Sample Chapter

Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney – Test Bank


Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition


An.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level


Multiple Choice


Questions for Section 1.0 Introduction


c      3(K)                        01.  Features of a chronic disease include all of the following except

  1. it develops slowly.
  2. it lasts a long time.
  3. it produces sharp pains.
  4. it progresses gradually.


b      3(K)                        02.  Characteristics of an acute disease include all of the following except

  1. it develops quickly.
  2. it progresses slowly.
  3. it runs a short course.
  4. it causes sharp symptoms.


Questions for Section 1.1 Food Choices


b      3(K)                        03.  What is the chief reason people choose the foods they eat?

  1. Cost
  2. Taste
  3. Convenience
  4. Nutritional value


d      3-5(A)                    04.  All of the following are results of making poor food choices except

  1. over the long term, they will reduce lifespan in some people.
  2. they can promote heart disease and cancer over the long term.
  3. over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people.
  4.              when made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health.


d      4(A)                        05.  A child who developed a strong dislike of noodle soup after consuming some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

  1. habit.
  2. social interaction.
  3. emotional turmoil.
  4. negative association.


c      4(A)                        06.  A parent who offers a child a favorite snack as a reward for good behavior is displaying a food behavior known as

  1. social interaction.
  2. reverse psychology.
  3. positive association.
  4. habitual reinforcement.


a      4(A)                        07.  A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day would be displaying a food choice most likely based on

  1. habit.
  2. availability.
  3. body image.
  4. environmental concerns.


d      4(A)                        08.  Which of the following represents a food choice based on negative association?

  1. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity
  2. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty
  3. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend
  4. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he deems it a child’s food


a      4(A)                        09.  The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely his

  1. values.
  2. body image.
  3. ethnic heritage.
  4. functional association.


c      4(A)                        10.  A person viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness would be displaying a food choice behavior most likely based on

  1. habit.
  2. availability.
  3. emotional comfort.
  4. positive association.


d      4(K)                        11.  Excluding fast-food establishments, approximately what percentage of restaurants in the United States show an ethnic emphasis?

  1. 15
  2. 30
  3. 45
  4. 60


d      5(K)                        12.  Terms that describe a food that provides health benefits beyond its nutrient contribution include all of the following except

  1. neutraceutical.
  2. designer food.
  3. functional food.
  4. phytonutritional food.


c      5(K)                        13.  What is the term that defines foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food’s nutrients?

  1. Fortified foods
  2. Enriched foods
  3. Functional foods
  4. Health enhancing foods


c      5(K)                        14.  Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that show biological activity in the body are commonly known as

  1. folionutrients.
  2. inorganic fibers.
  3. phytochemicals.
  4.              phyllochemicals.


Questions for Section 1.2 The Nutrients


a      6(A)                        15.  The complete lining of a person’s digestive tract is renewed approximately every

  1. 3-5 days.
  2. 3 weeks.
  3. 1-2 months.
  4. 6-12 months.


b      6(K)                        16.  By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?

  1. Fats
  2. Water
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


d      7(A)                        17.  Approximately how much water (lbs) would be found in a 120-lb person?

  1. 12
  2. 24
  3. 36
  4. 72


a      7(K)                        18.  Which of the following is not one of the six classes of nutrients?

  1. Fiber
  2. Protein
  3. Minerals
  4. Vitamins


d      7(A)                        19.  A nutrient needed by the body and that must be supplied by foods is termed a(n)

  1. neutraceutical.
  2. metabolic unit.
  3. organic nutrient.
  4. essential nutrient.


c      7(A)                        20.  All of the following are classified as macronutrients except

  1. fat.
  2. protein.
  3. calcium.
  4. carbohydrate.


a      7(A)                        21.  Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?

  1. Protein
  2. Calcium
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D


a      7(A)                        22.  Which of the following is classified as a micronutrient?

  1. Iron
  2. Protein
  3. Alcohol
  4. Carbohydrate


d      7(A)                        23.  Which of the following is an organic compound?

  1. Salt
  2. Water
  3. Calcium
  4. Vitamin C


c      7(A)                        24.  An essential nutrient is one that cannot be

  1. found in food.
  2. degraded by the body.
  3. made in sufficient quantities by the body.
  4. used to synthesize other compounds in the body.


d      7(A)                        25.  Which of the following most accurately describes the term organic?

  1. Products sold at health food stores
  2. Products grown without use of pesticides
  3. Foods having superior nutrient qualities
  4. Substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds


a      7(A)                        26.  Which of the following is an organic nutrient?

  1. Fat
  2. Water
  3. Oxygen
  4. Calcium


c      7(K)                        27.  Approximately how many nutrients are considered indispensable in the diet?

  1. 15
  2. 25
  3. 40
  4. 55


d      7(A)                        28.  Which of the following cannot add fat to the body?

  1. Alcohol
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Inorganic nutrients


c      7(A)                        29.  Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient?

  1. Fat
  2. Protein
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Carbohydrate


c      7(K)                        30.  Which of the following nutrients does not yield energy during its metabolism?

  1. Fat
  2. Proteins
  3. Vitamins
  4. Carbohydrates


b      7(A)                        31.  How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1° C?

  1. 10 calories
  2. 1 kilocalorie
  3. 10,000 calories
  4. 1000 kilocalories


a      7(K)                        32.  Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy?

  1. Fats
  2. Alcohol
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


a      8(K)                        33.  Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in

  1. kilojoules.
  2. kilograms.
  3. kilometers.
  4. kilonewtons.


c      8(K)                        34.  International units of energy are expressed in

  1. newtons.
  2. calories.
  3. kilojoules.
  4. kilocalories.


c      8(K)                        35.  Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk?

  1. 50
  2. 85
  3. 120
  4. 200


c      8(K)                        36.  A normal half-cup vegetable serving weighs approximately how many grams?

  1. 5
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 200


c      8(A)                        37.  A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?

  1. 8.5
  2. 15
  3. 19
  4. 25.5


a      8(A)                        38.  A diet provides a total of 2200 kcalories, of which 40% of the energy is from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbohydrate are contained in the diet?

  1. 220
  2. 285
  3. 440
  4. 880


d      8(A)                        39.  What is the kcalorie value of a meal supplying 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?

  1. 160
  2. 345
  3. 560
  4. 755


a      9(A)                        40.  Which of the following nutrient sources yields more than 4 kcalories per gram?

  1. Plant fats
  2. Plant proteins
  3. Animal proteins
  4. Plant carbohydrates


a      9(A)                        41.  Which of the following is a result of the metabolism of energy nutrients?

  1. Energy is released
  2. Body fat increases
  3. Energy is destroyed
  4. Body water decreases


c      9(A)                        42.  Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of most foods?

  1. They contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them
  2. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients, except for high-fat foods
  3. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate
  4. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, although there are numerous other foods that contain only one


b      9(K)                        43.  In the body, the chemical energy in food can be converted to any of the following except

  1. heat energy.
  2. light energy.
  3. electrical energy.
  4. mechanical energy.


d      10(K)                      44.  When consumed in excess, all of the following can be converted to body fat and stored except

  1. sugar.
  2. corn oil.
  3. alcohol.
  4. vitamin C.


d      10(K)                      45.  How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 13


b      10-11(K)                46.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of the vitamins?

  1. Essential
  2. Inorganic
  3. Destructible
  4. kCalorie-free


c      11(K)                      47.  Which of the following is a feature of the minerals as nutrients?

  1. They are organic
  2. They yield 4 kcalories per gram
  3. Some become dissolved in body fluids
  4. Some may be destroyed during cooking


c      11(K)                      48.  How many minerals are known to be required in the diet of human beings?

  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 24


b      11(A)                      49.  Which of the following is not a characteristic of the minerals?

  1. Yield no energy
  2. Unstable to light
  3. Stable in cooked foods
  4. Structurally smaller than vitamins


b      11(A)                      50.  Overcooking a food is least likely to affect which of the following groups of nutrients?

  1. Vitamins
  2. Minerals
  3. Proteins
  4. Carbohydrates


Questions for Section 1.3 The Science of Nutrition


a      12(A)                      51.  Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and stated that she felt a lot better. Her experience is best described as a(n)

  1. anecdote.
  2. blind experiment.
  3. nutritional genomic.
  4. case-control experience.


b      12(A)                      52.  The study of how a person’s genes interact with nutrients is termed

  1. genetic counseling.
  2. nutritional genomics.
  3. genetic metabolomics.
  4. nutritional nucleic acid pool.


b      12(K)                      53.  What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment?

  1. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment
  2. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group
  3. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know
  4. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know


c      12(K)                      54.  In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called the

  1. theory.
  2. prediction.
  3. hypothesis.
  4. correlation.


c      13(K)                      55.  Among the following, which is the major weakness of a laboratory-based study?

  1. The costs are usually high
  2. It is difficult to replicate the findings
  3. The results cannot be applied to human beings
  4. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled


d      13(A)                      56.  What is the benefit of using controls in an experiment?

  1. The size of the groups can be very large
  2. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment
  3. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos
  4. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested


a      13(A)                      57.  What is the benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment?

  1. Chance variation is ruled out
  2. There will be no placebo effect
  3. The experiment will be double-blind
  4. The control group will be similar to the experimental group


c      13(K)                      58.  A clinical trial must involve

  1. tissue cells in culture.
  2. rats or mice as subjects.
  3. human beings as subjects.
  4. computer modeling to design the study.


b      13;15(A)                59.  What is the benefit of using placebos in an experiment?

  1. All subjects are similar
  2. All subjects receive a treatment
  3. Neither subjects nor researchers know who is receiving treatment
  4. One group of subjects receives a treatment and the other group receives nothing


b      14(K)                      60.  In nutrition research, observations of the quantities and types of foods eaten by groups of people and the health status of those groups are known as

  1. case-control studies.
  2. epidemiological studies.
  3. human intervention trials.
  4. correlation-control studies.


d      15(A)                      61.  You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have done differently?

  1. Given all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and told them what they were getting
  2. Distributed the bottles randomly, randomized the subjects, and told them what they were getting
  3. Told the subjects which group they were in, and prevented yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles
  4. Prevented yourself from knowing what was in the pill bottles, and distributed the bottles randomly to the subjects


b      15(A)                      62.  Overeating and gaining body weight is an example of a

  1. variable effect.
  2. positive correlation.
  3. negative correlation.
  4. randomization effect.


c      15(A)                      63.  An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a

  1. variable effect.
  2. positive correlation.
  3. negative correlation.
  4. randomization effect.


a      16(A)                      64.  Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field according to a process known as

  1. peer review.
  2. cohort review.
  3. intervention examination.
  4. double-blind examination.


Questions for Section 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes


d      17(K)                      65.  All of the following sets of values are included in the Dietary Reference Intakes except

  1. AI.
  2. RDA.
  3. EAR.
  4. LUT.


b      17(K)                      66.  Which of the following is not a set of values within the Dietary Reference Intakes?

  1. Adequate Intakes
  2. Estimated Average Allowances
  3. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels
  4. Recommended Dietary Allowances


b      17(K)                      67.  The smallest amount of a nutrient that is consumed over a prolonged period that maintains a specific function is called the nutrient

  1. allowance.
  2. requirement.
  3. tolerable limit.
  4. adequate intake.


c      17-18(A)                68.  If a group of people consumed an amount of protein equal to the average requirement for their population group, what percentage would receive insufficient amounts?

  1. 2
  2. 33
  3. 50
  4. 98


d      18(A)                      69.  A health magazine contacted you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. Your reply should be:

  1. The Dietary Reference Intakes because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada.
  2. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people.
  3. The Estimated Average Requirements because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population.
  4. The Recommended Dietary Allowances because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people.


b      18(A)                      70.  Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to

  1. measure nutrient balance of population groups.
  2. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals.
  3. treat persons with diet-related illnesses.
  4. calculate exact food requirements for most individuals.


d      18(K)                      71.  Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the

  1. Lower Tolerable Limit.
  2. Upper Tolerable Limit.
  3. Subclinical Deficiency Value.
  4. Estimated Average Requirement.


d      18(K)                      72.  The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is termed the

  1. Adequate Intake.
  2. Daily Recommended Value.
  3. Tolerable Upper Intake Level.
  4. Recommended Dietary Allowance.


c      18(K)                      73.  The RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally

  1. more than twice as high as anyone needs.
  2. the minimum amounts that average people need.
  3. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people.
  4. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population.


b      18(K)                      74.  How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set?

  1. Low, to reduce the risk of toxicity
  2. High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals
  3. Extremely high, to cover every single person
  4. At the mean, to cover most healthy individuals


c      18-19(K)                75.  Which of the following is not a feature of the Adequate Intake (AI) and the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?

  1. Both values exceed the average requirements
  2. AI values are more tentative than RDA values
  3. The percentage of people covered is known for both values
  4. Both values may serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals


d      18-19(K)                76.  All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI except

  1. both are included in the DRI.
  2. both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals.
  3. neither covers 100% of the population’s nutrient needs.
  4. neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.


a      18-19(K)                77.  Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

  1. Setting nutrient goals for individuals
  2. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients
  3. Restoring health of malnourished individuals
  4. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren


a      19(A)                      78.  Bob consumes about 2500 kcalories per day, which is apportioned as 150 g of fat, 140 g of carbohydrate, and 150 g of protein. What would be the appropriate revisions to help Bob adjust his nutrient intake so that it matches the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges?

  1. 70 g fat, 156 g protein, 313 g carbohydrate
  2. 140 g fat, 150 g protein, 150 g carbohydrate
  3. 500 g fat, 750 g protein, 1250 g carbohydrate
  4. 10 g fat, 20 g protein, 45 g carbohydrate


d      19(A)                      79.  Which of the following represents a rationale for setting the recommendation for energy?

  1. Because protein is an energy nutrient, the figures for energy intake are set in proportion to protein intake
  2. Because a large number of people are overweight, the figures are set to induce a gradual weight loss in most individuals
  3. Because the energy needs within each population group show little variation, the figures are set to meet the needs of almost all individuals
  4. Because a margin of safety would result in excess energy intake for a large number of people, the figures are set at the average energy intake


d      19(K)                      80.  What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?

  1. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food
  2. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI
  3. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form
  4. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people


a      19(K)                      81.  What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance?

  1. Estimated Energy Requirement
  2. Adequate Average Requirement
  3. Recommended Dietary Allowance
  4. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range


d      19(K)                      82.  The percentage of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are termed the

  1. Estimated Energy Requirements.
  2. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes.
  3. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations.
  4. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges.


d      19(K)                      83.  What is the AMDR for carbohydrate?

