Sample Chapter

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Roach’s Introductory Clinical Pharmacology 9th Edition by Ford, Susan – Test Bank 

 

1. Which of the following are environmental factors that lead to errors in the calculation of drug doses? Select all that apply.
A) Poor lighting
B) Heavy workload
C) Noise
D) Temperature
E) Interruptions

 

2. Which of the following are the three specific items found on a drug label needed to administer a drug? Select all that apply.
A) Monitoring parameters
B) Side effects
C) Dosage form
D) Drug name
E) Dosage strength

 

3. When a nurse reviews the package labeling, which of the following names will the nurse see on the drug label?
A) Trade name
B) Scientific name
C) Pharmacological name
D) Nonproprietary name
E) Generic name

 

4. Which of the following might help the nurse distinguish between the trade and generic names on a drug label? Select all that apply.
A) The trade name is written in smaller print.
B) The trade name is usually capitalized.
C) The trade name is followed by a registration symbol.
D) The trade name is often in parentheses.
E) The trade name is found under the generic name.

 

5. A client has been taking Coumadin 5 mg daily. After a check of the client’s INR, the physician wants to increase the client’s Coumadin dose to 7.5 mg on Wednesdays and continue 5 mg all the other days of the week. How many Coumadin 5 mg tablets does the nurse need to give the client to achieve a dose of 7.5 mg?

 

6. A nurse should recognize which of the following as a metric system unit? Select all that apply.
A) Inch
B) Milligram
C) Centimeter
D) Ounce
E) Pound

 

7. A physician writes an order for a client to receive Levothyroxine (Synthroid) 0.2 mg, but the client has 100 mcg tablets. How many 100 mcg tablets should the nurse administer to the client?

 

8. Which of the following drug doses is written correctly? Select all that apply.
A) Synthroid 0.175 mg
B) Synthroid .175 mg
C) Synthroid 175 mcg
D) Synthroid 175.0 mcg
E) Synthroid .1750 mg

 

9. Drugs used for parenteral administration may be available in which of the following forms? Select all that apply.
A) Disposable syringes
B) Reusable cartridges
C) Ampules containing liquid form of the drug
D) Reusable vial containing liquid form of the drug
E) Vial containing drug powder

 

10. A client weighs 56 kg. How many pounds does the client weigh?

 

11. A client weighs 275 lb. How many kilograms does the client weight?

 

12. A client has a temperature of 39°C. What is the client’s temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

 

13. A client has a temperature of 99°F. What is the client’s temperature in degrees Celsius?

 

14. Convert the ratio 2:100 into a percentage.

 

15. A client is to receive 0.5 mg of a drug. The drug is available in a 2 mg/mL vial. How many mL should the nurse administer to the client?

 

16. A client is to receive a 7.5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The client weighs 155 lb, how many milligrams of the drug should the client receive per dose?

 

17. The physician writes an order for a client to receive 1 mg of vitamin B12 once every month. Vitamin B12 comes in a 1000 mcg/mL vial. How many mL should the nurse administer to the client each month?

 

18. A client is to receive 250 mg of penicillin VK twice daily for ten days. Penicillin VK is available in a 500 mg tablet. How many tablets should the client be instructed to take at each dose?

 

19. A client weighs 200 lb. The client is to receive 5 mg/kg per dose of drug. How many mg of drug will the client receive in each dose?

 

20. A client has a standing order to receive Tylenol for fevers over 100°C. A client has a temperature of 38.5°C. What is the client’s temperature in degrees Fahrenheit and should the client receive a dose of Tylenol?

 

21. What is the first step in the procedure of dividing mixed numbers and fractions?
A) The whole number is first changed to a fraction.
B) The second fraction is inverted and fractions are multiplied.
C) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.
D) Mixed numbers are changed to improper fractions.

 

22. What is the first step in the procedure of dividing whole numbers and mixed numbers?
A) Mixed numbers are changed to improper fractions.
B) The whole number is changed to an improper fraction.
C) The whole number is placed over 1.
D) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.

 

23. What is the procedure for dividing fractions?
A) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.
B) The whole number is first changed to a fraction.
C) Mixed numbers are changed to improper fractions.
D) The second fraction is inverted and the fractions are multiplied.

 

24. What is the procedure to multiply a whole number and a mixed number?
A) Mixed numbers are changed to improper fractions.
B) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.
C) The second fraction is inverted and fractions are multiplied.
D) The whole number is first changed to a fraction.

 

25. What is the procedure to multiply mixed numbers?
A) The whole number is first changed to a fraction.
B) The second fraction is inverted and fractions are multiplied.
C) Mixed numbers are changed to improper fractions.
D) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.

 

26. What is the first step in the procedure of dividing a whole number by a fraction?
A) The whole number is placed over 1.
B) The whole number is first changed to a fraction.
C) Both numbers are changed to improper fractions.
D) The fraction is inverted and multiplied.

 

27. Which of the following are units of the metric system?
A)  Minims    B)  Grains    C)  Drams    D)  Grams

 

28. “Dose desired / dose on hand = dose administered” is the formula for calculating the dose to be administered. Under which of the following circumstances is this to be used?
A) When the physician is not available to calculate the dosage.
B) When the dosage is written in the apothecary system.
C) When the dose desired and dose on hand are in the same system.
D) When the label of the drug is in the metric system.

 

1. Which of the following are steps of the nursing process? Select all that apply.
A) Evaluation
B) Documentation
C) Analysis
D) Assessment
E) Planning

 

2. Successful use of the nursing process requires which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Observation
B) Teaching
C) Practice
D) Experience
E) Updating

 

3. Which of the following are examples of objective data?
A) Temperature
B) Heart rate
C) Chief complaint
D) Medication history
E) Respiratory rate

 

4. Which of the following is part of the assessment phase of the nursing process? Select all that apply.
A) Obtaining a medication history.
B) Obtaining vital signs.
C) Formulating nursing diagnoses.
D) Asking about chief complaint.
E) Determining therapeutic response.

 

5. Which of the following are examples of things that should be included as part of the nurse’s initial assessment? Select all that apply.
A) Allergy history
B) Treatment response
C) Occupational history
D) Vital signs
E) Pregnancy status

 

6. Which of the following are frequently used nursing diagnoses related to the administration of a drug? Select all that apply.
A) Noncompliance
B) Anxiety
C) Deficient knowledge
D) Effective therapeutic regimen management
E) Ineffective therapeutic regimen management

 

7. Which of the following are possible causes of ineffective therapeutic regimen management? Select all that apply.
A) Visual impairment
B) Forgetfulness
C) Cognitive deficits
D) Mobility issues
E) Order entry error

 

8. Which of the following is conducted by the nurse during the evaluation step of the nursing process? Select all that apply.
A) Independent nursing actions
B) Collection of objective data
C) Collection of subjective data
D) Initial assessment
E) Ongoing assessment

 

9. A nurse taking a client’s blood pressure prior to administering a drug could be considered which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Assessment
B) Implementation
C) Subjective data
D) Objective data
E) Analysis

 

10. Which of the following must occur prior to initiating an effective therapeutic regimen? Select all that apply.
A) Client’s compliance with other tasks of daily living.
B) Client verbalizes desire to manage the medication regimen.
C) Client must demonstrate ability to read.
D) Nurse’s assessment of the client’s ability to understand medication regimen.
E) Assessment of client’s educational level.

 

11. When planning a client’s treatment regimen for administration of medication, which factors must be considered for inclusion in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
A) To call the physician after the first week.
B) Method used to administer the drug.
C) Ability to calculate dosage.
D) Type of reaction to expect from the drug.
E) Information to report to the physician.

 

12. Which of the following are reasons for ineffective therapeutic regimen management? Select all that apply.
A) Ability of client to afford the drug regimen.
B) Inadequate information provided regarding the drug regimen.
C) Client feels better and stops drug regimen.
D) Ability of client to remember to take drug regimen.
E) No therapeutic effect seen by client.

 

13. When management of the drug regimen is found not to be correct, what must the nurse do? Select all that apply.
A) Assess client’s ability to use their hands.
B) Provide written instructions.
C) Assess client’s ability to read English.
D) Assess client’s reading level.
E) Provide information in the client’s native language.

 

14. In discussing the drug regimen with the client, what factors should be included? Select all that apply.
A) Cut the tablet in half if he or she does not have enough.
B) Call the physician only after two unexpected reactions occur.
C) Length of time before desired therapeutic effect will occur.
D) Steps to minimize adverse reactions.
E) Adverse reactions to expect.

 

15. To develop a trusting and comfortable relationship between the client and the nurse, the nurse should incorporate what following actions? Select all that apply.
A) Follow-up visits with the client.
B) Send a certified letter to the client.
C) Telephone calls to the client.
D) Accompany client to all physician appointments.
E) Encourage client to express feelings and concerns.

 

16. What aspects of self-administration of drugs show that the client is deficient in knowledge of the subject? Select all that apply.
A) Inability to remember
B) Not having a college degree
C) Cognitive limitation
D) Lack of interest in learning
E) Not having a high school degree

 

17. Reasons for noncompliant behavior in clients administering their own medications include which the following? Select all that apply.
A) Knowledge deficit of expected results
B) Bothersome adverse effects
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
E) Lack of information about the drug

 

18. The anxiety experienced during drug administration depends on the following? Select all that apply.
A) Fear
B) Severity of illness
C) Lack of concern by the nurse
D) Good comprehension of information
E) Reassurance by the nurse

 

19. To alleviate the client’s anxiety, the nurse should include which of the following in his or her exchanges with the client? Select all that apply.
A) Do not disturb the client.
B) Identify and address the specific fear.
C) Give the client the shortest explanation possible.
D) Reassure the client that the drug will alleviate the symptoms.
E) Thoroughly explain any procedures.

 

20. To evaluate the client’s understanding of the drug regimen, the nurse may note which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Facial expressions
B) Positive verbal expression
C) Positive nonverbal expression
D) Regimen being followed correctly
E) Correct answers to questions asked

 

21. A nurse caring for a patient is describing steps for carrying out nursing activities that will assist in achieving patient goals. At which step of the nursing process is the nurse?
A)  Assessment    B)  Planning    C)  Implementation    D)  Evaluation

 

22. What is the significance of the nursing diagnoses developed by the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA)?
A) Useful in identifying patient problems related to drug therapy.
B) Useful in classifying the patients as per their age groups.
C) Useful in classifying the drugs as per their actions.
D) Useful in identifying the expected outcome of treatments given.

