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Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney – Test Bank 

 

 

 

Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which characteristic is most typical of a chronic disease?
a. It has a rapid onset.
b. It rarely has noticeable symptoms.
c. It produces sharp pains
d. It progresses gradually.
e. It disrupts daily life, but is unlikely to be life-threatening.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    Introduction

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. What is the chief reason most people choose the foods they eat?
a. cost
b. taste
c. convenience
d. nutritional value
e. habit

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related ____.
a. habit
b. social interaction
c. emotional turmoil
d. negative association
e. comfort eating

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                          REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on ____.
a. habit
b. availability
c. body image
d. environmental concerns
e. cultural values

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Which individual is making a food choice based on negative association?
a. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity
b. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty
c. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend
d. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he considers it a child’s food
e. An adult who refuses to eat foods that are not locally-sourced and organic

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to his ____.
a. values
b. body image
c. ethnic heritage
d. functional association
e. comfort

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her food choice will most likely be based on ____.
a. regional cuisines
b. preferences
c. emotional comfort
d. positive association
e. functional value

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. What term describes foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food’s nutrients?
a. fortified foods
b. enriched foods
c. functional foods
d. health-enhancing foods
e. bioavailable foods

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that may demonstrate biological activity in the body are commonly known as
a. bioenhancements
b. inorganic fibers
c. phytochemicals
d. phytoactive chemicals
e. nonnutritive additives

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s Remember                        REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods?
a. fats
b. water
c. proteins
d. carbohydrates
e. vitamins and minerals

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. What type of nutrient is needed by the body and must be supplied by foods?
a. nutraceutical.
b. metabolic nutrient
c. organic nutrient
d. essential nutrient
e. phytonutrient.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which nutrient is an example of a macronutrient?
a. proteins
b. minerals
c. water-soluble vitamins
d. fat-soluble vitamins
e. water

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient?
a. minerals
b. proteins
c. alcohols
d. carbohydrates
e. fats

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which nutrient is an organic compound?
a. salt
b. water
c. calcium
d. vitamin C
e. iron

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. An essential nutrient is one that ____.
a. must be made in large quantities by the body
b. can only by synthesized by the body
c. cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body
d. is used to synthesize other compounds in the body
e. must be both consumed and synthesized to be complete

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. The term organic, as related to compounds, would be best defined as ____.
a. products sold at health food stores
b. products grown without use of pesticides
c. foods having superior nutrient qualities
d. substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds
e. substances that contain water

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C?
a. 10 calories
b. 100 calories
c. 1 kilocalorie
d. 10 kilocalories
e. 100 kilocalories

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Gram for gram, which class of nutrient provides the most energy?
a. fats
b. alcohols
c. proteins
d. carbohydrates
e. vitamins and minerals

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in ____.
a. kilojoules
b. kilograms
c. kilometers
d. kilonewtons
e. kiloliters

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Units of energy used by most scientists and nutritionists, aside from those in the United States, are expressed in ____.
a. newtons
b. liters
c. kilojoules
d. kilocalories
e. grams

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                                 REF:    1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk?
a. 50
b. 85
c. 120
d. 170
e. 200

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams?
a. 5
b. 50
c. 100
d. 150
e. 200

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat?
a. 8.5%
b. 15.0%
c. 19.0%
d. 25.5%
e. 32.0%

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which nutrient source will yields more than 4 kcalories per gram?
a. plant fats
b. plant proteins
c. animal proteins
d. plant carbohydrates
e. animal carbohydrates

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. What results from the metabolism of energy nutrients?
a. Energy is released.
b. Body fat increases.
c. Energy is destroyed.
d. Body water decreases.
e. Body mass increases.

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which statement best describes the composition of most foods?
a. Most contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them.
b. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients.
c. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate.
d. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and those two are contained in equal amounts.
e. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and one is present in far greater amounts than the other.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings?
a. 5
b. 8
c. 10
d. 13
e. 17

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients?
a. They are organic.
b. They yield 4 kcalories per gram.
c. Some become dissolved in body fluids.
d. Some may be destroyed during cooking.
e. They are more fragile than vitamins.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Analyze                           REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. How many minerals are known to be essential for human nutrition?
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 20
e. 24

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and tells you that she feels a lot better. Her statement to you is best described as a(n) ____.
a. anecdote
b. theory.
c. interpretation
d. conclusion.
e. hypothesis

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Apply                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. What is the study of how a person’s genes interact with nutrients?
a. genetic counseling
b. nutritional genomics
c. genetic metabolomics
d. nutritional genetics
e. biogenetic nutrition

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. How does a double-blind experiment work?
a. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment.
b. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group
c. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know.
d. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know.
e. Neither the subjects nor the persons having contact with the subjects know the true purpose of the experiment.

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a ____.
a. theory
b. prediction
c. hypothesis
d. correlation
e. deduction

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. What is one major weakness of a laboratory-based study?
a. The costs are typically prohibitive.
b. Findings are difficult to replicate.
c. Results from animal testing cannot be applied to human beings.
d. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled.
e. Causality cannot be inferred.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Analyze                           REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. What is one benefit of using controls in an experiment?
a. The size of the groups can be very large.
b. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment.
c. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos.
d. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested.
e. The costs associated with the study are usually much lower.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. What is one benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment?
a. Chance variation is less likely to affect the results.
b. The possibility of a placebo effect is eliminated.
c. The experiment will be double-blind.
d. The control group will be similar to the experimental group.
e. Experimenter bias is less likely to have an effect.

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have taken to conduct your experiment correctly?
a. Giving all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and telling them what they were getting
b. Distributing the bottles randomly, randomizing the subjects, and telling them what they were getting
c. Telling the subjects which group they were in, but preventing yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles
d. Preventing yourself from knowing what is in the pill bottles, and distributing the bottles randomly to the subjects
e. Allowing the subjects to decide whether they take Vitamin C or the placebo, and then giving them the opposite of what they requested

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a ____.
a. variable effect
b. positive correlation
c. negative correlation
d. randomization effect
e. placebo effect

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as ____.
a. peer review
b. cohort review
c. research intervention
d. double-blind examination
e. peer replication

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. What is the smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a specific function?
a. nutrient allowance
b. nutrient requirement
c. nutrient tolerable limit
d. nutrient adequate intake
e. nutrient recommendation

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. A group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their population group. What percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 33
d. 40
e. 50

 

 

ANS:  E                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. A health magazine contacts you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. How should you reply?
a. The Dietary Reference Intakes, because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada
b. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people
c. The Estimated Average Requirements, because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population
d. The Recommended Dietary Allowances, because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people.
e. The Estimated Energy Requirement, because it represents what will maintain energy balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to ____.
a. measure nutrient balance of population groups
b. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals
c. treat persons with diet-related illnesses
d. calculate exact food requirements for most individuals
e. recommend amounts of nutrients when there is insufficient evidence to determine the EAR

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the ____.
a. Lower Tolerable Limit
b. Upper Tolerable Limit
c. Subclinical Deficiency Value
d. Estimated Average Requirement
e. Adequate Intake

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the
a. Adequate Intake.
b. Daily Recommended Value.
c. Tolerable Upper Intake Level.
d. Recommended Dietary Allowance.
e. Necessary and Sufficient Intake

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally ____.
a. more than twice as high as anyone needs
b. the minimum amounts that average people need
c. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people
d. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population
e. reflective of current dietary preferences

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?
a. Setting nutrient goals for individuals
b. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients
c. Restoring health of malnourished individuals
d. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren
e. Improving population-level health

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. Which statement is true of nutrient intakes?
a. Higher intakes are always safer than lower intakes.
b. Intakes below the EAR decrease risk of deficiency.
c. A typical intake falling between the RDA and the EAR is almost always adequate.
d. Intakes above the RDA are required to be safe.
e. Intakes above the UL put an individual at risk of toxicity.

