division?

  1. A) The employees have serious concerns over job security.
  2. B) Rumors had spread about impending layoffs at Wilson Works.
  3. C) The middle-level manager supervised over five hundred employees.
  4. D) Wilson Works has a strong formal communication network in place.
  5. E) The company has no fixed policy with regard to rightsizing employees.

82) Treesa Mayering recently began her first job at a PR firm called Pro as a copywriter. Her job involves creating scripts for press releases, advertisements, and other media events. She has been working under the guidance of Will Preston, the senior copywriter. Treesa, who has no prior experience in this job, had worked on scripts for advertisements and online brochures alone when she was asked to work on a press release for the first time. Will reviewed Treesa’s script and sent her an e-mail full of detailed corrections, which she promptly implemented. However, when Will looked at the script later, he felt that it did not represent a significant improvement of her first draft. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?

  1. A) The feedback provided by Will was not elaborate and comprehensive enough.
  2. B) Treesa took a lot of time to implement Will’s corrections and revise her script.
  3. C) Treesa was hired because she demonstrated considerable analytical and creative thinking skills in her pre-employment tests.
  4. D) Will routinely e-mailed feedback on scripts for advertisements, online brochures, and press releases to his team members.
  5. E) Will believed that Treesa’s understanding of his e-mailed feedback would be accurate.

 

83) A routine message can be delivered by a low richness channel as efficiently as a high richness channel.

84) Which of the following is desirable with regard to persuasive communication?

  1. A) increasing the degree of noise in the communication process
  2. B) manipulating information so the receiver will see it more favorably
  3. C) engaging in selective perception
  4. D) processing a lot of information even if it exceeds our capacity
  5. E) matching the type of message with the type of audience

 

85) A relatively superficial consideration of evidence and information making use of heuristics is defined as ________.

  1. A) serial processing
  2. B) depth processing
  3. C) parallel processing
  4. D) controlled processing
  5. E) automatic processing

86) ________ involves a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic.

  1. A) Controlled processing
  2. B) Serial processing
  3. C) Parallel processing
  4. D) Selective processing
  5. E) Automatic processing

87) Before buying her new phone, Gina listed the various requirements her new phone must meet. As a wedding planner, much of her work revolves around using e-mail to forward pictures of locations, designs, and food arrangements that she could categorize by themes and prices. She requires a phone with high storage capacity, speedy Internet, and easy-to-use methods to organize and save content. After listing these requirements, she fixed a budget and began surveying phones online. She also obtained information from friends. In a week’s time, Gina had shortlisted three models that suited her needs and was ready to make the final choice. Gina used ________ to arrive at this decision.

  1. A) superficial processing
  2. B) heuristic processing
  3. C) controlled processing
  4. D) selective processing
  5. E) automatic processing

 

88) People are likely to use automatic processing when ________.

  1. A) their subject knowledge of the issue is high
  2. B) their interest level in the issue is high
  3. C) their usage of heuristics related to the issue is high
  4. D) their need for cognition is high
  5. E) their reliance on logics and facts to make a decision is high

89) Whether people use automatic or controlled processing for reacting to a persuasive message is often a function of ________.

  1. A) time
  2. B) their level of interest in it
  3. C) heuristics
  4. D) effort
  5. E) availability of research

 

90) Filtering is a barrier to effective communication that takes place when ________.

  1. A) the interpretation of the message is affected by the receiver’s emotion
  2. B) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity
  3. C) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably
  4. D) the receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their motivations, experience, and other personal characteristics
  5. E) receivers also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them

91) Jordan is a sales officer who has been underperforming over the last three months. At the last monthly operations cycle meeting, he was given a warning. As the time for the next meeting draws close, Jordan fears his boss reprimanding him. Two days before the meeting, Jordan informs his manager that he has confirmed six deals in the last few days, one of which involves multiple orders for their machines. He, however, skips the detail that these are the only six orders he has been able to obtain in the whole month. Which one of the barriers to effective communication is depicted here?

  1. A) silence
  2. B) language
  3. C) information overload
  4. D) grapevine
  5. E) filtering

92) When receivers of communication process the information based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics, they are engaging in ________.

  1. A) communication apprehension
  2. B) deliberative processing
  3. C) selective perception
  4. D) controlled processing
  5. E) filtering

93) When attempting to communicate a written message persuasively, it is desirable that ________.

  1. A) the receiver has an information overload
  2. B) the sender has a high need for cognition
  3. C) the sender has used phrases and jargon to clarify the meaning of the message
  4. D) the receiver and the sender can view each other’s nonverbal cues
  5. E) the receiver is in a positive mood

 

94) Which of the following is desirable to eliminate language functioning as a barrier to communication?

  1. A) use of phrases and corporate lingo
  2. B) use of acronyms and abbreviations
  3. C) use of technical language or jargon
  4. D) use of uniform language
  5. E) use of silence

 

95) ________ is defined as the absence of information.

  1. A) Apprehension
  2. B) Selective perception
  3. C) Cognition
  4. D) Misrepresentation
  5. E) Silence

 

96) What can managers do to make sure that important information is not withheld from them through silence?

  1. A) engage in selective perception
  2. B) listen to and support diverse opinions
  3. C) deal with information overload
  4. D) hire employees with high emotional intelligence
  5. E) tell employees what they want to hear

97) Undue tension and anxiety about oral communication, written communication, or both is called ________.

  1. A) information overload
  2. B) communication misrepresentation
  3. C) selective perception
  4. D) communication apprehension
  5. E) filtering

98) Shirley Shands is a hard worker, but Debra, her manager, is irritated with her. While Debra concedes that Shirley’s work gives her no cause for complaint, Debra is tired of the interruptions in her work because of Shirley asking for repeated clarifications over what exactly she has to say in e-mails or phone calls. She often requests Debra to proofread her e-mails before sending them, and Debra feels she sends too many e-mails instead of just speaking to the person concerned. From the scenario, we can conclude that ________.

  1. A) Shirley processes her e-mails in an automatic and superficial manner
  2. B) Shirley and Debra come from a high-context culture
  3. C) Debra is engaging in social loafing
  4. D) Shirley suffers from communication apprehension
  5. E) Shirley uses filtering when communicating with Debra

99) The time attendance system in the production division at MM, an automobile manufacturing company, was malfunctioning. Consequently, Greg Hill, one of the front-level managers, sent it for repair. In the meantime, he placed a register where all workers of the production division had to provide their time of entry and exit from office. At the end of the week, when looking through the time logs, he had certain concerns about a group of employees. In the next week, he personally tracked the time this group of employees spent working and realized that they were reporting a greater number of working hours than they actually worked. This group engaged in a barrier to communication called ________.

  1. A) selective perception
  2. B) filtering
  3. C) silence
  4. D) communication apprehension
  5. E) lying

 

100) Automatic processing requires a detailed consideration of evidence and information relying on facts, figures, and logic.

 

101) The need for cognition is a personality trait of individuals who are most likely to be persuaded by evidence and facts.

102) Communication apprehension applies to oral and written communication.

103) List and explain four of the barriers to effective communication.

104) Rhonda May was transferred to London three months back to oversee the opening of a new branch of the retail chain she worked for. Rhonda, who had never been to London, adjusted well with her British colleagues but received quizzical looks from many of her British colleagues every morning in the initial weeks in London. After asking one of her subordinates to explain what caused her colleagues to look at her in that strange way, she discovered the reason. When her British colleagues greeted her by saying, “How are you today?” every morning, she typically replied by saying “I’m good,” while Britishers typically say, “I’m well” in response to this greeting. This is because “I’m good” can have multiple meanings like “I’m not a bad person” or “I’m suitable,” while “I’m well” only gives a sense of mental and physical well-being. Rhonda then realized how subtly cultural barriers can operate. From the information provided in the scenario, this is an example of barriers caused by ________.

  1. A) tone differences
  2. B) semantics and connotations
  3. C) intolerance toward other cultures
  4. D) situational and physical cues
  5. E) power distance

105) Low-context cultures primarily rely on ________ in communicating with others.

  1. A) formal titles
  2. B) spoken and written words
  3. C) situational cues
  4. D) status differences
  5. E) nonverbal cues

106) Communication in high-context cultures is characterized by an emphasis on ________.

  1. A) directness
  2. B) explicit and precise documentation
  3. C) trust
  4. D) legalized contracts over oral ones
  5. E) direct modes of conflict resolution

 

107) In high-context cultures, directness is valued more than trust.

108) Explain how managers can reduce misinterpretations when communicating with people from a different culture.

 

109) Describe and discuss specific problems related to cross-cultural communication. Include cultural barriers and cultural context.

 

 

110) Distinguish between high-context and low-context cultures.

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 12   Leadership

 

1) Leadership is best defined as ________.

  1. A) the ability to merely project one’s abilities in the lack of actual accomplishments
  2. B) the ability to reduce the dependence of team members on each other
  3. C) the ability to induce the team members to focus on individual goals rather than collective goals
  4. D) the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals
  5. E) the ability to use factors like training and experience to reduce dependence on formal leadership

 

2) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

  1. A) All managers are leaders.
  2. B) Formal rights ensure good leadership.
  3. C) Formal appointment is essential in creating leaders.
  4. D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.
  5. E) Nonsanctioned leadership is as important as formal influence.

3) Which of the following is a desirable feature of leadership?

  1. A) one-directional influence from the leader to the follower
  2. B) coercive power and authority
  3. C) lack of freedom
  4. D) passivity of followers
  5. E) coexistence of leaders and managers

4) Trait theories of leadership focus on ________.

  1. A) the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers
  2. B) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders
  3. C) the way the leader makes decisions
  4. D) the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task
  5. E) the match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control

 

5) Which of the following Big Five personality traits has been identified as the most important trait in effective leaders?

  1. A) conscientiousness
  2. B) openness
  3. C) extraversion
  4. D) agreeableness
  5. E) emotional stability

 

6) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________, which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to express.

  1. A) conscientiousness
  2. B) empathy
  3. C) optimism
  4. D) introversion
  5. E) perfectionism

7) Trait theories most accurately predict ________.

  1. A) distinguishing features of an effective leader
  2. B) differences between an effective and an ineffective leader
  3. C) success of a leader
  4. D) roles to be played by the leader
  5. E) emergence of a leader

8) Tim Wrench was leading the client services division of AmWeb for seven years when he was asked to move to another region where the company was setting up its office. Before moving, Tim was asked to help in finding a successor for him from his team. Tim’s most obvious choice was Judy Judge, and the management accepted his choice as Judy was a popular person across the company. Judy was known for her vivacious nature, was often seen speaking to employees from various divisions, and was always excited to take up a new opportunity. Once she became a leader, she continued to give employees freedom and flexibility even if it resulted in deficiencies on the work front like missed deadlines or low quality. Judy’s initial weeks as a leader were full of confusion among her team members, but many felt that the situation would come under control. When things did not improve in the next two months and many complaints poured in from clients, the management realized that Judy was not the best candidate to lead the team. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?

  1. A) Judy was a high-performing employee and enjoyed good relationships with everyone on the team.
  2. B) Everyone felt Judy was given insufficient time to prove her worth as a leader.
  3. C) Research has shown that traits can predict the emergence of a leader, but not his or her efficiency as a leader.
  4. D) The client complaints were a common thing encountered by the company.
  5. E) Judy demonstrated low levels of consideration and high levels of task-orientation.

9) According to the Big Five personality model, emotional stability is the most important trait of effective leaders.

10) Trait theories of leadership most accurately predict the emergence and appearance of leadership.

11) What is the role played by traits in predicting leadership behaviors?

 

12) The Ohio State Studies narrowed the independent dimensions of leader behavior to two that substantially accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees: consideration and ________.

  1. A) employee-orientation
  2. B) empathy
  3. C) constructing vision
  4. D) initiating structure
  5. E) charisma

 

13) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, initiating structure refers to the extent to which ________.

  1. A) a person’s job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees’ ideas, and regard for their feelings
  2. B) a leader engages in participative management
  3. C) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members
  4. D) a leader is likely to define and organize his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment
  5. E) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees

 

14) Adrian Atwood, a senior manager at MNC, spends a lot of his time assigning group members to particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets high expectations for standards of performance and holds regular meetings to ensure that productivity and quality are up to the mark. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Adrian, as a leader, is ________.

  1. A) low in task orientation
  2. B) high in consideration
  3. C) relationship oriented
  4. D) employee oriented
  5. E) high in initiating structure

15) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies, ________ is the extent to which a person’s job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees’ ideas, and regard for their feelings.

  1. A) consideration
  2. B) transaction
  3. C) authentication
  4. D) task orientation
  5. E) identification

 

16) Nellie Fritz, the head of client support services at Olson Inc., is very popular among her subordinates. Many believe that Nellie has a knack for getting the work done without making the employees feel pushed into a corner. She is often seen speaking to her subordinates and support staff about their families, helping them with any personal problems they have, and praising employees for their good work. In light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Nellie, as a leader, is ________.

  1. A) task oriented
  2. B) high in consideration
  3. C) low in trust propensity
  4. D) low in relationship orientation
  5. E) production oriented

 

17) The two dimensions of leadership behavior identified in the University of Michigan studies are ________.

  1. A) absolute leadership and contingency leadership
  2. B) transformational leaders and authentic leaders
  3. C) employee-oriented leaders and production-oriented leaders
  4. D) initiating structure and consideration
  5. E) initiation and completion

 

18) The University of Michigan studies define a(n) ________ leader as one who takes a personal interest in the needs of his or her subordinates.

  1. A) contingency
  2. B) task-oriented
  3. C) employee-oriented
  4. D) production-oriented
  5. E) structure initiating

19) If a leader’s main concern is accomplishing his or her group’s tasks, the University of Michigan studies label this leader ________.

  1. A) employee-oriented
  2. B) high in consideration
  3. C) relationship-oriented
  4. D) low in initiating structure
  5. E) production-oriented

20) Norman has been working in the sales division for a large manufacturing company for four months. In this short period of time, Norman has learned that Mr. Hill, his manager, keeps increasing monthly targets significantly, and though each time the target appears unrealistic, Norman has been able to achieve them throughout the last four months. Mr. Lee’s approach of leading his employees to work more efficiently by setting successively higher targets is an example of his ________ leadership.

  1. A) employee-oriented
  2. B) consideration-based
  3. C) person-oriented
  4. D) production-oriented
  5. E) support-oriented

21) Maurice Harper is a friendly and warm manager who starts her day at work by personally greeting her colleagues and subordinates. Maurice is often seen listening sincerely to employees’ concerns and problems. She takes the initiative to hold programs to renew and improve the skills of current employees. Most of her employees know that she is accessible for help and information at all times. Maurice is a(n) ________ leader.

  1. A) achievement-oriented
  2. B) transaction-oriented
  3. C) employee-oriented
  4. D) production-oriented
  5. E) task-oriented

 

22) The behavioral theories view leadership as a set of actions that people can be trained in.

23) Identify and explain the two dimensions of leadership described in the Ohio State Studies.

24) Explain mentoring with reference to the dimensions of initiating structure and consideration.

25) Contingency theories focus on the ________ that impact leadership success.

  1. A) personality variables
  2. B) leader’s abilities to inspire and transform followers
  3. C) situational variables
  4. D) values and ethics
  5. E) features of the followers

26) Which of the following theories of leadership is based on situational variables?

  1. A) attribution theory
  2. B) trait theories
  3. C) charismatic leadership theory
  4. D) path-goal theory
  5. E) behavioral theories

 

27) The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to measure whether ________.

  1. A) the followers are able and willing
  2. B) a leader is task- or relationship-oriented
  3. C) the members are in the ingroup or out-group
  4. D) employees prefer servant leadership over situational leadership
  5. E) the leader is high on the dimension of conscientiousness

28) Dora Lee has just completed and scored the LPC questionnaire given to her during an evaluation exercise. She is surprised when she finds out that she described her least preferred co-worker in relatively positive terms because she recalls being particularly annoyed by this difficult co-worker several times in the past. Based on your understanding of Fiedler’s model, you explain to Dora that her LPC score makes sense within the model because ________.

  1. A) Dora tends to become very dominating when given ambiguous tasks
  2. B) Dora is usually much more focused on productivity than on developing relationships
  3. C) Dora tends in general to focus on building good relationships with the other employees
  4. D) Dora has a spotty work history and has tended to switch jobs every couple of years
  5. E) Dora is usually chosen for positions of high responsibility within your organization

 

29) Fiedler’s contingency leadership model assumes that ________.

  1. A) an individual’s leadership style is essentially fixed
  2. B) an individual is constantly striving to develop a more productive style
  3. C) an individual’s leadership is primarily determined by the features of the followers
  4. D) an individual’s leadership style can be altered much like his or her personality traits
  5. E) an individual’s leadership style must be task oriented to be effective

30) Fiedler defines the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that subordinates have in their leader as ________.

  1. A) leader-member relations
  2. B) task structure
  3. C) positional power
  4. D) follower variables
  5. E) path-goal frameworks

31) Trevor Guerney is a manager who believes that those who are to be affected by a change must be involved in the change. Consequently, he always ensures that his subordinates have the knowledge of what is happening around them, and he often holds meetings to obtain employee opinion and suggestions before making any decision that would apply to them. Similarly, Trevor’s team proactively approaches him with problems and potential solutions as they know he will not respond by criticizing them. From the information provided in the scenario, we can say that ________.

  1. A) Trevor’s leadership is primarily task-oriented
  2. B) Trevor’s team has a low degree of trust propensity
  3. C) Trevor’s team requires more directive leadership
  4. D) Trevor’s team has positive leader-member relations
  5. E) Trevor’s team is unsatisfied with his power position

32) Which of the following situational dimensions identified by Fiedler relates to the degree to which job assignments are procedurized, that is, structured or unstructured?

  1. A) task reflexivity
  2. B) task significance
  3. C) task structure
  4. D) task complexity
  5. E) task orientation

33) According to the Fiedler contingency model, high managerial control is characterized by ________.

  1. A) high task structure, good leader-member relations, and strong position power
  2. B) limited position power, good leader-member relations, and low task structure
  3. C) less structured jobs, strong position power, and moderate leader-member relations
  4. D) broad employee responsibilities, low position power, and moderate leader-member relations
  5. E) good leader-member relations, low position power, unstructured jobs

34) Which of the following theoretical approaches in the study of leadership focuses on followers’ readiness as a determinant of effective leadership?

  1. A) Big Five personality model
  2. B) behavioral theories
  3. C) Fiedler contingency model
  4. D) laissez-faire leadership
  5. E) situational leadership theory

 

35) According to the situational leadership theory, if employees are unwilling and unable, the appropriate leadership style in this situation would be ________.

  1. A) participative
  2. B) democratic
  3. C) person-oriented
  4. D) directive
  5. E) supportive

36) According to the situational leadership theory, a follower with the desired ability and willingness is likely to be ________.

  1. A) lacking in the area of motivation
  2. B) deficient in the specific skills required
  3. C) comfortable in his ability to do the job well
  4. D) highly skilled in relevant areas but low on experience
  5. E) in need of leadership that is highly task oriented

37) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the path-goal theory of leadership?

  1. A) The theory considers leadership to be a set of attributes ascribed to leaders by followers.
  2. B) The theory proposes only a passive and supportive role for leaders.
  3. C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective leadership.
  4. D) The theory proposes that leaders must work closely with followers throughout.
  5. E) The path-goal theory represents a laissez-faire approach to leadership.

38) In the context of Fiedler’s model, the situational dimension termed ________ relates to the degree of influence a leader has over important variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases.

  1. A) task structure
  2. B) leader-member exchange
  3. C) position power
  4. D) initiating structure
  5. E) leader-member relations

39) According to the situational leadership theory, if followers are unable and willing to do a task, then a leader needs to ________.

  1. A) follow a supportive style
  2. B) engage in participative leadership
  3. C) refrain from providing too many inputs
  4. D) display high task and relationship orientation
  5. E) demonstrate high task and low relationship orientation

40) Maura Ruiz has been working in the e-learning industry for over eight years. She is aware of the fact that in this industry, once an employee has learned his or her job, the work becomes fairly automatic and competence can be achieved rapidly. She has been noticing how in her team, this competence has come along with a lot of complacency; the employees, though able, are unwilling to work hard. According to the situational leadership theory, to rectify this situation, Maura would benefit the most if she uses the ________ style of leadership.

  1. A) task-oriented
  2. B) production-oriented
  3. C) participative
  4. D) directive
  5. E) autocratic

41) George has been a project leader at NSys for five years. George’s job description involves scheduling work for his team, coordinating their work with that of the other departments, and providing feedback. George, who has successfully led this team, believes that it is his task-oriented and directive approach that has helped him in the last five years. Which of the following, if true, would weaken his argument supporting a directive leadership?

  1. A) The members of the team are resentful with George’s directives relating to work.
  2. B) George has seen that employees in his team lack initiative and motivation to work hard.
  3. C) The team’s workload is expected to rise substantially as the company is growing at an unprecedented rate.
  4. D) George’s team is organized as a wheel network and depends on his ability to coordinate amongst members of the team and between other departments.
  5. E) NSys hires only highly qualified and experienced employees.

42) Leslie is a middle-level production manager at the California branch of ALT Corp. ALT Corp. is an automobile manufacturing company that specializes in the manufacture of heavy motor vehicles. Leslie’s job is to supervise his assembly line employees. Leslie has worked in this position for over four years, and he strongly believes that a supportive leadership style is most suitable in his context. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Leslie’s approach to leadership in this case?

  1. A) The company has recently announced its move to diversify into manufacturing light motor vehicles because of high profitability in that line.
  2. B) Most of the assembly line employees are highly experienced in their jobs and committed to Leslie.
  3. C) With developments in technology, the company was enhancing the role of assembly line employees with new tasks combined into natural work units.
  4. D) The company has initiated many changes in the tasks of assembly line workers in its attempts to refine the process of manufacturing.
  5. E) A good proportion of the assembly line employees are new employees.

43) Leslie is a middle-level production manager at the California branch of ALT Corp. ALT Corp. is an automobile manufacturing company that specializes in the manufacture of heavy motor vehicles. Leslie’s job is to supervise his assembly line employees. Leslie has worked in this position for over four years, and he strongly believes that a supportive leadership style is most suitable in his context. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Leslie’s approach to leadership in this case?

  1. A) The company is planning to lay off some employees in the near future.
  2. B) The company has stopped the production of most of its older models as it wants to focus on the most profitable models.
  3. C) The assembly line jobs are routine and highly structured by nature.
  4. D) The recent round of OSHA inspections revealed that many assembly line employees were not complying with stipulated safety measures.
  5. E) The company’s workforce is comprised primarily of employees of the baby boomer generation.

44) Max Hiller was recently hired by Sync, a consumer goods company. During his first meeting with the sales team, Max impressed upon his team that work performance is the only criterion he would use to evaluate them. To help them perform well and meet their targets, he pushed his team to work extra hours. He also gave very clear instructions to each member regarding their job responsibilities and continually verified if they were meeting their targets. Which of the following, if true, would weaken Max’s approach?