 

23. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with a respiratory problem in a health care facility. Which of the following should a nurse consider in an expected outcome for a patient undergoing drug therapy?
A) Amount of time the patient will take to recover fully.
B) Amount of drugs the patient will require during the treatment.
C) Possible adverse reactions that could occur during the therapy.
D) Maximum level of wellness that is reasonably attainable for the patient.

 

24. A nurse who had been caring for a patient with a cardiac disorder has to now provide care on an outpatient basis. What information should the nurse provide to this patient who is willing and now able to manage the treatment regimen?
A) Composition of the drug C) Method of drug administration
B) Disorders treated using the drug D) Contraindications of the drug

 

25. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient in a health care facility. What is the nursing responsibility before administering a drug to the patient?
A) Review the subjective and objective data.
B) Provide the basis for the selection of nursing interventions.
C) Review the related nursing diagnosis.
D) List the potential goals to be achieved by the patient.

 

26. A nurse has been caring for a patient in a health care facility. Under what circumstances should the nurse consider the evaluation of a patient to be positive?
A) If the expected outcomes are accomplished.
B) If the patient does not experience anxiety during therapy.
C) If the patient is better able to communicate with the nurse.
D) If subjective and objective data are successfully obtained.

 

27. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with a cardiac disorder. During assessment, what intervention should the nurse perform to obtain objective data related to the patient’s condition?
A) Review the patient’s health history.
B) Assess the patient for difficult breathing.
C) Review the patient’s family history.
D) Inquire about the patient’s eating habits.

 

1. Which of the following results occur when nurses teach clients effectively? Select all that apply.
A) Improved client outcomes.
B) Decreased adherence with drug regimen.
C) Increased ability of client to manage drug therapy.
D) Worsened client outcomes.
E) Decreased ability of client to manage drug therapy.

 

2. Which of the following can the nurse do to improve a client’s motivation to learn? Select all that apply.
A) Educate the client about their disease process.
B) Do not include caregivers in the education process as it is a HIPAA violation.
C) Create an accepting and positive atmosphere.
D) Ignore client’s questions until you are finished teaching.
E) Encourage client participation in goal planning.

 

3. Which of the following are domains of the learning process?
A) Cognitive domain
B) Affective domain
C) Physical domain
D) Psychological domain
E) Psycomotor domain

 

4. Which of the following are included in the cognitive domain? Select all that apply.
A) Thought
B) Feelings
C) Beliefs
D) Recall
E) Decision making

 

5. Which of the following are included in the affective domain? Select all that apply.
A) Thought
B) Feelings
C) Beliefs
D) Recall
E) Decision making

 

6. The client uses the cognitive domain to do which of the tasks? Select all that apply.
A) Form new beliefs.
B) Process new information.
C) Make a decision.
D) Ask questions.
E) Demonstrate a physical skill.

 

7. The nurse makes use of the cognitive domain when information is given to the client of caregiver about which or the following? Select all that apply.
A) Instruction on the correct administration of insulin.
B) Review of complications associated with diabetes.
C) Review of adverse reactions associated with insulin.
D) Review of how frequently to administer insulin.
E) Instruction on how to use a glucometer.

 

8. The nurse makes use of the psychomotor domain when information is given to the client or caregiver about which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Instruction on the correct administration of insulin.
B) Review of complications associated with diabetes.
C) Review of adverse reactions associated with insulin.
D) Review of how frequently to administer insulin.
E) Instruction on how to use a glucometer.

 

9. The nursing process is a systematic method that includes which of the following steps?

Select all that apply.

A) Identifying client health needs.
B) Reviewing client medications.
C) Devising a plan of care.
D) Initiating a nursing plan.
E) Evaluating the effectiveness of a plan.

 

10. To develop an effective teaching plan, the nurse must first determine a client’s needs which can include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Information the client needs to know about a particular medication.
B) Client’s ability to read.
C) Client’s ability to learn the information presented.
D) Client’s ability to use the information presented.
E) Client’s ability to accept the information presented.

 

11. Which of the following represent inappropriate times for client teaching? Select all that apply.
A) When there are visitors.
B) Immediately prior to discharge.
C) The day of admission.
D) While the client is sedated.
E) While the client is in pain.

 

12. The nurse can use which of the following to evaluate a client’s knowledge of the material presented? Select all that apply.
A) Client recitation of information
B) Client return demonstration
C) Open-ended questions
D) Closed-ended questions
E) Nurse review of information

 

13. Which of the following is true of adult learning? Select all that apply.
A) Adults prefer a formal learning environment.
B) Adults draw on past experiences to facilitate learning.
C) Adults learn best by listening.
D) Adults learn best by active learning.
E) Adults are most often visual learners.

 

14. Which of the following are ways the nurse can help the client adapt drug administration in the home? Select all that apply.
A) Prepare a daily calendar
B) Prepare a pill box
C) Provide written instructions
D) Place all medication in one bottle
E) Develop a clear, easy-to-read dosing schedule

 

15. A nurse is formulating a teaching plan for a client receiving a new drug. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
A) Adverse reaction to expect from the drug.
B) Adverse reactions to report to the physician.
C) Therapeutic response to expect from the drug.
D) The route of administration.
E) The dose of drug to administer.

 

16. Development of a therapeutic relationship with a client is based on which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Trust
B) Education
C) Commitment
D) Dedication
E) Caring

 

17. Which of the following dosage forms would require relatively little client teaching? Select all that apply.
A) Injectables
B) Inhalers
C) Tablets
D) Capsules
E) Transdermal patches

 

18. When a nurse assesses a client’s ability to learn, what should the nurse take into consideration? Select all that apply.
A) Literacy level
B) Language
C) Presence of a learning impairment
D) Visual impairment
E) Hearing impairment

 

19. Client goals are set during the planning stage of the client’s teaching plan. When the nurse is developing client-specific goals, which of the following should the nurse keep in mind? Select all that apply.
A) Goals should be measurable.
B) Goals should be attainable.
C) Goals should be set by the client only.
D) Goals should be set by the physician only.
E) Goals should be set by the nurse only.

 

20. Which of the following would be considered appropriate client goals for the nurse to set when teaching a client how to use a glucometer? Select all that apply.
A) Demonstration of appropriate testing procedure.
B) Understanding of steps to take in the case of low blood glucose.
C) Understanding of blood glucose goals.
D) Understanding of the pathophysiology of diabetes.
E) Understanding of frequency of blood glucose testing.

 

21. A nurse is caring for a patient with high blood pressure. The patient has a sphygmomanometer at home. A family member wishes to learn how to measure blood pressure. The nurse demonstrates to the patient and the family member how to take blood pressure measurements using the sphygmomanometer. What kind of learning domain does this learning belong to?
A) Psychomotor domain C) Cognitive domain
B) Affective domain D) Intellectual domain

 

22. A patient with seasonal allergies has been prescribed a nasal spray, which will be administered at home. The patient wants to know about the addictive nature of the nasal spray, the adverse reactions, and the harmful effects involved. Which of the following nursing diagnoses from the patient’s care plan should the nurse address while educating the patient?
A) Ineffective therapeutic regimen management
B) Discharge teaching for the patient
C) Deficient knowledge nursing diagnosis
D) Effective individual therapeutic regimen management

 

23. A patient is to be discharged from a nursing home. The nurse caring for the patient has to educate the patient regarding the appropriate use of prescribed drugs. Which of the following factors is most important in helping the patient to learn faster?
A)  Attitude    B)  Motivation    C)  Interest    D)  Grasping power

 

24. A cancer patient needs supplemental oxygen at home through an oxygen cylinder. The nurse assigned to the patient teaches the patient’s brother to administer oxygen from the cylinder at home. Which of the following is the most effective for the nurse to evaluate the patient’s brother understanding?
A) Ask questions such as “Do you understand?”
B) Ask the patient’s brother to demonstrate the procedure.
C) Ask the patient’s brother to document the technique.
D) Asking questions related to the procedure.

 

25. A patient in a local health care center is presented information on drug administration by the nurse. All of the following affects the patient’s interpretation of the information except:
A) Patient’s financial status C) Prior perceptions
B) Prior knowledge D) Previous experiences

 

26. A patient admitted to a hospital is not good at information recalling, decision making, and conclusion-drawing skills. The patient also lacks proper psychomotor knowledge. Which of the following types of nursing diagnosis should the nurse use for such a patient?
A) Knowledge deficit
B) Ineffective therapeutic regimen management
C) Effective individual therapeutic regimen management
D) Discharge teaching for the patient

 

27. A nurse is caring for a patient with liver cirrhosis. The nurse has to collaborate on an individualized teaching plan to help the client administer the post-discharge medication. What factors should be kept in mind by the nurse when implementing such a plan? Select all that apply.
A) The nurse’s teaching ability
B) The prescribed drug
C) The patient’s learning skills
D) The patient’s need to know the drugs
E) The health care provider’s preference

 

28. A diabetes patient is awaiting discharge from a nursing care unit. The nurse presents information to the patient regarding injections to be administered at home. Which intellectual activities does the patient involve when interpreting this information using the cognitive domain of learning? Select all that apply.
A) Recall
B) Opinions
C) Thought
D) Attitude
E) Decision making

 

29. A patient with viral flu is prescribed drugs to be administered at home. The nurse prepares a teaching plan to help the patient learn the administration of the prescribed drugs at home. Which of the following factors could pose obstacles in the patient’s learning process?
A) Varied or different literacy levels C) Previous experience
B) Lack of high grasping skills D) Prior knowledge

 

30. A nurse is caring for a 70-year-old patient diagnosed with diabetes. The patient is to be discharged soon, and the nurse needs to teach him about the administration of the oral medications. Which of the following will most likely help the nurse learn about the patient’s affective behavior? Select all that apply.
A) Developing a therapeutic relationship with the patient.
B) Overlooking the concern of the patient’s family.
C) Approaching the patient with respect.
D) Nurturing a relationship based on trust and caring.
E) Avoiding patient’s queries on sensitive issues.
1. Which of the following is an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic? Select all that apply.
A) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C) Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim (Bactrim)
D) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
E) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

 

2. Which of the following are true of sulfonamides? Select all that apply.
A) Sulfonamides are well-absorbed when given orally.
B) Sulfonamides are poorly absorbed when given orally.
C) Sulfonamides treat only gram-positive infections.
D) Sulfonamides treat only gram-negative infections.
E) Sulfonamides are excreted by the kidneys.

 

3. Which of the following are common infection-causing bacteria that can be treated with sulfonamides?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Escherichia coli
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Staphylococcus aureus

 

4. Sulfonamides are commonly used to treat which of the following types of infections?

Select all that apply.

