Sample Chapter



Sensation And Perception 9th Ed.By Goldstein – Test Bank 





Test Bank—Chapter 1: Introduction to Perception






  1. “Perceiving machines” that can negotiate the environment with humanlike ease
  2. were developed by computer scientists in the 1960s.
  3. were developed by computer scientists in the 1970s.
  4. were developed by computer scientists in the 1990s.
  5. have yet to be developed.





  1. Which of the following is an application of perception research?
  2. Developing speech recognition systems. c.         Devising robots that can “see.”
  3. Treating hearing problems. d.         All of these.





  1. Which of the following is a reason for studying perception?
  2. To become more aware of your own perceptual experiences.
  3. To provide information that may help with a future career.
  4. To apply perception to everyday problems, such as highway sign visibility.
  5. All of these.





  1. The study of perception can overlap with
  2. medicine. c.         philosophy.
  3. computer science. d.         all of these.





  1. Which of the following is NOT a category of the stages in the perceptual process?
  2. Stimuli c. Serendipity
  3. Neural Processing d.         Behavioral Responses





  1. The process of transforming energy in the environment into electrical energy in the neurons is called
  2. refraction. c.         reduction.
  3. transduction. d.         construction.







  1. ______ is the step in the perceptual process that is analogous to an ATM withdrawal  (pressure from button press becomes electrical energy then becomes a mechanical response resulting in the dispensing of money).
  2. Knowledge c.         Action
  3. Transference d.         Transduction



            REF:   Receptor Processes/Transduction     


  1. The specific term for the “stimulus on the receptors” in visual processing is the
  2. transduced image. c.         visual image.
  3. environmental stimulus. d.         perception.





  1. The image projected on the retina is best described as a ______ of the actual stimulus.
  2. representation. c.         replication.
  3. environmental stimulus. d.         scale model.





  1. Which brain structure is responsible for creating perceptions and producing other “high” level functions such as language, memory, and thinking?
  2. Brain stem c.         Hypothalamus
  3. Cerebral cortex d.         Occipital lobe





  1. Visual form agnosia is a problem of the ______ step of the perceptual process.
  2. action c.         transduction
  3. attention d.         recognition





  1. Which of the following best describes the steps of the perceptual process?
  2. The steps are unidirectional, starting at the environmental stimulus and ending at perception.
  3. The steps are unidirectional, starting at the environmental stimulus and ending at knowledge.
  4. The steps are unidirectional, starting at transduction and ending at recognition.
  5. The sequence of steps is dynamic and constantly changing.





  1. If a person sees the unambiguous “rat” stimulus, and then views the ambiguous “rat-man” figure, the person will most likely report seeing
  2. a rat, because of the effect of knowledge.
  3. a man, because we tend to see things that match our species.
  4. a rat, because of the effect of action.
  5. a rat or a man equally.





  1. Justin forgot to wear his glasses to class so the writing he sees on the chalk board is blurry. Even so, he is sure it says “Pop Quiz!” because he knows that there are pop quizzes in the class and he can see read the “P” and the “Q”. What allows him to read the board?
  2. Bottom-up processing c. Top-down processing
  3. Oblique processing d.         Compression





  1. ________ processing is based on the stimuli reaching the receptors.
  2. Bottom-up c.         Top-down
  3. Oblique d.         Receptor





  1. Trying to read a note written by someone with poor handwriting involves
  2. only top-down processing.
  3. only bottom-up processing.
  4. both top-down and bottom-up processing.
  5. only data-based processing.





  1. The physiological level of analysis involves the relationship between
  2. stimulus-and-physiology.
  3. physiology-and-perception.
  4. stimulus-and-perception.
  5. both stimulus-and-physiology and physiology-and-perception.





  1. Kimmy is casting shadows on the wall and watching whether her cat Tiger jumps at the shadows or not. She uses different hand motions to see if there is a difference in whether Tiger jumps or not. Kimmy is informally studying which relationship?
  2. the stimulus-physiology relationship c.         the stimulus-perception relationship
  3. the physiology-perception relationship d.         all of these




  1. Cognitive influences affect the _______ level of analysis.
  2. physiological c.         both physiological and psychophysical
  3. psychophysical d.         neither physiological and psychophysical





  1. The psychophysical method in which stimuli of varying intensities are presented in ascending and descending orders in discrete steps is called the method of
  2. limits. c.         searching.
  3. constant stimuli. d.         scaling.





  1. When using the method of limits, the absolute threshold is determined by calculating
  2. the stimulus intensity detected 50% of the time.
  3. the stimulus intensity detected 75% of the time.
  4. the stimulus intensity detected 100% of the time.
  5. the average of the “cross-over” points.





  1. The difference between the method of limits and the method of adjustment is that, in the method of adjustment, stimulus intensity is changed in a _______ manner.
  2. stepwise c.         continuous
  3. bivariate d.         discrete





  1. Of the three classical psychophysical methods, the method of constant stimuli
  2. is most accurate, but takes the most amount of time.
  3. is least accurate, but is the fastest.
  4. is the fastest and most accurate method.
  5. is the least accurate and takes the most amount of time.





  1. As used in the textbook, the “DL” is the abbreviation for
  2. detection level. c.         descending limit.
  3. differenze limen. d.         determinant logarithm.





  1. Using Weber’s Law, if the DL for a 100 gram weight standard is 2 grams, then the DL when using a 200 gram standard would be ____ grams.
  2. 0.02 c.         4
  3. 2 d.         50





  1. The Weber’s fraction for electric shock is _____, and ______ for light intensity.
  2. 0.01; 0.08 c.         0.02; 0.02
  3. 0.08; 0.01 d.         0.08; 0.08





  1. The “S” in the Weber fraction stands for:
  2. sensation c.         standard stimulus
  3. synapse d.         somatic







  1. Demetri is a participant in an auditory detection study using the method of constant stimuli. He never detects the 10 unit tone. He detects the 20 unit tone 25% of the trials. He detects the 30 unit tone 50% of the trials. He detects the 40 unit tone 80% of the trials. He detects the 50 unit tone 95% of the trials. His threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the
  2. 15 unit tone. c.         30 unit tone.
  3. 20 unit tone. d.         55 unit tone.





  1. A soup company wants to develop a “reduced-salt” version of their traditional minestrone. Which of the following would be the best first step to take?
  2. find taste-testers who have agnosia
  3. measure the amount of “cross-talk” using the method of adjustment
  4. determine the absolute threshold for salty taste using the method of limits
  5. determine the Weber’s fraction for salty taste





  1. Which of the following methods are used to measure the quantitative relationship between the stimulus and perception?
  2. description c.         reflection
  3. the phenomenological method d.         classical psychophysical methods





  1. Fechner’s psychophysical methods
  2. are important from a historical perspective, but are no longer used in contemporary research.
  3. were developed in the early 1960s.
  4. showed that mental activity cannot be measured quantitatively.
  5. are currently used to test a person’s hearing and vision.





  1. The first step in the procedure for ____________ is to present the participant a “standard stimulus” and assign a numerical value to that stimulus.
  2. the method of limits c.         the method of adjustment
  3. the method of constant stimuli d.         magnitude estimation





  1. Response __________ in a magnitude estimation experiment when doubling the stimulus intensity LESS than doubles the subjective magnitude of the stimulus.
  2. accretion c.         regression
  3. compression d.         expansion








  1. To double the perceived brightness of a light, you need to multiply the physical intensity of the light by about 9. This is an example of response
  2. compression. c.         linearity.
  3. expansion. d.         inversion.





  1. Stevens’s Power Law is so named because
  2. it is the best psychophysical law that has ever been theorized.
  3. the law explains why electrical power in the brain is responsible for perception.
  4. it explains how electrical signals in the retina are involved in transduction.
  5. the stimulus intensity is raised to a specific exponent to predict perceived magnitude. ** (page 16-17; conceptual)





  1. Stevens’s Power Law
  2. accurately describes vision, but not any other modality.
  3. accurately describes audition and vision, but not the skin senses.
  4. can describe the relationship between stimulus and perceived magnitude in all senses.
  5. is valid, but not reliable.





  1. The human response to electric shock demonstrates response expansion. This is important because it can explain why people
  2. will withdraw even from weak shocks. c.         will give shocks to other people.
  3. can have a high pain threshold. d.         will receive shocks from other people.





  1. Nelia is riding in a car and notices that stationary objects closer to her move faster than stationary objects that are further. Nelia is using which method of measuring perception?
  2. detection c.         phenomenological method
  3. search d. magnitude estimation





  1. Trying to find your friend’s face in a crowd is related to the method of
  2. visual search. c.         constant stimuli.
  3. limits. d.         adjustment.





  1. The major dependent variable used in the visual search method is
  2. color. c.         attention span.
  3. reaction time. d.         brightness level.





  1. In a detection experiment, Randy says “yes” to 90% of the trials, and Perry says “yes” to 70% of the trials. Our best conclusion from this study is
  2. Randy’s threshold is higher than Perry’s.
  3. Perry is more sensitive than Randy.
  4. response criterion may be different for Randy and Perry.
  5. Randy and Perry are equally sensitive.





  1. The theory that accounts for response criterion in a detection experiment is
  2. signal detection theory. c.         balance theory.
  3. evolutionary theory. d.         gateway theory.







  1. Discuss four reasons why it is important to study perception.


  1. Name and briefly describe the five categories of the perceptual process.


  1. Explain why the “action” step of the perceptual process is vital to an organism’s survival.


  1. (a) Define “top-down” and “bottom-up” processing.

(b) Discuss how the “rat-man” demonstration is used to exemplify the distinction between these two types of processing.


  1. Name and describe three classical psychophysical methods.


  1. (a) Draw a graph of log magnitude estimate as a function of log stimulus intensity for perceiving (1) brightness of a light; (2) line length; and (3) electric shock.

(b) Discuss how the slopes of the lines of the log/log plot relate to the concepts of response compression and response expansion.

(c) State how these slopes relate to Stevens’s Power Law.


  1. What is meant by a “response criterion”? How might this affect the outcome of a detection experiment?



Test Bank—Chapter 2: The Beginnings of Perception





  1. Our perception of the environment depends on
  2. the properties of the objects in the environment.
  3. the properties of the electrical signals in the nervous system.
  4. both the properties of the environmental objects and properties of the electrical signals in the nervous system.
  5. none of these are true.




  1. Visible light is between _____ and ____ nm within the electromagnetic spectrum.
  2. 100; 400 c.         500; 1000
  3. 400; 700 d.         900; 1500




  1. A wavelength of 100 nm would fall in the ______ range of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  2. X-rays c. infrared rays
  3. ultraviolet rays d.         gamma rays




  1. Light can be described in terms of wavelength, or as consisting of small packets of energy called
  2. photons. c.         ions.
  3. electrons. d.         pulsars.




  1. The structure of the eye that provides about 80% of the eye’s focusing power is the
  2. iris. c.         cornea.
  3. pupil. d.         lens.




  1. Jan tries to focus on the tip of her pencil as she brings it closer to her. She feels the strain on her eye as she does this. What she is feeling in her eye is due to the process called
  2. inhibition. c.         accommodation.
  3. reflection. d.         assimilation.




  1. The distance at which the lens can no longer bring a close object into focus is called the
  2. far point. c.         high point.
  3. near point. d.         coupee point.





  1. Lorelei’s mother is 60 years old. Because of the condition called ______, the closest distance at which she can focus an object is probably about ____ cm.
  2. cataracts; 20 c.         presbyopia; 100
  3. cataracts; 40 d.         dermabrasion; 150




  1. LASIK surgery is used to treat _______ by cutting a small flap in the _________.
  2. myopia; cornea c.         hyperopia; cornea
  3. myopia; lens d.         presbyopia; lens




  1. Individual suffering from myopia may have difficulty seeing _______ objects clearly. Often times they are also referred to as being _______.
  2. nearby; farsighted c.         distant; farsighted
  3. nearby; nearsighted d.         distant; nearsighted



  1. Vera has hyperopia, and tends to get headaches when she reads. This is because
  2. Vera also has presbyopia and has the constant need to accommodate. c.         Vera has just had LASIK surgery and her ciliary muscles are damaged.
  3. Vera also has myopia and is unable to accommodate. d.         Vera is 5-years-old and lacks the visual acuity to read.




  1. The visual pigment molecules are contained in the
  2. inner segments of the visual receptors. c.         axons of the rods.
  3. outer segments of the visual receptors. d.         axons of the cones.




  1. _______ reacts to light to start the process of transduction.
  2. Opsin c.         Choroid
  3. Retinal d.         Thyric acid




  1. The isomerization of a single pigment molecule triggers what is best described as a
  2. chain reaction. c.         hyperactive potential.
  3. ballistic expansion. d.         hypopolarization wave.








  1. Which of the following is true about the difference between the rods and the cones?
  2. The rods control vision in high illumination conditions, and the cones control vision in low illumination conditions.
  3. The rods are packed in an area called the fovea, and the cones are found more in the peripheral retina.
  4. There are about 120 million rods in the human eye and about 5 million cones.
  5. The only difference between the rods and the cones is physical shape.





  1. A retinal condition that destroys the cones in the fovea is
  2. macular degeneration. c.         presbyopia.
  3. retinitis pigmentosa. d.         retinal hypopolarization.




  1. In the early stages of _______, peripheral rod receptors are destroyed leading to poorer peripheral vision.
  2. macular degeneration c.         presbyopia
  3. retinitis pigmentosa d.         retinal hypopolarization



  1. The blind spot is located
  2. in the fovea. c.         where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
  3. in the vitreous. d.         at the optic chiasm.




  1. Nina does a demonstration of “seeing” the blind spot, in which a grid pattern surrounds the black dot that disappears when it falls on the blind spot. What does Nina most likely see in the area where the dot disappears?
  2. a blurry gray area c.         nothing
  3. a white circle d.         a continuation of the grid pattern




  1. The episode of “Mythbusters” cited in the textbook demonstrated that dark adaptation was the reason why
  2. poker players wear sunglasses. c.         cardinals have good night vision.
  3. pirates wore eyepatches. d.         giants have poor night vision.




  1. To isolate the rod portion of the dark adaptation curve, researchers
  2. use rod monochromats as the participants.
  3. present the stimulus foveally.
  4. present the stimulus in the periphery.
  5. use cone monochromats as participants.



  1. The “rod-cone break” in the dark adaptation curve occurs after about ___ in the dark.
  2. 30 seconds c.         7 minutes
  3. 2 minutes d.         30 minutes




  1. When visual pigments become bleached they are
  2. dead. c.         color sensitive.
  3. fully regenerated. d.         detached from the opsim.




  1. Rushton demonstrated that the physiological mechanism behind dark adaptation is
  2. visual pigment regeneration. c.         modular organization.
  3. the enzyme cascade. d.         photon remission.



  1. Cone spectral sensitivity is measured by having the observer
  2. look up and blink. c.         look directly into a light.
  3. look straight forward without blinking. d.         look to the side of a flashing light.




  1. The peak in the spectral sensitivity curve is about _____ for the rods, and about _____ for the cones.
  2. 700 nm; 400 nm c.         500 nm; 560 nm
  3. 450 nm; 800 nm d.         600 nm; 450 nm




  1. The Purkinje shift
  2. is when reds appear brighter than blues in well-lit conditions, but blues appear brighter than reds in dim conditions.
  3. is when blues appear brighter than reds in well-lit conditions, but blues appear brighter than reds in dim conditions.
  4. is when details that are easily seen in well-lit conditions become more difficult to see in low-light conditions.
  5. demonstrates the importance of eye movements in visual pigment regeneration.




  1. There are ____different cone receptors, each with different absorption spectra.
  2. 2 c.         4
  3. 3 d.         7






  1. The three major parts of a neuron are
  2. dendrites, cell body, and axon. c.         receptor, transmitter, and median.
  3. axon, nerve fiber, and receptor. d.         receptor, dendrites, and conductor.




  1. The difference in charge between the inside and the outside of the nerve fiber when the nerve is at rest is _____ mV.
  2. –70 c.         0
  3. –10 d.         +19




  1. Which of the following statements best defines the “propagated response”?
  2. Once a response is triggered, the response travels the length of the axon without decreasing in amplitude.
  3. Once a response is triggered, the response gradually increases in amplitude as it travels down the length of the axon.
  4. The response increases the positive charge of the chlorine ions throughout the length of the axon.
  5. The number of negative potassium ions increase the closer the impulse is to the dendrites.




  1. As stimulus intensity is increased, recording from a single neuron shows
  2. the amplitude of the action potential increases.
  3. the amplitude of the action potential decreases.
  4. the amplitude of the action potential may increase or decrease, depending on the stimulus.
  5. the rate of firing of the nerve fiber increases.




  1. The upper limit of a neuron’s firing rate is estimated to be ____ impulses per second.
  2. 20 c.         800
  3. 100 d.         4400




  1. At the beginning of the action potential, _____ ions flow from outside the nerve fiber into the nerve fiber.
  2. positive potassium c.         positive sodium
  3. negative potassium d.         negative sodium




  1. The flow of ions that create the action potential are caused by the changes in the ______ of the nerve fiber.
  2. suppression c.         accommodation
  3. permeability d.         assimilation





  1. Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called _________ that are released across the synapse to the next neuron.
  2. electrolytyes c.         neurotransmitters
  3. collagens d.         glial cells




  1. The _____ analogy is used to describe the relationship of neurotransmitters with receptor sites.
  2. “needle in a haystack” c.         “stadium wave”
  3. “lock and key” d.         “rolling stone”




  1. ____________ is the process by which inhibitory transmitters cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative.
  2. Hyperpolarization c.         Antipolarization
  3. Depolarization d.         Repolarization




  1. The rate of firing of the postsynaptic neuron depends on the amount of ______ input it receives from the presynaptic neuron.
  2. excitation c.         equalizing
  3. inhibition d.         both excitation and inhibition




  1. __________ is necessary for the neural transmission and processing of information.
  2. Inhibition c.         Exhibition
  3. Excitation d.         Both inhibition and excitation




  1. Rods and cones synapse with ______ cells, which then synapse with ____ cells.
  2. ganglion; bipolar c.         amacrine; unipolar
  3. bipolar; ganglion d.         amacrine; bipolar



  1. Converging circuits with excitation and inhibition are associated most closely with which step of the perceptual process?
  2. recognition c.         neural processing
  3. attention d.         the environmental stimulus




  1. If we compare how the rods and cones converge onto other retinal neurons, we find that
  2. foveal cones converge more than the peripheral rods.
  3. rods and cones converge equally.
  4. rods converge more than foveal cones.
  5. horizontal cells converge onto the peripheral cones.





  1. Convergence results in _________ sensitivity and _______ acuity.
  2. increased; increased c.         decreased; decreased
  3. increased; decreased d.         decreased; increased




  1. Reading the eye chart in an optometrist’s office is used to measure
  2. acuity. c. receptive fields.
  3. sensitivity. d.         creativity.




  1. Acuity is better in the ____ than in the _____.
  2. periphery; fovea c.         optic disk; cornea
  3. optic disk; fovea d.         fovea; periphery




  1. The difficulty of reading under dim light conditions can be explained by
  2. the increased sensitivity of cones under low light conditions.
  3. the increased acuity of cones under low light conditions.
  4. the fact that rod functioning predominates during dark adaptation, therefore poor acuity.
  5. the fact that cone functioning predominates during dark adaptation, therefore poor acuity.






  1. The stimuli used in the preferential looking technique of testing infant acuity are
  2. geons. c.         Greebles.
  3. gratings. d.         faces.





  1. Acuity develops to almost 20/20 vision by the time the infant is
  2. one month old. c.         one year old.
  3. two months old. d.         two years old.




  1. Which of the following is a reason for the poor acuity of newborns?
  2. The rods are not developed at birth.
  3. Newborns have too much visual pigment in the cones.
  4. A newborn’s rods have very narrow inner segments.
  5. The visual cortex of the newborn is only partially developed.