 

 

ANS:  E                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent?
a. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food
b. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI
c. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form
d. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people
e. The amount that can be absorbed from a typical diet.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance?
a. Estimated Energy Requirement
b. Adequate Average Requirement
c. Recommended Dietary Allowance
d. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range
e. Tolerable Upper Energy Limit

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. The percentages of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are known as the ____.
a. Estimated Energy Requirements
b. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes
c. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations
d. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges
e. Healthy People Recommendations

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate?
a. 5-10%
b. 15-25%
c. 30-40%
d. 45-65%
e. 70-80%

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What is the AMDR for protein?
a. 10-35%
b. 40-45%
c. 50-60%
d. 65-75%
e. 80-80%

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What is the AMDR for fat?
a. 10-30%
b. 20-35%
c. 40-50%
d. 55-65%
e. 70-80%

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to ____.
a. treat people with diet-related disorders
b. assess adequacy of all required nutrients
c. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people
d. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals
e. diagnose diet-related disorders

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. Which method is used to detect nutrient deficiencies?
a. Nutrition assessment
b. Nutrient stages identification
c. Overt symptoms identification
d. Outward manifestations assessment
e. Nutritional diagnostic programs

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which parameters would be most useful for the nutrition assessment of individuals?
a. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, and favorite family recipes
b. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, and family tree
c. Diet records that include what the patient usually eats will provide sufficient information
d. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, and laboratory tests
e. Diet records that take the “average” of what the patient reports and what an objective observer reports

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Which measure is anthropometric?
a. body weight
b. blood pressure
c. blood iron level
d. food intake information
e. serum electrolytes

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Which sequence of stages is most typical in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake?
a. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs
b. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs
c. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores
d. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body
e. Overt signs, abnormal functions, and declining nutrient stores

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient?
a. primary
b. clinical
c. secondary
d. subclinical
e. chronic

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that ____.
a. shows overt signs
b. is in the early stages
c. shows resistance to treatment
d. is similar to a secondary deficiency
e. is of acute onset

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. The overall objective of the Healthy People program is to ____.
a. establish the DRI
b. identify national trends in food consumption
c. identify leading causes of death in the United States
d. set goals for the nation’s health over the next 10 years
e. decrease health care costs

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition?
a. one
b. four
c. six
d. eight
e. nine

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. Which statement explains the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease?
a. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease.
b. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease.
c. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease.
d. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases.
e. Risk factors tend to be short-lived, so their presence does not predict long-term risk of disease.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States?
a. poor diet
b. tobacco use
c. alcohol intake
d. risky sexual activity
e. unsafe driving

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult for nutrition information?
a. chiropractor
b. medical doctor
c. registered dietitian
d. health food store manager
e. nutrition consultant

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate

REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. Which statement best describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public?
a. The title “dietitian” can be used by anyone in all states.
b. The title “nutritionist” can be used by anyone in all states.
c. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states.
d. A license to practice as a nutritionist is mandatory in all states but very few license dieticians.
e. Nutrition consultants are subject to more stringent licensure than are dietitians.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate

REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. Which individuals is likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training and to have gotten his or her agree from an “alternative” educational program?
a. dietetic technician
b. registered dietician
c. certified nutritionist
d. dietetic technician, registered
e. public health nutritionist

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate

REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. For which of the following titles, by definition, require the individual to be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics?
a. medical doctor
b. registered dietician
c. certified nutritionist
d. certified nutrition therapist
e. registered nutritional consultant

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand

REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of ____.
a. dietetic assistant
b. nutrition assistant
c. dietetic technician
d. nutrition technician
e. dietetic aide

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember

REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Risk factors for chronic disease tend to ____________________ and tend to ____________________.

 

ANS:

persist; cluster

cluster; persist

 

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. Foods associated with a particular culture are called ____________________ foods.

 

ANS:  ethnic

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Foods that provide health benefits beyond their nutrient contributions are called ____________________ foods.

 

ANS:  functional

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Nonnutrient compounds found in plants, some of which have biological activity in the body, are called ____________________.

 

ANS:  phytochemicals

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. The normal range for ____________________ is 18 to 21% for young men and 23 to 26% for young women.

 

ANS:  body fat composition

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. The three energy-yielding nutrients are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.

 

ANS:

carbohydrate; fat; protein

carbohydrate; protein; fat

 

fat; protein; carbohydrate

 

fat; carbohydrate; protein

 

protein; carbohydrate; fat

 

protein; fat; carbohydrate

 

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. Although ____________________ provides energy, it is not considered a nutrient because it does not sustain life.

 

ANS:  alcohol

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

MATCHING

Match the correct answer with the appropriate term.

 

a. 7 k. Placebo
b. 16 l. Inorganic
c. 20 m. Validity
d. 40 n. Hypothesis
e. 100 o. Healthy People
f. Fat p. National nutrition surveys
g. Water q. Anthropometrics
h. Energy r. Overt deficiency
i. Protein s. Physical examination
j. Organic t. Subclinical deficiency

 

 

  1. Nutrient with the highest body concentration

 

  1. Substance containing no carbon or not pertaining to living things

 

  1. Number of indispensable nutrients for human beings

 

  1. Most substances containing carbon-hydrogen bonds

 

  1. Substance containing nitrogen

 

  1. Energy (kcal) required to increase temperature of 1 kg of water from 0° C to 100° C

 

  1. Nutrient with the highest energy density

 

  1. Energy (kcal) yield of five grams of sugar

 

  1. Energy (kcal) yield of one gram of alcohol

 

  1. Number of indispensable minerals for human beings

 

  1. An unproven statement

 

  1. An inert medication

 

  1. Possessing the quality of being evidence based

 

  1. The recommended intake is set at the population mean

 

  1. Gather information about dietary, nutritional, and health status

 

  1. Program that sets goals to increase the quality and years of healthy life

 

  1. Measurement of physical characteristics

 

  1. Inspection of skin, tongue, eyes, hair, and fingernails

 

  1. A nutrient deficiency showing outward signs

 

  1. A nutrient deficiency in the early stages

 

  1. ANS:  G                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  L                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  J                     DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  I                     DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  E                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  F                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. ANS:  N                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. ANS:  K                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. ANS:  M                   DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. ANS:  H                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember

REF:   Dietary Reference   Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. ANS:  P                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. ANS:  O                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. ANS:  Q                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. ANS:  S                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. ANS:  R                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. ANS:  T                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Describe six behavioral or social motives governing people’s food choices.