  1. 5-10%
  2. 15-25%
  3. 30-40%
  4. 45-65%


b      19(A)                      84.  Which of the following figures falls within the carbohydrate range of the AMDR?

  1. 35%
  2. 50%
  3. 70%
  4. 90%


a      19(K)                      85.  What is the AMDR for protein?

  1. 10-35%
  2. 40-45%
  3. 50-65%
  4. 70-85%


c      19(A)                      86.  What is the upper range of fat intake in the AMDR?

  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 35%
  4. 50%


b      19(K)                      87.  What is the AMDR for fat?

  1. 10-30%
  2. 20-35%
  3. 40-55%
  4. 60-75%


d      19(A)                      88.  If a person consumed the upper AMDR limit for protein as part of a diet containing 2500 kcalories, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested?

  1. 41
  2. 63
  3. 135
  4. 219


a      19(K)                      89.  What is the weight (lbs) of the “reference” adult male?

  1. 154
  2. 165
  3. 172
  4. 179


b      19(K)                      90.  What is the weight (lbs) of the “reference” adult female?

  1. 110
  2. 126
  3. 132
  4. 139


a      20(K)                      91.  All of the following describe features for application of the recommended nutrient intakes except

  1. the recommendations also apply to sick people.
  2. the recommendations are designed to be met through intake of foods and not supplements.
  3. it is difficult and unnecessary to meet the recommended intakes for all nutrients each day.
  4. the recommendations are neither minimum requirements nor necessarily optimal intakes for everybody.


c      20(K)                      92.  The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to

  1. treat people with diet-related disorders.
  2. assess adequacy of all required nutrients.
  3. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people.
  4. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals.


Questions for Section 1.5 Nutrition Assessment


a      21(K)                      93.  Which of the following is used to detect nutrient deficiencies?

  1. Assessment techniques
  2. Nutrient stages identification
  3. Overt symptoms identification
  4. Outward manifestations assessment


d      21-23(A)                94.  As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which of the following are the most useful parameters for the nutrition assessment of individuals?

  1. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, favorite family recipes
  2. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, family tree
  3. Diet record that includes what the patient usually eats, which will provide sufficient information
  4. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, laboratory tests


a      22(K)                      95.  Which of the following is an anthropometric measure?

  1. Body weight
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Blood iron level
  4. Food intake information


d      22-23(K)                96.  Inspection of hair, eyes, skin, and posture is part of the nutrition assessment component known as

  1. diet history.
  2. anthropometrics.
  3. biochemical testing.
  4. physical examination.


b      23(K)                      97.  Which of the following is used to determine the presence of abnormal functions inside the body due to a nutrient deficiency?

  1. Diet history
  2. Laboratory tests
  3. Body weight loss
  4. Physical examination


a      23(K)                      98.  Which of the following represents the usual sequence of stages in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake?

  1. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs
  2. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs
  3. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores
  4. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body


a      23(A)                      99.  Which of the following would most likely lead to a primary nutrient deficiency?

  1. Inadequate nutrient intake
  2. Reduced nutrient absorption
  3. Increased nutrient excretion
  4. Increased nutrient destruction


c      23(K)                    100.  What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?

  1. Primary
  2. Clinical
  3. Secondary
  4. Subclinical


b      23(A)                    101.  A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that

  1. shows overt signs.
  2. is in the early stages.
  3. shows resistance to treatment.
  4. is similar to a secondary deficiency.


b      23(K)                    102.  Which of the following is an overt symptom of iron deficiency?

  1. Anemia
  2. Headaches
  3. Skin dryness
  4. Decreased red blood cell count


a      23(K)                    103.  To identify early-stage malnutrition, a health professional would use which of the following parameters?

  1. Laboratory tests
  2. Anthropometric data
  3. Physical exam results
  4. Review dietary intake data


d      23(K)                    104.  What entity coordinates nutrition-related activities of federal agencies?

  1. U.S. Public Health Service
  2. Food and Drug Administration
  3. Dietary Reference Intakes committee
  4. The National Nutrition Monitoring program


d      24(K)                    105   The goal of Healthy People is to

  1. establish the DRI.
  2. identify national trends in food consumption.
  3. identify leading causes of death in the United States
  4. set goals for the nation’s health over the next 10 years.


c      24(K)                    106.  Which of the following does not describe a national trend in eating habits of Americans?

  1. We eat larger portions
  2. We snack more frequently
  3. We eat more high-fiber foods
  4. We eat more meals away from home


Questions for Section 1.6 Diet and Health


c      25(K)                    107.  The most common causes of death today in the United States include all of the following except

  1. cancer.
  2. diabetes.
  3. tuberculosis.
  4. heart disease.


b      25(K)                    108.  Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?

  1. 1
  2. 4
  3. 7
  4. 10


d      25(K)                    109.  Which of the following leading causes of death in the U.S. does not bear a relationship to diet?

  1. Cancer
  2. Heart disease
  3. Diabetes mellitus
  4. Pneumonia and influenza


a      25(K)                    110.  Factors known to be related to a disease but not proven to be causal are called

  1. risk factors.
  2. genetic factors.
  3. degenerative factors.
  4. environmental factors.


c      25-26(K)              111.  Which of the following statements defines the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease?

  1. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease
  2. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease
  3. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease
  4. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases


c      26(K)                    112.  Which of the following factors makes the greatest contribution to deaths in the United States?

  1. Guns
  2. Alcohol
  3. Tobacco
  4. Automobiles


b      26(K)                    113.  What behavior is the major cause of death in the United States?

  1. Poor diet
  2. Tobacco use
  3. Alcohol intake
  4. Sexual activity


Questions for Section 1.7 Nutrition Information and Misinformation—On the Net and in the News


c      28(A)                    114.  Who would be the most appropriate person to consult regarding nutrition information?

  1. Chiropractor
  2. Medical doctor
  3. Registered dietitian
  4. Health food store manager


b      30(K)                    115.  All of the following are minimum requirements for becoming a registered dietitian except

  1. earning an undergraduate degree.
  2. completing up to a three-week clinical internship or the equivalent.
  3. completing approximately 60 semester hours in nutrition and food science.
  4. passing a national examination administered by the American Dietetic Association.


c      30-31(K)              116.  Which of the following describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public?

  1. The title “dietitian” can be used by anyone in all states
  2. The title “nutritionist” can be used by anyone in all states
  3. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states
  4. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is mandatory in all states


c      30-31(K)              117.  Which of the following individuals is most likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training?

  1. Dietetic Technician
  2. Registered Dietician
  3. Certified Nutritionist
  4. Dietetic Technician, Registered


b      30-31(K)              118.  For which of the following titles, by definition, must the individual be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the American Dietetic Association?

  1. Medical Doctor
  2. Registered Dietician
  3. Certified Nutritionist
  4. Certified Nutrition Therapist


a      30-31(K)              119.  Which of the following best describes a college-educated nutrition and food specialist who is qualified to make evaluations of the nutritional health of people?

  1. Registered dietitian
  2. Licensed nutritionist
  3. Master of nutrient utilization
  4. Doctor of food and nutritional sciences


c      31(A)                    120.  A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of

  1. dietetic assistant.
  2. nutrition assistant.
  3. dietetic technician.
  4. nutrition technician.


a      32(K)                    121.  All of the following are recognized, credible sources of nutrition information except

  1. Who’s Who in Nutrition.
  2. the Food and Drug Administration.
  3. the American Dietetic Association.
  4. the United States Department of Agriculture.Chapter 3 – Digestion, Absorption, and TransportAn.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level 

    Multiple Choice


    Questions for Section 3.1 Digestion


    a      69(K)                      01.  The process by which food is broken down into absorbable components is called

    1. digestion.
    2. absorption.
    3. intestinalis.
    4. mastication.


    a      70(K)                      02.  What is mastication?

    1. The act of chewing
    2. The act of swallowing
    3. The wave-like contraction of the intestines
    4. The wave-like contraction of the esophagus


    c      70(K)                      03.  What is the lumen of the GI tract?

    1. The epiglottis
    2. The capillaries
    3. The inner space
    4. The mucosal surface


    a      70(K)                      04.  In what organ does the digestion process begin?

    1. Mouth
    2. Stomach
    3. Duodenum
    4. Jejunum-ileum


    a      70(K)                      05.  What is umami?

    1. The flavor of monosodium glutamate
    2. The opening between the duodenum and jejunum
    3. The intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes fish proteins
    4. An intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes dietary nucleic acids


    d      70(K)                      06.  About how many more times sensitive is the sense of smell compared with the sense of taste?

    1. 2
    2. 10
    3. 100s
    4. 1,000s


    a      70(K)                      07.  Which of the following is not considered one of the basic taste sensations?

    1. Hot
    2. Sour
    3. Salty
    4. Bitter


    b      70(A)                      08.  The food flavor enhancer monosodium glutamate is believed by some scientists to promote a unique taste sensation known as

    1. sushi.
    2. umami.
    3. chymos.
    4. sashimi.


    c      70(K)                      09.  Which of the following describes the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract?

    1. A vat-like vessel
    2. A rigid, solid tunnel
    3. A flexible muscular tube
    4. A firm, duct-like channel


    c      70-71(K)                10.  Which of the following is not a sphincter muscle?

    1. Anus
    2. Cardiac
    3. Duodenum
    4. Ileocecal valve


    a      70-71(K)                11.  Where is the epiglottis located?

    1. Throat
    2. Bile duct
    3. Pancreatic duct
    4. Lower esophagus


    b      70;71(A)                12.  What part of the GI tract prevents a person from choking while swallowing?

    1. Mouth
    2. Epiglottis
    3. Pyloric sphincter
    4. Upper esophageal sphincter


    b      70;71(K)                13.  What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea?

    1. Tongue
    2. Epiglottis
    3. Cardiac sphincter
    4. Trachea sphincter


    b      70;71(K)                14.  Which of the following is a characteristic of the appendix?

    1. It ferments fiber
    2. It stores lymph cells
    3. It slows down peristalsis
    4. It stores preformed stools


    b      71(K)                      15.  What is a bolus?

    1. Enzyme that hydrolyzes starch
    2. Portion of food swallowed at one time
    3. Device used to analyze the contents of the stomach
    4. Sphincter muscle separating the stomach from the small intestine


    c      71(K)                      16.  A bolus is conducted past the diaphragm through the

    1. epiglottis.
    2. stomach.
    3. esophagus.
    4. large intestine.


    c      72(K)                      17.  What is one function of the pyloric sphincter?

    1. Secretes acid into the stomach
    2. Secretes hormones into the stomach
    3. Prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach
    4. Prevents the contents of the small intestine from emptying too quickly into the colon


    b      72(K)                      18.  What structure controls the passage of material from the small intestine to the large intestine?

    1. Pyloric valve
    2. Ileocecal valve
    3. Colonic sphincter
    4. Jejunal sphincter


    d      72(K)                      19.  Into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty?

    1. Ileum
    2. Cecum
    3. Jejunum
    4. Duodenum


    c      72(A)                      20.  After swallowing, in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract?

    1. Jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum, rectum
    2. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, rectum, colon
    3. Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon
    4. Stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum


    b      72(K)                      21.  Which of the following is a description of chyme?

    1. The semisolid mass of undigested food which passes through the ileocecal valve
    2. A semiliquid mass of partially digested food released by the stomach into the small intestine
    3. The mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion of the macronutrients
    4. A thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices


    c      72(K)                      22.  What is the primary function of the rectum?

    1. Controls functioning of the colon
    2. Absorbs minerals from waste materials
    3. Stores waste materials prior to evacuation
    4. Absorbs excess water from waste materials


    a      72(K)                      23.  What is the name given to partially digested food in the stomach?

    1. Chyme
    2. Liquid food
    3. Gastric mucus
    4. Semiliquid mass


    b      72(K)                      24.  What structure separates the colon from the small intestine?

    1. Pylorus
    2. Ileocecal valve
    3. Gastric retainer
    4. Rectal sphincter


    d      72(A)                      25.  Which of the following is a feature of peristalsis?

    1. It remains quiet between meals when the GI tract is empty
    2. It occurs along the GI tract at a constant rate when food is present
    3. It involves parallel and circular muscles found in the walls of the intestines but not the stomach
    4. It consists of wavelike muscular contractions resulting from alternate tightening and relaxing of circular muscles and longitudinal muscles


    b      72(K)                      26.  What structure controls the release of material from the stomach to the small intestine?

    1. Ileocecal valve
    2. Pyloric sphincter
    3. Diaphragmatic valve
    4. Esophageal sphincter


    b      72(K)                      27.  What is meant by the term “motility” in reference to the GI tract?

    1. The efficiency of lymph transport
    2. The ability of the GI tract muscles to move
    3. The speed of gastric digestive juice release
    4. The speed of pancreatic digestive juice release


    b      73(K)                      28.  During the process of digestion, at what point does the stomach begin to release chyme?

    1. When the fluid to solid ratio is 3 to 1
    2. When the chyme is liquefied
    3. Within 15 minutes of gastrin release
    4. Within 5 to 10 minutes of starting a meal


    a      73(K)                      29.  Among the GI tract organs, which has the strongest muscles?

    1. Stomach
    2. Small intestine
    3. Large intestine
    4. Cardiac sphincter


    d      73-74(K)                30.  Which of the following is a feature of the muscular actions of digestion?

    1. Peristalsis begins first in the stomach upon the initiation of the swallowing reflex
    2. The colon has the thickest and strongest muscles of the GI organs to withstand the pressure of stool evacuation
    3. The jejunum has a third layer of diagonal muscles to enhance contraction and relaxation phases for enhanced digestion
    4. Segmentation in the intestines allows periodic squeezing along its length, resulting in momentary reversal of the movement of intestinal contents


    d      74(K)                      31.  Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles?

    1. Control peristalsis
    2. Grind large food particles
    3. Secrete digestive juices into the GI tract
    4. Control the passage of food through the GI tract


    b      74(K)                      32.  The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as the

    1. reflux restrainer.
    2. cardiac sphincter.
    3. perihepatic control valve.
    4. reverse peristalsis inhibitor.


    b      74(K)                      33.  What is reflux?

    1. Hard, dry, stools
    2. Backward flow of chyme
    3. Soft, poorly formed stools
    4. The mixture of bile and pancreatic juice


    c      74(A)                      34.  What types of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the proteins in foods?