  1. Name, define, and discuss the treatment for three kinds of focusing problems.



  1. (a) Discuss the major differences between the rods and the cones.

(b) Describe two retinal disorders that differentially affect the rods and the cones.




  1. (a) What is the “blind spot”?

(b) Discuss two reasons why we are not usually aware of the blind spot.



  1. (a) Draw a graph (with appropriate axis labels) of the dark adaptation curve.

(b) Describe the methodology used to isolate the rod component of the curve, and the cone component.

(c) Discuss how Rushton demonstrated the physiological basis to dark adaptation.




  1. (a) What are the basic properties of action potentials?

(b) How do these properties relate to perception?





  1. Describe the process of synaptic transmission. Include in this description the differences between excitatory and inhibitory transmitters.




  1. Using words and/or diagrams, circuits with (a) no convergence; (b) convergence; and (c) convergence with inhibition affect neural firing rate.




  1. (a) In words and/or diagrams, discuss why convergence of the rods results in increased sensitivity, but decreased acuity.

(b) In words and/or diagrams, discuss why the lack of convergence in the foveal cones results in decreased sensitivity, but increased acuity.




  1. Describe how preferential looking and visual evoked potentials technique have been used to study infant perception.



Test Bank—Chapter 3: Neural Processing and Perception


Test Bank—Chapter 3: Neural Processing and Perception




  1. Hartline et al. (1956) selected the Limulus to demonstrate lateral inhibition because
  2. it was possible to illuminate a single receptor without illuminating its adjacent receptor.
  3. it was a non-verbal species.
  4. the Limulus eye contained more cones than rods.
  5. the Limulus has excellent color vision.




  1. A receptor array in the Limulus is connected by the lateral plexus. Receptor “A” is located 5 receptors to the left of Receptor “B.” What stimulation will result in the greatest firing rate recorded from “A”?
  2. stimulate A with 10 units of illumination
  3. stimulate A with 10 units of illumination and stimulate B with 10 units
  4. stimulate A with 10 units of illumination and stimulate B with 20 units
  5. stimulate A with 5 units of illumination and stimulate B with 20 units.




  1. _________: Limulus :: ________: human retina.
  2. Horizontal cells; amacrine cells
  3. Amacrine cells; horizontal cells
  4. Lateral plexus; horizontal and amacrine cells
  5. Lateral plexus; rods




  1. Human lateral inhibition is most likely accomplished by
  2. end-stopped cells. c.         bipolar cells.
  3. extrastriate cells. d.         dissociative cells.




  1. Lateral inhibition has been used to explain
  2. the Hermann Grid.
  3. Mach bands.
  4. simultaneous contrast.
  5. the Hermann Grid, Mach bands, and simultaneous contrast.





  1. The gray intersections in the Hermann Grid
  2. are physically present.
  3. are explained by dark adaptation.
  4. support the claim that “perception is not the same as the physical stimulus.”
  5. are best explained by feature detectors.




  1. In Hermann’s grid, gray areas appear at the intersections because
  2. the amount of inhibition right at the intersections is twice as great as the inhibition between each square.
  3. the amount of inhibition right at the intersections is much less than the inhibition between each square.
  4. the superior colliculus responds maximally as you move your eye from intersection to intersection.
  5. moving the eye creates a blur at all the intersections.




  1. In Mach bands, the darker area sends _____ lateral inhibition to the lighter area than the lighter area sends to the darker area.
  2. less c.         the same amount of
  3. more d.         no




  1. You can create a version of the ________ by illuminating a light-colored surface with a desk lamp and casting a shadow with a piece of paper.
  2. Hermann Grid c.         Benary Cross
  3. Mach bands d.         illusory square




  1. In the simultaneous contrast effect, gray squares of equal intensities are surrounding by either a dark background or a lighter background. The square on the dark background looks _______ than the square on the lighter background.
  2. darker c. the same as
  3. lighter d. more colorful




  1. White’s illusion is an example of a perceptual effect that can be explained by the principle of
  2. belongingness. c. spatial summation.
  3. lateral inhibition. d.         convergence.






  1. The inability of lateral inhibition to explain White’s illusion suggests that some contrast effects are based in
  2. the retina. c.         the lateral plexus.
  3. the cortex. d.         the macula.




  1. The area on the retina that influences the firing rate of the neuron is called the
  2. receptive field. c.         divergence area.
  3. amacrine region. d.         inverted fovea.





  1. A neuron with an excitatory center- inhibitory surround receptive field will respond most when we stimulate
  2. only the center. c.         both the center and surround together.
  3. only the surround. d.         part of the surround.





  1. Most of the signals travel from the retina to the ______ via the optic nerve.
  2. temporal cortex c.         the superior colliculus
  3. lateral geniculate nucleus d.         the visual homunculus




  1. Chad is reading when he sees an insect land on the corner of his book. He then makes an eye movement to look at the insect. The structure of the visual system that is most likely responsible for making this eye movement is
  2. the superior colliculus. c.         the optic chiasm.
  3. the extrastriate cortex. d.         the parietal cortex.





  1. Neurons in the LGN have __________ receptive fields.
  2. center-surround c.         ill-defined
  3. side-by-side columnar d. ambiguous












  1. The flow of information in the LGN is best described as
  2. unidirectional, with signals going from the retina to the LGN.
  3. unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the retina.
  4. unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the cortex.
  5. bi-directional, with signals coming from the retina and the cortex to the LGN.




  1. The flow of information from the ___ to the ____ is the greatest amount of information flow.
  2. LGN; cortex c.         LGN; retina
  3. retina; LGN d.         cortex; LGN



  1. The Nobel Prize winners who conducted the pioneering research on the physiology of striate cortex neurons were
  2. White and Benary. c.         Mathers and Marshall.
  3. Hubel and Wiesel. d.         Libby and Rizzutto.




  1. Graphing the response of a simple cortical cell results in the
  2. response compression curve. c. response expansion curve.
  3. orientation tuning curve. d.         motion-directive sensitivity function.




  1. Unlike simple cells, complex cells respond best to
  2. stationary spots of light. c.         moving stimuli.
  3. small spots of light. d.         stationary lines of any orientation.




  1. ______ cells fire to moving lines of a specific length or to moving corners or angles.
  2. Complex c.         End-stopped
  3. Simplex d.         Edge




  1. As we travel farther from the retina, neurons fire to
  2. more complex stimuli. c.         more intense stimuli.
  3. less complex stimuli. d.         less intense stimuli.





  1. The different types of cortical cells are also called
  2. inhibitory cells. c.         direct circuits.
  3. feature detectors. d.         signal detectors.




  1. A stimulus that contains alternating black and white bars is called a
  2. grating. c.         Boolean array.
  3. grid. d.         Moire pattern.




  1. The difference in intensity between the light bars and the dark bars is called
  2. orientation. c.         phase.
  3. wave form. d.         contrast.




  1. To measure _________, the experimenter decreases the intensity difference between the light bars and the dark bars until an observer can just barely detect the difference between the dark bars and the light bars.
  2. Mach bands c.         phase continuity
  3. contrast threshold d.         brightness constancy





  1. The results of experiments of selective adaptation to gratings with specific orientations can be related to the __________ of ________ cells.
  2. lateral inhibition; simple cortical c.         tuning curves; amacrine
  3. lateral inhibition; end-stopped d.         tuning curves; simple cortical




  1. When you stare at a grating of wide bars for 55 seconds, then look at a grating with narrow bars, the narrow bars will
  2. seem to be thinner than they actually are. c.         seem to change orientation.
  3. seem to be wider that they actually are. d.         be unaffected by the adaptation period.





  1. _________ refers to the fact that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by an animal’s or person’s perceptual experience.
  2. Selective adaptation c.         Sensory integration
  3. Neural plasticity d.         Perceptual analysis





  1. Selective rearing refers to
  2. raising an organism in an environment that only contains certain types of stimuli.
  3. genetically manipulating the organism pre-natally.
  4. genetically manipulating the organism in the first month after birth.
  5. presenting an array of stimuli to the organism in the first month after birth.





  1. When a kitten is exposed to an environment of just horizontal lines, the kitten
  2. would pay attention only to vertical lines.
  3. would pay attention only to horizontal lines.
  4. would have cortical cells that only respond to vertical lines.
  5. would have cortical cells that respond to horizontal lines, but none to vertical lines.





  1. “Grandmother cells” are mostly closely associated with _______ coding.
  2. specificity c.         olfactory
  3. distributed d.         invasive




  1. Neurons in the ________ respond to complex stimuli, but not simple stimuli such as straight lines.
  2. LGN c.         IT cortex
  3. Striate cortex d.         Retina




  1. Which of the following proposed representational systems is the least likely to actually be in place in the human visual system?
  2. Sparse coding
  3. Specificity coding
  4. Representation by a small number of neurons
  5. Distributed coding




  1. An advantage of ___________coding of visual object representation is that a large number of stimuli can be signaled by a few neurons.
  2. specificity c.         extrastriate
  3. distributed d.         retinal





  1. Quioroga et al. (2005) studied sensory coding by
  2. ablation of the IT in humans.
  3. ablation of the FFA in humans.
  4. using implanted electrodes in the limbic system of college student volunteers.
  5. using implanted electrodes in the temporal lobe of epileptic patients.




  1. Finding the neural correlate of consciousness is related to the
  2. easy problem of consciousness. c.         easy problem of reductionism.
  3. hard problem of consciousness. d.         hard problem of reductionism.




  1. “How do physiological responses transform into perceptual experiences?” summarizes the
  2. easy problem of consciousness. c.         NC state problem.
  3. hard problem of consciousness. d.         NCC-1701 lettering problem.







  1. (a) What is lateral inhibition?

(b) Select either the Hermann Grid or Mach bands, and discuss how lateral inhibition accounts for the phenomenon.




  1. (a) What is “White’s Illusion”?

(b)  Discuss why this can’t be explained by lateral inhibition, and what mechanism has been proposed to explain this illusion.




  1. Describe the procedure involved in mapping receptive fields.




  1. (a) Describe the difference between simple cortical cells, complex cortical cells, and end-stopped cells.

(b) Explain why these cells are called “feature detectors.”




  1. Discuss research that shows that selective rearing results in neural plasticity.





  1. Describe how information would be represented under each of the following representational schemes: specificity coding, distributed coding, and sparse coding.




Test Bank—Chapter 4: Cortical Organization


Test Bank—Chapter 4: Cortical Organization




  1. The ________ can be described as the electronic map of the retina on the cortex.
  2. visual map c.         retinotopic map
  3. spatial map d.         cortextual map




  1. The cortical magnification factor occurs in humans because
  2. a small area in the peripheral retina accounts for a large area on the cortex.
  3. the small area of the fovea accounts for a large area on the cortex.
  4. the lens accommodates so that the image is magnified on the retina.
  5. the area at the optic disk accounts for a large area on the cortex.




  1. The brain imaging technique involving injecting a radioactive tracer into the blood is
  2. FMRI. c. lesioning.
  3. ablation. d.         PET scan.




  1. ________ is a brain imaging technique that tracks blood flow in the brain using magnetic fields. This tracking is possible because hemoglobin has magnetic properties.
  2. FMRI c.         ERP
  3. ablation d.         PET scan




  1. Dougherty et al. (2003) used brain imaging to investigate cortical magnification. Their primary finding was that _________.
  2. information presented in the peripheral vision activated the most brain area.
  3. information presented to the fovea activated the most brain area.
  4. moving stimuli activated different brain areas than stationary stimuli.
  5. cortical magnification is not detectable using fMRI.




  1. The retinotopic map on the LGN has been determined by recording from neurons in the ______ .
  2. retina c.         LGN
  3. optic nerve d.         MTL




  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of column in the striate cortex?
  2. location c.         orientation
  3. ocular dominance d.         double dissociative




  1. An electrode is placed in an orientation column that responds best to orientations of 45 degrees. The adjacent column of cells will probably best respond to orientations of
  2. 5 degrees. c.         90 degrees.
  3. 40 degrees. d.         225 degrees.




  1. Which of the following is true regarding the organization of columns in the cortex?
  2. A location column can contain many orientation columns.
  3. An orientation column can contain many location columns.
  4. Location and orientation columns are located in different parts of the cortex.
  5. Action columns are present in both location and orientation columns.




  1. A/An ________ is a location column that receives information about all possible orientations within a given area of the retina.
  2. supercolumn c.         hypercolumn
  3. orientation d.         action




  1. Neurons respond preferentially to the right eye or the left eye. This phenomenon is referred to as
  2. hemispheric specialization. c.         retinotopic disparity.
  3. bilateral dominance. d.         ocular dominance.




  1. The arrangement of ocular dominance columns in the cortex is best described as
  2. columns for both the left eye and right eye in each hypercolumn.
  3. columns for the left eye residing in the left hemisphere and for the right eye in the right hemisphere.
  4. groupings of several left eye columns adjacent to groupings of several right eye columns.
  5. concentric areas, with the center columns for the left eye, and the surrounding columns for the right eye.






  1. A large object, such as a tree trunk, will cause
  2. every neuron in one location column to fire, but no firing in any other column.
  3. a limited number of neurons to fire in only one ocular dominance column.
  4. firing of neurons in a number of different columns.
  5. every neuron in an orientation column to fire, but not in the location columns.




  1. When looking at a scene, the different sections of the scene are processed by many different location columns. Through the use of all of the location columns, the entire scene can be perceived. This effect is referred to as
  2. fielding. c.         convergence.
  3. orientation. d.         tiling.





  1. Zghsx#8j, a visitor from another planet, is curious about cars. She takes the battery out of the car, and finds out that the car won’t start and the lights and stereo don’t work.  Her “research” is most closely related to the method called
  2. ablation. c.         transcendental mediation.
  3. transcranial magnetic stimulation. d.         microstimulation.




  1. Ablation is a procedure in which
  2. a radioactive isotope is injected into the bloodstream and traced through the brain.
  3. electrodes on the scalp are used to measure changes in brain activity.
  4. a particular area of the brain is removed or destroyed.
  5. an electromagnetic pulse is used to temporarily disrupt brain activity.




  1. Object discrimination problem: ____ :: Landmark discrimination problem :_____.
  2. temporal lobes; parietal lobes c.         parietal lobes; occipital lobes
  3. parietal lobes; temporal lobes d.         LGN; thalamus



  1. In Ungerleider and Mishkin’s (1982) research, monkeys who had had their temporal lobes removed had difficulty
  2. coordinating their movements. c.         discriminating between locations.
  3. discriminating between objects. d.         remembering sequences of actions.





  1. The dorsal pathway goes to the _______ lobe.
  2. temporal c.         parietal
  3. frontal d. occipital



  1. The ventral pathway has also been labeled the _________ pathway.
  2. where c.         what
  3. how d.         why




  1. Which of the following statements is false regarding the dorsal and ventral pathways?
  2. Information flow is bidirectional in both pathways.
  3. The pathways rely on information from the same type of ganglion cells.
  4. The pathways have connections between them.
  5. Both pathways have feedback activation.





  1. According to Milner and Goodale, the dorsal stream is the _____ pathway.
  2. what c.         how
  3. when d.         why





  1. A researcher finds that damage to Area A of the brain results in the loss of Function A but not Function B. In another individual, damage to Area B results in the loss of Function B but not Function A. These results are best described as a/an
  2. associative link. c.         single dissociation.
  3. double dissociation. d.         differential assessment.




  1. The results of the patient D.F., who had visual form agnosia
  2. show that perception and action are independent of each other in the brain.
  3. show that visual orientation is done by the same brain structure that guides action involving orientation.
  4. show that the inability to draw items is due to a lack of general knowledge.
  5. show that double dissociations do not occur in these patients.




  1. Ganel et al. (2008) designed a visual illusion (modified Ponzo illusion) in which one line appears to be longer than another, when, in reality, the opposite is true. Participants are asked to judge the line lengths and to reach and grab the ends of the lines. The results of this investigation reveal
  2. the interaction of the ventral and dorsal stream.
  3. that the visual illusion affects both the ventral and dorsal streams.
  4. the effects of damage to the ventral pathway.
  5. that the illusion only affects ventral stream processing.




  1. A structure that is specialized to process information about a particular type of stimulus is called a
  2. lesion. c.         partition.
  3. module. d.         pathway.





  1. The principle that specific functions are served by specific cortical areas is called
  2. cortical magnification. c.         the distribution principle.
  3. modular organization. d.         haptic segmentation.




  1. An IT neuron in the monkey will fire briskly when presented a picture of a
  2. monkey’s face. c.         banana.
  3. tree. d.         human torso.




  1. Tsao et al. (2006) found that _____ of neurons in the monkey IT cortex were face selective.
  2. 12% c.         70%
  3. 97% d.         43%.




  1. An area in the _______ called the ___________ is specialized to recognize faces.
  2. temporal lobe; FFA c.         parietal lobe; FFA
  3. occipital lobe; RBC d.         parietal lobe;  area 4H





  1. Prosopagnosia is
  2. the difficulty recognizing familiar faces. c.         due to damage to the MT cortex.
  3. due to damage to the parietal lobe. d.         the inability to detect movement.




  1. Activity in the PPA
  2. reveals a preference for indoor, but not outdoor, scenes.
  3. is higher for pictures of empty rooms than furnished rooms.
  4. reveals a preference for body parts over faces.
  5. is the same for pictures of furnished and empty rooms.





  1. The EBA is activated by
  2. pictures of houses and other manmade structures.
  3. pictures of body parts.
  4. direct eye gaze from another individual.
  5. tasks that require spatial information.




  1. Patient H.M. had his _______ removed in order to control his epileptic seizures.
  2. hippocampi c.         striate cortex
  3. IT cortex d.         corpus callosum




  1. The primary deficit encountered by patient H.M. is best described as the inability to
  2. discriminate between faces.
  3. perceive different line orientations.
  4. form new long-term memories.
  5. use information from the “where” pathway.



  1. One neuron studied by Quiroga et al. responded preferentially to
  2. drawings of Halle Berry.
  3. a picture of Halle Berry dressed as Catwoman.
  4. the words “Halle Berry” presented visually.
  5. All of these caused the cell to fire.




  1. Savig et al. (2008) monitored individual MTL neurons while displaying video clips of a variety of stimuli. They were able to identify neurons that respond preferentially to a visual stimulus. Later they asked participants to ________ and found preferential activation of the same neuron to the video clip concept.
  2. view pictures from various viewpoints
  3. view the same video clips, but with an altered color pallet.
  4. try to remember the video clips they had seen.
  5. draw a picture representing the video clip.



  1. _________ refers to the fact that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by an animal’s or person’s perceptual experience.
  2. Selective adaptation c.         Sensory integration
  3. Experience-dependent plasticity d.         Perceptual analysis




  1. The _________ effect occurs because humans have more cortical neurons that respond to horizontal and vertical orientations than slanted orientations.
  2. oblique c.         parallel
  3. transverse d.         box



  1. After training participants on the recognition of “Greeble” stimuli, Gauthier et al. found that the neuron in the FFA responded
  2. as well to Greebles as to human faces.
  3. weakly to Greebles, but strong activity to human faces.
  4. unpredictably to Greebles, and inhibited activity for human faces.
  5. weakly to Greebles, and decreased activity to human faces.




  1. Gauthier et al.’s Greeble finding is consistent with the  ______ hypothesis.
  2. maturation c.         rivally
  3. oblique d.         expertise






  1. (a) Describe research that shows cortical magnification occurs in humans.

(b) What is the connection between cortical magnification and acuity?




  1. Describe how an object such as a tree is represented in the striate cortex.




  1. Describe research on brain damaged and non-brain damaged people that support the idea that the dorsal stream is the “how” pathway.




  1. Summarize the Ganel et al. (2008) research on length estimation and grasping tasks, what the implication of this research is for different processing streams.