A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Acute otitis media
D) Upper respiratory tract infection
E) Osteomyelitis

 

5. A client taking Bactrim DS one tablet twice daily for 14 days should be counseled about which of the following adverse reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Muscle pain
B) Blurred vision
C) Anorexia
D) Crystalluria
E) Photosensitivity

 

6. Which of the following are examples of a secondary infection? Select all that apply.
A) Vaginal candidiasis
B) Oral candidiasis
C) Endocarditis
D) Otitis media
E) C. difficile colitis

 

7. Which of the following are hematological changes that may occur during sulfasalazine therapy for ulcerative colitis? Select all that apply.
A) Pancytopenia
B) Leukopenia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Aplastic anemia
E) Iron deficiency anemia

 

8. Which of the following represent contraindications to treatment with a sulfonamide? Select all that apply.
A) Children younger than 6 years of age
B) Adults older than 65 years of age
C) During lactation
D) Clients with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci infections
E) During the second trimester of pregnancy

 

9. Clients with diabetes being prescribed sulfonamides should be counseled about the increased risk of hypoglycemia, especially if they are taking which of the following antidiabetes medications? Select all that apply.
A) Tolbutamide (Orinase)
B) Lisinopril (Prinivil)
C) Simvastatin (Zocor)
D) Losartan (Cozaar)
E) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

 

10. Which of the following herbal products has been used for preventing and relieving symptoms of urinary tract infections (UTIs)? Choose one.
A)  Ginger    B)  Feverfew    C)  Saw palmetto    D)  Cranberry    E)  Black cohosh

 

11. Since many infections are diagnosed and treated in the ambulatory care setting, the nurse should be sure to complete which of the following when triaging a client? Select all that apply.
A) Ask client about self-remedies used.
B) Review lab results.
C) Check vital signs.
D) Ask client about symptoms experienced.
E) Assess client’s general appearance.

 

12. A febrile client is ordered to receive sulfonamide therapy for an infection. The nurse needs to evaluate the client for which of the following during the course of therapy? Select all that apply.
A) Response to drug therapy
B) Elevated blood glucose
C) Mental status changes
D) Occurrence of adverse reactions
E) Decrease in temperature

 

13. The proper administration of a sulfonamide includes which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Administration in an upright (sitting) position
B) Administration on an empty stomach
C) Administration on a full stomach
D) Decreased fluid intake
E) Increased fluid intake

 

14. What steps can be taken to decrease the likelihood of causing renal damage to elderly clients taking sulfonamides? Select all that apply.
A) Administer sulfonamides once daily.
B) Increase fluid intake up to 2000 mL if tolerated.
C) Use sulfonamides cautiously in clients with renal impairment.
D) Administer the dose IV instead of orally.
E) Do not administer sulfonamides to elderly clients.

 

15. Which of the following is true when applying silver sulfadiazine cream to a burn? Select all that apply.
A) Clean and remove debris from the burned area before application.
B) Allow air drafts over burn area to speed the healing process.
C) Apply a 1/2-inch thick layer of cream.
D) Apply cream while wearing sterile gloves.
E) Warn client of burning sensation during and shortly following application.

 

16. What information should the nurse include during discharge counseling to a client receiving a sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)? Select all that apply.
A) Take the drug one hour before or two hours after meals.
B) Use protective sunscreen or cover exposed areas when going outside.
C) Finish the entire course of sulfonamide even if you begin feeling better.
D) Decrease fluid intake to prevent increased excretion of the drug.
E) Keep all follow-up appointments.

 

17. Bactrim suspension is available in sulfamethoxazole 200 mg and trimethoprim 40 mg per 5 mL. If a client is to be administered a dose of sulfamethoxazole 400 mg and trimethoprim 80 mg once daily, how many mL should the client be given in each daily dose?

 

18. A physician has ordered for a client to receive Bactrim 10 mg/kg/day in two divided doses. The client weighs 121 lb. Bactrim is available in a 80 mg/mL vial. How many mL should be prepared for a single dose?

 

19. A client receiving methotrexate for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is given a prescription for Bactrim DS. The client returns to the physician’s office feeling worse than before. He or she now has a cough and unusual bruising on the extremities. The physician orders a complete blood count and a CMP. What might you expect to find on the lab results? Select all that apply.
A) Increased number of white blood cells
B) Decreased number of white blood cells
C) Increased number of platelets
D) Decreased number of platelets
E) All values should be within normal limits

 

20. A client has an order to receive Septra DS one tablet twice daily for 10 days. While educating the client about Septra, the client tells the nurse he or she is also taking Coumadin (warfarin). Which of the following reactions can result when Coumadin and Septra DS are given concomitantly? Select all that apply.
A) Increased PT/INR
B) Decreased PT/INR
C) Increased risk of bleeding
D) Decreased risk of bleeding
E) Decreased antibiotic effect

 

21. A nurse is required to administer sulfasalazine to a patient for ulcerative colitis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse required to perform for the duration of the therapy?
A) Stop dosage if skin turns orange-yellow color.
B) Regularly inspect patient’s stool samples.
C) Give the drug on an empty stomach.
D) Administer cranberry juice to the patient.

 

22. A nurse is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. After administering a sandwich and a large glass of cranberry juice to a patient, the nurse observes that the patient has developed diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s condition?
A) Extremely large dosage of cranberry juice
B) Lack of activity or exercise
C) Occurrence of crystalluria
D) Minimized food and fluid intake

 

23. A nurse has been instructed to administer mafenide to a patient. Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse assess for in this patient?
A) Rash, itching, or other allergic reactions
B) Crystals in the urine sample
C) Inflammation of the mouth
D) Loss of appetite

 

24. After administering sulfonamides to a patient, the nurse observes that the patient has developed a fever, cough, and muscular aches. The nurse also observes that the patient has developed lesions in the form of red wheals on the neck and the mouth. The nurse recognizes that these are symptoms of:
A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) C) Thrombocytopenia
B) Anaphylactic shock D) Leukopenia

 

25. The health care professional has recommended sulfonamide therapy for a patient. While obtaining the patient’s medical history, the nurse discovers that the patient is taking oral anticoagulants. Which of the following are the possible effects of combining sulfonamide therapy with oral anticoagulants?
A) Increased action of the anticoagulant
B) Increased risk of an anaphylactic shock
C) Sulfonamide therapy is rendered ineffective
D) Patient may develop leucopenia

 

26. A patient who is on sulfonamide therapy is about to be discharged. Which of the following precautions should the nurse instruct the patient to follow to reduce the effects of photosensitivity?
A) Wear protective clothing and sunscreen when outside.
B) Increase fluid intake.
C) Avoid lights while indoors.
D) Wear protective eyewear.

 

27. A 60-year-old patient who is on sulfonamide therapy has impaired urinary elimination. She does not want to increase her oral fluid intake because of fear of incontinence. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform when caring for the patient?
A) Inform the patient that there is no need to increase fluid intake.
B) Inform the patient that increasing fluid intake will not result in incontinence.
C) Teach the patient times to take fluids to maintain continence.
D) Increase fluid intake by 1000 mL instead of 2000 mL to avoid incontinence.

 

28. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being administered Azulfidine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform to ensure that the patient gets the full benefits of the treatment?
A) Take dosage while eating or immediately after eating.
B) Increase food intake for the duration of sulfonamide therapy.
C) Take the drug with a full glass of milk instead of water.
D) Drink at least two to three 8-oz glasses of fluid every day.

 

29. A patient who is being discharged has been instructed to continue with sulfonamide therapy for a week. Which of the following points should the nurse include in the teaching plan to educate the patient about the therapy?
A) Discontinue dosage if symptoms of infection disappear.
B) Take the drug a few minutes before a meal.
C) Take any off-the-shelf medication if fever occurs.
D) Ensure that all follow-up appointments are met.

 

30. A nurse is caring for a patient with burns. The patient is prescribed silver sulfadiazine application. Which of the following reactions should the nurse observe for?
A)  Facial edema    B)  Skin necrosis    C)  Headache    D)  Rash

 

1. Which of the following represents mechanisms by which penicillins inhibit bacterial synthesis? Select all that apply.
A) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
B) Disruption of DNA synthesis.
C) Disruption of RNA synthesis.
D) Disruption of protein synthesis.
E) Disruption of binding to host cells.

 

2. Penicillins are categorized into which of the following four groups? Select all that apply.
A) Synthetic penicillins
B) Natural penicillins
C) Penicillinase-resistant penicillins
D) Aminopenicillins
E) Extended-spectrum penicillins

 

3. Which of the following are examples of beta-lactamase inhibitors? Select all that apply.
A) Methicillin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Tazobactam
D) Sulbactam
E) Clavulanic acid

 

4. A nurse monitoring a client taking penicillin should be aware of the common GI tract adverse reactions, including which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Glossitis
B) Stomatitis
C) Esophagitis
D) Diarrhea
E) Gastritis

 

5. Which of the following is true of bacterial superinfections that occur with the administration of penicillins? Select all that apply.
A) Bacterial superinfections are seen with parenteral administration of penicillins.
B) Bacterial superinfections are seen with oral administration of penicillins.
C) Bacterial superinfections usually occur in the bowel.
D) Bacterial superinfections usually occur in the skin and soft tissue.
E) Bacterial superinfections usually occur in the oral mucosa.

 

6. A nurse should be monitoring a client taking oral penicillins for which of the following that may indicate a bacterial superinfection? Select all that apply.
A) Bloody diarrhea
B) Fever
C) Pruritus
D) Abdominal cramping
E) Hives

 

7. A nurse should monitor which of the following client populations more closely as they are more likely to develop a superinfection? Select all that apply.
A) Geriatrics
B) Adolescents
C) Chronically ill
D) Long-term penicillin treatment
E) Pediatrics

 

8. Nurses should monitor blood counts of clients taking penicillins for which of the following hematopoietic changes? Select all that apply.
A) Pancytopenia
B) Anemia
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Leukopenia
E) Hemoglobulinemia

 

9. Penicillins should be used cautiously in clients with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) History of allergies
B) Diabetes
C) Asthma
D) Bleeding disorders
E) Hypertension

 

10. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s pre-administration assessment prior to a client receiving a penicillin? Select all that apply.
A) Allergy history
B) Medical history
C) Medication history
D) Blood glucose
E) Current symptoms

 

11. Which of the following are examples of a penicillinase-resistant penicillin? Select all that apply.
A) Dicloxacillin
B) Penicillin G
C) Nafcillin
D) Oxacillin
E) Ampicillin

 

12. During ongoing assessment of a client receiving amoxicillin (Amoxil), the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Relief of symptoms
B) Development of a rash
C) Increase in appetite
D) Change in appearance or amount of drainage
E) Decrease in temperature

 

13. Which of the drug-specific nursing diagnoses may be used in the administration of a penicillin? Select all that apply.
A) Impaired comfort
B) Impaired skin integrity
C) Diarrhea
D) Impaired urinary elimination
E) Risk of ineffective respiratory function

 

14. It is best to give penicillins on an empty stomach, one hour before or two hours after a meal. Which of the following penicillins can be given without regard to meals? Select all that apply.
A) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
B) Ampicillin (Principen)
C) Penicillin V (Veetids)
D) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
E) Carbenicillin indanyl (Geocillin)

 

15. The oral administration of penicillins can result in fungal superinfections in the oral cavity. The nurse should examine the client’s mouth daily for which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Sore tongue
B) Ulceration
C) Black, furry tongue
D) Oral pain
E) Swollen gums

 

16. When skin irritation is present during the administration of a penicillin, the nurse should advise the client to avoid which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Harsh soaps
B) Perfumed lotions
C) Antipyretic creams
D) Rubbing the area
E) Wearing rough or irritating clothing

 

17. The nurse can recommend which of the following to reduce the risk of fungal superinfections? Select all that apply.
A) Consumption of yogurt
B) Consumption of buttermilk
C) Consumption of Acidophilus
D) Rinsing daily with an alcohol-based mouthwash.
E) Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush.