  1. A) Max is leading many new employees who have joined his team directly after training.
  2. B) Max’s team functions in a sluggish manner and picks up pace only a week or so before the monthly operations cycle meetings.
  3. C) Max’s sales team is comprised of independent and experienced employees who are committed to their jobs.
  4. D) Max’s team does not display high levels of cohesiveness, and members fail to coordinate with each other.
  5. E) Sales figures for the region that Max’s team is responsible for have improved in the last quarter.

45) The leader-participation model focuses on ________.

  1. A) the personality traits of leaders
  2. B) the presence of charisma in the leader
  3. C) the way decisions are made by the leader
  4. D) the mere projection of successful leadership by the leader
  5. E) the use of ingroups by the leader

46) Which of the following leadership theories argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their subordinates—the ingroup, who are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader’s attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges?

  1. A) situational leadership theory
  2. B) leader-member exchange
  3. C) path-goal
  4. D) expectancy
  5. E) Fiedler’s theory

47) According to the LMX theory, a leader implicitly categorizes followers as “in” or “out” ________.

  1. A) after careful performance analysis
  2. B) on a temporary basis
  3. C) early in the interaction
  4. D) because of political pressure
  5. E) only after several months of working together

48) In her first few weeks at the marketing division of Rolland Retails, Judith Cox realized that Joshua, Doug, and Carl were closer to her manager, Eric Scott, than the other five team members. Eric, Joshua, Doug, and Carl came to work at the same time, were seen together at the cafeteria, and stayed late and worked when the need arose. In contrast to them, the other five team members did the routine jobs assigned to them, and their interactions lacked the understanding and camaraderie that Eric shared with the others. Joshua, Doug, and Carl make up Eric’s ________.

  1. A) out-group
  2. B) reference group
  3. C) nominal group
  4. D) ingroup
  5. E) peripheral group

49) In her first few weeks at the marketing division of Rolland Retails, Judith Cox realized that Joshua, Doug, and Carl were closer to her manager, Eric Scott, than the other five team members. Eric, Joshua, Doug, and Carl came to work at the same time, were seen together at the cafeteria, and stayed late and worked when the need arose. While Judith was in training, she received very good feedback from Eric, and as she transitioned to the floor, she felt that Eric was giving her interesting projects, allowing her more freedom, and seeking her opinion frequently. The information provided in the scenario supports the prediction that ________.

  1. A) Judith will develop low trust propensity toward Eric
  2. B) Joshua, Doug, and Carl will display low trust propensity in Judith
  3. C) Eric’s ingroup will remain a reference group for Judith permanently
  4. D) Judith will become a part of Eric’s ingroup in the marketing division
  5. E) Judith will have lower levels of identification-based trust with Eric when compared to other trainees

50) Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?

  1. A) situational leadership theory
  2. B) path-goal leadership theory
  3. C) transactional leadership theory
  4. D) behavioral leadership theory
  5. E) charismatic leadership theory

51) According to evidence, what is the first step a charismatic leader takes to influence followers?

  1. A) developing a formal vision statement
  2. B) engaging in emotion-inducing and often unconventional behavior
  3. C) setting an example for followers through actions and words
  4. D) articulating an appealing vision
  5. E) communicating high performance expectations

52) The third step in the process of charismatic leadership involves ________.

  1. A) the leader conceptualizing a long-term strategy for attaining a goal by linking the present with a better future for the organization
  2. B) the leader conveying a new set of values and setting an example for followers to imitate
  3. C) the charismatic leader engaging in emotion-inducing behaviors to ensure that employee commitment is generated
  4. D) the leader using unconventional behavior to demonstrate courage and conviction about the vision
  5. E) the leader providing a formal articulation of an organization’s vision or mission to guide his followers

53) Leaders who function primarily by clarifying role and task requirements to accomplish established goals exhibit a(n) ________ style of leadership.

  1. A) transformational
  2. B) transactional
  3. C) charismatic
  4. D) laissez-faire
  5. E) employee-oriented

 

54) A transactional leader is likely to ________.

  1. A) reward employees for the work that they have done, thus recognizing accomplishments
  2. B) help followers trust the leader and develop a loyalty toward the common vision
  3. C) stimulate others in the organization to become thinkers of what the organization is all about
  4. D) pay attention to the emotional needs of others and consider individual differences
  5. E) avoid authoritarian, command, and control behaviors when dealing with employees

55) Which of the following scenarios reflects a transactional approach to leadership?

  1. A) Samuel Perez has been running a small automobile service agency with a set of employees that he hired and trained over a decade ago. Though the business is mediocre and profit margins are not substantial, the employees work well as a team because each of them treats the other as equal, just like Samuel himself does.
  2. B) Carol Turner began V Care, a non-profit organization, with the purpose of battling various forms of abuse. As the organization grew, she took care to hire employees who felt the same kind of sensitivity she felt for victims of abuse. Today, she openly proclaims that the organization that she started is successful because every single employee shares and understands what the organization is aiming for.
  3. C) When new projects come, it is a time of excitement for the content production team of Impact, an advertising agency. Lori Wood, the department head, begins a project meeting by having her whole team envision what the final product of this campaign must aim at. She then sets progressively higher standards for the team and clarifies what each member of the team stands to gain if the project is a success. In allocating roles and tasks, she often incorporates the needs and preferences of her team members.
  4. D) Wayne Torres believes that setting targets, monitoring employee performance, and correcting defaulting employees are his tried and tested ways to accomplish tasks. He rewards employees who do well and match his predetermined expectations and recognizes accomplishments that he values. His team, however, has not grown substantially and seems to be at a functional status quo.
  5. E) Glenn Cruzz works at Leverage as a senior consultant. She ensures that her team of consultants has a framework of flexible tools and skills to help clients who come their way with diversity and inclusion issues. Through audits, research, and workshops, her team is encouraged to come up with unconventional solutions that help clients establish and leverage its employee diversity.

56) ________ leaders inspire followers to transcend their self-interests for the good of the organization and can have an extraordinary effect on their followers.

  1. A) Transformational
  2. B) Transactional
  3. C) Task-oriented
  4. D) Laissez-faire
  5. E) Production-oriented

 

57) Transformational leaders enhance performance of employees by ________.

  1. A) restricting creativity among employees
  2. B) focusing on short-term goals for employees
  3. C) building consensus among employees
  4. D) establishing goals, roles, and requirements
  5. E) abdicating all responsibility to employees

58) In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior is the least effective?

  1. A) management by exception (active)
  2. B) contingent reward
  3. C) management by exception (passive)
  4. D) individualized consideration
  5. E) laissez-faire

59) Which of the following leadership behaviors is likely to differentiate between transactional and transformational leaders?

  1. A) management by exception (active and passive)
  2. B) contingent reward
  3. C) individualized consideration
  4. D) micromanagement
  5. E) laissez-faire

60) In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior represents the most active and effective approach for leaders?

  1. A) contingent reward
  2. B) idealized influence
  3. C) management by exception (active)
  4. D) individualized consideration
  5. E) laissez-faire

61) In the context of the Fiedler contingency model, leader-member relations measures the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases.

62) The situational leadership theory focuses on follower readiness to determine the appropriate leadership behavior.

 

63) According to the path-goal theory, directive leadership is likely to be welcomed and accepted by employees with high ability or considerable experience.

64) The leader-member exchange (LMX) theory proposes that the leader implicitly categorizes the follower as belonging to his ingroup or out group after a detailed analysis of his or her performance over a prolonged period of time.

 

65) Charismatic leadership places somewhat more emphasis on the way leaders communicate (are they passionate and dynamic?), while transformational leadership focuses more on what they are communicating (is it a compelling vision?).

66) Charismatic leadership is a manifestation of innate traits, and it cannot be learned or enhanced.

 

67) Transactional leaders guide their followers toward established goals by clarifying role and task requirements.

68) Intellectual stimulation and individualized consideration are likely to be seen in the management by exception (active) style of leadership.

69) Transformational leadership has a greater impact on the bottom line in smaller, privately held firms than in more complex organizations.

70) The HR department at Basic Elements, a software development firm, has begun testing employee personality and preferences to reorganize their teams such that team members and leaders are matched. They believe that this will enable them to ensure smooth functioning and greater cohesion. As a part of this test, employees were given the least preferred co-worker questionnaire. The employees were asked to think of all the co-workers they had in the past and describe the one they least enjoyed working with by rating that person on a scale of 1 to 8 for each of 16 sets of contrasting adjectives. Rachel’s LPC score was high, while Victor’s was low. Many employees like Ashley had LPC scores that were moderate. Interpret and compare the results of Rachel, Victor, and Ashley.

71) According to the Fiedler model of leadership, how can leader effectiveness be improved?

 

72) Describe the path-goal theory of leadership.

73) What are the key characteristics of charismatic leaders?

74) Describe the full range of leadership model.

 

75) Charismatic leaders are not always authentic leaders. Discuss.

76) Compare and contrast charismatic leadership from the understanding of leadership under the attribution theory.

 

77) A long-term strategy for attaining a goal by linking the present with a better future for the organization is defined as a(n) ________.

  1. A) transaction
  2. B) attribution
  3. C) contingent plan
  4. D) vision
  5. E) substitution

78) Cooper Mills is a company that accomplished one of the greatest success stories of our time. The company, which began in the garage of its current CEO, Kyle Cooper, went on to become one of the largest producers of textiles in the country. The company has now diversified successfully into other product lines. A group of researchers is now undertaking a study on Cooper Mills as an organization led by a transformational leader. Which of the following, if true, would most support the conclusion that Kyle Cooper is a transformational leader?

  1. A) The management follows Kyle’s principle of avoiding risks and conducting business conservatively.
  2. B) Cooper Mills’ goals tend to be very ambitious and to hold personal value for employees.
  3. C) Cooper Mills has a centralized decision-making structure.
  4. D) Cooper Mills’ performance has held at average levels for the past three years.
  5. E) Cooper Mills’ compensation plans are designed to reward short-term results.

 

79) The primary quality produced by authentic leadership is ________.

  1. A) efficiency
  2. B) reinforcement
  3. C) supervision
  4. D) trust
  5. E) authority

80) Which of the following is a feature of servant leadership?

  1. A) pursuit of the leaders’ self-interest
  2. B) use of power and authority to achieve organizational ends
  3. C) universal appeal and effectiveness across cultures
  4. D) focus on growth, development, and well-being of followers
  5. E) applicability restricted to the leader’s ingroup

 

81) Servant leadership reflects the ________.

  1. A) traditional view that followers are expected to serve the leaders
  2. B) task-oriented approach to leadership
  3. C) use of empathy, listening, and persuasion by leaders
  4. D) Western prototype of a leader who gives orders to followers
  5. E) tendency of leaders to prioritize their interests over the interests of their employees

 

82) ________ is defined as a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out.

  1. A) Consideration
  2. B) Trust
  3. C) Support
  4. D) Empathy
  5. E) Respect

83) ________ is a dimension of trust defined as honesty, truthfulness, and the ability to display consistency between one’s words and action.

  1. A) Consideration
  2. B) Sensitivity
  3. C) Support
  4. D) Reflexivity
  5. E) Integrity

84) Which of the following dimensions of trust is defined as an individual’s technical and interpersonal knowledge and skills?

  1. A) integrity
  2. B) ability
  3. C) propensity
  4. D) reflexivity
  5. E) complexity

85) The CEO of Xenon Solutions recently cancelled numerous leave requests and asked several employees to put in extra days of work as the company was slated to meet several deadlines in the immediate future. In addition, he also assured that those who work this extra bit will be given their due leaves and additional incentives once the time crisis had passed. Following this announcement, Joan and Shane were overheard speaking in the cafeteria. Shane was resentful that his holiday plans were disrupted, and he was sure that the management would ultimately not provide any of the leaves and incentives it promised. Joan, however, said that she was sure that their CEO had a valid reason behind making such a request and that if they put in the extra effort, they would be rewarded suitably. From the information provided in the scenario, which of the following statements can be inferred?

  1. A) Shane has a high degree of empathy.
  2. B) The leader-member relations between Shane and the CEO are the same as that between Joan and the CEO.
  3. C) Joan has a high degree of trust propensity.
  4. D) Shane has a high degree of identification-based trust in the CEO.
  5. E) Shane is one of the members of the CEO’s ingroups.

 

86) Leaders who want to foster a climate that reinforces ethical behavior do all of the following except ________.

  1. A) set high ethical standards
  2. B) demonstrate good ethical behavior
  3. C) encourage integrity among employees
  4. D) reward employees demonstrating integrity
  5. E) use their charisma to enhance power over followers, directed towards self-serving ends

87) The ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals can arise outside the formal structure of the organization.

88) Strong leadership is an adequate condition to enable an organization to function at an optimal level of effectiveness.

 

89) Attempts to integrate ethical and charismatic leadership have led to the advancement of the idea of socialized charismatic leadership.

 

90) The only key characteristic we use to determine the trustworthiness of a leader is his or her ability.

91) What is leadership? How is it different from management?

92) What is servant leadership?

 

93) Describe the relationship between trust and leadership.

94) A(n) ________ is a senior employee who sponsors and supports a less-experienced employee, a protégé.

  1. A) intern
  2. B) subordinate
  3. C) supervisee
  4. D) mentor
  5. E) apprentice

95) According to the attribution theory of leadership, leadership is characterized by ________.

  1. A) the significant gains made in the mentoring relationship between the leader and follower
  2. B) the act of people ascribing qualities like intelligence or charisma to leaders
  3. C) the focus on the actual accomplishments and performance of the leader
  4. D) the impact of substitutes and neutralizers in enhancing the role of the leader
  5. E) the division of the group into ingroup and out-group members based on the leader’s preference

96) According to the attribution theory of leadership, a person aiming to be a leader has to ________.

  1. A) gain sufficient experience to be a leader
  2. B) possess qualities like charisma and intelligence
  3. C) make changes on ground before leading people
  4. D) possess many significant actual accomplishments
  5. E) shape the perception that he or she could be a leader

97) The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here?

  1. A) trait theories
  2. B) behavioral theories
  3. C) path-goal theory
  4. D) servant leadership perspective
  5. E) attribution theory

98) Which of the following is a substitute for leadership in the theory that suggests leaders’ actions are irrelevant in many situations?

  1. A) lack of experience
  2. B) training
  3. C) ambiguous task
  4. D) high need for supervision
  5. E) external feedback

99) Which of the following is true about substitutes for leadership?

  1. A) Substitutes are clearly distinguishable from neutralizers.
  2. B) Substitutes enhance the need for leader’s support or ability to create structure.
  3. C) Substitutes increase the levels of identification-based trust.
  4. D) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership.
  5. E) Organizations cannot provide any substitutes for leadership.

 

100) The top management of Myers Corp are planning a reorganization of their company to cut costs and increase efficiency. The different department heads have been asked to present their departmental strengths, needs, and concerns at a meeting. The various division heads have come to an agreement that clarity of goals and tasks, detailed procedural guidelines like employee manuals, and a cooperative workforce are their main strengths. Additionally, they are of the opinion that cutting managerial positions to reduce costs and reorganizing Myers Corp as a relatively flat organization is a good approach. This scenario reflects the operation of ________ in replacing the support and ability offered by leaders.

  1. A) vision
  2. B) traits
  3. C) attributes
  4. D) substitutes
  5. E) charisma

101) ________ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes.

  1. A) Catalysts
  2. B) Mentors
  3. C) Neutralizers
  4. D) Hygiene factors
  5. E) Vision and charisma

102) Which of the following is a neutralizer of leadership?

  1. A) indifference to rewards
  2. B) experience and training
  3. C) explicit formalized rules
  4. D) cohesive work groups
  5. E) highly structured task

 

103) Which of the following is true with regard to online leadership?

  1. A) Identification-based trust is easily established in the case of online leadership.
  2. B) Online negotiations are smoother as geographic mobility is not required.
  3. C) The demands of an online leader are the same as those experienced by a servant leader.
  4. D) For online leaders, writing skills are an extension of their interpersonal skills.
  5. E) For online leaders, substitutes and neutralizers have no effect.

104) Lionel Tucker has been asked to lead a virtual team on a project with a tight time schedule. While allocating the project to him, his manager impressed upon him the need to complete this project successfully and in time so that this client gains enough confidence to use their services in the future. Lionel and his team communicate via e-mail as the team members are located at geographically dispersed locations. They have not had even one face-to-face meeting as yet. In this case, Lionel must have an ability to ________ in addition to all the other desirable abilities of a leader to lead the team successfully.

  1. A) generate charisma to inspire the team
  2. B) abdicate all responsibility to the members of the team
  3. C) micromanage his team members till project completion
  4. D) avoid making any decisions for the team
  5. E) convey support and trust through electronic means

 

105) Mentoring provides unfiltered access to the attitudes of lower-ranking employees and can help anticipate potential organizational problems.

 

106) The primary gains from mentoring are seen in greater compensation and higher job performance.

107) The attribution theory of leadership says leadership is merely an attribution people make about other individuals.

108) Genetics and experiences shape young people, and the relationship between these factors and CEO success is complex.

 

109) How do substitutes and neutralizers challenge the effectiveness of leadership?

 

110) How would you relate substitutes, trust, and online leadership?

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 13   Power and Politics

 

1) Power is a function of ________.

  1. A) goal congruency
  2. B) realization
  3. C) inheritance
  4. D) dependence
  5. E) altruism

 

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

  1. A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires.
  2. B) The greater A’s dependence on B, the greater A’s power in the relationship.
  3. C) If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B.
  4. D) A can have power over B only if A is B’s leader.
  5. E) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.

 

3) Which of the following is a differentiating factor between power and leadership?

  1. A) control
  2. B) influence
  3. C) ability
  4. D) goal compatibility
  5. E) negative affect

4) Which of the following is a feature of power?

  1. A) lack of dependence of followers
  2. B) use of positive styles over negative tactics
  3. C) downward influence of leader on followers
  4. D) lack of goal compatibility between leaders and followers
  5. E) lack of control on behavior of followers

 

5) Which of the following is true with regard to leadership?

  1. A) It maximizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns.
  2. B) It eliminates the requirement of goal compatibility.
  3. C) It stimulates research in the area of tactics of influence.
  4. D) It focuses on downward influence on followers.
  5. E) It encourages dependence of followers on leaders.

 

6) Research on power is likely to provide information on the most effective ________.

  1. A) leadership styles for motivating followers
  2. B) methods to reduce dependence on leaders
  3. C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees
  4. D) methods of rewarding successful employees
  5. E) modes of assessing employee performance

 

7) Unlike power, leadership requires some degree of goal compatibility.

8) For a power situation to exist, one person or group needs to have control over resources the other person or group values.

 

9) The lure of money and the pressure to compete at the top level are sometimes so great that college officials may be willing to subvert the rules and use political tactics to secure financial advantages for their institution.

 

10) Define power.

11) Contrast leadership and power.

 

12) The two general groupings into which power may be categorized are ________.

  1. A) informational and personal
  2. B) formal and informal
  3. C) informal and legitimate
  4. D) formal and personal
  5. E) direct and indirect

 

13) ________ power is based on the fear of the negative results from failing to comply.

  1. A) Legitimate
  2. B) Coercive
  3. C) Punitive
  4. D) Referent
  5. E) Abusive

14) In the last one week, May and Phyllis have been putting in extra hours at work so that the project assigned to them by their manager is completed well within time. Though the manager was due to assign two more people to this project, he had not done so. As a result, May and Phyllis, who were having to do double their routine workload, went and complained to the division manager. May was promptly suspended from work for complaining about her immediate supervisor. This represents the operation of ________ power.

  1. A) reward
  2. B) legitimate
  3. C) coercive
  4. D) expert
  5. E) referent

 

15) ________ power represents the compliance that is achieved based on the ability to distribute positive benefits that others view as valuable.

  1. A) Legitimate
  2. B) Coercive
  3. C) Reward
  4. D) Personal
  5. E) Reflective

16) As a regional sales officer, one of Brandon’s job responsibilities is to process the yearly appraisal forms of his subordinates and provide them with increments, bonuses, or benefits based on their performance that year. This job responsibility directly reflects his ________.

  1. A) active power
  2. B) expert power
  3. C) referent power
  4. D) reward power
  5. E) coercive power

 

17) Legitimate power is directly based on ________.

  1. A) charisma of the leader
  2. B) interpersonal trust and commitment of the manager
  3. C) structural position of the manager in the organization
  4. D) personality traits of the manager
  5. E) ability of the manager to serve his or her subordinates

 

18) Which of the following statements is true regarding legitimate power?

  1. A) Legitimate power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person.
  2. B) Legitimate power comes from an individual’s unique characteristics.
  3. C) Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward.
  4. D) Celebrities who endorse products in commercials wield legitimate power over people.
  5. E) Legitimate power is a type of personal power.

19) Which of the following types of power can be categorized as personal power?

  1. A) coercive
  2. B) legitimate
  3. C) reward
  4. D) referent
  5. E) positional

 

20) ________ power is influence wielded as a result of proficiency, special skill, or knowledge.

  1. A) Legitimate
  2. B) Reward
  3. C) Referent
  4. D) Expert
  5. E) Coercive

 

21) At the PR firm where Gerald works, everyone considers him to be very good with his work and depends heavily on his knowledge to help the organization to solve its problems. Gerald is often seen teaching interns a simpler way to present an article, helping project managers with scheduling, and even the CEO often asks him for his opinion on important matters because of his experience and skill. Gerald’s specialized knowledge depicts his ________.

  1. A) expert power
  2. B) coercive power
  3. C) legitimate power
  4. D) referent power
  5. E) reward power

22) ________ power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.

  1. A) Coercive
  2. B) Legitimate
  3. C) Referent
  4. D) Expert
  5. E) Reward

 

23) Carl believes that he is lucky to be working under a manager like Mr. Parker—conscientious, flexible and easy to work with. It was Mr. Parker who helped Carl learn the demands of the job, gave him opportunities to learn from the mistakes he made, and always provided sound advice. Mr. Parker, who has been in the field for over eighteen years, never made Carl feel like a novice and this only increased Carl’s personal confidence in his work and his loyalty toward his manager. Carl, who is now doing very well on the job, aims to be a manager like Mr. Parker. From this scenario, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

  1. A) Mr. Parker is an authoritarian manager.
  2. B) Carl has a low degree of trust propensity.
  3. C) Mr. Parker has a high degree of referent power.
  4. D) Mr. Parker engages in a lot of ingratiation.
  5. E) Mr. Parker exercises a high degree of coercive power.

24) Which of the following is true with regard to bases of power?

  1. A) Coercive power involves an identification with and imitation of the person in power.
  2. B) Legitimate power is used by companies when they hire celebrities to promote their products.
  3. C) Expert and referent power are the two major types of formal power.
  4. D) The personal sources of power are most effective for increasing employee performance and satisfaction.
  5. E) Reward power is the most common and broad type of power seen in operation in organizations.

