SYSTEMS ARCHITECTURE 7TH EDITION BY BURD – TEST BANK
Chapter 01 – Computer Technology: Your Need To Know 1. Most people feel comfortable purchasing complex devices, such as cars, home theater systems, and computers. a. True b. False
2. To make an informed choice when purchasing a computer, you must know your preferences and requirements, such as the application software you plan to use and whether you plan to discard or upgrade the computer in a year or two. a. True b. False
3. Large computer systems and the software that runs on them use more complex technology than smaller ones do. a. True b. False
4. Large computer systems and the software that runs on them use more complex technology than smaller ones do. a. True b. False
5. Architecture includes the processes analysis and construction. a. True b. False
6. Architects don’t need to understand the underlying technology of what they design. a. True b. False
7. Each iteration of the UP includes whatever activities are needed to produce testable models or working software. a. True b. False
8. The mix of activities in each iteration of the UP is tailored to each development project. a. True b. False
9. Efforts in each discipline of the UP are generally distributed across all of the iterations in the same way for each project. a. True b. False
10. Technical knowledge of computer hardware and system software is required to assess the resources required to update a system to address unmet user needs. a. True b. False
11. The knowledge required to perform business and requirements modeling covers a narrow range of current technology. a. True b. False
12. The design discipline can be decomposed into architectural and detailed design. a. True b. False
13. The deployment discipline is the set of activities for building, acquiring, and integrating application software components. a. True b. False
14. UP disciplines include business modeling, requirements, design, implementation, testing, deployment, and evaluation/maintenance. a. True b. False
15. By far, the most important of activity to keep your knowledge current is taking training courses from hardware and software vendors. a. True b. False
16. Consolidation in periodical publishers has created large corporate families of technology-related Web sites and publications. a. True b. False
17. Competition prevents publishers from providing content and services that transcend a single paper publication. a. True b. False
18. Unbiased information exists on the Web, and it’s generally easy to find. a. True b. False
19. Expect to pay for unbiased information. a. True b. False
20. When dealing with publicly accessible information sources, be sure to use information from several unrelated sources to balance the biases of each source. a. True b. False
21. Manufacturer Web sites are mainly marketing and customer support tools. a. True b. False
22. Hardware and software manufacturers are in the business of providing unbiased information about products. a. True b. False
23. The membership of the Association for Information Technology Professionals (AITP) represents a broad cross-section of the computer community including IS managers and application developers. a. True b. False
24. The membership of the ACM represents a broad cross-section of the computer community, including hardware and software manufacturers, educators, researchers, IT professionals, and students. a. True b. False
25. When developing an information system, IS professionals follow a series of steps called a ____. a. project life cycle
b. systems development life cycle
c. project development life cycle
d. service development life cycle
26. Typically, the first iteration or two of the UP produces documentation and a ____ system. a. trial b. alpha c. conceptual d. prototype
27. In the UP, related activities are grouped into UP ____. a. disciplines b. cycles c. services d. practices
28. Activities in the business modeling discipline and the ____ discipline are primarily concerned with building models of the organization that will own and operate the system, models of the system’s environment, and models of system and user requirements. a. design b. modeling c. requirements d. architectural
29. The ____ discipline is the set of activities for determining the structure of a specific information system that fulfills the system requirements. a. design b. requirements c. modeling d. architecture
30. The first set of design activities, called ____ design, selects and describes the exact configuration of all hardware, network, system software, and application development tools to support system development and operations. a. reference b. architectural c. system d. functional
31. When actual hardware, network, and system software components are acquired and installed, they make up a(n) ____ for one or more information systems. a. information assurance b. information services c. data services d. technology architecture
32. ____ design activities are narrower in scope and constrained by the information architecture compared to the remaining design activities. a. Reference b. Architectural c. Detailed d. Functional
33. The ____ discipline of the UP includes all activities for building, acquiring, and integrating application software components. a. implementation b. design c. architecture d. requirements
34. The ____ discipline includes activities that verify correct functioning of infrastructure and application software components and ensure that they satisfy system requirements. a. architecture b. design c. testing d. implementation
35. The ____ discipline is the set of activities for installing and configuring infrastructure and application software components and bringing them into operation. a. services b. implementation c. testing d. deployment
36. Although not a formal UP discipline, systems evaluation and ____ is an important group of activities that accounts for much of the long-range system cost. a. integration b. maintenance c. design d. coordination
37. Managers of _____ collections of information systems and supporting infrastructure must contend with a great deal of technical complexity. a. connected b. complex c. integrated d. dynamic
38. Given the rapid pace of change in computer technology, a manager must have a broad understanding of current technology and _____. a. future technology trends b. integration standards c. best practices d. industry standards
39. ____ is the professional society whose membership is most specifically oriented toward IS management and development. a. ACM b. IEEE Computer Society c. AITP d. IEEE Information Management Society
40. Digital libraries of the ____ professional societies are important sources of unbiased technology information. a. AITP and ACM b. ACM and IEEE c. AITP and IEEE d. IEEE and InformationWeek
41. ____ Web sites are oriented toward sales, but they usually contain detailed information on specific products or links to other Web sites. a. Manufacturer b. User c. Reseller d. Vendor
42. ____ Web sites have detailed information on their products and offer technical and customer support services. a. Reseller b. Vendor c. Manufacturer d. User
43. The ____ is a well-established organization with a primary emphasis on computer science. a. Association for Computing Machinery (ACM) b. Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) c. Oxford Computer Society (OCS) d. International Standards Organization (ISO)
44. The Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ____ is a subgroup of the IEEE that specializes in computer and data communication technologies. a. Control Systems Society b. Education Society c. Computer Society d. Communications Society
45. The membership of the _____ consists mainly of IS managers and application developers. a. Association for Computing Machinery (ACM) b. Institute for Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) c. Association for Information Technology Professionals (AITP) d. Oxford Computer Society (OCS)
46. The steps in the Unified Process are called ____________________.
47. In the UP, the ____________________ discipline includes activities such as creating test data, conducting tests, and evaluating test results.
48. In the UP, the business and its environment are defined and modeled within the ____________________ discipline
49. The purpose of building ____________________ and requirements models is to understand the environment in which the system will function and the tasks the system must perform or assist users to perform.
50. The UP design discipline can be decomposed into architectural and ____________________ design.
51. Selecting and configuring computer hardware, network hardware, system software, and application development tools is a task in ____________________ design.
52. A(n) ____________________ combines aspects of computer, information, network, and software architecture.
53. In the UP, installing and configuring hardware and software components are activities of the ____________________ discipline.
54. Spectrum is a publication of the ____________________ professional society.
55. High quality and ____________________ information is the product of intensive research and something for which you should expect to pay.
56. Describe the different activities and emphases of architectural and detailed design.
57. Describe the issue of bias in sources of information about computer-, network-, and software-related technology.
58. List and describe two or more periodicals that serve as a good information source for IS professionals.
59. List two ways that companies earn revenue for Web-based information and services.
60. List two possible biases from sites that generate revenue from advertising, referrals, commissions, or preferred partner arrangements.
Chapter 02 Introduction to Systems Architecture 1. Some commercial computers have used quantum physics to perform data storage and computation. a. True b. False
2. The Difference Engine computed logarithms by moving gears and other mechanical components. a. True b. False
3. Mechanical computers such as the Mark One were used during World War I to compute trajectory tables for naval guns and torpedoes. a. True b. False
4. Mechanical computation devices cannot perform complex calculations. a. True b. False
5. A machine capable of adding whole numbers can multiply whole numbers by executing the addition function multiple times. a. True b. False
6. The biggest impetus for the change to electronic computing devices came during World War I. a. True b. False
7. Electronic computers addressed most shortcomings of mechanical computation. a. True b. False
8. Light can be used as a basis for computation. a. True b. False
9. Optics have little advantage over electronics in most areas of computing technology. a. True b. False
10. Optical processors might be easier to fabricate than current processors and are better matched to optical communication technologies. a. True b. False
11. In classical physics, a subatomic particle, such as a photon, can be in multiple places at one time. a. True b. False
12. All computers are automated computing devices, and all automated computing devices are computers. a. True b. False
13. A typical computer system must have much more secondary storage capacity than primary storage capacity. a. True b. False
14. A tablet computer is a laptop computer that emphasizes small size, reduced weight, low cost, and wireless networking and is capable of performing only light-duty tasks, such as Web browsing, e-mailing, and word processing. a. True b. False
15. Server hardware capabilities depend on the resources being shared and the number of simultaneous users. a. True b. False
16. The World Wide Web is sometimes called a network of networks because it interconnects millions of other networks. a. True b. False
17. A URL identifies one specific WWW resource. a. True b. False
18. The primary role of software is to translate users’ needs and requests into CPU instructions that, when executed, produce a result that satisfies the need or request. a. True b. False
19. The need or idea that motivates a request for computer processing is stated at a specific level. a. True b. False
20. Windows OSs tend toward an all-inclusive approach to system software, bundling most system software functions in the OS. a. True b. False
21. An end-user accesses a Web-based application via a URL. a. True b. False
22. The evolution of Microsoft OSs is a good example of how software development depends on hardware technology. a. True b. False
23. The 80386 provided hardware support for running multiple programs simultaneously, simplified partitioning primary storage among programs, and provided mechanisms for preventing programs from interfering with one another. a. True b. False
24. A simple definition of a computer is a device that can accept numeric inputs, perform computational functions, and ____. a. communicate results
b. solve formulas
c. store data on disk or flash RAM
d. detect quantum storage states
25. Early mechanical computation devices were built to perform ____. a. text processing
b. mathematical simulation c. repetitive mathematical calculations d. repetitive text operations
26. Optical computation harnesses the energy of moving ____ to perform computational work. a. muons b. photons c. electrons d. positrons
27. A particle of light is called a ____. a. muon b. photon c. quantum d. meson
28. Optical light pulses can be stored indirectly, such as ____. a. on the surface of a DVD b. on the surface of a magnetic disk c. in the blocks of flash memory d. the groves of a record
29. ____ signals can carry more data than electrical signals. a. Mechanical b. Digital c. Optical d. Quantum
30. ____ physics describes the behavior of matter at a subatomic level. a. Einsteinian b. Newtonian c. Relativity d. Quantum
31. Quantum physics describes subatomic behavior with ____. a. physical rules b. mathematical rules c. physical laws d. a combination of physical rules and mathematical laws
32. In a modern digital computer, data is represented by groups of ____. a. qubits b. photons c. bits d. waves
33. Any matter that stores data in multiple simultaneous quantum states is called a ____. a. qubit b. bit c. Limit d. quantum
34. In classical physics, a group of 3 bits can store only one of ____ possible values at a time. a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 24
35. The first commercially available quantum computer was built by ____. a. IBM b. Sony c. D-Wave d. Hewlett-Packard
36. A(n) ____ is a program in which different sets of instructions are applied to different data input values. a. system b. problem c. solution d. algorithm
37. The CPU contains a few internal storage locations called ____, each capable of holding a single instruction or data item. a. the ALU b. registers c. shifters d. the compiler
38. Storage devices that hold currently executing programs are called ____ a. primary storage b. registers c. qubits d. secondary storage
39. Storage devices that hold data not needed by currently running programs are called ____ a. primary storage b. registers c. qubits d. secondary storage
40. In current computer hardware, main memory is implemented with silicon-based semiconductor devices commonly called ____. a. Flash b. PROM c. ROM d. RAM
41. A ____ is a computer system designed to meet a single user’s information-processing needs. a. personal computer b. mainframe c. supercomputer d. minicomputer
42. A ____ is designed for one purpose—computational speed with large problems. a. supercomputer b. mainframe c. microcomputer d. server
43. The term ____ can describe computers as small as midrange computers and as large as supercomputers. a. mainframe b. client c. server d. grid
44. A ____ is a group of similar or identical computers, connected by a high-speed network, that cooperate to provide services or run a single application. a. cloud b. cluster c. blade d. grid
45. A ____ is a circuit board that contains most of a server. a. grid b. cloud c. cluster d. blade
46. ____ are typically implemented by installing software on each machine that accepts tasks from a central server and performs them when not busy doing other work. a. Grids b. Clouds c. Clusters d. Blades
47. A ____ is a set of computing resources with front-end interfaces and back-end resources. a. grid b. cluster c. cloud d. blade
48. ____ is typically the cheapest component of current information systems. a. System software b. Hardware c. Middleware d. Application software
49. “____” is the concept that the per-unit cost of producing goods or providing services decreases as the organization size increases. a. Economies of scale b. Economies of measure c. Economies of balance d. Economies of growth
50. A ____ consists of hardware, software, and transmission media that enable computer systems to share information, software, and hardware resources. a. computer system b. computer network c. computer environment d. computer platform
51. The complexity of modern networks arises from the huge quantity of ____. a. centralized resources b. local resources c. distributed resources d. cloud services
52. A specific shared resources within the World Wide Web is identified by a(n) ____. a. URL b. ALU c. CPU d. WWW
53. A(n) ____ is a stored set of instructions for responding to a specific request, much as you might look up a recipe to prepare a particular dish. a. operating system b. computer system c. compiler d. application program
54. ____ is targeted to general-purpose tasks that support many application programs and users. a. Application software b. System software c. Niche software d. Commodity software
55. Most application software is used by ____. a. end users b. programmers c. engineers d. administrators
56. In the “layered approach,” knowledge of the machine’s physical details is embedded into system software and hidden from users and application programmers. This is commonly referred to as ____. a. machine dependence b. virtualization c. machine independence d. abstraction
57. The ____ software layer has utility programs used by end users and system administrators to manage and control computer resources. a. system services b. machine independent c. machine dependent d. system management
58. ____ software describes programs used to develop other programs. a. Application development b. Application design c. Systems d. Application modeling
59. A ____ is a program that translates instructions in a programming language into CPU instructions. a. compiler b. linker c. program translator d. parser
60. The ____ chip provided integrated memory caches, enhanced computational capabilities, and increased raw CPU speed. Windows 95 was developed to take better advantage of this chip’s capabilities. a. 8088 b. 80286 c. 80386 d. 80486
61. ____ improved memory access and raw CPU speeds and added features such as support for higher-speed system buses, pipelined instruction execution, and multimedia processing instructions. a. Pentium processors b. Multiple-core CPUs c. 80×86 processors d. PowerPC processors
62. A simple definition of a(n) ____________________ is any device that can accept numeric inputs, perform computational functions, such as addition and subtraction, and communicate results.
63. The most famous of the mechanical computation devices is the ____________________, built by Charles Babbage in 1821.
64. In a(n) ____________________ device, the movement of electrons performs essentially the same functions as gears and wheels in mechanical computers.
65. A moving photon’s ____________________ can be harnessed to perform computational work.
66. ____________________ data communication is common in computer networks that cover large distances.
67. For computer components such as processors, ____________________ are expected to gradually supplant electronics during the 21st Century.
68. Current computer technology is based on principles of ____________________ physics developed during the 17th through 20th centuries, including electronics, magnetism, and optics.
69. A(n) ____________________ is a device that performs data manipulation and transformation functions including computation, comparison, and data movement.
70. A(n) ____________________ is a stored set of instructions for performing a specific task.
71. In contrast to a formula, a program that implements an algorithm must include comparison and ____________________ instructions.
72. The ____________________ is a general-purpose processor that executes all instructions and controls all data movement in the computer system.
73. A(n) ____________________ is a computer or group of computers that manages shared resources and enables users and other computer to access those resources over a network.
74. ____________________ offers flexibility in server configuration and deployment, including the ability to “resize” virtual machines easily to match changing requirements.
75. A(n) ____________________ configuration is any arrangement of multiple computers used to support specific services or applications.
76. A(n) ____________________ is a group of dissimilar computers, connected by a high-speed network, that cooperate to provide services or run a shared application.
77. ____________________ typically make use of both multicomputer configuration and virtualization.
78. ____________________’s law is the mathematical formula that describes belief that the large and powerful computers will always be more cost effective than smaller ones.
79. The phrase ____________________ is the concept that the per-unit cost of producing goods or services decreases as the size of the producing or delivering organization increases..
80. A(n) ____________________ identifies a specific web resources.
81. ____________________ is layered between applications software and computer hardware.
82. A(n) ____________________ is application software that is accessed via a URL and uses a Web browser as the primary user interface
83. A(n) ____________________ is software accessed over the Internet using Web protocols, such as shipping cost calculator accessed by an online shopping application.
84. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of utility programs that supports users and application programs, allocates resources, and controls access to hardware.
85. A key function of ____________________ software is allocating resources to users and programs.
86. List two limitations in mechanical computation.
87. Why is the computational capacity/speed of quantum computers much higher than conventional computers for certain types of tasks? Should all computers be quantum computers?