 

18. The physician writes an order for a pediatric client to receive ampicillin (Principen) 250 mg every six hours for seven days. The client is unable to swallow tablets, but the ampicillin is available in a 125 mg/5 ml suspension.  How many teaspoonfuls will the client receive each day?

 

19. The physician writes an order for a client to receive amoxicillin (Amoxil) 700 mg twice daily for 14 days. Amoxicillin is available in a 250 mg/5 mL suspension. How many mL will the client need for 14 days?

 

20. The physician orders penicillin V (Veetids) 350 mg by mouth every eight hours for a client. The client is unable to swallow tablets due to swelling in the throat and mouth.  Penicillin V is available in a 125 mg/5 mL suspension. How many mL will the nurse need to prepare for each dose?

 

21. A patient who has been on penicillin therapy for several days has developed inflamed oral mucous membranes and swelling in the tongue and the gums. The primary health care provider has diagnosed it as a fungal superinfection of the oral cavity resulting in impaired oral mucous membranes. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform?
A) Inspect mouth and gums regularly.
B) Instruct patient to avoid brushing teeth.
C) Offer patient a liquid diet.
D) Instruct the patient to gargle every two hours.

 

22. A patient with a throat infection has been recommended penicillin therapy by the primary health care provider. Before administering the first dose of penicillin to the patient, which of the following interventions should the nurse perform as part of the pre-administration assessment?
A) Perform renal and hepatic function tests.
B) Inspect patient’s stools.
C) Evaluate the patient’s lifestyle and diet.
D) Obtain patient’s general health history.

 

23. A 26-year-old female patient with a skin infection has been prescribed 400 mg bacampicillin to be taken orally. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
A) If a dosage is missed, increase the next dosage to meet the daily quota.
B) Bacampicillin will reduce the effectiveness of birth control pills.
C) Take drug on an empty stomach, an hour before or two hours after meals.
D) Avoid use of skin-care products, like moisturizers, when on penicillin therapy.

 

24. A patient undergoing penicillin therapy shows improvement and states that he is feeling better. Which of the following interventions is the nurse most likely to perform in such a situation?
A) Instruct patient to increase dietary intake.
B) Inform the primary health provider immediately.
C) Record evaluations on patient’s chart.
D) Inquire about any previous drug allergies.

 

25. After administering penicillin as prescribed, a patient shows signs of diarrhea and informs the nurse that there is blood in his stools. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform?
A) Contact primary health provider immediately.
B) Include yogurt or buttermilk in patient’s diet.
C) Decrease fiber content in diet.
D) Continue with prescribed regimen.

 

26. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being administered penicillin. What are the common adverse reactions to penicillin a nurse should assess for?
A) Inflammation of the tongue and mouth C) Severe hypotension
B) Impaired oral mucous membranes D) Sudden loss of consciousness

 

27. The primary health provider has prescribed 764 mg of carbenicillin indanyl sodium to be taken orally four times a day. The available tablet contains carbenicillin indanyl sodium equivalent to 382 mg of carbenicillin. The nurse should administer how many tablet/s to the patient four times a day?
A)  2    B)  2.5    C)  3    D)  3.5

 

28. A nurse is required to administer a parenteral form of penicillin to a patient. Which of the following interventions should a nurse perform when preparing penicillin in parenteral form?
A) Extract penicillin from vial and then reconstitute.
B) Save excess antibiotic after reconstitution for later use.
C) Use any available diluent for reconstitution.
D) Shake the vial well to distribute the drug evenly.

 

29. A doctor prescribes a patient 3.375 g piperacillin sodium and tazobactam (Zosyn) every six hours. After reconstitution, the concentration of the drug is 2.25 g/50 mL. Which of the following quantity of the reconstituted solution should the nurse administer to the patient?
A)  60 mL    B)  65 mL    C)  70 mL    D)  75 mL

 

30. A 48-year-old patient with an ear infection is being assessed for penicillin therapy. When assessing the patient’s drug history, the nurse finds that the patient is taking beta-adrenergic blocking drugs to control his blood pressure. Which of the following risks is this patient most susceptible to if penicillin is administered?
A) Anaphylactic shock C) Excess bleeding
B) Higher blood pressure D) Heart attack

 

1. In general, progression from first-generation cephalosporins to fourth-generations results in which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) An increase in sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms.
B) A decrease in sensitivity of gram-negative microorganisms.
C) An increase in sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms.
D) A decrease in the sensitivity of gram-positive microorganisms.
E) An increase in the sensitivity of viral microorganisms.

 

2. Cephalosporins are used to treat which of the following infections? Select all that apply.
A) Urinary tract infections
B) Bone infections
C) Skin infections
D) Community acquired pneumonias
E) Nosocomial pneumonias

 

3. Cephalosporins may be used throughout the perioperative procedure, including which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Postoperative period
B) Prophylactic period
C) Intraoperative period
D) Post-exposure period
E) Preoperative period

 

4. Which of the following should a nurse recognize as serious adverse reactions that can occur with the use of cephalosporins? Select all that apply.
A) Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)
E) Anaphylactic reaction

 

5. Common adverse reactions to cephalosporins include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Drowsiness
B) Headache
C) Constipation
D) Heartburn
E) Vomiting

 

6. Which of the following is true of cephalosporins given via injection? Select all that apply.
A) Thrombophlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IV.
B) Phlebitis can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.
C) Pain can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.
D) Tenderness can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.
E) Swelling can occur when cephalosporins are given IM.

 

7. Which of the following is a superinfection that may occur in a client being given a cephalosporin? Select all that apply.
A) Osteomyelitis
B) Vaginal candidiasis
C) Pseudomembranous colitis
D) Otitis media
E) Conjunctivitis

 

8. Cephalosporins should be used cautiously in clients with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Diabetes
B) Renal disease
C) Hepatic impairment
D) Bleeding disorder
E) Known penicillin allergy

 

9. What symptoms might a nurse observe in a client having a disulfiram-like reaction with administration of a cephalosporin and alcohol? Select all that apply.
A) Flushing
B) Respiratory difficulty
C) Hypertension
D) Vomiting
E) Sweating

 

10. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s pre-administration assessment prior to a client receiving a cephalosporin? Select all that apply.
A) Allergy history
B) Medical history
C) Medication history
D) Blood glucose
E) Current symptoms

 

11. Which of the following is an example of a first generation cephalosporin? Select all that apply.
A) Cefadroxil (Duricef)
B) Cefazolin (Ancef)
C) Cefprozil (Cefzil)
D) Cephalexin (Keflex)
E) Cefaclor (Raniclor)

 

12. During ongoing assessment of a client receiving cephalexin (Keflex), the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Relief of symptoms
B) Development of a rash
C) Increase in appetite
D) Change in appearance or amount of drainage
E) Decrease in temperature

 

13. Which of the drug-specific nursing diagnoses may be used in the administration of a cephalosporin? Select all that apply.
A) Risk for impaired comfort
B) Risk for impaired skin integrity
C) Diarrhea
D) Impaired urinary elimination
E) Ineffective tissue profusion

 

14. Which of the following cephalosporins’ absorption is increased when administered with food? Select all that apply.
A) Cefuroxime (Ceftin)
B) Cephalexin (Keflex)
C) Ceftibuten (Cedax)
D) Cefixime (Suprax)
E) Cefpodoxime (Vantin)

 

15. Which of the following information should the nurse obtain from the manufacturer’s package insert when preparing to administer a cephalosporin via a parenteral route? Select all that apply.
A) Instructions regarding reconstitution
B) Storage of unused portions
C) Life of drug after reconstitution
D) Methods of IV administration
E) Precautions to be taken during administration

 

16. When skin irritation is present during the administration of a cephalosporin, the nurse should advise the client to avoid which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Harsh soaps
B) Perfumed lotions
C) Antipyretic creams
D) Rubbing the area
E) Wearing rough or irritating clothing

 

17. The nurse should advise a client to contact the physician immediately if which of the following occur during treatment with a cephalosporin? Select all that apply.
A) Vomiting occurs.
B) Severe diarrhea occurs.
C) Vaginal itching occurs.
D) Skin rash or hives occur.
E) Sores in mouth occur.

 

18. The physician writes an order for a pediatric client to receive cephalexin (Keflex) 500 mg twice daily for 10 days. The client is unable to swallow tablets, but the cephalexin is available in a 250 mg/5 ml suspension. How many teaspoonfuls will the client receive at each dose?

 

19. The physician writes an order for a client to receive cefixime (Suprax) 400 mg daily for 14 days. Suprax is available in a 250 mg/5 mL suspension. How many mL will the client need for 14 days?

 

20. The physician orders cefdinir (Omnicef) 300 mg by mouth every 12 hours for a client. The client is unable to swallow tablets due to swelling in the throat and mouth.  Omnicef is available in a 125 mg/5 mL suspension. How many mL will the nurse need to prepare for each dose?

 

21. A health care center is conducting a seminar on cephalosporins drugs. During the question-and-answer period, the audience wants examples of conditions that can be treated by cephalosporins. Which of the following infections should the nurse state as examples?
A)  Hemolysis    B)  Urinary tract infections    C)  Nausea and diarrhea    D)  Jaundice

 

22. Which of the following should a nurse carefully monitor in a patient who has been administered cephalosporin as well as aminoglycosides for a wound infection?
A)  Nausea    B)  Nephrotoxicity    C)  Increased bleeding    D)  Respiratory difficulty

 

23. A nurse needs to administer a cephalosporin to a patient. The patient informs the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following actions is the nurse most likely to take in such a situation?
A) Inform the primary health care provider.
B) Obtain patient’s occupational history.
C) Administer an antipyretic drug.
D) Suggest kidney function tests.