25) Will Paten is the manager of a team of twelve people in the marketing division of Palmer Inc. Will, who has been working in the company for eleven years, is held in high regard and liked by all his colleagues and subordinates. However, Aaron and Abby, two of his subordinates, are noted for frequently flouting his rules and directives. They continue behaving in this manner even after Will had categorically requested them to refrain from upsetting the momentum of the team. Which of the following, if true, would best explain Aaron and Abby’s continued noncompliance with Will’s requests?

  1. A) The promotions and bonuses of the team members depend heavily on Will’s performance ratings.
  2. B) The company had provided Will with additional duties, and he was left with little time to ensure that his team members performed well.
  3. C) Will believes that since the job demands in marketing are ambiguous and ever-changing, a supportive approach to leadership would suffice.
  4. D) Will is uncomfortable exercising coercive measures to control employees.
  5. E) Will is considered an expert at analyzing market trends and making accurate projections about demand and revenue.

26) Joanna Mills has recently been promoted to the position of a project manager at Palmer Inc., a software development firm. As a project manager, she now has the authority to delegate work, provide supervision and feedback, and monitor employee performance. Ever since her promotion, she has been preparing herself to guide her subordinates in different project activities. However, she feels that the employees do not proactively approach her for help. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this situation?

  1. A) Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs.
  2. B) The sole criterion for Joanna’s promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets.
  3. C) Employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager.
  4. D) The managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance.
  5. E) The company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system.

 

27) Which of the following types of power is most likely to be negatively related to employee satisfaction and commitment?

  1. A) expert power
  2. B) reward power
  3. C) legitimate power
  4. D) coercive power
  5. E) referent power

28) Levin and Co. is a group of oil refineries that has been in the news recently. The company had to stop production for over two weeks because their key supplier refused to sell them crude oil at the old prices. Even after rounds of negotiations, the supplier refused to give in to the demands of Levin and Co., and finally, the company had to acquire the raw material from the same supplier because alternative suppliers, though abundant, could not provide the quantities the company demanded at such short notice. This shows the role of ________ in increasing the power one enjoys.

  1. A) alternatives
  2. B) dependence
  3. C) abundance
  4. D) substitutability
  5. E) exchange

 

29) Dependence would be low when ________.

  1. A) the goods have very few suppliers
  2. B) the goods have low accessibility
  3. C) the goods in question are scarce
  4. D) the products are important
  5. E) the goods have substitutes

 

30) Expert power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.

31) List and discuss the bases of formal power.

 

32) Explain expert power with reference to the dimensions of importance, scarcity, and nonsubstitutability.

33) How does reward power contribute to sexual harassment?

 

34) Which of the following power tactics involves increasing the target’s support by involving him or her in decision making?

  1. A) legitimacy
  2. B) rational persuasion
  3. C) consultation
  4. D) ingratiation
  5. E) pressure

 

35) Which of the following power tactics uses warnings and threats and is typically the least effective of all the power tactics?

  1. A) coalitions
  2. B) exchange
  3. C) pressure
  4. D) rational persuasion
  5. E) consultation

36) The power tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as ________.

  1. A) ingratiation
  2. B) consultation
  3. C) inspirational appeal
  4. D) motivational appeal
  5. E) affective appeal

 

37) Rational persuasion is a power tactic that involves the use of ________.

  1. A) formal authority
  2. B) logical arguments and factual evidence
  3. C) emotions to target the values, needs, and hopes of the other party
  4. D) benefits or favors in exchange for following a request
  5. E) warnings, repeated demands, and threats

 

38) Mike Ford is a senior accountant at Coleman and Co., which is a financial management company. Mike has wanted to be on the board of representatives of his company for a long time, but the company stipulates a minimum number of years an employee must work at the organization before he or she makes it to the board. Mike is unwilling to work two more years to reach that stipulated experience and so he found a way to transgress this rule. He met up with one of the existing board members who was having problems accounting for allocated funds that went missing and offered to settle that for him in his department provided he nominate Mike to the board. Which of the following power tactics is being used here?

  1. A) ingratiation
  2. B) legitimacy
  3. C) inspirational appeals
  4. D) pressure
  5. E) exchange

39) When the contract with one of their major suppliers was about to expire, the management of Pierre and Collins began seeking tenders from potential vendors. One of the top management executives, Todd Hughes, wanted the contract to go to a vendor he personally knew. In order to do so, he held separate discussions with two key members of the organization wherein he downplayed the potentials of the competing tenders and convinced them to support this offer. At the meeting to finalize a supplier, Todd and his supporters strongly supported the tender of the supplier they had chosen amongst themselves and convinced their CEO to hire this supplier despite the higher price quoted by him. Which of the following power tactics is being used here?

  1. A) ingratiation
  2. B) legitimacy
  3. C) coalition
  4. D) pressure
  5. E) inspirational appeals

 

40) Which of the following power tactics is more effective when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process?

  1. A) ingratiation
  2. B) consultation
  3. C) personal appeals
  4. D) exchange
  5. E) pressure

41) When the audience does not care about the outcomes, using a combination of ________ can help lessen negative reactions to the feeling that one is dictating outcomes.

  1. A) ingratiation and personal appeals
  2. B) pressure and exchange
  3. C) legitimacy and ingratiation
  4. D) exchange and rational persuasion
  5. E) inspirational appeals and consultation

 

42) ________ is the only tactic effective across organizational levels.

  1. A) Legitimacy
  2. B) Inspirational appeal
  3. C) Rational persuasion
  4. D) Ingratiation
  5. E) Pressure

 

43) Which of the following power tactics can be used most effectively for exerting lateral influence?

  1. A) legitimacy
  2. B) inspirational appeal
  3. C) coalition
  4. D) ingratiation
  5. E) pressure

44) Which of the following power tactics would be considered a soft tactic?

  1. A) rational persuasion
  2. B) exchange
  3. C) coalition
  4. D) politicking
  5. E) pressure

 

45) Which of the following power tactics would be considered a hard tactic?

  1. A) rational persuasion
  2. B) inspirational appeals
  3. C) personal appeals
  4. D) coalition
  5. E) consultation

46) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics?

  1. A) Soft tactics are less effective than hard tactics when used individually.
  2. B) The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics.
  3. C) All tactics are equally effective with regard to upward influence.
  4. D) Individuals from collectivist cultures are typically more likely to use soft tactics that reflect personal power.
  5. E) Individuals from individualistic cultures are typically more likely to use coalition and other hard power tactics.

 

47) For a person to be recognized as having a high degree of political skill, he or she must have the ________.

  1. A) ability to recognize that power in an organization does not translate into success
  2. B) ability to submit to the demands made by others at all times
  3. C) ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives
  4. D) ability to respect and consider the needs of others first
  5. E) ability to make sacrifices for the betterment of others

 

48) People from collectivistic countries tend to see power in personalized terms and as a legitimate means of advancing their personal ends, while those in individualistic countries see power in social terms and as a legitimate means of helping others.

 

49) Dale Fisher is the manager of one branch of a retail chain. He often speaks with his customer service attendants about the value they bring to the company and encourages them to continue doing so. He knows that this approach of enhancing the worth of these executives and shaping their aspirations to do well is a more effective approach than using warnings and ultimatums. Dale is using the power tactic of an inspirational appeal here.

 

50) Power tactics that emphasize formal power are personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.

51) One tool to assess the exchange of resources and dependencies within an organization is social network analysis.

 

52) What power tactics can employees use to translate their power bases into specific actions and how does each one work?

 

53) Differentiate between rational persuasion and inspirational appeals in terms of their operation and direction of influence.

54) Discuss the effectiveness of various influence tactics.

 

 

55) Discuss how power affects people and consider whether power is corruptive.

56) Which of the following statements is true?

  1. A) The impact of sexual harassment is individual, not organizational.
  2. B) A clear understanding of the actions that constitute sexual harassment does not exist.
  3. C) Today, the rise of overt forms of sexual harassment presents a major concern for organizations.
  4. D) Women in positions of power in an organization are free from sexual harassment by male subordinates.
  5. E) Curtailing sexual harassment requires higher-order intervention programs as managers cannot be expected to help in this regard.

 

57) Which of the following is an overt form of sexual harassment?

  1. A) being too friendly
  2. B) pinups posted in the workplace
  3. C) off-color jokes
  4. D) unwanted physical touching
  5. E) unwanted looks or comments

 

58) Which of the following is a subtle form of sexual harassment?

  1. A) requesting repeatedly for a date when the other person is clearly disinterested
  2. B) forcing someone to accept a sexual proposition
  3. C) making jokes with sexual overtones
  4. D) engaging in unwanted physical touching
  5. E) forcing someone to provide sexual favors in return for a promotion

 

59) Connie Cole works as a junior market analyst at SPS Services. Her previous manager retired a couple of months back, and she now has a younger male manager who repeatedly insists that she accompany him for a coffee or dinner after work. Initially, Connie was unsuspecting and refused because she did not have the time for such engagements during weekdays. Later, when her manager’s requests became frequent, she grew uncomfortable and firmly told him that she was not interested in him and his attempts were not welcome. She realized that this step could backfire because, as her superior, he has complete control over her appraisals, bonuses, and promotions. Her manager even told her that if she does not agree, he will “find other ways.” Connie’s experiences are best described as ________.

  1. A) whistle-blowing
  2. B) scapegoating
  3. C) domestic abuse
  4. D) sexual harassment
  5. E) ambient abuse

60) Which of the following factors can lead to greater probability of sexual harassment at the workplace?

  1. A) an active sexual harassment policy
  2. B) large power differentials
  3. C) a no-retaliation policy for victims seeking justice
  4. D) awareness regarding sexual harassment
  5. E) larger percentage of women in positions of power

 

61) Which of the following is true with regard to sexual harassment at the workplace?

  1. A) An aggressive tone is the most effective for women to make their complaints of sexual harassments known.
  2. B) Women in positions of power typically do not perpetrate sexual harassment of their male employees.
  3. C) The supervisor-employee dyad best characterizes an equal power relationship that can be used to prevent sexual harassment.
  4. D) The best approach to preventing accusations of sexual harassment is to refrain from any behavior that may be taken as harassing.
  5. E) Women in positions of power in an organization are typically not sexually harassed by males who occupy less powerful positions.

 

62) Tina Simmons worked as a welder at a shipyard company where she was forced to encounter nude and partially nude pictures posted by her male co-workers in common areas. The men also referred to her using obscene nicknames and made offensive remarks concerning her body. When Tina complained, her supervisor took no corrective action despite having an active sexual harassment policy approved by the EEOC. Tina wished to file a discrimination suit but instead she chose to endure the harassment as she could not risk losing her job. Which of the following, if true, would have strengthened her resolve to file a discrimination suit?

  1. A) The colleagues who sexually harassed Tina shared a great rapport with her supervisor.
  2. B) Tina had heard of only one prior instance wherein an employee in the company had filed a discrimination suit.
  3. C) Tina shared a strained working relationship with her supervisor.
  4. D) The company policy prescribed that Tina would face no backlash if she approached the EEOC.
  5. E) Tina had few female colleagues at the shipyard where she worked.

 

63) Which of the following is an assertive impression management technique?

  1. A) conformity
  2. B) apologies
  3. C) self-promotion
  4. D) flattery
  5. E) buffing

64) Which of the following is a self-focused impression management technique?

  1. A) flattery
  2. B) enhancement
  3. C) apologies
  4. D) excuses
  5. E) conformity

 

65) Which of the following impression management techniques involves an individual admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and simultaneously seeking to get a pardon for the action?

  1. A) flattery
  2. B) favors
  3. C) apologies
  4. D) misrepresentation
  5. E) exemplification

 

66) Which of the following impression management techniques uses ingratiation?

  1. A) flattery
  2. B) exemplification
  3. C) enhancement
  4. D) conformity
  5. E) apologies

 

67) Recently, Curtis Gibson had an interview for the position of a senior manager at a transit service. At the interview, the interviewer made a passing remark about how policies can make or break the best economy in the world. Immediately, Curtis launched into a discussion of how true the interviewer was, substantiating his claim with stories from real economies around the world. Similarly, when the interviewer suggested that Curtis work the earlier shift because, if selected, he would have to commute a significant bit to reach work, Curtis vehemently agreed, saying, “You couldn’t be more right.” Which of the following impression management techniques is Curtis using?

  1. A) favors
  2. B) exemplification
  3. C) enhancement
  4. D) self-promotion
  5. E) conformity

68) Winston Mayer is a sales manager for a large company producing beverages and ready-to-eat meals. Winston is often seen working late and on weekends although the company stipulates a five-day workweek. Winston justifies his working extra by claiming that “in sales, one cannot afford to waste a minute” and he is often condescending when subordinates take their allotted time off. He frequently speaks to his manager about the deals he finalizes when he is working beyond the normal working hours to prove his point. From the information provided, we can say that Winston is using ________ as an impression management technique here.

  1. A) flattery
  2. B) exemplification
  3. C) favors
  4. D) apologies
  5. E) conformity

69) In the last month, Stacey, an intelligent and astute employee, has finished only half the work she was scheduled to complete. In addition, she has been taking frequent leaves, citing her ill health as the reason, but her manager suspects she has been playing truant. When the manager confronted her about her pending work, Stacey gave excuses: the work was time-consuming, she was unwell, and it was not a high-priority project in the first place. In this scenario, Stacey is using a(n) ________ impression management technique.

  1. A) self-focused
  2. B) assertive
  3. C) aggressive
  4. D) defensive
  5. E) ingratiation-based

 

70) Which of the following can be used to understand how power and politics in an organization can help you achieve your career goals?

  1. A) counseling
  2. B) power base relationships
  3. C) political mapping
  4. D) power struggles
  5. E) equity positioning

 

71) Unwanted physical touching is an overt form of sexual harassment.

72) Self-promotion works well as an impression management technique for interviews as well as performance evaluations.

 

73) In countries that are more politically unstable, employees seem to demonstrate greater tolerance of intense political processes in the workplace.

 

74) What is impression management? Who is more likely to engage in impression management?

75) Explain impression management and discuss which impression management techniques are most effective in an interview.

 

76) Political behaviors usually ________.

  1. A) lie outside of an individual’s specified job requirements
  2. B) are counterproductive to individual goals
  3. C) are seen only in large organizations
  4. D) are sanctioned by organizational leaders
  5. E) are expected as part of each job requirement

77) Which of the following factors contributes to political behavior in the organization?

  1. A) presence of pure and objective facts
  2. B) existence of uniform goals and interests among all employees
  3. C) provision of clear and objective performance outcomes
  4. D) presence of limited resources in the organization
  5. E) perception that gains of one group are not at the expense of the loss incurred by another group

 

78) ________ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests.

  1. A) Legitimate political behavior
  2. B) Politicking
  3. C) Illegitimate political behavior
  4. D) Sabotage
  5. E) Whistle-blowing

 

79) Whistle-blowing is not considered to be a political behavior.

80) Limited resources is one of the major reasons for the development of organizational politics.

 

81) Define political behavior and explain its features.

 

82) Define sexual harassment and identify ways managers can protect themselves and their employees from it.

83) Employees exhibiting which of the following features are more likely to engage in political behavior?

  1. A) lack of organizational investment
  2. B) external locus of control
  3. C) low need for power
  4. D) Machiavellian personality
  5. E) low self-monitoring

84) Which of the following is an individual factor that influences political behavior?

  1. A) reallocation of resources
  2. B) unclear performance evaluation system
  3. C) high performance pressures
  4. D) perceived job alternatives
  5. E) zero-sum reward practice

 

85) If an individual ________, then he or she is less likely to engage in illegitimate political behavior.

  1. A) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts
  2. B) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge
  3. C) has influential contacts outside the organization
  4. D) does not expect any future benefits from the organization
  5. E) has an external locus of control

86) Which of the following is an organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior?

  1. A) internal locus of control
  2. B) low expectations of success
  3. C) high trust
  4. D) low organizational investment
  5. E) zero-sum reward practice

87) Which of the following organizational factors encourages political behavior?

  1. A) using objective criteria in the appraisal
  2. B) using multiple outcomes to measure performance
  3. C) allowing significant time to pass between the time of an action and its appraisal
  4. D) avoiding the zero-sum approach for resource allocation
  5. E) ensuring role clarity

88) Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy’s designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Which of the following, if true, would explain this paradox?

  1. A) The management had recently instituted a formal employee welfare committee.
  2. B) Timothy stressed the fact that he was a meticulous worker who always adhered to company policies.
  3. C) The management had recently moved from an open shop mechanism to a closed shop mechanism.
  4. D) Timothy claimed that he was only looking to ensure greater employee welfare, which was one of the duties the company had assigned to him.
  5. E) Timothy argued that allowing unionization had increased the levels of employee satisfaction in one of their rival companies.

89) Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy’s designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Timothy argued that he was only doing his job—a job in which he had responsibility for improving the welfare of employees. Which of the following, if true, would help Hartford Mills avoid such situations in the future?

  1. A) ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company
  2. B) holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected
  3. C) enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties
  4. D) engaging in collective bargaining as it is the only way to motivate employees to work efficiently
  5. E) specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee’s formal role in the organization

 

90) To avoid politicking during performance evaluations, an organization should ________.

  1. A) create role ambiguity
  2. B) use democratic decision making
  3. C) use a single outcome measure
  4. D) use objective criteria
  5. E) allow a significant lapse

91) Under the zero-sum approach, rewards are distributed such that ________.

  1. A) rewards are equal and do not increase or decrease with changes in profit margins
  2. B) rewards increase for all employees at an identical rate
  3. C) any drop in profits reduces the pay of employees by an identical amount
  4. D) amount allocated for rewards is variable
  5. E) rewards increase for a group at the expense of loss for another group

 

92) Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed ________.

  1. A) repressive behaviors
  2. B) defensive behaviors
  3. C) submissive behaviors
  4. D) impression management behaviors
  5. E) proactive behaviors

93) Will Cears works at Mesner Corp. as a middle-level manager. Will recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. Since he is not good at playing games, he frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and his interests. Will is frustrated because he believes that he has little control over his environment and his environment is uncomfortable to him. He has had some success at establishing a sense of control for himself by appearing to be cooperative and supportive to his colleagues. However, he continues to hold his reservations against politicking and does not engage in it. This is an example of ________ in order to avoid action, blame, or change.

  1. A) buffing
  2. B) buck passing
  3. C) scapegoating
  4. D) misrepresenting
  5. E) stalling

94) Buck passing is seen when an employee ________.

  1. A) avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability
  2. B) prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied
  3. C) documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness
  4. D) develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome
  5. E) transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

 

95) Which of the following defensive behaviors involves rigorously documenting activity to project an image of competence and thoroughness?

  1. A) buffing
  2. B) justifying
  3. C) scapegoating
  4. D) stretching
  5. E) overconforming

 

96) Placing the blame for a negative outcome on external factors that are not entirely blameworthy is known as ________.

  1. A) scapegoating
  2. B) buffing
  3. C) stalling
  4. D) justifying
  5. E) overconforming

97) Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here.

  1. A) scapegoating
  2. B) ingratiating
  3. C) stalling
  4. D) retaliating
  5. E) playing safe

 

98) Which of the following defensive behaviors involves developing explanations that lessen one’s responsibility for a negative outcome and apologizing to demonstrate remorse?

  1. A) scapegoating
  2. B) misrepresenting
  3. C) justifying
  4. D) overconforming
  5. E) stretching

99) Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change?

  1. A) stalling
  2. B) scapegoating
  3. C) misrepresenting
  4. D) stretching
  5. E) preventing

100) Which of the following differentiates between high self-monitors and low self-monitors?

  1. A) High self-monitors are more likely to use defensive impression management techniques, while low self-monitors are more likely to use self-focused impression management techniques.
  2. B) High self-monitors are commonly seen in collectivist cultures, while low self-monitors are commonly seen in individualist cultures.
  3. C) High self-monitors tend to mold their appearances and behavior to fit each situation, while low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities.
  4. D) High self-monitors prefer to avoid using power and politics at the workplace, while low self-monitors engage in a lot of politicking.
  5. E) High self-monitors have an external locus of control as they attribute successes or failures to luck and fate, while low self-monitors have an internal locus of control and believe that they control the outcomes.

 

101) The low self-monitor is more sensitive to social cues, exhibits higher levels of social conformity, and is more likely to be skilled in political behavior than the high self-monitor.

102) The Machiavellian personality is characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power.

103) Using a single outcome measure is recommended when designing a performance evaluation system.

 

104) When the production manager at CalTrack was asked to provide reasons for the delay in the last batch of stock to be produced for the month, he clearly stated that this was the result of one of his front-level managers taking two days off and that the fault was not his. The manager is using buffing as a defensive behavior here.

105) What are the various individual factors that make a person more likely to engage in political behavior?

106) What are defensive behaviors? Provide three examples of defensive behaviors and explain why an employee would engage in the behavior.

107) Victor Ortiz was a successful and popular manager at the marketing division of a consumer goods company. Many attributed the company’s immense success in the last two years to Victor’s highly creative marketing plans, which cost the company very little but increased the visibility of its products. He also effectively tied up with new retail chains so the demand for their products grows as the new retail chains grow. Recently, a subordinate alleged that Victor had sexually harassed her, and stories of similar allegations made against him in the past resurfaced. The situation was laid to rest when Victor made an appearance with the victim by his side claiming that the allegations were baseless as he was romantically involved with her. Though this announcement did not convince people, the allegations against Victor were withdrawn. From the information provided in this scenario, this outcome can be explained by the fact that ________.

  1. A) Victor has a high degree of referent power
  2. B) Victor has enough power to get away with his misdeeds
  3. C) Victor has abided by the standards of equity and justice
  4. D) Victor has used a defensive impression management technique
  5. E) Victor has used scapegoating to free himself from the charges

108) The more effort applicants put into highlighting their skills, motivation, and admiration for the organization, the more likely they are to be hired.

 

109) When two organizations with very political environments interact with one another, the political interactions between them can hurt performance in collaborative projects.

 

110) Studies from multiple countries around the world have similarly shown that higher levels of political skill are associated with lower levels of perceived job performance.

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 14   Conflict and Negotiation

 

1) ________ is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about.

  1. A) Problem solving
  2. B) Assessment
  3. C) Conflict
  4. D) Negotiation
  5. E) Collective bargaining

 

2) According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________.

  1. A) harmful and must be avoided
  2. B) natural and helps generate discussion
  3. C) necessary and improves creativity of a group
  4. D) healthy and improves productivity
  5. E) rational and cannot be avoided

 

3) According to the ________ view of conflict, conflict can be a positive force in a group and some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively.

  1. A) resolution focused
  2. B) traditional
  3. C) managed
  4. D) interactionist
  5. E) transactional

4) According to the interactionist’s perspective, a group that functions without conflict is ________.

  1. A) living up to behavioral standards
  2. B) prone to becoming static and apathetic
  3. C) the most productive
  4. D) most likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation
  5. E) a rare phenomenon

 

5) According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance.