  1. Define “modular organization” and specify how the senses are organized into primary receiving areas.




  1. Describe the procedure, results, and implications of the Quiroga et al.’s (2005) “Halle Berry neuron” study.




  1. Describe the methods, results, and conclusions of Gauthier et al.’s “Greeble” research.






Test Bank—Chapter 5: Perceiving Objects and Scenes


Test Bank—Chapter 5: Perceiving Objects and Scenes




  1. Computers are better than humans at perceiving objects because
  2. computers can process information faster than humans. c.         computers can more easily determine the reasons for changes in lightness.
  3. computers have higher storage capacity than humans. d.         none of these; humans are better than computers at object perception.




  1. The ___________ problem shows that numerous physical stimuli can create exactly the same image on the retina.
  2. correspondence c.         occlusion
  3. inverse projection d.         ambiguity




  1. Jimmy looks at a moderately blurred picture of Princess Diana’s face. Jimmy will most likely
  2. not be able to identify the face.
  3. identify the face as male rather than female.
  4. be able to correctly identify the face.
  5. need a computer to scan the image to correctly identify it.




  1. “Viewpoint invariance” means
  2. children can only represent one perceptual viewpoint at a time.
  3. computers can invert images to easily perform object recognition.
  4. humans can easily recognize objects when seen from different viewpoints.
  5. monkeys can only recognize other monkey faces from a frontal view.




  1. Wundt: _________ :: Wertheimer: _____________.
  2. structuralism; Gestalt psychology c.         functionalism; structuralism
  3. Gestalt psychology; structuralism d.         psychophysics; metaphysics











  1. Structuralists would be most likely to endorse which of the following statements?
  2. Sensations and perceptions are the same “unit” of thought.
  3. The whole of something is greater than its parts.
  4. Perceptions can be explained by the sensations that make them up.
  5. Past experience plays little or no role in perception formation.





  1. The demonstration of apparent movement provides support for the Gestalt approach because
  2. the phenomenon cannot be explained by sensations alone.
  3. the phenomenon relies exclusively on the perceiver’s past experience.
  4. the images used do not follow the principle of common region.
  5. the phenomenon relied on figure/ground segregation.




  1. Gestalt psychologists used the example of illusory contours to support the claim that
  2. perceptions are formed by combining sensations.
  3. vision can be modeled on computer processing.
  4. the whole is different than the sum of its parts.
  5. experience determines perceptual interpretation.




  1. The Olympic symbol is an example of the Gestalt principle of
  2. proximity. c.         common fate.
  3. Pragnanz. d.         synchrony.




  1. The principle of similarity can account for grouping of stimuli that are similar in
  2. orientation. c.         size.
  3. shape. d.         orientation, shape, and size.




  1. Corey looks at a flock of seagulls flying in one direction, when suddenly five of the seagulls start flying in another direction. He now perceives two groups of birds, because of the Gestalt principle of
  2. common fate. c.         synchrony.
  3. uniform connectedness. d.         Pragnanz.




  1. Alyson looks at a picture of arrows and sees white arrows pointing to the right against a black background. She looks at the picture longer, and then sees black arrows pointing to the left against a white background. Her perception of the this stimulus is an example of
  2. perceptual segregation. c.         view invariance.
  3. binocular rivalry. d.         orientation invariance.



  1. In a scene, the objects in the foreground are best described as _________, whereas the image making up the background is best described as the _______.
  2. object; setting c. near point; distance
  3. ground; figure d.         figure; ground





  1. Border ownership means that when figure-ground segregation occurs, the border between the figure and background
  2. seems to change color.
  3. is perceived to be associated with the background.
  4. is perceived to be associated with the figure.
  5. seems to disappear.




  1. Which of the following is a general determinant of figure-ground segregation?
  2. An area on the right side is more likely to be perceived as a figure than a stimulus on the left.
  3. Small stimuli are more likely to be perceived as ground than figure.
  4. Detailed images are more likely to be perceived as figure than ground.
  5. A lower region is more likely to be perceived as figure than an upper region.




  1. Sally recently looked at some visual illusions. In one reversible-image illusion she saw a vase in the middle of a blue box. What is Sally most likely to remember about this illusion?
  2. Details about the box. c. The vase she saw in the illusion.
  3. The two faces on the side of the face. d.         The lower half of the image.




  1. In one reversible figure/ground study, Gibson and Peterson (1994) used an image in which one area looks like a woman when upright, but does not resemble anything when turned upside down. Their general finding was that
  2. meaningfulness of an image had a large effect on figure-ground segregation.
  3. meaningful images were just as likely to be seen as figure or ground.
  4. inverting the entire image lead to slower response times.
  5. meaningfulness only had an effect when the are appeared on the left side.




  1. The Bev Doolittle print of “The Forest Has Eyes” exemplifies the way _______ affects perceptual organization.
  2. proximity. c.         meaningfulness.
  3. common region. d.         common fate.




  1. Humans need approximately ____ to perceive the gist of a scene.
  2. 250 milliseconds c.         2 seconds
  3. 1000 milliseconds d.         5 seconds




  1. A masking stimulus is primarily used to
  2. stop persistence of vision.
  3. increase the duration of persistence of vision.
  4. increase the area of the “region-of-interest”.
  5. hide the purpose of the experiment from participants.




  1. Based on Fei-Fei et al. (2007), smaller objects within a scene are typically recognized within
  2. 50 milliseconds. c.         500 milliseconds.
  3. 150 milliseconds. d.         1000 milliseconds.




  1. Which of the following is a global image feature, according to Oliva and Torralba?
  2. degree of naturalness c. color
  3. degree of openness d.         All of these are global image features.




  1. Copolla et al. (1998) gave students at Duke University digital cameras and told them to go to different areas on campus and take a picture every two minutes. Based on known physical regularities in the environment, what would you expect the photos to reveal?
  2. Horizontal and vertical orientations were the major physical regularities.
  3. Diagonal orientations were the major environmental regularities.
  4. Gestalt principles were incompatible with the major environmental regularities.
  5. Environmental irregularities were more salient than environmental regularities.




  1. The _______ effect is that humans perceive horizontals and verticals more easily than other orientations.
  2. Turing c. spreading
  3. oblique d.         visual persistence





  1. Jimmy looks at a picture of a side of a submarine that has dents and bumps on it.  When he turns the picture upside-down, what he originally perceived as bumps, now look like dents, and vice versa. This is due to
  2. figure-ground reversal. c.         accidental properties of light.
  3. the oblique effect. d.         the “light-from-above” heuristic.



  1. Humans use the _____________ to determine shape from shading.
  2. environmental assumption c.         proximity principle
  3. light-from-above assumption d. delayed-matching principle





  1. When Palmer (1975) showed observers a kitchen scene and then a target picture, which picture was identified correctly 80% of the time?
  2. A loaf of bread, because it matches the context of the scene
  3. A mailbox, because it seems so out-of-context, that it “pops-out”
  4. A drum, because participants were music majors.
  5. A bedroom, because it is from the same category.





  1. The theory of unconscious inference
  2. was developed by Treisman in the 1990’s.
  3. is closely related to the “likelihood principle.”
  4. describes the use of algortithms in perception.
  5. is incompatible with Gestalt psychology.




  1. The results of Grill-Spector et al.’s (2004) “Harrison Ford” study demonstrated that
  2. FFA activation is the same whether detecting or recognizing a face.
  3. FFA activation is greater when detecting than recognizing a face.
  4. FFA activation is greater when recognizing than detecting a face.
  5. FFA activation is the same whether detecting a face or seeing no face.




  1. In studies with monkeys, Sheinberg and Logothetis (1997) presented a butterfly to one eye and a sunburst pattern to the other eye. This research demonstrated that
  2. binocular rivalry does not occur in monkeys.
  3. monkeys use binocular rivalry as a depth cue.
  4. “ineffective” and “effective” stimuli are processed the same way in the cortex.
  5. changes in perception are linked to cortical neural firing.




  1. Tong et al. (1998) used binocular rivalry to test brain responses when the person perceived a house or a face. When the person perceived the house, activity in the _____ increased.
  2. activity in the PPA increased.
  3. activity in the FFA increased.
  4. activity in the PPA and the FFA increased.
  5. activity in the PPA and the FFA decreased.




  1. A voxel is
  2. a small cube-shaped area of the brain about 2 mm on each side.
  3. an electrode used to measure brain activity.
  4. the basic unit of sensation.
  5. the retinal area on which an image is projected.




  1. Kamitani and Tong (2005) developed “orientation decoders”. When eight orientations were tested, the decoders were able to correctly predict what orientation a person was looking at on _____ of the trials.
  2. 10% c.         40%
  3. 25% d.         100%




  1. Nascelaris et al. (2009) developed the _____ decoder that is used to make predictions about characteristics of a scene such as contrast and shape.
  2. form c.         orientation
  3. structure d.         semantic





  1. The ______ decoder is intended to discriminate between different categories of images, such as outdoor scenes and portraits.
  2. orientation c.         scene
  3. structure d.         semantic




  1. Which of the following is true regarding inversion effects?
  2. Faces and other objects are equally affected by inversion.
  3. Face processing is slowed more than that of other objects.
  4. Object identification is not affected by inversion.
  5. They demonstrate that faces are processed featurally.





  1. Perceiving the emotional aspects of a face are reflected by activation in the brian structure called
  2. the amygdala. c. the IT cortex.
  3. the medulla. d.         the superior temporal sulcus.




  1. The preferential looking technique showed that infants as young as ______ will

look at their mother’s face than a stranger’s face.

  1. two-days-old c.         one-month-old
  2. one-week-old d.         six-months-old



  1. Research has shown that an infant can visually recognize his/her mother’s face from
  2. the contrast between her eye color and face.
  3. her smile.
  4. the contrast between her hairline and forehead.
  5. her overall head shape.





  1. The ability to recognize faces at an adult level does not develop until approximately
  2. 3-4 months of age. c.         11 years of age.
  3. 6 years of age. d.         18 years of age.







  1. Discuss three reasons why object perception is difficult for computer vision.




  1. State, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) for each of five Gestalt principles of perceptual organization.




  1. Describe a stimulus factor and a subjective factor that determine what area is seen as “figure” in an image with reversible figure-ground. Draw an example that demonstrates each factor.




  1. Name and describe five “global image features”.




  1. Describe the main finding from binocular rivalry research and explain why that finding is important.




  1. Summarize two research studies that show the influence of semantic regularities on perceptual organization.




  1. Describe Grill-Spector et al.’s (2004) Harrison Ford study and the results of that study.






  1. Describe what decoders were developed by Kamitani and Tong (2005) and Naselaris et al. (2009), how they were established, and what they can be used for.




Test Bank—Chapter 6: Visual Attention


Test Bank—Chapter 6: Visual Attention




  1. ________ described attention as “the taking possession of the mind, in clear and vivid form, of one out of what seem several simultaneously possible objects or trains of thought.”
  2. Hemlholtz c.         James
  3. Posner d. Rensink




  1. One aspect of the visual system that helps us select specific information from the environment for processing is
  2. the optic nerve.
  3. the concentration of cones in the fovea.
  4. the blind spot.
  5. the prevalence of amacrine cells in the peripheral retina.



  1. Vaco is playing basketball, and does a “no-look” pass to a teammate. This demonstrates the idea that attention
  2. is solely the result of eye movements. c.         may not occur even if we are looking straight at an object.
  3. can occur without directly looking at the object. d.         is due to the functioning of the rods.




  1. The eye movements that occur as the observer shifts his/her gaze from one part of the visual scene to another are called
  2. pursuit eye movements. c.         saccades.
  3. magnified eye movements. d.         aperatures.




  1. When a person scans a visual scene, he/she usually makes about ____ fixation(s) per second.
  2. one c.         nine
  3. three d.         twelve





  1. Kelly is participating in an attention study. She is asked to fixate on a cross in the middle of the screen and watch for a word to appear in place of the cross. When the word appears she is using ______ attention to perceive it.
  2. indirect c.         covert
  3. overt d.         focused




  1. People tend to fixate first on high contrast or unique (relative to the surrounding area) points in a visual scene. This is a result of __________ and is a ___________ process.
  2. stimulus salience; top-down c.         the spotlight effect; top-down
  3. stimulus salience; bottom-up d.         the spotlight effect; bi-directional





  1. Parkhurst et al. (2002) showed that observers make initial fixations in a visual scene based on
  2. stimulus saliency. c.         stimulus schema.
  3. meaningfulness. d.         scotopic representations.



  1. _________ can be generated based on saliency principles and used to predict early fixations in a scene.
  2. Contrast maps c.         Interest point files
  3. Salience decoders d.         Saliency maps





  1. Larissa looks at a still picture of a football game. She uses her knowledge of football to look at the quarterback first, then the running backs, then the wide receivers, then the linebackers. This is an example of using  ________ to guide attention.
  2. saliency maps c.         knowledge
  3. retinotopic maps d.         the cue approach




  1. Nicki walks into her friend’s bathroom and sees a blender next to the sink. She spends more time looking at that blender than she would have spent looking at a soap dispenser in the same position. Her increased gaze is a reflection of a ________ in action.
  2. saliency map c.         task demand
  3. scene schema d.         mismatch effect





  1. “Learning from past experience” as a factor involved in attention was demonstrated by Shinoda et al. (2001), who showed that drivers are more likely to detect stop signs when they were positioned
  2. at the middle of a block.
  3. 75 feet from the intersection.
  4. at the intersection.
  5. all of these locations were equally detected.




  1. Land and Hayhoe (2001) found that _________ are most important in determining fixations when a person makes a peanut butter sandwich.
  2. the stimulus colors c.         the stimulus orientations
  3. the stimulus contrast levels d.         the task demands




  1. Posner’s precueing studies demonstrated that attention
  2. increases the color perception of objects.
  3. can spread through objects.
  4. eliminates change blindness.
  5. increases the efficiency of information processing.




  1. Egly et al. (1994) showed that precueing increases the efficiency of information processing
  2. only when the cue is in the same position as the target.
  3. when the cue appears in the same rectangle as the target stimulus.
  4. when a cue is in a different rectangle than the target stimulus.
  5. only when the cue is the same color as the target stimulus.




  1. The finding that attention can spread within an object, thereby, enhancing detection at other places within the object is referred to as
  2. spreading activation. c.         same-object advantage.
  3. location invariance. d.         spatial drift.




  1. The spreading enhancement effect of attention can help us perceive
  2. occluded objects. c.         grating stimuli.
  3. the oblique effect. d.         illusory conjunctions.





  1. The important finding of Carrasco et al.’s (2004) research was that
  2. two physically identical gratings will always be perceived the same.
  3. the attended-to grating is perceived to have a higher contrast than another, identical grating.
  4. the attended-to grating is perceived to have a lower contrast than another, identical grating.
  5. the attended-to grating is perceived to have a higher contrast when compared to a non-identical grating.





  1. When presented with superimposed images of a house and a face, Mack is asked to focus on the house. This attentional “focus” results in
  2. increased activity in the FFA.
  3. increased activity in the MT.
  4. increased activity in the PPA.
  5. similar activation changes in the FFA and PPA.




  1. In an fMRI study by Datta and DeYoe (2009), participants covertly shifted their attention within a display. This shifting of attention resulted in the activation of
  2. the same brain regions because the participant’s eyes were not moving.
  3. the same brain regions because the participant was engaging attention.
  4. different brain regions because the participant was attending to different locations.
  5. different brain regions because the participant’s eyes were moving.




  1. Based on fMRI data from covert shifts of attention, Datta and DeYoe (2009) developed ______. These tools predicted convert attention to a location with ____% accuracy.
  2. attention maps; 100 c.         voxel maps; 95
  3. saliency maps; 80 d.         heat maps; 90





  1. A monkey attends to a stimulus left of fixation then to a stimulus right of fixation. If one were recording MT neuronal activity, it would reveal that
  2. the neuron preferentially responding to the left stimulus is inactive when attending to the right stimulus.
  3. the neuron preferentially responding to the left stimulus is unaffected by attention to the right stimulus.
  4. the receptive field associated with the neuron responding to the left stimulus shrinks when attention shifts to the right stimulus.
  5. the receptive field associated with the neuron responding to the left stimulus shifts right when attention shifts to the right stimulus.




  1. _____________ is when a stimulus that is not attended is not perceived, even though the person is looking directly at the stimulus.
  2. Prosopagnosia c.         The Lazarus effect
  3. Inattentional blindness d.         Balint’s Syndrome



  1. Simons and Chabris showed a video of students passing a basketball and asked participants to count how many passes made. In the video, a person in a gorilla suit walked through the basketball players for 5 seconds. Approximately how many of the participants reported seeing the “gorilla”?
  2. 100 c.         46
  3. 77 d.         23




  1. The incidence of change blindness __________ when a cue is added to the scene that indicates which part of the scene has changed.
  2. increases
  3. decreases
  4. remains unchanged
  5. can increase or decrease, depending on cue duration




  1. Levin and Simons showed a video of two women having a conversation. As the view switches between the women, other things in the scene change. Which change was noticed by the majority of the participants?
  2. A scarf being present in one frame, but gone when the camera returns to her.
  3. One woman whose hand position has changed from her chin to the table.
  4. The plates on the table changing from red to white in different frames.
  5. None of the changes were noticed by the majority of the participants




  1. When Levin and Simons alerted participants that changes in “body position or clothing” would occur in a video of a conversation between two women, approximately ___ % of the participants noticed the changes.
  2. 90 c.         50
  3. 75 d.         20





  1. When Levin and Simons did not tell participants that changes in “body position or clothing” would occur in a video of a conversation between two women, approximately ___ % of the participants noticed any change.
  2. 85 c.         30
  3. 55 d.         10







  1. In the “I’m a Believer” scene at the end of the movie “Shrek,” the three blind mice are turned into the horses in one frame, but the next time we see them, they are dancing on a piano as mice. This is an example of __________, which can be a “real-life” example of _________ if you do not notice the switch.
  2. a contingency break; inattentional blindness c. an attentional lapse; illusory contingency
  3. a continuity error; change blindness d.         a unity break; illusory sequencing




  1. In the ________ procedure participants attend to a central task, but also have to complete a peripheral task.
  2. figure-ground c. dual-task
  3. task demand d.         discrimination




  1. Which of the following is true regarding task-irrelevant stimuli?
  2. They are least distracting when you are engaged in a difficult task.
  3. They are least distracting when you are engaged in an easy task.
  4. They are most likely to distract you when workload is high.
  5. They are least likely to distract you when perceptual load is low.



  1. According to feature integration theory, the color, orientation, and other features of objects are initially processed in the _________ stage of processing.
  2. preattentive c.         focused attention
  3. postattentive d.         tertiary



  1. Yasmen is walking in a mall and thinks she sees a man wearing a red dress. She takes a longer look, and realizes she has seen a man in a suit walking next to a woman in a red dress. This is a natural example of
  2. disjunctive searches. c.         scene statistics.
  3. illusory conjunctions. d. illusory confusion.




  1. According to Treisman, the ______ stage is the “glue” that combines all the incoming information about an object.
  2. preattentive c.         tertiary
  3. focused attention d.         compiling




  1. Treisman and Schmidt prevented the focused attention stage from occurring by
  2. presenting stimuli for 200 msec.
  3. having observers focus attention on another task.
  4. none of these; focused attention occurs automatically.
  5. using rapid stimulus presentation and directing attention to another task.




  1. R.M., a patient with Balint’s syndrome, reported illusory conjunctions
  2. only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 1 second.
  3. only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 2 seconds.
  4. if he was told to attend only to the first stimulus.
  5. even if he was presented the two stimuli for 10 seconds.




  1. Shelby watches the movie “Slumdog Millionaire”.  When Jamal is in the “hot seat” on the game show “Who Wants to Be a Millionaire?,” Shelby looks at Jamal’s eyes. Shelby most likely
  2. has autism. c.         has prosopagnosia.
  3. does not have autism. d.         does not have aphasia.