 

24. The nurse administers cefuroxime to a patient at least one hour before meals, as prescribed. However, the patient experiences a GI upset. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention in this case?
A) Administer an antacid. C) Discontinue the drug.
B) Lower the dosage. D) Administer the drug with food.

 

25. A 75-year-old patient with a history of renal impairment is admitted to the primary health care center with a UTI and has been prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following interventions is most important for the nurse to perform when caring for this patient?
A) Monitoring fluid intake. C) Testing for occult blood.
B) Monitoring blood creatinine levels. D) Testing for increased glucose levels.

 

26. An 8-year-old female patient visits the health care center with her mother. Her mother informs the nurse that the child began taking a cephalosporin two days ago for treatment of tonsillitis. To address a nursing diagnosis of impaired skin integrity, which of the following actions should the nurse encourage the patient to follow?
A) Apply sunscreen on skin. C) Wear clothes with long sleeves.
B) Avoid wearing rough clothes. D) Avoid consumption of alcohol.

 

27. A patient is being treated for a lung infection by the health care facility. The nurse is required to administer powder ceftibuten to the patient. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate when administering this powder cephalosporin?
A) Keep drug powder refrigerated until it is used.
B) Warm the oral suspension before use.
C) Mix the drug powder with fruit juice.
D) Administer the drug along with food.

 

28. Patients taking antibiotics, especially cephalosporins, are susceptible to superinfection, so the nurse wants to ensure that they are aware of the signs and symptoms of superinfections. Which of the following should the nurse mention as the symptoms of superinfections?
A)  Headaches    B)  Constipation    C)  Abdominal cramps    D)  Cough and cold

 

29. A nurse is preparing the medical history report of a patient with a urinary tract infection. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as one in which the use of cephalosporins is restricted?
A)  Aplastic anemia    B)  Renal disease    C)  Abdominal cramps    D)  Headache

 

30. A patient who was administered cephalosporins has developed a skin rash. The nursing assistant is scared and thinks that this is a serious reaction. The nurse tells him that this is a mild reaction. Which of the following should the nurse mention as the symptoms of serious hypersensitivity reaction?
A)  Pruritis    B)  Skin rashes    C)  Renal dysfunction    D)  Urticaria

 

1. Which of the following are true of tetracyclines? Select all that apply.
A) Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics.
B) Tetracyclines may cause permanent discoloration of the teeth in children.
C) Tetracyclines can be used when penicillins are contraindicated.
D) Tetracyclines are contraindicated in children younger than 6 years.
E) Tetracyclines are used to treat Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

 

2. The nurse should advise clients that which of the following are adverse reactions that  may occur with the administration of tetracyclines? Select all that apply.
A) Photosensitivity
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hypotension
D) Diarrhea
E) Stomatitis

 

3. Tetracyclines increase the risk of toxicity from which of the following drug? Select all that apply.
A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Vancomycin (Vancocin)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
E) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

 

4. Which of the following should a nurse recognize as an aminoglycoside? Select all that apply.
A) Amikacin (Amikin)
B) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C) Vancomycin (Vancocin)
D) Kanamycin (Kantrex)
E) Azithromycin (Zithromax)

 

5. How do aminoglycosides elicit there bactericidal effects? Select all that apply.
A) Inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase.
B) Block a step in bacterial protein synthesis.
C) Disrupt the functional ability of the bacterial cell wall.
D) Block bacterial RNA synthesis.
E) Inhibit bacterial binding to the host cell.

 

6. While administering aminoglycosides to clients, the nurse must be aware of which of the following toxicities that can result from their use? Select all that apply.
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Cardiotoxicity
C) Ototoxicity
D) Hepatotoxicity
E) Neurotoxicity

 

7. Which of the following signs should the nurse monitor a client for that would indicate nephrotoxicity from an aminoglycoside? Select all that apply.
A) Proteinuria
B) Hematuria
C) Decreased urine output
D) Increased serum creatinine
E) Decreased fluid intake

 

8. What contraindication to aminoglycosides should a nurse be aware of to prevent complications to the client? Select all that apply.
A) Preexisting hearing loss
B) Pregnancy
C) Parkinsonism
D) Diabetes
E) Hyperlipidemia

 

9. Which of the following is true of macrolide antibiotics? Select all that apply.
A) Macrolides are broad spectrum antibiotics.
B) Macrolides are contraindicated in clients with renal dysfunction.
C) Macrolides may cause visual disturbances.
D) Macrolides can be used in clients allergic to penicillins.
E) Macrolides can be used to treat acne vulgaris.

 

10. Clindamycin (Cleocin) should be used with caution in clients with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Seizure disorder
B) GI disorders
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Diabetes
E) Hepatic impairment

 

11. During the nurse’s pre-administration assessment he or she should identify and record signs and symptoms of infection. Which of the following are signs or symptoms of infection that a client might display? Select all that apply.
A) Redness
B) Drainage
C) Pain
D) Fever
E) Swelling

 

12. During ongoing assessment of a client receiving erythromycin (Ery-Tab), the nurse should notify the physician immediately if which of the following occur? Select all that apply.
A) Significant drop in blood pressure
B) Increase in heart rate
C) Decrease in temperature
D) Increase in respiratory rate
E) Sudden increase in temperature

 

13. Which of the drug-specific nursing diagnoses may be used in the administration of a macrolide, aminoglycoside, tetracycline, or lincosamide to a client? Select all that apply.
A) Impaired comfort
B) Altered thought process
C) Diarrhea
D) Risk for injury
E) Ineffective tissue profusion

 

14. The nurse should not administer tetracyclines with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Lantus
B) Cheese
C) Tums
D) Peri-Colace
E) Feosol

 

15. Which of the following should the nurse do when giving a macrolide, tetracycline, aminoglycoside, or a lincosamide intramuscularly? Select all that apply.
A) Inspect previous injection sites.
B) Rotate the injection site.
C) Use the abdomen for intramuscular injections.
D) Note the site used for injection in the client’s chart.
E) Notify the physician of any persistent localized reactions.

 

16. When the client has an elevated temperature, the nurse checks which of the following every hour until the temperature returns to normal? Select all that apply.
A) Temperature
B) Pulse
C) Blood glucose
D) Blood pressure
E) Respirations

 

17. The physician orders amikacin (Amikin) 15 mg/kg IM in two divided doses. Amikacin is available in a 50 mg/mL vial. How many mL does the nurse need to prepare per dose if the client weighs 152.5 lb?

 

18. The physician writes an order for a client to receive gentamicin 3 mg/kg/day given IV every eight hours. If the client weighs 225.3 lb, how many mg will be administered to the client in each dose?

 

19. The physician writes an order for a client to receive neomycin 1 g/day orally for three days for preoperative prophylaxis. Neomycin is available in a 500 mg tablet.  How many tablets will the client need for the three days?

 

20. The physician orders clindamycin (Cleocin) 600 mg IM per day in three equal doses for a client. Clindamycin is available in a 150 mg/mL vial. How many mL will the nurse need to prepare for each dose?

 

21. A nurse has administered demeclocycline to a patient. Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse closely monitor the patient for?
A)  Photosensitivity    B)  Abdominal pain    C)  Cramping    D)  Blood dyscrasias

 

22. A patient has been prescribed a tetracycline drug for Rocky Mountain spotted fever. The patient also takes antacids. Which of the following effects is likely to occur due to an interaction between the two drugs?
A) Increased risk of bleeding
B) Increased action of neuromuscular-blocking drugs
C) Increased profound respiratory depression
D) Decreased absorption of tetracycline

 

23. In which of the following patients is lincosamide therapy contraindicated?
A) Children younger than 9 years C) Patients taking cisapride
B) Patients with preexisting liver disease D) Patients with myasthenia gravis

 

24. A middle-aged patient has been prescribed tetracycline as part of his Prevpac for the treatment of H. pylori. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation which is being treated with digitalis drugs. Given his history and current medications, the patient is at risk for which of the following conditions?
A) Respiratory depression C) Increase in serum theophylline level
B) Increase in serum levels D) Risk of toxicity

 

25. A young pregnant patient with intestinal amebiasis is prescribed a tetracycline. Which of the following can be an adverse effect of the drug?
A) Yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth
B) Toxic effects to the developing fetus
C) Increase in the blood pressure
D) Bacterial overgrowth of nonsusceptible organisms

 

26. A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline for the treatment of acne. Which of the following must the nurse include in the patient teaching plan?
A) Take the drug on an empty stomach.
B) Take the drug along with a meal.
C) Take the drug along with milk or fruit juice.
D) Take the drug immediately after meals.

 

27. A patient is being prescribed tetracycline for the treatment of rickettsiae. The nurse learns that the patient is also taking an anticoagulant for a circulatory disorder. What is the effect of oral anticoagulant drugs interacting with tetracycline?
A) Increased serum theophylline level C) Increased risk of bleeding
B) Decreased effectiveness of tetracycline D) Increased risk for digitalis toxicity

 

28. A patient with acne vulgaris was administered macrolides, after which the patient developed diarrhea. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform in this case?
A) Inspect stools for blood or mucus. C) Record symptoms of infection.
B) Obtain allergy history. D) Measure urine output.

 

29. A patient has been administered Ketac as part of a dental treatment. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the patient of?
A) Esophagitis C) Photosensitivity
B) Difficulty in focusing eyesight D) Development of skin rashes

 

30. A patient is admitted to a health care facility for diarrhea. The patient’s stool tested positive for blood and mucus. What immediate nursing intervention should follow after this observation?
A) Save urine sample for tests.
B) Measure and record vital signs.
C) Check patient’s blood pressure.
D) Save stool sample for occult blood test.