  1. A) formal
  2. B) informal
  3. C) functional
  4. D) evaluative
  5. E) reactive

 

6) Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is called ________ conflict.

  1. A) job
  2. B) task
  3. C) relationship
  4. D) process
  5. E) communication

7) Conflicts related to how the work gets done are called ________ conflicts.

  1. A) communication
  2. B) task
  3. C) job
  4. D) relationship
  5. E) process

 

8) Mike and Keith are on the same team; they work well with other people in the same team but don’t get along with each other. This type of conflict can best be described as ________.

  1. A) intragroup
  2. B) bilateral
  3. C) intergroup
  4. D) dyadic
  5. E) dual

 

9) Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict.

  1. A) intragroup
  2. B) bilateral
  3. C) intergroup
  4. D) dyadic
  5. E) dual

 

10) If you support the idea that conflict should be eliminated, you are supporting which of the following views of conflict?

  1. A) the traditional view
  2. B) the human relations view
  3. C) the interactionist view
  4. D) the moderated acceptance view
  5. E) the optimistic view

 

11) You decide to do more research on the view that conflict should be encouraged as a means to achieve change and innovation. This view is termed ________.

  1. A) the traditional view
  2. B) the human relations view
  3. C) the interactionist view
  4. D) the acceptance view
  5. E) the promotional view

12) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group’s work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is known as a ________ conflict.

  1. A) task
  2. B) relationship
  3. C) process
  4. D) traditional
  5. E) reactive

 

13) Open and emotionally stable teams can put task conflict in perspective and focus on how the variance in ideas can help solve the problem rather than letting it degenerate into relationship conflicts.

 

14) Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional.

 

15) Conflict is uniformly good or bad.

16) Spotify needs to demonstrate to recording companies that cooperating with streaming services creates better value for them than different music distribution methods, even as prices change.

 

17) Define and describe the traditional view of conflict.

 

18) Describe a functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict that could exist because of structure.

19) Identify the three basic types of conflict from the perspective of where the conflict occurs and discuss why it is important to understand the loci of conflict in order to address conflict in the workplace.

 

20) What is the difference between intergroup conflict and intragroup conflict? Provide an example of each type of conflict.

21) Conservationists have had a perpetual conflict with the government of the United States over the fast and rampant depletion of Earth’s natural resources. They argue that the United States must reduce its consumption level significantly to rectify this problem. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conservationists’ argument?

  1. A) The United States has been conserving forests for several years.
  2. B) Most countries have not taken any measures to reduce their consumption levels of natural resources.
  3. C) There are several countries that have more requirements for resources than the United States.
  4. D) The United States accounts for one-third of the total world resource consumption.
  5. E) New resource deposits are constantly being discovered.

22) Matt works as a sales representative at Tandem Industries, which manufactures and sells bicycles. He’s the best salesman on the floor, but he also receives the highest number of customer complaints for late deliveries. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation?

  1. A) The company uses enterprise solutions to manage inventory.
  2. B) The company’s manufacturing facility is functioning at optimum capacity.
  3. C) The company’s sales and logistics functions are tightly integrated.
  4. D) The company keeps inventory levels low in order to reduce costs.
  5. E) The company has an efficient credit verification process.

23) Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, and leadership styles?

  1. A) communication
  2. B) structure
  3. C) personal variables
  4. D) group interactions
  5. E) process variables

24) Which of the following statements is true regarding conflict?

  1. A) The smaller the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict.
  2. B) The less specialized the activities of the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict.
  3. C) People low in the personality traits of disagreeableness, neuroticism, or self-monitoring are more likely to engage in a conflict.
  4. D) Diversity of goals among groups is a major source of conflict.
  5. E) As the ambiguity about where responsibility for actions lies decreases, the potential for conflict increases.

 

25) Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________.

  1. A) perceived and felt
  2. B) apparent and experienced
  3. C) expressed and resolved
  4. D) analyzed
  5. E) internalized

 

26) The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it’s where conflict issues tend to be defined.

  1. A) potential opposition
  2. B) cognition and personalization
  3. C) intention
  4. D) behavior
  5. E) reaction and transference

27) ________ is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people’s perceptions and their overt behavior.

  1. A) Potential for opposition
  2. B) Intention
  3. C) Cognition
  4. D) Attribution
  5. E) Behavioral manifestation

 

28) The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which ________.

  1. A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns
  2. B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict
  3. C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution
  4. D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns
  5. E) the parties are willing to involve a third party in conflict resolution

29) Assertiveness indicates the degree to which ________.

  1. A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns
  2. B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict
  3. C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution
  4. D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party’s concerns
  5. E) the parties are willing to involve a third party in conflict resolution

30) When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, that person is using the conflict-handling intention of ________.

  1. A) competing
  2. B) avoiding
  3. C) accommodating
  4. D) compromising
  5. E) collaborating

 

31) ________ is a conflict-handling technique in which the parties in a conflict each desire to satisfy fully the concerns of all parties.

  1. A) Collaborating
  2. B) Competing
  3. C) Accommodating
  4. D) Avoiding
  5. E) Compromising

32) The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is ________.

  1. A) assertive and uncooperative
  2. B) assertive and cooperative
  3. C) unassertive and uncooperative
  4. D) unassertive and cooperative
  5. E) affective and reflective

33) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is unassertive and uncooperative?

  1. A) competing
  2. B) collaborating
  3. C) avoiding
  4. D) compromising
  5. E) accommodating

 

34) The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________.

  1. A) assertive and uncooperative
  2. B) assertive and cooperative
  3. C) unassertive and uncooperative
  4. D) unassertive and cooperative
  5. E) reflective and assertive

35) Luke’s cubicle neighbor Leia, though an understanding and great co-worker, talks loudly on the phone. Luke gets annoyed every time Leia’s phone rings, but he has decided it’s simply not worth the trouble to talk to her about it. Luke’s conflict-handling intention is called ________.

  1. A) competing
  2. B) avoiding
  3. C) accommodating
  4. D) compromising
  5. E) collaborating

36) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflict-handling intention as ________.

  1. A) collaborating
  2. B) avoiding
  3. C) compromising
  4. D) competing
  5. E) accommodating

37) Macy does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. This type of conflict-handling intention is called ________.

  1. A) negotiating
  2. B) accommodating
  3. C) collaborating
  4. D) compromising
  5. E) competing

 

38) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is assertive and uncooperative?

  1. A) compromising
  2. B) avoiding
  3. C) competing
  4. D) collaborating
  5. E) accommodating

39) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves accepting a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties’ concerns?

  1. A) collaborating
  2. B) compromising
  3. C) avoiding
  4. D) competing
  5. E) accommodating

40) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?

  1. A) outcomes
  2. B) intentions
  3. C) incompatibility
  4. D) behavior
  5. E) personalization

 

41) A conflict-intensity continuum has “annihilatory conflict” at the upper end and “no conflict” at the lower end. In the context of this conflict-intensity continuum, which of the following statements is true of conflict intensities?

  1. A) Aggressive physical attacks fall in the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum.
  2. B) Conflicts that reach the lower ranges of the conflict-intensity continuum are almost always dysfunctional.
  3. C) Strikes, riots, and wars fall in the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum.
  4. D) In cases of annihilatory conflict, there is overt questioning or challenging of others.
  5. E) Functional conflicts are typically confined to the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum.

42) The division manager at Xperience Inc. wants to replace the SAP ERP currently used in his division with Epicor ERP as it costs 30 percent less to train new staff in Epicor ERP. But this leads to a conflict with the general manager, who insists that they can simply hire only people who already know how to use SAP ERP. Which of the following, if true, weakens the general manager’s objection to the replacement of SAP ERP with Epicor ERP?

  1. A) Currently all employees in the company are required to attend workshops on how to use SAP ERP.
  2. B) Once employees learn how to use an ERP system, they tend to change employers more readily than before.
  3. C) Experienced users of SAP ERP command much higher salaries than do prospective employees who have no experience in the use of any ERP.
  4. D) The average productivity of employees in the company is below the average productivity of the employees of its competitors.
  5. E) The high costs of updates and upgrades make Epicor ERP more expensive to maintain than SAP ERP.

43) According to a newly added office smoking regulation, only employees who have an enclosed office may smoke at their desks. This leads to a major conflict between various employees as virtually all employees with enclosed offices are higher-level managers and all other employees lack enclosed offices. Therefore, the lower-level employees who smoke argue that they should be offered enclosed offices. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the employees’ argument?

  1. A) The company is a zealous supporter of the “Kick the Butt” campaign—a corporate anti-smoking campaign.
  2. B) Higher-level managers, who have enclosed offices, are willing to share their offices with-lower level employees.
  3. C) The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee’s job level.
  4. D) Employees at the higher level, who do not smoke, do not have enclosed offices.
  5. E) The company has a limited budget for infrastructure modifications.

 

44) Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique?

  1. A) expansion of resources
  2. B) compromise
  3. C) bringing in outsiders
  4. D) exercising authoritative command
  5. E) problem solving

45) Which of the following conflict management techniques involves designating a critic to purposely argue against the majority positions held by the group?

  1. A) altering the structural variables
  2. B) altering the human variable
  3. C) bringing in outsiders
  4. D) exercising authoritative command
  5. E) appointing a devil’s advocate

 

46) Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________.

  1. A) provides a medium to release tension
  2. B) reduces group cohesiveness
  3. C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation
  4. D) provides a means for expressing frustration
  5. E) leads to change

 

47) Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture?

  1. A) Collectivists are less likely to seek to preserve relationships and promote the good of the group as a whole than individualists.
  2. B) Collectivists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly than individualists.
  3. C) Collectivist cultures see people as autonomous, not as people deeply embedded in social situations.
  4. D) Compared to individualists, collectivists are less likely to see offers from their counterparts as unfair and to reject them.
  5. E) The method of conflict management preferred by collectivist managers is competing.

48) A collectivist Chinese manager is most likely to use which of the following techniques for conflict management?

  1. A) direct confrontation
  2. B) authoritative command
  3. C) avoiding
  4. D) pressurizing
  5. E) competing tactics

 

49) All of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________.

  1. A) increased self-evaluation and change
  2. B) increased groupthink
  3. C) increased creativity and innovation
  4. D) increased curiosity among group members
  5. E) increased opportunity to air problems

 

50) The potential for conflict increases when too much communication takes place.

51) A review that examined the effects of the four sets of behaviors across multiple studies found that openness and collaborating were both associated with superior group performance, whereas avoiding and competing strategies were associated with significantly worse group performance.

 

52) During the behavior stage of the conflict process, the parties decide what the conflict is about.

 

53) Cross-cultural negotiations have no issues of trust.

 

54) Collectivists are more interested in demonstrations of concern and working through third parties to resolve disputes, whereas individualists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly.

55) A review that examined the effects of the four sets of behaviors across multiple studies found that openness and collaborating were both associated with superior group performance.

 

56) What are the various causes of conflict?

57) Describe the five conflict-handling intentions that are based on the dimensions of cooperativeness and assertiveness.

58) Outline and discuss the conflict process.

59) Explain the conflict resolution strategies used by collectivist cultures.

60) Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources?

  1. A) integration
  2. B) association
  3. C) negotiation
  4. D) unionization
  5. E) differentiation

 

61) The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably.

  1. A) win-lose
  2. B) bargaining
  3. C) collaboration
  4. D) accommodation
  5. E) compromise

62) Which of the following is true regarding negotiation outcomes?

  1. A) Overall agreeableness is weakly related to negotiation outcomes.
  2. B) Overall agreeableness is strongly related to negotiation outcomes.
  3. C) Overall agreeableness is weakly related to negotiation outcomes only when the situation is stressful.
  4. D) Overall agreeableness is strongly related to negotiation outcomes only when the situation is stressful.
  5. E) Overall agreeableness is unrelated to negotiation outcomes.

 

63) Negotiation is a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about.

64) Discuss the effects of agreeableness on the effectiveness of negotiations.

65) In a negotiation between a man and a woman, we would expect the woman to ________ than the man.

  1. A) act more assertively
  2. B) show higher self-interest
  3. C) be more accommodating
  4. D) place a higher value on the economic outcome
  5. E) be more proactive in getting negotiations underway

 

66) The two general approaches to negotiation are ________ bargaining and ________ bargaining.

  1. A) emotional; rational
  2. B) affective; reflective
  3. C) distributive; integrative
  4. D) formal; informal
  5. E) legal; restrictive

67) ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a fixed amount of goods or services.

  1. A) Distributive
  2. B) Integrative
  3. C) Reflective
  4. D) Affective
  5. E) Conjunctive

68) Karl is the labor union negotiator. Today, he is meeting with the top management to discuss the new five-year contract, including wages and benefits. This labor-management negotiation over wages is most likely to use ________ bargaining.

  1. A) integrative
  2. B) reflective
  3. C) distributive
  4. D) evaluative
  5. E) associative

 

69) In the case of a distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of the negotiation.

  1. A) resistance
  2. B) distribution
  3. C) target
  4. D) bargaining
  5. E) focus

70) In case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable—the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement.

  1. A) resistance
  2. B) tolerance
  3. C) target
  4. D) focal
  5. E) distribution

 

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding distributive bargaining?

  1. A) It operates under zero-sum conditions.
  2. B) It focuses on long-term relationships.
  3. C) It involves high information sharing.
  4. D) It attempts to create a win-win solution.
  5. E) It is rarely used in labor-management negotiations.

72) During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the ________ bias.

  1. A) self-serving
  2. B) framing
  3. C) attributional
  4. D) anchoring
  5. E) belief

73) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining?

  1. A) Integrative bargaining leaves one party a loser.
  2. B) Integrative bargaining is used in labor-management negotiations most of the time.
  3. C) Integrative bargaining focuses on long-term relationships.
  4. D) Integrative bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions.
  5. E) Integrative bargaining involves low information sharing.

 

 

74) As both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources, each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. Based on this information, we can say that the two sides are engaged in ________.

  1. A) conciliation
  2. B) distributive bargaining
  3. C) mediation
  4. D) integrative bargaining
  5. E) arbitration

75) None of the parties involved in the dispute wants to reach a win-win agreement. They are each highly focused on their demands, which they would like to achieve, otherwise known as their ________ points.

  1. A) focal
  2. B) distribution
  3. C) resistance
  4. D) tolerance
  5. E) target

 

76) The management has decided to try to find a win-win solution to help both parties resolve their differences. Management is attempting to engage in ________ bargaining.

  1. A) integrative
  2. B) reflective
  3. C) surface
  4. D) distributive
  5. E) reformatory

 

77) Distributive bargaining attempts to create a win-win solution for both the parties.

78) In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining.

79) In terms of intraorganizational behavior, all things being equal, why is integrative bargaining preferable to distributive bargaining?

 

80) Describe the first step of the negotiation process. How does this step affect negotiating parties’ relationship? How does the negotiating parties’ relationship help determine the kind of bargaining that will be done (integrative or distributive)?

 

81) Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations?

  1. A) Men and women negotiate differently.
  2. B) Men value status more than women.
  3. C) Women value compassion and altruism more than men.
  4. D) Men place a higher value on economic outcomes than women.
  5. E) Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men.

82) Which of the following is the first step in the negotiation process?

  1. A) definition of ground rules
  2. B) clarification and justification
  3. C) preparation and planning
  4. D) bargaining and problem solving
  5. E) closure and implementation

 

83) Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement.

  1. A) BATNA
  2. B) margin of error
  3. C) bid price
  4. D) asking price
  5. E) hidden value

84) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the preparation and planning step?

  1. A) justifying your original demands
  2. B) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
  3. C) determining where the negotiation will take place
  4. D) designing procedures for implementing the agreement that has been worked out
  5. E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands

85) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands?

  1. A) preparation and planning
  2. B) definition of ground rules
  3. C) clarification and justification
  4. D) bargaining and problem solving
  5. E) integration of preferences

 

86) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the definition of ground rules step?

  1. A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
  2. B) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation
  3. C) justifying your original demands
  4. D) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out
  5. E) determining the history leading up to the negotiation

87) Bill is negotiating for the labor union. Today, he is presenting the evidence and papers that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of healthcare for the average worker, and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the negotiation process is Bill currently in?

  1. A) preparation and planning
  2. B) definition of ground rules
  3. C) clarification and justification
  4. D) bargaining and problem solving
  5. E) closure and implementation

88) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties have the actual discussion to hash out an agreement?

  1. A) preparation and planning
  2. B) definition of ground rules
  3. C) closure and implementation
  4. D) bargaining and problem-solving
  5. E) integration of preferences

89) In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is included in the closure and implementation step?

  1. A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement
  2. B) justifying your original demands
  3. C) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out
  4. D) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation
  5. E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands

 

90) In nearly all cases, the party with superior alternatives will not do better in a negotiation.

 

91) Making sure negotiations are designed to focus on well-defined and work-related terms also has promise for reducing gender differences by minimizing the ambiguous space for stereotypes to operate.

92) Jeff has a reputation for shouting angrily while negotiating. In contrast, Anita is known for her soft-spoken agreeable approach to negotiations. Jeff is more likely to get the concessions he wants than Anita.

93) Explain how self-efficacy impacts negotiation outcomes.

 

94) What is BATNA? Discuss the significance of BATNA.

 

95) Explain how gender affects negotiating, and describe what this means to the outcomes of the negotiation process.

96) Stratford Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. The company employs actors and actresses from all over the world. The actors and actresses have joined together to ask the company for higher salaries. The employees are struggling over deciding who will negotiate for them. Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the effect of individual differences on negotiations?

  1. A) Women tend to negotiate better outcomes than men.
  2. B) Extraverts tend to be very successful in distributive bargaining.
  3. C) People who are highly interested in having positive relationships with other people are poor negotiators.
  4. D) Individuals who score high on agreeableness dimension tend to be very successful in distributive bargaining.
  5. E) Positive moods and emotions negatively affect integrative bargaining.

97) Xanadu Industries manufactures and sells the same calipers as Utopia Industries. Employee wages account for 35 percent of the cost of manufacturing calipers at both Xanadu Industries and Utopia Industries. Xanadu Industries is seeking a competitive advantage over Utopia Industries. Richard, the manager put in charge of devising a strategy to meet this end, suggests lowering employee wages. This leads to a grave conflict between Richard and the labor union. Which of the following, if true, would suggest that the labor union will accept Richard’s suggestion to lower the wages?

  1. A) As they make a large number of precision instruments, caliper manufacturers receive huge volume discounts on raw materials.
  2. B) Utopia Industries recently set up a new manufacturing facility in the vicinity.
  3. C) Xanadu Industries has taken away 20 percent of Utopia Industries’ business over the last year.
  4. D) Utopia Industries pays its employees, on average, 10 percent more than does Xanadu Industries.
  5. E) Many people who work for manufacturing plants live in areas in which the manufacturing plant is the only source of employment.

 

98) A(n) ________ is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions for alternatives.

  1. A) plaintiff
  2. B) mediator
  3. C) agent
  4. D) consultant
  5. E) executor

99) In which of the following situations is mediation most likely to be effective?

  1. A) The conflict between the parties involved in mediation is at a moderate level.
  2. B) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as biased.
  3. C) There is a large gap between the target points of both the parties.
  4. D) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as coercive.
  5. E) None of the parties is willing to disclose its BATNA.

 

100) Which of the following methods of third-party negotiation always results in a settlement?

  1. A) mediation
  2. B) consultancy
  3. C) arbitration
  4. D) conciliation
  5. E) execution

 

101) What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session?

  1. A) limited options of the arbitrator
  2. B) heavy-handedness of the arbitrator
  3. C) compulsory nature of the arbitration
  4. D) voluntary nature of the arbitration
  5. E) establishment of an agreement that is nonbinding

102) In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) ________.

  1. A) plaintiff
  2. B) arbitrator
  3. C) consultant
  4. D) conciliator
  5. E) executor

 

103) Megatron wants to bring in a neutral third party who will facilitate a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. This person is known as a(n) ________.

  1. A) mediator
  2. B) arbitrator
  3. C) plaintiff
  4. D) consultant
  5. E) bailor

104) The home buyer wants to bring in a third party who will have the authority to dictate an agreement. This person will be a(n) ________.

  1. A) mediator
  2. B) arbitrator
  3. C) conciliator
  4. D) consultant
  5. E) plaintiff

105) The two parties eventually agree to ask Sam Spade, an attorney and trusted friend, to help them informally to solve their problem. Sam’s role is that of a(n) ________.

  1. A) mediator
  2. B) arbitrator
  3. C) conciliator
  4. D) consultant
  5. E) plaintiff

 

106) Negotiators who consistently act in a way that demonstrates competence, honesty, and integrity will usually have better outcomes in the long run.

107) When it comes to negotiation, having a reputation for being trustworthy doesn’t matter.

 

108) A popular stereotype is that men are more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than women.

109) In third-party negotiations, a conciliator is a trusted third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent.

 

110) Discuss the effects of moods and emotions on effectiveness of negotiations.

 

111) Describe the preferred negotiating techniques that would be implemented by a manager from China. What conflict management techniques would he use? What role would a third-party negotiator be likely to have if no agreement could be reached?

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 15   Foundations of Organization Structure

 

1) The term used to describe the degree to which tasks in an organization are subdivided into separate jobs is called ________.

  1. A) social clustering
  2. B) bureaucracy
  3. C) work specialization
  4. D) centralization
  5. E) departmentalization

 

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding work specialization?

  1. A) Work specialization indicates to what degree will there be rules and formalized regulations to direct employees and managers.
  2. B) Work specialization decreases the time spent in changing tasks.
  3. C) Work specialization increases the cost of finding and training workers to do specific and repetitive tasks.
  4. D) Work specialization decreases efficiency and productivity.
  5. E) Work specialization hinders efficient use of employee skills.

3) For much of the first half of the twentieth century, managers viewed work specialization as ________.

  1. A) a means to encourage employee satisfaction
  2. B) an effective solution to overcentralization
  3. C) an unending source of increased productivity
  4. D) difficult to implement without automation technology
  5. E) a frustrating cause of reduced efficiency

4) The basis by which jobs are grouped is called ________.

  1. A) social clustering
  2. B) span of control
  3. C) work specialization
  4. D) centralization
  5. E) departmentalization

5) A plant manager organizes a plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and purchasing into departments. The plant is departmentalized on the basis of ________.

  1. A) target customer
  2. B) product
  3. C) function
  4. D) geography
  5. E) service

 

 

6) AgriProducers has customers all over the United States that need their soil and crops tested in their labs. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for AgriProducers?

  1. A) functional
  2. B) process
  3. C) product
  4. D) geographic
  5. E) temporal

7) Procter & Gamble has separate departments for Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by ________.

  1. A) function
  2. B) process
  3. C) geography
  4. D) product
  5. E) interest

8) Wiper Inc., a parts supplier, has separate departments for government aircraft and contracts, large commercial aircraft clients, and small personal aircraft clients. This is an example of departmentalization on the basis of ________.

  1. A) product
  2. B) function
  3. C) geography
  4. D) customer
  5. E) service

 

9) The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom is termed ________.