    1. Lipases
    2. Salivases
    3. Proteases
    4. Carbohydrases


    c      74-75(K)                35.  All of the following are characteristics of the process of digestion except

    1. salivary glands contribute little to digestion.
    2. the pyloric sphincter opens about 3 times a minute.
    3. saliva contains enzymes that digest sugars, fats, and proteins.
    4. the liver and pancreas contribute essential fluids to the digestive process.


    d      75(K)                      36.  What is the function of mucus in the stomach?

    1. Emulsifies fats
    2. Neutralizes stomach acid
    3. Activates pepsinogen to pepsin
    4. Protects stomach cells from gastric juices


    d      75(K)                      37.  What is a function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

    1. Absorbs water
    2. Inhibits peristalsis
    3. Neutralizes the food mass
    4. Creates an optimum acidity


    a      75(K)                      38.  Which of the following best describes the normal pH of the stomach?

    1. Very acidic
    2. Slightly acidic
    3. Neutral
    4. Slightly alkaline


    d      75(A)                      39.  Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach?

    1. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown
    2. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional
    3. Starch should not be eaten with protein
    4. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment


    a      75(A)                      40.  What is the fate of any enzymes that are present in the foods we eat?

    1. Hydrolyzed in the GI tract
    2. Absorbed intact by the stomach
    3. Absorbed intact by the small intestine
    4. Passed through the GI tract and excreted in the stool


    b      75(K)                      41.  What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices?

    1. Water
    2. Mucus
    3. Pepsinogen
    4. Dietary fats


    b      75(K)                      42.  Important functions of hydrochloric acid in digestion/absorption include all the following except

    1. it kills bacteria.
    2. it activates pancreatic lipase.
    3. it activates a proteolytic enzyme.
    4. it promotes hydrolysis of dietary protein.


    c      75(K)                      43.  Which part of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices?

    1. Colon
    2. Ileum
    3. Stomach
    4. Duodenum


    a      75(K)                      44.  The usual pH of gastric juice is approximately

    1. 2.
    2. 4.
    3. 6.
    4. 7.


    d      75(K)                      45.  What is an important function of mucus?

    1. Helps solubilize bile
    2. Stabilizes pancreatic enzymes
    3. Enhances absorption of vitamin B12
    4. Protects the stomach walls from digestion


    a      75(A)                      46.  After chewing and swallowing a portion of food, what becomes of the salivary amylase in the stomach?

    1. It is inactivated by gastric juice
    2. It continues to hydrolyze starches
    3. It binds to pepsin and catalyzes proteolytic activity
    4. It passes into the duodenum where the alkaline pH stimulates carbohydrase activity


    d      75(A)                      47.  Your cousin Miguel is extolling the virtues of his new dietary supplement. He says that it contains enzymes that will make him healthier, and he asks for your opinion. You assure him that the enzymes

    1. will increase the digestibility of the foods he eats.
    2. could likely interfere with the enzymes secreted by his pancreas.
    3. could likely overload his gastrointestinal tract and lead to diarrhea.
    4. are proteins and proteins are destroyed in the gastrointestinal tract.


    a      75-76(K)                48.  Which of the following body organs does not secrete digestive enzymes?

    1. Liver
    2. Stomach
    3. Pancreas
    4. Salivary glands


    b      75;76(K)                49.  The process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as

    1. condensation.
    2. emulsification.
    3. enzymification.
    4. phosphorylation.


    c      76(A)                      50.  A solution with a pH of 7 is how many times more alkaline than one with a pH of 6?

    1. 1
    2. 5
    3.              10
    4. 100


    a      76(K)                      51.  The purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to

    1. raise the pH of chyme.
    2. lower the pH of chyme.
    3. hydrolyze large peptides.
    4. provide a little fizz in your life.


    d      76(A)                      52   After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the small intestine, which of the following describes the pH of the resulting mixture?

    1. Very acidic
    2. Moderately acidic
    3. Strongly alkaline
    4. Approximately neutral


    b      76(K)                      53.  Which of the following would not be acted upon by pancreatic juice secreted into the intestinal tract?

    1. Fats
    2. Fiber
    3. Proteins
    4. Carbohydrates


    a      76(K)                      54.  Which of the following is not a component of pancreatic juice?

    1. Bile
    2. Water
    3. Lipase
    4. Sodium bicarbonate


    c      76(K)                      55.  The colonic fermentation of certain fibers produces all of the following except

    1. gas.
    2. water.
    3. secretin.
    4. small fat fragments.


    a      76(K)                      56.  What is one function of the gallbladder?

    1. Stores bile
    2. Produces bile
    3. Reabsorbs water and salts
    4. Performs enzymatic digestion


    c      76(K)                      57.  An example of an important function of the colon would be its absorption of

    1. bile.
    2. fats.
    3. salts.
    4. hormones.


    c      76(K)                      58.  Which of the following is not a typical component of stools?

    1. Water
    2. Fiber
    3. Starch
    4. Bacteria


    c      76(K)                      59.  Which of the following classes of nutrients requires the least amount of digestion?

    1. Lipids
    2. Proteins
    3. Vitamins
    4. Carbohydrates


    b      76(A)                      60.  Which of the following nutrients requires the least amount of digestion?

    1. Starch
    2. Calcium
    3. Animal fats
    4. Animal proteins


    b      76(K)                      61.  Which of the following is a significant property of dietary fiber?

    1. Inhibits protease activity
    2.              Promotes water retention of stools
    3. Inhibits large intestinal contractions
    4. Promotes vitamin excretion in stools


    b      76(K)                      62.  Which of the following is generally not digested but does stimulate intestinal muscle contractions?

    1. Bile
    2. Fiber
    3. Starch
    4. Amylase


    a      76(K)                      63.  What is the function of bile?

    1. Emulsifies fats
    2. Initiates digestion of protein
    3. Enhances absorption of complex carbohydrates
    4. Protects the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid


    Questions for Section 3.2 Absorption


    b      78(K)                      64.  Which of the following is an important function of the intestinal villi crypts?

    1. Synthesis of chylomicrons
    2. Secretion of juices into the small intestine
    3. Synthesis of fragments of fat for use by the colon
    4. Transport of fat-soluble nutrients into the circulation


    a      78(K)                      65.  What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine?

    1. Villi
    2. Cilia
    3. Mesenteric vessels
    4. Vascular projectiles


    c      78(K)                      66.  Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli?

    1. Secretion of bile salts
    2. Secretion of digestive acid
    3. Transport of nutrient molecules
    4. Transport of pancreatic enzymes


    c      78(K)                      67.  What is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

    1. Crypt
    2. Villus
    3. Microvillus
    4. Macrovillus


    c      78(K)                      68.  Which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutrients into the final products of digestion?

    1. Mucus
    2. Micelles
    3. Enzymes
    4. Hormones


    b      78(K)                      69.  Absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells occurs by all of the following mechanisms except

    1. diffusion.
    2. transmigration.

    c              active transport.

    1. facilitated diffusion.


    c      78-79(A)                70.  After sitting through a two-hour lecture in math, your stomach is growling. You have just learned about surface area and its role in mathematics. Your classmate points out that surface area is also an integral part of the absorption of nutrients

    1. due to the makeup of the gastric mucosa.
    2. due to the relatively large size of food protein molecules.
    3. through the presence of the enormous number of villi and microvilli.
    4. resulting from the large size of pancreatic enzymes on which nutrients become digested.


    b      80(A)                      71.  To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to

    1. eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed.
    2. combine different food types to enhance the absorption process.
    3. avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition.
    4. take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate.


    a      80(A)                      72.  When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them?

    1. Liver
    2. Heart
    3. Lungs
    4. Kidneys


    a      80(K)                      73.  Which of the following products of digestion is not normally released directly into the bloodstream?

    1. Fats
    2. Minerals
    3. Vitamin C
    4. Carbohydrates


    Questions for Section 3.3 The Circulatory Systems


    d      81(A)                      74.  What is the first vessel to receive absorbed water-soluble vitamins?

    1. Hepatic vein
    2. Mesenteric vein
    3. Mesenteric artery
    4. Hepatic portal vein


    b      81(K)                      75.  What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart?

    1. Aorta
    2. Hepatic vein
    3. Thoracic duct
    4. Hepatic portal vein


    a      81(K)                      76.  The hepatic portal vein empties into the

    1. liver.
    2. heart.
    3. pancreas.
    4. hepatic vein.


    d      82(K)                      77.  Exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials takes place across the walls of small vessels called

    1. ducts.
    2. venules.
    3. arterioles.
    4. capillaries.


    a      82(A)                      78.  When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested, they are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and transported first to the

    1. liver.
    2. heart.
    3. spleen.
    4. kidneys.


    c      82(K)                      79.  Which of the following conducts lymph into the vascular system?

    1. Villi
    2. Mesentery
    3. Subclavian vein
    4. Common bile duct


    a      82(K)                      80.  Which of the following is a feature of the lymphatic system?

    1. It carries fats away from the intestines
    2. It contains a fluid with a composition similar to pancreatic fluid
    3. It circulates via a one-way pump at the junction to the subclavian vein
    4.      It serves to transport fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins to the vascular system


    b      82(K)                      81.  What is the first major organ to receive nutrients that are absorbed into the lymph?

    1. Liver
    2. Heart
    3. Spleen
    4. Pancreas


    c      82(K)                      82.  What are lacteals?

    1. Gastric secretory cells
    2. Products of milk digestion
    3. Intestinal lymphatic vessels
    4. Products of colonic fermentation


    c      82(K)                      83.  Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries the fat-soluble vitamins and large fats?

    1. Vascular
    2. Mesenteric
    3. Lymphatic
    4. Enterohepatic


    Questions for Section 3.4 The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract


    a      83(K)                      84.  The living bacteria found in yogurt are known as

    1. probiotics.
    2. prebiotics.
    3. postbiotics.
    4. zymobiotics.


    a      83(K)                      85.  Microorganisms in food that are viable when consumed and that are beneficial to health are known as

    1. probiotics.
    2. prebiotics.
    3. postbiotics.
    4. zymobiotics.


    b      83(A)                      86.  When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes of the microflora of the GI tract?

    1. Fish
    2. Yogurt
    3. Poultry
    4. Iron-rich foods


    b      83(K)                      87.  The intestinal flora are comprised primarily of

    1. villi.
    2. bacteria.
    3. mucosa.
    4. probiotics.


    b      83(A)                      88.  What is the primary role of the normal, thriving intestinal bacterial population?

    1. Helps degrade meat and dairy proteins
    2. Helps prevent infectious bacteria from attacking the system
    3. Synthesizes vitamin D, which can be absorbed into the body
    4. Synthesizes several amino acids which can be absorbed into the body


    d      83(K)                      89.  Which of the following is known to be produced by small intestinal bacteria?

    1. Mucus
    2. Chyme
    3. Glucose
    4. Vitamins


    a      83-84(K)                90.  The maintenance of the body’s constant internal conditions is guided by the principle known as

    1. homeostasis.
    2. bios systems.
    3. central control.
    4. hormone balance.


    c      84(K)                      91.  What two systems coordinate all digestive/absorptive processes?

    1. Enzyme and thoracic
    2. Portal and lymphatic
    3. Nervous and endocrine
    4. Transport and circulatory


    b      84(K)                      92.  What is the normal pH of stomach juice?

    1. 0.25-0.50
    2. 1.5-1.7
    3. 7.0-7.5
    4. 9.5-9.75


    a      84(K)                      93.  Which of the following regulates the pH of the stomach?

    1. Gastrin
    2. Insulin
    3. Secretin
    4. Cholecystokinin


    b      84(A)                      94.  Which of the following substances functions to control the release of hydrochloric acid to prevent excessive acidity?

    1. Fiber
    2. Gastrin
    3. Secretin
    4. Bicarbonate


    b      84(K)                      95.  Which of the following stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice?

    1. Gastrin
    2. Secretin
    3. Glucagon
    4. Gastric-inhibitory peptide


    c      84-85(K)                96.  Which of the following is a characteristic of pancreatic digestive enzyme function?

    1. The major hormone controlling the release of pancreatic enzymes is gastrin
    2. The release of pancreatic enzymes is controlled primarily by a pancreatic sphincter
    3. The pancreas can increase the activity of fat-degrading enzymes in response to more fat in the diet
    4. In general, the amounts of digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreas remain constant over a wide range of nutrient intakes


    a      85(A)                      97.  Which of the following nutrients requires the greatest time for digestion?

    1. Fats
    2. Water
    3. Minerals
    4. Carbohydrates


    d      85(K)                      98.  What is/are the primary target organ(s) for the action of cholecystokinin?

    1. Pancreas only
    2. Stomach only
    3. Gallbladder only
    4. Gallbladder and pancreas


    c      85(K)                      99.  The chief functions of cholecystokinin include all of the following except

    1. triggering release of bile.
    2. slowing GI tract motility.
    3. triggering release of gastrin.
    4. triggering release of pancreatic fluid.


    d      85(A)                    100.  What are the usual consequences of removing a diseased gallbladder?

    1. Inability to digest fats
    2. Some damage to the pancreas
    3. Inability to digest carbohydrates
    4. Delivery of bile directly to the duodenum


    b      85(A)                    101.  Jenny has just has undergone a cholecystectomy. After recovery, Jenny will no longer

    1. be able to manufacture bile.
    2. have an extra reservoir for bile.
    3. be able to digest carbohydrates.
    4. have an extra reservoir for pancreatic juices.


    d      85(K)                    102.  The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release

    1. lipase.
    2. gastrin.
    3. secretin.
    4. cholecystokinin.


    a      85(A)                    103.  Nancy is having difficulty digesting fatty foods. After seeing her doctor, who found no evidence of inflammation, she says that she must now see a specialist to determine why she is having trouble releasing bile from her gallbladder. What hormone is most likely functioning improperly for Nancy?

    1. CCK
    2. Gastrin
    3. Secretin
    4. Lipostimulin


    d      85(K)                    104   What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestines?

    1. Gastrin
    2. Secretin
    3. Prozymogen
    4. Cholecystokinin


    b      85(K)                    105.  What is a zymogen?

    1. An intestinal hormone
    2. An inactive enzyme precursor
    3. A defective pancreatic enzyme
    4. An inflamed small intestinal outpocketing


    b      85(K)                    106.  Which of the following is associated with the presence of fat in the GI tract?