 

1. Which of the following are examples of fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply.
A) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
B) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C) Cephalexin (Keflex)
D) Spectinomycin (Trobicin)
E) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

 

2. Fluoroquinolones are effective at treating which of the following types of infections? Select all that apply.
A) Viral infections
B) Gram-positive infections
C) Fungal infections
D) Gram-negative infections
E) Parasitic infections

 

3. Fluoroquinolones are primarily used to treat which of the following infections? Select all that apply.
A) Urinary tract infections
B) Sexually transmitted infections
C) Upper respiratory tract infections
D) Bone and joint infections
E) Skin infections

 

4. A client is being given a prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro) to treat a urinary tract infection. The nurse should warn the client about which of the following common adverse reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Headache
D) Dizziness
E) Dry mouth

 

5. Fluoroquinolones should be used with caution in which of the following clients? Select all that apply.
A) Clients with diabetes
B) Clients with hypertension
C) Clients receiving dialysis
D) Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD)
E) Clients with epilepsy

 

6. Prior to administration of moxifloxacin (Avelox), a nurse should take a medication history to ensure the client is not taking which of the following drugs that can cause severe cardiac arrhythmias if given with Avelox? Select all that apply.
A) Amiodarone (Pacerone)
B) Glyburide (DiaBeta)
C) Sotalol (Betapace)
D) Procainamide (Procanbid)
E) Ibuprofen (Motrin)

 

7. Linezolid (Zyvox) can be used to treat which of the following infections? Select all that apply.
A) Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)
B) Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VREF)
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D) Acute otitis media
E) Nosocomial pneumonia

 

8. A nurse should monitor a client taking vancomycin (Vancocin) carefully for which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Nephrotoxicity
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Ototoxicity
E) Toxic megacolon

 

9. Meropenem (Merrem IV) should be used cautiously in clients with which of the following conditions? Select all that apply.
A) Central nervous system disorders
B) Seizure disorder
C) Diabetes
D) Renal failure
E) Hypertension

 

10. The nurse should ask clients about allergies prior to administering carbapenems because an allergy to which of the following is a contraindication to treatment with carbapenems? Select all that apply.
A) Fluoroquinolones
B) Penicillins
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Cephalosporins
E) Macrolides

 

11. Which of the following are true regarding spectinomycin (Trobicin)? Select all that apply.
A) Spectinomycin is use to treat Chlamydia infections.
B) Spectinomycin is use to treat Gonorrhea infections.
C) Spectinomycin can be used to treat infants.
D) Spectinomycin can be used in clients with penicillin allergy.
E) Spectinomycin has no known significant food or drug interactions.

 

12. A client should be educated to limit consumption of which of the following foods to prevent the risk of severe hypertension when taking linezolid (Zyvox)? Select all that apply.
A) Alcohol
B) Prunes
C) Aged cheese
D) Pepperoni
E) Broccoli

 

13. When quinupristin/dalfopristin (Synercid) is given, the nurse must monitor clients taking which of the following medications closely for toxicities of these drugs due to increase in serum levels? Select all that apply.
A) Lorazepam (Ativan)
B) Quinapril (Accupril)
C) Ritonavir (Norvir)
D) Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
E) Tacrolimus (Prograf)

 

14. Which of the following information should the nurse obtain during the pre-administration assessment of a client prescribed a fluoroquinolone or miscellaneous anti-infective? Select all that apply.
A) Blood glucose
B) Allergy history
C) Signs and symptoms of infection
D) Blood pressure
E) Temperature

 

15. During ongoing assessment of clients taking fluoroquinolones and miscellaneous anti-infectives, which of the following adverse reactions should be reported to the physician immediately? Select all that apply.
A) Respiratory difficulty
B) Drowsiness
C) Severe diarrhea
D) Hypersensitivity reaction
E) A decided drop in blood pressure

 

16. Which of the following represent nursing diagnoses that may be made during administration of a fluoroquinolone or miscellaneous anti-infective? Select all that apply.
A) Acute pain
B) Diarrhea
C) Imbalanced nutrition
D) Anxiety
E) Risk of impaired skin integrity

 

17. A client has been recently diagnosed with pyelonephritis, and the physician orders ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 300 mg IV every 12 hours. Ciprofloxacin is available in a 10 mg/mL vial. How many mL does the nurse need to prepare per dose?

 

18. A client has been recently diagnosed vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium. The physician orders linezolid (Zyvox) 600 mg orally every 12 hours. Zyvox is available in a 20 mg/mL oral suspension. How many mL does the client need per dose?

 

19. The physician orders levofloxacin (Levaquin) 750 mg by mouth daily. The client is unable to swallow tablets, but Levaquin is available in a 25 mg/mL oral solution. How many tablespoons does the client need per day?

 

20. Red-man syndrome is a severe adverse reaction. Which of the following signs or symptoms should the nurse recognize as red-man syndrome? Select all that apply.
A) Sudden, profound drop in blood pressure
B) Sudden, profound drop in blood glucose
C) Erythema of the neck and back
D) Erythema of the extremities
E) Paresthesias

 

21. A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old patient who has been prescribed daptomycin to treat a skin infection. Which of the following adverse effects of daptomycin should the nurse monitor when caring for the patient?
A)  Constipation    B)  Headache    C)  Fever    D)  Insomnia

 

22. A patient with a urinary tract infection is admitted to a health care facility. The patient has been prescribed fosfomycin tromethamine. What are the conditions under which fosfomycin tromethamine is contraindicated to the patient?
A)  Renal failure    B)  Gonorrhea    C)  Phenylketonuria    D)  Pregnancy or lactation

 

23. A nurse is required to administer an anti-infective drug to a patient. The nurse knows that which of the following tests need to be conducted before administering the first dose of an anti-infective drug to the patient?
A)  Urinalysis    B)  Culture tests    C)  Ulcer tests    D)  Stool tests

 

24. A patient with a soft tissue infection has been administered meropenem. The nurse is monitoring the patient after administering the prescribed drug. Which of the following ongoing assessments should the nurse perform?
A) Monitor the patient every four hours.
B) Observe symptoms of any developing infection.
C) Observe chronic illnesses in the patient.
D) Ensure that the patient undergoes a culture test.

 

25. A patient has been administered linezolid. The patient is fond of eating chocolates and coffee, both of which contain tyramine. What should the nurse inform the patient about the risk involved when linezolid interacts with foods containing tyramine?
A) Causes severe hypertension. C) Causes nervousness.
B) Causes drowsiness. D) Causes nausea.

 

26. A nurse is caring for a client who is being administered an intravenous anti-infective. The nurse should be alert for the signs for which of the following conditions when caring for this client with an intravenous anti-infective?
A)  Insomnia    B)  Tinnitus    C)  Pseudomembranous colitis    D)  Hypotension

 

27. A patient undergoing treatment for an infected stage II pressure ulcer on his heel is being administered daptomycin. The nurse knows that which other drug needs cautious use if it has to be administered along with daptomycin?
A)  Metoclopramide    B)  Cephalosporins    C)  Warfarin    D)  Carbapenem

 

28. A patient with VRE infection has been administered quinupristin/dalfopristin. Which of the following adverse effects of quinupristin/dalfopristin should the nurse monitor for in the patient?
A)  Hypotension    B)  Dizziness    C)  Rashes    D)  Vomiting

 

29. A patient is required to be administered vancomycin for treatment of an abdominal abscess. What should the nurse ensure when monitoring the IV infusion of vancomycin in the patient when caring for him?
A) Administer each dose over 60 minutes.
B) Report an increase in blood pressure.
C) Report increase in the urinary output.
D) Observe for signs of headache.

 

1. Which of the following are considered primary drugs to treat tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
B) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
C) Isoniazid (Nydrazid)
D) Rifampin (Rifadin)
E) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

 

2. Which of the following is true regarding the initial phase of tuberculosis therapy?

Select all that apply:

A) Drugs are used to kill the rapidly multiplying M. tuberculosis.
B) Drugs are used to prevent drug resistance.
C) The initial phase lasts approximately six to nine months.
D) The initial phase lasts approximately two months.
E) The initial phase lasts approximately four months.

 

3. Which of the following antitubercular drugs are used during the initial treatment phase of tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Pyrazinamide
E) Ethambutol

 

4. Which of the following antitubercular drugs are used during the continuation treatment phase of tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Pyrazinamide
E) Ethambutol

 

5. Tuberculosis responses well to long-term treatment with a combination of three or more antitubercular drugs. Which of the following is true regarding the duration of treatment for clients with tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) The initial treatment phase should last for a minimum of two months.
B) The initial treatment phase should last for a maximum of two months.
C) The continuation treatment phase should last for four to seven months.
D) The continuation treatment phase should last for six to 12 months.
E) Prophylactic treatment should be given for six to 12 months.

 

6. Which of the following circumstances would warrant a continuation treatment phase of seven months?  Select all that apply:
A) Noninclusion of rifampin in the initial treatment phase
B) Noninclusion of pyrazinamide in the initial treatment phase
C) HIV-positive clients
D) Cavitary disease after completion of initial treatment
E) Positive sputum culture after completion of initial treatment

 

7. If treatment fails, retreatment is necessary. Which of the following drugs are used in retreatment of tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) Ethionamide (Trecator)
B) Rifampin (Rifadin)
C) Aminosalicylic acid (Paser)
D) Cycloserine (Seromycin)
E) Capreomycin (Capastat)

 

8. Tuberculosis caused by drug-resistant organisms should be considered in which of the following clients? Select all that apply:
A) Clients who are HIV positive
B) Clients who have no response to therapy
C) Clients who have been treated in the past
D) Clients who have asthma
E) Clients who smoke

 

9. Which of the following is true of secondary drugs to treat tuberculosis TB? Select all that apply:
A) Secondary drugs are less effective than primary drugs.
B) Secondary drugs are more toxic than primary drugs.
C) Secondary drugs are used to treat extrapulmonary TB.
D) Secondary drugs are used to treat drug-resistant TB.
E) Secondary drugs are used as the first line to treat HIV patients with TB.

 

10. Ethambutol (Myambutol) should be used cautiously in which of the following clients? Select all that apply:
A) Clients with hepatic impairment
B) Clients with hypertension
C) Clients with cataracts
D) Clients with diabetic neuropathy
E) Clients with renal impairment

 

11. Clients taking isoniazid (INH) can experience a variety of adverse reactions but should be monitored carefully for which of the following that indicate toxicity? Select all that apply:
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Visual changes
C) Nausea
D) Vomiting
E) Jaundice

 

12. A client should be educated to limit consumption of which of the following foods to prevent an exaggerated sympathetic-type response when taking isoniazid (INH) for the treatment of tuberculosis? Select all that apply:
A) Alcohol
B) Grapes
C) Bananas
D) Meats
E) Broccoli

 

13. Pyrazinamide should be used cautiously in which of the following clients? Select all that apply:
A) Clients with diabetes
B) Clients with hepatic impairment
C) Clients with renal impairment
D) Clients with hypertension
E) Clients with HIV infection

 

14. Which of the following are common adverse reactions to rifampin (Rifadin) that the nurse should share with the client? Select all that apply:
A) Discoloration of body fluids
B) Vertigo
C) Joint pain
D) Nausea
E) Rash

 

15. Pre-administration assessment of any antitubercular drug should include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Culture and sensitivity testing
B) Complete blood count
C) Family and contacts history
D) Radiographic studies
E) Medication history

 

16. Which of the following represent nursing diagnoses that may be made during administration of antitubercular drugs? Select all that apply:
A) Acute pain
B) Risk of skin integrity
C) Imbalanced nutrition
D) Body image disturbances
E) Risk of ineffective therapeutic regimen management

 

17. A client has been recently diagnosed with tuberculosis. the physician orders Ethambutol (Myambutol) 20 mg/kg/day. The client weighs 185.6 lb, and Ethambutol is available as a 400 mg tablet. How many tablets would the client receive daily?