88. Is the term server a computer hardware classification, a mode of computer use, or both?
89. Discuss the influence of Pentium processors on technology development.
90. The ____ software layer has utility programs used by system management and application programs to perform common functions a. system management
b. system services
c. machine independent
d. machine dependent
Chapter 03 Data Representation 1. Computer input devices convert external data into an internal representation that can be carried to and manipulated by processing circuitry. a. True b. False
2. Automated data processing combines physics and mathematics. a. True b. False
3. Decimal and binary notations are alternative forms of Boolean logic. a. True b. False
4. In numbering systems other than the decimal numbering system, the term radix point is used for the period or comma. a. True b. False
5. The number of digits needed to represent a value decreases as the numbering system’s base decreases. a. True b. False
6. Generally, a byte is the largest unit of data that can be read from or written to a storage device. a. True b. False
7. The representation format for each data type balances compactness, range, accuracy, ease of manipulation, and standardization. a. True b. False
8. Twos complement notation is simple to understand for most people. a. True b. False
9. With any fixed-width data storage format, it’s possible that the result of a computation will be too large to fit in the format. a. True b. False
10. To avoid overflow and increase accuracy, some computers and programming languages define additional numeric data types called long-precision data formats. a. True b. False
11. Double-precision integers are sometimes called large integers. a. True b. False
12. You can increase a fixed radix point format’s numeric range by allocating more bits to the whole portion. a. True b. False
13. In the binary32 format, the leading sign bit applies to the exponent, not the mantissa. a. True b. False
14. The number of bits in a floating-point string and the formats of the mantissa and exponent impose limits on the range of values that can be represented. a. True b. False
15. Monetary amounts should be stored and manipulated as binary floating-point numbers. a. True b. False
16. Scientific and floating-point notation is far more complex than integer data formats. a. True b. False
17. Computers are designed to process character data and can therefore represent characters directly. a. True b. False
18. ASCII is a 7-bit format because most computers and peripheral devices transmit data in bytes and because parity checking was used widely in the 1960s to 1980s for detecting transmission errors. a. True b. False
19. In ASCII, NAK is sent to acknowledge correct receipt of data, and ERR is sent to indicate that an error has been detected. a. True b. False
20. Unicode is widely supported in modern software, including most OSs and word-processing applications. a. True b. False
21. Before Unicode, devices designed for character I/O used ASCII by default and vendor-specific methods or older ISO standards to process character sets other than Latin-1. a. True b. False
22. Intel microprocessors have been used in PCs since 1961. a. True b. False
23. The complexity of data structures is limited only by the software. a. True b. False
24. Whether implemented in system or application software, almost all data structures make extensive use of pointers and addresses. a. True b. False
25. Using contiguous storage locations, especially in secondary storage devices, simplifies the allocation of storage locations. a. True b. False
26. More storage locations are required for a linked list than for an array with equivalent content because both data and pointers must be stored. a. True b. False
27. Linked lists are easier to expand or shrink than arrays are. a. True b. False
28. Each element of a doubly linked list has two pointers: one pointing to the next element in the list and one pointing to the top element in the list. a. True b. False
29. In a sequential file, records are stored in contiguous storage locations. a. True b. False
30. The advantage of using an index lies in the efficiency of record insertion, deletion, and retrieval. a. True b. False
31. In a ____, each digit can have only one of two possible values: 0 or 1. a. decimal number
b. hexadecimal number
c. binary number
d. unary number
32. Binary numbers are well suited to computer processing because they correspond directly with values in ____ logic. a. Newton b. Boolean
c. Turing d. standard
33. In the decimal or binary notations, the symbol used to represent a digit and the digit’s position in a string determines its ____. a. sign b. placement c. base d. value
34. The multiplier that describes the difference between one position and the next is the ____ of the numbering system. a. Base b. Mantissa c. power d. exponent
35. In the decimal numbering system, the period or comma is called a ____. a. place holder b. division point c. marker point d. decimal point
36. The leftmost digit in a bit string is called the ____. a. least significant digit b. most significant digit c. least valuable digit d. most valuable digit
37. The rightmost digit in a bit string is the ____. a. least significant digit b. most significant digit c. least valuable digit d. most valuable digit
38. Large numeric values expressed in octal notation are one-third the length of corresponding ____ notation. a. decimal b. ternary c. binary d. hexadecimal
39. Hexadecimal numbering uses ____ as its base or radix. a. 2 b. 8 c. 10 d. 16
40. The term “____” describes the number of bits used to represent a numeric value. a. compactness b. completeness c. value d. efficiency
41. The accuracy, or precision, of data format representation increases with ____. a. the size of the data word b. the sign of the data format c. the number of data bits used d. the position of the radix
42. When discussing computer processing, ____ refers to executing processor instructions, such as addition, subtraction, and equality comparisons, and “ease” refers to machine efficiency. a. abstraction b. manipulation c. interpolation d. inference
43. A(n) ____ is a whole number—a value that doesn’t have a fractional part. a. real number b. imaginary number c. floating point number d. integer
44. Most CPUs provide a(n) ____ data type, which stores positive integer values as ordinary binary numbers. a. signed integer b. signed real c. unsigned integer d. unsigned real
45. ____ notation always uses a fixed number of bits, with the leftmost bit representing the sign. a. Ones complement b. Excess c. Twos complement d. Packed
46. In ____ notation, nonnegative integer values are represented as ordinary binary values. a. twos complement b. ones complement c. excess d. packed
47. ____ occurs when the absolute value of a computational result contains too many bits to fit into a fixed-width data format. a. Underflow b. Rounding c. Approximation d. Overflow
48. A ____ data format combines two adjacent fixed-length data items to hold a single value. a. single-precision b. standard-precision c. scientific d. double-precision
49. A(n) ____ can contain both whole and fractional components. a. integer b. imaginary number c. real number d. binary number
50. The fractional portion of a real number is represented by digits to the right of the ____. a. radix point b. mantissa c. exponent d. base
51. Real numbers are represented in computers by using ____. a. integer notation b. floating-point notation c. packed values notation d. complementary notation
52. ____ occurs when the absolute value of a negative exponent is too large to fit in the bits allocated to store it. a. Rounding b. Rotation c. Overflow d. Underflow
53. Numbers such as 1/3 are stored in floating-point format by ____. a. approximation b. truncation c. packing d. rounding
54. In their written form, English and many other languages use alphabetic letters, numerals, punctuation marks, and a variety of other special-purpose symbols known as ____. a. characters b. bytes c. strings d. integers
55. ____ is a character-coding method developed by IBM in the 1960s and used in all IBM mainframes well into the 2000s. a. ANSI b. UNICODE c. EBCDIC d. ASCII
56. The assignment of numeric codes to characters follows a specific order called a(n) ____. a. alignment sequence b. collating sequence c. alphabet sequence d. byte sequence
57. The upper 128 entries in Latin-1 are sometimes called ____. a. multibyte characters b. international characters c. Western characters d. multinational characters
58. The ____ data type has only two data values—true and false. a. Boolean b. integer c. floating point d. character
59. The data types a CPU supports are sometimes called ____ data types. a. user b. complex c. primitive d. limited
60. A(n) ____ is a related group of primitive data elements organized for some type of common processing and is defined and manipulated in software. a. primitive b. object c. pointer d. data structure
61. A(n) ____ is a data element containing the address of another data element. a. pointer b. data structure c. object d. list
62. A(n) ____ is a set of related data values. a. pointer b. list c. array d. record
63. A(n) ____ is an ordered list in which each element can be referenced by an index to its position. a. list b. matrix c. vector d. array
64. The address of an array element can be calculated with the starting address of the array and the element’s ____. a. base b. index c. size d. name
65. A(n) ____ is a data structure that uses pointers so that list elements can be scattered among nonsequential storage locations. a. array b. queue c. linked list d. stack
66. A sequence of records on secondary storage is called a ____. a. file b. record c. database d. sleeve
67. A sequence of records stored in main memory is normally called a ____. a. table b. table c. Database d. Class
68. A(n) ____ is a data structure containing both traditional (static) data elements and programs that manipulate the data. a. Array b. Stack c. object d. class
69. The programs in a class are called ____. a. properties b. attributes c. methods d. children
70. A(n) ____ is one instance, or variable, of a class. a. structure b. object c. list d. implementation
71. Computer systems represent data electrically and process it with ____________________
72. The physical laws of electricity, optics, and quantum mechanics are described by ____________________.
73. In computer terminology, each digit of a binary number is called a(n) ____________________.
74. A group of bits that describe a single data value is called a(n) ____________________.
75. A string of eight bits is called a(n) ____________________.
76. Compilers and interpreters for high-level programming languages, such as C and Java, convert decimal numbers into ____________________ numbers automatically when generating CPU instructions and data values.
77. The primary advantage of hexadecimal notation, compared with binary notation, is its ____________________.
78. ____________________ numbers often designate memory addresses.
79. ____________________ notation uses the base-8 numbering system and has a range of digits from 0 to 7.
80. A processor’s efficiency depends on its ____________________.
81. An unsigned integer’s value is always assumed to be ____________________.
82. A(n) ____________________ integer uses one bit to represent whether the value is positive or negative.
83. With unsigned integers, the lowest value that can be represented is always ____________________.
84. To represent a specific integer value in excess notation, you must know how many ____________________ are to be used.
85. One way of dealing with the tradeoff between range and precision is to abandon the concept of a fixed ____________________ point.
86. Recall that scientific notation, including floating-point notation, trades numeric range for ____________________.
87. A sequence of characters that forms a meaningful word, phrase, or other useful group is a(n) ____________________.
88. The standard ASCII version used for data transfer is sometimes called ____________________.
89. Like ASCII, ____________________ is a coding table that assigns nonnegative integers to represent printable characters.
90. In CPUs using a(n) ____________________ memory model, using twos complement or unsigned binary as the coding format for memory addresses is logical and typical.
91. A segmented memory model has primary storage is divided into equal-sized (for example, 64 KB) segments called ____________________.
92. A(n) ____________________ is the location of a data element in a storage device.
93. A(n) ____________________ is a data structure composed of other data structures or primitive data elements.
94. A(n) ____________________ is an array of pointers to records.
95. A(n) ____________________ combines related data items in much the same way a record does, but it extends the record to include methods for manipulating data items.
96. List the capabilities that any data and information processor, whether organic, mechanical, electrical, or optical, must have.
97. Why do computers represent data with binary numbers?
98. Explain the procedure to convert a binary value to its decimal equivalent.
99. Discuss the limitations of ASCII.
100. Explain the process of inserting an element in a list stored in contiguous memory.
Chapter 04 Processor Technology and Architecture 1. The ALU component of the CPU moves data and instructions between main memory and registers. a. True b. False
2. One action that occurs during the fetch cycle is incrementing a pointer to the location of the next instruction. a. True b. False
3. The CPU alternates constantly between fetch and execution cycles. a. True b. False
4. The operand of a CPU instruction cannot contain the location of a data item. a. True b. False
5. Data inputs are accessed from storage or extracted directly from the operands and stored in one or more registers. a. True b. False
6. The control unit cannot execute instructions without assistance from the ALU. a. True b. False
7. MOVE tests the bit values in the source location and moves these values to the destination location. a. True b. False
8. With bit strings, NOT treats each bit in the bit string as a separate Boolean value. a. True b. False
9. Binary addition works with complex data types, such as floating-point and double-precision numbers. a. True b. False
10. Shifting an 8-bit twos complement value to the right by seven positions is a simple way to extract and test the sign bit. a. True b. False
11. Arithmetic SHIFT instructions are more complex when applied to twos complement values because the rightmost bit is a sign bit. a. True b. False
12. The BRANCH command has one operand containing the memory address of the next instruction. a. True b. False
13. Complex instructions are a tradeoff between processor complexity and program simplicity. a. True b. False
14. RISC is a philosophy of processor design that deliberately includes complex instructions. a. True b. False
15. Compared with RISC processors, CISC processors have some advantages for computationally intensive applications. a. True b. False
16. A benchmark program performs specific tasks that can be counted or measured. a. True b. False
17. Pipelining is a method of organizing CPU circuitry so that multiple instructions can be in different stages of execution at the same time. a. True b. False
18. A CPU is a complex system of interconnected electrical switches. a. True b. False
19. A perfect conductor can be described as one having maximum resistance. a. True b. False
20. Electricity travels through a trace at approximately 70% of the speed of light. a. True b. False
21. The earliest computers were constructed with ordinary copper wire and vacuum tube switches and were unreliable because of the heat the vacuum tubes generated. a. True b. False
22. Transistors and the tracks that interconnect them are the fundamental building blocks of all CPUs. a. True b. False
23. Integrated circuits reduced manufacturing cost per circuit because many chips could be manufactured in a single sheet, or wafer. a. True b. False
24. The PC revolution wouldn’t have been possible without standardized microprocessors. a. True b. False
25. According to Moore’s Law, the doubling of transistor density is achieved with a 50% increase in unit cost. a. True b. False
26. Current fabrication technology is capable of squeezing more than a billion transistors onto a wafer of silicon approximately one square centimeter. a. True b. False
27. A microprocessor that fails to perform reliably at a higher clock rate might still be usable and rated for sale at a lower clock rate. a. True b. False
28. Low voltage circuits are less susceptible to damage from voltage surges and static electricity. a. True b. False
29. Early Xeon processors filled an important niche in the small server market but weren’t powerful enough to perform processing duties in many large-scale servers. a. True b. False
30. Practical optical processors will probably appear first as full-fledged computer processors. a. True b. False
31. Traditional bus interfaces are too slow and power hungry to provide sufficient data transfer capacity between many processors or between processors and primary storage. a. True b. False
32. The ____ section of the CPU performs all computation and comparison operations. a. register
d. control unit
33. During the ____ cycle of the CPU, data inputs are prepared for transformation into data outputs. a. execution b. store c. fetch d. wait
34. During the ____ cycle of the CPU, the transformation takes place and data output is stored. a. execution b. fetch c. store d. wait
35. A(n) ____ is the lowest-level command that software can direct a processor to perform. a. cycle b. process c. operand d. instruction
36. The first group of bits in an instruction represents its unique binary number, commonly called the ____. a. data word b. op code c. operand d. operand
37. Subsequent groups of bits after the first group in an instruction hold its input values, called ____. a. operands b. op codes c. operators d. words
38. A(n) ____ directs the CPU to route electrical signals representing data inputs through predefined processing circuits that implement the appropriate function. a. operation b. process c. instruction d. cycle
39. A ____ instruction copies data bits to storage locations and can copy data between any combination of registers and primary storage locations. a. JUMP b. LOAD c. STORE d. MOVE
40. A ____ operation is a data transfer from main memory into a register. a. store b. load c. jump d. move
41. A(n) ____ instruction generates the result true if both of its data inputs are true. a. AND b. inclusive OR c. exclusive OR d. NOT
42. A(n) ____ instruction generates the value true if either or both data inputs are true. a. exclusive OR b. AND c. inclusive OR d. NOT
43. A(n)____ instruction generates the value true if either (but not both) data input is true. a. AND b. exclusive OR c. inclusive OR d. NOT
44. The ____ can extract a single bit from a bit string. a. logic SHIFT b. ROTATE c. ADD d. NOT
45. A ____ instruction causes the processor to depart from sequential instruction order. a. MOVE b. COMPARE c. BRANCH d. HALT
46. A(n) ____ instruction suspends the normal flow of instruction execution in the current program. a. COMPARE b. ADD c. JUMP d. HALT
47. ____ instructions represent combinations of primitive processing operations. a. Standard b. Complex c. High-order d. System
48. ____ is a philosophy of processor design that deliberately includes complex instructions. a. CISC b. RISC c. OR d. XOR
49. The ____ is a digital circuit that generates timing pulses, or signals, and transmits the pulses to other devices in the computer. a. data clock b. memory clock c. variance clock d. system clock
50. The frequency at which the system clock generates timing pulses is the system’s ____. a. clock cycle b. clock rate c. clock rate d. clock rate
51. In most CPUs, the ____ is the time required to fetch and execute the simplest instruction in the instruction set. a. cycle time b. block time c. hold time d. rest time
52. When manipulating single-precision floating-point numbers, CPU performance is measured in ____. a. watts b. MHz c. MFLOPS d. MIPS
53. Each clock cycle the CPU spends waiting for a slower device is called a ____. a. suspend state b. block state c. hold state d. wait state
54. A ____ performs specific tasks that can be counted or measured. a. benchmark program b. metric program c. compiler d. system program
55. ____ are used only by the currently executing program. a. Reserved registers b. Kernel registers c. Instruction registers d. General-purpose registers
56. ____ hold frequently used data items such as loop counters and array indexes. a. Reserved registers b. Kernel registers c. Instruction registers d. General-purpose registers
57. When the control unit fetches an instruction from memory, it stores it in the ____. a. load register b. instruction register c. first general-purpose register d. control register
58. The register that holds bit values (flags) that describe comparison operation results, control conditional BRANCH execution, or indicate actual or potential error conditions ____. a. load register b. instruction register c. program status word d. control register
59. A ____ is a unit of data containing a fixed number of bytes or bits and can be loosely defined as the amount of data a CPU processes at one time. a. block b. unit c. word d. pixel
60. The term ____ describes instructions executed after the guess but before the final result is known with certainty. a. speculative execution b. consecutive execution c. parallel execution d. symmetric execution
61. ____ describes any CPU architecture in which duplicate CPUs or processor stages can execute in parallel. a. Uniprocessing b. Scaled processing c. Hyperprocessing d. Multiprocessing
62. ____ is the flow of electrons from one place or device to another. a. Electrical voltage b. Electrical current c. Electrical resistance d. Electrical conduction
63. Substances that electrons can flow through are called ____. a. resistors b. semiconductors c. conductors d. insulators
64. The loss of electrical power that occurs as electrons pass through a conductor is called ____. a. resistance b. voltage c. amperage d. wattage
65. ____ has been the primary basis for CPU speed and clock rate improvement since the first electrical computer. a. Consolidation b. Cooling c. Power d. Miniaturization
66. Silicon and germanium are basic elements with resistance characteristics that can be controlled or enhanced with chemicals called ____. a. resistors b. Dopants c. Reactants d. reagents
67. A(n) ____ is an electrical switch with three electrical connections. a. transistor b. resistor c. insulator d. conductor
68. Several transistors and their interconnections on a single chip form a(n) ____. a. optimized circuit b. combination circuit c. integrated circuit d. reduced circuit
69. ____ is based on the observation that the rate of increase in transistor density on microchips had increased steadily, roughly doubling every 18 to 24 months. a. Lamb’s Law b. Newton’s Law c. Rock’s Law d. Moore’s Law
70. ____ states that the cost of fabrication facilities for the latest chip generation doubles every four years. a. Rock’s Law b. Moore’s Law c. Nelson’s Law d. Lamb’s Law
71. Quantum computing uses quantum states to simultaneously encode two values per bit, called a ____. a. bi-bit b. neobit c. qubit d. sim-bit
72. ____________________ are storage locations that hold inputs and outputs for the ALU.