    1. Inhibition of mucosal enzyme activities
    2. Slowing of the process of digestion and absorption
    3. Inhibition of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin absorption
    4. Stimulation and hastening of digestion and absorption


    a      85(A)                    107.  The chief purpose of the gallbladder is to store a substance that is required for the assimilation of dietary

    1. fats only.
    2. carbohydrates only.
    3. fats and carbohydrates only.
    4. proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.


    a      85;84(A)              108.  All of the following are important enterogastrone hormones except

    1. pepsin.
    2. secretion.
    3. cholecystokinin.
    4. gastric-inhibitory peptide.


    d      86(K)                    109.  A decrease in the flow of blood to the intestines is known as

    1. gut stasis.
    2. gut dysmotility.
    3. intestinal stroke.
    4. intestinal ischemia.


    Questions for Section 3.5 Common Digestive Problems


    c      88(K)                    110.  Which of the following results from reverse peristalsis?

    1. Gas
    2. Choking
    3. Vomiting
    4. Diarrhea


    d      88-89(A)              111.  What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect someone is choking on food?

    1. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
    2. Strike the person sharply on the back
    3. Attempt to dislodge the food with your fingers
    4. Ask the person to make sounds from the throat


    b      88-89(K)              112.  Choking occurs when a piece of food becomes firmly lodged in the

    1. larynx.
    2. trachea.
    3. epiglottis.
    4. esophagus.


    a      89(K)                    113.  The Heimlich maneuver may be helpful in conditions associated with

    1. choking.
    2. vomiting.
    3. heartburn.
    4. constipation.


    a      90(A)                    114.  A person with chronic diarrhea is at risk for which of the following?

    1. Dehydration
    2. Constipation
    3. Peptic ulcers
    4. Heimlich’s disease


    a      90(K)                    115.  Inflammation of the large intestine is known as

    1. colitis.
    2. indigestion.
    3. hemorrhoiditis.
    4. acid dysregulation.


    d      90(A)                    116.  What organ is affected by colitis?

    1. Stomach
    2. Pancreas
    3. Gall bladder
    4. Large intestine


    b      90(K)                    117.  Which of the following is a feature of irritable bowel syndrome?

    1. Abdominal discomfort is usually mild
    2. Effective treatment includes peppermint oil
    3. Constipation rather than diarrhea is the major adverse effect
    4. A combination of stress plus certain foods is needed to trigger an attack


    c      91(A)                    118.  A person on a low-fiber diet is at increased risk for experiencing elevated rectal vein pressure leading to formation of

    1. reflux.
    2. hiccups.
    3. hemorrhoids.
    4. peptic ulcers.


    d      91(K)                    119.  One of the signs of constipation is

    1. increased thirst.
    2. inability to digest fats.
    3. less than 1 bowel movement per day.
    4. fewer than 3 bowel movements per week.


    a      91(A)                    120.  People are said to be constipated when they experience

    1. painful or difficult bowel movements.
    2. reflux more than three times a month.
    3. more than a day without a bowel movement.
    4. soft or watery bowel movements with little notice.


    b      91(K)                    121.  Colonic irrigation is a popular practice for treatment of

    1. belching.
    2. constipation.
    3. rapid peristalsis.
    4. explosive diarrhea.


    b      91(A)                    122.  Therapy for constipation would include all of the following except

    1. increasing water intake.
    2. decreasing fiber intake.
    3. increasing physical activity.
    4. responding promptly to the defecation signal.


    c      91(A)                    123.  Which of the following is most likely to result from insufficient intake of fiber?

    1. Diarrhea
    2. Bloating
    3. Constipation
    4. Pancreatitis


    c      91(A)                    124.  In general, which of the following is associated with the fewest adverse effects from the treatment of constipation in adults?

    1. Taking an enema
    2. Taking a laxative
    3. Ingestion of prunes
    4. Ingestion of mineral oil


    c      91(K)                    125.  Which of the following is a common cause of constipation?

    1. High-fat diet
    2. High-carbohydrate diet
    3. Lack of physical activity
    4. Excessive mineral oil intake


    c      91(A)                    126.  All of the following dietary measures are known to help relieve constipation except

    1. eating fiber.
    2. eating prunes.
    3. eating less fat.
    4. drinking more water.


    a      92(K)                    127.  What is the primary cause for belching?

    1. Swallowing air
    2. Viral infections
    3. Eating spicy foods
    4. Drinking alcoholic beverages


    a      92(K)                    128.  All of the following are common causes of heartburn except

    1. eating too slowly.
    2. drinking too much.
    3. wearing tight clothes.
    4. bending over after a meal.


    d      92(A)                    129.  Jim went for his annual medical check-up and was diagnosed with heartburn. Which of the following actions is most likely causing Jim’s condition?

    1. Inhibition of peristalsis
    2. Overactive cardiac sphincter activity
    3. Overactive pyloric sphincter activity
    4. Defective lower esophageal sphincter activity


    b      92(A)                    130.  Holding the breath for as long as possible is considered an effective treatment for

    1. colitis.
    2. hiccups.
    3. belching.
    4. gastro-esophageal reflux.


    d      92(A)                    131.  People who have frequent, regular bouts of heartburn and indigestion have a medical condition known as

    1. colitis.
    2. watery stools.
    3. lymphatic malabsorption.
    4. gastroesophageal reflux.


    a      92(K)                    132.  Which of the following is a prominent feature of the expulsion of gas from the anus?

    1. It is normal
    2. It can usually be reduced by increasing fiber intake
    3. It is usually worsened by consuming foods rich in fats
    4. The gas expelled is composed mostly of sulfur dioxide


    d      92(A)                    133.  Antacids were originally developed to treat

    1. excessive gas.
    2. acid indigestion.
    3. excessive belching.
    4. active ulcers in the stomach.


    d      92(K)                    134.  Which of the following nutrients is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas?

    1. Iron
    2. Fats
    3. Proteins
    4. Carbohydrates


    c      92-93(A)              135.  Untreated gastroesophageal reflux increases the risk for the more serious condition known as

    1. Graves’ disease.
    2. Sinclair’s gastrum.
    3. Barrett’s esophagus.
    4. Zollinger-Ellison cancer.


    d      93(K)                    136.  The primary treatment for ulcer caused by the presence of H. pylori is

    1. fiber.
    2. surgery.
    3. antacids.
    4. antibiotics.


    d      93(K)                    137.  All of the following are features of stomach acid except

    1. its secretion is stimulated by ingestion of regular coffee.
    2. its secretion is stimulated by ingestion of decaffeinated coffee.
    3. it destroys most of the bacteria entering the stomach from food ingestion.
    4. its potentially destructive action on stomach cells is prevented by the presence of bile.


    c      93(A)                    138.  All of the following are important issues in the treatment or management of existing ulcers except

    1. alcohol intake should be curtailed.
    2. antibiotics are frequently administered.
    3. gastric acid release should be suppressed.
    4. anti-inflammatory drug use should be curtailed.


    c      93(A)                    139.  A peptic ulcer resides in the

    1. stomach only.
    2. duodenum only.
    3. stomach or duodenum only.
    4. esophagus and stomach only.


    b      93(K)                    140.  All of the following are the chief causes of ulcers except

    1. H. pylori infection.
    2. excessive caffeine consumption.
    3. regular use of anti-inflammatory drugs.
    4. disorders that cause high gastric acid output.


    b      93(A)                    141.  A person with chronic GI bleeding is at risk for deficiency of

    1. HCl.
    2. iron.
    3. bile.
    4. protein.


    b      93(K)                    142.  All of the following are major causes of ulcer formation except

    1. bacterial infection.
    2. excessive use of antacids.
    3. excessive gastric acid secretion.
    4. use of certain anti-inflammatory medicines.


    b      93(A)                    143.  Which of the following is least likely to aggravate an existing ulcer?

    1. Beer
    2. Raw carrots
    3. Regular coffee
    4. Decaffeinated coffee


    d      93(K)                    144.  The organism H. pylori has been identified as one of the major causes of

    1. hiccups.
    2. hemorrhoids.
    3. diverticulosis.
    4. gastric ulcers.


    a      93(K)                    145.  The most common cause for the development of ulcers is

    1. infection from H. pylori.
    2. excessive consumption of spicy foods.
    3. failure to adapt to a high-stress lifestyle.
    4. prolonged excessive consumption of hot beverages.

    Chapter 5 – The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and Sterols


    An.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level


    Multiple Choice


    Questions for Section 5.0 Introduction


    c      133(K)                   01.  Approximately what percentage of the lipids in foods are triglycerides?

    1. 5
    2. 30
    3. 95
    4. 100


    c      133(K)                   02.  In which form are most dietary lipids found?

    1. Sterols
    2. Glycerols
    3. Triglycerides
    4. Monoglycerides


    d      133(K)                   03.  What percentage of stored body fat is in the form of triglycerides?

    1. 2
    2. 50
    3. 78
    4. 99


    b      133(K)                   04.  Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as

    1. oils.
    2. fats.
    3. omegas.
    4. glycerols.


    a      133(K)                   05.  Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as

    1. oils.
    2.              fats.
    3. omegas.
    4. glycerols.


    Questions for Section 5.1 The Chemist’s View of Fatty Acids and Triglycerides


    c      133(K)                   06.  What is the chemical composition of fats?

    1. Hexose polymers
    2. Glycogen granules
    3. Fatty acids and glycerol
    4. Combinations of long chain fatty acids


    b      133(K)                   07.  A compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as a

    1. diglyceride.
    2. triglyceride.
    3. phospholipid.
    4. monoglyceride.


    c      133(K)                   08.  What compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol?

    1. Steroid
    2. Lecithin
    3. Triglyceride
    4. Monoglyceride


    a      134(K)                   09.  How many double bonds are present in stearic acid?

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3


    a      134(K)                   10.  Which of the following is a property of dietary lipids?

    1. Omega-3 fatty acids are always unsaturated
    2. Lipids that are solid at room temperature are classified as oils
    3. The fatty acids in triglycerides may be of chain length 2 to 25 carbons
    4.              The most common fatty acid chain length in triglycerides is 10 carbons


    a      134(K)                   11.  What is the simplest 18-carbon fatty acid?

    1. Stearic acid
    2. Linoleic acid
    3. Palmitic acid
    4. Linolenic acid


    c      134(K)                   12.  Which of the following represents a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids?

    1. Fish
    2. Eggs
    3. Dairy
    4. Soybeans


    a      134(K)                   13.  How many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon adjacent to a double bond?

    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 6


    b      134(K)                   14.  What is the simplest fatty acid found in the diet?

    1. Oleic acid
    2. Acetic acid
    3. Linoleic acid
    4. Palmitic acid


    b      134(K)                   15.  Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of

    1. amino acids.
    2. double bonds.
    3. saccharide units.
    4. peptide linkages.


    b      134(K)                   16.  Which of the following is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?

    1. Oleic acid
    2. Stearic acid
    3. Linolenic acid
    4. Arachidonic acid


    b      134(K)                   17.  Approximately how many carbons are contained in a medium-chain fatty acid?

    1. 2-4
    2. 6-10
    3. 12-22
    4. 24-26


    d      134(A)                   18.  Which of the following is a common source of medium-chain fatty acids?

    1. Fish oils
    2. Beef products
    3. Vegetable oils
    4. Dairy products


    c      135(K)                   19.  Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?

    1. Saturated
    2. Hydrogenated
    3. Monounsaturated
    4. Polyunsaturated


    b      135(K)                   20.  What type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?

    1. Saturated
    2. Monounsaturated
    3. Polyunsaturated
    4. Partially hydrogenated


    b      135(A)                   21.  Which one of the following compounds is missing 4 or more hydrogen atoms?

    1. Monounsaturated fatty acid
    2. Polyunsaturated fatty acid
    3. Long-chain saturated fatty acid
    4. Short-chain saturated fatty acid


    d      135(K)                   22.  Which of the following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid in foods?

    1. Oleic acid
    2. Acetic acid
    3. Stearic acid
    4. Linoleic acid


    c      135(A)                   23.  A person wishing to increase consumption of polyunsaturated fats should choose

    1. coconut oil.
    2. beef products.
    3. vegetable oils.
    4. dairy products.


    c      136(K)                   24.  An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the

    1. third carbon from the acid end.
    2. first 3 carbons from the acid end.
    3. third carbon from the methyl end.
    4. first 3 carbons from the methyl end.


    a      136(K)                   25.  What is a triacylglyceride?

    1. A triglyceride
    2. A phospholipid
    3. A partially hydrolyzed lipid
    4. A lipid found only in cold-water fish


    c      136(A)                   26.  The easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid is to consume more

    1. lard oil.
    2. corn oil.
    3. olive oil.
    4. safflower oil.


    c      136(A)                   27.  A triglyceride always contains 3

    1. carbons.
    2. glycerols.
    3. fatty acids.
    4. double bonds.


    a      136-137(A)           28.  Which of the following is a feature of polyunsaturated fats?

    1. Low melting point
    2. High melting point
    3. Solid at room temperature
    4. Solid at refrigerator temperature


    c      137(K)                   29.  Which of the following is known as a tropical oil?

    1. Flaxseed oil
    2. Safflower oil
    3. Cocoa butter
    4. Conjugated linoleic acid


    b      137(A)                   30.  Which of the following is a factor that determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature?

    1. Origin of the fat
    2. Degree of saturation
    3. Number of acid groups
    4. Number of oxygen atoms


    d      137(A)                   31.  Which of the following sources would yield the softest lipids at room temperature?

    1. Lard
    2. Beef
    3. Pork
    4. Safflower


    a      137(A)                   32.  A major cause of rancidity of lipids in foods is exposure to

    1. heat and oxygen.
    2. fluorescent lighting.
    3. freezer temperatures.
    4. enrichment additives.


    b      137(A)                   33.  Which of the following structural features of fatty acids determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen?

    1. Chain length
    2. Number of double bonds
    3. Position of first saturated bond
    4. Size of adjacent fatty acids on the triglyceride molecule


    c      137(K)                   34.  Which of the following is a characteristic of lipids?

    1. A quick way to spoil fats is by exposure to carbon dioxide
    2. Typically, the shorter the carbon chain, the firmer the fat at 75°
    3. Corn oil and sunflower are more prone to spoilage than palm kernel oil
    4. Palm oil and coconut oil are very liquid due to their longer carbon chains


    c      137-138(A)           35.  When stored at room temperature in loosely capped containers, which of the following dietary lipids would turn rancid in the shortest time?

    1. Lard
    2. Peanut oil
    3. Soybean oil
    4. Coconut oil


    d      137-138(A)           36.  Which of the following would be least effective at preventing oxidation of the polyunsaturated fatty acids in processed foods?