 

ANS:

Preferences: As you might expect, the number one reason most people choose certain foods is taste—they like the flavor. Two widely shared preferences are for the sweetness of sugar and the savoriness of salt. High-fat foods also appear to be a universally common preference.

 

Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting.

 

Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles.

 

Social Interactions: Most people enjoy companionship while eating. It’s fun to go out with friends for a meal or share a snack when watching a movie together. Meals are often social events, and sharing food is part of hospitality. Social customs invite people to accept food or drink offered by a host or shared by a group—regardless of hunger signals.

 

Availability, Convenience, and Economy: People often eat foods that are accessible, quick and easy to prepare, and within their financial means. Consumers who value convenience frequently eat out, bring home ready-to-eat meals, or have food delivered.

 

Positive and Negative Associations: People tend to like particular foods associated with happy occasions—such as hot dogs at ball games or cake and ice cream at birthday parties. By the same token, people can develop aversions and dislike foods that they ate when they felt sick or that they were forced to eat in negative situations. Similarly, children learn to like and dislike certain foods when their parents use foods as rewards or punishments.

 

Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety.

 

Values: Food choices may reflect people’s religious beliefs, political views, or environmental concerns.

 

Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health.

 

Nutrition and Health Benefits: Many consumers make food choices they believe will improve their health.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Explain how food choices are influenced by habits, emotions, physical appearance, and ethnic background.

 

ANS:

Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting.

 

Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles.

 

Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety.

 

Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Discuss some of the consequences of eating in response to emotions.

 

ANS:

Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. A depressed person may choose to eat rather than to call a friend. A person who has returned home from an exciting evening out may unwind with a late-night snack. These people may find emotional comfort, in part, because foods can influence the brain’s chemistry and the mind’s response. Carbohydrates and alcohol, for example, tend to calm, whereas proteins and caffeine are more likely to stimulate. Eating in response to emotions and stress can easily lead to overeating and obesity, but it may be helpful at times. For example, sharing food at times of bereavement serves both the giver’s need to provide comfort and the receiver’s need to be cared for and to interact with others as well as to take nourishment.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.1 Food Choices

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.

 

  1. Define the term organic. How do the properties of vitamins relate to their organic nature? Contrast these points with the properties of inorganic compounds such as minerals.

 

ANS:

In chemistry, organic refers to substances or molecules containing carbon-carbon bonds or carbon-hydrogen bonds that are characteristic of living organisms. The four classes of nutrients that are organic are carbohydrates, lipids (fats), proteins, and vitamins.

 

Inorganic compounds or substances are those not containing carbon or pertaining to living organisms. The two classes of nutrients that are inorganic are minerals and water.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.2 The Nutrients

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy.

 

  1. List the strengths and weaknesses of epidemiological studies and experimental studies.

 

ANS:

Epidemiological studies research the incidence, distribution, and control of disease in a population. Epidemiological studies include cross-sectional, case-control, and cohort studies.

Strengths:

  • Can narrow down the list of possible causes
  • Can raise questions to pursue through other research

Weaknesses:

  • Cannot control variables that may influence the development or the prevention of a disease
  • Cannot prove cause and effect

 

Experimental studies test cause-and-effect relationships between variables. Experimental studies include laboratory-based studies—on animals or in test tubes (in vitro)—and human intervention (or clinical) trials.

Strengths:

  • Can control conditions (for the most part)
  • Can determine effects of a variable
  • Can apply some findings on human beings to some groups of human beings

Weaknesses:

  • Cannot apply results from test tubes or animals to human beings
  • Cannot generalize findings on human beings to all human beings
  • Cannot use certain treatments for clinical or ethical reasons

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. Explain the importance of the placebo and the double-blind technique in carrying out research studies.

 

ANS:

Placebos: If people who take vitamin C for colds believe it will cure them, their chances of recovery may improve. Taking pills believed to be beneficial may shorten the duration and lessen the severity of illness regardless of whether the pills contain active ingredients. This phenomenon, the result of expectations, is known as the placebo effect. In experiments designed to determine vitamin C’s effect on colds, this mind-body effect must be rigorously controlled. Severity of symptoms is often a subjective measure, and people who believe they are receiving treatment may report less severe symptoms. One way experimenters control for the placebo effect is to give pills to all participants. Those in the experimental group, for example, receive pills containing vitamin C, and those in the control group receive a placebo—pills of similar appearance and taste containing an inactive ingredient. This way, the expectations of both groups will be equal. It is not necessary to convince all subjects that they are receiving vitamin C, but the extent of belief or unbelief must be the same in both groups. A study conducted under these conditions is called a blind experiment—that is, the subjects do not know (are blind to) whether they are members of the experimental group (receiving treatment) or the control group (receiving the placebo).

 

Double Blind: When both the subjects and the researchers do not know which subjects are in which group, the study is called a double-blind experiment. Being fallible human beings and having an emotional and sometimes financial investment in a successful outcome, researchers might record and interpret results with a bias in the expected direction. To prevent such bias, the pills are coded by a third party, who does not reveal to the experimenters which subjects are in which group until all results have been recorded.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.

 

  1. Describe the steps involved in establishing nutrient values that make up the Dietary Reference Intakes.

 

ANS:

The DRI Committee consists of highly qualified scientists who base their estimates of nutrient needs on careful examination and interpretation of scientific evidence. These recommendations apply to healthy people and may not be appropriate for people with diseases that increase or decrease nutrient needs.

 

Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks.

 

An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population.

 

Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people.

 

Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals.

 

Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL).

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. Compare and contrast the meaning of Adequate Intakes, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Estimated Average Requirements, and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for nutrients.

 

ANS:

Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks.

An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population.

 

Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people.

 

Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals.

 

Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL).

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. What approach is taken in setting recommendations for energy intakes and why? How does this approach differ from that taken for other nutrients?

 

ANS:

In contrast to the RDA and AI values for nutrients, the recommendation for energy is not generous. Excess energy cannot be readily excreted and is eventually stored as body fat. These reserves may be beneficial when food is scarce, but they can also lead to obesity and its associated health consequences.

 

Estimated Energy Requirement (EER): The energy recommendation—called the Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)—represents the average dietary energy intake (kcalories per day) that will maintain energy balance in a person who has a healthy body weight and level of physical activity. Balance is key to the energy recommendation. Enough food energy is needed to sustain a healthy and active life, but too much can lead to weight gain and obesity. Because any amount in excess of energy needs will result in weight gain, no upper level for energy has been determined.

Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)

 

People don’t eat energy directly; they derive energy from foods containing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Each of these three energy-yielding nutrients contributes to the total energy intake, and those contributions vary in relation to one another. The DRI committee has determined that the composition of a diet that provides adequate energy and nutrients and reduces the risk of chronic diseases is:

45 to 65 percent kcalories from carbohydrate

20 to 35 percent kcalories from fat

10 to 35 percent kcalories from protein.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.

 

  1. List and discuss four methods commonly used to assess nutritional status of individuals.

 

ANS:

To prepare a nutrition assessment, a registered dietitian (or registered dietitian nutritionist), dietetic technician registered, or other trained health-care professional uses:

Historical information

Anthropometric measurements

Physical examinations

Laboratory tests

 

One step in evaluating nutrition status is to obtain information about a person’s history with respect to health status, socioeconomic status, drug use, and diet. The health history reflects a person’s medical record and may reveal a disease that interferes with the person’s ability to eat or the body’s use of nutrients. The person’s family history of major diseases is also noteworthy, especially for conditions such as heart disease that have a genetic tendency to run in families. Economic circumstances may show a financial inability to buy foods or inadequate kitchen facilities in which to prepare them. Social factors such as marital status, ethnic background, and educational level also influence food choices and nutrition status. A drug history, including all prescribed and over-the-counter medications, may highlight possible interactions that lead to nutrient deficiencies.

 

A second technique that may help to reveal nutrition problems is taking anthropometric measures such as height and weight. The assessor compares a person’s measurements with standards specific for gender and age or with previous measures on the same individual.

 

A third nutrition assessment technique is a physical examination looking for clues to poor nutrition status. Visual inspection of the hair, eyes, skin, posture, tongue, and fingernails can provide such clues. In addition, information gathered from an interview can help identify symptoms. The examination requires skill because many physical signs and symptoms reflect more than one nutrient deficiency or toxicity—or even nonnutrition conditions. Like the other assessment techniques, a physical examination alone does not yield firm conclusions. Instead, physical examinations reveal possible imbalances that must be confirmed by other assessment techniques, or they confirm results from other assessment measures.

 

A fourth way to detect a developing deficiency, imbalance, or toxicity is to take samples of blood or urine, analyze them in the laboratory, and compare the results with normal values for a similar population. Laboratory tests are most useful in uncovering early signs of malnutrition before symptoms appear. In addition, they can confirm suspicions raised by other assessment methods.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Discuss how the results from national nutrition surveys are used by private and government agencies and groups.

 

ANS:

National nutrition surveys gather information about the population’s dietary, nutritional, and related health status. One survey collects data on the kinds and amounts of foods people eat. Another survey examines the people themselves, using anthropometric measurements, physical examinations, and laboratory tests. The data provide valuable information on several nutrition-related conditions, such as growth retardation, heart disease, and nutrient deficiencies. National nutrition surveys often oversample high-risk groups (low-income families, pregnant women, adolescents, the elderly, African Americans, and Mexican Americans) to glean an accurate estimate of their health and nutrition status. The resulting wealth of information from the national nutrition surveys is used for a variety of purposes. For example, Congress uses this information to establish public policy on nutrition education, food assistance programs, and the regulation of the food supply. Scientists use the information to establish research priorities. The food industry uses these data to guide decisions in public relations and product development. The Dietary Reference Intakes and other major reports that examine the relationships between diet and health depend on information collected from these nutrition surveys. These data also provide the basis for developing and monitoring national health goals.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Describe the national trends of food consumption over the past 40 years.

 

ANS:

We eat more meals away from home, particularly at fast-food restaurants. We eat larger portions. We drink more sweetened beverages and eat more energy-dense, nutrient-poor foods such as candy and chips. We snack frequently. As a result of these dietary habits, our energy intake has risen and, consequently, so has the incidence of overweight and obesity. Overweight and obesity, in turn, profoundly influence our health.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and  nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. List 10 goals of the Healthy People program. How successful is the program thus far?

 

ANS:

Increase the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight

Reduce the proportion of adults who are obese

Reduce iron deficiency among young children and females of childbearing age

Reduce iron deficiency among pregnant females

Reduce the proportion of children and adolescents who are overweight or obese

Increase the contribution of fruits to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older

Increase the variety and contribution of vegetables to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older

Increase the contribution of whole grains to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older

Reduce consumption of saturated fat in the population aged 2 years and older

Reduce consumption of sodium in the population aged 2 years and older

Increase consumption of calcium in the population aged 2 years and older

Increase the proportion of worksites that offer nutrition or weight management classes or counseling

Increase the proportion of physician office visits that include counseling or education related to nutrition or weight

Eliminate very low food security among children in US households

Prevent inappropriate weight gain in youth and adults

Increase the proportion of primary care physicians who regularly measure the body mass index of their patients

Reduce consumption of kcalories from solid fats and added sugars in the population aged 2 years and older

Increase the number of states that have state-level policies that incentivize food retail outlets to provide foods that are encouraged by the Dietary Guidelines

Increase the number of states with nutrition standards for foods and beverages provided to preschool-aged children in childcare

Increase the percentage of schools that offer nutritious foods and beverages outside of school meals

 

Progress in meeting the 2010 goals was mixed. A few objectives were met, about half made some progress, and several showed no progress—or even moved in the wrong direction. The objective to reduce average blood cholesterol levels was achieved, but objectives to eat more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains and to increase physical activity showed little or no improvement. Trends in over-weight and obesity actually worsened. Clearly, “what we eat in America” must change if we hope to meet the Healthy People goals.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.5 Nutrition Assessment

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and  nutrient deficiencies and excesses.

 

  1. Discuss the meaning and significance of the relationships between risk factors and chronic diseases.

 

ANS:

Factors that increase or reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases can be identified by analyzing statistical data. A strong association between a risk factor and a disease means that when the factor is present, the likelihood of developing the disease increases. It does not mean that all people with the risk factor will develop the disease. Similarly, a lack of risk factors does not guarantee freedom from a given disease. On the average, though, the more risk factors in a person’s life, the greater that person’s chances of developing the disease. Conversely, the fewer risk factors in a person’s life, the better the chances for good health.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. Discuss two important characteristics of chronic disease risk factors.

 

ANS:

Risk factors tend to persist over time. Without intervention, a young adult with high blood pressure will most likely continue to have high blood pressure as an older adult, for example. Thus, to minimize the damage, early intervention is most effective.

 

Risk factors tend to cluster. For example, a person who is obese may be physically inactive, have high blood pressure, and have high blood cholesterol—all risk factors associated with heart disease. Multiple risk factors act synergistically to increase the risk of disease dramatically. Intervention that focuses on one risk factor often benefits the others as well. For example, physical activity can help reduce weight. Physical activity and weight loss will, in turn, help to lower blood pressure and blood cholesterol.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   1.6 Diet and Health

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases.