73. The ____________________ of the CPU keeps track of the next program instruction location by incrementing a pointer after each fetch.
74. A(n) ____________________ is a command to the CPU to perform a primitive processing function on specific data inputs.
75. The collection of instructions that a CPU can process is called the CPU’s ____________________.
76. A(n) ____________________ operation is a data transfer from a register into primary storage.
77. A(n) ____________________ instruction transforms the Boolean value true (1) into false (0) and the value false into true.
78. A(n) ____________________ instruction accepts two numeric inputs and produces their arithmetic sum.
79. A(n) ____________________ SHIFT instruction performs multiplication or division.
80. In a(n) ____________________ instruction, the processor always departs from the normal execution sequence.
81. CPU and computer system clock rates are expressed in cycles per second, also called ____________________.
82. A(n) ____________________ is a measure of CPU or computer system performance when carrying out one or more specific tasks.
83. The instruction pointer (IP) can also be called the “____________________.”
84. The word size of recent processor generations such as the Intel Core2 and IBM POWER 8 is ____________________ bits.
85. ____________________ is a method of organizing CPU circuitry so that multiple instructions can be in different stages of execution at the same time.
86. Electronic ____________________ control electrical current flow in a circuit and are implemented as transistors.
87. A(n) ____________________ is a circuit that can perform a processing function on a single binary electrical signal, or bit.
88. Conductive molecules are typically arranged in straight lines, generically called wires or ____________________.
89. The capability of an element or a substance to enable electron flow is called ____________________.
90. The ____________________ of most materials increases as their temperature increases.
91. A(n) ____________________ is an object specifically designed to absorb heat and rapidly dissipate it via air or water movement.
92. The conductivity of ____________________ varies in response to the electrical inputs applied.
93. ____________________ are made of semiconductor material that has been treated, or doped, with chemical impurities to enhance the semiconducting effects.
94. A(n) ____________________ consists of billions of electrical devices on a single chip.
95. A(n) ____________________ is a microchip containing all the circuits and connections that implement a CPU.
96. In an electrical computer, ____________________ is performed by forcing electricity to flow through millions of electrical switches and wires.
97. ____________________ transistors are a bridge between electrical and optical computer components.
98. Discuss the chain of events that occurs when the CPU executes a program.
99. Identify four activities the control unit performs during the CPU fetch cycle.
100. List two examples of sequence control operations that alter the flow of instruction execution.
101. Why is clock rate a poor or incomplete measure of processor performance?
102. What are the 1-bit and 2-bit processing functions performed by gates?
103. Discuss the issues with heat with respect to chips. ==============================================================================================================
Chapter 05 Data Storage Technology 1. A storage device consists of a read/write mechanism and a storage medium. a. True b. False
2. Wait states increase CPU and computer system performance. a. True b. False
3. Primary storage extends the limited capacity of CPU registers. a. True b. False
4. The CPU moves data and instructions continually between registers and primary storage. a. True b. False
5. With current technology, secondary storage speed is typically faster than primary storage speed. a. True b. False
6. Block size is normally stated in bytes and is generally the same between storage devices, especially in a single storage device. a. True b. False
7. 512- and 4096-byte blocks are the most common data transfer units for magnetic disks. a. True b. False
8. Volatility is a matter of degree and conditions. a. True b. False
9. Magnetic tape and disk are considered volatile storage media. a. True b. False
10. The physical structure of a storage device’s read/write mechanism and storage medium determines the ways in which data can be accessed. a. True b. False
11. Serial access time depends on the current position of the read/write mechanism and the position of the target data item in the storage medium. a. True b. False
12. Cost per unit decreases as an access method moves from serial to random to parallel. a. True b. False
13. Secondary storage is generally expensive compared with primary storage. a. True b. False
14. Capacitors can charge and discharge much faster than batteries. a. True b. False
15. SRAM has higher density then DRAM. a. True b. False
16. Electrical current can generate a magnetic field but a magnetic field cannot generate electricity. a. True b. False
17. Disk drives share one set of read/write circuits among all read/write heads. a. True b. False
18. HTH switching time is the most important component of access time. a. True b. False
19. Because sequential access time is so much faster than average access time, disk performance is improved dramatically if related data is stored in sequential sectors. a. True b. False
20. Communication channel capacity is generally a restriction on a single disk drive’s data transfer rate. a. True b. False
21. Coercible material per sector is greater at the center than in the platter edge. a. True b. False
22. To increase capacity per platter, disk manufacturers divide tracks into two or more zones and vary the sectors per track in each zone. a. True b. False
23. Computing average access time is more complex when sectors are more densely packed on the platter’s outer portions because the assumption that an average access requires moving the read/write head over half the tracks is no longer valid. a. True b. False
24. SSDs are much more tolerant to shock and other negative environmental factors commonly encountered with portable devices, such as multifunction cell phones, netbooks, and laptop computers. a. True b. False
25. Magnetic disk drives have an advantage over SSDs in power consumption. a. True b. False
26. Most optical storage media can retain data for decades because they aren’t subject to magnetic decay and leakage. a. True b. False
27. Rewritable DVDs use a single standard adopted by the entire industry. a. True b. False
28. Magnetic and optical storage are currently direct competitors. a. True b. False
29. The write operation for recordable discs is destructive, so recordable disc formats can be written only one time. a. True b. False
30. Magneto-optical technology peaked in the mid-1980s. a. True b. False
31. The ____ is the device or substance that actually holds data. a. storage device
b. storage medium
c. storage method
d. storage speed
32. ____ is the most important characteristic differentiating primary and secondary storage. a. Capacity b. Density c. Transfer rate d. Speed
33. A ____ is a CPU cycle spent waiting for access to an instruction or data. a. wait state b. hold state c. purge state d. clock state
34. ____ in the CPU are storage locations for instructions and data. a. ALUs b. Shifters c. Registers d. Controllers
35. Storage device speed is called ____. a. retrieval time b. access time c. movement time d. fetch time
36. Access times for secondary storage devices are typically expressed in ____ or microseconds. a. milliseconds b. exoseconds c. nanoseconds d. picoseconds
37. ____ is a generic term for describing secondary storage data transfer units. a. Sector b. Wafer c. Cluster d. Block
38. A storage device or medium is ____ if it holds data without loss over long periods. a. volatile b. dynamic c. nonvolatile d. archival
39. A storage device or medium is ____ if it can’t hold data reliably for long periods. a. nonvolatile b. volatile c. transient d. archival
40. A ____ storage device stores and retrieves data items in a linear, or sequential, order. a. direct access b. random access c. dynamic access d. serial access
41. A ____ device isn’t restricted to any specific order when accessing data. a. random access b. serial access c. dynamic access d. linear access
42. Data is represented in the CPU as ____. a. analog electrical signals b. quantum signals c. digital electrical signals d. digital optical signals
43. The term ____ describes primary storage devices that are implemented as microchips, can read and write with equal speed, and can randomly access bytes, words, or larger data units. a. RAM b. PROM c. ROM d. semiconductor
44. Modern computers use memory implemented with ____. a. vacuum tubes b. resistors c. quasiconductors d. Semiconductors
45. ____ is implemented entirely with transistors. a. Dynamic RAM b. Static RAM c. Dynamic ROM d. Static ROM
46. ____ stores each bit by using a single transistor and capacitor. a. Dynamic ROM b. Static ROM c. Dynamic RAM d. Static RAM
47. Programs usually access instructions and data items ____. a. randomly b. dynamically c. repeatedly d. sequentially
48. ____ is a read-ahead RAM that uses the same clock pulse as the system bus. a. Synchronous DRAM b. Asynchronous DRAM c. Flash DRAM d. Continuous DRAM
49. Memory devices comprised of semiconductors and other forms of RAM with long-term or permanent data retention are generically known as ____. a. volatile memory b. tertiary storage c. nonvolatile memory d. persistent memory
50. Software stored in NVM is called ____. a. software b. firmware c. flash storage d. system software
51. The ____, a newer packaging standard, is essentially a SIMM with independent electrical contacts on both sides of the module. a. double inline memory module b. dual inline package c. surface mount package d. zero-insertion force package
52. The tendency of magnetically charged particles to lose their charge over time is called ____. a. magnetic half-life b. magnetic flux c. magnetic field d. magnetic decay
53. The surface area allocated to store on a bit is called the ____. a. bit density b. surface density c. areal density d. object density
54. A(n) ____ is a ribbon of plastic with a coercible (usually metallic oxide) coating. a. optical disk b. magnetic tape c. magnetic disk d. recordable disk
55. A ____ consists of all tracks at an equivalent distance from the edge or spindle on all platter surfaces. a. cylinder b. sector c. block d. cluster
56. A single disk sector usually holds ____ or 4096 bytes. a. 250 b. 512 c. 760 d. 1024
57. Multiple hard drives can be enclosed in a single storage cabinet; this arrangement is referred to as a ____. a. drive cluster b. drive tray c. drive unit d. drive array
58. Read/write circuitry uses ____ data to compensate for minor variations in rotation speed and other factors that might disturb the precise timing needed for reliable reading and writing. a. quantization b. aggregation c. synchronization d. averaging
59. The time needed to move from one track to another is called ____, typically measured in milliseconds. a. track-to-track seek time b. random seek time c. average seek time d. relocation seek time
60. The time the disk controller must wait for the right sector to rotate beneath the heads is called ____. a. track-to-track seek time b. rotational delay c. average access time d. synchronization delay
61. ____ is the sum of average access delay and the time required to read a single sector. a. Average access time b. Rotational latency c. Track-to-track seek time d. Synchronization delay
62. ____ is the time required to read the second of two adjacent sectors on the same track and platter. a. Track-to-track seek time b. Rotational delay c. Sequential access time d. Average access time
63. A disk with many program and data files scattered on it is said to be ____. a. partitioned b. segmented c. clustered d. fragmented
64. A ____ reorganizes disk content so that a file’s contents are stored in sequential sectors, tracks, and platters. a. disk defragmentation utility b. disk organization utility c. disk defragmentation firmware d. disk reorganization firmware
65. A ____ is a storage device that mimics the behavior of a magnetic disk drive but uses flash RAM or other NVM devices as the storage medium and read/write mechanism. a. traditional hard drive b. hybrid hard drive c. solid-state drive d. memory drive
66. Current SSDs use ____ as the storage medium. a. SDRAM b. flash RAM c. EEPROMs d. PGAs
67. Modern SSDs use a technique called “____” to spread write operations around the storage medium, thus evening out the impact of destructive writes and extending the storage device’s useful life. a. wear aggregation b. wear prevention c. wear mitigation d. wear leveling
68. Sony and Philips originally developed compact disc (CD) technology for storing and distributing music in the ____ format. a. disk digital audio b. MPEG Layer 3 c. CD digital audio d. compressed digital audio
69. In a CD, flat areas in the reflective layer that represent bit values are called “____.” a. lands b. grooves c. rings d. plateaus
70. In a CD, concave dents in the reflective layer that are used to represent bit values are called “____.” a. lands b. grooves c. hills d. pits
71. A storage device consists of a read/write mechanism and a(n) ____________________.
72. A(n) ____________________ provides the interface between the storage device and system bus.
73. A CPU with a 1 GHz clock rate needs a new instruction and supporting data every ____________________.
74. ____________________ is the time required to perform one complete read or write operation.
75. The term ____________________ describes the data transfer unit for magnetic disk and optical disc drives.
76. ____________________ is the only widely used form of serial access storage.
77. A(n) ____________________ device can access multiple storage locations simultaneously.
78. Primary storage devices must closely match CPU speed and word size to avoid ____________________.
79. Each refresh operation in DRAM is called a(n) ____________________.
80. ____________________ is a read-ahead RAM that uses the same clock pulse as the system bus.
81. ____________________ stores bit values by using two magnetic elements, one with fixed polarity and the other with polarity that changes when a bit is written.
82. ____________________ RAM is the most common non-volatile RAM used today.
83. ____________________ is the capability of a substance or magnetic storage medium to accept and hold a magnetic charge.
84. The stored charge held within a bit of magnetic storage must be above the ____________________ for a read operation to be successful.
85. For a two-dimensional storage medium like a disk platter, having the length and width of the area that stores one bit increases storage capacity by a factor of ____________________
86. Magnetic disk media are flat, circular ____________________ with metallic coatings that are rotated beneath read/write heads.
87. A(n) ____________________ is one concentric circle of a platter, or the surface area that passes under a read/write head when its position is fixed.
88. In a magnetic disk drive, a(n) ____________________ is mounted on the end of an access arm for each platter surface.
89. Average access time is computed under the assumption that two consecutive accesses are sent to ____________________ locations.
90. Over time, file contents tend to become ____________________ in many nonsequential sectors.
91. A disk drive’s data ____________________ rate is a summary performance number combining the physical aspects of data access with the electronic aspects of data transfer to the disk controller or system.