    1. Refrigeration
    2. Addition of BHT
    3. Partial hydrogenation
    4. Addition of phosphorus


    d      137-138(A)           37.  All of the following are methods used by food processors to stabilize the lipids in food products except

    1. refrigeration.
    2. hydrogenation.
    3. tightly sealed packaging.
    4. addition of oxidizing chemicals.


    d      138(A)                   38.  Characteristics of hydrogenated oils include all of the following except

    1. they are stored in adipose tissue.
    2. they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol in the body.
    3. some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans.
    4. products containing them become rancid sooner, contributing to a shorter shelf life.


    d      138(K)                   39.  Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?

    1. Butter
    2. Walnut oil
    3. Beef tallow
    4. Coconut oil


    b      138(A)                   40.  Which of the following has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form?

    1. Butter
    2. Corn oil
    3. Beef tallow
    4. Coconut oil


    d      138(A)                   41.  Which of the following characteristics is shared by olive oil and canola oil?

    1. Neither is liquid at room temperature
    2. Neither contains saturated fatty acids
    3. Both contain high levels of polyunsaturated fatty acids
    4. Both contain high levels of monounsaturated fatty acids


    d      138(A)                   42.  Which of the following provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?

    1. Palm oil
    2. Walnut oil
    3. Soybean oil
    4. Flaxseed oil


    a      138(A)                   43.  The food industry often carries out the process of hydrogenation on which of the following lipids?

    1. Corn oil
    2. Olive oil
    3. Beef tallow
    4. Coconut oil


    a      138(K)                   44.  Which of the following is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat?

    1. Corn oil
    2. Palm oil
    3. Peanut oil
    4. Chicken fat


    d      138(A)                   45.  Which of the following lipids contain(s) saturated fat?

    1. Butter only
    2. Soybean oil only
    3. Cottonseed oil only
    4. Butter, cottonseed oil, and soybean oil


    a      138(A)                   46.  All of the following are rich sources of polyunsaturated fatty acids except

    1. palm oil.
    2. fish oils.
    3. soybean oil.
    4. safflower oil.


    b      138-139(A)           47.  In the process of fat hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to which part of the molecule?

    1. Oxygen
    2. Carbon
    3. Glycerol
    4. Other hydrogens


    c      139(A)                   48.  What is a conjugated linoleic acid?

    1. A type of cis-fatty acid
    2. A partially hydrogenated omega-6 lipid
    3. A fatty acid with the chemical make-up of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
    4. A fatty acid resulting from the partial hydrolysis of dietary phospholipids in the intestinal tract


    a      139(A)                   49.  Oil that is partially hydrogenated sometimes changes one or more of its double bond configurations from

    1. cis to trans.
    2. solid to liquid.
    3. covalent to ionic.
    4. saturated to unsaturated.


    d      139(K)                   50.  Which of the following is descriptive of fatty acid configuration?

    1. A cis-fatty acid has an extended, linear formation
    2. A trans-fatty acid has a folded, U-shape formation
    3. Trans-fatty acids are made only from polyunsaturated fats
    4. Naturally occurring trans-fatty acids are found in dairy products


    d      139(K)                   51.  Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids?

    1. In nature, most double bonds are trans
    2. Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids
    3. The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants
    4. In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats


    Questions for Section 5.2 The Chemist’s View of Phospholipids and Sterols


    b      140(K)                   52.  Which of the following is a feature of phospholipids?

    1. Resistant to digestion
    2. Soluble in both water and fat
    3. Highly susceptible to oxidation
    4. Found naturally only in animal foods


    d      140(K)                   53.  The composition of lecithin could include all of the following except

    1. choline.
    2. phosphate.
    3. fatty acids.

    d              magnesium.


    d      140(K)                   54.  What type of compound is lecithin?

    1. Bile salt
    2. Glycolipid
    3. Lipoprotein
    4. Phospholipid


    d      140(A)                   55.  What is the usual fate of dietary lecithin?

    1. Unabsorbed and passes out in the feces
    2. Absorbed intact and incorporated into tissues
    3. Absorbed intact and broken down by the liver
    4. Hydrolyzed by the intestinal enzyme lecithinase


    a      140(K)                   56.  Which of the following is a feature of choline?

    1. It is a part of lecithin
    2. It is a type of cis-fatty acid
    3. It is a type of trans-fatty acid
    4. It is attached to omega-3 fatty acids


    a      140(K)                   57.  A characteristic of lecithin supplements is they

    1. are mostly hydrolyzed in the intestine.
    2. contribute small amounts of magnesium.
    3. have an energy content of 4 kcalories per gram.
    4. contribute large amounts of omega-3 fatty acids.


    d      140(K)                   58.  Which of the following is not a feature of lecithin?

    1. Widespread in foods
    2. Found in cell membranes
    3. Manufactured by the body
    4. Dietary supplements inhibit fat absorption


    d      140(A)                   59.  How much energy is contributed by one gram of lecithin in a dietary supplement?

    1. 0 kcal
    2. 4 kcal
    3. 7 kcal
    4. 9 kcal


    c      140(A)                   60.  What is the approximate energy value of one teaspoon of liquid lecithin supplement?

    1. 0 kcal
    2. 2 kcal
    3. 45 kcal
    4. 200 kcal


    d      140-141(A)           61.  Which of the following characteristics are shared by cholesterol and lecithin?

    1. Both are sterols
    2. Both are phospholipids
    3. Both are essential nutrients
    4. Both are synthesized in the body


    c      140;143(A)           62.  Each of the following may act as an emulsifier in the intestinal tract except

    1. lecithin.
    2.              bile acids.
    3. pancreatic lipase.
    4. bile phospholipids.


    c      141(K)                   63.  What is the major sterol in the diet?

    1. Palm oil
    2. Lecithin
    3. Cholesterol
    4. Arachidonic acid


    c      141(K)                   64.   About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day?

    1. None
    2. A few mg
    3. Less than 300 mg
    4. At least 800 mg


    c      141(A)                   65.  Which of the following foods contains cholesterol?

    1. Corn
    2. Olives
    3. Roasted turkey
    4. Roasted peanuts


    c      141(A)                   66.  What is the major source of “good” cholesterol?

    1. Fatty fish
    2. Fatty meat
    3. Endogenous synthesis
    4. Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids


    b      141(K)                   67.  A common feature of the plant sterols is they

    1. raise LDL and lower HDL.
    2. inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol.
    3. inhibit absorption of “bad” cholesterol.
    4. enhance absorption of omega-3 fatty acids.


    a      141(A)                   68.  Which of the following cannot be found in plants?

    1. Cholesterol
    2. Triglycerides
    3. Essential fatty acids
    4. Nonessential fatty acids


    a      141(K)                   69.  Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?

    1. Synthesized by the body
    2. No relation to heart disease
    3. Recommended intake is zero
    4. No function in the human body


    a      141(K)                   70.  Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?

    1. Only about 10% of the body’s total cholesterol is extracellular
    2. “Bad” cholesterol is a form of cholesterol found in plant foods
    3. “Good” cholesterol is a form of cholesterol found in plant foods
    4. Exogenous cholesterol absorption is reduced by lecithin supplements


    b      141(K)                   71.  Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?

    1. It is absorbed directly into the blood
    2. It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
    3. It is not formed in the body when provided by the diet
    4. It is found in abundance in tropical fats such as palm oil


    a      141(K)                   72.  Which of the following is a feature of cholesterol?

    1. Its Daily Value is 300 mg
    2. Its structure is similar to that of lecithin
    3. Most of the body’s cholesterol is found circulating in the bloodstream
    4. The amount consumed in the diet usually exceeds the amount synthesized in the body


    b      141(K)                   73.  All of the following compounds may be synthesized from cholesterol except

    1.              bile.
    2. glucose.
    3. vitamin D.
    4. sex hormones.


    c      141-142(A)           74.  Which of the following is not a destination for cholesterol?

    1. Synthesized into bile
    2. Excreted in the feces
    3. Accumulates on walls of veins
    4. Accumulates on walls of arteries


    Questions for Section 5.3 Digestion, Absorption, and Transport of Lipids


    a      142(K)                   75.  What term may be used to describe a substance that is hydrophobic?

    1. Lipophilic
    2. Lipophobic
    3. Glycerophilic
    4. Glycerophobic


    c      143(K)                   76.  Which of the following is characteristic of the lipase enzymes?

    1. Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults
    2. Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion
    3. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants
    4. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids


    c      143(K)                   77.  Which of the following is not a feature of the bile acids?

    1. Stored in the gallbladder
    2. Synthesized from cholesterol
    3. Manufactured by the gallbladder
    4. Released into the small intestine whenever fat is present


    c      143(K)                   78.  In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as

    1. enzymes.
    2. hormones.
    3. detergents.
    4. chylomicrons.


    c      143-144(K)           79.  What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis?

    1. Mouth
    2. Stomach
    3. Small intestine
    4. Large intestine


    b      144(K)                   80.  Chylomicrons are synthesized within the

    1. liver.
    2. intestinal cells.
    3. lymphatic system.
    4. storage compartment of plant seeds.


    d      144(A)                   81.  How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level?

    1. It denatures cholesterol in the stomach
    2. It hydrolyzes cholesterol in the intestinal tract
    3. It traps cholesterol in the intestinal tract and thus inhibits its absorption
    4. It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover


    a      144(K)                   82.  Bile is known to assist in the absorption of

    1. fat only.
    2. all nutrients.
    3. carbohydrate and fat only.
    4. carbohydrate, fat, and protein only.


    c      144(K)                   83.  What is the storage site of bile?

    1. Liver
    2. Pancreas
    3. Gallbladder
    4. Intestinal epithelial cells


    a      144(K)                   84.  Spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as

    1. micelles.
    2. chylomicrons.
    3. monolipomicrons.
    4. endogenous bilayer aggregates.


    b      144(A)                   85.  Which of the following substances cannot be absorbed directly into the blood?

    1. Glycerol
    2. Long-chain fatty acids
    3. Short-chain fatty acids
    4. Medium-chain fatty acids


    b      144(K)                   86.  After a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as

    1. micelles.
    2. chylomicrons.
    3.              low-density lipoproteins.
    4. very-low-density lipoproteins.


    d      144(A)                   87.  Your aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about 5 points. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this effect?

    1. Oatmeal is a low-fat food and inhibits the body’s synthesis of cholesterol
    2. Oatmeal is high in complex fibers that inhibit cholesterol-synthesizing enzymes
    3. Oatmeal consumed on a regular basis suppresses the craving for high-cholesterol foods
    4. Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement


    b      144(K)                   88.  Which of the following is an example of enterohepatic circulation?

    1. Chylomicron conversion to LDLs and HDLs
    2. Recycling of bile from the intestine to the liver
    3. Hormonal control of pancreatic digestive secretions
    4. Liver secretion of eicosanoids that promote absorption of eicosanoid precursors


    a      145-146(K)           89.  What lipoprotein is largest in size?

    1. Chylomicron
    2. High-density lipoprotein
    3. Low-density lipoprotein
    4. Very-low-density lipoprotein


    a      146(A)                   90.  In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains

    1. less lipid.
    2. less protein.
    3. more cholesterol.
    4. more carbohydrate.


    b      146(K)                   91.  Which of the following lipoproteins contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?

    1. Chylomicron
    2. Low-density lipoprotein
    3. High-density lipoprotein
    4. Very-low-density lipoprotein


    b      147(A)                   92.  Among the following, which would be the least effective method to control blood cholesterol levels?

    1. Control body weight
    2. Eat more insoluble fiber
    3. Consume less saturated fat
    4. Exercise intensely and frequently


    a      147(K)                   93.  What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation?

    1. Liver
    2. Adipose
    3. Arterial walls
    4. Skeletal muscle


    c      147(K)                   94.  A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of

    1. free fatty acids.
    2. high-density lipoproteins.
    3. low-density lipoproteins.
    4. very low-density lipoproteins.


    c      147(K)                   95.  What lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery?

    1. Chylomicron
    2. Low-density lipoprotein
    3. High-density lipoprotein
    4. Very-low density lipoprotein


    c      147(K)                   96.  A low risk of cardiovascular disease correlates with high blood levels of

    1. triglycerides.
    2. free fatty acids.
    3. high-density lipoproteins.
    4. very-low-density lipoproteins.


    Questions for Section 5.4 Lipids in the Body


    c      148(K)                   97.  An important function of fat in the body is to

    1. build muscle tissue.
    2. regulate blood glucose levels.
    3. protect vital organs against shock.
    4. provide precursors for glucose synthesis.


    d      148-149(K)           98.  Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?

    1. Lecithin
    2.              Cholesterol
    3. Stearic acid
    4. Linoleic acid


    b      149(K)                   99.  Which of the following is used by the body to synthesize arachidonic acid?

    1. Oleic acid
    2. Linoleic acid
    3. Palmitic acid
    4. Linolenic acid


    d      149(K)                 100.  Which of the following is an omega-3 fat?

    1. Acetic acid
    2. Palmitic acid
    3. Linoleic acid
    4. Docosahexaenoic acid


    b      149(K)                 101.  What are the building blocks in the body’s synthesis and elongation of fatty acids?

    1. 1-carbon fragments
    2. 2-carbon fragments
    3. 4-carbon fragments
    4. 7-carbon fragments


    c      149(K)                 102.  What is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids?

    1. Glucose
    2. Hormones
    3. Fatty acids
    4. Cholesterol


    b      149(A)                 103   Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of

    1. arachidonic acid.
    2. certain eicosanoids.
    3. certain saturated fatty acids.
    4. certain unsaturated fatty acids.


    d      149(A)                 104.  Which of the following foods provide(s) essential fatty acids?

    1. Fish only
    2. Beef only
    3. Plants only
    4. Fish, beef, and plants


    d      149(K)                 105.  What are the precursors for synthesis of the eicosanoids?

    1. Steroids
    2. Short-chain fatty acids
    3. Medium-chain saturated fatty acids
    4. Long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids


    c      150(K)                 106.  Which of the following is a feature of adipose cell lipoprotein lipase?

    1. The enzyme’s activity is reduced by high-fat diets
    2. The enzyme’s activity is increased by signals from epinephrine and glucagon
    3. The enzyme works to promote uptake of circulating triglycerides into storage triglycerides
    4. The enzyme is involved in release of free fatty acids from stored triglyceride into the bloodstream


    d      150(K)                 107.  What is the function of lipoprotein lipase?