 

  1. What cautions should you keep in mind when considering popular news reports about nutrition?

 

ANS:

Consumers get much of their nutrition information from Internet websites, television news, and magazine articles, which have heightened awareness of how diet influences the development of diseases. Consumers benefit from news coverage of nutrition when they learn to make lifestyle changes that will improve their health. Sometimes, however, popular reports mislead consumers and create confusion. They often tell a lopsided story quickly instead of presenting the integrated results of research studies or a balance of expert opinions.

 

Tight deadlines and limited understanding sometimes make it difficult to provide a thorough report. Hungry for the latest news, the media often report scientific findings quickly and prematurely—without benefit of careful interpretation, replication, or peer review. Usually, the reports present findings from a single, recently released study, making the news current and controversial. Consequently, the public receives diet and health news fast, but not always in perspective. Reporters may twist inconclusive findings into “meaningful discoveries” when pressured to write catchy headlines and sensational stories.

 

As a result “surprising new findings” sometimes seem to contradict one another, and consumers may feel frustrated and betrayed. Occasionally, the reports are downright false, but more often the apparent contradictions are simply the normal result of science at work. A single study contributes to the big picture, but when viewed alone, it can easily distort the image. To be meaningful the conclusions of any study must be presented cautiously within the context of other research findings.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. List techniques that help identify nutrition quackery.

 

ANS:

In contrast to registered dietitians, thousands of people obtain fake nutrition degrees and claim to be nutrition consultants or doctors of “nutrimedicine.” These and other such titles may sound meaningful, but most of these people lack the established credentials and training of an RD. If you look closely, you can see signs of their fake expertise.

 

Consider educational background, for example. The minimum standards of education for a dietitian specify a bachelor of science (BS) degree in food science and human nutrition or related fields from an accredited college or university. Such a degree generally requires 4 to 5 years of study. Similarly, minimum standards of education for a dietetic technician specify an associate degree that typically requires 2 years of study. In contrast, a fake nutritionist may display a degree from a 6-month course. Such a degree simply falls short. In some cases, businesses posing as schools offer even less—they sell certificates to anyone who pays the fees. To obtain these “degrees,” a candidate need not attend any classes, read any books, or pass any examinations.

 

Sales of unproven and dangerous products have always been a concern, but the Internet now provides merchants with an easy and inexpensive way to reach millions of customers around the world. Because of the difficulty in regulating the Internet, fraudulent and illegal sales of medical products have hit a bonanza. As is the case with the air, no one owns the Internet, and similarly, no one has control over the pollution. Countries have different laws regarding sales of drugs, dietary supplements, and other health products, but applying these laws to the Internet marketplace is almost impossible. Even if illegal activities could be defined and identified, finding the person responsible for a particular website is not always possible. Websites can appear and disappear in a blink of a cursor. Now, more than ever, consumers must heed the caution “Buyer beware.”

 

In summary, when you hear nutrition news, consider its source. Ask yourself these two questions: Is the person providing the information qualified to speak on nutrition? Is the information based on valid scientific research? If not, find a better source. After all, your health depends on it.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

  1. (A.) Explain the education and training requirements associated with obtaining registration as a dietitian. (B.) List several career areas in which registered dietitians are often employed.

 

ANS:

A registered dietitian (RD) has the educational background necessary to deliver reliable nutrition advice and care. To become an RD, a person must earn an undergraduate degree requiring about 60 credit hours in nutrition, food science, and other related subjects; complete a year’s clinical internship or the equivalent; pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics; and maintain up-to-date knowledge and registration by participating in required continuing education activities, such as attending seminars, taking courses, or conducting research. To help consumers recognize that an RD is a credentialed nutritionist, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recently approved the optional use of the term registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN). The meanings of RD and RDN are identical.

 

Dietitians perform a multitude of duties in many settings in most communities. They work in the food industry, pharmaceutical companies, home health agencies, long-term care institutions, private practice, public health departments, research centers, education settings, fitness centers, and hospitals. Depending on their work settings, dietitians can assume a number of different job responsibilities and positions. In hospitals, administrative dietitians manage the foodservice system; clinical dietitians provide client care; and nutrition support team dietitians coordinate nutrition care with other health-care professionals. In the food industry, dietitians conduct research, develop products, and market services.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.

 

 

 

Chapter 2 – Planning a Healthy Diet

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. A person’s customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his ____.
a. body weight
b. eating pattern
c. genetic predisposition
d. risk for inherited diseases
e. preference pattern

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called ____.
a. variety
b. adequacy
c. moderation
d. kcalorie control
e. nutrient density

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. What are the principles of diet planning?
a. abundance, B vitamins, kcalories, diet control, minerals, and variety
b. abundance, balance, conservative, diversity, moderation, and vitamins
c. adequacy, bone development, correction, vitamin density, master, and variety
d. adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, nutrient density, moderation, and variety
e. abundance, adequacy, nutrient density, aerobics, and kcalorie control

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Which food is the most calcium-dense?
a. whole milk
b. fat-free milk
c. low-fat milk
d. cheddar cheese
e. cottage cheese

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Nutrient dense refers to foods that ____.
a. carry the USDA nutrition labeling
b. are higher in weight relative to volume
c. provide more nutrients relative to kcalories
d. contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein
e. give the most protein for the consumer’s food dollar

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning?
a. Variety
b. Balance
c. Moderation
d. kcalorie control
e. cost control

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. A food that provides 100 mg of magnesium and 25 kcal in a serving has a magnesium density (mg per kcal) of ____.
a. 0.25
b. 0.4
c. 2.5
d. 4
e. 25

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Ranking foods according to their overall nutrient composition is known as ____.
a. biological value
b. nutrient profiling
c. the risk reduction score
d. the healthy eating index
e. compositional profiling

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as ____.
a. safety
b. variety
c. moderation
d. undernutrition
e. conservatism

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Applying the principle of variety in food planning helps ensure the benefits of ____.
a. moderation
b. vegetarianism
c. nutrient density
d. dilution of harmful substances
e. abundance

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Which recommendation is part of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
a. Balance kcalories.
b. Limit protein foods intake.
c. Practice good foot hygiene.
d. Reduce seafood consumption.
e. Become vegetarians.