92. The ____________________ data transfer rate is the fastest rate the drive can support.
93. Optical storage devices store bit values as variations in ____________________.
94. Current optical storage devices use a(n) ____________________ storage medium.
95. In a magneto-optical drive, the laser polarity shift used in reading is known as the “____________________ effect.”
96. List important characteristics among which storage devices and technologies vary.
97. How is a storage device’s data transfer rate computed?
98. Explain the two ways that storage device portability is typically implemented.
99. What is an advantage of optical storage over magnetic storage?
100. Describe phase-change optical discs.
Chapter 06 System Integration and Performance 1. A system bus connects computer system components, including the CPU, memory, storage, and I/O devices. a. True b. False
2. A system bus can be conceptually or physically divided into specialized subsets, including the data, address, control, and power buses. a. True b. False
3. With serial communication lines in a bus, each line carries only one bit value or signal at a time, and many lines are required to carry data, address, and control bits. a. True b. False
4. Until the 2000s, system buses were always constructed with serial electrical lines. a. True b. False
5. Serial channels in buses are more reliable than parallel channels at very high speeds. a. True b. False
6. Performance is improved if storage and I/O devices can transmit data between themselves with explicit CPU involvement. a. True b. False
7. Peer-to-peer bus protocols are substantially less complex but more expensive than master-slave bus protocols. a. True b. False
8. The memory bus has a much higher data transfer rate than the system bus because of its shorter length, higher clock rate, and (in most computers) large number of parallel communication lines. a. True b. False
9. Secondary storage devices are much faster than the system bus. a. True b. False
10. Devices with low data transfer demand can use a single PCI bus lane, and devices with higher requirements can increase their available data transfer rate by using additional lanes. a. True b. False
11. The CPU communicates with a peripheral device by moving data to or from an I/O port’s dedicated bus. a. True b. False
12. A PC usually transmits data one bit at a time over a wireless connection, and a laser printer prints an entire page at once. a. True b. False
13. A buffer for an I/O device is typically implemented on the sending computer. a. True b. False
14. During a write operation, a cache acts similarly to a buffer. a. True b. False
15. Data written to a cache during a write operation isn’t automatically removed from the cache after it’s written to the underlying storage device. a. True b. False
16. One way to limit wait states is to use an SDRAM cache between the CPU and SRAM primary storage. a. True b. False
17. Disk caching is common in modern computer systems, particularly in file and database servers. a. True b. False
18. The OS is the best source of file access information because it updates information dynamically as it services file access requests. a. True b. False
19. A full-featured 64-bit CPU, even one with multiple ALUs and pipelined processing, typically requires fewer than 50 million transistors. a. True b. False
20. When multiple processors occupy a single motherboard, they share primary storage and a single system bus. a. True b. False
21. Multiple-processor architecture is not common in workstations. a. True b. False
22. Both multicore and multiple-processor architectures are examples of scaling up because they increase the power of a single computer system. a. True b. False
23. Until the 1990s, scaling up was almost always a more cost-effective strategy to increase available computer power because communication between computers was extremely slow compared with communication between a single computer’s components. a. True b. False
24. The largest computational problems, such as those encountered in modeling three-dimensional physical phenomena, can be solved by a single computer as long as it has enough computing resources. a. True b. False
25. People routinely download megabytes or gigabytes of data via the Internet and store gigabytes of data on handheld devices, terabytes on desktop computers, and petabytes to exabytes in corporate and government data centers. a. True b. False
26. Reducing the size of stored or transmitted data can improve performance whenever there’s a dearth of processing power. a. True b. False
27. Zip files and archives are examples of lossless compression. a. True b. False
28. Lossless compression ratios higher than 50:1 are difficult or impossible to achieve with audio and video data. a. True b. False
29. Using data compression alters the balance of processor resources and communication or storage resources in a computer system. a. True b. False
30. MP3 compresses the audio data stream by discarding information about masked sounds or representing them with fewer bits. a. True b. False
31. A ____ is a shared electrical or optical channel that connects two or more devices. a. trace
32. There are typically multiple storage and I/O devices connected to a computer, collectively referred to as ____. a. core devices b. peripheral devices c. perimeter devices d. companion devices
33. The ____ carries commands, command responses, status codes, and similar messages. a. bus clock b. command bus c. CPU d. control bus
34. Devices attached to a system bus coordinate and synchronize their activities with a common ____. a. bus clock b. control bus c. data bus d. system bus
35. The ____ governs the format, content, and timing of data, memory addresses, and control messages sent across the bus. a. bus clock b. bus size c. bus protocol d. bus master
36. When the CPU is the focus of all computer activity, it’s also the ____. a. bus clock b. bus master c. bus slave d. bus protocol
37. When the CPU is the focus of all computer activity, all other devices are ____. a. bus masters b. bus primates c. bus limiters d. bus slaves
38. Under direct memory access, a device called a ____ is attached to the bus and to main memory. a. controller b. DMA master c. DMA controller d. DRM controller
39. In a ____, any device can assume control of the bus or act as a bus master for transfers to any other device. a. peer-to-peer bus b. star bus c. linear bus d. ring bus
40. A ____ is a simple processor attached to a peer-to-peer bus that decides which devices must wait when multiple devices want to become a bus master. a. bus master unit b. bus arbitration unit c. bus controller d. bus interface
41. The ____ connects only the CPU and memory. a. storage bus b. local bus c. system bus d. memory bus
42. A ____ connects secondary storage devices to the system bus. a. memory bus b. storage bus c. system bus d. local bus
43. ____ is a family of bus standards found in nearly all small and midrange computers and many larger ones. a. Peripheral Component Interface b. Peripheral Connection Interface c. Peripheral Component Interconnect d. Peripheral Component Interchange
44. Data, address, and command bits are transmitted across PCI bus line subsets called “____.” a. lanes b. ports c. stripes d. bundles
45. A(n) ____ is a communication pathway from the CPU to a peripheral device. a. connection port b. I/O port c. device port d. block port
46. In most computers, an I/O port is a ____. a. system address b. memory block c. network device d. memory address
47. One task performed by a storage device controller is translating logical write operations into ____ write operations. a. stack b. bugger c. cache d. physical
48. If the CPU is idle while a device completes an access request, the CPU cycles that could have been (but weren’t) devoted to instruction execution are called ____. a. I/O channels b. I/O hooks c. I/O wait states d. I/O peers
49. A ____ is a reserved area of main memory accessed on a last-in, first-out (LIFO) basis. a. stack b. queue c. chain d. heap
50. The main goal of buffering and caching is to ____. a. control data channels b. improve I/O performance c. improve overall system performance d. reduce system load
51. If a buffer isn’t large enough to hold and entire unit of data transfer, an error called a ____ occurs. a. buffer overflow b. buffer underflow c. heap overflow d. buffer fault
52. As buffer size increases above ____ bytes, CPU cycle consumption decreases at a linear rate. a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16
53. The ____ states that when multiple resources are required to produce something useful, adding more of a single resource produces fewer benefits. a. law of regression b. law of diminishing returns c. law of diminished value d. law of diversity
54. Most performance benefits of a cache occur during ____. a. write operations b. mixed operations c. buffered operations d. read operations
55. A ____ is a processor that guesses what data will be requested in the near future and loads this data from the storage device into the cache before it’s actually requested. a. cache miss b. cache controller c. cache hit d. cache algorithm
56. When the data needed isn’t in the cache, the access is called a ____. a. cache hit b. cache fault c. cache miss d. cache pull
57. The ratio of cache hits to read accesses is called the cache’s ____. a. hit ratio b. efficiency c. Performance d. hit boundary
58. When three cache levels are in use, the cache farthest from the CPU is called a ____ cache. a. level zero b. level one c. level two d. level three
59. When three cache levels are in use, the cache closest to the CPU is called a ____ cache. a. level zero b. level one c. level two d. level three
60. Many computer system designers rely on ____ to implement disk caching. a. the OS b. specialized disk controller hardware c. applications d. firmware
61. The latest trend in high-performance CPU design embeds multiple CPUs and cache memory on a single chip—an approach called ____. a. multiple-processor architecture b. multicore architecture c. multipath architecture d. partial execution architecture
62. ____ is a cost-effective approach to computer system design when a single computer runs many different application programs or services. a. Partial execution architecture b. Multipath architecture c. Multicore architecture d. Multiple-processor architecture
63. The phrase ____ describes approaches to increasing processing and other computer system power by using larger and more powerful computers. a. scaling out b. scaling up c. scaling down d. scaling wide
64. ____ is an approach that partitions processing and other tasks among multiple computer systems. a. Scaling up b. Scaling down c. Scaling out d. Scaling in
65. ____ is a technique that reduces the number of bits used to encode data, such as a file or a stream of video images transmitted across the Internet. a. Compression b. Dispersion c. Randomization d. Coordination
66. A ____ is a mathematical compression technique implemented as a program. a. compression system b. compression routine c. compression utility d. compression algorithm
67. With ____ compression, any data input that’s compressed and then decompressed is exactly the same as the original input. a. lossy b. lossless c. perfect d. ideal
68. With ____ compression, data inputs that are compressed and then decompressed are different from, but still similar to, the original input. a. lossy b. lossless c. universal d. ideal
69. The term ____ describes the ratio of data size in bits or bytes before and after compression. a. compression value b. compression efficiency c. compression ratio d. compression ratio
70. Lossy compression of audio and video can achieve compression ratios up to ____. a. 25:1 b. 50:1 c. 75:1 d. 100:1
71. The ____________________ transmits data between computer system components.
72. The ____________________ distributes electrical power to directly attached devices or their device controllers.
73. Computer system components coordinate their activities by sending signals over the ____________________.
74. In the simplest sense, a(n) ____________________ is just a set of communication lines.
75. In traditional computer architecture, the ____________________ is the focus of all computer activity.
76. ____________________ buses connect a subset of computer components and are specialized for these components’ characteristics and communication between them.
77. The ____________________ bus improves computer system performance by removing video traffic from the system bus and providing a high-capacity one-way communication channel optimized for video data.
78. A(n) ____________________ bus, such as a Universal serial Bus, connects one or more external devices to the system bus.
79. ____________________ ports enable the CPU and bus to interact with a keyboard in the same way they interact with a disk drive or video display.
80. Storage and I/O devices are normally connected to the system bus or a subsidiary bus through a(n) ____________________.
81. When the CPU detects an interrupt, it executes a master interrupt handler program called the ____________________.
82. A portion of the CPU, separate from the components that fetch and execute instructions, monitors the bus continuously for interrupt signals and copies them to a(n) ____________________.
83. A special-purpose register called the ____________________ always points to the next empty address in the stack and is incremented or decremented automatically each time the stack is pushed or popped.
84. Mismatches in data transfer rate and data transfer unit size are addressed in part by ____________________, which consumes substantial CPU resources.
85. A(n) ____________________ is a small reserved area of main memory (usually DRAM or SRAM) that holds data in transit from one device to another and is required to resolve differences in data transfer unit size.
86. As single bits are transferred over the wireless connection, they’re added to the buffer in ____________________ order.
87. A(n) ____________________ can improve system performance when two devices have different data transfer rates, as when copying music files from a PC to an iPod via a USB 2.0 connection.
88. Like a buffer, a(n) ____________________ is a reserved area of high-speed memory (usually RAM) that improves system performance.
89. When a read operation accesses data already contained in the cache, the access is called a(n) ____________________.
90. A cache miss requires performing a(n) ____________________ to or from the storage device.
91. ____________________ is a more traditional approach to multiprocessing that uses two or more processors on a single motherboard or set of interconnected motherboards.
92. Most compression algorithms have a corresponding ____________________ algorithm that restores compressed data to its original or nearly original state.
93. ____________________ compression is required in many applications, such as accounting records, executable programs, and most stored documents.
94. ____________________ compression is usually applied only to audio and video data because the human brain tolerates missing audio and video data and can usually “fill in the blanks.”
95. ____________________ is incorporated into all modern videoconferencing standards to reduce use of available data transfer capacity.
96. Discuss two ways to increase the maximum bus data transfer rate.
97. Explain why overall system performance is reduced in traditional computer architecture, using a bus master.
98. How can a cache controller be implemented?
99. Explain lossless compression and provide an example.
100. Explain lossy compression and provide an example.
Chapter 07 Input Output Technology 1. For video display, a pixel displays no light or light of a specific color and intensity. a. True b. False
2. Image quality improves as dots per inch increases. a. True b. False
3. Image quality improves as pixel size increases. a. True b. False
4. On paper, pixel size corresponds to the smallest drop of ink that can be placed accurately on the page. a. True b. False
5. Decades ago, printers adopted 1/32 of an inch as a standard pixel size. a. True b. False
6. For people and computers, a printed character must exactly match a specific pixel map to be recognizable. a. True b. False
7. Point size refers to characters’ width. a. True b. False
8. A monochrome display can display black, white, and many shades of gray in between, so it requires 8 bits per pixel. a. True b. False
9. An IDL can represent image components as embedded fonts, vectors, curves and shapes, and embedded bitmaps. a. True b. False
10. IDLs are a simple form of compression. a. True b. False
11. LCD displays have less contrast than other flat panel displays because color filters reduce the total amount of light passing through the front of the panel. a. True b. False
12. Phosphors emit colored light in liquid crystal displays. a. True b. False
13. Because plasma displays actively generate colored light near the display surface, they’re brighter and have a wider viewing angle than LCDs. a. True b. False
14. OLED displays combine many of the best features of LCD and plasma displays. a. True b. False
15. Impact technology began with dot matrix printers. a. True b. False
16. Color laser output uses four separate print generators. a. True b. False
17. An advantage of optical over mechanical mice is a lack of moving parts that can be contaminated with dust and dirt. a. True b. False
18. Bar-code readers are typically used to track large numbers of inventory items, as in grocery store inventory and checkout, package tracking, warehouse inventory control, and zip code routing for postal mail. a. True b. False
19. Modern bar codes encode data in three dimensions. a. True b. False
20. Character and text recognition is most accurate when text is printed in a single font and style, with all text oriented in the same direction on the page. a. True b. False
21. Error rates of 1-2% are common using OCR software with mixed-font text and even higher with handwritten text. a. True b. False
22. A digital still camera captures and stores one image at a time. a. True b. False
23. Moving image quality improves as the number of frames per second (fps) decreases. a. True b. False
24. Typically, digital cameras capture 14 to 20 fps. a. True b. False
25. Most portable data capture devices combine a keyboard, mark or bar-code scanner, and wireless connection to a wired base station, cash register, or computer system. a. True b. False
26. For sound reproduction that sounds natural to people, frequencies between 20 Hz and 20 KHz must be sampled at least 96,000 times per second. a. True b. False
27. Sound varies by frequency (pitch) and intensity (loudness). a. True b. False
28. Continuous speech is a series of nonstop interconnected phonemes. a. True b. False
29. Phonemes sound similar when voiced repetitively by the same person. a. True b. False
30. A significant advantage of MIDI is its compact storage format. a. True b. False
31. Each cell in the matrix representing one part of a digital image is called a ____. a. bubble
32. The ____ of a display is the number of pixels displayed per linear measurement unit. a. resolution b. refinement c. accuracy d. pitch
33. In the United States, resolution is generally stated in ____. a. lines per inch b. pixels per line c. dots per inch d. dots per millimeter
34. Written Western languages are based on systems of symbols called ____. a. fonts b. characters c. types d. schemes
35. A collection of characters of similar style and appearance is called a ____. a. type b. scheme c. pitch d. font
36. The number of distinct colors or gray shades that can be displayed is sometimes called the ____. a. resolution b. palette c. range d. chromatic depth
37. A(n) ____ is simply a table of colors. a. palette b. spectrum c. RGB system d. color scheme
38. ____ is a process that generates color approximations by placing small dots of different colors in an interlocking pattern. a. Merging b. Banding c. Dithering d. Retracing
39. In graphics, a ____ is a line segment with a specific angle and length in relation to a point of origin. a. course b. vector c. path d. route
40. Components of a video controller include display generator circuitry, software stored in ROM, a video processor, and ____. a. RAM b. font tables c. display pixels d. secondary storage
41. Video display panels are connected to a ____ that’s connected to a port on the system bus or a dedicated video bus. a. video buffer b. video manager c. video station d. video controller
42. The number of refresh cycles per second is normally stated in hertz and called the ____. a. refresh rate b. pixel depth c. resolution d. scan rate
43. A(n) ____ display includes one or more transistors for every display pixel. a. cathode ray tube b. active matrix c. liquid crystal d. Passive matrix
44. ____ technology etches display pixels and the transistors and traces that control/illuminate them onto a glass substrate. a. CRT b. Neon c. backlight d. TFT
45. A ____ contains a matrix of liquid crystals sandwiched between two polarizing filter panels that block all light except light approaching from a specific angle. a. Plasma b. CRT c. liquid crystal display d. light emitting diode
46. ____ displays use excited gas and phosphors to generate colored light. a. Plasma b. liquid crystal c. light emitting diode d. thin film transmission
47. Modern ____ displays achieve high-quality color display with organic compounds. a. LCD b. TFT c. CRT d. LED
48. OLED displays combine features from both LED and plasma display, including: ____. a. thin, bright, and high power b. thin, bright, and low power c. thin, backlit, and high power d. thin, backlit, and low power
49. A(n) ____ printer moves a print head containing a matrix of pins over the paper. a. laser b. dot matrix c. inkjet d. dye sublimation
50. A modern large format printer is a _____ printer that can print on wider-than normal rolls of paper. a. laser b. dye sublimation c. inkjet d. impact
51. A(n) ____ operates with an electrical charge and the attraction of ink to this charge. a. laser printer b. inkjet printer c. impact printer d. thermal printer
52. A ____ is a printer that generates line drawings on wide sheets or rolls of paper. a. sublimation b. thermal c. line printer d. plotter
53. Pointing devices can be used to enter drawings into a computer system or control the position of a(n) ____ on a display device. a. pointer b. arrow c. cursor d. marker
54. Touch position sensing in a touch screen is usually based on ____. a. resistance b. flux c. capacitance d. inductance
55. ____ sensors capture input from special-purpose symbols placed on paper or the flat surfaces of 3D objects. a. Dot and image b. Mark and image c. Mark and pattern d. Image capture
56. A(n) ____ detects specific patterns of bars or boxes. a. bar-code scanner b. image scanner c. dimensional scanner d. linear scanner
57. Bar-code readers use ____that sweep a narrow beam back and forth across the bar code. a. scanning LEDs b. high-intensity lamps c. high resolution CCDs d. scanning lasers
58. PDF417 bar codes can hold around ____ of data. a. 1 KB b. 1 MB c. 1 GB d. 1 TB
59. A(n) ____ generates bitmap representations of printed images. a. bar-code scanner b. image scanner c. optical scanner d. visual scanner
60. ____ devices combine optical-scanning technology with a special-purpose processor or software to interpret bitmap content. a. Optical image recognition b. Optical character recognition c. Optical character reproduction d. Optical image resolution
61. The process of converting analog sound waves to digital representation is called ____. a. reducing b. interpreting c. sampling d. transforming
62. A(n) ____ accepts a continuous electrical signal representing sound (such as microphone input), samples it at regular intervals, and outputs a stream of bits representing the samples. a. analog-to-digital converter b. analog-to-digital inverter c. analog-to-digital diverter d. analog-to-digital parser
63. A(n) ____ accepts a stream of bits representing sound samples and generating a continuous electrical signal that can be amplified and routed to a speaker. a. digital-to-analog processor b. digital-to-analog parser c. digital-to-analog compiler d. digital-to-analog converter
64. ____ output is only able to generate one frequency (note) at a time. a. Stereophonic b. Monophonic c. Polyphonic d. Monosyllabic
65. ____ is the process of recognizing and responding to the meaning embedded in spoken words, phrases, or sentences. a. Text recognition b. Pattern recognition c. Speech recognition d. Natural recognition
66. Human speech consists of a series of sounds called ____, roughly corresponding to the sounds of each letter of the alphabet. a. phonemes b. homonyms c. cheremes d. visemes
67. Most current speech-recognition systems are ____, which means they must be “trained” to recognize the sounds of human speakers. a. speaker independent b. speaker dependent c. speaker neutral d. speaker attuned
68. A(n) ____ is a microprocessor specialized for processing continuous streams of audio or graphical data. a. analog signal processor b. virtual signal processor c. electronic signal processor d. digital signal processor
69. ____ is a standard for storing and transporting control information between computers and electronic musical instruments. a. Musical Instrument Digital Interface b. Musical Instrument Digital Interface c. Musical Interface Digital Interconnection d. Musical Interconnection Digital Interface
70. Up to ____ channels of MIDI data can be sent over the same serial transmission line a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32