    1. Synthesizes lipoproteins in liver cells
    2. Synthesizes triglycerides in adipose cells
    3. Assembles lipid particles into chylomicrons
    4. Hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells


    d      150(K)                 108.  Which of the following is a feature of fat metabolism?

    1. Cholesterol is stored primarily on the surface of veins
    2. High-density lipoproteins represent the major transport vehicle for delivering fat to the adipose cells
    3. Fat storage is highly efficient due to the rapid uptake of the intact triglyceride molecule by adipose cells
    4. Triglycerides in the blood must first be broken down to monoglycerides, fatty acids, and glycerol prior to uptake by the adipose cells


    a      150(A)                 109.  What nutrient is used to form ketones?

    1. Fat
    2. Protein
    3. Simple carbohydrates
    4. Complex carbohydrates


    c      150(K)                 110.  What is the function of adipose cell hormone-sensitive lipase?

    1. Hydrolyzes hormones involved in fat breakdown
    2. Synthesizes new adipose cells from simple fatty acids
    3. Hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells
    4. Synthesizes long-chain fatty acids to provide precursors for other cells


    d      150(K)                 111.  Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?

    1. 5
    2. 25
    3. 40
    4. 60


    Questions for Section 5.5 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Lipids


    c      151(K)                 112.  What is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range?

    1. 50
    2. 101
    3. 199
    4. 299


    b      151(A)                 113.  What is the highest blood triglyceride concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range?

    1. 99
    2. 149
    3. 199
    4. 299


    b      151(K)                 114.  Among the following dietary fatty acids, which has been found to raise blood cholesterol level by the least amount?

    1. Lauric
    2. Stearic
    3. Myristic
    4. Palmitic


    a      151(K)                 115.  The results of blood tests that reveal a person’s total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a

    1. lipid profile.
    2. circulating fat count.
    3. personal lipids count.
    4. degenerative disease assessment.


    d      151(K)                 116.  Each of the following is known to be linked to excessive intake of fats except

    1. cancer.
    2. obesity.
    3. heart disease.
    4. lactose intolerance.


    c      151-152(A)         117.  Important factors in the selection of a margarine product include all of the following except

    1. it should be trans fat free.
    2. it should be soft instead of hard.
    3. it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids.
    4. it should list liquid vegetable oil as the first ingredient.


    b      151-152(A)         118.  Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor provided him with dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?

    1. Low LDL and high HDL
    2. Low HDL and high LDL
    3. Low DLD and high DHD
    4. Low LDH and low HDL


    b      151-152(A)         119.  Which of the following sources of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels?

    1. Butter
    2. Canola oil
    3. Coconut oil
    4. Stick margarine


    c      152(K)                 120.  Which of the following is a characteristic of egg nutrition?

    1. Eggs are high in both cholesterol and saturated fat
    2. High omega-3 fat eggs are now available by prescription only
    3. Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat
    4. Even in people with a healthy lipid profile, consumption of one egg/day is detrimental


    b      152(A)                 121.  Your roommate Jeff wishes to switch from using corn oil to using one that is a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be recommended?

    1. Corn oil
    2. Canola oil
    3. Safflower oil
    4. Liquefied lard


    a      152(K)                 122.  Which of the following is a feature of fat intake and health?

    1. Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
    2. High intakes of fish oil lower bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing
    3. High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels
    4. Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels


    d      152(K)                 123.  Which of the following is a characteristic of the blood cholesterol level?

    1. The desirable upper range is 250 mg per 100 mL
    2. It can be reduced by increasing dietary intake of insoluble fiber
    3. It can be lowered by increasing dietary intake of trans-fat
    4. It can be lowered more effectively by reducing dietary intake of saturated fat than of cholesterol


    c      152(K)                 124.  What is the approximate daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States?

    1. 500 mg
    2. 2 g
    3. 6 g
    4. 12 g


    b      152(A)                 125.  Which of the following contains the least cholesterol per serving?

    1. Steamed fish
    2. Steamed corn
    3. Broiled chicken
    4. Very lean grilled steak


    c      152(K)                 126.  Major sources of cholesterol include all of the following except

    1. Meat
    2. Shrimp
    3. Avocados
    4. Hamburger


    d      152(K)                 127.  When consumed regularly, which of the following fatty acids helps prevent the formation of blood clots?

    1. Oleic acid
    2. Stearic acid
    3. Arachidonic acid
    4. Eicosapentaenoic acid


    b      152(K)                 128.  Approximately how many milligrams of cholesterol are found in an egg?

    1. 100
    2. 200
    3. 300
    4. 450


    a      152(K)                 129.  Which of the following is a characteristic of eggs in nutrition?

    1. Consumption of one egg per day by most people is not considered detrimental
    2.      The omega-3 fatty acid content of eggs is increased by feeding hens more coconut oil
    3. The amount of cholesterol in one egg is about the same as in one serving of ice cream
    4. The cholesterol is found in approximately equal amounts in the yolk and the white (albumin)


    b      152(K)                 130.  Which of the following vegetable oils is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?

    1. Corn
    2. Canola
    3. Sesame
    4. Coconut


    a      152(K)                 131.  All of the following statements are characteristics of lipid intake of U.S. adults except

    1. trans-fatty acid averages about 1 g per day.
    2. energy from fat provides about 34% of total energy intake.
    3. cholesterol intake averages just under 300 mg per day for men.
    4. saturated fat intake represents about one–third of total fat intake.


    b      152(K)                 132.  Which of the following is a feature of butter and margarine?

    1. Butter is a major source of trans fatty acids
    2. Butter contains more saturated fat and cholesterol than margarine does
    3. Margarine contains approximately half as much cholesterol as butter does
    4. Stick margarine contains half as much trans-fatty acids as soft margarine does


    b      152-153(A)         133.  Ronnie eats a fairly balanced diet, but wants to include a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be your recommendation?

    1. Eggs
    2. Salmon
    3. Low-fat cheeses
    4. Lean chicken breast


    a      152;154(K)         134.  What percentage of the DV for saturated fats in the U.S. diet is provided by one egg?

    1. 5
    2. 20
    3. 45
    4. 75


    a      152-153(K)         135.  Which of the following is a feature of the lipid content of foods?

    1. Omega-3 fats are found in fish
    2. Cholesterol is found in peanuts
    3. Essential fatty acids are found in olestra
    4. Low-density lipoproteins are found in coconut oil


    c      153(A)                 136.  A meal contains the following amounts of long-chain fatty acids: 3 g EPA, 1 g DHA, 5 g stearic acid, 4 g linolenic acid, 10 g linoleic acid, and 3 g arachidonic acid. What is the approximate ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids?

    1.              0.4 : 1.0
    2. 1.0 : 1.0
    3. 1.6 : 1.0
    4. 2.4 : 1.0


    b      153(A)                 137.  A lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume

    1. eggs and milk.
    2. canola oil and walnuts.
    3. safflower oil margarine.
    4. corn oil and sunflower oil.


    c      153(A)                 138.  A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of

    1. EPA.
    2. DHA.
    3. mercury.
    4. cadmium.


    b      153(K)                 139.  Which of the following is a characteristic of fish consumption?

    1. Fish is a good source of iron
    2. Fatty fish contain the highest amounts of omega-3 fatty acids
    3. The minimum intake to gain any benefit is 3 servings per week
    4. Even fried fish from fast-food restaurants provide a favorable balance of omega-6 and omega-3 fats


    d      153(K)                 140.  High intakes of omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids are known to increase the risk for all of the following except

    1. poor wound healing.
    2. higher LDL cholesterol.
    3. suppressed immune function.
    4. inflammation of the pancreas.


    a      153(A)                 141.  Which of the following is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid?

    1. Tuna
    2. Butter
    3. Salad oil
    4. Shortening


    d      153(A)                 142.  To achieve a dietary balance of omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, what is the recommended intake (g) of omega-3 fats for a person who consumes 30 g of omega-6 fats?

    1. 5
    2. 10
    3. 20
    4. There is no specific recommendation based on omega-6 intake


    b      153(A)                 143.  The oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed

    1. eicosanoids.
    2. linolenic acid.
    3. docosahexaenoic acid.
    4. eicosapentaenoic acid.


    d      153(K)                 144.  All of the following foods contain liberal amounts of eicosapentaenoic and docosahexaenoic acid except

    1. tuna.
    2. salmon.
    3. human milk.
    4. soybean oil.


    a      153(A)                 145.  Which of the following is a likely explanation for the imbalance between omega-6 and omega-3 lipids in the U.S. diet?

    1. High intakes of meat and low intakes of fish
    2. Low intakes of vegetable oils and high intakes of fish
    3. High intakes of beef fat and low intakes of vegetable oils
    4. Low intakes of beef fat and high intakes of vegetable oils


    a      154(K)                 146.  Which of the following describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer?

    1. Fat from milk does not increase risk for cancer
    2. Dietary fat initiates rather than promotes cancer formation
    3. High intakes of omega-3 fatty acids promote cancer development in animals
    4. The evidence linking fat intake with cancer is stronger than that linking it with heart disease


    d      154(A)                 147.  According to the DRI, what is the upper limit of fat (g) that may be consumed by a healthy person requiring 3000 kcalories per day?

    1. 33
    2. 66
    3. 83
    4. 117


    c      154(K)                 148.  According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum total fat intake as a percentage of energy intake?

    1. 10
    2. 20
    3. 35
    4. 50


    d      154(A)                 149.  Jenny is trying to lose weight by decreasing the fat in her diet. At the grocery store she is overwhelmed by all the claims on the food product labels, and finally chooses an expensive fat-free frozen dessert. Which of the following would be an appropriate analysis of Jenny’s decision?

    1. Most frozen desserts are fat-free and she should not pay extra for one with a fat-free claim
    2. Since fats contribute 9 kcalories per gram, she can eat twice as many kcalories from this dessert and still lose weight
    3. As long as she makes sure to eat the dessert before 9 p.m. it should not contribute much to her daily kcaloric intake
    4. Fat-free products typically have so much added sugar that the kcalorie count can be as high as in the regular-fat product


    c      154(K)                 150.  For most adults, what is the recommended minimum amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intake?

    1. 5
    2. 15
    3. 20
    4. 35


    b      154(K)                 151.  As a percentage of daily energy intake, what is the recommended range for the essential fatty acids?

    1. 2.5-5.5
    2. 5.6-11.2
    3. 12-19
    4. 20-35


    c      154(K)                 152.  According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum daily intake of cholesterol on a 2500-kcalorie diet?

    1. 50 mg
    2. 150 mg
    3. 300 mg
    4. 1,000 mg


    c      154(A)                 153.  Approximately how many grams of fat would be contained in an 800-kcalorie meal that provides 50% of the energy from carbohydrate, 20% from protein, and the remainder from fat?

    1. 15
    2. 22
    3. 27
    4. 35


    b      154(A)                 154.  A meal providing 1200 kcalories contains 10 g of saturated fats, 14 g of monounsaturated fats, and 20 g of polyunsaturated fats. What is the percentage of energy supplied by the lipids?

    1. 22
    2. 33
    3. 44
    4. 55


    c      154(K)                 155.  Surveys show that U.S. adults’ average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is

    1. 20.
    2. 27.
    3. 34.
    4. 55.


    b      155(K)                 156.  The average daily cholesterol intake (mg) of U.S. women is about

    1. 110.
    2. 235.
    3. 360.
    4. 925.


    a      155(A)                 157.  Which of the following is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes?

    1. A minimum of 20% fat energy in the diet is needed
    2. Energy derived from fat has very little bearing on performance
    3. Optimal performance is found with a high-carbohydrate, 15% total fat kcalories, diet
    4. Diets with at least 10% total kcalories from fat are still able to provide the recommended amounts of micronutrients


    d      157(A)                 158.  Which of the following does not describe a function of fat?

    1. Adds flavor to food
    2. Serves as a carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
    3. Is an essential constituent of body tissues
    4. Supplies up to 25% of the body’s energy needs during rest


    c      157(K)                 159.  Which of the following is the most desirable quality that fat adds to foods?

    1. Color
    2. Sweetness
    3. Palatability
    4. Hydrogenation


    d      157(K)                 160.  All of the following are features of dairy products consumption except

    1. fat-free milk contains no cholesterol.
    2. yogurt is known to lower blood cholesterol.
    3. fermented milk products raise the bacterial population in the colon.
    4. fat-free milk is lower in kcalories but also lower in protein and calcium than whole milk.


    b      157(K)                 161.  Which of the following is a characteristic of the lipid content of livestock?

    1. The meat from “free-range” animals is similar in composition to soy protein
    2. “Free-range” animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals
    3. Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grass-fed animals
    4. Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals


    a      157(A)                 162.  Which of the following is appropriate dietary advice for reducing fat intake?

    1. Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
    2. Substitute crackers and cornbread for other starches because they are likely lower in fat
    3. Consume foods with more invisible fat because this type of fat is not absorbed well from the digestive tract
    4. Increase consumption of soups, such as cream-of-mushroom soup prepared with water, because the fat content is usually very low


    b      157(A)                 163.  A food that represents a visible fat would be

    1. nuts.
    2. butter.
    3. avocados.
    4. chocolate.


    c      158(A)                 164.  You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low-fat dips, low-fat cheeses, whole-wheat crackers, and low-fat potato chips. John says he has heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra

    1. slows the pancreas’s release of lipase enzyme.
    2. consists of tight protein-binding molecules that replace the fat molecules usually present in potato chips.
    3. contains a fat-like substance that the body’s enzymes can’t break down and therefore cannot be absorbed.
    4. is first subjected to radiation exposure to desaturate the bonds within the fat molecules, which reduces the kcalorie content.


    b      158(A)                 165.  Which of the following is not a feature of the artificial fat replacer olestra?

    1. It can be used in the frying of foods
    2. It leads to constipation in some individuals
    3. Its chemical structure is similar to a triglyceride
    4. It lowers absorption of vitamins A and K from foods


    c      158(K)                 166.  Sucrose polyester is another name for

    1. BHA.
    2. DHA.
    3. olestra.
    4. trans fat.


    d      158(K)                 167.  Which of the following is a drawback of olestra consumption?

    1. It yields 9 kcalories per gram
    2. It imparts off-flavors to foods
    3. It raises blood glucose levels
    4. It inhibits absorption of vitamin E


    c      159(K)                 168.  Which of the following is a feature of olestra in foods?