  1. A) chain of command
  2. B) path of power
  3. C) span of control
  4. D) line of responsibility
  5. E) web of authority

10) Chain of command is a key element of an organization’s structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element?

  1. A) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?
  2. B) To whom do individuals and groups report?
  3. C) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?
  4. D) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?
  5. E) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?

 

11) Span of control is a key element of an organization’s structure. Which of the following key questions is addressed by this element?

  1. A) On what basis will jobs be grouped together?
  2. B) To whom do individuals and groups report?
  3. C) To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?
  4. D) How many individuals can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?
  5. E) To what degree are activities subdivided into separate jobs?

 

12) Which of the following terms refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect them to be obeyed?

  1. A) chain of command
  2. B) authority
  3. C) power
  4. D) span of control
  5. E) leadership

13) The principle of ________ helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority.

  1. A) span of control
  2. B) departmentalization
  3. C) cross-functionality
  4. D) centralization
  5. E) unity of command

 

14) According to the principle of unity of command, ________.

  1. A) managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees
  2. B) managers should oversee 1-4 employees on average
  3. C) an individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor
  4. D) an organization should be departmentalized on the basis of functions
  5. E) employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance

 

15) Which of the following statements, if true, would support the argument favoring increased span of control?

  1. A) Mike’s team consists of highly experienced and skilled labor.
  2. B) Porco Rosso recently became the world’s leading aircraft manufacturer.
  3. C) Mike is receiving increasing complaints about interpersonal conflicts within the team.
  4. D) Mike’s team is highly dependent on his guidance, even on minor issues.
  5. E) When additional workers were assigned to Mike on a previous occasion, it led to unfavorable results.

16) Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument favoring increased span of control?

  1. A) Mike has a reputation of handling interpersonal conflicts effectively.
  2. B) Performance reports from the last few years show that teams that were monitored closely had higher productivity.
  3. C) Porco Rosso recently launched its latest engine model, the PR-4.
  4. D) Market trends indicate that the demand for aircraft is expected to increase substantially over the next few years.
  5. E) When additional workers were assigned to Mike on a previous occasion, it led to favorable and productive results.

 

17) The ________ refers to the number of subordinates that a manager directs.

  1. A) span of control
  2. B) unity of command
  3. C) chain of command
  4. D) line of responsibility
  5. E) leadership web

18) A ________ is consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees.

  1. A) wider span of control
  2. B) high degree of formalization
  3. C) longer chain of command
  4. D) lack of work specialization
  5. E) high degree of centralization

19) A narrow span of control ________.

  1. A) encourages employee autonomy
  2. B) is expensive because it adds levels of management
  3. C) simplifies vertical communication
  4. D) increases the speed of decision making
  5. E) discourages overly tight supervision

 

20) Anna’s company needs to dramatically cut costs, speed decision making, and increase flexibility. Which of the following structural decisions will help her achieve the desired objectives?

  1. A) increasing the span of control
  2. B) decreasing the unity of command
  3. C) increasing the degree of formalization
  4. D) decentralizing management decisions
  5. E) departmentalizing the company on the basis of products

21) Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control?

  1. A) It increases effectiveness.
  2. B) It is more expensive.
  3. C) It encourages employee autonomy.
  4. D) It decreases the number levels in the organizational hierarchy.
  5. E) It increases participatory decision making.

 

22) The question of span of control determines ________.

  1. A) the employee grievance policy of the organization
  2. B) the number of levels and managers in an organization
  3. C) where decisions are made
  4. D) how jobs will be grouped
  5. E) how employees will be compensated

23) While observing the departments in his division, Gordon notices that some managers with wide spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly sized spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the high-performing managers?

  1. A) These managers are paid higher salaries than the low-performing managers.
  2. B) These managers have external locus of control.
  3. C) The employees within their departments tend to compete to reach productivity goals, which boosts performance.
  4. D) The employees within their departments score high on agreeableness.
  5. E) The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about their jobs.

24) In an organization, top managers make all the decisions and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives. This organization is most likely to be characterized by ________.

  1. A) a narrower span of control
  2. B) a low degree of formalization
  3. C) a high degree of centralization
  4. D) a high degree of departmentalization
  5. E) a low degree of work specialization

25) ________ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization.

  1. A) Formalization
  2. B) Departmentalization
  3. C) Centralization
  4. D) Work specialization
  5. E) Line of command

26) According to a 2011 survey, many workers in Qtopia Inc. are dissatisfied with their jobs. The survey revealed that most of the dissatisfied workers believe that they have very little control over their job assignments. Therefore, to increase workers’ job satisfaction, Boris, a production manager, feels they need to only concentrate on changing the dissatisfied workers’ beliefs regarding the degree of control they have over their job assignments. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion made by Boris?

  1. A) Many dissatisfied workers feel that their wages are too low and working conditions are unsatisfactory.
  2. B) The number of workers in Qtopia Inc. who are satisfied with their jobs is greater than the number of workers who are dissatisfied.
  3. C) The workers in Qtopia Inc. are more dissatisfied than workers in other companies.
  4. D) The 2008 edition of a popular magazine included Qtopia Inc. on its list of 100 best companies to work for.
  5. E) The workers in the company who are satisfied with their jobs believe that they have sufficient control over their job assignments.

27) The more the lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the ________ within that organization.

  1. A) higher is the degree of formalization
  2. B) lower is the level of empowerment
  3. C) lower is the degree of work specialization
  4. D) higher is the degree of departmentalization
  5. E) higher is the degree of decentralization

28) ________ refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized.

  1. A) Formalization
  2. B) Empowerment
  3. C) Work specialization
  4. D) Departmentalization
  5. E) Decentralization

29) Publishing representatives who call on college professors to inform them of their company’s new publications have a great deal of freedom in their jobs. They have only a general sales pitch, which they tailor as needed. Based on this information, we can say that the job of these publishing representatives ________.

  1. A) scores low on the degree of work specialization
  2. B) scores low on the degree of decentralization
  3. C) scores high on the degree of departmentalization
  4. D) scores high on the degree of centralization
  5. E) scores low on the degree of formalization

30) The clerical and editorial employees in a publishing house need to be at their desks by 8:00 AM and follow a set of precise procedures dictated by management. The jobs of these clerical and editorial employees ________.

  1. A) have a wide span of control
  2. B) score high on the degree of departmentalization
  3. C) score high on the degree of formalization
  4. D) lack a unity of command
  5. E) score low on the degree of work specialization

31) One way to overcome too much division within an organization and retain the positive elements of structure is to encourage or build in boundary-spanning roles.

 

32) The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom.

 

33) Narrow spans of control make vertical communication in the organization more complex.

34) The organization’s structure will determine what relationships form, the formality of those relationships, and many work outcomes.

35) In centralized organizations, top managers make all the decisions, and lower-level managers merely carry out their directives.

 

36) As compared to a decentralized organization, a centralized organization can act more quickly to solve problems.

37) Departmentalization refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized.

38) Describe the five common ways of departmentalization. Give an example of each.

 

39) Explain the approaches successful companies have taken to structuring themselves during growth.

40) Why is span of control important within an organization, and which common organizational design would most likely have the widest span of control? Explain your answer.

 

41) Compare and contrast centralized and decentralized organizations.

 

42) Formalization is a key element of organizational structure. What is indicated by formalization? Describe the characteristics of a highly formalized organization.

43) What is a virtual organization? What elements of organizational structure are important to create and sustain a successful virtual organization? Explain your answer.

 

44) Organizations do not always stay with the basis of departmentalization they first adopt, as is the case with Microsoft, explain.

45) Elena is the senior manager of a scientific operations team at a well-known clinical research organization. The organization delivers more than 4,000 solutions across more than 18 therapeutic areas. Being a perfectionist, Elena has reached her present position through hard work and dedication. Given that she has also worked effectively with teams in the past, she has recently been assigned to lead a team working on a new project which is critical to the company. Elena refuses to allocate any tasks to her team and decides to put in extra hours and weekends to complete the groundwork herself. Based on the information presented here, which of the following would best explain this contradiction?

  1. A) Elena feels she will not be able to guide her team well on the project.
  2. B) Elena is not very sociable with her colleagues.
  3. C) Elena feels that by delegating work, she will complicate her working relationship with the team.
  4. D) Elena feels that this project is vital to the team’s success.
  5. E) Elena is reluctant to delegate work as she lacks confidence in her team’s abilities.

 

46) A ________ is characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization.

  1. A) bureaucracy
  2. B) matrix organization
  3. C) simple structure
  4. D) networked organizational structure
  5. E) hierarchical organization

47) The simple structure is most widely practiced in small businesses in which ________.

  1. A) the manager and owner are one and the same
  2. B) the number of employees is between 100 to 150
  3. C) employees are highly skilled
  4. D) managers are hired directly by the company’s owner
  5. E) training budgets are limited

 

48) Mark is the owner of a local shoe business. He has fifteen employees who report directly to him, he makes all the decisions regarding the type and quality of shoes, and he looks after the shop’s finances. Which type of organizational structure does Mark have?

  1. A) bureaucracy
  2. B) virtual structure
  3. C) matrix structure
  4. D) boundaryless structure
  5. E) simple structure

49) Which of the following statements is true about the simple structure?

  1. A) It is very expensive to operate.
  2. B) It is characterized by a high degree of formalization.
  3. C) It becomes increasingly inadequate as an organization grows.
  4. D) It is most widely adopted in large businesses in which the manager and owner are different.
  5. E) It is characterized by a narrow span of control.

50) Which of the following is a characteristic of a simple structure?

  1. A) high centralization
  2. B) inflexibility
  3. C) narrow spans of control
  4. D) ambiguous accountability
  5. E) high degree of formalization

51) The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is ________.

  1. A) efficiency
  2. B) standardization
  3. C) increased flexibility
  4. D) decentralization
  5. E) specialization

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding a bureaucracy?

  1. A) Bureaucracies are characterized by a low degree of formalization.
  2. B) Bureaucracy is an ideal organizational design for those organizations that operate under highly uncertain conditions.
  3. C) Typically, bureaucracies have wider spans of control.
  4. D) Bureaucracies can get by with less talented middle- and lower-level managers.
  5. E) Bureaucracies encourage employee empowerment.

53) Which of the following types of organizational designs combines two forms of departmentalization, functional and product?

  1. A) simple structure
  2. B) bureaucracy
  3. C) matrix structure
  4. D) virtual structure
  5. E) boundaryless structure

54) The strength of product departmentalization in the matrix structure is that it facilitates ________.

  1. A) coordination among specialties
  2. B) implementation of a high degree of centralization
  3. C) adherence to chain of command
  4. D) standardization
  5. E) employee empowerment

 

55) You extol the virtues and benefits of standardization. You are most likely to be promoting the ________.

  1. A) matrix structure
  2. B) virtual organization
  3. C) bureaucracy
  4. D) boundaryless structure
  5. E) simple structure

56) You explain to your students the structure of a local grocery store situated in your neighborhood. The store employs two full-time employees, a salesperson and a cashier. The owner of the store acts as its manager and makes all the decisions. Which of the following organizational structures is being described by you?

  1. A) matrix structure
  2. B) virtual structure
  3. C) bureaucracy
  4. D) boundaryless structure
  5. E) simple structure

57) You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure of the committee best meets the definition of the ________ structure.

  1. A) matrix
  2. B) simple
  3. C) boundaryless
  4. D) virtual
  5. E) bureaucratic

 

58) Which of the following statements is true regarding a matrix structure?

  1. A) It breaks the unity-of-command concept.
  2. B) It cannot achieve economies of scale.
  3. C) It reduces ambiguity about who reports to whom.
  4. D) It prevents power struggles.
  5. E) It avoids duplication of activities.

 

59) Which one of the following problems is most likely to occur in a matrix structure?

  1. A) decreased response to environmental change
  2. B) increased social loafing
  3. C) loss of economies of scale
  4. D) increase in groupthink
  5. E) employees receiving conflicting directives

60) The simple structure is characterized by a high degree of departmentalization and narrow span of control.

61) The functional structure groups employees by their similar specialties, roles, or tasks.

 

62) The organizational design of a simple structure is highly risky.

 

63) The strength of a bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform standardized activities in a highly efficient manner.

64) A bureaucracy is characterized by decentralized authority and wider spans of control.

 

65) The divisional structure has the opposite benefits and disadvantages of the functional structure.

 

66) The matrix structure reduces the possibility of power struggles.

67) Describe the simple structure. Discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

68) Describe the various characteristics of bureaucracy.

69) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a matrix structure.

 

70) Compare and contrast the three common organizational designs: simple structure, bureaucracy, and matrix structure.

71) A ________ organization is a small, core organization that outsources major business functions.

  1. A) centralized
  2. B) virtual
  3. C) bureaucratic
  4. D) matrix
  5. E) formalized

72) A virtual organization is also known as a(n) ________ organization.

  1. A) boundaryless
  2. B) electronic
  3. C) modular
  4. D) pyramidal
  5. E) triangular

 

73) You are the CEO of Achilles Incorporation. You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your business as a ________.

  1. A) matrix organization
  2. B) virtual organization
  3. C) highly centralized organization
  4. D) highly formalized organization
  5. E) bureaucracy

74) The major advantage of a virtual organization is its ________.

  1. A) decentralized structure
  2. B) ability to enhance role clarity
  3. C) flexibility
  4. D) highly departmentalized structure
  5. E) ability to minimize organizational politics

 

75) Which of the following statements is true regarding a virtual organization?

  1. A) A virtual organization is sometimes called matrix organization.
  2. B) A virtual organization is highly decentralized.
  3. C) A virtual organization is characterized by a high degree of departmentalization.
  4. D) A virtual organization tends to have unclear roles, goals, and responsibilities.
  5. E) A virtual organization lacks flexibility.

 

76) Which of the following is most likely to be a drawback of a virtual organization?

  1. A) constant flux and reorganization
  2. B) increased technology costs and decentralization
  3. C) lack of flexibility and innovativeness
  4. D) lack of qualified employees and poor management
  5. E) poor communication and high degree of formalization

77) Blastkrieg, a chain of audio equipment stores, uses computerized inventory control and customer self-service to eliminate the category of sales clerks from its force of employees. After diversifying into computer electronics, it now plans to employ the same concept in selling desktop PCs and laptops. Which of the following is an assumption made in Blastkrieg’s strategy?

  1. A) All computer electronics stores use a similar strategy.
  2. B) Sales personnel are not required for selling computer electronics successfully.
  3. C) The same kind of computers will be used in inventory control for both audio equipment and electronics at Blastkrieg.
  4. D) A self-service strategy cannot be employed without computerized inventory control.
  5. E) Sales clerks are the only employees of Blastkrieg who could be assigned tasks related to inventory control.

 

78) You have recently started your business with a small capital investment. Your business needs a very high degree of flexibility so that you can quickly respond to environmental changes and you are also interested in minimizing costs. Which of the following types of organizations is best suitable for your business?

  1. A) a highly centralized organization
  2. B) a virtual organization
  3. C) a formalized organization
  4. D) a bureaucracy
  5. E) a hierarchical organization

79) In structural terms, a virtual organization is highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization.

 

80) A virtual organization lacks flexibility.

 

81) ________ is a systematic effort to make an organization leaner by selling off business units, closing locations, or reducing staff.

  1. A) Removing boundaries
  2. B) Departmentalizing
  3. C) Decentralizing
  4. D) Downsizing
  5. E) Formalizing

82) Describe the various ways in which the negative impact of downsizing can be minimized.

 

83) A(n) ________ model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has highly standardized processes for work, high formalization, and more managerial hierarchy.

  1. A) mechanistic
  2. B) organic
  3. C) network
  4. D) boundaryless
  5. E) pyramidal

84) A(n) ________ model is a structure that is flat, uses cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and relies on participative decision making.

  1. A) mechanistic
  2. B) organic
  3. C) boundaryless
  4. D) network
  5. E) pyramidal

 

85) Which of the following is typically a characteristic of an organic model of organization?

  1. A) narrow spans of control
  2. B) centralization
  3. C) free flow of information
  4. D) high formalization
  5. E) inflexibility

86) Which of the following is typically a characteristic of the mechanistic model of organization?

  1. A) low formalization
  2. B) rigid departmentalization
  3. C) decentralized management
  4. D) wide spans of control
  5. E) low specialization

87) A(n) ________ strategy emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services.

  1. A) innovation
  2. B) cost-minimization
  3. C) imitation
  4. D) organic
  5. E) mechanistic

 

88) Organizations following a(n) ________ strategy try to both minimize risk and maximize opportunity for profit, moving into new products or new markets only after innovators have proven their viability.

  1. A) innovation
  2. B) cost-cutting
  3. C) imitation
  4. D) organic
  5. E) mechanistic

89) Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of an organization pursuing an innovation strategy?

  1. A) high formalization
  2. B) high specialization
  3. C) decentralized control
  4. D) rigid departmentalization
  5. E) narrow span of control

90) Which of the following is most likely to be a characteristic of an organization pursuing a cost-minimization strategy?

  1. A) lack of tight control
  2. B) wide span of control
  3. C) low work specialization
  4. D) high centralization
  5. E) low formalization

 

91) Which of the following terms refers to the way an organization transfers inputs into outputs?

  1. A) volatility
  2. B) formalization
  3. C) complexity
  4. D) technology
  5. E) environment

 

92) What are the key dimensions to any organization’s environment?

  1. A) conformity, criticality, and diffusivity
  2. B) complexity, volatility, and capacity
  3. C) complexity, diffusivity, and criticality
  4. D) conformity, criticality, and capacity
  5. E) criticality, volatility, diffusivity

93) Which of the following dimensions of an environment describes the degree to which the environment can support growth?

  1. A) capacity
  2. B) flexibility
  3. C) volatility
  4. D) sustainability
  5. E) complexity

 

94) Volatility refers to the degree of ________ within an environment.

  1. A) heterogeneity
  2. B) instability
  3. C) flexibility
  4. D) diffusivity
  5. E) conformity

 

95) The ________ of an environment refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements.

  1. A) density
  2. B) simplicity
  3. C) complexity
  4. D) intricacy
  5. E) permeability

96) Harald is opening a manufacturing plant with a mechanistic and centralized structure. Employees from which of the following countries will be least comfortable with this type of a structure?

  1. A) Greece
  2. B) Peru
  3. C) Canada
  4. D) France
  5. E) Chile

 

97) Institutions are cultural factors that act as guidelines for appropriate behavior for organizational structure.

 

98) The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should be.

 

99) Compare and contrast the three primary organizational strategies: innovation, cost-minimization, and imitation.

 

100) What are the three dimensions that characterize the environment of an organization?

101) What is the difference between a mechanistic model and an organic model of organizational structure?

 

102) Who coined the term boundaryless organization?

  1. A) Steve Jobs
  2. B) Jack Welch
  3. C) Milton Friedman
  4. D) John Maynard Keynes
  5. E) Frederick Herzberg

 

103) A boundaryless organization strives to ________.

  1. A) break down barriers between the company, its customers, and suppliers
  2. B) reduce bureaucracy costs associated with managing the projects in the organization
  3. C) outsource projects to a competent third party
  4. D) create a higher level of formalization in the organization
  5. E) centralize power within the organization

104) Odysseus Corp. is attempting to flatten its organizational hierarchy. It is encouraging the use of cross-hierarchical teams, participative decision-making practices, and 360-degree performance appraisals. Based on this information, we can say that Odysseus Corp. is attempting to create a ________ organization.

  1. A) highly centralized
  2. B) virtual
  3. C) boundaryless
  4. D) highly formalized
  5. E) highly departmentalized

 

105) A boundaryless organization is most likely to ________.

  1. A) encourage hierarchical structure
  2. B) avoid using cross-hierarchical teams
  3. C) discourage participative decision-making practices
  4. D) use 360-degree performance appraisals
  5. E) replace empowered teams with departments

106) You decide to eliminate horizontal, vertical, and external barriers within your organization. You want to operate as a ________ organization.

  1. A) matrix
  2. B) formalized
  3. C) team structure
  4. D) boundaryless
  5. E) centralized

 

107) Which of the following is a method that companies can use to break down cultural barriers in the global market?

  1. A) increase the degree of formalization
  2. B) use only organic structures
  3. C) increase the degree of centralization
  4. D) limit global expansion
  5. E) form strategic alliances

 

108) Work specialization contributes to higher employee productivity, but at the price of ________.

  1. A) reduced economies of scale
  2. B) increased cost
  3. C) reduced job satisfaction
  4. D) restricted flow of information
  5. E) increased complexity

109) Some individuals want work that makes minimal intellectual demands and provides the security of routine; for them, ________ is a source of job satisfaction.

  1. A) free flow of information
  2. B) wide span of control
  3. C) low formalization
  4. D) high work specialization
  5. E) high decentralization

 

110) A boundaryless organization tries to flatten the hierarchy and minimizes status and rank.

 

111) The goal of a boundaryless organization is to break down cultural barriers.

 

112) Managers must take individual differences, such as experience, personality, culture, and the work task, into account to maximize employee performance and satisfaction.

113) Explain the concept of the boundaryless organization and how boundaryless organizations are useful in breaking down cultural barriers in a global workplace.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 16   Organizational Culture

 

1) Manuel is a manager for a manufacturing company in which managers are expected to fully document all decisions and in which it is important to provide detailed data to support any recommendations. Also, out-of-the-box thinking is dissuaded. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Manuel’s job?

  1. A) low team orientation
  2. B) high aggressiveness
  3. C) low risk taking
  4. D) low outcome orientation
  5. E) high people orientation

 

2) Danny’s boss is apathetic as to whether Danny works at home, at the office, or from his beach house. All he cares about is that the project is completed on time, on budget, and with exemplary quality. Which characteristic of organizational culture describes this aspect of Danny’s job?

  1. A) low risk taking
  2. B) high outcome orientation
  3. C) high attention to detail
  4. D) low aggressiveness
  5. E) high stability

3) Which of the following characteristics of an organization’s culture indicates the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization?

  1. A) attention to detail
  2. B) outcome orientation
  3. C) team orientation
  4. D) people orientation
  5. E) stability

 

4) Stability is one of the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization’s culture. It indicates the degree to which ________.

  1. A) employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks
  2. B) management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them
  3. C) management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization
  4. D) work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals
  5. E) organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth

 

5) The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which people are competitive rather than easygoing is termed ________.

  1. A) assertiveness
  2. B) team orientation
  3. C) averseness
  4. D) risk taking
  5. E) aggressiveness

6) Which of the following statements best describes the difference between organizational culture and job satisfaction?

  1. A) Job satisfaction depends upon the level of “power distance” in the country, but organizational culture does not.
  2. B) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic.
  3. C) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable.
  4. D) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.
  5. E) Job satisfaction depends on the structure of the organization, but organizational culture does not.