71. As ____________________ size increases image quality improves.
72. To an observer, the quality of a printed or displayed image increases as ____________________ size increases.
73. Font size is measured in units called ____________________.
74. The ____________________ colors are cyan, magenta, and yellow.
75. A stored set of numbers describing the content of all pixels in an image is called a(n) ____________________.
76. ____________________ dithering is usually called half-toning.
77. Postscript is a(n) ____________________ designed mainly for printed documents, although it can also be used to generate video display outputs.
78. Each transfer of a full screen of data from the display generator to the monitor is called a(n) ____________________.
79. Direct3D and ____________________ are widely-used video controller IDLs.
80. A(n) ____________________ matrix display uses one or more transistors for every pixel.
81. A(n) ____________________ matrix display shares transistors among rows and columns of pixels.
82. A(n) plasma display pixel excites gas into a(n) ____________________ plasma state to generate UV light.
83. Of all flat panel displays, ____________________ have the shortest operational lifetimes.
84. When keys are pressed, a keyboard controller generates output called a(n) ____________________.
85. A(n) mouse that can detect motion with ____________________ dimensions uses an embedded gyroscope.
86. A(n) ____________________ is an LCD or LED display with additional TFT layers that detect the position of electrical field changes based on capacitance.
87. Digitizing tablets and tablet PCs are examples of ____________________, a general class of input devices.
88. ____________________ touchscreen input interprets a sequence of touch information as a single command
89. A(n) ____________________ scans for light or dark marks at specific locations on a page.
90. Digital still cameras, video cameras, and Webcams use an array of ____________________ placed behind lenses to capture reflected and focused ambient light.
91. Human-assisted ____________________ procedures are required in many applications to deal with error rates of OCR technology.
92. ____________________ is a series of phonemes interspersed with periods of silence.
93. A device that generates spoken messages based on text input is called a(n) ____________________.
94. The term ____________________ describes hardware that can generate multiple sound frequencies at the same time.
95. Describe the relationship between image quality, pixel size, and resolution?
96. Explain the term point size as it relates to fonts.
97. Of liquid crystal, plasma, LED, and OLED displays, which is best and why?
98. Why do modern systems typically use 2D bar codes instead of more traditional bar codes composed of lines of varying thickness.
99. Describe the components of a sound card.
Chapter 08 Data and Network Communication Technology 1. Messages can be loosely categorized into two types—data messages and command messages. a. True b. False
2. Data messages vary in format and content and can include any primitive CPU data types or more complex data types. a. True b. False
3. Sender and received can use different methods of encoding, transmitting, and interpreting the bits of a message. a. True b. False
4. Command messages can be used to transmit information about data messages, such as format, content, length, and other information the receiver needs to interpret the data message correctly. a. True b. False
5. Communication protocols are less important for computer-to-computer communication than for person-to-person communication. a. True b. False
6. A complete communication protocol is a complex combination of subsidiary protocols and the technologies to implement them. a. True b. False
7. Bits are encoded in a wave by precisely manipulating, or modulating, amplitude, frequency, or phase. a. True b. False
8. The FM method holds frequency constant while varying amplitude to represent data. a. True b. False
9. Phase is a wave characteristic that’s fundamentally the same as amplitude or frequency. a. True b. False
10. Square waves are the preferred method of transmitting digital data over short distances, such as on a system bus. a. True b. False
11. Wave characteristics, such as frequency and amplitude, are inherently discrete. a. True b. False
12. S/N ratio is computed as the log of signal power minus noise power. a. True b. False
13. RF transmission is more complex than wired transmission because it incorporates more sophisticated error detection/correction and security methods. a. True b. False
14. Communication line cost is the same in simplex and half-duplex modes. a. True b. False
15. A parallel channel’s transmits individual bits over separate wires, fibers, or frequencies. a. True b. False
16. To limit skew errors, high-speed parallel communication channels must be short, typically less than two meters. a. True b. False
17. In the server arena, serial standards, such as Serial Attached SCSI (SAS), have replaced older parallel standards. a. True b. False
18. Circuit switching makes efficient use of channel capacity in most data transmission situations. a. True b. False
19. Circuit switching is inefficient for most data transmission settings because few users require high data transmission capacity continuously. a. True b. False
20. Despite its complexities, packet switching is the dominant form of intercomputer communication. a. True b. False
21. Under FDM, a single narrowband channel is partitioned into multiple broadband subchannels. a. True b. False
22. Narrowband channels in a single broadband channel must use the same signaling methods, communication protocols, and transmission speeds. a. True b. False
23. Because block size is always the same in synchronous transmission, the receiver always knows where one block ends and another begins. a. True b. False
24. Asynchronous transmission uses channel capacity more efficiently than synchronous transmission. a. True b. False
25. A crucial component of any communication protocol is a method for detecting and correcting errors in data transmission, reception, or interpretation. a. True b. False
26. Parity checking can be based on even or odd bit counts. a. True b. False
27. Parity checking has a low Type I error rate. a. True b. False
28. Type I error rates can be reduced by combining parity checking and block checking. a. True b. False
29. CRC has much higher Type I and Type II error rates than parity and block checking. a. True b. False
30. Unlike block checking, CRC cannot produce a BCC for a group of characters or bytes. a. True b. False
31. A ____ message contains instructions that control some aspect of the communication process. a. wait
32. A complete ____ of a sine wave follows its full range from zero to positive peak, back to zero, to its negative peak, and then back to zero again. a. cycle
33. ____ is a specific time point in a wave’s cycle. a. Pattern b. Phase c. Trough d. Crest
34. ____ is the number of cycles occurring in one second and is measured in hertz (Hz). a. Wavelength
35. A(n) ____ is a data transmission event or group of events representing a bit or group of bits. a. signal
36. ____ represents bit values as specific wave amplitudes. a. Frequency modulation
b. Polar modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Phase modulation
37. Amplitude modulation is sometimes called ____. a. frequency-shift keying
b. amplitude-shift keying
c. block-shift keying
d. break-shift keying
38. ____ represents bit values by varying carrier wave frequency while holding amplitude constant. a. Frequency modulation
b. Amplitude modulation
c. Polar modulation
d. Phase modulation
39. Frequency modulation is also called ____. a. break-shift keying b. amplitude-shift keying c. block-shift keying
d. frequency-shift keying
40. ____ is a technique for embedding multiple bit values in a single wave characteristic, such as frequency or amplitude. a. Polymorphic coding
b. Unilateral coding
c. Multilevel coding
d. Dynamic coding
41. Square waves can be generated by rapidly switching (pulsing) an electrical or optical power source—a technique called ____. a. block keying
b. shift keying
c. on-off keying
d. polar keying
42. ____ routes signals between two locations through a physical connection, such as copper wire or optical fiber. a. Structured transmission
b. Guided transmission
c. Uniform transmission
d. Spread transmission
43. The term ____ describes transmissions using frequencies between 50 Hz and 1 terahertz (THz). a. radio frequency
b. transmission frequency
c. electromagnetic frequency
d. broad frequency
44. The term ____ describes the maximum number of bits or bytes per second that the channel can carry. a. minimum data transfer rate
b. overhead data transfer rate
c. net data transfer rate
d. raw data transfer rate
45. The term ____ describes the maximum number of bits or bytes per second that the channel actually achieves with a specific communication protocol.
a. minimum data transfer rate
b. overhead data transfer rate
c. net data transfer rate
d. effective data transfer rate
46. Noise can be introduced into copper, aluminum, and other wire types by ____. a. spectral interference
b. hyperspectral interference
c. electromagnetic interference
d. optical interference
47. In a communication channel, ____ refers to unwanted signal components added to the data signal that might be interpreted incorrectly as data. a. signal
48. As bit transmission speed is increased, the duration of each bit in the signal, known as the ____, decreases. a. bit time
c. block time
d. modulation time
49. The most common wired transmission media for LANs is ____ cable. a. coaxial
b. twisted-pair cable
c. single mode fiber optic
d. multimode fiber optic
50. ____ is the most expensive cable type a. coaxial
b. twisted-pair cable
c. single mode fiber optic
d. multimode fiber optic
51. ____ cable can be constructed of glass or plastic. a. coaxial
b. twisted-pair cable
c. single mode fiber optic
d. multimode fiber optic
52. ____ cable uses fibers that vary continuously in diameter from center to edge. a. coaxial
b. twisted-pair cable
c. single mode fiber optic
d. multimode fiber optic
53. In a single electrical communication channel, a(n) ____ wire carries data and the return wire completes the electrical circuit. a. single mode
54. In a single communication channel a ____ wire completes an electrical circuit between sending and receiving devices. a. path
55. In ____ mode, messages flow in only one direction a. duplex
56. ____ mode uses a single shared channel, and each node takes turns using the transmission line to transmit and receive. a. Half-duplex
c. Half-simplex d. Full-simplex
57. In ____ mode, the receiver can communicate with the sender at any time over the second transmission line, even while data is still being transmitted on the first line. a. half-duplex b. half-simplex c. full-duplex d. full-simplex
58. ____ transmission uses a separate transmission line for each bit position. a. Serial
59. ____ is noise added to the signal in the wire from EMI generated by adjacent wires. a. Interference
60. Most local phone service is based on a channel-sharing strategy called ____. a. packet switching
b. route switching
c. circuit switching
d. path switching
61. ____ describes techniques for splitting data transfer capacity into time slices and allocating them to multiple users. a. Time-division multiplexing
b. Code-division multiplexing
c. Frequency-division multiplexing d. Space-division multiplexing
62. Long-distance telecommunication providers use FDM to multiplex single-mode optical fibers, an application commonly called ____. a. code-division multiplexing
b. wavelength-division multiplexing
c. space-division multiplexing
d. time-division multiplexing
63. ____ is a high-speed communication architecture intended to interconnect devices such as servers, secondary storage appliances, and network switches. a. HighBand
64. ____ are used by devices such as general-purpose servers that can initiate and respond to data transfer requests. a. FBAs
65. In synchronous transmissions, messages are transmitted in fixed-size byte groups called ____. a. sectors
66. ____ have a predetermined pattern of signal transitions designed for easy clock synchronization. a. Synchronous idle characters
b. Asynchronous idle characters
c. Wait state characters d. Stop characters
67. Asynchronous transmission adds one or more ____ bits to the beginning of each message. a. stop
68. With ____ parity, the sender sets the parity bit to 0 if the count of 1-valued data bits in the character is odd. a. even
69. Parity checking can be expanded to groups of characters or bytes by using ____. a. block checking b. bit checking
c. frame checking d. band checking
70. ____ is the most widely used error-detection method. a. Hamming code
c. Cyclic redundancy checking
d. Message Digest
71. A(n) ____________________ is a unit of data or information transmitted from a sender to a recipient.
72. A(n) ____________________ is a set of rules and conventions for communication.
73. Light, radio frequencies, and electricity travel through space or cables as a(n) ____________________.
74. ____________________ is a measure of wave height or power—the maximum distance between a wave’s peak and its zero value.
75. The ____________________ of a sine wave is measured in degrees, with 0° representing the beginning of the wave’s cycle and 360° representing the end.
76. A wave with encoded bits is called a(n) ____________________ wave because it transports bits from one place to another.
77. A(n) ____________________ signal uses the full range of a carrier wave characteristic to encode continuous data values.
78. A(n) ____________________ signal can contain one of a finite number of possible values.
79. A(n) ____________________ consists of a sending device, a receiving device, and the transmission medium connecting them.
80. The communication path that transports signals is called a(n) ____________________.
81. The difference between a signal’s maximum and minimum frequencies is called the signal ____________________.
82. A(n) ____________________ signal is created by combining multiple simple signals.
83. ____________________ is the reduction in signal strength (amplitude) caused by interactions between the signal’s energy and the transmission medium.
84. The term ____________________ refers to changes to the data signal caused by interaction with the communication channel.
85. ____________________ cable is the most common transmission medium for phone and local area network (LAN) connections.
86. ____________________ cable contains a single copper conductor surrounded by a thick plastic insulator, a metallic shield, and a tough plastic outer wrapping.
87. ____________________ transmission is more complex than wired transmission because it incorporates more sophisticated error detection/correction and security methods.
88. ____________________ distortion creates echoes that blur or smear signal content, increasing the error rate
89. In half-duplex mode after sending a message, the first node signals its intent to cease transmission by sending a special control message called a(n) ____________________.
90. ____________________ mode allows the receiver to request retransmitting a message if it detects errors.
91. ____________________ transmission uses only a single transmission line and a return wire.
92. Packet switching, the most common type of TDM, divides messages from all users or applications into small pieces called ____________________.
93. ____________________ transmission ensures that sender and receiver clocks are always synchronized by sending continuous data streams.
94. In ____________________ transmission, messages are sent on an as-needed basis.
95. Under ____________________ parity, the sender sets the parity bit to 0 if the count of 1-valued data bits is even or to 1 if the count of 1-valued data bits is odd.