 

18. A client has been recently diagnosed with tuberculosis, and the physician orders isoniazid (INH) 15 mg/kg to be given twice weekly. The client weighs 185.6 lb, and isoniazid is available as a 50 mg/mL syrup. How many mL would the client need for a one-month supply?

 

19. The goals for a client taking antitubercular drugs can include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Identification and treatment of adverse reactions.
B) Maintenance of adequate nutritional status.
C) Client and family demonstrate an understanding of the drug regimen.
D) Client manages the therapeutic regimen effectively.
E) Therapeutic response is achieved.

 

20. Which of the following are teaching points the nurse can use to increase client compliance in tubercular drug treatment programs? Select all that apply:
A) Reinforce that short-term treatment is ineffective.
B) Review the drug therapy regimen, including the prescribed drug, doses, and frequency of administration.
C) Mark a calendar to designate the days the drug is to be taken for clients on alternate dosage schedule.
D) Arrange for direct observation therapy with the client and family.
E) Instruct client about possible adverse reactions and the need to notify prescriber should any occur.

 

21. An HIV-positive patient is in a continuing phase of TB. The patient has completed the initial phase of the treatment program. In the continuing phase, the patient has shown no positive sputum results for six months. The nurse knows that under what circumstances does the treatment in the second phase last for four months or more?
A) Positive sputum culture after the completion of initial treatment
B) Inclusion of pyrazinamide in the initial treatment
C) Following the same eating habits in the continuing phase
D) Nausea or vomiting after completing the initial treatment

 

22. A patient in the initial phase of TB is prescribed Ethambutol. Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor for in the client?
A)  Hypersensitivity    B)  Skin eruptions    C)  Joint pain    D)  Myalgia

 

23. A patient with TB has been admitted to a health care facility. When providing instructions for the patient teaching related to antitubercular drugs, which of the following instructions should the nurse provide in order to avoid complications in the patient’s GI tract?
A) Double the dose if earlier dose is missed.
B) Take prescribed Pyrazinamide without regard to food.
C) Take prescribed Ethambutol with food.
D) Avoid the consumption of alcohol.

 

24. A nurse is assigned to care for a patient with TB in a health care facility. The patient has been prescribed Pyrazinamide. The nurse knows that in which of the following cases is the use of isoniazid contraindicated?
A) Patients with acute gout C) Patients with diabetic retinopathy
B) Patients younger than 13 years D) Patients with cataracts

 

25. A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing the second phase of standard TB treatment. The nurse knows that which of the following combinations of drugs need to be administered to the client?
A) Pyrazinamide and dapsone C) Rifampin and isoniazid
B) Rifampin and Pyrazinamide D) Dapsone and isoniazid

 

26. A nurse is caring for 45-year-old patient with TB. The nurse is administering Rifampin to the patient. Which one of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in the client?
A)  Diarrhea    B)  Fever    C)  Dermatitis    D)  Vertigo

 

27. A 72-year-old patient with TB is undergoing standard treatment in a health care facility. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform during ongoing assessment of the treatment?
A) Monitor for appearance of adverse reactions.
B) Monitor patient’s vital signs every 24 hours.
C) Assess patient’s history of contacts.
D) Use DOT to administer the drug to the patient.

 

28. A patient diagnosed with TB is undergoing treatment. The nurse knows that which of the following preventive therapies will avoid the spreading of TB?
A) Long-term therapy C) DOT therapy
B) Prophylactic therapy D) Short-term therapy

 

29. A patient with TB is admitted to a health care facility. The nurse is required to administer an antitubercular drug through the parenteral route to this patient. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take when administering frequent parenteral injections?
A) Rotate injection sites for frequent parenteral injections.
B) Monitor patient’s vital signs each morning.
C) Monitor signs of liver dysfunction weekly.
D) Administer streptomycin to promote nutrition.

 

30. A patient with TB is undergoing initial therapy in the treatment. The nurse has to administer three or more drugs in combination to the patient. The patient wishes to know the reason for administering a combination of drugs. Which of the following explanations does the nurse offer related to the combination of medications?
A) Prevents the incidence of liver dysfunction.
B) Slows down bacterial resistance.
C) Slows body’s resistance to medication.
D) Prevents further spreading of TB.
1. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following adverse reactions may occur during antiviral therapy? Select all that apply:
A) Rash
B) Sedation
C) Chills
D) Diarrhea
E) Headache

 

2. Antiviral drugs should be used cautiously in clients with which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Hepatic impairment
B) Renal impairment
C) Diabetes
D) Low blood cell count
E) Hypertension

 

3. Antiviral drugs have limited use because they are effective against only a small number of specific viral infections, including which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D) Rotavirus
E) Rhinovirus

 

4. Which of the following represents the categories of drugs used to treat viral infection? Select all that apply:
A) Antiattachment
B) Antiretroviral
C) Antitranscription
D) Antireplication
E) Antiviral

 

5. Which of the following is true of cidofovir (Vistide)? Select all that apply:
A) Vistide should not be given to clients who have renal impairment.
B) Vistide should not be given to clients receiving aminoglycosides.
C) Vistide is used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus retinitis.
D) Vistide is administered by placing one drop in both eyes twice daily.
E) Vistide should not be given with HMG CoA reductase inhibitors.

 

6. Antiretroviral drugs are used to treat which of the following viral infections?  Select all that apply:
A) Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
C) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 1
E) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) 2

 

7. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following adverse reactions may occur during antiretroviral therapy? Select all that apply:
A) Altered taste
B) Peripheral numbness
C) Oral candidiasis
D) Rash
E) Fever

 

8. The use of ritonavir (Norvir) is contraindicated in clients taking which of the following other medications? Select all that apply:
A) Triazolam (Halcion)
B) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
C) Zolpidem (Ambien)
D) Lisinopril (Prinivil)
E) Procainamide (Procanbid)

 

9. Antiretroviral drugs should be used cautiously in clients with which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Diabetes
B) Hemophilia
C) Impaired hepatic function
D) Impaired renal function
E) Hypertension

 

10. Clients with a sulfonamide allergy should use which of the following antiretroviral drugs with caution? Select all that apply:
A) Maraviroc (Selzentry)
B) Lamivudine (Epivir)
C) Fosamprenavir (Lexiva)
D) Ritonavir (Norvir)
E) Amprenavir (Agenerase)

 

11. The nurse’s pre-administration assessment of the client prior to administration of antiviral drugs should include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Client’s general state of health
B) Blood glucose
C) Resistance to infection
D) Electrocardiogram
E) Vital signs

 

12. Nursing diagnoses for client’s receiving antiviral drugs can include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Acute pain
B) Risk for impaired skin integrity
C) Risk for injury
D) Risk for imbalance nutrition
E) Body image disturbances

 

13. The physician orders cidofovir for a client to be given 5 mg/kg IV every week for two weeks. If the client weighs 110 lb, and cidofovir is available in a 75 mg/mL vial, how many mL would the nurse need for the two-week period?

 

14. Which of the following are outcomes that should be addressed by the nurse in the planning step of the nursing process for clients being treated with antiviral drugs? Select all that apply:
A) Prevention of other medical conditions
B) Optimal response to therapy
C) Ongoing assessment of vital signs
D) Management of adverse reaction
E) Client understanding of the therapeutic regimen

 

15. Which of the following is true regarding the inhalation of ribavirin (Virazole)? Select all that apply:
A) Administration is via a nebulizer.
B) Solution should be discarded and replaced every 24 hours.
C) Respiratory status can be worsened by the drug.
D) Extrapyramidal effects can occur upon administration of the drug.
E) Women of childbearing age should not inhale the drug.

 

16. Clients receiving antiretroviral drugs for HIV infection may continue to contract opportunistic infections, so the nurse’s ongoing assessment of these clients should include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Fever
B) Malaise
C) Sore throat
D) Lethargy
E) Hypotension

 

17. The physician has ordered acyclovir (Zovirax) for a client at a dose of 7.5 mg/kg given IV every eight hours. The client weighs 191.4 lb. How many milligrams will the client receive every eight hours?

 

18. The physician orders oseltamivir (Tamiflu) 75 mg by mouth twice daily for five days for a client who is unable to swallow tablets. Tamiflu is available in a 12 mg/mL suspension. How many mL should be administered to the client in each dose?

 

19. The goals for a client taking antiviral drugs can include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Identification and treatment of adverse reactions.
B) Maintenance of adequate nutritional status.
C) Perceptions of body changes are managed successfully.
D) Skin integrity is successfully maintained.
E) Therapeutic response is achieved.

 

20. The nurse’s teaching plan for antiviral drugs should include which of the following information? Select all that apply:
A) Notify the physician only if allergic reaction to the antiviral drug occurs.
B) Antiviral drugs are not a cure for viral infection, but will shorten the course of disease.
C) Mark a calendar to designate the days the drug is to be taken for clients on alternate dosage schedule.
D) Antiviral drugs will prevent the spread of disease to others.
E) Some antiviral drugs cause photosensitivity, so precaution should be taken when going outdoors.

 

21. A patient presents to her primary-care provider for treatment of Herpes Simplex. While obtaining the medical history of the patient, the nurse discovers that the patient has respiratory problems and theophylline. The primary health care provider considers prescribing acyclovir as the drug for treatment until she reads the nursing history. For which of the following reasons did the primary-care provider decide against the use of acyclovir?
A) Adverse reactions for anticholinergic agent
B) Increased risk of seizures in patients with respiratory problems
C) Increases serum level of theophylline in patients taking theophylline
D) Increased serum levels of antiviral valacyclovir

 

22. A patient is being treated with saquinavir. Which of the following are effects of the drug that the nurse should monitor for in the patient?
A) Increase in patient’s weight C) Photosensitivity
B) Liver dysfunction D) Allergic skin reaction

 

23. A patient is being discharged from a health care facility. The patient is, however, required to continue with antiviral therapy at home. Which of the following points should the nurse include in the teaching plan to educate the patient?
A) Slight elevation is normal and needn’t be reported.
B) Double dosage of drug if previous dosage was missed.
C) Discontinue dosage if symptoms of the infection disappear.
D) Report adverse reactions to the primary health care provider.