7) Porco Rosso, an aircraft manufacturer with a strong presence in the United States, is looking to expand its market overseas. The firm currently sells its aircraft to several airlines in the United Kingdom but now wants to establish manufacturing units there as well in order to acquire a bigger share in the European market. Hence, it plans to merge with QueenAir, a British aircraft manufacturer. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the company’s decision to merge with QueenAir?

  1. A) Merging with QueenAir would increase its profits considerably.
  2. B) There is increasing economic uncertainty in its U.S. market.
  3. C) The preferences of airline customers in Europe and the U.S. are similar.
  4. D) There is a striking difference in the organizational cultures of the two firms.
  5. E) A competitor in the U.S. market recently went out of business.

8) Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s culture?

  1. A) Organizational culture is evaluative rather than descriptive.
  2. B) Large organizations rarely have subcultures.
  3. C) A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization’s members.
  4. D) A strong culture reduces employee satisfaction and increases employee turnover.
  5. E) Subcultures and dominant cultures do not share any common values.

 

9) Cultures that tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems or experiences faced by the members in the same department or location are often called ________.

  1. A) micro-cultures
  2. B) subcultures
  3. C) divisional cultures
  4. D) microcosms
  5. E) countercultures

10) Jean works for Fahrenheit Publishing, which is a publisher of scientific journals. The company is dominated by low risk taking and high attention to detail. Jean’s department is committed to high team orientation and provides many team-building activities in which Jean and other department members work together and socialize. Which of the following statements best describes Jean’s department?

  1. A) Jean’s department is an example of a primary microcosm.
  2. B) Jean’s department’s culture is stronger than the dominant culture in the organization.
  3. C) Jean’s department has developed a subculture.
  4. D) Jean’s department’s culture is undefined.
  5. E) Jean’s department’s culture has low stability.

11) ________ are indicators of a strong organizational culture.

  1. A) High levels of dissension
  2. B) High rates of employee turnover
  3. C) Completely horizontal organizational charts
  4. D) Narrowly defined roles
  5. E) Widely shared values

12) The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are known as ________.

  1. A) foundational traits
  2. B) core values
  3. C) shared values
  4. D) institutional traits
  5. E) unique values

13) Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture?

  1. A) low employee turnover
  2. B) low employee satisfaction
  3. C) low organizational commitment
  4. D) high absenteeism
  5. E) low behavioral control resulting from the climate within the organization

 

14) A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in ________.

  1. A) a highly centralized organization
  2. B) narrow spans of control
  3. C) cohesiveness and organizational commitment
  4. D) a highly formalized organization
  5. E) an outcome-oriented organization

15) A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following?

  1. A) institutionalization
  2. B) formalization
  3. C) socialization
  4. D) centralization
  5. E) social support

16) A culture that expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization’s members is known as a(n) ________ culture.

  1. A) dominant
  2. B) primary
  3. C) fundamental
  4. D) unique
  5. E) essential

 

17) The organizational culture of Rogue Vogue Corp. is an example of a(n) ________.

  1. A) autocratic culture
  2. B) subculture
  3. C) lowly formalized culture
  4. D) reflective culture
  5. E) dominant culture

 

18) Aggressiveness, innovation, and risk taking are called the ________ of the culture at the Rogue Vogue Corp.

  1. A) foundational values
  2. B) institutional traits
  3. C) core values
  4. D) significant traits
  5. E) unique values

19) In addition to the organizational culture at Rogue Vogue Corp., the finance department emphasizes attention to detail. In this example, attention to detail is a part of the ________ of the organization.

  1. A) core values
  2. B) significant traits
  3. C) dominant culture
  4. D) foundational values
  5. E) subculture

 

20) Based on the information in the scenario, we can say that Rogue Vogue Corp. ________.

  1. A) is a highly decentralized organization
  2. B) is a virtual organization
  3. C) has a strong culture
  4. D) is a boundaryless organization
  5. E) is a matrix organization

 

21) Aggressiveness is one of the seven primary characteristics of organizational culture that capture the essence of an organization’s culture. It indicates the degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks.

22) Attention to detail is a primary characteristic of an organization’s culture that indicates the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them.

 

23) Individuals with different backgrounds or at different levels in the organization will tend to describe the organization’s culture in similar terms.

 

24) Subcultures act to undermine the dominant culture.

 

25) A dominant culture expresses the core values a majority of members share and that give the organization its distinct personality.

26) A strong culture tends to reduce employee turnover.

27) Big data is an effective decision aid only when it’s paired with a consistent and thoughtful culture, one that acknowledges the need for human decision making and individual judgments.

 

28) What are the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization’s culture?

29) Compare and contrast dominant culture and subculture.

30) Describe the characteristics of a strong culture.

 

31) “Formalization and culture are two different roads to a common destination.” Explain the statement.

32) Discuss the difference between strong and weak organizational cultures and discuss the effect that a strong culture can have on an acquisition or merger.

33) Which of the following statements is true regarding the functions of culture in an organization?

  1. A) It hinders the generation of commitment to something larger than individual self-interest among employees.
  2. B) It conveys a sense of identity for organization members.
  3. C) It reduces the stability of the organizational system.
  4. D) It reduces distinctions between one organization and others.
  5. E) It does not affect employees’ attitudes and behavior.

34) When formal authority and control systems are reduced, the ________ provided by a strong culture ensure(s) that everyone is pointed in the same direction.

  1. A) rules and regulations
  2. B) shared meaning
  3. C) rituals
  4. D) socialization
  5. E) rigid hierarchy

 

35) In ________ organizations, the lack of frequent face-to-face contact makes establishing a common set of norms very difficult.

  1. A) highly formalized
  2. B) boundaryless
  3. C) virtual
  4. D) matrix
  5. E) highly centralized

36) Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of the organizational culture and its effects on the organization?

  1. A) Today’s trend toward decentralized organizations makes it is easier to establish a strong culture.
  2. B) In a virtual organization, a strong culture can be established quickly and easily.
  3. C) Employees organized in teams always show greater allegiance to the values of the organization as a whole than to their team and its values.
  4. D) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees.
  5. E) Cultures reduce the stability of the social system in an organization.

 

37) ________ refers to the shared perceptions organizational members have about their organization and work environment.

  1. A) Organizational climate
  2. B) Institutionalization
  3. C) Microcosm
  4. D) Groupthink
  5. E) Organizational apprehension

38) Grace works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals. Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike come into the store “off the clock” and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her co-workers inspires Grace to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Grace is experiencing the effects of ________.

  1. A) decentralization
  2. B) organizational climate
  3. C) high departmentalization
  4. D) low formalization
  5. E) high work specialization

 

39) A(n) ________ organization is an organization that takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or members; it is valued for itself and not for the goods or services it produces.

  1. A) virtual
  2. B) matrix
  3. C) boundaryless
  4. D) institutionalized
  5. E) centralized

40) Culture is most likely to be a liability when ________.

  1. A) the employees of the organization are highly skilled
  2. B) the organization’s environment is dynamic
  3. C) the organization’s management is highly efficient
  4. D) the organization is highly centralized
  5. E) the organization scores low on the degree of formalization

41) Rainbow Corp. hires a new secretary, Polonova, who differs from the vast majority of the company’s employees in terms of her ethnicity. The company has a collectivist culture with a culturally diverse workforce and several policies to support the minorities. Yet, after a few weeks, she quits the company. Which of the following, if true, helps explain why she quit?

  1. A) Rainbow Corp. recently had a huge turnover and plans to expand its market.
  2. B) All secretaries, regardless of their gender, are paid equal salaries at Rainbow Corp.
  3. C) Polonova is gregarious and comfortable in changing contexts and ambiguous situations.
  4. D) Polonova has a strong sense of personal ambition and independence.
  5. E) Polonova is more likely to conform to others’ ideas and opinions rather than come up with her own.

42) Which of the following is not one of the five most prevalent climate categories making up the ethical dimensions of organization culture?

  1. A) instrumental
  2. B) caring
  3. C) dependence
  4. D) law and code
  5. E) rules

43) In which of the following climates do managers operate under the expectation that their decisions will positively affect the greatest number of stakeholders?

  1. A) caring
  2. B) instrumental
  3. C) law and code
  4. D) rules
  5. E) independence

 

44) Sustainability refers to practices that can be maintained over very long periods of time because the tools or structure that support the practices is not damaged in the process.

 

 

45) Instrumental climates are positively associated with employee job satisfaction and organizational commitment.

 

46) Systematic reviews of the research literature show a generally positive relationship between sustainability and financial performance.

47) To create a truly sustainable business, an organization must develop a long-term culture and put its values into practice.

 

48) Explain the concept of organizational climate.

 

49) Describe the various situations under which culture acts as a liability.

50) Describe and explain the five most prevalent climate categories that comprise the ethical dimensions of organization cultures.

51) The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is ________.

  1. A) its top management
  2. B) its environment
  3. C) the country in which the organization operates
  4. D) its founders
  5. E) the sociocultural backgrounds of its employees

 

52) The ________ process helps candidates learn about the organization, and if employees perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they can remove themselves from the applicant pool.

  1. A) orientation
  2. B) training
  3. C) performance evaluation
  4. D) selection
  5. E) institutionalization

53) The selection process helps sustain the organization’s culture by ________.

  1. A) establishing and enforcing norms
  2. B) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization
  3. C) socializing the new employees
  4. D) developing performance evaluation criteria
  5. E) rewarding conformity

54) Top management has a major impact on the organization’s culture by ________.

  1. A) establishing norms that filter down through the organization
  2. B) ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values
  3. C) socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase
  4. D) providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires
  5. E) properly rewarding employees’ initiatives

 

55) ________ is a process that helps new employees adapt to the prevailing organizational culture.

  1. A) Satisficing
  2. B) Reciprocal interdependence
  3. C) Socialization
  4. D) Formalization
  5. E) Social loafing

56) The process of socialization consists of three stages. Which of the following is one of these three stages?

  1. A) metamorphosis
  2. B) preencounter
  3. C) evaluation
  4. D) post-arrival
  5. E) post-encounter

 

57) Identify the correct order of stages in the socialization process.

  1. A) encounter, metamorphosis, post-encounter
  2. B) prearrival, arrival, evaluation
  3. C) prearrival, arrival, post-arrival
  4. D) prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis
  5. E) metamorphosis, preencounter, arrival

 

58) The ________ stage of the socialization process explicitly recognizes that each individual the organization comes across during the selection process has a set of values, attitudes, and expectations about both the work to be done and the organization.

  1. A) post-encounter
  2. B) prearrival
  3. C) metamorphosis
  4. D) preencounter
  5. E) post-arrival

59) During the ________ stage, a new employee compares his or her expectations with the realities in the organization.

  1. A) prearrival
  2. B) encounter
  3. C) metamorphosis
  4. D) post-arrival
  5. E) post-encounter

60) If there is a basic conflict between the individual’s expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during the ________ stage of socialization.

  1. A) prearrival
  2. B) post-arrival
  3. C) encounter
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) post-encounter

 

61) Higgins has recently joined a new law firm expecting to participate in exciting environmental law cases and cutting-edge research. After one month at the firm, he still hasn’t been assigned a case and spends most of his time filing standardized appeals for title disputes with insurance companies. In which stage of the socialization process is Higgins?

  1. A) prearrival
  2. B) encounter
  3. C) metamorphosis
  4. D) post-encounter
  5. E) post-arrival

62) During the socialization process, to work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage, the new member changes or goes through the ________ stage.

  1. A) post-arrival
  2. B) metamorphosis
  3. C) post-encounter
  4. D) analysis
  5. E) evaluation

 

63) Which of the following statements is true regarding random socialization?

  1. A) Random socialization tries to strip away certain characteristics of the recruit.
  2. B) Random socialization is carried out per a fixed time schedule.
  3. C) In random socialization, new employees are left on their own to figure things out.
  4. D) Random socialization involves socializing the newcomers in groups.
  5. E) Specific orientation and classroom training programs are examples of random socialization.

 

64) Which of the following types of socialization involves putting the new employee directly into the job, with little or no special attention?

  1. A) investiture socialization
  2. B) serial socialization
  3. C) collective socialization
  4. D) fixed socialization
  5. E) informal socialization

65) ________ socialization assumes that the newcomer’s qualities and qualifications are the necessary ingredients for job success, so these qualities and qualifications are confirmed and supported.

  1. A) Variable
  2. B) Collective
  3. C) Serial
  4. D) Investiture
  5. E) Formal

 

66) Which of the following statements is true about formal socialization?

  1. A) Formal socialization involves socializing the new members individually.
  2. B) Specific orientation and training programs are examples of formal socialization.
  3. C) Apprenticeship and mentoring programs are examples of formal socialization.
  4. D) Formal socialization lacks a fixed time schedule.
  5. E) In formal socialization, new employees are left on their own to figure things out.

 

67) ________ socialization tries to strip away certain characteristics of the recruit.

  1. A) Random
  2. B) Fixed
  3. C) Collective
  4. D) Divestiture
  5. E) Formal

 

68) Apprenticeship is an example of ________ socialization.

  1. A) divestiture
  2. B) variable
  3. C) serial
  4. D) informal
  5. E) investiture

 

69) By the end of the ________ stage of socialization, the new members internalize and accept the norms of the organization and their work group, are confident in their competence, and feel trusted and valued by their peers.

  1. A) encounter
  2. B) post-arrival
  3. C) establishment
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) adaptation

70) The information that you receive during the interviewing and hiring process is a part of the ________ stage of employee socialization.

  1. A) preencounter
  2. B) prearrival
  3. C) encounter
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) post-encounter

 

71) Your first day at work is a part of the ________ stage of socialization.

  1. A) orientation
  2. B) prearrival
  3. C) encounter
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) post-encounter

72) When you begin to notice things that are not as you expected, you are in the ________ stage of socialization.

  1. A) orientation
  2. B) prearrival
  3. C) encounter
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) post-arrival

 

73) Which of the following steps could your supervisor take to best help you develop a commitment to your new company?

  1. A) encourage you to work independently at first to learn the ropes
  2. B) explain the rules and policies of the organization to you
  3. C) discourage you from putting too much emphasis on your perception of the organization
  4. D) encourage you to look carefully at your own assumptions, which may be biased
  5. E) encourage you to develop friendship ties within the organization

74) When you start to accept the differences between your expectations and the reality of the organization, you move into the ________ stage of socialization.

  1. A) prearrival
  2. B) post-arrival
  3. C) acceptance
  4. D) metamorphosis
  5. E) post-encounter

75) Your supervisor provides you a mentor to help you with your work and guide you. This shows that your supervisor is using a(n) ________ socialization technique.

  1. A) divestiture
  2. B) random
  3. C) informal
  4. D) serial
  5. E) variable

76) A study conducted by Bain and Company found that 70 percent of mergers failed to increase shareholder values, and Hay Group found that more than 90 percent of mergers in Europe failed to reach financial goals.

 

77) The encounter stage of the socialization process consists of the period of learning that occurs before a new employee joins an organization.

 

78) During the metamorphosis stage of the socialization process, a new employee compares his or her expectations—about the job, co-workers, the boss, and the organization in general—with the reality in the organization.

79) Serial socialization is characterized by the use of role models who train and encourage a newcomer.

 

80) Apprenticeship and mentoring programs are examples of random socialization.

 

81) Formal socialization involves putting the new employee directly into the job, with little or no special attention.

 

82) The more management relies on formal, collective, sequential, fixed, and serial socialization programs and emphasizes divestiture, the more likely newcomers’ differences will be stripped away and replaced by standardized predictable behaviors.

83) How does organizational culture develop?

84) Explain the primary methods of maintaining an organization’s culture.

85) Describe the three stages involved in the process of socialization.

 

86) ________ typically contain narratives about the organization’s founders, rule breaking, and reactions to past mistakes.

  1. A) Stories
  2. B) Material symbols
  3. C) Rituals
  4. D) Organizational charts
  5. E) Corporate chants

 

87) Bruce is new at Wayne Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Bruce by way of ________.

  1. A) stories
  2. B) material symbols
  3. C) rituals
  4. D) organizational charts
  5. E) corporate chants

88) Company chants are examples of ________.

  1. A) rituals
  2. B) material symbols
  3. C) stories
  4. D) company policies
  5. E) business strategies

 

89) Company chants are used to ________.

  1. A) inform employees about changes in rules and policies
  2. B) transmit company culture to employees
  3. C) inform employees about latest technologies
  4. D) communicate company strategies to the employees
  5. E) update employees regarding performance of the company

 

90) Which of the following can act as a common denominator to unite members of a given culture or subculture?

  1. A) mechanistic organizational structure
  2. B) 360-degree appraisals
  3. C) jargons and acronyms that are specific to the organization
  4. D) bureaucratic organizational structure
  5. E) narrow span of control

91) Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This informality conveys to employees that Alcoa values ________.

  1. A) autocracy
  2. B) competitiveness
  3. C) rigidity
  4. D) equality
  5. E) formalization

 

 

92) Which of the following is most likely to be used by Ask Socrates Inc. to inform its new employees about its founders?

  1. A) stories
  2. B) material symbols
  3. C) organizational charts
  4. D) rituals
  5. E) corporate chants

 

93) The regular distribution of lollipops, toys, or treats every Friday is an example of a ________ that helps reinforce Ask Socrates’ culture.

  1. A) dominant mechanism
  2. B) ritual
  3. C) primary process
  4. D) protective mechanism
  5. E) fundamental procedure

 

94) Ask Socrates Inc. employees are allowed to dress informally. This is an example of a ________ through which organizational culture is transmitted.

  1. A) primary procedure
  2. B) ritual
  3. C) material symbol
  4. D) symbolic act
  5. E) fundamental mechanism

95) What are the various ways in which the organizational culture can be transmitted to the employees?

 

96) Provide examples of how an ethical culture can be transmitted through stories, rituals, and material symbols.

97) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members is one that ________.

  1. A) is low in risk tolerance
  2. B) is high in aggressiveness
  3. C) focuses only on outcomes
  4. D) takes a short-term perspective
  5. E) balances the rights of multiple stakeholders

 

98) Pam works for a corporation that recently fired three top managers who were caught using the company credit cards to lavishly furnish their offices and even purchase “office” furniture that was found in their personal homes. Which method of maintaining an ethical culture is Pam’s company pursuing?

  1. A) serve as a visible role model
  2. B) communicate ethical expectations
  3. C) provide ethical training
  4. D) visibly punish unethical acts
  5. E) provide protective mechanisms

 

99) A positive organizational culture emphasizes ________.

  1. A) the use of negative reinforcement and punishment
  2. B) the use of rituals in transmitting organizational culture
  3. C) individual vitality and growth
  4. D) the significance of highly centralized management
  5. E) organizational standardization and institutionalization

 

100) Larry has an employee who is amazing at clearly seeing rules and enforcing them. He has recently promoted her to the lead position in quality assurance. Which method of creating a positive organizational culture is Larry utilizing?

  1. A) rewarding more than punishing
  2. B) building on organization strengths
  3. C) using standardized practices
  4. D) building on employee strengths
  5. E) transmitting organizational culture through rituals

101) Patricia is a team leader. When looking at an e-mail from one of her team members, Patricia noticed that the e-mail was sent at nine-thirty in the evening. The next day she personally went to the employee’s cubicle and told him how much she appreciated him staying late to get the project to the client on time. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Patricia utilizing?

  1. A) rewarding more than punishing
  2. B) building on organization strengths
  3. C) emphasizing individual growth
  4. D) building on employee strengths
  5. E) providing extrinsic rewards

102) Liz is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales representatives is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Liz realizes that the representative is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly when describing different dishes. She has begun discussing with the representative the possibility of collaborating with a writer to include a weekly restaurant review that includes the representative on the byline. After the first couple of reviews, the representative is able to increase ad sizes and sales. He is very happy with his new job diversification. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Liz utilizing?

  1. A) rewarding more than punishing
  2. B) building on organization strengths
  3. C) emphasizing individual vitality and growth
  4. D) creating loose management oversight
  5. E) using narrow spans of control

 

103) Organizations that promote a spiritual culture ________.

  1. A) use stories for transmitting the organizational culture to the employees
  2. B) use wide spans of control
  3. C) recognize that people seek to find meaning and purpose in their work
  4. D) de-emphasize community differences within the organization
  5. E) tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction

104) Which of the following terms refers to the recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community?

  1. A) dominant culture
  2. B) fundamental mechanism
  3. C) workplace spirituality
  4. D) outcome orientation
  5. E) subculture

105) Art-Is-Us claims to be a spiritual organization. Company employees are encouraged to show kindness toward others. Employees are treated with esteem and value and supported for their creativity and flexibility. While the organization values profits, its purpose is to spread the pleasure of art to as many people as possible. Which of the following is not one of the cultural characteristics commonly found in spiritual organizations?

  1. A) benevolence
  2. B) competitiveness
  3. C) open-mindedness
  4. D) trust and respect
  5. E) strong sense of purpose

 

106) An organizational culture that encourages its managers to engage in severe competition and discourages them from taking risks and innovating is most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members.

107) A positive organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth.

108) Workplace spirituality recognizes that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work in the context of community.

 

109) Spiritual organizations discourage flexible thinking and creativity among employees.

 

110) What can management do to create a more ethical culture within an organization?

111) Explain the characteristics of a positive organizational culture.

 

112) Compare and contrast an ethical organizational culture and a positive organizational culture. How are they similar and different?

113) What is workplace spirituality?

 

114) What are the characteristics of a spiritual organization?

 

115) How can U.S. managers be culturally sensitive?

  1. A) by indulging in frequent discussions about religion
  2. B) by discussing politics frequently
  3. C) by listening more
  4. D) by speaking quickly
  5. E) by talking in a high tone of voice

116) Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on organizational culture and ethical behavior within an organization?

  1. A) As compared to managers in the United States, managers in developing economies are less likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in a social environment.
  2. B) Organizations can safely ignore local culture while establishing its operation in another country.
  3. C) Generally, U.S. managers see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical.
  4. D) Organizational cultures rarely reflect national culture.
  5. E) Most U.S. managers do not view profit maximization as a moral obligation.

 

117) Explain the difference between a typical U.S. manager’s point of view of ethical behavior and that of a manager in a developing economy and the implications of the difference.

 

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 17   Human Resource Policies and Practices

 

1) Which of the following is most likely to be used for preliminary “rough cuts” to decide whether an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job?

  1. A) drug test
  2. B) application form
  3. C) HR interview
  4. D) written test
  5. E) technical interview

 

2) Charlie Woods started working for E-Z Freeze, a major frozen food company, as a college intern. Most recently, Charlie had held the position of VP Marketing. Now however, as a result of a change in corporate leadership, Charlie finds himself unemployed for the first time in decades. Looking for a new job has been an eye-opening experience for Charlie. He has been especially frustrated with his lack of success in getting even a call back for the applications he has completed online. Which of the following best describes why Charlie may not be getting the initial feedback he thinks he should be receiving?

  1. A) His online applications don’t have the right keywords.
  2. B) His background checks have been negative.
  3. C) He is unwilling to relocate.
  4. D) He lacks cross-company experience.
  5. E) He lacks cultural diversity.