96. What are the three characteristics of sine waves that can be manipulated to represent data?
97. Why are waves important in communication?
98. Describe some options regarding light transmission in communication technology.
99. What are the two main synchronization problems that can occur during message transmission?
100. List two characteristics in which error detection and correction methods vary.
Chapter 09 Computer Networks 1. An end node is a device such as a workstation, server, or printer that can be the source or destination of a message. a. True b. False
2. A point-to-point transmission line is laid over the shortest path and connected directly to both end nodes a. True b. False
3. To connect four end nodes in a mesh technology, three transmission lines and six connections per node are required. a. True b. False
4. Mesh topology is practical for all but very small networks. a. True b. False
5. In a physical delivery system using store-and-forward, the central nodes are transfer points located at or near the junction of major roadways or air routes. a. True b. False
6. The characteristics differentiating the physical topologies include the length and routing of network cable, type of node connections, data transfer performance, susceptibility of the network to failure, and cost. a. True b. False
7. Networks using bus and ring physical topologies are commonly used today. a. True b. False
8. Star topologies now dominate physical network topology for wired networks. a. True b. False
9. The OSI model predates the TCP/IP model by almost a decade. a. True b. False
10. The 32-bit addresses for an IP node are defined in Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6). a. True b. False
11. Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) is an updated version of IPv4 defined in the late 1990s and first deployed in the mid-2000s. a. True b. False
12. Guaranteeing service quality is a simple matter in most IP networks. a. True b. False
13. RARP converts IP addresses to physical network addresses. a. True b. False
14. The 802.1 and 802.2 standards correspond roughly to the OSI Data Link layer. a. True b. False
15. The marketplace ultimately decides which technologies and products succeed. a. True b. False
16. WiMAX is a replacement for and an extension to the IEEE 802.11 standards. a. True b. False
17. To date, most WiMAX adoption has occurred in urban areas. a. True b. False
18. Ethernet is a LAN technology, developed by Xerox in the early 1970s, that’s closely related to the IEEE 802.3 standard. a. True b. False
19. Newer Ethernet standards used a bus logical topology, Category 5 twisted-pair cable, and CSMA/CD. a. True b. False
20. 10 Gigabit Ethernet is based on the 802.3ae (2002) and the 802.3ak (2004) standards. a. True b. False
21. The term ____ refers to the spatial organization of network devices, physical routing of network cabling, and flow of messages from one network node to another. a. network infrastructure
b. network topology
c. network path
d. network interface
22. Most large-scale delivery services use a ____ system to connect source and destination nodes. a. send and relay
b. store and forward
c. store and forget
d. send and forget
23. ____ topology is the path messages traverse as they travel between end and central nodes. a. Physical b. Virtual c. Somatic d. Logical
24. A ____ topology directly connects every node to a shared hub, switch, or router. a. star
25. Each network covering a floor or building is called a ____. a. wide area network
b. metropolitan area network
c. local area network
d. zone network
26. A ____ connects all LAN central nodes in a group of buildings. a. zone network b. metro network c. wide area network d. proximity network
27. A network for an entire campus is known as a(n) ____ and includes end nodes, LANs, zone networks, the campus backbone network, and central nodes. a. metropolitan area network b. wide area network c. regional network d. enterprise network
28. If multiple nodes attempt to transmit across the same medium at the same time, their messages mix, producing noise or interference that’s called a ____. a. carrier
29. A ____ is a central connection point for nodes in a LAN. a. hub
30. A ____ intelligently forwards messages between two or more networks. a. hub
31. A wireless ____ connects a wireless network to a wired network. a. bridge
b. access point
32. The ____ layer includes communication protocols used by programs that make and respond to high-level requests for network services. a. Presentation
b. Data Link
33. The ____ layer ensures that data transmitted by one network node is interpreted correctly by the other network node. a. Presentation
d. Data Link
34. The ____ layer forwards messages to their correct destinations. a. Session
b. Data Link
d. Data Link
35. The ____ layer is the interface between network software and hardware. a. Session
b. Data Link
36. ____ is the glue that binds private networks together to form the Internet and the World Wide Web. a. IPX
b. SNA c. TCP/IP
37. IP accepts messages called ____ from Transport-layer protocols and forwards them to their destination. a. datagrams
38. The written format of 128-bit IP addresses is called ____ notation. a. dotted decimal
b. dotted hexadecimal
c. colon decimal
d. colon hexadecimal
39. The term ____ describes transmission situations involving multiple senders and receivers. a. unicasting
40. ____ is a connectionless protocol that provides less reliable transport services. a. Transmission Control Protocol
b. User Datagram Protocol
c. Systems Network Architecture
d. Internetwork Packet Exchange
41. ____ is a family of technologies and standards for carrying voice messages and data over a single packet-switched network. a. Multicasting
b. Voice over Data
c. Hybrid Audio/Video
d. Voice over IP
42. The oldest and most widely used VoIP protocol suite is ____. a. H.323
c. SIP d. Q.931
43. VoIP equipment and software can be loosely divided into two groups: end nodes and ____. a. switch nodes
b. intermediate nodes
c. station nodes
d. routing nodes
44. In ____, the VoIP user perceives periods of silence before the other participant’s speech is heard. a. jitter
b. fragmentation c. latency
45. The VoIP user perceives ____ as periods of silence mixed with overlapped voice signals. a. jitter
b. latency c. fragmentation d. overrun
46. The ____ model was originally intended to unite disparate network standards in a way that enabled any node connected to any type of network to communicate with any other node. a. IPX/SPX
47. At the sending node, the ____ layer’s role is to translate IP datagrams into a format that can be transported and forwarded over a specific physical network. a. Application b. Network Interface
48. ____ make forwarding decisions by using layer 2 addresses. a. Switches
49. ____ make forwarding decisions by using layer 3 addresses. a. Bridges
50. ____ is based on the 802.3z standard and the 802.3ab standard. a. Wireless Ethernet
b. Standard Ethernet
c. Gigabit Ethernet
d. Megabit Ethernet
51. A(n) ____________________ topology is one in which every node pair is connected by a point-to-point link.
52. ____________________ is the physical placement of cables and device connections to these cables.
53. A(n) ____________________ topology directly connects every node to a single shared transmission line.
54. A(n) ____________________ topology directly connects every node to two other nodes with a set of links forming a loop or ring.
55. Each central node maintains a table of node addresses and transmission lines or connection ports, called a(n) ____________________ table, and uses this table to make forwarding decisions.
56. The procedure for forwarding a message between two end nodes in the same LAN depends on the ____________________ network topology.
57. Nodes sharing a common transmission medium follow a(n) ____________________ protocol to determine how to share the medium efficiently.
58. In CSMA/CA, a node that wants to transmit sends a(n) ____________________ signal.
59. Like a hub, a(n) ____________________ generally has a dozen or more input connections for computers and other network nodes.
60. The ____________________ layer establishes and manages communication sessions.
61. The ____________________ layer formats messages into packets suitable for transmission over the network.
62. The ____________________ layer is where communication between devices actually takes place.
63. ____________________ are nodes connecting two or more networks or network segments that might be implemented physically as workstations, servers, or routers.
64. The written format of 32-bit IP addresses is called ____________________ notation.
65. IP is an example of a(n) ____________________ protocol, in which the sender doesn’t attempt to verify a recipient’s existence or ask its permission before sending data.
66. TCP connections are established through a(n) ____________________, which is the combination of an IP address and a port number.
67. A(n) ____________________ is a TCP connection with a unique integer number.
68. ____________________ embeds all or part of a datagram in a physical network’s message format.
69. The IEEE has drafted a number of network standards, collectively referred to as the IEEE ____________________ standards.
70. ____________________ is a group of wireless networking standards developed by the WiMAX Forum and codified in the IEEE 802.16 standard.
71. List and describe four physical topologies.
72. What was ARPANET?
73. Describe the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
74. Describe the network interface layer in the TCP/IP model.
75. What are the call management functions that VoIP must perform.
Chapter 10 Application Development 1. The process of designing and constructing software translates users’ information-processing needs into CPU instructions that, when executed, address these needs. a. True b. False
2. User needs are stated in general or abstract terms in basic computer language. a. True b. False
3. Software has surpassed hardware to become the most costly component of most information systems. a. True b. False
4. Reduced productivity, dissatisfied customers, and poor managerial decisions are just a few indirect costs of software that doesn’t address users’ needs completely or correctly. a. True b. False
5. Class models and other types of diagrams document user and system requirements. a. True b. False
6. UP design models include package diagrams, interaction diagrams, and deployment diagrams. a. True b. False
7. Unlike 2GL programs, 3GL programs must be translated into binary CPU instructions before the program is executed. a. True b. False
8. A 5GL program contains nonprocedural rules that mimic the rules people use to solve problems. a. True b. False
9. C++ was the first commercial OOP language. a. True b. False
10. With scripting languages, programmers can assemble application software rapidly by “gluing” together the capabilities of many other programs. a. True b. False
11. Compiler output is called source code. a. True b. False
12. A CPU BRANCH instruction requires two operands, one containing the address of another instruction and one containing the address of the previous instruction. a. True b. False
13. Source and object code files are compiled and linked as a whole. a. True b. False
14. The main advantage of compilation over interpretation is that it offers the flexibility to incorporate new or updated code into an application program. a. True b. False
15. The main disadvantage of compiling and linking compared with interpretation is increased memory and CPU requirements during program execution. a. True b. False
16. A symbolic debugger uses the symbol table, memory map, and source code files to trace memory addresses to specific source code statements and variables. a. True b. False
17. Java bytecode programs usually run 10 times faster than native applications. a. True b. False
18. Programming languages, program translation tools, and debugging tools address only the implementation discipline of the Unified Process. a. True b. False
19. Debugging and tracing cannot be done on machine code or OS service calls. a. True b. False
20. The most comprehensive CASE tools automate the process of deploying working systems from analysis and design models. a. True b. False
21. ____ are integrated collections of models, tools, techniques, and processes. a. Software models
b. Development strategies
c. Development tools
d. Development methodologies
22. ____ models provide the detail needed to develop a system that meets users’ needs. a. System planning b. System requirements c. System development d. System design
23. ____ perform design activities to create models that produce an architectural blueprint for system implementation. a. System developers b. System architects c. System managers d. System engineers
24. ____ specify detailed blueprints for software component construction and the interaction between software components and users. a. Layout models b. Interaction models c. Design models d. Data models
25. Program instructions are sometimes called ____. a. bytes b. bits c. languages d. code
26. Binary CPU instructions, called ____, are the earliest programming languages. a. base-generation languages b. first-generation languages c. third-generation languages d. fourth-generation languages
27. Today, the term ____ is often used to describe a mnemonic representing a data item’s memory address. a. constant b. instruction c. literal d. variable
28. The one-to-many (1:N) relationship between later-generation programming statements and the CPU actions implementing them is called ____. a. instruction explosion b. instruction expansion c. mnemonic explosion d. instruction compression
29. A ____ uses mnemonics to represent instructions, variables, and labels and has a degree of instruction explosion higher than 1:1. a. next-generation language b. next-generation language c. third-generation language d. fifth-generation language
30. A ____ is a nonprocedural language suitable for developing software that mimics human intelligence. a. fifth-generation language b. fourth-generation language c. third-generation language d. second-generation language
31. A ____ is a request to execute a specific method and return a response. a. conduit b. message c. path d. function
32. A(n) ____ enables programmers to develop applications that do most of their work by calling other applications and system software. a. compiled language b. interpreted language c. functional language d. scripting language
33. ____ programming languages guarantee program portability between other OSs and application programs. a. Standard b. Interpreted c. Scripted d. Proprietary
34. A ____ defines the name and data type of program variables. a. function declaration b. class declaration c. data declaration d. method declaration
35. A ____ is any instruction, such as an assignment statement or a computation that updates or computes a data value. a. data function b. data operation c. data declaration d. control structure
36. A ____ is a source code instruction that controls the execution of other source code instructions. a. data declaration b. control structure c. data operation d. function call
37. A(n) ____ is a placeholder for missing executable code. a. external function call b. internal function call c. function header d. reference function call
38. A(n) ____ searches an object code file for external function calls. a. compiler b. parser c. link editor d. interpreter
39. ____ linking is performed during program loading or execution. a. Dynamic b. Static c. Early d. Objective
40. A(n) ____ reads a single source code instruction, translates it into CPU instructions or a DLL call, and executes the instructions or DLL call immediately, before the next program statement is read. a. compiler b. interpreter c. parser d. link editor
41. A program’s ____ version omits the symbol table and debugging checkpoints to reduce program size and increase execution speed. a. production b. debug c. developer d. reference
42. ____ is an OOP language and program execution environment developed by Sun Microsystems during the early and mid-1990s. a. C++ b. Visual Basic c. Java d. C#
43. A Java compiler or interpreter translates Java source code into machine instructions and service routine calls for a hypothetical computer and OS called the ____. a. Java Intermediate Machine b. Java Internal Machine c. Java Virtual Medium d. Java Virtual Machine
44. A Java ____ runs inside another program, such as a Web browser, and performs functions such as accepting user input and displaying forms and images. a. application b. applet c. servlet d. bean
45. ____ are those compiled and linked for a particular CPU and OS. a. Compiled applications b. Interpreted applications c. Native applications d. Intermediate applications
46. A(n) ____ is a collection of automated support tools to speed development and testing. a. integrated development environment b. linker c. graphical development environment d. system development environment
47. The term ____ tool usually refers to a tool that supports the UP requirements and design disciplines. a. computer-generated software development b. computer-assisted software development c. computer-assisted system engineering d. computer-assisted software engineering
48. A tool suite that primarily supports model development is sometimes called a ____ tool. a. front-end CASE b. back-end CASE c. mid-tier CASE d. late-bound CASE
49. A tool suite that primarily supports application development based on specific analysis and design models is sometimes called a(n) ____ tool. a. early-bound CASE b. front-end CASE c. back-end CASE d. mid-tier CASE
50. ____ tools generate program and other source code from models, compile and link the programs, create databases, and create, register, and install all components. a. CAD b. CASE c. CADE d. CASD
51. ____________________ are detailed, precise statements of formal logic written as sequences of CPU instructions.
52. Developers attempt to minimize errors by using proven development ____________________.
53. The person who writes code is called a(n) ____________________.
54. A second-generation language (2GL) is more commonly known as a(n) ____________________ language.
55. The term ____________________ is used to describe a mnemonic representing a program instruction’s memory address.
56. A(n) ____________________ is a program that translates an assembly-language program into binary CPU instructions.
57. SQL is a(n) ____________________ language because it describes a processing requirement without specifying a procedure for satisfying the requirement.
58. In OOP, objects contain data and programs or procedures, called ____________________, that manipulate the data.
59. ____________________ code is stored in a file, such as an .exe file in Windows, and contains CPU instructions that are ready for an OS to load and execute.
60. A compiler keeps an internal table, called a(n) ____________________, to keep track of data names, types, and assigned memory addresses.
61. A(n) ____________________ instruction transfers control to the first instruction in a function.
62. A(n) ____________________ is a file containing related executable functions and an index of the library contents.
63. A(n) ____________________ lists the memory location of every function and program variable, and a programmer can use it to trace error messages containing memory addresses to corresponding program statements and variables.
64. A(n) ____________________ is an automated tool for testing executable programs.
65. An executable program containing symbol table entries and debugging checkpoints is sometimes called a(n) ____________________ version.
66. Instructions and library calls to the JVM are called Java “____________________.”
67. A Java ____________________ runs in a Web server and performs functions such as calculations, database access, and creation of Web pages that are transmitted to a Web browser for display.
68. A(n) ____________________ provides extensive security controls to prevent programs from accessing unauthorized resources or damaging the hardware, OS, or file system.
69. ____________________ assist programmers in writing syntactically correct code by verifying syntax as the code is being typed and highlighting errors.
70. With ____________________, programmers can reuse source and executable code, thus speeding up application development.