    1. It has a class II toxicity rating by the FDA
    2. It binds to water-soluble vitamins in the digestive tract
    3. It causes no net loss of fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive tract
    4. It causes abdominal cramping and loose stools in approximately one-third of consumers


    d      159-160(A)         169.  Information on a food label about the fat content per serving includes all of the following except

    1. the total fat content, in g.
    2. the trans fat content, in g.
    3. the saturated fat content, in g.
    4. the percentage of total kcalories contributed by fat.


    Questions for Section 5.6 High-Fat Foods—Friend or Foe?


    b      164-165(K)         170.  Results of the Seven Countries Study found that the population groups with highest and lowest rates of heart disease both consumed at least 40% of their kcalories from fat but the healthier group was found to ingest more

    1. dairy.
    2. olive oil.
    3. fatty fish.
    4. grass-fed livestock.


    a      165(K)                 171.  In most nuts, what is the distribution of saturated and unsaturated fats, in order of highest to lowest amounts?

    1. Monounsaturated, polyunsaturated, saturated
    2. Polyunsaturated, monounsaturated, saturated
    3. Polyunsaturated, saturated, monounsaturated
    4. Saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated


    d      165(K)                 172.  Which of the following is a feature of nut consumption and improved cardiovascular health?

    1. The benefit is unrelated to the phytochemical content
    2. The benefit is unrelated to changes in LDL concentration
    3. The benefit is found only from ingestion of a few types of nuts
    4. The benefit may be related, in part, to the high content of monounsaturated fats and low content of saturated fats


    d      165(K)                 173.  Of the total fat content of the most commonly eaten nuts in the United States, what is the approximate percentage of monounsaturated fat?

    1. 5
    2. 30
    3. 45
    4. 60


    a      166(K)                 174.  Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to

    1. lower blood pressure.
    2. higher blood cholesterol.
    3. greater tendency of the blood to clot.
    4. decreased storage of omega-3 fatty acids.


    a      166-167(K)         175.  Which of the following fish is generally highest in mercury?

    1. Shark
    2. Catfish
    3. Salmon
    4. Canned light tuna


    a      166-167(A)         176.  Why does the FDA advise against consumption of certain fish such as swordfish and shark by women of childbearing age?

    1. These fish are a major source of toxic mercury
    2. The omega-3 fatty acids may induce premature labor
    3. The omega-3 fatty acids prolong bleeding time during delivery
    4. These fish contain unusually high amounts of medium-chain triglycerides


    a      167(K)                 177.  A characteristic of farm-raised fish is they are

    1. lower in omega-3 fats.
    2. higher in soluble fiber.
    3. higher in trace elements.
    4. usually higher in mercury.


    c      167(K)                 178.  Studies show that a 1% increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percentage?

    1. 0.5
    2. 1.0
    3. 2.0
    4. 5.0


    b      168(K)                 179.  Which of the following is not a common dietary source of trans fats?

    1. Fried foods
    2. Whole milk
    3. Nondairy creamers
    4. Microwave popcorn


    a      168(K)                 180.  Which of the following is a good plant source of omega-3 lipids?

    1. Flax seeds
    2. Safflower oil
    3. Sunflower seeds
    4. Corn oil margarine


    b      168(A)                 181.  A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of

    1. eggs.
    2. olive oil.
    3. lean meat.
    4. fortified butter.



    Chapter 7 – Metabolism: Transformations and Interactions


    An.  Page(s)/difficulty                                                                                              K = knowledge-level, A = application level


    Multiple Choice


    Questions for Section 7.0 Introduction


    b      205(K)                   01.  Which of the following describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells?

    1. Digestion
    2. Metabolism
    3. Absorption
    4. Catabolism


    a      205(K)                   02.  In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize

    1. carbohydrates only.
    2. fats and carbohydrates only.
    3. protein and carbohydrates only.
    4. fats, proteins, and carbohydrates.


    Questions for Section 7.1 Chemical Reactions in the Body


    c      206(K)                   03.  A typical cell contains “powerhouses,” which is another name for the

    1. DNA.
    2. ribosomes.
    3. mitochondria.
    4. electron transport chains.


    a      206(K)                   04.  A feature of catabolic reactions is that they

    1. involve release of energy.
    2. occur only in mitochondria.
    3. involve consumption of energy.
    4. occur only during loss of body weight.


    a      206(K)                   05.  What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?

    1. Anabolic
    2. Catabolic
    3. Ergogenic
    4. Gluconeogenic


    d      206(K)                   06.  The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is the

    1. nucleus.
    2. Golgi bodies.
    3. mitochondria.
    4. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.


    d      206;207(A)           07.  Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction?

    1. Pyruvate synthesis from glucose
    2. Acetyl CoA synthesis from cholesterol
    3. Carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid
    4. Cholesterol synthesis from acetyl CoA molecules


    c      206;207(A)           08.  The formation of glycogen by the liver cell is an example of

    1. oxidation.
    2. glycolysis.
    3. anabolism.
    4. catabolism.


    b      206;207(A)           09.  Which of the following is an example of a catabolic reaction?

    1. Glucose formation from glycerol
    2. Urea formation from an amino acid
    3. Albumin formation from amino acids
    4. Palmitic acid formation from acetate


    c      207(K)                   10.  All of the following are among the functions of the liver except

    1. synthesis of urea.
    2. synthesis of glycogen.
    3. production of red blood cells.
    4. conversion of fructose to glucose.


    b      208(K)                   11.  What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body?

    1. 20
    2. 50
    3. 80
    4. 99


    a      208(A)                   12.  In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as

    1. heat.
    2. photons.
    3. carbon dioxide.
    4. electromagnetic radiation.


    b      208(K)                   13.  Which of the following defines a coenzyme?

    1. A unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP
    2. An organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme
    3. The small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants
    4. An inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors


    a      208(K)                   14.  The hydrolysis of ATP that often occurs simultaneously with the synthesis of many compounds is an example of

    1. coupled reactions.
    2. tandem cleavages.
    3. metabolic couplings.
    4. high energy processes.


    c      208(A)                   15.  Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy?

    1. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP
    2. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP
    3. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP
    4. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP


    a      209(K)                   16.  What is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells?

    1. ATP
    2. Glucose
    3. Pyruvate
    4. A kcalorie


    Questions for Section 7.2 Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy


    b      209(K)                   17.  The basic units derived from food include all of the following except

    1. glycerol.
    2. starches.
    3. fatty acids.
    4. amino acids.


    b      209(K)                   18.  Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy expenditure is furnished by amino acids?

    1. 1 to 5
    2. 10 to 15
    3. 25 to 35
    4. 50 to 65


    a      210(K)                   19.  Which of the following can not be formed from acetyl CoA molecules?

    1. Glucose
    2. Cholesterol
    3. Stearic acid
    4. Carbon dioxide


    d      210(A)                   20.  Which of the following can not be formed from pyruvate in human beings?

    1. Glucose
    2. Fructose
    3. Lactic acid
    4. Linoleic acid


    c      211(K)                   21.  Glycolysis is the conversion of

    1. glycogen to fat.
    2. glycogen to protein.
    3. glucose to pyruvate.
    4. glucose to glycogen.


    b      211(K)                   22.  The series of reactions involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as

    1. pyrolysis.
    2. glycolysis.
    3. beta-oxidation.
    4. coupled reaction.


    a      211-212(K)           23.  Which of the following is not an aspect of glycolysis?

    1. It is irreversible
    2. It generates ATP
    3. It occurs in the absence of oxygen
    4. It generates two molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose


    b      212;219;221-222(A)       24.          Which of the following outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose?

    1. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis
    2. Glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain
    3. Electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle
    4. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis


    c      213(K)                   25.  Which of the following is a feature of aerobic metabolism?

    1. Little or no oxygen is consumed
    2. Lactic acid is a major byproduct
    3. Energy is produced more slowly than in anaerobic metabolism
    4.              Pyruvate is converted to glucose by reverse glycolysis to yield a net of 2 ATPs


    b      213(A)                   26.  An aerobic reaction is one that requires

    1. alcohol.
    2. oxygen.
    3. nitrogen.
    4. ammonia.


    a      213(A)                   27.  Your roommate Demetrius is participating in a weightlifting course and complains of a burning pain during workouts. You explain to Demetrius that the rapid breakdown of glucose in his muscles produces large amounts of pyruvate, which leads to a fall in pH within the muscle and that the muscle responds by converting excess pyruvate to

    1. lactate.
    2. glycerol.
    3. acetyl CoA.
    4. amino acids.


    a      213(K)                   28.  The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of

    1. lactate and glucose.
    2. glucose and amino acids.
    3. pyruvate and citric acids.
    4. fatty acids and acetyl CoA.


    a      213-214(A)           29.  When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the response of the muscles is to synthesize more

    1. lactate.
    2. glucose.
    3. citric acid.
    4. fatty acids.


    a      214(A)                   30.  Which of the following is not a possible fate of metabolized glucose?

    1. Urea
    2. Acetyl CoA
    3. Amino acids
    4. Muscle glycogen


    d      214-215(A)           31.  Which of the following nutrients can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons?

    1. Glucose
    2. Fructose
    3. Glycogen
    4. Fatty acids


    c      214-215(A)           32.  Which of the following is a possible fate of acetyl CoA?

    1. Degradation to urea
    2. Synthesis to glycerol
    3. Synthesis to fatty acids
    4. Degradation to ammonia


    c      215(A)                   33.  What is the first product of fatty acid catabolism?

    1. Glycerol
    2. Pyruvate
    3. Acetyl CoA
    4. Triglycerides


    d      215(K)                   34.  Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of

    1. ketones.
    2. fructose.
    3. pyruvate.
    4. acetyl CoA.


    a      215(A)                   35.  Production of excessive amounts of acetyl CoA molecules leads to the synthesis of

    1. fatty acids only.
    2. fatty acids and glucose only.
    3. fatty acids and fructose only.
    4. fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids.


    a      215(K)                   36.  In a triglyceride that contains 54 carbon atoms, how many can become part of glucose?

    1. 3
    2. 9
    3. 54
    4. 108


    b      215(K)                   37.  Which of the following compounds cannot be formed from fatty acids?

    1. Ketones
    2. Glucose
    3. Acetyl CoA
    4. Carbon dioxide


    d      215(K)                   38.  Approximately what percentage of the weight of triglycerides cannot be converted to glucose?

    1. 70
    2. 80
    3. 90
    4. 95


    b      215(A)                   39.  What percentage (by weight) of a triglyceride molecule can be converted to glucose?

    1. 0
    2. 5
    3. 50
    4. 100


    c      215(A)                   40.  How many acetyl CoA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid?

    1. 3
    2. 6
    3. 9
    4. 18


    b      215-216(A)           41.  Which of the following dietary components cannot be used to synthesize and store glycogen?

    1. Lactose
    2. Animal fats
    3. Wheat starch
    4. Plant protein


    c      215-217(A)           42.  Which of the following cannot be used to make body proteins?

    1. Glucose
    2. Glycerol
    3. Fatty acids
    4. Amino acids


    b      216(A)                   43.  An immediate consequence of a cellular deficiency of oxaloacetate is a slowing of

    1. glycolysis.
    2. the TCA cycle.
    3. lactate synthesis.
    4. ketone formation.


    a      216(A)                   44.  All of the following may serve as precursors for oxaloacetate synthesis except

    1. fat.
    2. starch.
    3. glucose.
    4. protein.


    d      216(A)                   45.  What is the immediate fate of excess dietary protein in the body?

    1. Stored
    2. Reduced
    3. Oxidized
    4. Deaminated


    a      216(A)                   46.  After digestion and absorption, an amino acid not used to build protein will first be subjected to

    1. removal of its amino group.
    2. removal of its carboxyl group.
    3. hydrolysis of its peptide bond.
    4. condensation of its peptide bond.


    b      216;218(A)           47.  Which of the following leads to the production of urea?

    1. Oxidation of glucose
    2. Oxidation of amino acids
    3. Incomplete oxidation of fatty acids
    4. Synthesis of protein from amino acids


    d      218(A)                   48.  When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) can lead to storage of fat?

    1. Fat only
    2. Carbohydrate only
    3. Fat and carbohydrate only
    4. Fat, carbohydrate, and protein


    c      218(A)                   49.  If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body’s needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?

    1. Fatty acids
    2. Acetyl CoA
    3. Amino acids
    4. Carbon dioxide


    d      218(A)                   50.  When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecules is

    1. stored as fat only.
    2. excreted in the feces.
    3. stored as amino acids only.
    4. stored as glycogen and fat.


    d      220-221(K)           51.  What are the products from the complete oxidation of fatty acids?

    1. Urea and acetone
    2. Fatty acids and glycerol
    3. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
    4. Water, carbon dioxide, and energy


    a      220-221(K)           52.  In addition to energy, what are the principal end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrates?

    1. Water and carbon dioxide
    2. Carbon, hydrogen, and urea
    3. Indigestible fiber and nitrogen
    4. Monosaccharides and amino acids


    c      220-221(A)           53.  Which of the following products is not generated via the TCA cycle or electron transport chain?

    1. Water
    2. Energy
    3. Ammonia
    4. Carbon dioxide


    a      221(A)                   54.  At what point is oxygen used in the electron transport chain?

    1. At the end
    2. At every step
    3. At the beginning
    4. When ATP is synthesized


    b      221(K)                   55.  Products from the electron transport chain pathway include all of the following except

    1. CO2.
    2. urea.
    3. water.
    4. energy.


    b      221-222(K)           56.  Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?

    1. Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
    2. Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds
    3. Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds
    4. Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield


    d      222(A)                   57.  The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of

    1. carbon.
    2. oxygen.
    3. nitrogen.
    4. hydrogen.


    c      222(K)                   58.  Approximately how many molecules of ATP are generated from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose?

    1. 4
    2. 9
    3. 32
    4. 130


    d      222(A)                   59.  Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid?

    1. 9
    2. 27
    3. 98
    4. 129


    Section 7.3 Energy Balance


    c      222(K)                   60.  Which of the following can be synthesized from all three energy-yielding nutrients?

    1. Lactate
    2. Glycogen
    3. Acetyl CoA
    4. Oxaloacetate


    c      223(A)                   61.  Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the body’s higher metabolic efficiency of converting a molecule of corn oil into stored fat compared with a molecule of sucrose?