  1. Research comparing superior temporal sulcus (STS) activity between individuals with and without symptoms of autism suggests that
  2. both groups demonstrate similar behavior when viewing social interactions. c.         those with autism are more likely to anticipate an individual’s reactions than those who do not have autism.
  3. those without autism have more saccades per second than those with autism. d.         those without autism are more likely than those with autism to read other people’s intentions.



  1. When an infant exhibits dishabituation, the researcher concludes that
  2. the infant cannot tell the difference between the habituated stimulus and the new stimulus.
  3. the infant can tell the difference between the habituated stimulus and the new stimulus.
  4. the new stimulus causes emotional distress in the infant.
  5. the habituated stimulus is more interesting than the new stimulus.





  1. The ability to perceive a rod as being continuous behind an occluding block
  2. is innate.
  3. is common in one-week-old infants.
  4. can be accomplished by three-month-olds.
  5. occurs only after sharp acuity is developed.




  1. Johnson et al. (2004) presented moving occluded rods to 3-month-old infants,

and classifed the infants as “perceivers” or “nonperceivers” of a unified, occluded

rod. The main finding of the study was

  1. perceivers and nonperceivers did not differ in eye movements.
  2. perceivers and nonperceivers did not differ in VEP activity.
  3. perceivers tended to make more horizontal eye movements.
  4. perceivers tended to look at the stationary occluder.






  1. Discuss the three factors involved in determining what we fixate on in a visual scene.




  1. Describe Posner et al.’s (1978) precueing procedure, the classic results obtained using this procedure, and the implications for attention theory.




  1. (a) Define inattentional blindness.

(b) Describe the method and results of Simons and Chabris (1999) research on inattentional blindness.




  1. (a)  Discuss the method and results of Rensink’s research on change blindness.

(b)  What is the relationship between change blindness and continuity errors?      

(c)  Describe a specific example of a “continuity error”.




  1. (a) Discuss how Treisman’s feature integration theory addresses the binding problem.

(b) What are illusory conjunctions, and why are they support for feature integration theory?





  1. Discuss the differences in attention between people who have autism and those who do not, from behavioral and physiological perspectives.




  1. (a) Describe the “occluded rod” paradigm.

(b) Describe what it revealed about the relationship between perceptual completion, motion perception, attention, and scan paths in infants.



Test Bank—Chapter 7: Taking Action


Test Bank—Chapter 7: Taking Action




  1. The ecological approach emerged as a reaction
  2. to the structuralist approach.
  3. to the artificiality of laboratory approach to studying vision.
  4. to the over-reliance on brain imaging techniques.
  5. to pointillism.




  1. The ecological approach was developed by
  2. J.J. Gibson. c.         Max Wertheimer.
  3. David Marr. d.         Ronald Rensink.




  1. The movement of elements of the environment relative to the observer is called
  2. optic flow. c.         affordances.
  3. phi movement. d.         motion ecology.




  1. You are driving a car. Which of the following statements is an accurate reflection of flow in this situation?
  2. Optic flow is slower near the car.
  3. Optic flow does not occur for information in the periphery.
  4. Optic flow is faster farther away from the car.
  5. Optic flow does not occur for the focus of expansion.





  1. Information that remains constant even though the observer is moving is called
  2. flow gradient. c. penumbra constants.
  3. texture gradient. d.         invariant information.





  1. Which statement is true concerning the focus of expansion?
  2. It always occurs at the point you are fixated on. c.         It continues in the same direction once established.
  3. It always occurs at the point you are moving toward. d.         It always contains the fastest flow of information.




  1. When expert gymnasts close their eyes while performing a somersault, they perform
  2. better because they eliminated visual distractions.
  3. as well as with their eyes open, since doing the routine is automatic.
  4. more poorly, because they couldn’t make “in-air” corrections.
  5. better because they usually train with their eyes closed.




  1. According to Gibson, the relationship between movement and flow is
  2. movement creates flow, which then provides information to guiding further movement.
  3. movement creates flow, but this information does not affect further movement.
  4. flow and self-produced movement are related, but both are independent of guiding further movement.
  5. flow and movement are not related.





  1. If you close both your eyes while standing on one foot,
  2. you can stand longer than if both eyes are open because you eliminate distracting visual information.
  3. you can stand longer than if just your “non-dominant” eye is open.
  4. you can stand longer with one eye open because you are eliminating binocular disparity cues.
  5. you lose your balance more quickly than if your eyes are open.




  1. Lee et al.’s “Swinging Room” studies found that
  2. only adults are affected by flow information.
  3. only young children are affected by flow information.
  4. children will lean back when a forward-swaying flow pattern was created.
  5. adults were always able to keep their balance in the moving room.





  1. Using the “Swinging Room” technique, the earliest evidence of optic flow was demonstrated in participants who were
  2. 2 weeks old. c.         1 year old.
  3. 4 months old. d.         13 years old.





  1. “Optical flow neurons” have been found in the monkey’s
  2. medial temporal (MT) cortex. c.         striate cortex.
  3. medial superior temporal (MST) area. d.         superior temporal sulcus.




  1. MST neurons that respond to flow
  2. tend not to be motion-selective, but are orientation sensitive.
  3. are found primarily in the ventral stream.
  4. can be selective to outward-expanding or circular motions.
  5. have not been found in the monkey brain.




  1. Britten and vanWezel used __________ to show that MST neurons help determine perception of the direction of movement.
  2. electrical stimulation of neurons c.         fMRI recordings
  3. ablation d.         transcranial magnetic stimulation




  1. According to Land and Lee, drivers look  ______________ when driving on straight road.
  2. directly at the focus of expansion
  3. straight ahead, but not directly at the focus of expansion
  4. at locomotor flow line
  5. at the psychometric curb




  1. According to Land and Lee, drivers negotiate curves by
  2. looking directly at the FOE.
  3. looking directly at the road.
  4. using a complex combination of affordances.
  5. using information in addition to optic flow.




  1. “Blind walking” studies have shown that
  2. participants cannot locate nearby objects with their eyes closed.
  3. flow information is necessary for navigation; blindfolded participants cannot walk to a target location they have just seen.
  4. blindfolded participants can navigate short distances as long as they walk in a straight line.
  5. blindfolded participants can navigate short distances when walking in a straight line or making an angled turn.





  1. Using the visual direction strategy, walkers stay on target by
  2. using flow information to estimate the destination point.
  3. going toward the focus of expansion.
  4. keeping their body pointed toward the destination.
  5. keeping their eyes fixated on the destination.




  1. Hamid et al. (2010) had participants navigate a maze while recording their eye movements. The maze contained landmarks on the walls at corners and at other positions that would not aid maze navigation. After participants learned the maze, the researchers removed half of the landmarks. The results of this study revealed that
  2. performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer.
  3. participants did not notice that the landmarks were missing and their performance was unaffected.
  4. participants had been relying on all landmarks to navigate.
  5. performance increased when non-informative landmarks were removded.




  1. In Janzen and vanTurennout’s study of using landmarks as “decision points” in a navigating through a museum, participants
  2. had greater brain activation in the MST when they saw “non-decision” points than when they saw “decision points.”
  3. had lower recognition scores for landmarks than non-landmarks.
  4. had greater brain activation in the parahippocampal gyrus for “decision points” than “non-decision points.”
  5. recognized “decision points” better when cells in their temporal cortex were microstimulated.





  1. After damage to his _______ Mantio is able to recognize landmarks in his hometown, but is unable to determine which direction he should go from those landmarks to arrive at his house.
  2. hippocampus. c.         retrosplenial cortex.
  3. medial superior temporal area. d.         superior temporal sulcus.




  1. After damage to her _______ Cathy has no trouble finding her way to location on major roads in town, but she becomes lost on side roads, even those she had driven many times.
  2. hippocampus. c.         retrosplenial cortex.
  3. medial superior temporal area. d.         superior temporal sulcus.




  1. Elena looks at a banana and realizes that the banana is “eat-able.” This an example of
  2. optic flow. c.         ataxia.
  3. a texture gradient. d.         an affordance.




  1. Affordances
  2. provide a counterexample to Gibson’s ecological approach.
  3. are used to explain the flow of information organizational principles.
  4. provide the observer possibilities for action.
  5. arise from the interaction between flow and depth cues.




  1. M.P., a person with brain damage that resulted in the inability to name objects, could
  2. identify objects more accurately when given the name of the object.
  3. identify objects more accurately when given the function of the object.
  4. not identify any of the objects, even when given both the name and function.
  5. identify the object more accurately if permitted to interact with the object.




  1. Joe enters a room, sees a novel object, and promptly walks over and sits on it. The object was about the size of a small table and had a flat, smooth surface at approximately knee height. If asked to explain Joe’s behavior, Gibson would likely say that Joe
  2. was acting based on affordances.
  3. had sustained damage to his hippocampus.
  4. had learned the function of the object from optic flow.
  5. was suffering from optic ataxia.




  1. The neurons that signal the monkey’s intention to grab an object are mostly found in the
  2. hippocampus. c.         parietal reach region (PRR).
  3. superior colliculus. d.         nystagmus parietal radius (NPR).





  1. PPR activity in humans occurs
  2. only when making a saccade.
  3. only when making a smooth eye movement.
  4. when the observer holds a target location in mind.
  5. only if the person has damage to the temporal lobe.





  1. In monkey hand grip experiments, a monkey briefly sees an object, the lights go out, then the monkey is prompted to reach for the object. When the monkey reaches for the object
  2. he often will use the wrong grip because he is unable to see the object in the dark.
  3. he will use the correct grip only if his attention is redirected to the object.
  4. neurons that respond to the specific grip being used will be activated.
  5. neurons may be preferentially activated as a result of just seeing the object.




  1. Patients with ________ often have difficulty pointing at objects and adjusting their reach “paths” to avoid obstacles.
  2. optic ataxia. c.         object agnosia.
  3. prosopagnosia. d.         Capgras syndrome.




  1. Individuals with damage to the parietal regions associated with reaching have difficulty with reaching tasks. An analysis of their reach “paths” reveals that the parietal region
  2. provides guidance for where to reach.
  3. calculates the distance required to reach for an object.
  4. is responsible for motor coordination.
  5. provides guidance for reaching and avoiding obstacles



  1. Mirror neurons
  2. help an individual understand another person’s actions and react appropriately.
  3. help an individual imitate observed behaviors.
  4. have been discovered in the premotor cortex.
  5. all of these




  1. Mirror neurons in the monkey fire
  2. when the monkey sees the experimenter grasp a piece of food, and when the monkey also grasps the food.
  3. when the experimenter grasps the food with his/her fingers, and when the experimenter picks up the food using pliers.
  4. when the monkey sees the food reflected in a mirror.
  5. when the monkey grasps the food with his/her fingers, and when the monkey picks up the food using pliers.




  1. Which of the following situations would most likely cause an audiovisual mirror neuron to fire?
  2. When the monkey only hears the sound of a breaking peanut.
  3. When the monkey sees a peanut breaking and hears the sound of the peanut breaking.
  4. When the monkey sees a stick being dropped and hears the sound of the peanut breaking.
  5. When the monkey grasps the peanut and sees the experimenter grasps the peanut with pliers.




  1. Which of the following is not one of the proposed functions of mirror neurons?
  2. Predicting others’ intentions.
  3. Facilitate the binding of information sources.
  4. Understand the meaning of sentences.
  5. Aids interpretation of facial expressions.





  1. Softball players were asked to estimate the size of a softball immediately after a game. When perceived ball size was examined in relation to batting average, it was revealed that
  2. tired players (regardless of batting average) provided smaller ball-size estimates than rested players.
  3. rested players with high batting averages provided smaller ball-size estimates than tired players with high batting averages.
  4. players with better batting averages provided larger ball-size estimates than players with lower batting averages.
  5. rested players with lower batting averages provided larger ball-size estimates than tired players with low batting averages.



  1. The results of Bhalla and Proffitt’s (1999) physical-fitness-and-hill-steepness study demonstrated that
  2. individual fitness level does not affect perception of hill steepness.
  3. fit individuals perceived hills as being more steep because they were fatigued.
  4. less physically fit individuals perceived the hill as being more steep.
  5. none of these.




  1. Which of the following factors has not been shown to influence action-based object perception?
  2. Anticipation of having help to lift an object.
  3. Describing the object to someone before interacting with it.
  4. Recent success or failure while interacting with an object.
  5. Anticipated difficult of the task.






  1. Name and discuss two characteristics of optic flow.




  1. Discuss research that shows how vision is important in performing a somersault.




  1. Describe a “blind-walking” experiment, and discuss how the results are related to optic flow.




  1. Describe the role landmarks play in wayfinding. Support your claims with evidence from the studies discussed in the chapter.




  1. Describe how wayfinding is affected by retrosplenial cortex and hippocampal damage.




  1. (a) What are affordances?

(b) Provide an example of an object and what action it affords.

(c) Describe whether or not an object could have more than one affordance associated with it.




  1. Describe evidence from monkey studies that suggests that mirror neurons do more than respond to patterns of motion.




  1. One research found that tennis players who have recently won a match perceive the net as being lower than those who have recently lost. Describe how these differences in perception might arise.



Test Bank—Chapter 8: Perceiving Motion


Test Bank—Chapter 8: Perceiving Motion




  1. The condition of the patient of Zihl, et al., who had cortical lesions that affected her motion perception, is called
  2. prosopagnosia. c. stroboscopia.
  3. akinetopsia. d.         amblyopia.




  1. The patient of Zihl et al., who had cortical lesions that affected her motion perception, had
  2. no problems pouring a cup of coffee.
  3. no difficulty crossing a street.
  4. difficulty following dialogue.
  5. some social inconvenience, but it was not life-threatening.




  1. A mouse “freezes” when it sees a cat nearby. This assists the mouse’s survival because
  2. being motionless reduces the attention-attracting effect of motion.
  3. being motionless reduces the chance that the cat will see the mouse against the background.
  4. being motionless reduces both the attention-attracting effect of motion, and the chance that the cat will see the mouse against the background.
  5. none of these; “freezing” does not affect the cat’s hunting ability.



  1. Camouflage can be interpreted as a problem of
  2. figure-ground segregation. c.         induced movement.
  3. binocular disparity. d.         the waterfall illusion.




  1. Movies: _______ :: Waterfall illusion: _____________.
  2. apparent movement; induced movement
  3. real movement; apparent movement
  4. movement aftereffects; stroboscopic movement
  5. apparent movement; movement aftereffects



  1. Our ability to perceive movement when reading “message boards” used in advertising, is based on
  2. apparent movement. c.         “waterfall” effects.
  3. movement aftereffects. d.         motion agnosia.



  1. Brian looks at the moon and some clouds at night. He perceives the moon moving through the clouds. This is an example of
  2. induced motion. c.         the Reichardt effect.
  3. the stroboscopic effect. d.         the Shedlock effect.




  1. Larsen et al. (2006) showed that the activation of brain areas is
  2. higher in the MT area when viewing apparent motion than perceiving real motion.
  3. higher in the MT area when viewing real motion than perceiving apparent motion.
  4. similar when viewing apparent motion and real motion.
  5. higher in the MST when viewing real motion than viewing induced motion.





  1. As Dore runs through the park, the flow signals that he is moving and not the environment. Gibson calls this
  2. local disturbances in the optic array. c.         the global optical flow.
  3. deletion in the optic array. d.         the bioptic flow.




  1. Tom is watching Terri walk across the room. According to Gibson, Tom perceives Terri
  2. to be moving because her image is moving across his retina.
  3. to be stationary because the background is stationary.
  4. to be moving because of a local disturbance in the optic array.
  5. to be moving because the background texture is moving across his retina.



  1. In addition to describing movement detection in terms of the environment, researchers have proposed different ways to detect movement from a physiological perspective. The Reichardt detector is one solution. Which of the following is the greatest weakness of the Reichardt detector?
  2. It only explains motion detection for images that cross the receptors.
  3. It only explains how eye movements can be accounted for in motion detection.
  4. It only is able to detect lateral movement of stimuli.
  5. It operates using excitatory and inhibitory signals.



  1. According to Corollary Discharge Theory, movement is perceived when
  2. there is a disturbance in the global optic array.
  3. the comparator receives the corollary discharge signal and image displacement signal simultaneously.
  4. the comparator receives the corollary discharge signal alone or image displacement signal alone.
  5. the comparator finds dissimilarities between the local and global optic arrays.




  1. Which of the following is not a signal used posited in the Corollary Discharge Theory?
  2. Image displacement signal c.         Motor signal
  3. Ciliary signal d.         Corollary discharge signal




  1. The ______ signal is sent to other areas of the brain relaying the message that a signal has been sent from the motor cortex to the eye muscles. It is analogous to using the “cc” (copy) function in an email.
  2. Image displacement c.         Motor
  3. Ciliary d.         Collorary discharge




  1. Which of the following is true about the corollary discharge theory?
  2. It can explain why you see a bird moving in flight when you are following it with your eyes.
  3. It has much behavioral support, but no physiological support yet.
  4. It has little behavioral support, but the comparator has been found in the IT cortex.
  5. It can explain why an afterimage seems to be stationary as you move your eye to different fixation points.





  1. An afterimage when viewed in the dark appears to move when you move your eyes. The Corollary Discharge Theory predicts this because
  2. there is an IDS, but not a CDS.
  3. there is no IDS, but there is a CDS.
  4. there is no IDS and no CDS.
  5. none of the these; the corollary discharge theory cannot explain this event.





  1. Percy is injected with a drug that paralyzes his eye muscles. When he is instructed to try to move his eye when looking a stationary scene, he perceives
  2. no movement, because his eye muscles can’t move.
  3. no movement, because the scene is stationary.
  4. movement, because there is a CDS and an IDS.
  5. movement, because there is a CDS, but not an IDS.




  1. Mira gently pushes on her eye with her finger. Because her eye muscles push against the force of her finger, which keeps the image in the same location, she perceives the visual scene
  2. to be jiggling. c.         to have exaggerated depth.
  3. to be stationary. d.         to be “shrinking.”




  1. R.W., the man who had vertigo when he moved his eyes, had cortical damage that eliminated
  2. corollary discharge signals. c.         cortical magnification.
  3. image movement signals. d.         binocular cell firing.



  1. The vertigo case of R.W. not only provided evidence for the corollary discharge theory, it revealed the importance of the______ in producing CDS.
  2. MT area c.         STS
  3. PPA d.         MST area




  1. Real-motion neurons found in the monkey cortex fire when _____ moves, but do not fire when _____ moves.
  2. the eye; a stimulus c.         a stimulus; the eye
  3. a stimulus; the background d.         the background; a stimulus




  1. In monkeys, real-motion neurons have been located in
  2. the brain stem.
  3. the extrastriate cortex. c.         the retina.
  4. the striate cortex.





  1. Newsome, Britten, and Movshon found that as the coherence between the dots’ direction of movement increased
  2. the MT neuron fired more rapidly.
  3. the monkey judged the direction of movement less accurately.
  4. the MT neuron fired less rapidly.
  5. the MT neuron fired at rates less than the level of spontaneous activity.




  1. A monkey with an intact MT cortex can detect the direction of moving dots when coherence is ____%, while a monkey that has had the MT cortex lesioned detects the direction of the moving dots when coherence is _____%.
  2. 1-2; 10-20 c.         1-2; 1-2
  3. 10-20; 1-2 d.         10-20; 1-2




  1. The connection between MT neurons and movement perception has been supported by
  2. lesioning studies.
  3. microstimulation studies.
  4. both lesioning and microstimulation studies.
  5. neither lesioning nor microstimulation studies.