71. Why were fourth-generation languages developed?
72. What does a programming language define?
73. List two capabilities of a symbolic debugger.
74. What are factors have caused Java’s popularity to far exceed most initial expectations?
75. List three components that an integrated development environment generally includes.
76. Why has changed as a result of hardware cost declining over time as a proportion of total system costs?
Chapter 11 Operating Systems 1. Operating systems are organized internally into layers. a. True b. False
2. Resource allocation in a single-tasking OS involves only two running programs—an application and the OS. a. True b. False
3. Multitasking operating systems are not the norm for general-purpose computers. a. True b. False
4. A hypervisor can make the sum of physical resources allocated to all virtual machines appear greater than the underlying physical resources. a. True b. False
5. The act of giving control of a CPU to a ready thread is called engaging. a. True b. False
6. A blocked thread is waiting for an event to occur, such as allocation of a requested resource or correction of an error condition. a. True b. False
7. In explicit priority scheduling, the scheduler always dispatches the ready thread that has been waiting the longest. a. True b. False
8. In Windows thread scheduling, a thread’s current priority level is called its “local priority.” a. True b. False
9. Data values and instructions generally occupy multiple bytes of storage. a. True b. False
10. When considered as a byte sequence, the rightmost byte is called the most significant byte. a. True b. False
11. A programmer can explicitly include the process offset in any memory address operands when writing or compiling a program. a. True b. False
12. Memory allocation is less complex when the OS supports multitasking. a. True b. False
13. Contiguous program loading, coupled with fixed-size memory partitions, usually results in efficient use of memory space. a. True b. False
14. Noncontiguous memory allocation is more flexible than contiguous memory allocation, but flexibility comes at a price. a. True b. False
15. The only portion of a process that must be in memory at any point during execution is the next instruction to be fetched. a. True b. False
16. Because page size is fixed, memory references can easily be converted to the corresponding page number and offset in the page. a. True b. False
17. Page location in the swap space can be computed by dividing the page number by the page size. a. True b. False
18. The benefits of advanced memory addressing and allocation schemes are offset by reduced performance when they’re implemented in hardware. a. True b. False
19. In an Intel CPU, a page table entry includes the page’s physical memory address if it’s loaded into memory. a. True b. False
20. With an Intel CPU, virtual memory management responsibility is split between the CPU and the OS. a. True b. False
21. The ____ plays a dual role as a high-level manager and a tireless low-level worker. a. application system
b. operating system
c. system manager
22. The ____ is the user interface to the OS. a. shell b. GUI c. transaction monitor d. desktop manager
23. Through the ____ layer, a user or system administrator can run application and OS utility programs and manage system resources, such as files, folders, and I/O devices. a. service b. kernel c. hypervisor d. command
24. A set of commands and syntax requirements is called a ____. a. command structure b. command database c. command language d. command layer
25. The ____ of the OS contains thousands of reusable components that provide functions ranging from file and folder manipulation to accessing I/O devices, starting and stopping programs, and creating, moving, and resizing GUI windows. a. service layer b. kernel layer c. command layer d. metering layer
26. The ____ is the OS portion that manages resources and interacts directly with computer hardware. a. core b. kernel c. hypervisor d. scheduler
27. The resources consumed by resource allocation procedures are sometimes referred to as ____. a. system bloat b. system requirements c. system underpinnings d. system overhead
28. As allocated by the OS, the resources that are apparent to a program or user are called ____. a. physical resources b. managed resources c. virtual resources d. exposed resources
29. A ____ is an OS that enables dividing a single physical computer or cluster into multiple virtual machines. a. kernel b. hypervisor c. transaction monitor d. trusted platform module
30. A process or program that divides itself into multiple threads is said to be ____. a. multi-headed b. multipartite c. multithreaded d. multiplied
31. Threads in the ____ are idle, pending availability of a CPU. a. ready state b. wait state c. hold state d. run state
32. In ____, a thread can be removed involuntarily from the running state. a. proactive scheduling b. reactive scheduling c. starvation scheduling d. preemptive scheduling
33. ____ scheduling chooses the next thread to be dispatched based on the expected amount of CPU time needed to complete the process. a. Shortest time remaining b. First in first out c. Last in first out d. Least recently used
34. A ____ can execute instructions to process a single transaction, retrieve and store data from an I/O device, or retrieve and analyze one set of process variables. a. thread bundle b. process cycle c. thread cycle d. fiber bundle
35. ____ is the assignment of specific memory addresses to system software, application programs, and data. a. Memory allocation b. Memory management c. Memory mapping d. Memory control
36. A CPU’s or computer’s ____ is the highest numbered storage byte that can be represented. a. configurable memory b. addressable memory c. responsible memory d. variable memory
37. When memory allocation is ____, it means all portions of the program and OS are loaded into sequential locations in memory. a. partitioned b. incremental c. dynamic d. contiguous
38. The difference between the first address in physical memory and the address of the first process instruction is called the ____. a. thread offset b. process offset c. launch offset d. entry point
39. ____ uses memory address operands that refer to actual physical memory locations. a. Relative addressing b. Virtual addressing c. Absolute addressing d. Random addressing
40. The process of determining the physical memory address that corresponds to a memory reference is called ____. a. address mapping b. address allocation c. address management d. address diversification
41. The OS maintains a ____ and updates it each time a partition is allocated or freed. a. memory use table b. memory partition table c. memory map table d. memory control table
42. ____ occurs when memory partitions allocated to a single process or purpose are scattered throughout physical memory. a. Swapping b. Orphaning c. Fragmentation d. Garbage collection
43. In ____ memory allocation, each process partition has its own offset value. a. partitioned b. contiguous c. dynamic d. noncontiguous
44. In virtual memory management, a ____ is a small fixed-size portion of a program, normally between 1 and 4 KB. a. block b. page c. sheet d. frame
45. Each memory page in virtual memory management is called a ____. a. page frame b. sheet c. bundle d. page tear
46. A reference to a page held in memory is called a ____. a. page hit b. page pull c. page miss d. page collision
47. ____ store information about page locations, allocated page frames, and secondary storage space. a. Page tears b. Page blocks c. Page tables d. Page addresses
48. A secondary storage region, called the ____, is reserved for the task of storing pages not held in memory. a. swap space b. main memory c. heap d. stack
49. An Intel CPU maintains a ____ containing descriptors for all memory segments. a. local descriptor table b. page allocation table c. global definition table d. global descriptor table
50. Intel Core CPUs implement virtual memory management tables in ____. a. software b. hardware c. firmware d. BIOS
51. OS ____________________ functions ensure that overall system objectives are achieved efficiently and effectively.
52. The ____________________ layers of an OS provide services to application programs or directly to end users.
53. The ____________________ layer encapsulates hardware resources, thus controlling and managing access by users and applications.
54. The command layer of an OS is sometimes called the ____________________.
55. A request to execute a service-layer function is called a(n) ____________________.
56. OS support for running multiple programs simultaneously is called ____________________.
57. A computer’s physical devices and associated system software are called ____________________.
58. A(n) ____________________ is a unit of executing software that’s managed independently by the OS and can request and receive hardware resources and OS services.
59. A group of processes descended from a common ancestor, including the common ancestor itself, is called a(n) ____________________.
60. A(n) ____________________ is a portion of a process that can be scheduled and executed independently.
61. A(n) ____________________ is generated at regular intervals of between several dozen and several thousand CPU cycles to give the scheduler an opportunity to suspend the currently executing thread.
62. ____________________ scheduling guarantees a minimum amount of CPU time to a thread if the thread makes an explicit real-time scheduling request when it’s created.
63. A computer system’s ____________________ memory is the actual number of memory bytes that are physically installed in the machine.
64. The register holding the offset value in memory allocation is called a(n) ____________________ register.
65. After ____________________, all free partitions form a contiguous block in upper memory.
66. ____________________ memory allocation uses small fixed-size partitions, usually no larger than 64 KB.
67. Virtual memory management divides a program into partitions called ____________________.
68. A reference to a page held in secondary storage is called a(n) ____________________.
69. If all page frames are allocated, a page currently in memory, called the ____________________, must be written to the swap space before the reference page is loaded into a page frame.
70. ____________________ refers to protecting memory allocated to one program from unauthorized access by another program.
71. Describe the role of the operating system.
72. List the three states of an active thread.
73. What is the difference between big endian and little endian?
74. What are two goals of multitasking memory allocation?
75. Name three pieces held within a segment descriptor in an Intel CPU.
Chapter 12 File and Secondary Storage Management 1. The storage I/O control layer processes service calls from the command layer or application program and issues commands to the storage I/O control layer to interact with hardware. a. True b. False
2. An FMS provides command-layer functions and utility programs for users and system administrators to manage files, directories, and secondary storage devices. a. True b. False
3. Users and applications view secondary storage logically as a collection of files organized in folders and storage volumes. a. True b. False
4. On larger computers such as servers, a volume can span multiple physical secondary storage devices. a. True b. False
5. A typical laptop computer has up to a few hundred storage volumes. a. True b. False
6. The logical view of secondary storage consists of files contained within folders and storage volumes. a. True b. False
7. A laptop computer with Windows but no installed apps supports over a dozen file types. a. True b. False
8. Most FMSs include direct support for only a few file types but enable additional types to be defined and associated with installed apps. a. True b. False
9. A graph folder structure is less flexible than a hierarchical folder structure. a. True b. False
10. Allocation units can be smaller than the unit of data transfer. a. True b. False
11. If the logical record size is less than the physical record size, a single physical record might contain multiple logical records. a. True b. False
12. Low blocking factors, with larger logical records, require fewer buffers to achieve substantial performance improvements. a. True b. False
13. In most FMSs, files are immediately removed from secondary storage when they’re deleted. a. True b. False
14. Access controls are enforced automatically in FMS service routines that access and manipulate files and directories. a. True b. False
15. File migration moves files from cloud storage to local secondary storage devices as they become older and more out-of-date. a. True b. False
16. Disk mirroring provides a high degree of protection against data loss with no performance penalty if it’s implemented in hardware. a. True b. False
17. Storing parity data reduces a disk array’s usable capacity. a. True b. False
18. DAS is inexpensive and efficient for organizations with dozens or hundreds of servers and terabytes of shared data. a. True b. False
19. The storage server in a SAN is a complete general-purpose computer. a. True b. False
20. A key distinction between SAN devices and NAS servers is the type of storage access requests that are serviced. a. True b. False
21. The technologies that support cloud-based storage services are similar to those used to manage the contents of multilevel primary storage caches. a. True b. False
22. The technologies that support cloud-based storage services are similar to those used to manage the contents of multilevel primary storage caches. a. disk management system
b. storage management system
c. file management system
d. control management system
23. The ____ is the part of the kernel that accesses storage locations and manages data movement between storage devices and memory. a. store I/O control manager b. storage I/O control layer c. disk I/O control layer d. disk I/O control supervisor
24. The ____ layer is the bridge between logical and physical views of secondary storage. a. file control b. disk control c. storage I/O control d. block control
25. On a desktop or laptop computer, a ____ is usually an entire physical secondary storage device, a partition of the device, or a removable storage device such as a DVD or flash drive. a. page b. block c. sector d. sector
26. Among other things, ____ type determines naming restrictions, allowable operations, and physical organization. a. volume b. folder c. file d. storage device
27. “Out of the box”, and with no installed apps, a typical operating system directly defines/supports ____ of file types. a. a handful b. a few dozen c. hundreds d. thousands
28. The relationship between file types and the programs or OS utilities that manipulate them is called ____. a. file launcher b. file association c. shell d. folder manager
29. In a ____, folders can contain other folders, but a folder can’t be contained in more than one parent. a. linear folder structure b. logical folder structure c. virtual folder structure d. hierarchical folder structure
30. The folder that’s currently being accessed is called the ____ folder a. previous b. next c. working d. index
31. A ____ is a data structure that records which allocation units are free and which belong to files. a. file allocation table b. master file table c. master node d. storage allocation table
32. When the storage allocation table uses ____ data structures sequential file access is very efficient but random access is much less efficient. a. linked lists b. B+ trees c. binary trees d. hash tables
33. A ____ is a collection of data items, or fields, that an application program accesses as a single unit. a. physical record b. virtual record c. logical record d. managed record
34. A ____ is the unit of storage transferred between the device controller and memory in a single operation. a. virtual record b. physical record c. logical record d. hard record
35. Blocking is described by a numeric ratio of logical records to physical records called the ____. a. holding factor b. locking factor c. group factor d. blocking factor
36. A ____ is a temporary holding area for extracting logical records from physical records. a. block b. buffer c. page d. cache
37. In UNIX, the ____ privilege allows a user or process can view a file’s contents. a. read b. write c. execute d. special
38. In UNIX, the ____ privilege allows a user or process to alter a file’s contents or delete it altogether. a. read b. execute c. write d. special
39. In Windows NTFS, the ____ contains a sequential set of file records, one for each file in the volume. a. master node b. storage allocation table c. file allocation table d. master file table
40. In a process called ____, a file’s original version is archived automatically whenever the file is modified. a. differencing b. chaining c. file migration d. partitioning
41. When a(n) ____ is performed, the FMS copies all files and directories for an entire storage volume. a. full backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. synthetic full backup
42. A(n) ____ archives only files that have been modified since the previous incremental or full backup. a. full backup b. incremental backup c. differential backup d. synthetic full backup
43. ____ is a fault-tolerance technique in which all disk write operations are made simultaneously or concurrently to two storage devices. a. Disk partitioning b. Disk planning c. Disk locking d. Disk mirroring
44. ____ is a disk storage technique that improves performance and fault tolerance. a. DIR b. RAID c. PAID d. PAIR
45. ____ breaks a unit of data into smaller segments and stores these segments on multiple disks. a. Data striping b. Data mirroring c. Data checking d. Data cloning
46. If five disks are used in a RAID 5 array, ____% of the available disk space stores redundant parity information. a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
47. The most common example of multiple RAID levels layered to combine their best features is ____. a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 5 d. RAID 10
48. ____ describes any architecture in which software running on a CPU accesses secondary storage devices in the same computer. a. NAS b. DAS c. SAN d. DAN
49. A ____ is a high-speed interconnection between general-purpose servers and a separate storage server. a. network area storage b. storage accelerated network c. storage area network d. storage area network
50. The term ____ describes any architecture with a dedicated storage server attached to a general-purpose network to handle storage access requests from other servers. a. storage area network b. direct attached storage c. network-local storage d. network-attached storage
51. A limited-purpose server is sometimes called a “____.” a. server appliance b. server host c. general purpose server d. standard server
52. The ____________________ layer provides service functions for manipulating files and directories.
53. Via the ____________________ layer, users perform common file management functions, such as copying, moving, and renaming files.
54. A(n) ____________________ contains information about files and other folders.
55. A(n) ____________________ path begins at the current directory’s level and extends downward to a specific file.
56. A(n) ____________________ is the smallest number of secondary storage bytes that can be allocated to a file.
57. A(n) ____________________ contains a single data item within a logical record.
58. Logical record grouping in physical records is called ____________________.
59. If a physical record contains just one logical record, the file is said to be ____________________.
60. The FMS uses ____________________ in primary storage to store data temporarily as it moves between programs and secondary storage devices.
61. A user might be able to recover a deleted file by performing a(n) ____________________ operation.
62. ____________________ is a file management technique that balances each file version’s storage cost with anticipated user demand for this version.
63. A(n) ____________________ backup is a variation on an incremental backup in which backup times aren’t reset as files are copied.
64. To an FMS, a(n) ____________________ is any change to file contents or attributes, such as an added record, a modified field, or changed access controls.
65. As applied to FMSs, ____________________ describes methods of securing file content against hardware failure.
66. ____________________ are contacts between a read/write head and a spinning platter.
67. When duplicate disks are in the same cabinet, mirroring is usually implemented in hardware by the ____________________.
68. The original RAID version, now known as RAID ____________________, was developed at the University of California, Berkeley, in the late 1980s.
69. In RAID, ____________________ improves read performance by breaking a large read operation into smaller parallel read operations.
70. The traditional model of storage access by application software relies on an approach commonly called ____________________.
71. A(n) ____________________ server accepts storage access requests from other servers and accesses embedded storage devices on their behalf.
72. The technologies that support cloud-based storage services are similar to those used to manage the contents of multilevel primary storage __________________.