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. What is an important feature of the food group subgroupings?
a. Consuming a vegetable will provide only one major nutrient
b. Consuming legumes supplies protein but not fiber or vitamins
c. Consuming every subgroup every day is not necessary
d. Consuming broccoli every day for a week to meet the vegetables group intake is acceptable
e. Consuming dairy products is no longer recommended

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Jamie, a vegetarian, is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day?
a. 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread
b. 1/2 cup rice, 2 tbsp low sugar jam or jelly, 2 pieces bread
c. 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach
d. 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar
e. 1 egg, one cup leaf lettuce, 2 ounces fatty fish

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit group?
a. vitamins D and E
b. vitamins A and C
c. protein and calcium
d. B vitamins and iron
e. vitamin K and magnesium

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. How much fruit juice (100%) is equivalent to 1 cup of fresh fruit?
a. 1/4 cup
b. 1/2 cup
c. 1 cup
d. 1 1/2 cups
e. 2 cups

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. According to the USDA Food Patterns, which protein food should be most limited?
a. shrimp
b. baked beans
c. peanut butter
d. skinless chicken
e. eggs

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which food item is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns?
a. nuts
b. bacon
c. luncheon meats
d. sweet potatoes
e. marbled meats

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. In which food group are legumes found?
a. dairy
b. fruits
c. grains
d. protein
e. oils

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. How many subgroups comprise the vegetable food group?
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. six
e. seven

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Kcalories from which food would be considered part of one’s discretionary kcalorie allowance?
a. jam
b. watermelon
c. raw carrots
d. brussels sprouts
e. green beans

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which food supplies only discretionary kcalories?
a. bagel
b. raisins
c. grape jelly
d. peanut butter
e. 100% fruit juice

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

 

  1. What assessment tool is designed to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines?
a. Healthy Eating Index
b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
c. Dietitian’s Comparative Effectiveness Plan
d. U.S. Public Health Nutrient Assessment Barometer
e. U.S. Preventive Services Task Forge Guide

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. In the MyPlate icon, which nutrient is shown as a separate food group?
a. fat
b. dairy
c. carbohydrate
d. micronutrients
e. discretionary-calorie foods

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What is a major criticism of the use of the MyPlate educational tool?
a. It allows for oversized portions.
b. The dairy group excludes ice cream.
c. The five groups are not clearly identified.
d. It treats all foods within a single group the same.
e. It cannot be adapted to vegetarian or vegan diets.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which food group is typically consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA?
a. dairy
b. fruits
c. vegetables
d. protein foods
e. whole grains

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with ____.
a. diabetes
b. cancer
c. cardiovascular disease
d. life-threatening obesity
e. neurological impairments

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which feature characterizes the exchange list system?
a. Foods are grouped according to their source.
b. Adequate intakes of minerals and vitamins are virtually guaranteed.
c. A fat portion provides about twice the energy as a carbohydrate portion.
d. All foods are grouped according to their content of carbohydrate, protein, and fats.
e. Foods are sorted by their vitamin and mineral content.

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. In food exchange lists, to what group are olives assigned?
a. fat
b. meat
c. carbohydrate
d. meat substitute
e. fruit

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the ____.
a. bran
b. husk
c. germ
d. endosperm
e. heart

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Refined grain products contain only the ____.
a. bran
b. husk
c. germ
d. endosperm
e. chaff

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is known as nutrient ____.
a. enrichment
b. restoration
c. fortification
d. mineralization
e. adulteration

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The part of the grain that remains after being refined is the ____.
a. bran
b. germ
c. husk
d. endosperm
e. chaff

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which bread has the highest fiber content?
a. white
b. refined
c. enriched
d. whole grain
e. super-fine

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which characteristic best describes enriched grain products?
a. They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label.
b. They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure.
c. They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure.
d. They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer.
e. They are typically low in calories.

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process?
a. iron
b. iodine
c. calcium
d. magnesium
e. copper

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which product label always denotes a whole-grain product?
a

b.

multi-grain

100% wheat

c. whole-wheat
d. stone-ground
e. high fiber

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the ____.
a. 1880s
b. 1900s
c. 1920s
d. 1940s
e. 1960s

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which nutrient is used to enrich grains?
a. zinc
b. folate
c. protein
d. calcium
e. sodium

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The most highly fortified foods on the market are ____.
a. frozen dinners
b. imitation foods
c. enriched breads
d. breakfast cereals
e. canned fruits and vegetables

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which nutrient would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread?
a. zinc
b. folate
c. riboflavin
d. thiamin
e. sodium

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Cooking an 8-ounce raw steak will reduce the weight (ounces) to approximately ____ ounces.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
e. 7

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Textured vegetable protein is usually made from ____.
a. soybeans
b. corn stalks
c. a mixture of legumes
d. cruciferous vegetables
e. dark green, red, and orange vegetables

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Which term is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content?
a. Grade AA
b. Select
c. Prime
d. Choice
e. Grade A

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. A meat described as “prime cut” means that it ____.
a. has an extended shelf life
b. usually carries a high price
c. is served only in restaurants
d. is higher in fat than other cuts of meat
e. comes from animals raised organically

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it?
a. faux food
b. pseudo food
c. imitation food
d. food substitute
e. fraudulent food

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to about the ordering of the ingredients on a food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label?
a. sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring
b. red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar
c. dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar
d. puffed wheat, sugar, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring
e. sugar, salt, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, red food coloring

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value?
a. calcium and iron
b. zinc and phosphorus
c. fluoride and chloride
d. chromium and magnesium
e. copper and potassium

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the SMALLEST amount in this food?
a. salt
b. sugar
c. cornstarch
d. wheat flour
e. vegetable shortening

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. By law, a serving size on beverage food labels is ____.
a. 4-6 fluid ounces
b. 8 fluid ounces
c. 10-12 fluid ounces
d. 16 fluid ounces
e. 24 fluid ounces

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Which statement describes a characteristic of food serving sizes?
a. Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA
b. The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces
c. Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Patterns
d. Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both
e. Manufacturers are free to set their own serving sizes as long as they specify what the serving size is.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. According to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value?
a. vitamins D and E
b. vitamins A and C
c. thiamin and riboflavin
d. vitamin B6 and niacin
e. vitamins E and K

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as the ____.
a. Daily Values
b. FDA Standards
c. Dietary Reference Intakes
d. Recommended Dietary Intakes
e. USDA Intake Standards

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

 

  1. Population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need of approximately ____ kcalories.
a. 1200
b. 1500
c. 1800
d. 2000
e. 2400

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. On a food label, the “% Daily Value” table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily?
a. 1200
b. 1500
c. 1800
d. 2000
e. 2400

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. What is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label?
a. Trans fat content is optional.
b. Saturated fat must be listed.
c. Naturally present sugars are excluded.
d. Soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately.
e. Unsaturated fats must be listed.

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. What is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels?
a. They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA.
b. They are expressed on a “per 1000-kcalorie intake” basis.
c. They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient.
d. They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake.
e. They assign grades of A, B, C, D, or F to foods.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. A food label that advertises the product as a “rich source of fiber” is an example of a ____.
a. nutrient claim
b. health claim
c. weight reduction claim
d. structure-function claim
e. research-based claim

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. According to the FDA, a food label that reads “improves memory” is an example of a ____.
a. health claim
b. Daily Value claim
c. qualified health claim
d. structure-function claim
e. unsupported claim

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Greg is trying to decide which brand of cereal to buy, but he is a somewhat confused by the health claims. Which statement represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement?
a. “This cereal promotes a healthy heart.”
b. “This cereal supports heart health.”
c. “This product contains whole grains, which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers.”
d. “Very limited and preliminary scientific research suggests this product can reduce risk for cancers; FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting this claim.”
e. “Anecdotal evidence demonstrates a clear relationship between consumption of this product and elimination of health risk factors.”