 

24. A patient for whom antiretroviral therapy has been prescribed informs the nurse that she is taking oral contraceptives. Which of the following should the nurse inform the patient is one of the effects of combining birth control pills with antiretroviral therapy?
A) Decreases effectiveness of antiviral therapy
B) Increases risk of vaginal bleeding
C) Decreases effectiveness of birth control pills
D) Increases serum level of the antiretroviral

 

25. A HIV-positive patient is being treated with didanosine as part of the antiretroviral therapy. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse monitor for and immediately report to the care provider?
A)  Peripheral neuropathy    B)  Headache    C)  Excoriation    D)  Taste alteration

 

26. A patient with skin lesions due to a viral infection has been prescribed topical application of an antiviral. Which of the following points should the nurse inform the patient regarding the therapy and the infection?
A) The drug will not prevent the spread of the disease to others.
B) Topical drugs should be applied by hand and not finger cot or gloves.
C) All lesions should be left open and not covered in any way.
D) Sexual contact during lesions is permissible if barrier methods are used.

 

27. An HIV-positive patient on antiretroviral therapy informs the nurse that he is considering taking Viagra. What should the nurse tell the patient about taking Viagra while on antiretroviral therapy?
A) Feeling of dizziness C) Risk of hypotension
B) Itching of skin D) Depression

 

28. A patient who is on sulfonamide therapy is about to be discharged. Which of the following precautions should the nurse instruct the patient to follow to reduce the effects of photosensitivity?
A) Wear protective clothing when outside C) Avoid lights while indoors
B) Increase fluid intake D) Use tanning beds for tan

 

29. A nurse is caring for a patient, who has been prescribed the antiviral drug Amantadine. Which of the following adverse reactions specific to Amantadine should the nurse monitor for?
A) Asthenia and abdominal pain C) Anorexia and dyspnea
B) Fever and dizziness D) Hypotension and insomnia

 

30. A patient who is being discharged is required to continue taking the drug zanamivir using a “Diskhaler” and a bronchodilator. Both the inhaler and the “Diskhaler” are prescribed at the same time. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the patient’s education?
A) Drug should be taken every six hours.
B) Use bronchodilator before zanamivir.
C) Drug used with bronchodilator causes orthostatic hypotension.
D) Risk of transmission is minimal during therapy.
1. Clients taking which of the following drugs may be at increased risk for candidal infections? Select all that apply:
A) Zocor
B) Cipro
C) Orapred
D) Diovan
E) Ortho Tri-Cyclen

 

2. Which of the following herbs have been found to be effective against fungal skin infections? Select all that apply:
A) Tea tree oil
B) Gingko biloba
C) Valerian root
D) Fever few
E) Garlic

 

3. Itraconazole (Sporanox) should be used with caution in clients with which of the following conditions? Select all that apply
A) Hypertension
B) Glaucoma
C) HIV
D) Hypochlorhydria
E) GERD

 

4. Which of the following are true of amphotericin B (AmBisome)? Select all that apply:
A) AmBisome is light sensitive.
B) AmBisome is administered via IM injection.
C) AmBisome can cause renal damage.
D) AmBisome is administered in the outpatient setting.
E) AmBisome should be used within eight hours.

 

5. During IV infusion of amphotericin B (AmBisome) clients should be monitored for which of the following adverse reactions during the first 30 to 60 minutes of the infusion? Select all that apply:
A) Muscle pain
B) Hypotension
C) Nausea
D) Decreased renal function
E) Chills

 

6. Which of the following should be part of the nurse’s teaching plan when instructing a client about the use of an antifungal cream preparation for the treatment of ringworm in the ambulatory care setting? Select all that apply:
A) Clean involved area before applying cream.
B) Increase the amount of cream used if skin infection worsens.
C) Decrease the frequency of applying cream if skin infection improves.
D) Keep towels and washcloths for bathing separate from other family members during treatment.
E) Keep the affected area clean and moist.

 

7. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s teaching plan when instructing a female client on the use of miconazole (Monistat) vaginal cream? Select all that apply:
A) Discontinue drug during the menstrual period.
B) Avoid nylon and tight-fitting garments to avoid reinfection.
C) Wear a sanitary napkin after insertion of the drug to prevent staining of clothes and bed linens.
D) Do not have intercourse while taking the drug to avoid reinfection.
E) If there is no improvement in two days, stop using the drug and consult a physician.

 

8. Which of the following are considered helminths? Select all that apply:
A) Roundworms
B) Pinworms
C) Ringworms
D) Hookworms
E) Tapeworms

 

9. Clients receiving any antihelminthic should be advised of which of the following adverse reactions? Select all that apply:
A) Hypotension
B) Drowsiness
C) Abdominal pain
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Nausea

 

10. Antihelminthic drugs should be used cautiously in which of the following clients? Select all that apply:
A) Lactating clients
B) Hepatically impaired clients
C) Anemic clients
D) Diabetic clients
E) Renally impaired clients

 

11. Antiprotozoal drugs are used in the treatment of which of the following infections? Select all that apply:
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Malaria
C) Giardiasis
D) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
E) Trichomoniasis

 

12. Foods that acidify the urine may interact with chloroquine and increase the drugs excretion, thereby decreasing its effectiveness in the treatment of malaria. The nurse should counsel the client to avoid which of the following foods during treatment with chloroquine? Select all that apply:
A) Plums
B) Oranges
C) Fish
D) Eggs
E) Cranberries

 

13. Which of the following represent drug-specific nursing diagnoses when discussing the treatment of parasitic infection? Select all that apply:
A) Impaired comfort
B) Diarrhea
C) Risk for ineffective tissue profusion
D) Risk for deficient fluid volume
E) Risk for impaired respiratory function

 

14. A client is planning to travel to an area of the world where malaria is endemic. The physician has given the client a prescription of chloroquine for malaria prophylaxis. The nurse should advise the client of which of the following in regards to beginning and ending therapy? Select all that apply:
A) Begin therapy one month before exposure.
B) Begin therapy two weeks before exposure.
C) Continue therapy six to eight weeks after leaving endemic area.
D) Continue therapy one to two weeks after leaving endemic area.
E) Stop therapy two days prior to leaving endemic area.

 

15. During treatment of parasitic infections the physician may order daily stool specimens be sent to the lab for examination. What should the nurse record in regard to the client’s stool when implementing a plan for the nursing diagnoses of diarrhea and risk for fluid volume deficit? Select all that apply:
A) Number of stools produced
B) Odor of stool
C) Consistency of stool
D) Frequency of stool
E) Color of stool

 

16. What nondrug methods should the nurse advise the client and their family to take to prevent the passing of infection to others or reinfection? Select all that apply:
A) Wash hands thoroughly before preparing or eating food.
B) Disinfect toilets daily.
C) Bathe daily.
D) Disinfect the bathtub or shower stall immediately after bathing.
E) Avoid putting fingers in the mouth or biting fingernails.

 

17. The physician has ordered Abelcet for a client at a dose of 3.5 mg/kg/day to be administered in a single infusion. The client weighs 75 kg. Abelcet is available in a 5 mg/mL vial. How many mL will need to be prepared to be administered to the client in one dose?

 

18. A physician has ordered a client to receive Ancobon 50 mg/kg/day every six hours.  The client weighs 120 lb. Ancobon is available in 250 mg tablets. How many tablets would the client require daily?

 

19. Which of the following are trade names for clotrimazole vaginal preparations? Select all that apply:
A) Lotrimin 3
B) Monistat 3
C) Femstat 3
D) Terazol 7
E) Mycelex-7

 

20. The nurse must monitor a client carefully for signs of bleeding when which of the following antifungals is concomitantly administered with warfarin (Coumadin)? Select all that apply:
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B) Itraconazole (Sporanox)
C) Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
D) Griseofulvin (Grisactin)
E) Voriconazole (Vfend)

 

21. A patint has been prescribed chloroquine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding the dosage of the antimalarial drug?
A) Avoid foods that acidify the urine.
B) Take the drug on an empty stomach.
C) Increase dosage if dosage missed once.
D) Discontinue drug if color of urine changes.

 

22. A patient has been diagnosed with an amebiasis infection, and the primary health care provider has prescribed metronidazole. The patient is also taking warfarin for blood clotting. Which of the following is a possible interaction associated with taking metronidazole with warfarin.
A) Increases absorption of metronidazole C) Increases the risk of bleeding
B) Increases metabolism of metronidazole D) Increases the risk of heart attack

 

23. A patient with a severe stomach ache visits the health care facility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform if a pinworm infection is suspected?
A) Obtain stool samples. C) Obtain urine sample.
B) Obtain blood sample. D) Obtain sample of saliva.

 

24. A patient is being administered doxycycline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding the possible side effects of the drug?
A) Avoid taking warfarin because it increases the risk of bleeding.
B) Avoid exposure to the sun by wearing protective clothing.
C) Take the drug with food, or immediately afterwards.
D) Do not drive or perform other activities requiring alertness.

 

25. A patient has been diagnosed with amebiasis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform regularly while caring for the patient?
A) Take vital signs every eight hours.
B) Freeze any stool samples for testing.
C) Avoid foods that acidify the urine.
D) Provide the patient with small, frequent meals.

 

26. A patient has been instructed to take metronidazole for intestinal amebiasis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding the drug?
A) Take the food on an empty stomach.
B) Avoid intake of alcohol.
C) Guard against effects of photosensitivity.
D) Take phenobarbital for impaired sleep.

 

27. A patient has been prescribed quinine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient regarding its use?
A) Cut the tablet in half and take each half one after the other.
B) Ensure that the drug is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Ignore itching, rash, fever, or vision problems—these are normal.
D) Do not drive if blurred vision or dizziness occurs.

 

28. A patient has been prescribed albendazole on an outpatient basis for an anthelmintic infection. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the patient?
A) Easy bruising or bleeding is normal and needn’t be reported.
B) Disinfect the bathtub or shower stall immediately after bathing.
C) Avoid bathing daily if patient experiences impaired skin integrity.
D) Use oral contraceptives during the course of the drug therapy.

 

29. Pyrantel has been prescribed for a patient with roundworm. Which of the following common adverse reactions of pyrantel should the patient report immediately to the primary care provider?
A)  Abdominal cramping    B)  Headache    C)  Nausea    D)  Rashes

 

30. In which of the following patients are anthelmintic drugs contraindicated?
A) Patients who are pregnant C) Patients with clinical depression
B) Patients with myasthenia gravis D) Children younger than 15 years