73. Describe how secondary storage devices store bits, bytes and blocks.
74. What are steps that FMS follows to complete the file open operation?
75. Compare and contrast RAID 1 through 6.
76. Describe RAID 10.
77. List two reasons that RAID hardware systems are common.
Chapter 13 Internet and Distributed Application Services 1. A server manages system resources and provides access to these resources through a well-defined communication interface. a. True b. False
2. A server hosts a single service or resource. a. True b. False
3. The client/server architectural model can be applied in many ways. a. True b. False
4. Three-layer architecture simplifies distributing or replicating application software across a network. a. True b. False
5. As OSs have evolved, they have incorporated fewer and fewer middleware functions. a. True b. False
6. Advantages of P2P architecture include improved scalability and reducing the number of computer and network connections needed to support an application. a. True b. False
7. With P2P architecture, there are more potential bottlenecks and points of failure. a. True b. False
8. An operating system’s primary role is to manage hardware, software, and data resources. a. True b. False
9. Static connections are easy to initialize and maintain. a. True b. False
10. Every IP packet carries the destination node’s IP address. a. True b. False
11. Every network attached to the Internet has at least one server designated as a DNS server. a. True b. False
12. In large networks, responsibility for maintaining directory content and answering queries is centralized to a few individuals who manage the network. a. True b. False
13. LDAP defines several standard container object types, including Country (C), Organization (O), and Organizational Unit (OU). a. True b. False
14. A fully qualified DN specifies a complete path from a directory root node through one or more container objects to a specific object. a. True b. False
15. LDAP queries contain plaintext characters and the syntax is simple and straight forward. a. True b. False
16. There is a standard objectclass or attribute name for all entities and resources common to most directories, such as people and shared printers. a. True b. False
17. Active Directory is based on LDAP and DNS, so it responds to standard LDAP information requests and uses LDAP concepts, such as objectclasses and OUs, to store and organize directory information hierarchically. a. True b. False
18. A port number is an unsigned 24-bit integer a. True b. False
19. HTML extends XML to describe the structure, format, and content of documents. a. True b. False
20. HTTPS is the “secure” version of HTTP a. True b. False
21. SMTP and MIME are protocols that enable a user on one Internet host to interact with the OS command layer of another Internet host. a. True b. False
22. A web browser can pass parameters to a script on a Web server using the RPC protocol. a. True b. False
23. Users access Web applications via a URL. a. True b. False
24. Three current distribution modes that fit in the cloud computing paradigm are support as a service, platform as a service and infrastructure as a service. a. True b. False
25. SaaS has substantial benefits from a consumer perspective. a. True b. False
26. Data- and graphics-intensive applications can use ordinary Internet connections as part of SaaS. a. True b. False
27. IaaS can be structured for only part of an application’s infrastructure requirements. a. True b. False
28. Vendor lock-in is a recent phenomenon with the advent of SaaS. a. True b. False
29. The risk of vendor lock-in is lower with SaaS because most vendors use similar virtualization environments. a. True b. False
30. Vendor lock-in risk rises with PaaS because the vendor provides system software components in addition to hardware. a. True b. False
31. ____ are composed of software components distributed across many computer systems and geographic locations. a. Information processes
b. Information systems
c. Information networks
d. Information controls
32. Distributing parts of an information system across many computer systems and locations is called ____. a. distributed computing
b. local computing
c. parallel computing
d. linear computing
33. ____ is a method of organizing software to provide and access distributed information and computing resources. a. monolithic architecture
b. unified architecture
c. master/slave architecture
d. client/server architecture
34. In a three-layer architecture, the _____ layer accepts user input and formats and displays processing results. a. model b. view
35. In ____ architecture, the roles of client and server are combined into a single application or group of related applications. a. client/server
36. Software implementing the Transport, Internet, and Network Interface layers of the TCP/IP model is commonly called a(n) ____. a. protocol stack
b. system stack
c. conversion stack
d. application stack
37. Before accessing a remote resource, a user or system administrator must know the server and resource names to create a ____. a. dynamic connection
b. local connection
c. mapped connection
d. static connection
38. In static resource connections, the resource locator maintains a ____ containing the names and locations of known resources and services. a. network map registry
b. local resource registry
c. system resource registry
d. remote resource registry
39. With ____, a resource user asks for a resource, and if it isn’t found in the local resource registry, the resource locator searches for it in external locations. a. static connections
b. fixed connections
c. dynamic connections
d. mapped connections
40. A ____ server maintains a registry of names and corresponding IP addresses for each node on the local network. a. DNS
41. The term ____ describes middleware that stores the name and network address of distributed resources, responds to directory queries, accepts directory updates, and synchronizes replicated or distributed directory copies. a. registration services
b. directory services
c. network services
d. configuration services
42. In an LDAP directory, a(n) ____ defines the attributes common to all member objects. a. distinguished name
b. common name
43. All objects in an LDAP schema have a(n) ____ attribute. a. objectclass
b. distinguished name
d. common name
44. Microsoft ____ is the directory service and security system built into Windows Server. a. Directory Services
b. Open Directory
c. Active Directory
d. Network Directory
45. A(n) ____ describes rights granted or denied to users, groups, and computers for accessing resources in Active Directory. a. access control list
b. access control entry
d. access control token
46. Active Directory clients rely on a ____ to locate Active Directory servers. a. WINS server
b. DHCP server
c. BOOTP server
d. DNS server
47. A ____ is a region of shared memory through which multiple processes executing on the same machine can exchange data. a. map
48. ____ are commonly used for communication between OS components, for queuing requests to an OS service, and for exchanging messages between components in a large program. a. Sockets
49. With the ____ protocol, a process on one machine can call a process on another machine. a. Remote Activation Call
b. Remote Procedure Call
c. Remote Execution Call
d. Remote Calling Convention
50. Web resources are identified by a unique ____. a. Uniform Resource Leverage
b. Uniform Resource Locator
c. Uniform Resource Link
d. Uniform Resource Path
51. ____ is an improved version of Telnet that encrypts data flowing between client and server to address a major security issue in Telnet. a. Secure Shell
52. SMTP was extended by the ____ protocol to allow including nontext files in e-mail messages. a. Multimedia Internet Mail Extensions
b. Multiple Internet Mail Extensions
c. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
d. Multiuse Internet Mail Extensions
53. Under ____, e-mail messages are held on the server temporarily, downloaded to the client when a connection is established, and deleted from the server as soon as the download is finished. a. IMAP b. POP3
54. A(n) ____ is a standardized, interchangeable software module that is executable, has a unique identifier and has a well-known interface. a. object
55. ____ specifies the middleware objects use to interact across networks. a. COM+
56. In CORBA, ____ is a service that maintains a component directory and routes messages between components. a. Object Reference Broker b. Object Request Broker c. Object Resource Broker d. Object Repair Broker
57. In CORBA, ____ is a component message-passing protocol. a. Internet Inter-ORB Protocol b. Local Inter-ORB Protocol c. SOAP d. XML-RPC
58. ____, a Microsoft specification for component interoperability, has its roots in older Microsoft specifications, including Object Linking and Embedding (OLE) and the Component Object Model (COM). a. CORBA
b. Enterprise Java Beans
d. Component Object Model Plus
59. ____ is an open standard, developed by the World Wide Web Consortium, for distributed object interaction that attempts to address the shortcomings of both CORBA and COM+. a. XML-RPC b. Simple Object Access Protocol c. OLE
60. ____ enable developers to create user interfaces that run on a server but interact with a client Web browser or component. a. JavaServer Beans
b. Enterprise Java Beans
c. JavaServer Faces
61. The term ____ summarizes recent coarse-grained approaches to distributing and accessing software and hardware services across the Internet. a. cloud computing
b. distributed computing
c. platform computing
d. shared computing
62. ____ is a Web-based architectural approach in which users interact via a Web browser or other Web-enabled view layer with application software provided by a third party. a. Platform as a service
b. Infrastructure as a service
c. System as a service
d. Software as a service
63. ____ describes an architectural approach in which an organization rents access to system software and hardware on which it installs its own application software and other services. a. Software as a service
b. Platform as a service
c. Infrastructure as a service
d. Application as a service
64. ____ is a key supporting technology in IaaS because it enables a customer/user to configure application and system software for a generic platform as virtual servers and then deploy these servers to a third-party hosting site. a. Hardware virtualization
b. Software virtualization
c. Network virtualization
d. System virtualization
65. The highest vendor lock-in risk occurs with ____ because the vendor controls all key components of the customer’s information system. a. PaaS
66. A(n) ____________________ uses the communication interface to request resources, and the server responds to these requests.
67. In a three-layer architecture, the ____________________ layer manages stored data, usually in databases.
68. In a three-layer architecture, the ____________________ layer carries out the rules and procedures of business processing.
69. The term ____________________ describes software that “glues” together parts of a client/server or multitier application.
70. A network ____________________ is a computer’s doorway to external resources, such as Web sites and applications, databases, shared files and folders, and shared I/O devices.
71. In static resource connections, the ____________________ acts as a router for resource access requests arriving from local and remote users and application programs.
72. An LDAP ____________________ stores information about LDAP objects.
73. LDAP objects are organized in a(n) ____________________ directory structure.
74. A distinguished name (DN) attribute uniquely identifies an object in a(n) ____________________.
75. A(n) ____________________ is a unique combination of an IP address and a port number, separated by a colon.
76. A(n) ____________________ pipe is a pipe with two additional features including a name that’s permanently placed in a file system directory and the capability to communicate between processes on different computers.
77. When a named pipe is created, a(n) ____________________ is also created in the local file system.
78. Web resources are identified and accessed via a(n) ____________________.
79. ____________________ extends HTML to describe the structure, format, and content of documents.
80. ____________________ is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts HTTP requests and responses.
81. The earliest e-mail protocol is ____________________, which defines how text messages are forwarded and routed between Internet hosts.
82. ____________________ extends POP3 to permanently store and manage e-mail messages on the server, which enables users to access stored e-mail from any Internet host.
83. ____________________ embedded in HTML pages can perform many functions that full-fledged programs can, without the need for compiling or link editing.
84. ____________________ are important in software development because complex programs and applications can be constructed from smaller previously developed parts.
85. Interoperability across hardware or software components requires well-defined and widely adopted ____________________.
86. SOAP messages can be transmitted by using other protocols, such as FTP and SMTP, but ____________________ is the most common transmission protocol.
87. In the 1990s, the term ____________________ was coined to describe this design philosophy, partly reflecting the growing dominance of client/server architecture.
88. With ____________________, a customer is forced to continue using a vendor because of high cost or other difficulties in switching.
89. What advantages do protocol stacks provide for implementing network I/O and services.
90. What happens when a resource access request is sent to the local resource locator?
91. What are the steps in the calling process for a remote procedure call?
92. Explain the term cloud computing.
93. Why are some organizations unwilling to embrace SaaS fully?
Chapter 14 System Administration 1.IS resource acquisition and deployment should occur only in the context of a well-defined strategic plan for the organization as a whole. a. True b. False
2. An IS strategic plan tends to lead, rather than follow, the strategic plans of other units in the organization. a. True b. False
3. Typical operating expenditures include buildings, land, equipment, and research and development costs. a. True b. False
4. Computer and software purchases are capital expenditures, even though the expected useful lifetime of computer hardware and software has decreased in recent years because of rapid technological change. a. True b. False
5. Standardization tends to encourage innovation and produce solutions that are optimal for most users. a. True b. False
6. Infrastructure management tends to concentrate on providing short-term services at minimal cost. a. True b. False
7. The costs of technology are usually high for developers and early adopters but then decrease slowly after introduction. a. True b. False
8. Computer performance is measured in terms of application tasks that can be performed in a given time frame. a. True b. False
9. Monitors can operate continuously or intermittently. a. True b. False
10. Accurate data is the most important requirement for good configuration decisions. a. True b. False
11. Operating systems now cooperate with one another to perform authentication and authorization. a. True b. False
12. Signatures are the basis for determining users’ authorization to access resources the OS manages. a. True b. False
13. Application firewalls improve security by shielding internal servers and resources from direct access by outside users. a. True b. False
14. Most computer equipment is designed to operate reliably over a range of voltage levels. a. True b. False
15. Surge protectors can be purchased as separate devices or integrated into other power-conditioning devices. a. True b. False
16. Surge protection is normally an add-on to a UPS. a. True b. False
17. Some UPSs, particularly those with long delivery times, are designed to work with a computer’s OS. a. True b. False
18. The normal fire protection mechanisms incorporated in buildings are inadequate for rooms housing computer hardware. a. True b. False
19. Electrical fires often generate heat and smoke as quickly as conventional fires do. a. True b. False
20. Fire detection is a special problem in computer facilities. a. True b. False
21. The main responsibility of ____ is to ensure efficient and reliable delivery of information services. a. software administration
b. system administration c. system development
d. software development
22. In all cases, strategic plans must address the basic question “____?” a. How did we get here b. Where should we go c. How do we get there from here d. What brought us here
23. The resources devoted to most organizational activities can be classified into two categories: ____. a. capital expenditures and operating expenditures b. capital investments and operating expenditures c. capital controls and operating controls d. capital resources and capital gains
24. ____ are assets or resources expected to provide benefits beyond the current fiscal year. a. Operating resources b. System resources c. Manage resources d. Capital resources
25. Typical ____ include salaries, rent, lease payments, supplies, and equipment maintenance. a. capital expenditures b. operating expenditures c. infrastructure expenditures d. infrastructure expenditures
26. The term ____ describes the way in which an organization uses resources to give it a major edge over its competitors. a. strategic value b. tactical value c. competitive advantage d. comparable advantage
27. The first step in stating hardware and software requirements is to state the application tasks to be performed and their____. a. performance requirements b. storage requirements c. user requirements d. hosting requirements
28. A(n) ____ is a formal document sent to vendors that states requirements and solicits proposals to meet these requirements. a. invitation to negotiate b. request for quotation c. request for bid d. request for proposal
29. The ____ composes the majority of an RFP. a. requirements statement b. performance statement c. design statement d. specifications statement
30. The starting point for determining hardware requirements is the ____ that will run on the hardware platform. a. operating system b. application software c. transaction monitor d. database system
31. The ____ represents units of work application software performs in terms of its demand for low-level hardware services. a. resource contention model b. resource overage model c. application demand model d. application utilization model
32. A ____ is a measure of computer system performance while executing one or more processing tasks. a. benchmark b. requirement c. standard d. watermark
33. ____ are programs or hardware devices that detect and report processing or I/O activity. a. Monitors b. Metrics c. Benchmarks d. Transactions
34. A ____ is a program typically embedded in OS service routines that detects and reports processing activity or requests. a. program profiler b. transaction monitor c. software monitor d. limit monitor
35. A ____ describes the resource or service utilization of an application program during execution. a. transaction monitor b. program profiler c. software monitor d. limit monitor
36. System administrators can use the ____ utility to monitor hardware and software resource use in real time. a. Task Manager b. Performance List c. Task List d. Performance Monitor
37. ____ is the process of determining or verifying the identity of a user or process owner. a. Authentication b. Authorization c. Accounting d. Access
38. ____ is the process of determining whether an authenticated user or process has enough rights to access a resource. a. Access b. Accounting c. Authorization d. Authentication
39. In accounting, ____ is the process of examining records to determine whether generally accepted accounting principles were applied correctly in preparing financial reports. a. Access b. auditing c. monitoring d. certifying
40. In computers, a ____ is a program or program fragment that infects a computer by installing itself permanently, usually in a hard-to-find location. a. log b. packet c. packet d. virus
41. A ____ is stored in a stand-alone executable program, is usually sent as an e-mail attachment and runs automatically when the attachment is opened. a. Trojan b. worm c. macro d. signature
42. ____ can perform many malicious acts, including damaging or destroying important files, opening backdoors for potential hackers, and sending sensitive information to others. a. Viruses b. Signatures c. Logs d. Infectors
43. Antivirus software uses data files, sometimes called “____,” containing information about known viruses. a. behaviors b. heuristics c. signature files d. packets
44. The simplest firewall type is a(n) ____ firewall, which examines each packet and matches header content to a list of allowed or denied packet types. a. packet-filtering b. stateful c. application d. inspecting
45. A(n) ____ is a server that handles service requests from external users of applications. a. packet-filtering firewall b. proxy c. stateful firewall d. application firewall
46. A(n) ____ tracks the progress of complex client/server interactions. a. application firewall b. stateful firewall c. packet-filtering firewall d. proxy
47. ____ can be seen in the home when air conditioners, refrigerators, and electric dryers are started and cause a momentary dimming of lights. a. Power sags b. Power spikes c. Power loops d. Power blocks
48. A(n) longer-term power sag that is often caused by the power provider is known as a ____. a. blackout b. grayout c. brownout d. green down
49. A(n) ____ is a device that provides power to attached devices in the event of external power failure. a. generator b. uninterruptible power supply c. power filter d. rectifier
50. In general, the humidity level of a room containing computer equipment should be near ____%. a. 15 b. 25 c. 40 d. 50
51. A(n) ____________________ is defined as a set of long-range goals and a plan to attain these goals.
52. ____________________ expenditures provide benefits only in the current fiscal year.
53. Capital resources are referred to as ____________________.
54. Providing infrastructure-based services to a wide variety of users requires adopting service ____________________.
55. The term ____________________ refers to execution speed.
56. An RFP is generally considered a(n) ____________________ offer.
57. A vendor’s response to an RFP is a(n) ____________________ of the offer.
58. Requirements in an RFP should be categorized by ____________________ and listed completely.
59. Information systems are a combination of hardware, system software, and ____________________ software.
60. The ____________________ model describes a computer’s capability to deliver resources to application software.
61. A(n) ____________________ monitor is a device attached directly to the communication link between two hardware devices, often used to monitor the use of communication channels, disk drives, and network traffic.
62. A(n) ____________________ monitors a specific performance or resource utilization aspect of an object.
63. ____________________ authentication methods are sometimes used instead of password-based authentication.
64. Until recently, applying patches and upgrades was a(n) ____________________ process.
65. In computer security, a(n) ____________________ is a hardware device, software, or a combination of hardware and software that prevents unauthorized users in one network from accessing resources on another network.
66. A(n) ____________________ detects incoming power surges and diverts them to ground in nanoseconds.
67. Protection against power loss requires a(n) ____________________ power source.
68. Excessive heat can cause intermittent or total failure of electrical circuits, so all computer equipment needs some means of heat ____________________.
69. Hardware must also be protected against ____________________ resulting from excessive humidity.
70. Low humidity levels increase the buildup of ____________________ electricity, which increases the likelihood of circuit damage caused by inadvertent static discharges.
71. List the three broad categories in which a typical information system (IS) administrator’s tasks may be grouped.
72. What, at a minimum, should goals for a strategic plan include?
73. List three common capabilities of antivirus software.
74. Why is a raised floor often used in a room with multiple computer hardware cabinets?
75. Discuss why disaster planning is important and what measures are normally taken.
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