3) Which of the following is a form of background check?

  1. A) aptitude test
  2. B) offer letter
  3. C) letters of recommendation
  4. D) application form
  5. E) work-sample test

 

4) Performance-simulation tests have lower face validity (which measures whether applicants perceive the measures to be accurate) than written tests.

 

5) In assessment centers, candidates are evaluated as they go through several days of exercises that simulate real problems they would confront on the job.

 

6) Some of the most effective recruiting techniques include internal referrals, internship programs, and other methods that give potential applicants enough information to adequately evaluate the roles they may be occupying.

7) Stefan is looking for a job. Today he went to the Web site of Qriosity Inc., where he filled out an online application and attached a copy of his resume. In which part of the selection process is Stefan?

  1. A) physical selection
  2. B) job offer
  3. C) initial selection
  4. D) contingent selection
  5. E) substantive selection

 

8) Which of the following is most likely to be an initial selection device?

  1. A) technical interview
  2. B) drug test
  3. C) written test
  4. D) background check
  5. E) work-sample test

Scarlett has received authorization to add an assistant manager to her department. This person will be working closely with Scarlett and must have excellent interpersonal as well as technical skills. Scarlett wants to make certain that she maximizes the chance of choosing the correct individual and is trying to decide on the most appropriate selection device.

 

9) Which of the following is most likely to be used by Scarlett during the initial selection stage to check if an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job?

  1. A) assessment center
  2. B) drug test
  3. C) application form
  4. D) work-sample test
  5. E) integrity test

 

10) The goal of initial selection is to determine the most qualified applicants from among those who meet basic qualifications.

11) Letters of recommendation are a form of background check.

12) Define initial selection and identify the devices used during the initial selection stage.

13) During a selection process, the ________ selection stage immediately follows the initial selection stage.

  1. A) cognitive
  2. B) associative
  3. C) analytic
  4. D) behavioral
  5. E) substantive

 

14) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were characterized as ________.

  1. A) unprofessional
  2. B) discriminatory
  3. C) unreliable
  4. D) invalid
  5. E) mathematically flawed

15) Which of the following have/has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that include cognitively complex tasks?

  1. A) intelligence tests
  2. B) integrity evaluations
  3. C) work sampling
  4. D) drug tests
  5. E) behavioral assessment

16) Written tests are used during the ________ stage of the selection process.

  1. A) cognitive
  2. B) associative
  3. C) analytic
  4. D) substantive
  5. E) initial

 

17) Performance-simulation tests have higher ________, which measures whether applicants perceive the measures to be accurate.

  1. A) nominal validity
  2. B) nominal reasonability
  3. C) face cognitivity
  4. D) face validity
  5. E) face legitimacy

18) Elaborate sets of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a candidate’s managerial potential are ________.

  1. A) less effective than work sampling
  2. B) administered in assessment centers
  3. C) similar to personality tests
  4. D) considered drawbacks of some management development programs
  5. E) likely to skew the results of behavioral samples

19) Assessment centers are typically used to evaluate a candidate’s ________ potential.

  1. A) linguistic
  2. B) technical
  3. C) cognitive
  4. D) managerial
  5. E) analytical

 

20) Which of the following tends to have a disproportionate amount of influence on employee selection decisions?

  1. A) interview
  2. B) written test
  3. C) performance-simulation test
  4. D) work sampling method
  5. E) personality test

 

21) Applicants describe how they handled specific problems and situations in previous jobs in a(n) ________ interview.

  1. A) behavioral structured
  2. B) audition-type
  3. C) performance-simulation
  4. D) problem-solving
  5. E) reflection

22) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding behavioral structured interviews?

  1. A) They are most useful when interviewing knowledge workers.
  2. B) They increase an interviewer’s reliance on his or her “gut feelings.”
  3. C) They are conducted in a similar manner as audition-type interviews.
  4. D) They are useful only for interviewing nonskilled workers.
  5. E) They increase the effectiveness of the interview technique.

 

23) The behavioral structured interview is built on the assumption that ________.

  1. A) past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
  2. B) technical knowledge and skills are the best predictor of job performance
  3. C) personality is the best predictor of job performance
  4. D) personality and mood are highly correlated
  5. E) technical knowledge and job performance are highly correlated

 

24) In order to assess the management skills of the applicants, Scarlet should ________.

  1. A) use an assessment center
  2. B) verify the applicants’ job histories
  3. C) conduct a medical test
  4. D) conduct a drug test
  5. E) conduct a behavioral assessment test

25) Which of the following is a common contingent selection method?

  1. A) IQ test
  2. B) interview
  3. C) interest inventory
  4. D) drug test
  5. E) work-sample test

26) Drug testing is controversial. Which of the following is an argument used against drug testing?

  1. A) The results of drug tests can be faked easily.
  2. B) Drug use is a private matter.
  3. C) Drug tests are costly.
  4. D) Drug tests are generally inaccurate.
  5. E) Drug tests are injurious to a person’s health.

 

27) Due to the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act, job applicants ________.

  1. A) can be subjected to a drug test only if they are being considered for senior-level management positions
  2. B) are never required to submit to a physical exam for a job
  3. C) cannot be subjected to a work-sample test after a contingent job offer
  4. D) cannot be subjected to behavioral assessment tests before a contingent offer
  5. E) may be required to undergo a medical examination after they receive a contingent offer

28) Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices?

  1. A) Structured interviews are popular in all countries.
  2. B) Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across countries.
  3. C) The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice.
  4. D) Employee selection policies and practices do not require modification from one country to another.
  5. E) Individuals are typically much more effective at selecting candidates than groups.

 

29) Substantive selection methods are the heart of the selection process and include written tests, performance tests, and interviews.

 

30) A test that measures factors such as dependability, carefulness, responsibility, and honesty is referred to as a task variability test.

 

31) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, firms cannot require employees to pass a medical exam before or after a job offer is made.

32) Describe and discuss three substantive selection devices used to assess job candidates once they have passed an initial screening.

 

33) Briefly explain any three types of written tests that are typically used in the employee selection process.

34) Describe and discuss work-sample tests and assessment centers and the contexts in which they can be used effectively.

 

35) Describe disadvantages of the selection interview.

36) Compare and contrast unstructured interview and behavioral structured interview.

 

37) Describe the contingent selection stage in the selection process.

38) Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee’s ________ skills.

  1. A) financial
  2. B) technical
  3. C) problem-solving
  4. D) interpersonal
  5. E) social

 

39) By training employees on how to be better listeners, organizations attempt to improve their ________ skills.

  1. A) ethical
  2. B) technical
  3. C) problem-solving
  4. D) interpersonal
  5. E) cultural

 

40) Lewis is a sales representative for his company. He is attending a company training program about the types of expenses that are considered legal deductions for tax purposes and how to distinguish between personal expenses and business expenses. Lewis is attending training to improve his ________ skills.

  1. A) literacy
  2. B) problem-solving
  3. C) interpersonal
  4. D) ethical
  5. E) technical

41) Your organization is situated in an urban area where many students do not finish high school. You will probably first have to address the skill category termed ________ skills.

  1. A) basic
  2. B) technical
  3. C) interpersonal
  4. D) problem-solving
  5. E) managerial

 

42) Your organization has reduced layers, flattening the organization. Your employees now need to perform a wider variety of tasks. As a result, you need to provide employees with training to help develop their ________ skills.

  1. A) basic literacy
  2. B) technical
  3. C) interpersonal
  4. D) problem solving
  5. E) communication

43) You are introducing self-managed teams and implementing quality-management programs. It would be important to conduct training in ________ skills.

  1. A) basic literacy
  2. B) technical
  3. C) interpersonal
  4. D) problem-solving
  5. E) interdependence

 

44) Dunder Mifflin Inc. is considering implementing employee ethics training programs. Some members of senior management are opposed to these programs. Their opposition is most likely based on which of the following beliefs?

  1. A) Ethics training is very expensive.
  2. B) Ethics change from country to country.
  3. C) Individual value systems are fixed at an early age.
  4. D) Integrity cannot be taught by example.
  5. E) Ethics training does not help employees to recognize ethical dilemmas.

45) ________ training involves employees helping each other out at the workplace in an unplanned and unstructured environment.

  1. A) Formal
  2. B) Ethics
  3. C) Interpersonal
  4. D) Informal
  5. E) Classroom

46) Which of the following is an on-the-job training method?

  1. A) live classroom lectures
  2. B) apprenticeships
  3. C) public seminars
  4. D) podcasts
  5. E) self-study programs

 

47) Which of the following is an off-the-job training method?

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) formal mentoring programs
  3. C) Internet courses
  4. D) job enlargement
  5. E) apprenticeship

48) Which of the following is most likely to be the fastest growing training medium?

  1. A) job rotation
  2. B) live classroom lectures
  3. C) apprenticeships
  4. D) formal mentoring program
  5. E) e-training

49) You have just been appointed as director of your company’s corporate training division. The CEO of your company has been displeased with your company’s prior training programs, so you are tasked with rehauling the entire training division. You convene a meeting of all training division managers to decide on the types of training that the division will implement. One of your managers is a firm supporter of e-training programs for employees in your company’s international offices. He touts the benefits of e-programs by stressing that ________.

  1. A) e-training approaches have been proven to result in higher levels of knowledge assimilation
  2. B) e-training is highly flexible and employees can complete the training at their convenience
  3. C) many employees find solitary learning to be highly motivating
  4. D) online learners are less susceptible to distractions
  5. E) e-programs are inexpensive to design and implement

 

50) Technical training has become increasingly important because of changes in organizational design.

 

51) Most formal training involves employees simply helping each other out.

 

52) A formal mentoring program is an example of an off-the-job training method.

53) Examples of incivility include being ignored, being blamed for others’ mistakes and receiving no credit for your achievements, having your reputation undermined in front of others, and experiencing other situations meant to demean or disparage you or others.

 

54) Describe the four general skill categories addressed by most employee training activities.

55) Provide a workplace example of informal training for technical skills and another for problem-solving skills.

56) Compare and contrast between on-the-job training and off-the-job training.

57) Discuss e-learning and its advantages and disadvantages.

58) Imagine that you are a manager of a multifaceted manufacturing operation with a new crew of twenty arriving for training. The crew is comprised of different types of learners. Describe a training program comprised of three different sessions that would cater to four different individual learning styles. State whether each of the training sessions would be on-the-job or off-the-job training and whether it is formal or informal.

 

59) Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work. Which of the following are these three major types of behavior?

  1. A) task performance, productivity, tenure
  2. B) productivity, efficiency, absenteeism
  3. C) task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity
  4. D) citizenship, counterproductivity, personality
  5. E) leadership, knowledge, efficiency

60) Treating co-workers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive things about the workplace are a part of the ________ behavior that constitutes performance at work.

  1. A) citizenship
  2. B) counterproductivity
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) deviant workplace
  5. E) satisficing

61) ________ refers to actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization, such as helping others when not required.

  1. A) Citizenship
  2. B) Counterproductivity
  3. C) Satisficing
  4. D) Social loafing
  5. E) Groupthink

 

62) Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the company’s decision?

  1. A) The majority of the company employees have only a basic level of education.
  2. B) The company recently instituted a technical skills improvement program for shop floor employees.
  3. C) A top recruitment agency recently sent the company details of prospective college candidates.
  4. D) Several top performing entry level employees have received offers from rival companies.
  5. E) A majority of the company’s employees are reaching the age of retirement.

63) Which of the following, if true, will weaken the company’s decision?

  1. A) The majority of the company’s employees have only a basic level of education.
  2. B) The company recently instituted a technical skills improvement program for shop floor employees.
  3. C) The existing shop floor employees have high potential and personal ambition to rise in their careers.
  4. D) Sirius Corp. just opened a new manufacturing facility in New Mexico.
  5. E) Several top performing entry level employees have received offers from rival companies.

 

64) Which of the following terms refers to the actions that actively damage the organization, including stealing, behaving aggressively toward co-workers, and being late or absent?

  1. A) citizenship
  2. B) counterproductivity
  3. C) task orientation
  4. D) satisficing
  5. E) groupthink

65) Performance evaluations are used to ________.

  1. A) improve group cohesiveness
  2. B) define departmental structure
  3. C) help management make HR decisions
  4. D) identify how jobs are completed
  5. E) decrease conformity within organizations

 

66) Which of the following is the least predictive set of criteria used to evaluate employees?

  1. A) traits
  2. B) task outcomes
  3. C) behaviors
  4. D) personality
  5. E) technical skills

 

67) The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed ________.

  1. A) critical incidents
  2. B) 360-degree evaluation
  3. C) assessment center
  4. D) multiperson comparisons
  5. E) downward evaluation

68) Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete?

  1. A) written essays
  2. B) critical incidents
  3. C) graphic rating scales
  4. D) behaviorally anchored rating scales
  5. E) assessment center rating

 

69) Which of the following evaluation methods focuses the evaluator’s attention on those behaviors that are key to executing a job effectively?

  1. A) forced comparison
  2. B) critical incident
  3. C) graphic rating scale
  4. D) behaviorally anchored rating scale
  5. E) written essay

 

70) If a manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then ________.

  1. A) the employees generally receive poor ratings
  2. B) the evaluator’s writing skills become the determining factor of the evaluation
  3. C) the employees are more likely to become motivated to achieve their goals
  4. D) the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors
  5. E) the cost of the evaluation is likely to be incredibly high for the organization

 

71) Which of the following methods of performance evaluation allows for quantitative analysis and comparison?

  1. A) critical incident
  2. B) graphic rating scale
  3. C) assessment center evaluation
  4. D) written essay
  5. E) group order ranking

 

72) When an appraiser rates employees based on items on a continuum with the points reflecting actual behaviors on a given job, this type of evaluation is called ________.

  1. A) BARS
  2. B) critical incident
  3. C) graphic rating scale
  4. D) group order ranking
  5. E) assessment center evaluation

 

73) ________ involves evaluating one’s performance against the performance of one or more others.

  1. A) BARS
  2. B) The critical incident method
  3. C) An assessment center evaluation
  4. D) Forced comparison
  5. E) Likert analysis

74) ________ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth.

  1. A) Individual
  2. B) Group order
  3. C) Paired
  4. D) Fractional
  5. E) Percentile

 

75) Which approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst?

  1. A) individual ranking
  2. B) group order ranking
  3. C) paired comparison
  4. D) straight ranking
  5. E) associative ranking

 

76) Which of the following performance evaluation methods is often used in recommending students to graduate schools?

  1. A) written essays
  2. B) critical incident analysis
  3. C) BARS
  4. D) group order ranking
  5. E) graphic rating scales

77) Which of the following is a forced comparison method of performance evaluation?

  1. A) written essays
  2. B) trait evaluations
  3. C) group order ranking
  4. D) critical incident method
  5. E) graphic rating scales

 

78) Jeeves Consulting requires a performance evaluation method that is less time consuming to develop and administer and allows for quantitative analysis and comparison. An appropriate evaluation technique for Jeeves Consulting would be ________.

  1. A) written essays
  2. B) trait evaluations
  3. C) forced comparisons
  4. D) 360-degree evaluations
  5. E) graphic rating scales

 

79) The concept of ________ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.

  1. A) selective evaluation
  2. B) due process
  3. C) multiple raters
  4. D) selective retention
  5. E) counterproductivity

80) Marcel hates the annual review process he has to do for the employees in his department. Although he is fully aware of some of his employees’ faults, he is reluctant to discuss them in person, and is only comfortable writing them in an unsigned report that his supervisor will review. Marcel’s behavior demonstrates ________.

  1. A) provision of due process
  2. B) inflated assessment of employee performance
  3. C) organizational citizenship behavior
  4. D) managerial sincerity
  5. E) fear of confrontation

81) Companies in which of the following countries would emphasize formal performance evaluation systems more than informal systems?

  1. A) Argentina
  2. B) United States
  3. C) Chile
  4. D) India
  5. E) China

 

82) Formal performance appraisals are used more frequently in countries that ________.

  1. A) value status quo and rigidity
  2. B) are low in assertiveness
  3. C) are low in uncertainty avoidance
  4. D) are low in in-group collectivism
  5. E) have long-term orientation

 

83) Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.

 

84) The critical incidents method of performance evaluation focuses the evaluator’s attention on the difference between executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively.

 

85) Graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow for quantitative analysis and comparison.

86) The group order ranking method of performance evaluation combines major elements from the critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches.

 

87) Due process systems provide individuals with adequate notice of what is expected of them.

 

88) The performance review should be designed more as a counseling activity than as a judgment process.

 

89) What are the three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work?

90) What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations?

 

91) What are the three most popular sets of criteria for evaluating employee performance?

 

92) Describe and discuss the use of written essays as a means of performance evaluation.

93) Describe and discuss the critical incidents method of performance evaluation.

94) Describe and discuss the two most popular forced comparison methods of performance evaluation.

95) Provide some suggestions for improving performance evaluations.

96) Sophia is a valued employee in your department. She is positive and dependable but lacks ambition and has stagnated in her position this year. She also is consistently late on deadlines, although the work she turns in is usually flawless. Choose one of the performance evaluation methods discussed in the chapter and use it to evaluate the three most popular sets of criteria for Sophia. Explain why your evaluation method is strong or weak and how it could be improved.

 

97) Which of the following is not an ideal feature of a benefit program?

  1. A) It should be uniquely suited to the organizational culture.
  2. B) It should be sustainable in the long run.
  3. C) It should clearly outline expectations for conduct.
  4. D) It should reflect the values of the organization.
  5. E) It should demonstrate economic feasibility.

98) Work-life conflicts became noticeable in the 1980s when ________.

  1. A) the rate of inflation started increasing
  2. B) baby boomers’ parents began to age
  3. C) men started giving more importance to family time
  4. D) workloads became historically heavier
  5. E) women, with dependent children, started entering the workforce

 

100) Which of the following is one of the techniques used by organizations to make their workplace more family-friendly?

  1. A) telecommuting
  2. B) job enlargement
  3. C) classroom training
  4. D) mentoring program
  5. E) job rotation

101) Ozu Tech offers employees four unpaid weeks sabbatical, or three to six partially paid weeks off for family-related reasons. This work-life initiative offered by Ozu Tech is a type of ________.

  1. A) time based strategy
  2. B) information based strategy
  3. C) money-based strategy
  4. D) direct service
  5. E) culture-change strategy

102) Biozone provides its employees career counseling, skills workshops, and networking sessions. This work-life initiative used by Biozone falls under the category of ________.

  1. A) direct services
  2. B) time based strategies
  3. C) information based strategies
  4. D) money-based strategies
  5. E) culture-change strategies

 

103) Which of the following work-life initiatives is an example of a culture-change strategy?

  1. A) offering flexible benefits
  2. B) tying manager pay to employee satisfaction
  3. C) allowing job sharing
  4. D) providing fitness center
  5. E) providing counseling services

104) Which of the following work-life initiatives is a direct service?

  1. A) elder care resources
  2. B) adoption assistance
  3. C) job sharing
  4. D) direct financial assistance
  5. E) onsite child care

 

105) The government passes a new law requiring all companies to offer employees unpaid time off to care for their children. This would harm the economic competitiveness of the nation’s businesses as companies must be free to set their own employment policies without mandated parental-leave regulations. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument?

  1. A) A parental-leave law will serve to strengthen the family as a social institution in this country.
  2. B) Most businesses in the country already offer employees some form of parental leave.
  3. C) Some of the countries with the most economically competitive businesses have strong parental-leave regulations.
  4. D) The proposed parental-leave law does not apply to small-scale industries.
  5. E) In most polls, a majority of citizens say they favor passage of a parental-leave law.

106) When employees can see a clear explanation of the HR philosophy and system as an employer’s expression of concern, then the positive feelings that result have been shown to increase commitment, retention, and engagement.

 

107) Workaholism is the tendency to think constantly about work off the job and to feel compelled to work excessive hours.

 

108) Employees who think HR practices are established to improve performance and benefit workers reciprocate these feelings with greater commitment and performance.

 

109) Communication is the bridge for HR to demonstrate fairness intentions.

110) Discuss the problems underlying the work-life conflict and explain some of the techniques that an organization can use to help employees achieve the work-life balance.

 

 

Organizational Behavior, 17e (Robbins)

Chapter 18   Organizational Change and Stress Management

 

1) An example of change in the nature of the workforce is an increase in ________.

  1. A) college attendance
  2. B) mergers and consolidations
  3. C) capital investment
  4. D) divorce rates
  5. E) cultural diversity

 

2) Organizations are increasingly adjusting their processes and positioning their products as environment friendly and sustainable in order to increase their appeal to consumers. This is a response to changes in ________.

  1. A) demographic trends
  2. B) social trends
  3. C) cultural trends
  4. D) legal requirements
  5. E) nature of the workforce

3) Tescra Education is an educational publishing company that provides textbooks in the area of higher education. The company has been in business for almost 20 years now and has earned substantial profits during this period. Which of the following trends, if true, would drive the company to change its business strategy?

  1. A) a rise in the cost of electronic products such as iPads and e-book readers and subscription charges for educational apps
  2. B) an upward trend in students’ preference for face-to-face interaction with instructors using traditional classroom learning techniques
  3. C) a need for learning environments where students feel safe to apply the knowledge they’ve acquired in the classroom to real-life situations
  4. D) a decrease in the number of people going back to school to upgrade their skills, due to an economic boom
  5. E) an increase in the number of laws and regulations related to intellectual property

 

4) Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that Fony Corp. should upgrade its technology?

  1. A) The market for consumer electronics such as laptops, cameras, cell phones, and other similar gadgets is in the late maturity stage.
  2. B) Fony will be able to recover the cost of the new technology within eight years.
  3. C) Fony’s main client account is at risk after the client had to recall nearly 2 million notebooks owing to defective batteries.
  4. D) The existing technology is currently functioning at the optimal level and the cost of maintenance is minimal.
  5. E) Fony last upgraded its technology six years ago and it has an adequate budget to fund the acquisition.

5) Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument that Fony Corp. should upgrade its technology?

  1. A) Employees fear that the new technology will render them obsolete.
  2. B) The company will be able to recover the cost of the technology within four years of implementation.
  3. C) The new technology is expected to reduce the company’s overall cost of production.
  4. D) The company’s main client is threatening legal action after it had to recall nearly 2 million notebooks owing to defective batteries.
  5. E) The technology which the company is considering adopting was recently developed and has not yet been successfully implemented in a real business context.

 

6) An example of change in competition is ________.

  1. A) U.S. manufactured Toyota vehicles
  2. B) collapse of Enron Corporation
  3. C) Iraq-U.S. war
  4. D) increased interest in urban living
  5. E) a decrease in interest rates

7) A paper sales company designs and offers a new method of purchasing and shipping commercial quantities of paper through its Web site. The company used to do its business through its sales representative. This is an example of a(n) ________ change.

  1. A) accidental
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) planned
  4. D) cognitive
  5. E) integrated

 

8) ________ are persons who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing refinement activities.