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. What is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels?
a. They are allowed only for unprocessed food.
b. They can be made without any FDA approval.
c. They must conform to guidelines of the “A” list of health claims.
d. They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed.
e. They can only be made based on peer-reviewed research.

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:    2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Which food items are consumed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?
a. plant foods only
b. eggs and plant foods only
c. meat, eggs, and plant foods only
d. milk products and plant foods only
e. fish, eggs, and dairy only

 

 

ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Tempeh is made from ____.
a. soybeans
b. any legume
c. fermented leafy vegetables
d. fermented yellow vegetables
e. wheat proteins

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Which ingredient on a food label would be a source of protein?
a. BHT
b. tofu
c. corn starch
d. diglycerides
e. high fructose corn syrup

 

 

ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Which feature is present in people who regularly eating meals based on tofu?
a. They show less heart disease but more colon cancer than omnivores.
b. They show evidence of marginal protein intake compared with omnivores.
c. They have lower blood pressure levels than those eating meat.
d. They have lower sodium intakes but blood pressure is similar to those eating red meat.
e. They are virtually indistinguishable from meat eaters in terms of disease occurrence.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for ____.
a. iron
b. folate
c. calcium
d. vitamin A
e. protein

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Which statement describes a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians?
a. Vegetarians adapt to absorbing iron more efficiently.
b. Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains
c. The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake.
d. More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet.
e. There are no differences in iron intake or utilization in vegetarians.

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Meat replacements consumed by vegans are often made of ____.
a. soy
b. fish
c. eggs
d. dairy
e. poultry

 

 

ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. What is typically a characteristic of a vegetarian diet?
a. Fat intake is higher.
b. Fiber intake is lower.
c. Vitamin B12 intake is lower.
d. Intakes of vitamins A and C are lower.
e. Iron intake is higher.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Which statement characterizes vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians and vegans?
a. Vitamin B12 in fortified cereals has low bioavailability.
b. Vegan mothers need only infrequent intake of vitamin B12-fortified cereals.
c. The vitamin B12 in fermented soy products may be present in an inactive form
.d. Infants born to vegan mothers are resistant to the development of vitamin B12 deficiency.
e. Vitamin B12 is problematic in vegetarians but not vegans.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. What best characterizes a macrobiotic diet?
a. It excludes all hot and salty foods.
b. It permits inclusion of many non-organic foods.
c. It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating.
d. It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds.
e. It is based on seasonally-available fruits, vegetables, grains, and game meats and fish.

 

 

ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. ____________________ reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people.

 

ANS:  Adequacy

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. To calculate the nutrient density of a food item, divide the ____________________ by the ____________________.

 

ANS:  milligrams; kcalories

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. ____________________ refers to a measure of the nutrients a food provides relative to the energy it provides.

 

ANS:  Nutrient density

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Diet-planning tools that sort foods into groups based on nutrient content and then specify that people should eat certain amounts of foods from each group are called ____________________ plans.

 

ANS:  food group

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ____________________ contribute the same key nutrients—notably, protein, iron, and zinc—as meats, poultry, and seafood.

 

ANS:  Legumes

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The kcalories remaining in a person’s energy allowance after consuming enough nutrient- dense foods to meet all nutrient needs for a day are called ____________________ kcalories.

 

ANS:  discretionary

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. An assessment tool called the ____________________ can be used to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.

 

ANS:  Healthy Eating Index

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Diet-planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat, and protein are called ____________________.

 

ANS:  exchange lists

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the ____________________, the ____________________, or both for important nutrients.

 

ANS:

nutrient amount; percent Daily Value

percent Daily Value; nutrient amount;

 

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. The ____________________ is the seed that grows into a wheat plant, so it is especially rich in vitamins and minerals to support new life.

 

ANS:  germ

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

MATCHING

 

a. 5 k. Green peas
b. 40 l. Balance
c. 65 m. Vitamin B12
d. 1/2 cup n. Vitamin A
e. 1 cup o. Endosperm
f. FDA p. Nutrient density
g. Bran q. Sodium and hypertension
h. Iron r. Tomatoes and prostate cancer
i. USDA s. Margarine containing plant sterols
j. Soybeans t. Orange juice containing added calcium

 

 

  1. The principle of consuming a number of foods in proportion to each other

 

  1. The principle of recognizing that a food has more iron than another food when expressed per kcalorie

 

  1. Origin of the MyPlate graphic

 

  1. Number of major food groups

 

  1. Legume belonging to the starch category of exchange lists

 

  1. Part of grain richest in fiber

 

  1. Part of grain containing most of the starch

 

  1. Nutrient added in grain enrichment process

 

  1. Example of a fortified food

 

  1. Commonly used to make textured vegetable protein

 

  1. Example of a functional food

 

  1. Nutrient commonly added in cow’s milk fortification process

 

  1. Maximum number of grams of fat recommended on a 2000-kcalorie diet based on the Daily Value

 

  1. Serving size (equivalent to 1 oz) of rice in the USDA Food Patterns

 

  1. Serving size of rice on a food label

 

  1. Agency that regulates food labeling

 

  1. Grams of fat supplied by a 1200-kcalorie diet that is 30% fat

 

  1. Associated in a reliable health claim allowed on food labels

 

  1. Associated in a health claim NOT allowed on food labels without a disclaimer

 

  1. Nutrient commonly added in soy milk fortification process

 

  1. ANS:  L                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. ANS:  P                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. ANS:  I                     DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  A                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  K                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  G                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  O                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  H                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  T                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  J                     DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  S                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  N                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  C                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  D                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.2 Diet Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. ANS:  E                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  F                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  B                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  Q                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  R                    DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. ANS:  M                   DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

ESSAY

 

  1. List and discuss the significance of six diet-planning principles.

 

ANS:

Adequacy reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people. Take the essential nutrient iron, for example. Because the body loses some iron each day, people have to replace it by eating foods that contain iron. A person whose diet fails to provide enough iron-rich foods may develop the symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia: the person may feel weak, tired, and listless; have frequent headaches; and find that even the smallest amount of muscular work brings disabling fatigue. To prevent these deficiency symptoms, a person must include foods that supply adequate iron.

 

Balance in the diet helps to ensure adequacy. The art of balancing the diet involves consuming enough—but not too much—of different types of foods in proportion to one another. In a balanced diet, foods rich in some nutrients do not crowd out foods that are rich in other nutrients.

 

kcalorie (energy) Control: Designing an adequate diet within a reasonable kcalorie allowance requires careful planning. Once again, balance plays a key role. The amount of energy coming into the body from foods should balance with the amount of energy being used by the body to sustain its metabolic and physical activities. Upsetting this balance leads to gains or losses in body weight.

 

Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy.

 

Moderation contributes to adequacy, balance, and kcalorie control. Foods rich in fat and sugar often provide enjoyment and energy but relatively few nutrients; in addition, they promote weight gain when eaten in excess. A person practicing moderation eats such foods only on occasion and regularly selects foods low in solid fats and added sugars, a practice that automatically improves nutrient density.