    1. The enzymes specific for metabolizing absorbed fat have been found to have higher activities than those metabolizing sucrose
    2. The absorbed corn oil is transported to fat cells at a faster rate than the absorbed sucrose, thereby favoring the uptake of corn oil fat
    3. There are fewer metabolic reactions for disassembling the corn oil and re-assembling the parts into a triglyceride for uptake by the fat cells
    4. Because the energy content of corn oil is higher than sucrose, conversion of these nutrients into stored fat requires a smaller percentage of the energy from the corn oil


    c      223-224(A)           62.  If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from table sugar, approximately how many of the kcalories are stored in the body?

    1. 25
    2. 50
    3. 75
    4. 100


    d      223-224(A)           63.  If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from olive oil, approximately what percentage of the kcalories are stored in the body?

    1. 25
    2. 45
    3. 65
    4. 95


    a      224(A)                   64.  Jake is getting ready for spring training and is sitting down to a dinner of half a chicken, a rib-eye steak, black beans, and 5 slices of bacon. He has been eating typical dinners like this for about a month and has since gained 7 pounds, while exercising only briefly. When Jake asks why he doesn’t see an increase in his biceps or abs, the proper response should be

    1. dietary protein alone does not contribute to muscle accretion.
    2. it takes at least 6 months to document changes in muscle accretion.
    3. the weight he has gained can be attributed to a substantial increase in his protein stores.
    4. because muscle accretion only responds to very lean meat choices, he should eliminate the fatty bacon and steak from his diet to promote muscle gain.


    a      224(K)                   65.  Which of the following is a characteristic of the metabolism of specific macronutrients?

    1. The rate of fat oxidation does not change when fat is eaten in excess
    2. The rate of protein oxidation does not change when protein is eaten in excess
    3. The rate of glucose oxidation does not change when carbohydrate is eaten in excess
    4. The conversion of dietary glucose to fat represents the major pathway of carbohydrate utilization


    b      224(K)                   66.  How does excess carbohydrate intake contribute to obesity?

    1. It is efficiently converted to storage fat
    2. It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat
    3. It stimulates glucagon release resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation
    4. It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption


    c      224(A)                   67.  Which of the following is the body’s first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate?

    1. Catabolism of body fat
    2. Catabolism of glycogen
    3. Synthesis and storage of glycogen
    4. Synthesis and storage of triglycerides


    b      224-225(K)           68.  All of the following are features of the metabolism of surplus dietary carbohydrate in human beings except

    1. excess glucose suppresses fat oxidation.
    2. excess glucose is oxidized only very slowly.
    3. excess glucose is first used to fill glycogen reserves.
    4. conversion of excess glucose to fat occurs only to a very limited extent.


    a      224-225(K)           69.  Which of the following is a feature of the metabolism of surplus dietary fat?

    1. Excess fat is almost all stored
    2. Excess fat promotes increased fat oxidation
    3. Excess fat spares breakdown of body proteins
    4. Conversion of excess fat to storage fat is inefficient


    a      226(A)                   70.  After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following is most depleted in the body?

    1. Glycogen
    2. Fatty acids
    3. Amino acids
    4. Triglycerides


    c      226(K)                   71.  Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells?

    1. 10
    2. 30
    3. 50
    4. 90


    d      226(A)                   72.  If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain?

    1. 40
    2. 100
    3. 200
    4. 300


    a      226(K)                   73.  During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90% of the glucose needed to fuel the body?

    1. Protein
    2. Ketones
    3. Glycogen
    4. Triglycerides


    d      226(A)                   74.  Which of the following dietary nutrients would most rapidly reverse a state of ketosis in a starving person?

    1. Fat
    2.              Protein
    3. Amino acids
    4. Carbohydrate


    a      226(A)                   75.  How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis?

    1. Within 3 weeks
    2. Less than 2 weeks
    3. Between 5 and 6 weeks
    4. Between 2 and 3 months


    b      226(A)                   76.  A feature of ketosis is that it

    1. occurs from lack of protein in the diet.
    2. occurs when fats are partially oxidized.
    3. results from excess acetoacetate in the diet.
    4. results from excess carbohydrate in the diet.


    a      226(A)                   77.  The effects on metabolism from starvation are similar to those from

    1. fasting.
    2. feasting.
    3. lipogenesis.
    4. Cori cycling.


    a      226-227(A)           78.  A person said to have acetone breath most likely has the condition known as

    1. ketonemia.
    2. feasting syndrome.
    3. acetyl CoA toxicity.
    4. carbohydrate overload.


    a      226-227(A)           79.  Which of the following is used to supply some of the fuel needed by the brain only after the body has been fasting for a while?

    1. Ketones
    2. Glycerol
    3. Fatty acids
    4. Amino acids


    c      226-227(A)           80.  Elizabeth has been fasting for 4 days in observance of her religious beliefs. You note that her breath smells “fruity.” This is most likely due to

    1. her intake of religious wafers.
    2. her intake of dilute fruit juices.
    3. her body’s shift to a state of ketosis.
    4. her body’s switch to a lipogenic state.


    a      227(K)                   81.  Ketonemia is defined as an elevation of

    1. ketones in the blood.
    2. ketones in the urine.
    3. alpha-ketoglutarate in the blood.
    4. alpha-ketoglutarate in the urine.


    b      227(K)                   82.  How are ketones formed?

    1. Condensation of lactic acid molecules
    2. Condensation of acetyl CoA molecules
    3. Hydrolysis of excess glycerol fragments
    4. Hydrolysis of excess pyruvate fragments


    b      227(A)                   83.  All of the following are general features of starvation in people except

    1. a decrease in metabolic rate.
    2. a decrease in mental alertness.
    3. a decrease in immune function.
    4. a decrease in body temperature.


    a      227(K)                   84.  Which of the following is a characteristic of ketosis?

    1. It may lead to a lowering of blood pH
    2. It leads to increased appetite in most individuals
    3. It may be alleviated quickly by ingestion of some dietary fat
    4. It is a necessary physiological adjustment for maximum weight loss


    d      227(K)                   85.  Which of the following is classified as a ketone body?

    1. Sorbitol
    2. Pyruvate
    3. Acetyl CoA
    4. Acetoacetate


    d      227-228(K)           86.  Adverse side effects of typical low-carbohydrate diets include all of the following except

    1. fatigue.
    2. nausea.
    3. constipation.
    4. high blood pressure.


    d      228(A)                   87.  Lillie has been losing weight by following a very-low-carbohydrate diet for 2 months. Her primary care physician just diagnosed ketosis through a urine sample. Which of the following symptoms would be another way the physician might have suspected ketosis in Lillie?

    1. Thinning hair
    2. Irritable temper
    3. Fishy body odor
    4. Fruity odor on breath


    a      228(A)                   88.  A person with fruity odor on the breath demonstrates evidence of metabolic

    1. ketosis.
    2. alkalosis.
    3. transamination.
    4. anaerobic breakdown.


    c      228(A)                   89.  What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis?

    1. Low fat
    2. Low protein
    3. Low carbohydrate
    4. High carbohydrate


    Questions for Section 7.4 Alcohol and Nutrition


    b      230(K)                   90.  The health benefits of moderate alcohol intake occur in people with a starting age (years) of

    1. 21.
    2. 35.
    3. 55.
    4. 65.


    b      230(K)                   91.  Binge drinking is defined as the successive consumption of

    1. 1-2 drinks.
    2. 4-5 drinks.
    3. 6-9 drinks.
    4. more than 10 drinks.


    a      230-231(A)           92.  Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized woman?

    1. Up to 1 drink
    2. Up to 2 drinks
    3. Up to 3 drinks
    4. Up to 5 drinks


    b      230-231(K)           93.  Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man?

    1. Up to 1 drink
    2. Up to 2 drinks
    3. Up to 3 drinks
    4. Up to 5 drinks


    c      231(K)                   94.  The chemical structure of ethanol consists of

    1. 4 carbons and 1 keto acid.
    2. 6 carbons and 2 double bonds.
    3. 2 carbons and 1 hydroxyl group.
    4. 3 carbons and 2 carbonyl groups.


    b      231(A)                   95.  With alcohol beverages, the ratio of proof to alcohol percentage is

    1. 1:1.
    2. 2:1.
    3. 4:1.
    4. 8:1.


    a      231(K)                   96.  The amount of ethanol in a typical “drink” is

    1. 0.5 ounce.
    2. 1 ounce.
    3. 1.5 ounces.
    4. 2 ounces.


    d      231(A)                   97.  Approximately how many kcal are contained in 3 ounces of 80-proof rum?

    1. 50
    2. 100
    3. 150
    4. 200


    c      231(K)                   98.  One average-sized can of beer contains about the same amount of alcohol as

    1. ½ ounce of rum.
    2. ½ quart of wine.
    3. 1½ ounces of vodka.
    4. 1 quart of wine cooler.


    c      231(A)                   99.  What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey?

    1. 5
    2. 30
    3. 60
    4. 95


    d      232(K)                 100.  Which of the following is one explanation for the generally lower tolerance for alcohol in women in comparison to men?

    1. Women fast more often
    2. Women do not eat as much food with the alcohol
    3. Women consume more of their alcohol in sweetened drinks
    4. Women have lower amounts of stomach alcohol dehydrogenase


    b      232(A)                 101.  What organ is first to absorb alcohol after a person takes a drink?

    1. Colon
    2. Stomach
    3. Jejunum
    4. Duodenum


    b      232(K)                 102.  What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol?

    1. Brain
    2. Liver
    3. Pancreas
    4. Digestive tract


    d      232(A)                 103.  Which of the following is(are) best suited for slowing alcohol absorption?

    1. Not eating
    2. Protein snacks
    3. Caffeine drinks
    4. Carbohydrate snacks


    c      232(K)                 104.  The metabolism of alcohol begins in the

    1. liver.
    2. brain.
    3. stomach.
    4. intestines.


    a      232(K)                 105.  Which of the following is characteristic of alcohol absorption?

    1. It is slowed when the stomach is full of food
    2. It is increased when high-fat snacks are eaten
    3. It is increased when carbohydrate snacks are eaten
    4. It is lower in women than in men of the same body weight


    c      232(K)                 106.  Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body?

    1. Lung respiratory rate
    2. Kidney antidiuretic hormone
    3. Liver alcohol dehydrogenase
    4. Brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase


    b      232(K)                 107.  What is acetaldehyde?

    1. An intermediate in fatty acid synthesis
    2. An intermediate in alcohol metabolism
    3. The first product of fatty acid catabolism
    4. The TCA compound that combines with acetyl CoA


    c      232(K)                 108.  Which of the following statements is not characteristic of alcohol metabolism?

    1. There are gender differences in the rate of breakdown
    2. The average person needs about two hours to metabolize two drinks
    3. Alcohol is metabolized by muscle and brain cells as well as by the liver
    4. The amount of alcohol in the breath is proportional to the amount in the blood


    b      232(A)                 109.  Your middle-aged aunt says that she always feels more “tipsy” than her same-size husband, even though their alcohol intake is the same. You respond by saying to your aunt:

    1. “Men have greater amounts of liver acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so can oxidize the alcohol at a faster rate.”
    2. “Women have less stomach alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme and consequently absorb more of the alcohol into the bloodstream.”
    3. “Men have greater amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the brain, resulting in reduced exposure of brain neurons to alcohol.”
    4. “Women have less liver alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so more alcohol is released into the systemic circulation.”


    c      232(A)                 110.  In the average healthy person, about how much time is required by the liver to process the alcohol in a typical drink?

    1. 15 minutes
    2. 30 minutes
    3. 1 hour
    4. 2 hours


    b      233(K)                 111.  Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of

    1. liver fat.
    2. liver glucose.
    3. ketone bodies.
    4. acetyl CoA molecules.


    d      233(K)                 112.  What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?

    1. Fibrosis, gout, cirrhosis
    2. Fibrosis, cirrhosis, fat depletion
    3. Cirrhosis, fat accumulation, fibrosis
    4. Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis


    d      234(K)                 113.  What is MEOS?

    1. An advanced liver disorder
    2. A drug that inhibits alcohol absorption
    3. A waste product of alcohol metabolism
    4. A system of enzymes that oxidizes alcohol and drugs


    c      234(K)                 114.  Approximately what percentage of alcohol in the body is eliminated via the urine and breath?

    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 10
    4. 25


    b      234-235(A)         115.  Which of the following functions is(are) first to be affected when a person begins to drink alcohol?

    1. Speech and vision
    2. Judgment and reasoning
    3. Voluntary muscle control
    4. Respiration and heart function


    a      235(K)                 116.  What is the minimum blood alcohol percentage that defines legal drunkenness in most states?

    1. 0.10
    2. 0.20
    3. 0.30
    4. 0.40


    b      235(K)                 117.  What minimum concentration of blood alcohol leads to impaired judgment and increased heart rate?

    1. 0.01
    2. 0.05
    3. 0.10
    4. 0.35


    a      235(K)                 118.  What minimum concentration of alcohol in the blood is usually fatal?

    1. 0.5%
    2. 1%
    3. 5%
    4. 50%


    d      235(K)                 119.  Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake?

    1. The MEOS is suppressed
    2. Homocysteine production is reduced
    3. Water content of the blood in increased
    4. Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed


    b      236(K)                 120.  The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of

    1. folate.
    2. thiamin.
    3. antidiuretic hormone.
    4. alcohol dehydrogenase.


    a      236(K)                 121.  Which of the following is a feature of ethanol metabolism?

    1. It increases gastric acid output
    2. It decreases activity of the MEOS
    3. It decreases secretion of gastric histamine
    4. It increases secretion of antidiuretic hormone


    a      236(A)                 122.  Chronic excess alcohol intake leads to all of the following effects on folate except

    1. the small intestine recycles more folate.
    2. the liver releases more folate into the blood.
    3. the kidneys excrete more folate via the urine.
    4. the small intestine absorbs less folate from the diet.


    c      236(A)                 123.  Approximately how many kcalories from ethanol are contained in one standard drink of vodka or rum?

    1. 25
    2. 50
    3. 100
    4. 200


    c      237(K)                 124.  Approximately what percentage of all traffic fatalities involves alcohol?

    1. 5
    2. 25
    3. 40
    4. 75


    a      237(K)                 125.  What is the median weekly number of alcoholic drinks consumed by college students?

    1. 3
    2. 5
    3. 10


    d      237(A)                 126.  What fraction of all domestic violence incidents involve alcohol use?

    1. 1/10
    2. 1/5
    3. 1/3
    4. 2/3


    a      238(K)                 127.  Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use?

    1. Ingestion of alcohol cools the body
    2. Alcohol stimulates the appetite for most people
    3. Since alcohol is legal, it is not classified as a drug
    4. Intake of alcohol along with raw seafood reduces the chances of contracting hepatitis