  1. A) Early adopters
  2. B) Free riders
  3. C) Laggards
  4. D) Change agents
  5. E) Whistle-blowers

9) Management of a company threatens to close a manufacturing plant in the company whose employees are resisting an across-the-board pay cut. But this threat is actually untrue. In this case, which of the following tactics of overcoming resistance to change is being used by the management?

  1. A) procedural fairness
  2. B) negotiation
  3. C) conciliation
  4. D) manipulation
  5. E) arbitration

10) Companies with dominant market share are less susceptible to the forces of change than smaller businesses.

 

11) Change is not as inevitable for companies as it is for individuals.

 

 

12) What are the various forces that make it necessary for organizations to change?

 

13) Who are change agents?

14) Define change agent and describe where change is most likely to come from. Compare who is most likely to be an agent of change and who is most likely to resist change. Explain your answer.

 

15) Which of the following reactions from employees is preferable as a response to change?

  1. A) silence
  2. B) apathy
  3. C) resignation
  4. D) open discussion
  5. E) increase in the use of sick time

16) It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is ________.

  1. A) concealed
  2. B) deferred
  3. C) passive
  4. D) implicit
  5. E) overt

 

17) A(n) ________ resistance to change clouds the link between the change and the reaction to it and may surface weeks, months, or even years later.

  1. A) overt
  2. B) immediate
  3. C) active
  4. D) explicit
  5. E) deferred

 

18) Which of the following resistances to change is overt and immediate?

  1. A) loss of loyalty
  2. B) increased absenteeism
  3. C) loss of motivation
  4. D) increased error
  5. E) complaint

19) Which of the following resistances to change is implicit?

  1. A) strike
  2. B) increased error
  3. C) resignation
  4. D) complaint
  5. E) work slowdown

 

20) Organizations have built-in mechanisms—like their selection processes and formalized regulations—to produce stability. When an organization is confronted with change, these mechanisms act as a counterbalance to sustain stability. Which of the following organizational sources of resistance to change is represented by these mechanisms?

  1. A) group inertia
  2. B) selective information processing
  3. C) employee-orientation
  4. D) structural inertia
  5. E) product-orientation

 

21) Which of the following is an example of an individual source of resistance to change?

  1. A) limited focus of change
  2. B) product orientation
  3. C) fear of the unknown
  4. D) structural inertia
  5. E) employee orientation

22) As a result of changing technology and unstable environment, your company is planning to undertake restructuring of the business. The employees in your company are worried about this upcoming change and many of them are anxious due to a fear that they will lose their jobs as a result of this change. But that is not the case. The company only wants to restructure its business units, and it is not planning to cut down on jobs. In such a situation, which of the following techniques is most likely to be used by your company to deal with the employees’ resistance to change?

  1. A) implementing changes fairly
  2. B) education and communication
  3. C) participation
  4. D) manipulation and cooptation
  5. E) coercion

23) Which of the following is an example of an organizational source of resistance to change?

  1. A) limited focus of change
  2. B) security
  3. C) fear of the unknown
  4. D) selective information processing
  5. E) habit

Answer:  A

Explanation:  A) Organizational sources of resistance to change include structural inertia, limited focus of change, group inertia, threat to expertise, threat to established power relationships, and

24) Limited focus of change is a major source of resistance to change that originates from an organizational source. It indicates that ________.

  1. A) groups in the organization that control sizable resources often resist change
  2. B) changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups so these groups tend to resist change
  3. C) organizations have structural inertia that acts as a counterbalance to sustain stability
  4. D) organizations consist of a number of interdependent subsystems and one can’t be changed without affecting the others
  5. E) even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint

 

25) Selective information processing is a major source of resistance to change. It indicates that ________.

  1. A) changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized groups so these groups tend to resist change
  2. B) individuals hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges the world they’ve created
  3. C) limited changes in subsystems tend to be nullified by the larger system
  4. D) groups in the organization that control sizable resources often resist change
  5. E) even if individuals want to change their behavior, group norms may act as a constraint

26) After restructuring, your division has had trouble filling the open positions with appropriate candidates. The selection processes used by human resources have not yet adjusted to the new criteria required for the restructured job positions. This problem is an example of which kind of resistance to change?

  1. A) structural inertia
  2. B) limited focus of change
  3. C) group inertia
  4. D) threat to expertise
  5. E) threat to established power relationships

27) Which tactic for overcoming resistance to change basically assumes that the source of resistance lies in misinformation?

  1. A) implementing changes fairly
  2. B) participation
  3. C) education and communication
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) cooptation and manipulation

28) Which of the following tactics for overcoming resistance to change is most likely to be beneficial when employees’ fear and anxiety are high?

  1. A) manipulation
  2. B) building support and commitment
  3. C) participation
  4. D) implementing changes fairly
  5. E) coercion

29) Procedural fairness while implementing changes is especially important when ________.

  1. A) the organization is facing intense competition
  2. B) the employees have participated in the decision-making process
  3. C) the employees perceive the outcome as negative
  4. D) the environment in which the business operates is dynamic
  5. E) the employees are resisting the change due to group inertia

 

30) Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called ________.

  1. A) negotiation
  2. B) conciliation
  3. C) education
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) manipulation

31) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, this approach is called ________.

  1. A) cooptation
  2. B) exploitation
  3. C) arbitration
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) conciliation

32) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively inexpensive way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

  1. A) negotiation
  2. B) conciliation
  3. C) manipulation
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) arbitration

33) “Buying off” the leaders of a resistance group by giving them a key role and seeking their advice not to find a better solution but to get their endorsement is an example of ________.

  1. A) coercion
  2. B) cooptation
  3. C) procedural fairness
  4. D) distributive bargaining
  5. E) operant conditioning

34) The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called ________.

  1. A) negotiation
  2. B) cooptation
  3. C) manipulation
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) arbitration

 

35) You have brought in the local extension agent to explain demographics and the changing nature of the area in which you live. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

  1. A) education and communication
  2. B) participation
  3. C) negotiation
  4. D) manipulation and cooptation
  5. E) coercion

36) You have decided to involve the sales personnel in planning for the change and in stocking appropriate new items to sell to gardeners. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

  1. A) education and communication
  2. B) participation
  3. C) negotiation
  4. D) manipulation
  5. E) coercion

37) You have threatened to eliminate positions and even to close down the company if your sales personnel don’t change their attitudes. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________.

  1. A) education and communication
  2. B) participation
  3. C) negotiation
  4. D) coercion
  5. E) cooptation

 

38) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument to use coercive techniques in this situation?

  1. A) The company is on a tight deadline to complete a major project for an important client.
  2. B) The company is in its lean season and work volumes are low.
  3. C) The company can afford to hire temp workers to handle the backlog and complete the work on time.
  4. D) The company’s workforce is comprised of employees with highly specialized skill sets.
  5. E) Employees are demotivated because of the company’s stringent work culture.

 

39) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument to use coercive techniques in this situation?

  1. A) The company cannot afford to hire temp workers to handle the backlog and complete the work on time.
  2. B) The company has taken several efforts to improve the level of employee morale and motivation.
  3. C) The company’s current work volumes are quite high.
  4. D) The company recently learned that one of its clients utilizes the services of a rival content management firm.
  5. E) The company just finished its peak season, during which employees were required to work overtime and on weekends.

 

40) Underscoring the importance of social context, other work shows that even individuals who are generally resistant to change will be more willing to accept new and different ideas when they feel supported by their coworkers and believe the environment is safe for taking risks.

 

41) Resistance to change can be positive if it leads to open discussion and debate.

42) Cooptation combines manipulation and participation.

 

43) Employees are more accepting of changes when they are committed to the organization as a whole.

 

44) What are the various individual sources of resistance to change?

45) What are the various organizational sources of resistance to change?

46) Describe the various ways of overcoming resistance to change.

47) Describe the organizational factors that create stress and discuss how they compare to the factors of resistance to change. How are they similar and different? Are the methods for managing change useful for managing stress caused by organizational factors?

48) Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and refreezing?

  1. A) John Kotter
  2. B) David McClelland
  3. C) Douglas Surber
  4. D) Lawrence Summers
  5. E) Kurt Lewin

Answer:  E

Explanation:  E) Kurt Lewin argued that successful change in organizations should follow three steps: unfreezing the status quo, movement to a desired end state, and refreezing the new change to make it permanent.

LO:  18.3: Compare the four main approaches to managing organizational change.

Difficulty:  Easy

Quest. Category:  Concept

 

49) Which of the following is one of the three steps in the Lewin’s three-step change model?

  1. A) analysis
  2. B) movement
  3. C) evaluation
  4. D) dreaming
  5. E) designing

 

50) ________ is one way to achieve unfreezing of an organization’s status quo.

  1. A) Increasing the driving forces directing behavior away from the status quo
  2. B) Incorporating a structural inertia in the structure of the organization
  3. C) Increasing employee investment in the status quo
  4. D) Decreasing management’s investment in change
  5. E) Increasing the rigidity of the organizational hierarchy

51) Who built on Lewin’s three-step model to create a more detailed eight-step plan for implementing change?

  1. A) John Kotter
  2. B) David McClelland
  3. C) Douglas Surber
  4. D) Lawrence Summers
  5. E) Henry Mintzberg

52) Which of the following is the first step in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change?

  1. A) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.
  2. B) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.
  3. C) Plan for, create, and reward short-term “wins” that move the organization toward the new vision.
  4. D) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.
  5. E) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.

 

53) Which of the following is the last step in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change?

  1. A) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.
  2. B) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.
  3. C) Communicate the vision throughout the organization.
  4. D) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.
  5. E) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.

54) John Kotter built on Lewin’s three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing change. Which of the following steps in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change represents the unfreezing stage in Lewin’s three-step model?

  1. A) Plan for, create, and reward short-term “wins” that move the organization toward the new vision.
  2. B) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.
  3. C) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.
  4. D) Empower others to act on the vision by removing barriers to change and encouraging risk taking and creative problem solving.
  5. E) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

 

55) Which of the following steps in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change represents the movement stage in Lewin’s three-step model?

  1. A) Establish a sense of urgency by creating a compelling reason for why change is needed.
  2. B) Plan for, create, and reward short-term “wins” that propel the organization toward the new vision.
  3. C) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change.
  4. D) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.
  5. E) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

56) Which of the following steps in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change represents the refreezing stage in Lewin’s three-step model?

  1. A) Plan for, create, and reward short-term “wins” that move the organization toward the new vision.
  2. B) Consolidate improvements, reassess changes, and make necessary adjustments in the new programs.
  3. C) Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision.
  4. D) Empower others to act on the vision by removing barriers to change and encouraging risk taking and creative problem solving.
  5. E) Reinforce the changes by demonstrating the relationship between new behaviors and organizational success.

57) ________ is a change process based on systematic collection of data and selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicate.

  1. A) Organizational development
  2. B) Action research
  3. C) Planned change
  4. D) Process consultation
  5. E) Organizational restructuring

58) The step in the action research process where information is gathered about problems, concerns, and needed changes is known as the ________ stage.

  1. A) feedback
  2. B) evaluation
  3. C) diagnosis
  4. D) action
  5. E) prognosis

59) ________ is a collection of change methods that seek to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being.

  1. A) Organizational development
  2. B) Organizational polarization
  3. C) Operant conditioning
  4. D) Organizational restructuring
  5. E) Action research

 

60) The deemphasizing of hierarchical authority and control in organizational development is referred to as ________.

  1. A) horizontal integration
  2. B) power equalization
  3. C) trust and support
  4. D) respect for people
  5. E) vertical blending

 

 

61) ________ is a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction.

  1. A) Action research
  2. B) Planned modification
  3. C) Process consultation
  4. D) Sensitivity training
  5. E) Psychoanalysis

62) Which of the following is an organizational development technique that involves an outsider assisting a manager to identify what to improve and how?

  1. A) action research
  2. B) intergroup development
  3. C) appreciative inquiry
  4. D) process consultation
  5. E) social reinforcement

63) Rather than looking for problems, ________ seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance.

  1. A) appreciative inquiry
  2. B) action research
  3. C) team building
  4. D) process consultation
  5. E) social reinforcement

 

64) Which of the following is a step in the appreciative inquiry process?

  1. A) analysis
  2. B) dreaming
  3. C) inferring
  4. D) classifying
  5. E) collaboration

65) Appreciative inquiry (AI) is an organizational development technique. Which of the following statements is true regarding appreciative inquiry?

  1. A) It tries to identify discrepancies among member perceptions and solve these differences.
  2. B) It uses high-interaction group activities to increase trust and openness among team members, improve coordinative efforts, and increase team performance.
  3. C) It involves an outside consultant who helps the manager to analyze processes within his or her unit and identify what to improve and how.
  4. D) It consists of four steps including discovery, dreaming, design, and destiny.
  5. E) It seeks to change groups’ attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions about each other.

 

66) Which of the following steps of the appreciative inquiry attempts to identify what people think are the organization’s strengths?

  1. A) dreaming
  2. B) destiny
  3. C) collaboration
  4. D) inferring
  5. E) discovery

 

67) During the dreaming step of appreciative inquiry, participants ________.

  1. A) identify the organization’s strengths
  2. B) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures
  3. C) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future
  4. D) write action plans and develop implementation strategies
  5. E) recount times they felt the organization worked best

68) During the design step of appreciative inquiry, participants ________.

  1. A) find a common vision of how the organization will look in the future
  2. B) use information from the discovery phase to speculate on possible futures
  3. C) identify the organization’s strengths
  4. D) recount times they felt the organization worked best
  5. E) write action plans and develop implementation strategies

69) Appreciative inquiry refers to a change process based on the systematic collection of data and selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicates.

70) Organizational development (OD) is a collection of change methods that try to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being.

 

71) Sensitivity training emphasizes changing behavior through structured group interaction.

72) In the case of process consultation, the consultants do not solve the organization’s problems but rather guide or coach the client to solve his or her own problems after jointly diagnosing what needs improvement.

73) Intergroup development seeks to change groups’ attitudes, stereotypes, and perceptions that groups have of each other.

 

74) Appreciative inquiry involves identifying and fixing problems.

75) Describe Lewin’s three-step model used for managing change.

76) List the eight steps in Kotter’s eight-step plan for implementing change.

77) What is organizational development? What are the various values on which the organizational development techniques are based?

78) What are the various organizational development techniques?

79) Describe the process of appreciative inquiry (AI).

80) Compare and contrast the AI strategy for managing change and the double-loop learning organization focused on creating change. How are they similar and different?

81) Which of the following types of changes involves a new idea being applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service?

  1. A) continuous improvement
  2. B) double-loop learning
  3. C) innovation
  4. D) process reengineering
  5. E) organizational streaming

82) Which of the following statements is true regarding innovation in organizations?

  1. A) Organic structures negatively influence innovation.
  2. B) Interunit communication is low in innovative organizations.
  3. C) Short tenure in management is associated with innovation.
  4. D) Innovation is nurtured when there is an abundance of resources.
  5. E) Innovative organizations reward both successes and failures.

83) Bart has a new idea for a way to cut costs in his department, but he is not willing to share his idea with his boss because the last department head that tried new cost cutting methods was recently fired because the new methods could not achieve expected results. Based on the example, how can Bart’s company improve the culture to create innovation?

  1. A) flatten the organizational structure
  2. B) reward both successes and failures
  3. C) increase the resources in Bart’s department
  4. D) encourage communication between various departments
  5. E) conduct team-building activities

84) Which of the following actions can extinguish risk taking and innovation?

  1. A) long tenure in management
  2. B) encouraging experimentation
  3. C) rewarding for the absence of failures rather than for the presence of successes
  4. D) using organic organizational structures
  5. E) using an organizational structure that scores low on vertical differentiation, formalization, and centralization

85) Brian’s team just had a research breakthrough. They’ll need several thousands of dollars to complete the project. Brian has called a series of meetings in which he’s promoting the significance of the new discovery, explaining the economic benefits that will result from the final project, and answering questions. Brian is a(n) ________ within his company.

  1. A) change agent
  2. B) arbitrator
  3. C) manipulator
  4. D) idea champion
  5. E) stress creator

 

86) Idea champions display characteristics associated with ________ leadership.

  1. A) narcissistic
  2. B) transformational
  3. C) autocratic
  4. D) transactional
  5. E) laissez-faire

87) ________ involves correcting errors using past routines and present policies.

  1. A) Process reengineering
  2. B) Single-loop learning
  3. C) Circular logrolling
  4. D) Double-loop learning
  5. E) Organizational restructuring

88) ________ involves correcting errors by modifying the organization’s objectives, policies, and standard routines.

  1. A) Action research
  2. B) Double-loop learning
  3. C) Process reengineering
  4. D) Single-loop learning
  5. E) Organizational restructuring

 

89) In order to make their firm a learning organization, managers should ________.

  1. A) increase the number of hierarchical levels in the organization
  2. B) avoid the use of cross-functional teams
  3. C) penalize mistakes
  4. D) increase the degree of departmentalization
  5. E) redesign the organizational structure

90) Belonging creates paradoxes between establishing a sense of collective identity and acknowledging our desire to be recognized and accepted as unique individuals.

91) Paradox theory states the key paradox in management is that there is no final optimal status for an organization.

 

92) Short tenure in management is associated with innovation.

93) Passion for change among entrepreneurs is greatest when work roles and the social environment encourage them to put their creative identities forward.

 

94) Double-loop learning is an error correction process that relies on past routines and present policies.

95) Learning organizations use single-loop learning.

 

96) Where the allostatic load is too great and too prolonged, we may experience psychological or physiological stress symptoms.

 

97) What are the various structural variables that facilitate innovation?

98) ________ is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, demand, or resource related to what the individual desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important.

  1. A) Change
  2. B) Stress
  3. C) Innovation
  4. D) Stimulation
  5. E) Creativity

 

99) Which of the following stressors is likely to produce less strain than the other stressors?

  1. A) confusion over job responsibilities
  2. B) office politics
  3. C) lack of unity of command
  4. D) red tape
  5. E) pressure to complete tasks

100) One of Carl’s department employees was severely injured on the job. Carl has called in psychological counselors to talk to the other employees and scheduled a series of safety trainings for the department to be completed by the end of the week. He has also asked the HR personnel to talk to the department about the disability insurance that the company offers and make sure that his employees know what is available. Carl is using ________ to help cope with the stress caused by his employee’s injury.

  1. A) demands
  2. B) action research
  3. C) resources
  4. D) innovation
  5. E) appreciative inquiry

 

101) Political uncertainties, economic uncertainties, and technological change are examples of the ________ factors of potential stress.

  1. A) structural
  2. B) environmental
  3. C) organizational
  4. D) personal
  5. E) social

102) Jerry is feeling very stressed because his boss expects a project to be delivered to the client within a very unreasonable deadline. Jerry has to work nights and weekends to make the deadline. Jerry is feeling stress due to a(n) ________ factor.

  1. A) environmental
  2. B) organizational
  3. C) economic
  4. D) structural
  5. E) personal

 

103) Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the ________ factor of potential stress.

  1. A) social
  2. B) environmental
  3. C) structural
  4. D) psychological
  5. E) personal

104) Benny is stressed with the new corporate reorganization. He now reports to a foreign office that has usurped many of his responsibilities, including the contract labor for his projects. Therefore, he’s working with new and less qualified contractors with whom he doesn’t have a relationship. However, the managers of the other departments find themselves in the same boat, and every day they are able to laugh over lunch about their new managerial impotence. ________ is helping Benny handle his stress.

  1. A) Emotional contagion
  2. B) Cognitive dissonance
  3. C) Social support
  4. D) Time management
  5. E) Self-efficacy

 

105) Risa has to work long hours and sometimes weekends, losing out on family time. Risa doesn’t find her long hours overly stressful, but rather she sees it as her contribution to maintaining her family’s equilibrium and well-being and bettering her children’s future. In which country is Risa most likely employed?

  1. A) Venezuela
  2. B) United States
  3. C) Canada
  4. D) United Kingdom
  5. E) Netherlands

106) Rudolf is dealing with impending layoffs at work. Yesterday, at a pharmacy, he measured his blood pressure and it was high. He also notices that when he thinks about the future, his heart rate accelerates. Rudolf is demonstrating ________ symptoms of stress.

  1. A) psychological
  2. B) physiological
  3. C) behavioral
  4. D) personal
  5. E) reactive

 

107) Excessive smoking, substance abuse, and sleep disorders are all examples of ________ symptoms of stress.

  1. A) personal
  2. B) psychological
  3. C) behavioral
  4. D) physiological
  5. E) pathological

108) Which of the following types of jobs is least likely to create stress and reduce satisfaction?

  1. A) jobs that make multiple and conflicting demands
  2. B) jobs that provide a high level of feedback
  3. C) jobs that lack clarity about the employee’s duties
  4. D) jobs that provide the employees less control over the pace of their work
  5. E) jobs that provide a low level of variety

109) Experience on the job tends to be positively related to work stress.

 

110) The single factor most consistently related to stress in the workplace is the amount of work that needs to be done, followed closely by the presence of looming deadlines.

111) Discuss some of the psychological consequences of stress and describe some of the individual approaches to managing stress.

112) Compare and contrast challenge stressors and hindrance stressors.

113) Louise is overwhelmed with the new tasks that she has been assigned after the department merger. Each day, she arrives at work and makes a list of the new tasks, writes a number next to each one according to the urgency of completion, and schedules a time to complete each one. Although she’s still stressed, Louise is able to get most of the work done and feels better at the end of the day. Louise is using ________ techniques to reduce her stress.

  1. A) job enrichment
  2. B) goal setting
  3. C) relaxation
  4. D) time-management
  5. E) job enlargement

114) Which of the following statements is not true regarding organizational approaches to managing stress?

  1. A) With goal-setting in the organization, individuals perform better when they have specific and challenging goals and receive feedback on their progress toward these goals.
  2. B) Redesigning jobs to give employees more responsibility, more meaningful work, more autonomy, and increased feedback can reduce stress.
  3. C) Managers should consider decreasing employee involvement in decision making because evidence clearly shows that decreases in employee empowerment reduce psychological strain.
  4. D) Increasing formal organizational communication with employees reduces uncertainty.
  5. E) Some employees need an occasional escape from the pace of their work.

115) Organizationally supported programs that focus on the employee’s total physical and mental condition, such as helping them quit smoking or control alcohol use, are called ________ programs.

  1. A) job redesign
  2. B) relaxation
  3. C) employee involvement
  4. D) organizational development
  5. E) wellness

116) Elaine is very good at what she does, but she is constantly stressed by internal deadlines assigned to co-workers, obligatory meetings, and time lost in unrelated idle cubicle chatter. Today, after a meeting with her supervisor, she has been given more responsibility for her work, is able to set her own deadlines, decline attendance to various department meetings, and telecommute two days a week. Elaine’s boss is using which of the following organizational strategies to reduce her stress?

  1. A) job redesign
  2. B) organizational communication
  3. C) employee involvement
  4. D) organizational development
  5. E) process reengineering

117) Discuss the various individual approaches toward managing stress.

118) What are the various organizational approaches toward managing stress?