  1. The __________ is demonstrated when you look through a circle you make with your fingers, and move a pencil either horizontally or diagonally behind your fingers.
  2. Kinetic Depth Effect c.         correspondence problem
  3. structure-from-motion phenomenon d.         aperture problem



  1. The aperture problem is solved by the pooling of responses of a number of V1 neurons. Physiological evidence suggests that this pooling occurs in the ____, a nucleus in the _____stream.
  2. MT cortex; dorsal c.         PF cortex; “what”
  3. MT cortex; ventral d.         PF  cortex; “how”




  1. Pack and Born (2001) found that the combining of responses from V1 cells occurs after about ______ after presentation of the moving bars.
  2. 1 msec c. 140 msec
  3. 20 msec d.         900 msec




  1. In an apparent motion demonstration, two pictures are used. In one picture a fist is located behind a board; in the other, the fist is located in front of the board at the same height. When rapidly alternating between these pictures, what apparent motion would result?
  2. The fist would appear to go around the side of the board.
  3. The fist would appear to “magically” pass through the board.
  4. The fist would appear to smash the board.
  5. No apparent motion would occur; it would look like two still pictures.




  1. In an apparent motion demonstration, two pictures are used. In one picture a person’s fist is located behind his head; in the other, the person’s fist is located in front of their face at the same height. When slowly alternating between these pictures (less the five times a second), what apparent motion would result?
  2. The fist would appear to go around the side of the head.
  3. The fist would appear to “magically” pass through the head.
  4. The fist would appear to smash the head.
  5. No apparent motion would occur because the alternation is too slow.




  1. A “point-light walker” wears lights on different body locations. When viewed in a dark room, an observer would perceive a(n)
  2. person when the point-light walker is not moving.
  3. person when the point-light walker is moving.
  4. person if just one light on the person is moving.
  5. unidentifiable biological organism when the point-light walker is moving.





  1. The perceptual grouping of lights in biological motion has been shown physiologically to occur in the _______ area of the cortex.
  2. superior temporal sulcus c.         premotor
  3. lateral geniculate d.         anterior intraparietal





  1. _________ is a technique that has been used to temporarily disturb brain area functioning in humans.
  2. Lesioning
  3. Ablation
  4. Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)
  5. Orbital Magnetic Gyration (OMG)




  1. Presenting transcranial magnetic stimulation to the area of the STS in humans
  2. increased the person’s ability to perceive biological motion.
  3. decreased the person’s ability to perceive biological motion.
  4. did not affect the person’s ability to perceive biological motion.
  5. resulted in gender difference in perceiving biological motion.



  1. Freyd (1983) presented two pictures sequentially that implied motion, such as a person jumping off a low wall. In the “same” condition, the second picture was identical to the first; in the “time-forward” condition, the second picture was the jumper closer to the ground; and in the “time-backward condition, the jumper was further from the ground. The observer’s task was to respond whether or not the two pictures were the “same” or “different.” The response time was longest for
  2. the “same” condition.
  3. the “time-forward” condition.
  4. the “time-backward” condition.
  5. both the “same” and “time-backward” conditions.




  1. Which of the following stimuli is most likely to show the greatest representational momentum?
  2. a house c.         a coffee mug
  3. a rocket d.         a banana





  1. Kourtzi and Kanwisher (2000) used fMRI’s to show that “implied motion” stimuli cause
  2. greater responses in the MT and MST than “non-implied motion” stimuli.
  3. less firing in the MT and MST than “non-implied motion” stimuli.
  4. less firing in the amygdala than the “house” pictures.
  5. the same amount of firing in the MST as “house” pictures.




  1. The real world contains instances of continuous motion that somehow are divided up into meaningful units. The point in time when one unit ends and another begins is referred to as the
  2. breaking point. c. event boundary.
  3. segment marker. d.         transition period.





  1. In one study, Zacks et al. (2009) recorded someone making a sandwich and asked participants to press a button when they thought one action was complete. The results of the study indicated that _______were indicative of the end of an action.
  2. pauses c.         changes in hand orientation
  3. changes in speed d.         head movements






  1. Describe the case of the woman with akinetopsia. What does this case tell us about the importance of motion perception?




  1. Discuss three types of illusory motion. Be sure to give an example of each.




  1. (a) What does Gibson mean by the “optic array”?

(b) Specify how changes in the optic array affect movement perception.




  1. What is the aperture problem? How does the visual system “solve” this problem?




  1. (a) Describe the major components and principle of the Corollary Discharge Theory.

(b) Describe two behavioral demonstrations that support the Corollary Discharge Theory and specify how the theory predicts the result.




  1. Review the evidence for the physiological basis of perceiving biological motion.




  1. Describe Freyd’s (1983) study of implied motion and the findings of Kourtzi and Kanwisher’s (2000) fMRI study of implied motion.



Test Bank—Chapter 9: Perceiving Color


Test Bank—Chapter 9: Perceiving Color




  1. The signaling function of color can be exemplified by
  2. knowing that a banana is ripe when it is yellow.
  3. knowing to stop at a red light.
  4. both knowing to stop at a red light and knowing banana ripeness.
  5. none of these; signaling is not a function of color.




  1. A monkey with good color vision
  2. would have difficulty with figure-ground segregation.
  3. would have a better chance of surviving than a color-blind monkey.
  4. would be equally able to survive as a color-blind monkey.
  5. is impossible; all monkeys are color-blind.



  1. Adding more white to a color changes the color’s
  2. hue. c.         brightness.
  3. wavelength. d.         saturation.




  1. The basic colors in the color circle are
  2. red, white, blue and green. c.         red, green, and blue.
  3. black, white, and gray. d. red, green, blue and yellow.





  1. By changing _______, we can create about a million (or more) discriminable colors.
  2. saturation c.         wavelength
  3. intensity d.         saturation, intensity, and wavelength




  1. The reflectance curve is a plot of the light reflected off a surface as a function of
  2. spatial frequency. c.         wavelength.
  3. contrast. d.         orientation.




  1. The reflectance curve for a white piece of paper would
  2. reflect mostly short wavelengths, a moderate amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the long wavelengths.
  3. reflect mostly long wavelengths, a small amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the short wavelengths.
  4. reflect a little of short wavelengths, a large amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the long wavelengths.
  5. reflect long, medium and short wavelengths equally.




  1. The reflectance curve for a purple piece of paper would
  2. reflect short wavelengths. c.         reflect all wavelengths equally.
  3. reflect long wavelengths only.            d.         reflect long and short wavelengths.




  1. Yellow and Blue light are projected on a white screen. What color will the screen appear to be?
  2. white. c.         green.
  3. gray. d.         purple.



  1. When light is mixed it is referred to as _______
  2. an electromagnetic color mixture. c.         a subtractive color mixture.
  3. an additive color mixture. d.         a transitive color mixture.





  1. When paint is mixed it is referred to as _______
  2. a viscous color mixture. c.         a subtractive color mixture.
  3. an additive color mixture. d.         a pigmentive color mixture.




  1. Blue and yellow paints mixed together yield
  2. white. c.         green.
  3. gray. d.         purple.



  1. The major theories of color vision were first proposed
  2. in the 1800s, based on behavioral evidence only.
  3. in the 1930s, based on some psychophysical data and lesioning studies.
  4. in the 1960s after Hubel and Wiesel’s pioneering research.
  5. in the 1990s when technologically advanced brain imaging studies could be conducted.




  1. The trichromatic theory of color vision is also known as the _________ theory.
  2. Seurat-Signac c.         Young-Helmholtz
  3. Hering d.         Young-Adhart




  1. Color matching experiments show that if a person with full color vision is given at least ____ wavelengths to mix together, the person can match any single wavelength.
  2. 2 c.         4
  3. 3 d.         5



  1. The trichromatic theory of color vision states that color perception is due to
  2. the pattern of activity in four different receptors.
  3. the activity pattern in the occipital, parietal, and temporal cortical lobes.
  4. the pattern of activity in three different receptors.
  5. processing in layers 1,2, and 3 in the LGN.




  1. The maximum absorption for the short-wavelength cone pigment is at ____ nm.
  2. 308 c.         531
  3. 419 d.         558





  1. The maximum absorption for the long-wavelength cone pigment is at ____ nm.
  2. 419 c.         558
  3. 531 d.         747




  1. The pattern of firing of receptor activity in response to red would be
  2. large firing from the S receptor, medium firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor.
  3. large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor.
  4. little firing from the S receptor, a moderate firing from the M receptor, and large firing from the L receptor.
  5. large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and large firing from the L receptor.




  1. Two stimuli that are physically different, but are perceptually identical, are called
  2. complements. c.         metamers.
  3. Rayleigh stimuli. d.         isomers.




  1. The principle of ______ helps explain why a person with only one visual pigment can see all wavelengths as the same color (i.e., shade of gray) if light intensity is adjusted appropriately.
  2. intensity c.         univariance
  3. adjustments d.         unitization



  1. In order to distinguish between wavelengths independent of light intensity, one must have at least ______visual pigment(s).
  2. one c.         three
  3. two d.         no visual pigments are required.




  1. A monochromat experiences
  2. black, white, and grays. c.         different shades of red.
  3. black, grays, and greens. d.         different shades of blue.



  1. A unilateral dichromat
  2. has trichromatic vision in one eye and dichromatic vision in the other eye.
  3. can only see black, white, and grays.
  4. can match any wavelength with three wavelengths in the comparison field, but is not as good as trichromats at discriminating small differences in wavelengths.
  5. is more common in the U.S. than protonopes.





  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE about dichromatism?
  2. Males are more likely to be dichromats than females.
  3. Experience, not genetics, is the major cause of dichromacy.
  4. There are six major forms of dichromacy.
  5. There are nine major forms of dichromacy.




  1. The neutral point for protonopes is approximately ___ nm.
  2. 405 c.         570
  3. 492 d.         690



  1. Physiological evidence shows that deuteranopes do not have the _____ wavelength cone pigment.
  2. short c.         long
  3. medium d.         short and long





  1. The rarest form of dichromatism is
  2. deuteranopia. c.         tritanopia.
  3. protanopia. d.         fruitopia.





  1. Which of the following is behavioral support for the “opponent-process theory”?
  2. color afterimages c.         visual pigment absorption rates
  3. color matching d. the univariance effect




  1. Nora adapts to a yellow stimulus for about 30 seconds. She will then see an afterimage that appears to be
  2. a saturated yellow. c.         blue.
  3. green. d.         red.




  1. Dr. Lanzilotti wants to create a stimulus that will produce an afterimage of a red heart shape against a white background. He should make the heart ______ and the background _______.
  2. red; green c.         blue; white
  3. green; black d.         pink; red




  1. Which of the following was NOT an opponent mechanism proposed by Hering?
  2. Black (-); White (+) c.         Blue (+); Green (-)
  3. Red (+); Green (-) d.         Blue (-); Yellow (+)



  1. Which of the following is phenomenological support for the “opponent-process theory” of color vision?
  2. color afterimages c.         simultaneous color contrast
  3. visualizing color combinations d.         all of these




  1. Opponent neurons found in the ______ provide physiological support for the opponent-process theory.
  2. retina only c.         superior colliculus only
  3. LGN only d.         both the retina and LGN




  1. Which statement below best describes the current consensus on the theories of color vision?
  2. The physiological support for the trichromatic theory is greater than the support for the opponent-process theory.
  3. The physiological evidence for the opponent-process theory has shown that the trichromatic theory is incorrect.
  4. The psychophysical evidence for the trichromatic theory has shown that the opponent-process theory is incorrect.
  5. The physiology of the cone receptors and the discovery of opponent cells in the retina and LGN show that both theories are correct.




  1. The case of “Mr. I,” described in the beginning of the chapter, supports the idea that color is processed in
  2. the retina. c.         both the retina and LGN.
  3. the LGN. d.         a “color center” in the cortex.




  1. Cerebral achromatopsia is when a person
  2. has only one type of cone pigment due to genetic causes.
  3. has only two types of cone pigments.
  4. has normal cone functioning, but can not experience color due to a brain injury.
  5. paradoxically can experience color cortically from stimulation from the rods.




  1. The wavelength distributions from a light bulb and from sunlight are
  2. exactly the same.
  3. different, with the light bulb distribution having much higher amounts of energy at long wavelengths.
  4. different, with the light bulb distribution having much higher amounts of energy at short wavelengths.
  5. different, with the sunlight distribution having much higher amounts of energy at long wavelengths.




  1. Researcher Dorthea Jameson is quoted in the text as saying “A blue bird would not be mistaken for a goldfinch if it were brought indoors.” This supports the concept of
  2. anomalous trichromacy. c.         color constancy.
  3. neutral point univariance. d.         area centralis.




  1. Uchikawa et al. demonstrated how _________ can explain why color constancy occurs.
  2. chromatic adaptation c.         isomerization
  3. the ratio principle d.         neural circuitry





  1. Mark enters a supermarket that is lit by red lights. After fifteen minutes he enters the produce section and finds some red apples to purchase. Mark is able to see these apples as red because he has undergone
  2. chromatic adaptation. c.         isomerization.
  3. re-adaption. d.         corticalization.





  1. Color constancy works best when
  2. surrounding colors are masked.
  3. chromatic adaptation occurs.
  4. a color object is surrounded by one other color.
  5. a color object is surrounded by many different colors.




  1. Which of the following is a finding that demonstrates the phenomenon of memory color?
  2. Participants recall words printed in red ink better than words printed in black ink.
  3. Participants can quickly identify the word “Blue” if printed in blue ink.
  4. Participants have difficulty reporting ink color if the word is the name of a color different than the ink color.
  5. Participants perceive a 620-nm pattern as being “redder” if that pattern has the shape of a stop sign rather than a mushroom shape.




  1. Ikya looks at a white surface under sunlight conditions and she perceives it to be white. When she looks at the white surface under a tungsten light, it looks ______ to her.
  2. reddish c. white
  3. yellowish d.         violet




  1. According to the ratio principle
  2. lightness constancy will occur as long as the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface remain constant.
  3. lightness constancy will occur if the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface increases as the overall light intensity increases.
  4. lightness constancy will occur if the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface decreases as the overall light intensity increases.
  5. lightness constancy can never occur.




  1. The edge between a dark shadow and an illuminated checkerboard is a(n)
  2. reflectance edge. c.         ratio edge.
  3. illumination edge. d.         Ishihara border.




  1. If you cover the penumbra with a black marker, the perception of the border
  2. remains constant.
  3. changes from an illumination edge to a reflectance edge.
  4. changes from a reflectance edge to an illumination edge.
  5. can be predicted from the ratio principle.



  1. If you look at a folded index card though a pinhole, you see the border as a(n) ________ because the card looks _______.
  2. illumination edge; flat c.         reflectance edge; flat
  3. illumination edge; 3-D d. reflectance edge; 3-D




  1. Newton’s quote of “The Rays …are not colored” means that
  2. we can determine the accuracy of color perception by measuring the wavelength of the light.
  3. colors are created by our perceptual system.
  4. the experience of color is not arbitrary.
  5. a 450 nm pattern will look the identical shade of blue to all human trichromats.




  1. Honeybees have a cone pigment that maximally absorbs _____ wavelengths.
  2. short
  3. medium
  4. long
  5. None of the above; visible light for honeybees and humans are the same range of wavelengths.





  1. Bornstein et al. habituated a four-month-old infants to a 510 nm (“green”) stimulus,             then presented a 480nm (“blue”) stimulus or a 540nm (“green”) stimulus. The infants      in this study dishabituated to
  2. the 480 nm stimulus.
  3. the 540 nm stimulus.
  4. both of the 480nm and 540nm stimulus.
  5. neither the 480 nm nor the 540 nm stimulus.







  1. Explain (with examples) the difference between additive color mixture and subtractive color mixture.




  1. Contrast the three types of dichromatism, in regard to rates, neutral points, color experience, and proposed physiological cause.




  1. Describe three demonstrations that support the opponent-process theory of color vision.




  1. Does retinal physiology support the trichromatic theory, opponent-processing theory, or both?  Support your answer.




  1. Evaluate Newton’s claim that the light “rays …are not coloured.”




  1. Discuss the methods and results of Uchikawa et al.’s (1989) research on chromatic adaptation and color constancy.




  1. (a) What is the difference between an illumination edge and a reflectance edge?

(b) Discuss what the “penumbra” demonstration and the “folded card” demonstration reveal about perception of these types of edges.





Test Bank—Chapter 10: Perceiving Depth and Size


Test Bank—Chapter 10: Perceiving Depth and Size




  1. Merrill watches his finger with both eyes as he brings it closer to his nose. As the finger gets closer, his eyes move inward and he feels his eye muscles working. Which depth cue is associated with the feeling he is getting from his eye muscles?
  2. accommodation c.         both accommodation and convergence
  3. convergence d.         atmospheric perspective




  1. Of the oculomotor depth cues, convergence is ___________ than accommodation.
  2. less effective c.         equally effective
  3. more effective d. less automatic





  1. What depth cue could be classified as a binocular cue and an oculomotor cue?
  2. accommodation c.         stereopsis
  3. accretion d.         convergence




  1. When your professor stands in back of a podium, you perceive your professor as being further away than the podium because the podium blocks the vision of the professor’s body. This is an example of the depth cue
  2. relative height. c. occlusion.
  3. convergence. d.         accommodation.




  1. Several years ago, Bryce, a fan of the Houston Rockets basketball team, saw the player Yao Ming (who is 7’6” tall) standing next to his coach Jeff VanGundy (who is less than 6 feet tall). Bryce correctly perceived the two men as being the same distance away from her. Which depth cue most influenced her perception?
  2. Relative height c. Familiar size
  3. Relative size d.         Accretion



  1. Vinod is standing on a rooftop in a city. The buildings closer to him look sharper, and the buildings in the distance look hazier. This is an example of the depth cue
  2. atmospheric perspective. c.         relative size.
  3. occlusion. d.         shadowing.





  1. Epstein (1965) presented observers photographs of a quarter, dime, and half-dollar that were all equal in physical size. His results showed that
  2. familiar size is most effective when other information about depth is absent.
  3. familiar size is most effective when the observer has both eyes open.
  4. the quarter was judged to be closer than the dime, when viewed monocularly.
  5. accommodation is a stronger cue than any pictorial depth cue.




  1. As Tyler looks down a railroad track, he perceives the sides of the tracks as becoming closer as the distance increases. This is an example of
  2. convergence. c.         perspective convergence.
  3. familiar size. d.         motion parallax.




  1. Motion parallax
  2. is widely used to create depth in cartoons and video games. ** (page 233; factual)
  3. is an important depth cue for amphibians, but not mammals.
  4. occurs when near objects are perceived as moving slower than distant objects.
  5. is not an effective cue for robot vision.




  1. Deletion and accretion are
  2. especially effective when viewing non-moving displays.
  3. only important when both eyes are open.
  4. effective for detecting depth at an edge.
  5. ineffective for judging depth in natural environments.




  1. Which of the following depth cues is effective both from 0-2 meters and above 30 meters?
  2. atmospheric perspective c.         accommodation
  3. occlusion d.         convergence




  1. _______ is defined as depth perception created by input from both eyes.
  2. Binocular integration c.         Stereoscopic depth perception
  3. Convergent depth perception d.         Viewpoint dependent depth




  1. _______ is a term used to describe conditions in which movements between the two eyes are not coordinated.
  2. Strabismus c.         Ciliary disjunctive disorder
  3. Macular degeneration d.         Oculomotor instability




  1. Individuals suffering from “walleye” and other conditions in which the eyes are misaligned have difficulty with depth perception because
  2. the cortex receives messages from both eyes, making it difficult to attend to one visual stimulus.
  3. the visual system suppresses vision in one eye in order to avoid having the experience of double vision.
  4. the misaligned eye movements are “jittery” making it difficult to form a stable percept.
  5. they are unable to use any picture depth cues.




  1. The imaginary plane in which all objects project to corresponding points in the left and right retina is
  2. the horopter. c.         the constancy arc.
  3. the univariance plane. d.         Air Force One.




  1. ________ is the difference in the images in the two eyes; _____ is the impression of depth that results from this information.
  2. Deletion; accretion c.         Binocular disparity; convergence
  3. Accretion; deletion d.         Binocular disparity; stereopsis



  1. A stereoscope provides the illusion of depth in 2-D images by
  2. rapidly alternating between two images.
  3. presenting an image to each eye at different distances from the retina.
  4. presenting an image to each eye that are from slightly different perspectives.
  5. presenting an image to each eye that have different polarization filters in place.




  1. The depth cue that is responsible for perceiving depth in ViewMasters™ and “3-D” movies is
  2. motion parallax. c.         binocular disparity.
  3. accommodation. d.         relative height.




  1. A person create binocular depth in video images by
  2. filming from two slightly displaced positions using polarized light.
  3. filming from two slightly displaced positions using red and green filters.
  4. filming from two slightly displaced positions and alternating between “eyes”.
  5. all of these can be used.





  1. The importance of _______________ is that these stimuli rely solely on binocular disparity to provide the impression of depth.
  2. lenticular projections c.         gradient patterns
  3. stereographic photographs d.         random dot stereograms





  1. The correspondence problem is best demonstrated by
  2. random-dot stereograms. c.         Emmert’s law.
  3. polarized 3-D images. d.         disparity parallax.




  1. Blake and Hirsch (1975) use selective rearing of kittens to show that
  2. kittens are born with fully developed binocular cells.
  3. binocular neurons are not necessary for stereopsis.
  4. disparity-selective neurons are responsible for stereopsis.
  5. severing the optic chiasm increases the number of binocular cells.




  1. When Uka and DeAngelis microstimulated disparity-selective neurons in a monkey, the monkey made a behavioral depth response based on the
  2. angle of disparity on the retina. c.         orientation of the stimulus.
  3. tuning curve of the stimulated neurons. d.         location of the horopter.




  1. The anecdote in the book of the pilot misjudging the size of an object on the ground in whiteout conditions is most closely related to which research study?
  2. Holway and Boring’s (1941) “hallway” study
  3. Blake and Hirsch’s (1975) “selective rearing of kittens” study
  4. Julesz’s (1971) “random-dot stereogram” study
  5. DeLucia and Hochberg’s (1985) “dumbbell Muller-Lyer” study




  1. The approximate visual angle of the width of your thumb held at arm’s length is ___ degrees.
  2. 0.5 c.         4.7
  3. 2.0 d.         11.5





  1. Holway and Boring found that
  2. size constancy holds under all viewing conditions.
  3. the law of visual angle does not work in humans.
  4. size constancy is more likely to occur if you have more depth cues.
  5. size constancy does not occur under binocular viewing conditions.



  1. The size-distance scaling equation is S = K(R x D). The “S” in the equation stands for
  2. stimulus intensity. c.         an object’s physical size.
  3. an object’s perceived size. d.         an object’s physical shape.




  1. The size-distance scaling equation explains Emmert’s Law because
  2. retinal size is constant as perceived distance changes.
  3. retinal size changes as perceived distance remains constant.
  4. perceived size remains constant as retinal size changes.
  5. perceived size changes as the color of the afterimage changes.




  1. Myranda looks at a photograph of a truck. Which of the following best describes how she will perceive this photograph?
  2. She will always perceive a photograph of a real truck as being a real truck.
  3. She will always perceive a photograph of a toy truck as being a toy truck.
  4. She will perceive the toy truck as a toy truck if depth cues are eliminated.
  5. Her perception of the size of the truck will depend on the known size of the objects located next to the truck.




  1. If you hold one quarter about 12 inches from your eyes, and another quarter at arm’s length, the two quarters will be perceived to be about the same size when
  2. both eyes are open.
  3. only the left eye is open.
  4. only the right eye is open.
  5. viewed either binocularly or monocularly.




  1. According to Gregory’s misapplied size constancy scaling hypothesis, we perceive the “arrows pointing out” version of the Muller-Lyer illusion as
  2. longer, because it is perceived as being further away.
  3. longer, because it is perceived as being closer.
  4. shorter, because it is perceived as further away.
  5. shorter, because it is perceived as being closer.




  1. Gregory’s misapplied size constancy scaling explanation of the Muller-Lyer illusion
  2. has difficulty in explaining the “dumbbell” version of the illusion.
  3. can easily explain three-dimensional versions of the illusion.
  4. is incompatible with the size-distance scaling equation.
  5. has been unchallenged as the only viable explanation of the illusion.




  1. According to Day’s “conflicting cues theory”, the perception of vertical line lengths depends on
  2. the actual length of the lines.
  3. the overall length of the figure.
  4. the amount of texture gradient.
  5. the actual length of the lines and the overall length of the figure.




  1. The depth cue of ________ is the most important in the Ponzo (railroad track) illusion.
  2. perspective convergence c.         stereopsis
  3. accommodation d.         motion parallax




  1. The key to the Ames Room illusion is
  2. the room is constructed of trapezoids, but looks rectangular to the observer.
  3. the room is constructed of rectangular walls, but looks trapezoidal to the viewer.
  4. people of a wide range of physical heights are put in the room.
  5. all depth cues except binocular disparity are eliminated.




  1. The size-distance scaling equation explains the Ames Room illusion because
  2. we perceive the two people in the room to be the same size because the size of the image on the retina is the same.
  3. we perceive the two people in the room to be of different sizes even though the size of the image on the retina is the same.
  4. we perceive the two people in the room to be different sizes because they are perceived to be at different distances away.
  5. we perceive the two people in the room to be different sizes because they are perceived to be at the same distance away and their retinal image size is different.




  1. A major assumption of the apparent-distance theory of the moon illusion is that the sky overhead
  2. appears to be further away than the horizon because of the lack of the depth cue of atmospheric perspective.
  3. appears to be further away than the horizon because of the depth cue of stereopsis.
  4. appears to be closer than the horizon because of the lack of depth cues.
  5. appears to be closer than the horizon because of the depth cue of accommodation.





  1. According to the ________ theory of the moon illusion, the overhead moon appears smaller when it is surrounded by a large amount of sky.
  2. ocular dominance c.         angular size-contrast
  3. stimulus deprivation d.         apparent-distance




  1. A ________ is able to make use of binocular disparity, because it has _______ eyes.
  2. rabbit; frontal c.         cat; frontal
  3. rabbit; lateral d.         monkey; lateral





  1. Bats are able to determine depth by using
  2. echolocation. c.         movement parallax.
  3. stereopsis. d.         collocation.




  1. An insect is most likely to use ______ to perceive depth.
  2. atmospheric perspective. c.         size information
  3. movement parallax d.         all of these




  1. The ability to use binocular disparity as a depth cue
  2. develops after using overlap as a depth cue.
  3. occurs before binocular fixation develops.
  4. develops after using familiar size as a depth cue.
  5. can be tested using random dot stereograms.




  1. Fox et al. (1980) found that the ability to use binocular disparity develops between
  2. 1 to 2 months. c.         3 ½ to 6 months.
  3. 2 to 3 months. d.         10 to 11 months.





  1. In their study on infant use of familiar size as depth cue, Granrud et al. used ________ as the stimuli, and ________ as the dependent measure.
  2. objects of different sizes; reaching
  3. photographs of fruit bowls; sucking rate
  4. mobiles; eye movements
  5. photographs of stuffed animals; eye movements



  1. Ambrozia is a 4-month-old infant. Which depth cue is she most likely able to use?
  2. familiar size c.         linear perspective
  3. shadows d.         binocular disparity






  1. Name, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) of six pictorial depth cues.




  1. Suppose you watch a “3-D” movie (using red/blue “3-D glasses”) with your friends. After the movie, a friend asks “Why do we see such depth in this movie?”  Summarize how you would answer this question.




  1. Discuss research that supports the hypothesis that a person’s action in the environment affects depth perception.




  1. Discuss the method, results, and implications of the Holway and Boring (1941) “hallway” experiment.




  1. (a) How are random-dot stereograms created?

(b) What is the importance of random-dot stereograms?

(c) How is the correspondence problem related to the concept of random-dot stereograms?

(d) What have the results of infant studies with random-dot stereograms revealed?




  1. (a) State and identify the components of the size-distance scaling equation.

(b) Select two of the following, and specify how the size-distance scaling equation can explain the phenomenon: Emmert’s Law; the Ames Room illusion; the Ponzo illusion; and the Muller-Lyer illusion.




  1. Describe the differences in how depth is perceived in cats, insects, and bats.



Test Bank—Chapter 11: Hearing


Test Bank—Chapter 11: Hearing




  1. Helen Keller, who was born deaf and blind, felt that being ____ was worse because _________.
  2. deaf; it isolated her from people c.         blind; it made it difficult to walk without help
  3. deaf; she couldn’t hear music d.         blind; it isolated her from things




  1. The question “If a tree falls in a forest and no one is there to hear it, would there be a sound?” is useful because it highlights that “sound” can be
  2. a physical stimulus. c.         both a perceptual and physical stimulus.
  3. a perceptual response. d. a philosophical stimulus.






  1. The speed of sound through air is
  2. 50 meters per second. c.         1500 meters per second.
  3. 340 meters per second. d.         3000 meters per second.




  1. The wave form pattern of a pure tone is a(n)
  2. square wave. c.         asymmetrical wave.
  3. random wave. d.         sine wave.




  1. The unit of measurement for sound wave frequency is
  2. bels. c.         Hertz.
  3. decibels. d.         degrees.




  1. As you increase the decibel level from 80 dB to 100 dB, the sound pressure ratio goes from _____ to ______.
  2. 80; 100 c.         100; 1000
  3. 800; 1000 d.         10,000; 100,000




  1. The sound pressure level increases____ as the decibel level increases from 40 to 80 dBs.
  2. 1.5 times c.         4 times
  3. 2 times d. 10 times




  1. A complex tone can be created by starting with a pure tone, called the ____________, and adding frequencies that are multiples of this first frequency.
  2. fundamental frequency c.         spatial frequency
  3. harmonic frequency d.         audible frequency




  1. A frequency spectrum shows a tone that is composed of a frequency of 440 Hz, 880 Hz, and 1320 Hz. The 880 Hz and 1320 Hz frequencies are called _____ in this example.
  2. fundamental frequencies c.         tertiary frequencies
  3. harmonics d.         quadratic frequencies




  1. Adding a 440 Hz tone to a 880 Hz tone and a 1320 Hz tone will result in
  2. a pure tone. c.         a “hissing”sound.
  3. a complex tone. d.         white noise.




  1. The range of human hearing is between _____ Hz.
  2. 10 and 200 c.         20 and 20,000
  3. 10 and 2000 d.         20 and 50,000




  1. Kat wants to buy a “dog whistle” that her dog can hear but she can’t. She should get a whistle that emits sounds in the range between ____ and _____ Hz.
  2. 100; 900 c.         15,000; 20,000
  3. 1,000; 5,000 d.         30,000; 40,000




  1. Alessandra is at a concert and can “feel” the music. The music is most likely being played at _____ dBs.
  2. 66 c.         102
  3. 88 d.         130



  1. Loudness of pure tones depends on frequency and sound pressure level can be shown graphically using
  2. equal loudness curves. c. receiver operating characteristic curves.
  3. timbre resonance curves. d.         Fourier functions.



  1. When listening to music, which of the following methods will help ensure you hear all of the frequencies represented in the piece?
  2. Hold volume constant throughout the piece.
  3. Turn the volume down (e.g., 20 dB) so the music is quiet.
  4. Turn the volume up (e.g., 80 dB) so the music is loud.
  5. Play white noise in the background to allow better discrimination.




  1. Pitch is primarily determined by the ______ of the sound wave.
  2. amplitude c.         decibels
  3. clarity d.         frequency




  1. _________ is the property of increasing pitch that accompanies increases in the tone’s frequency.
  2. Tone height c.         Tone octave
  3. Tone chroma d.         Equal tonality




  1. The sound quality that is related to the sounds clarity, “nasalness” or “reedy-ness” is
  2. pitch. c.         timbre.
  3. amplitude. d.         frequency.




  1. A piano tone played backwards will sound more likely an organ than a piano because
  2. the tone’s original decay has become the attack, and vice versa.
  3. the tone chroma is higher when played backwards.
  4. the tone height is decreased when played backwards.
  5. two middle harmonics are eliminated when played backwards.





  1. The outer ear consists of
  2. the pinnae, the auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane.
  3. the pinnea, the eardrum, and the oval window.
  4. the tympanic membrane, the oval window, and the eardrum.
  5. the cochlea.




  1. The function of the auditory canal is to enhance the intensities of some frequency sounds by means of
  2. resonance. c.         additive synthesis.
  3. pinnae focusing. d.         auditory masking.




  1. The correct order of the ossicles in the middle ear (from ear drum to oval window) is
  2. stirrup; anvil; hammer. c. malleus; incus; stapes.
  3. stirrup; hammer; anvil. d. stapes; malleus; incus.




  1. The role of the middle ear is
  2. to localize sounds in the environment.
  3. to initiate the process of transduction via hair cells.
  4. to enable fine-tuned frequency analyses of complex tonal stimuli.
  5. to amplify vibrations from the air for transmission through liquid.




  1. Which of the following does not need an outer or middle ear to hear effectively?
  2. dogs c.         fish
  3. cats d.         All of these need outer and middle ears.


  1. The function of the muscles of the middle ear is to
  2. intensify sounds at high intensities.
  3. intensify sounds at high frequencies.
  4. dampen the ossicles vibrations at high intensities.
  5. divert high frequencies to the oval window and low frequencies to the round window.



  1. The bending of the cilia of the ________ causes a release of small bursts of neurotransmitter.
  2. inner hair cells c. tectorial membrane
  3. outer hair cells d. apex




  1. The motion of the basilar membrane results in
  2. direct stimulation of hair cell cilia.
  3. back-and-forth movement of the organ of Corti.
  4. up-and-down motion of the tectorial membrane.
  5. movement of both the organ of Corti and the tectorial membrane.





  1. When the tip links in the cilia stretch, ion channels open and
  2. sodium flows into the cell. c.         sodium flows out of the cell.
  3. potassium flows into the cell. d.         potassium flows out of the cell.




  1. Frequency can be coded by the firing rate at or near the peak of the sine-wave stimulus. This is called
  2. motile response. c.         phase locking.
  3. place theory. d.         Fourier analysis.




  1. Békésy discovered the traveling wave motion of the basilar membrane by
  2. stimulating the ear of human cadavers.
  3. using brain imaging techniques in humans.
  4. using single-cell recordings from live monkeys.
  5. computer simulations.




  1. Békésy’s place theory of hearing proposes that the frequency of a sound is
  2. based on how much the inner hair cells are bent.
  3. based on how much the outer hair cells are bent.
  4. based on whether the sound is processed through the round window or the oval window.
  5. the place along the organ of Corti at which the nerve firing is highest.



  1. The base of the basilar membrane is
  2. the same width as the apex of the basilar membrane.
  3. wider than at the apex of the basilar membrane.
  4. narrower than at the apex of the basilar membrane.
  5. more flexible than at the apex of the basilar membrane.





  1. A human tonotopic map shows that a receptor close to the apex will respond to a tone of ___ Hz.
  2. 60 c.         7,000
  3. 800 d.         30,000




  1. The cochlear implant makes use of
  2. phase locking mechanisms in the sound processor.
  3. the tonotopic map of frequencies on the cochlea.
  4. artificial ossicles.
  5. resonance harmonics on the tectorial membrane.




  1. The outer hair cells respond to sound by slightly tilting and changing length. Because of the consequence of this, the action of the outer hair cells is called the
  2. the tuning response. c.         phase lock mechanism.
  3. the cochlear amplifier. d. the traveling wave.




  1. A complex tone composed of a 440 Hz tone, a 880 Hz tone, and a 1320 HZ tone is presented. Which part of the basilar membrane will respond?
  2. the apex
  3. the base
  4. one intermediate area
  5. the three different areas characteristic of each individual component




  1. Bendor and Wang (2005), when presenting a complex tone with a 182 Hz fundamental frequency to a marmoset, found a neuron that responded to a 182-Hz tone when presented alone but not when any of the harmonics were presented alone. The neuron that responded just to 182-Hz tone is an example of a(n) _______ neuron.
  2. plasticity c.         pitch
  3. amplitude d.         spectral




  1. Hearing loss that occurs as a function of age is called
  2. presbyopia. c.         aural ataxia.
  3. presbycusis. d.         anosmia.




  1. At their highest settings, MP3 players can reach _____ , which is ________ OSHA’s recommended maximum.
  2. 100; 15 db higher than c. 85; equal to
  3. 155; 8 db higher than d.         76; 20 db less than




  1. The audibility curve of a 6-month-old infant
  2. is similar to the audibility curve for an adult.
  3. is the same as the audibility curve for a 1-month-old.
  4. cannot be determined at such a young age.
  5. shows that localization develops over the first 6 months.




  1. DeCasper and Fifer used ______________ as the dependent variable to test if

two-day-old infants could identify the sound of the mother’s voice.

  1. eye movements c.         pattern of nipple sucking
  2. head tilts d.         eye blinks




  1. Research supports that an infant’s ability to recognize the mother’s voice is due to
  2. genetics.
  3. the mother’s diet during pregnancy.
  4. hearing the mother talk while in the womb.
  5. a well-developed auditory cortex at birth.




  1. If a pregnant mother reads the original version of The Cat in The Hat aloud

while pregnant, which version of The Cat in The Hat would the infant prefer after birth?

  1. the original version, as it had been read to them prenatally.
  2. a version in which the words “cat” and “hat” were replaced with “dog” and “fog”.
  3. a version in a language different than that read by the mother.
  4. all versions of the story would be equally preferred.







  1. Define loudness, pitch and timbre and relate each to the physical sound stimulus.






  1. Discuss the structures and functions of the middle ear.




  1. Describe how the actions of the cochlea results in transduction.




  1. Discuss how noise-induced hearing loss can occur, and what can be done to reduce the chances of noise-induced hearing loss.




  1. (a) Briefly describe the major principle of Békésy’s place theory of hearing.

(b) Describe two types of evidence that support Békésy’s theory.




  1. What are the major components of a cochlear implant?




  1. Describe the methods, results, and implications of research on the infant’s ability to recognize the mother’s voice.




Test Bank—Chapter 12: Auditory Localization and Organization


Test Bank—Chapter 12: Auditory Localization and Organization




  1. Which of the following is NOT a coordinate system for auditory localization?
  2. elevation c.         azimuth
  3. depth d.         time




  1. The horizontal axis in auditory localization is called the
  2. elevation. c.         azimuth.
  3. depth. d.         bradburthy.




  1. If there is an interaural time difference, we interpret the sound as coming from
  2. directly in front of us. c.         the side.
  3. directly behind us. d.         directly above us.




  1. Interaural level differences are a cue to auditory localization because the
  2. person’s head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents high-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear.
  3. person’s head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents low-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear.
  4. medium through which the sound travels can be air, liquid, or solid.
  5. acoustic shadow is more likely to occur in an enclosed space than outdoors.




  1. The cue of interaural level difference is
  2. not effective for low-frequency sound stimuli.
  3. equally effective for high- and low-frequency sound stimuli.
  4. not effective for high-frequency sound stimuli.
  5. only effective for middle-frequency sound stimuli.





  1. The ______ is the dominant cue for locating low-frequency sounds along the azimuth.
  2. ITD c.         Both ITD and ILD are equally effective.
  3. ILD d.         HRTF only








  1. The ___________ is composed of the locations where the ILD and ITD are the same.
  2. common region c.         inverse acoustic range
  3. cone of confusion d.         Jeffries tube




  1. Spectral cues for auditory localization are provided by
  2. the frequency of the sound wave. c.         the head position and the pinnae.
  3. the interaural level difference. d. the motion of the stimulus.




  1. Garner and Garner showed that smoothing out the nooks of the pinnae
  2. results in more accurate localization on all corrdinates.
  3. makes it more difficult to locate sounds along the elevation coordinate.
  4. results in more accurate localization along the elevation coordinate.
  5. does not affect spectral cues for localization.




  1. Hofmann et al. had participants wear artificial pinnae for about three weeks.  Which of the following was a result of their study?
  2. Participants could not adapt to wearing the artificial pinnae.
  3. Participants adapted in about 19 days, but then could not accurately localize sounds when they removed the artificial pinnae.
  4. Participants adapted in about 19 days, and then could accurately localize sounds when they removed the artificial pinnae.
  5. Participants could not localize sounds along the azimuth with the new pinnae, but could localize sounds along the elevation coordinate after 3 days of adapatation.




  1. From the auditory nerve, information is passed through a sequence of subcortical structures. Which of the following reflects the correct sequence?
  2. medial geniculate nucleus, cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus, inferior colliculus
  3. cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate nucleus
  4. superior olivary nucleus, medial geniculate nucleus, cochlear nucleus, inferior colliculus
  5. medial geniculate nucleus, inferior colliculus, cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus




  1. The ____ is important for binaural localization because it is where signals from the left and right ears first meet.
  2. medial geniculate nucleus c.         inferior colliculus
  3. cochlear nucleus d.         superior olivary nucleus




  1. Coincidence detectors
  2. fire when the ITD equals 0.
  3. fire when the ITD is greater than 20.
  4. have been found in humans, but not in non-mammals.
  5. fire when the ILD is greater than 50.




  1. Interaural time difference detectors
  2. have not been found in the monkey auditory cortex.
  3. have been discovered in the monkey occipital cortex.
  4. have been found in the monkey auditory cortex that responds best to specific delays.
  5. have been found in the monkey auditory cortex, but do not differentially respond to different delays.




  1. McAlpine’s research on gerbils provides evidence for
  2. narrowly tuned ITD neurons. c.         specificity-coding in the auditory cortex.
  3. broadly tuned ITD neurons. d.         narrowly tuned spectral neurons.




  1. Recanzone (2000) examined localization in A1 and the auditory belt area in monkeys. Results indicated that
  2. the belt area is not involved in localization.
  3. A1 provides the most specific localization information.
  4. localization coded the same throughout the auditory cortex.
  5. the belt area provides more specific localization then A1.




  1. Patient J.G. has temporal lobe damage. While this has not affected his ability to locate sounds, he has difficulty recognizing sounds. This case provides evidence for
  2. the Jeffress model of auditory localization.
  3. what and where pathways in audition.
  4. the existence of separate subcortical structures.
  5. how and where pathways in audition.





  1. Sound that reaches the ears after bouncing off a wall or a floor is called
  2. direct sound. c.         virtual sound.
  3. indirect sound. d. harmonics.




  1. The precedence effect is
  2. the listener perceives the fused sound from two speakers to be originating from the lead speaker.
  3. the listener perceives the fused sound from two speakers to be originating from the lag speaker.
  4. the listener cannot fuse the sound from two speakers because the lead speaker is too loud.
  5. the listener cannot fuse the sound from two speakers because the lag speaker is too loud.




  1. In the precedence effect, the sound from the far speaker
  2. does not contribute to the perception of the sound.
  3. only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 5 milliseconds.
  4. only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 2 milliseconds.
  5. contributes to the richness of the sound.




  1. The major concern involved in architectural acoustics is how
  2. indirect sound changes sound quality. c. direct sound changes sound quality.
  3. indirect sound affects VAS. d.         direct sound affects VAS.





  1. The “ideal” reverberation time for symphony halls is
  2. 50 milliseconds. c.         2 seconds.
  3. 500 milliseconds. d.         7 seconds.




  1. The time that it takes a sound to decrease to ____ of its original level is the reverberation time.
  2. 1/1000th c.         1/5th
  3. 1/10th d.         none of these





  1. The anecdote about the construction of New York’s Philharmonic Hall demonstrates that
  2. an ideal reverberation time does not always predict good acoustics.
  3. an ideal reverberation time always predicts good acoustics.
  4. musicians should design symphony halls.
  5. the MLD is more important than the ILD in architectural acoustics.




  1. Which of the following factors needs to be considered in architectural acoustics?
  2. intimacy time c.         bass ratio
  3. spaciousness factor d.         all of these




  1. What did the designers of The Walt Disney Hall do to maximize acoustics?
  2. Seat cushions were designed to absorb the same amount as an average person.
  3. Increased the middle frequency to high frequency ratio.
  4. Designed the hall to have an ideal reverberation time of 2.0 seconds.
  5. Eliminated any indirect sound so that direct sound is maximized.




  1. The ideal reverberation time for a small classroom is
  2. about 500 milliseconds. c.         the same as for large concert halls.
  3. about 3 seconds. d.         about 6 seconds.




  1. The “S” in the S/N ratio in a classroom is the:
  2. sound from adjacent rooms. c.         level of the teacher’s voice.
  3. sound of the ventilation system. d.         scene analysis.




  1. The ideal S/N ratio in a classroom is _____ db.
  2. 0 to +1.00 c.         +0.67 to +1.05
  3. -1.00 to +1.00 d.         +10 to +15




  1. Vision: figure-ground segregation :: Audition: ________________.
  2. the ecological approach c.         auditiory scene analysis
  3. intimacy d.         Fourier analysis



  1. Auditory grouping can be accomplished by
  2. similarity of timbre. c.         location.
  3. similarity of pitch. d.         all of these.




  1. The importance of similarity of timbre as auditory grouping principle has been supported by
  2. implied polyphony. c.         location restoration effect.
  3. auditory stream segregation. d.         compound melodic line.




  1. Melodic channeling, or the scale illusion, is based on the auditory grouping law ________.
  2. location c.         onset
  3. similarity of pitch d.         offset




  1. Warren et al. presented listeners with tones that were either (1) interrupted with silent gaps; or (2) interrupted with silent gaps with noise. The results showed
  2. both conditions resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone.
  3. both conditions resulted in listeners hearing bursts of separate tones.
  4. the noise condition resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone.
  5. the silent gap condition resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone.




  1. The principle of auditory grouping called ________ is responsible for melody schema.
  2. proximity c.         location
  3. Pragnanz d.         experience




  1. Seven-month-old infants listened to a regular repeating ambiguous rhythm while they were bounced up and down at two bounces per beat or at three bounces per beat. Later, they were tested to see how they had perceived the rhythm. The results suggest that
  2. the infants perceived the rhythm as presented – ambiguous.
  3. the infants always perceived the rhythm as occurring in twos.
  4. the infants’ perception was influenced by how they were bounced.
  5. the vestibular system is not involved in auditory perception and movement.




  1. Infant studies reveal that the dominant stress patterns of their native language can influence perception grouping by
  2. 1 month of age. c.         7 months of age.
  3. 5 months of age. d.         1 year of age.




  1. The ventriloquism effect is
  2. a veridical representation of the physical stimuli.
  3. an example of how vision influences auditory perception.
  4. a strictly physiological effect.
  5. when dummy variables are used in statistical analyses.




  1. The study by Sekuler et al., in which a “click” was added to a visual display of two diagonally moving dots, showed that
  2. visual capture occurs in haptic research.
  3. hearing can influence visual perception.
  4. indirect sounds are located better than direct sounds.
  5. direct sounds are located better than indirect sounds.




  1. Some people who are blind are able to use echolocation to locate objects and perceive shapes by making clicking noises and listening to the reverberations. When expert echolocators use this technique
  2. they have 45% more activation in their frontal lobes than sighted individuals.
  3. they rely only on activation from the occipital lobe.
  4. the clicking sounds activate the auditory and visual cortices.
  5. the clicking sounds activate A1 but not subcortical structures.





  1. What are the two binaural auditory localization cues? Why do they occur? How is sound frequency related to these cues?




  1. Describe the method, results, and implications of the Hofmann et al. research on the role of spectral cues for localization.




  1. Describe the Jeffress model of auditory localization. What evidence supports the theory and what evidence poses a challenge for this theory?




  1. Discuss research that shows that similarity of pitch and timbre affects auditory grouping.




  1. What is “melody schema”? Discuss the support for this concept.




  1. What factors are important to consider when designing concert halls? What differences exist between designing concert halls and classroom?




  1. Describe how dominant stress patterns of your native language can affect perception of meter. When does this influence develop?




  1. Define visual capture and give examples of this concept.


Test Bank—Chapter 13: Speech Perception


Test Bank—Chapter 13: Speech Perception




  1. Computer speech recognition is
  2. better than human speech recognition in all conditions.
  3. better than human speech recognition in accuracy.
  4. equal in all respects to human speech recognition.
  5. worse than human speech recognition.




  1. Which of the following can be considered an articulator?
  2. a sound spectrogram c.         the soft palate
  3. a running spectral display d.         an articulation agreement




  1. A sound spectrogram is a plot of ______________ as a function of _____________, with darker areas representing greater intensity.
  2. frequency; time c.         time; amplitude
  3. amplitude; frequency d.         time; spatial location of sound source




  1. The vowel sound /ae/ (as in “had”) has
  2. a single formant. c.         three formants.
  3. two formants. d.         no formants.




  1. The consonant sound “____” is produced by placing your bottom lip against your upper front teeth and then pushing the air between the lips and the teeth.
  2. d c.         r
  3. g d.         f



  1. The ______ is the shortest segment of speech that, if changed, changes the meaning of the word.
  2. formants c.         tadomas
  3. phonemes d.         morphemes




  1. There are _____ phonemes for vowel sounds in the English language.
  2. two c.         six
  3. five d.         thirteen




  1. Spectrograms of sentences show
  2. that clear pauses occur between each spoken word.
  3. that formant transitions account for the breaks between words.
  4. no clear pauses or breaks between words.
  5. segmentation of words is easily accomplished by listeners in any context.




  1. Listening to someone speak a foreign language you are not familiar with can lead to
  2. the correspondence problem. c.         the formant transition effect.
  3. the segmentation problem. d.         acoustic signaling.




  1. When you say “bat” and “boot,” the /b/ sound is articulated differently. This is an example of
  2. phoneme contiguity. c.         coarticulation.
  3. phoneme incontiguity. d. alveolar context.




  1. Humans perceive the sound /b/ to be the same, even when the coarticulation of the sound is be different. This phenomenon is an example of
  2. perceptual constancy. c.         phonemic transitions.
  3. acoustic consistency. d.         the segmentation problem.




  1. The problem of variability from the way different people speak can be demonstrated by
  2. the pitch differences in different people’s voices.
  3. the different accents of different speakers.
  4. the speed at which the speaker talks.
  5. all of these.




  1. The ubiquitous “Whazzup!” is a sloppy pronunciation of “What’s up?” The spectrograms of each of these two spoken phrases would indicate
  2. no difference in the spectrograms between the two phrases.
  3. only a difference in the frequency axis between the two phrases.
  4. that there is a pause in the middle of “What’s up?”.
  5. major differences between the two, especially in the middle of the spectrograms.





  1. The existence of phonetic boundaries
  2. is currently debated among speech perception researchers. c.         has been demonstrated using discrimination experiments.
  3. only occurs at VOTs of greater than 250 ms. d.         shows that  categorical perception does not occur in speech perception.




  1. The voice onset time (VOT) for the sound /da/ is 17 ms, and the VOT for the sound /ta/ is 91 msec. When a computer produces a sound with a VOT of 65 msec, listeners are likely to report hearing
  2. the /da/ sound c.         the /ja/ sound
  3. the /ta/ sound d.         a combination of /ta/ and /da/




  1. The McGurk effect illustrates the importance of  ___________ on speech perception.
  2. the motor cortex c.         formants
  3. articulators d.         vision




  1. The McGurk effect is most similar to which of the following performers?
  2. ventriloquists c.         ballet dancers
  3. hockey players d.         gymnasts




  1. Jessica looks at Ashlee on a videotape. Ashlee’s lips are making the movement for the sound /ga-ga/, but the sound that is actually presented is the acoustic signal for /ba-ba/.  What sound is Jessica most likely to report hearing?
  2. /ga-ga/ c.         /da-da/
  3. /ba-ba/ d. /pa-pa-joe/




  1. If a listener is asked to pay attention to speech provided by familiar voices, the _____ is activated, as shown by fMRI studies.
  2. FFA c.         both the FFA and STS
  3. STS d.         none of these




  1. Rubin et al. (1976) asked participants to respond when they heard a word that started with the /b/ sound.  The average response time when real words were used was ____; and ______ when non-words were used.
  2. 100 msec; 57 msec c.         995 msec; 900 msec
  3. 580 msec; 631 msec d.         1.87 sec; 1.88 sec




  1. Warren showed that when a cough sound replaced the sound of the first /s/ in the word “legislatures,” listeners reported hearing
  2. just the cough sound where the /s/ was originally.
  3. just the cough sound because it masked the whole word.
  4. just the /s/ sound.
  5. the cough and the /s/ sound, but the cough position was not correctly identified.




  1. Your ability to read the sentence “H*V* A N*C* D*Y” is used as an example of the importance of
  2. bottom-up processing. c. audiovisual speech perception.
  3. top-down processing. d.         sideways processing.





  1. Miller and Isard presented listeners with grammatical sentences (“Gadgets simplify work around the house”); ungrammatical word strings (“Between gadgets highways passengers the steal”), and anomalous sentences (“Gadgets kill passengers from the eyes”). The results showed that the listener’s ability to accurately report the phrase was
  2. highest for the grammatical condition, followed by ungrammatical, and then anomalous.
  3. highest for the grammatical condition, followed by anomalous, and then ungrammatical.
  4. the same for grammatical and anomalous, which were both better than ungrammatical.
  5. the same for all three conditions.




  1. A fan of science fiction television shows would be more likely to make sense of the phrase “Start Wreck In Tore Prize.” This demonstrates the importance of
  2. the McGurk effect on speech perception.
  3. bottom-up processing on phomenic boundaries.
  4. Tadoma on speech production.
  5. meaning on segmentation.




  1. Top-down processing can help
  2. segment acoustic signals. c.         recognize words.
  3. recognize phonemes. d.         all of these.




  1. Saffron et al. (1996) found that the ability to use transitional probabilities to segment sounds develops around
  2. 2 months old. c.         2 years old.
  3. 8 months old. d.         5 years old.




  1. Saffron et al. (1996) found that 8-month-old infants listened to ______ test stimuli longer, providing evidence that infants are capable of __________ learning.
  2. whole word; vicarious c. part word; statistical
  3. whole word; transitional probability d.         part word; formal operational



  1. Palmeri et al. (1993) had participants listen to a word list that was spoken by (1) the same speaker, or (2) different speakers. In a subsequent recognition memory test, participants were
  2. more accurate when one speaker said all of the words. c.         faster in responding when different speakers said the words.
  3. more accurate when different speakers said the words. d.         the same in accuracy in both conditions.




  1. The joke in the textbook with the punch line “Yeah, right” is used as an example of
  2. sarcasm as a type of indexical characteristic. c.         shadowing in naturalistic environments.
  3. the effect of aphasia on inappropriate social interaction. d.         multimodal processing differences between Russian and English speakers.



  1. Link et al. (2003) studied the perceived meaning of listeners’ to the phrase “Let’s do lunch sometime,” based on the speaker’s inflection and emotional state. These are examples of
  2. indexical characteristics. c.         lip reading effects.
  3. segmentation effects. d.         speech shadowing techniques.




  1. Damage to Broca’s area in the frontal lobe results in difficulty
  2. in speaking.
  3. in understanding speech.
  4. in lip reading.
  5. in determining phonetic boundaries.




  1. A person with Wernicke’s aphasia
  2. has damage to an area of the occipital cortex.
  3. can comprehend words, but can’t produce speech.
  4. can easily isolate phonemes, but have trouble with word segmentation.
  5. produces fluent speech, but in nonsensical “word salads.”



  1. Micelli et al. (1980) found that brain damage to the parietal lobe caused the patient to have difficulty discriminating between syllables.  Micelli et al found that
  2. all these patients could not understand words.
  3. all these patients had “word deafness.”
  4. some of these patients could not hear pure tones.
  5. some of these patients could still understand words.




  1. Using fMRI, Belin et al., (2000) were able to reveal that, in humans, the superior temporal sulcus (STS) is
  2. activated more for human voices than for other sounds.
  3. activated for any sound that falls in the same frequency range as the human voice.
  4. responsible for coordinating conflicting visual and auditory information.
  5. responsible for phoneme segmentation.




  1. Brain scanning research has shown that the ________ is responsible for identifying sounds, and the _____ is responsible for locating sounds.
  2. “where” (dorsal) stream; what” (ventral) stream c.         corpus callosum; “where” (dorsal) stream
  3. “what” (ventral) stream; “where” (dorsal) stream d.         pacinian area; what” (ventral) stream




  1. The discovery of ______ is used as support for the motor theory of speech perception.
  2. Broca’s area c.         audiovisual mirror neurons
  3. Wernicke’s area d.         simple cells in area V1




  1. Watkins, using transcranial magnetic stimulation, found that motor-evoked potentials were highest when the participant
  2. listened to speech sounds. c.         watched someone else’s lip movements make speech sounds.
  3. listened to non-speech sounds. d.         both heard speech sounds and watched someone else’s lips make speech sounds.




  1. The ability to categorize speech sounds is found in infants as young as
  2. one-month-old. c.         six-months-old.
  3. three-months-old. d.         10-months-old.




  1. Japanese children at the age of _______ can tell the difference between the /r/ sound and the /l/ sound just as well as American children.
  2. 6 months old c.         2 years old
  3. 1 year old d.         5 years old





  1. Masakazu is a 4-month-old Japanese infant. When presented the phonemes /r/ and /l/,

he will

  1. not be able to discriminate between these two phonemes.
  2. be able to discriminate between these two phonemes.
  3. need the VOT changed to 10 msec to discriminate between the two phonemes.
  4. spontaneously mimic the /r/, but not the /l/.




  1. The research by Rivera-Gaxiola on the effect of Spanish speech sounds on the electrical potentials of American infants shows that speech perception involves
  2. experience-dependent plasticity. c.         the genetic basis for speech production.
  3. the genetic basis to speech perception. d.         multimodal stimulation.






  1. Discuss two sources of the variability problem. Provide examples for each.




  1. Describe how voice onset times (VOTs) have been used to study categorical perception.




  1. What is the McGurk effect? What evidence exists for the physiological basis for this effect?




  1. Discuss the methods and results of two studies of the phonemic restoration effect.




  1. Discuss what information is used by listeners to accomplish speech segmentation.




  1. (a) What are indexical characteristics?

(b) Describe examples of indexical characteristics used in your everyday life.




  1. Discuss the “dual-stream model of speech perception.” Briefly describe research that supports this model.




Test Bank—Chapter 14: The Cutaneous Senses


Test Bank—Chapter 14: The Cutaneous Senses




  1. The somatosensory system
  2. is the same as the cutaneous sensory system.
  3. is comprised of cutaneous sensations, proprioception, and kinesthesis.
  4. is not activated when reading Braille.
  5. is not important for motivating sexual activity.




  1. The function of the skin is
  2. warning the individual of possible injury.
  3. preventing body fluids form escaping.
  4. protecting the organism from bacteria and chemical agents.
  5. all of these are functions of the skin



  1. The _______ are located near the border of the epidermis and surface of the skin, and are associated with sensing fine details.
  2. Pacinian corpuscle
  3. Meissner corpuscles
  4. Ruffini cylinders
  5. Merkel receptors





  1. Which of the following is NOT a mechanoreceptor?
  2. Pacinian corpuscle c.         Merkel receptors
  3. Ruffini cylinders d.         Chancellor cells




  1. The ___________ are responsible for the perception of rapid vibrations, such as you would experience when using a hand-held massager.
  2. Pacinian corpuscle
  3. Meissner corpuscles
  4. Ruffini cylinders
  5. Merkel receptors




  1. The Meissner corpuscle is associated with
  2. sensing vibrations. c.         controlling handgrip.
  3. sensing fine texture. d.         sensing fine details.





  1. The nerve fibers in the spinal cord go in
  2. the medial lemniscal pathway only.
  3. the spinothalamic pathway only.
  4. the geniculostriate pathway only.
  5. both the medial lemniscal pathway and the spinothalamic pathway.




  1. Ian Waterman was able to sense pain and temperature because his _______ pathway was intact, but could not feel touch and limb position because of damage to his ____ pathway.
  2. lemniscal; spinothalamic c.         homuncular; lemniscal
  3. spinothalamic; lemniscal d.         spinothermal; spinothalamic




  1. The fibers from the medial lemniscal pathway and the spinothalamic pathway go to the
  2. lateral geniculate nucleus. c.         ventrolateral nucleus.
  3. medial geniculate nucleus. d.         hypothalamus.




  1. Penfield mapped locations of body parts on area S1 by
  2. using fMRIs in humans.
  3. lesioning S1 areas in the monkey.
  4. using somatosensory-evoked potentials in monkeys.
  5. stimulating S1 areas in humans, and asking where they felt body sensations.




  1. The mapping of the body on the somatosensory cortex can be represented as the
  2. homunculus. c.         epidermis.
  3. anosmia. d.         pachyderm.




  1. The area on S1 associated with the thumb is as large as the area for the forearm. This is an example of
  2. sensory substitution. c.         cortical magnification.
  3. Braille projection. d.         the analgesic inversion principle.




  1. Which of the following is true regarding body mapping in the somatosensory cortex?
  2. Body maps only appear in S1.
  3. Body map regions are proportionate to the actual size of the body parts.
  4. Body maps appear in both the frontal and parietal lobes.
  5. Body maps appear in S1 and S2.




  1. Experience-dependent plasticity has been found to occur for
  2. the somatosensory system only.
  3. the auditory system only.
  4. only the auditory and somatosensory systems
  5. the somatosensory, auditory, and visual systems.



  1. Jan is a right-handed violin player – she bows with her right hand and fingers the strings with her left. The cortical representation for the fingers on her left hand is
  2. equal to the area for the fingers on her right hand.
  3. equal to the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician.
  4. larger than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician.
  5. smaller than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician.




  1. Which of the following stimuli have been used to test tactile acuity?
  2. Gratings
  3. Letters
  4. Two-point stimuli
  5. Letters, gratings, and two-point stimuli have all been used.




  1. Which of the following body parts has the lowest two-point threshold?
  2. Fingertips c.         Forehead
  3. Palms d.         Upper arm



  1. The density of the ______ on the fingertips than on the palms.
  2. Merkel receptors is higher c.         Merkel receptors is lower
  3. Krausse end bulbs is higher d.         Pacinian corpuscles is lower





  1. The receptive fields of cortical S1 neurons are
  2. larger for the fingers than for the forearm.
  3. larger for the fingers than for the hand.
  4. smaller for the fingers than the forearm.
  5. the same size for the fingers as for the hand.





  1. The mechanoreceptors primarily responsible for feeling the vibrations from an electric toothbrush are _________ because these receptors contain an “onion-like” series of layers.
  2. Pacinian corpuscles c.         Ruffini cylinders
  3. Merkel receptors d.         Meissner corpuscles




  1. Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as
  2. parietal cues. c.         spatial cues.
  3. temporal cues. d. olfactory cues.





  1. The duplex theory of texture perception refers to the importance of
  2. temporal cues and spatial cues. c.         spatial cues and auditory cues.
  3. temporal cues and olfactory cues. d.         temporal cues and parietal cues.




  1. The demonstration in which you perceived the texture of a surface using your pen or another “tool” showed
  2. it is difficult to determine texture without directly touching the surface.
  3. passive touch is more important than active touch in texture perception.
  4. texture gradients are more important for vision than cutaneous senses.
  5. that you can use vibrations to perceive the texture of the surface.




  1. In most of our daily experience of touch, we are using
  2. passive touch. c.         two-point touch.
  3. active touch. d.         two-hand touch.




  1. When you try to identify a three-dimensional object by touch alone, and are allowed to have control over your hand and finger movements, you are using
  2. passive touch. c.         azimuth perception.
  3. haptic perception. d.         magnification touch.




  1. Which if the following is an “exploratory procedure” identified by Lederman and Klatzky?
  2. Enclosure c.         Contour following
  3. Pressure d.         All of these are EPs.




  1. BobbyDale is asked to use haptic perception to identify a soccer ball. She will most likely use the exploratory procedure(s) of _______________ to identify the soccer ball’s exact shape.
  2. lateral motion and pressure c.         enclosure and contour following
  3. pressure only d.         passive motion and lateral motion




  1. Mika touches a high-curvature stimulus and a lower-curvature stimulus with her fingertip. Which of the following best describes the firing of the mechanoreceptor fibers?
  2. The receptors right at the point of contact respond the most and the ones further away fire less for the high-curvature stimulus, but there is no difference in firing for the lower-curvature stimulus.
  3. The receptors right at the point of contact respond the most and the ones further away fire less for the lower-curvature stimulus, but there is no difference in firing for the high-curvature stimulus.
  4. The receptors right at the point of contact respond the most and the ones further away fire less in both cases, and the pattern of firing is the same in both cases.
  5. The receptors right at the point of contact respond the most and the ones further away fire less in both cases, but the pattern of firing is different for the two stimuli.




  1. Neurons in the ventral posterior nucleus in the thalamus have
  2. center-surround receptive fields c.         no receptive fields.
  3. ill-defined receptive fields. d.         grating-like receptive fields.




  1. Neurons in the monkey somatosensory cortex have been found that
  2. respond only to stimuli of a specific orientation.
  3. respond only to active touching of a ruler.
  4. respond differently under different attention conditions.
  5. All of these have been found.



  1. Neuropathic pain : __________ :: Inflammatory pain: _______.
  2. tumor cells; phantom limb syndrome
  3. tumor cells; carpal tunnel syndrome
  4. carpal tunnel syndrome; azimuth burn
  5. carpal tunnel syndrome; tumor cells







  1. The phenomenon of “phantom limb” is difficult to explain using the _______ of pain.
  2. direct pathway model.
  3. gate control model.
  4. both gate control and direct pathway models.
  5. neither; both gate control and direct pathway models can explain phantom limb.




  1. According to the gate control theory of pain, the ______ opens the pain gate by sending excitation to___.
  2. Mechanoreceptors; Transmission cells
  3. SG+; Nocioceptors
  4. SG-; Mechanoreceptors
  5. Nociceptors; Transmission cells





  1. Pokorny reduced the perceived pain for a burn victim by
  2. showing photographs of other burn victims.
  3. microstimulating the nocioreceptors in the forearm.
  4. discussing the placebo effect with the burn victim.
  5. presenting a virtual-reality “game” that involved chasing a spider and grinding the spider in a garbage disposal.



  1. Lucy, a heterosexual female, would be able to keep her hand immersed in cold water longer if she was
  2. looking at pictures of a refrigerator.
  3. looking at pictures of accidents, since she would feel that other people have worse trouble than cold hands.
  4. looking a pictures of attractive males.
  5. visualizing images of war.




  1. Research by Derbyshire et al. (2003) showed that
  2. hypnosis does not affect pain perception.
  3. hypnosis can affect pain perception, but not the brain activity associated with pain.
  4. hypnosis can affect pain perception, and the brain activity associated with pain.
  5. activation of nocioceptors is necessary for pain perception.





  1. Which of the following structures is not part of the pain matrix?
  2. amygdala c.         ACC
  3. insula d.         SEC




  1. Sensory component of pain : ________ :: emotional component of pain : ________.
  2. throbbing; dull c. frightful; prickly
  3. annoying; sickening d.         throbbing; annoying





  1. The phrase “multimodal nature of pain” refers to
  2. pain that occurs from too much heat or too much cold.
  3. pain that occurs from sounds that are too loud and skin stimulation that is too intense.
  4. sensory and emotional components of pain.
  5. real and imagined sources of pain.




  1. pain subjective intensity : _______ :: pain unpleasantness: ________.
  2. Area S1; Area S2 c.         the ACC; Area S2
  3. real pain; the pain matrix d.         Area S1; the ACC




  1. Based on the finding that ______________________, it is believed that endorphins are linked to pain relief.
  2. naloxone injections increase the analgesic effect of endorphins
  3. naloxone injections decrease the analgesic effect of endorphins and placebos
  4. naloxone injections increase the analgesic effects of placebos
  5. placebo injections increase the analgesic effects of endorhins




  1. Endorphins
  2. are morphine-like substances found in the body.
  3. are receptors that are stimulated by extreme temperature on the skin.
  4. the active agent in placebos.
  5. have no analgesic effects.




  1. Stroking a participants’ leg led to increased activation in S2. Interestingly, S2 activity also increased
  2. when participants saw a video of the same leg moving around in isolation.
  3. when participants saw a video depicting someone stroking an office supply binder.
  4. when participants saw a video of an object moving toward someone’s leg.
  5. when participants thought about lifting the same leg and moving it around.







  1. Name and discuss the differences between the four types of mechanoreceptors.




  1. Discuss how cortical magnification and plasticity are related to the cortical mapping of area S1.




  1. What is the duplex theory of texture perception? Describe research that supports this theory.




  1. Explain how haptic exploration is used to identify objects.




  1. Describe the basic principles of the gate-control model of pain.




  1. Discuss four ways that cognitive factors can influence pain perception.




  1. Discuss research by Osborn and Derbyshire (2010) and Singer et al. (2004) that demonstrate how social situations can affect pain perception.


Test Bank—Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses


Test Bank—Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses




  1. The senses of ____________ are referred to as the gatekeepers.
  2. olfaction and gustation c.         vision and olfaction
  3. kinethesis and proprioception d.         vision and proprioception




  1. The “life-span” of olfactory receptors in humans is
  2. 1 day. c.         7 years.
  3. 5 to 7 weeks. d.         60 years.



  1. ____ tastes cause an autonomic acceptance response and prepares the gastrointestinal tract for these substances.
  2. Bitter c.         Sour
  3. Sweet d.         Umami



  1. A fifth basic taste discovered many years after the other four is
  2. referred to as salty-sweet. c.         described as “putrid”.
  3. described as “bittersweet”. d.         referred to as umami.



  1. Sodium nitrate results in a taste of
  2. sweet. c.         sour.
  3. sweet and sour. d.         a combination of salty, sour, and bitter.




  1. The tiny bumps on the tongue that contain the taste buds are the
  2. insulae. c.         papillae.
  3. lattices. d.         tadomae.




  1. The _____ papillae are mushroom-shaped and found on the tip and sides of the tongue.
  2. filiform c.         foliate
  3. fungiform d.         circumvillate



  1. Areas on the tongue covered primarily with filiform papillae are similar to ______ in vision.
  2. convergence c.         cortical magnification
  3. the blind spot d.         accretion and deletion



  1. The central part of the tongue has no taste sensations because that part consists primarily of _______ papillae which do not contain taste buds.
  2. filiform c.         foliate
  3. fungiform d.         circumvillate



  1. The ____ pathway conducts signals from the front and sides of the tongue to the brain.
  2. chorda tympani c.         vagus nerve
  3. glossopharyngeal nerve d.         insula nerve




  1. Olfactory signals from the thalamus project to
  2. the insula and the frontal operculum cortex.
  3. only the nucleus of solitary tract.
  4. the orbitofrontal cortex.
  5. the parietal cortex.





  1. “Across-fiber patterns” is another name for
  2. distributed coding. c.         olfactory decoding.
  3. specificity coding. d.         common coding.




  1. Evidence for ______ is provided by an Erickson (1963) study in which rats appeared to be unable to discriminate between two different solutions that produce a similar taste.
  2. distributed coding. c.         olfactory decoding.
  3. specificity coding. d.         common coding.




  1. Mueller et al. created a strain of mice that lacked the receptor that normally responds to a bitter substance called Cyx. The mice that did not have this receptor
  2. avoided all bitter substances.
  3. avoided Cyx, but would eat other bitter foods.
  4. did not avoid Cyx.
  5. avoided high concentrations of PTC.





  1. The substance amiloride
  2. blocks the flow of sucrose to taste receptors.
  3. blocks the flow of sodium to taste receptors.
  4. increases neural responses to salt detection.
  5. neutralizes bitter tastes by confusing the signal.




  1. Eliminating the receptor for bitter tastes results in
  2. a “shifting” of the selectivity other receptors to allow some detection of bitter.
  3. the regeneration of bitter receptors.
  4. less sensitivity to umami and salty tastes.
  5. no effect on responses to the other tastes.




  1. The finding that rats will still prefer sweet substances even though their “sweet” receptors have been eliminated
  2. proves that taste uses distributed coding.
  3. presents a challenge to distributed coding theories.
  4. presents a challenge to specificity coding theories.
  5. is unrelated to the issue of neural representation of taste.




  1. In regard to specificity vs. distributed coding , most researchers conclude
  2. distributed coding has the most research support.
  3. specificity coding has the most research support.
  4. basic taste qualities are determined by specificity coding, and distributed coding is important for discriminating subtle differences.
  5. basic taste qualities are determined by distributed coding, and specificity coding is important for discriminating subtle differences.





  1. In taste research, people are classified as “tasters” or “non-tasters” based on their sensitivity to PTC, which tastes
  2. sweet. c.         salty.
  3. sour. d.         bitter.





  1. The difference between “tasters” and “non-tasters” in the ability to taste PROP is due to:
  2. a higher density of taste buds for “tasters” than “non-tasters.”
  3. a lower density of taste buds for “tasters” than “non-tasters.”
  4. specialized receptors present in “tasters” tongues that are absent from “non-tasters.”
  5. both higher taste bud density and specialized receptors for “tasters.”



  1. Macrosmatic species will use olfaction for
  2. marking territory. c.         a guide for food sources.
  3. sexual reproduction. d.         all of these.




  1. In one study, men rated the scent of t-shirts worn by women three nights in a row. The results indicated that
  2. men disliked the smell of dirty t-shirts on men, but not women.
  3. men preferred the t-shirt scent if the woman who were ovulating.
  4. men preferred the t-shirt scent if the woman was not ovulating..
  5. men preferred the t-shirt scent of women who showered regularly.




  1. __________ is the inability to smell due to injury or infection.
  2. Aphasia c.         Alliesthesia
  3. Anosmia d.         Prosopagnosia




  1. When using the forced-choice procedure in measuring odor detection thresholds, the experimenter should
  2. do two trials simultaneously. c.         separate trials by at least 5 seconds.
  3. separate trials by at least 500 msec. d.         separate trials by at least 30 seconds.




  1. The human sensitivity for the odorant found in natural gas is ________  the odorant for the main substance in nail polish remover.
  2. greater than c.         the same as
  3. less than d.         not consistently different than




  1. Dogs are more sensitive to smells than humans because
  2. humans have more olfactory receptors than dogs.
  3. dogs have many more olfactory receptors than humans.
  4. each individual olfactory receptor is more sensitive in dogs than in humans.
  5. dogs tend to be microsmatic.





  1. When Doty told a participant the correct label for an odor initially described as “fishy-goaty-oily,” the participant transformed the smell into the perception of
  2. Aquavit. c.         leather.
  3. licorice. d.         meatloaf.




  1. When presented with a common odor like banana or motor oil, participants can identify the odor approximately _____% of the time.
  2. 10 c.         87
  3. 50 d.         98



  1. Finding the neural code for odor molecules
  2. is relatively straightforward, since molecules that are similar result in similar smells.
  3. is relatively straightforward, since there is a simple relationship between the chemical properties of the odor and the perceived odor.
  4. has focused on what smells cause olfactory neurons to fire.
  5. has focused on which chemical odorants cause the olfactory neurons to fire.





  1. The __________ is the structure that contains the receptors for olfaction.
  2. olfactory bulb c.         chorda tympani
  3. olfactory mucosa d.         substantia gelatinosa




  1. Olfactory transduction occurs at
  2. the olfactory receptor neurons. c.         the papillae.
  3. the amygdala. d.         the foliate.




  1. There are __________ different types of olfactory receptors in humans.
  2. 4 c.         approximately 350
  3. 20 d.         approximately 10,000



  1. Which of the following is a correct interpretation when using calcium imaging to measure olfactory receptor response?
  2. The more strongly the ORN is activated, the fluorescence increases.
  3. The more strongly the ORN is activated, the fluorescence decreases.
  4. The more strongly the ORN is activated, the greater the “glow”.
  5. The more strongly the ORN is activated, the concentration of calcium ions decreases.




  1. The relationship between an odorant’s smell and its recognition profile is similar to ___________ in vision.
  2. stereopsis. c.         trichromatic coding for color.
  3. binocular cell response. d.         corollary discharge theory.









  1. Octanoic acid and octanol differ in molecular structure by one oxygen molecule.  When smelling these substances,
  2. participants report that the two substances both smell “sweet.”
  3. participants report that the two substances both smell “musky.”
  4. the recognition profiles for the two substances are very different.
  5. octanoic acid, but not octanol, was classified as a “pheromone” for sexual attraction.




  1. The axons of the olfactory sensory neurons project to the ___________ in the brain.
  2. glomeruli in the olfactory bulb c.         lateral geniculate nucleus
  3. occipital lobe d.         superior olivary nucleus




  1. Uchida’s optical imaging research showed that larger carbon chains activate areas on the olfactory bulb that are
  2. more centrally located.
  3. located more to the right.
  4. located more to the left.
  5. randomly distributed across the glomeruli.




  1. Which technique involves injecting an animal with a radioactive molecule to see which part of the olfactory bulb is most activated by different chemicals?
  2. Genetic tracing c. 2-DG
  3. Olfactory Evoked Potentials d.         TVC-15



  1. Olfactory signals from the glomeruli project to
  2. the piriform cortex in the temporal lobe.
  3. the orbitofrontal cortex in the frontal lobe.
  4. the amygdala.
  5. all of these.




  1. The _______ is most likely involved perceiving overlapping odors, such as “coffee” “French toast” and “bacon.”
  2. piriform cortex. c.         PTC.
  3. nasal pharynx. d. insula.





  1. Flavor is the impression a person gets from
  2. taste only.
  3. the combination of olfaction and kinesthesis.
  4. the combination of olfaction and taste.
  5. the combination of olfaction, taste, and vision.




  1. Which of the following compounds had the same flavor whether or not the person’s nose was clamped to prevent olfaction?
  2. sodium oleate
  3. ferrous sodium
  4. MSG
  5. all of these are all affected by clamping the nostrils



  1. The orbital frontal cortex receives input from
  2. the visual pathways.
  3. the primary somatosensory cortex.
  4. the primary cortical areas for taste and olfaction.
  5. all of these.




  1. As a monkey’s hunger for cream decreases, the firing of the OFC neuron to the cream’s odor
  2. increases. c.         stays the same.
  3. decreases. d.         randomly increases or decreases.





  1. When an eight-hour-old newborn is given a concentrated shrimp odor to smell, the


  1. responds with a facial expression similar to a smile.
  2. responds with an increase in sucking.
  3. responds with a facial expression that displays disgust.
  4. does not respond at all to smells at this young age.





  1. Which of the following tastes do newborns NOT react to?
  2. bitter c.         sour
  3. sweet d.         salty






  1. Does distributed coding or specificity coding occur in taste? Support your answer with research.




  1. What is the difference between tasters and non-tasters? What is the proposed cause(s) for this difference?




  1. In one study males were asked to rate the scent of a t-shirt worn by a woman three nights during ovulation or three nights when not in ovulation. Discuss the results of this study and relate them to reproductive fertility and the human ability to sense phermones.




  1. Discuss the research on odor identification. Relate Goldstein’s anecdote about smelling “Aquavit” to odor identification (or better yet, describe a similar situation that happened in your life).




  1. Compare three different methods for studying the physiology of olfaction.




  1. Discuss how “top-down” processing is involved in odor perception; form both a behavioral and physiological approach.




  1. What is flavor? Describe how taste experience is affected if olfaction does not take place when tasting a substance.




  1. Describe the Proust effect and provide a physiological explanation for its occurrence.