 

Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. Why is it important to vary intake of foods within the same food group from day to day?

 

ANS:

Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Among the fruits, for example, strawberries are especially rich in vitamin C while apricots are rich in vitamin A. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. The strawberries might contain trace amounts of one contaminant, the apricots another. By alternating fruit choices, a person will ingest very little of either contaminant.  Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life. A person who eats beans frequently can enjoy pinto beans in Mexican burritos today, garbanzo beans in a Greek salad tomorrow, and baked beans with barbecued chicken on the week-end. Eating nutritious meals need never be boring.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. What is meant by the term “nutrient-dense food”? Give three examples each of foods with high nutrient density and low nutrient density.

 

ANS:

Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy. Consider foods containing calcium, for example. You can get about 300 milligrams of calcium from either  1½ ounces of cheddar cheese or 1 cup of fat-free milk, but the cheese delivers about twice as much food energy (kcalories) as the milk. The fat-free milk, then, is twice as calcium dense as the cheddar cheese; it offers the same amount of calcium for half the kcalories. Both foods are excellent choices for adequacy’s sake alone, but to achieve adequacy while controlling kcalories, the fat-free milk is the better choice. (Alternatively, a person could select a low-fat cheddar cheese with its kcalories comparable to fat-free milk.)

 

Just as a financially responsible person pays for rent, food, clothes, and tuition on a limited budget, healthy people obtain iron, calcium, and all the other essential nutrients on a limited energy (kcalorie) allowance. Success depends on getting many nutrients for each kcalorie “dollar.”  A person who makes nutrient-dense choices can meet daily nutrient needs on a lower energy budget. Such choices support good health.

 

Foods that are notably low in nutrient density—such as potato chips, candy, and colas—are called empty-kcalorie foods. The kcalories these foods provide are called “empty” because they deliver a lot of energy (from added sugars, solid fats, or both) but little, or no, protein, vitamins, or minerals.

 

The concept of nutrient density is relatively simple when examining the contributions of one nutrient to a food or diet. With respect to calcium, milk ranks high and meats rank low. With respect to iron, meats rank high and milk ranks low. But it is a more complex task to answer the question, which food is more nutritious? To answer that question, we need to consider several nutrients— including both nutrients that may harm health as well as those that may be beneficial. Ranking foods based on their overall nutrient composition is known as nutrient profiling. Researchers have yet to agree on an ideal way to rate foods based on the nutrient profile, but when they do, nutrient profiling will be quite useful in helping consumers identify nutritious foods and plan healthy diets.

 

Foods listed as examples will vary.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.1 Principles and Guidelines

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.

 

  1. List and describe the contributions of the five food groups in the USDA Food Patterns.

 

ANS:

Fruits contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, potassium, and fiber.

 

Vegetables contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, vitamin K, vitamin E, magnesium, potassium, and fiber.

 

Grains contribute folate, niacin, riboflavin, thiamin, iron, magnesium, selenium, and fiber.

 

Protein foods contribute protein, essential fatty acids, niacin, thiamin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, iron, magnesium, potassium, and zinc.

 

Milk and milk products contribute protein, riboflavin, vitamin B12, calcium, potassium, and, when fortified, vitamin A and vitamin D.

 

Oils are not a food group, but are featured here because they contribute vitamin E and essential fatty acids.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Provide examples and discuss the importance of the five subgroups of the vegetables food group.

 

ANS:

All vegetables provide an array of nutrients, but some vegetables are especially good sources of certain vitamins, minerals, and beneficial phytochemicals. For this reason, the vegetable group is sorted into five subgroups. The dark-green vegetables deliver the B vitamin folate; the red and orange vegetables provide vitamin A; legumes supply iron and protein; the starchy vegetables contribute carbohydrate energy; and the other vegetables fill in the gaps and add more of these same nutrients.

 

Dark-green vegetables: Broccoli and leafy greens such as arugula, beet greens, bok choy, collard greens, kale, mustard greens, romaine lettuce, spinach, turnip greens, watercress

 

Red and orange vegetables: Carrots, carrot juice, pumpkin, red bell peppers, sweet potatoes, tomatoes, tomato juice, vegetable juice, winter squash (acorn, butternut)

 

Legumes: Black beans, black-eyed peas, garbanzo beans (chickpeas), kidney beans, lentils, navy beans, pinto beans, soybeans and soy products such as tofu, split peas, white beans

 

Starchy vegetables: Cassava, corn, green peas, hominy, lima beans, potatoes

 

Other vegetables: Artichokes, asparagus, bamboo shoots, bean sprouts, beets, brussels sprouts, cabbages, cactus, cauliflower, celery, cucumbers, eggplant, green beans, green bell peppers, iceberg lettuce, mushrooms, okra, onions, seaweed, snow peas, zucchini

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Define the term “discretionary kcalories” and give three examples of foods that provide them. Under what circumstances is the intake of discretionary kcalories permitted?

 

ANS:

People who consistently choose nutrient-dense foods may be able to meet most of their nutrient needs without consuming their full allowance of kcalories. The difference between the kcalories needed to supply nutrients and those needed to maintain weight might be considered discretionary kcalories.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Apply                              REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Discuss the meaning, significance, and utility of MyPlate as an educational tool.

 

 

 

 

 

ANS:

The USDA created an educational tool called MyPlate to illustrate the five food groups. The MyPlate icon divides a plate into four sections, each representing a food group—fruits, vegetables, grains, and protein foods. The sections vary in size, indicating relative proportion each food group contributes to a healthy diet. A circle next to the plate represents the milk group (dairy). The MyPlate icon does not stand alone as an educational tool.

 

A wealth of information can be found at the website (www.choosemyplate.gov). Consumers can choose the kinds and amounts of foods they need to eat each day based on their height, weight, age, gender, and activity level. Information is also available for children, pregnant and lactating women, and for vegetarians. In addition to creating a personal plan, consumers can find daily tips to help them improve their diet and increase physical activity. A key message of the website is to enjoy food, but eat less by avoiding oversized portions.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Evaluate                           REF:   2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What is the Healthy Eating Index and how does it work?

 

ANS:

An assessment tool, called the Healthy Eating Index, can be used to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines. Various components of the diet are given scores that reflect the quantities consumed. For most components, higher intakes result in higher scores. For example, selecting at least 3 ounces of whole grains (per 2000 kcalories) gives a score of 10 points, whereas selecting no whole grains gives a score of 0 points. For a few components, lower intakes provide higher scores. For example, less than 2.2 grams of sodium (per 2000 kcalories) receives 10 points, but more than 4 grams gets 0 points. An assessment of recent nutrition surveys using the Healthy Eating Index reports that the American diet scores 54 out of a possible 100 points. To improve this score, the American diet needs to decrease kcalories from solid fats and added sugars by about 60 percent; increase fruits by 100 percent and vegetables and milk products by 70 percent; maintain the quantity of grains but shift the quality to four times as many whole grains; and reduce salt by more than half.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. What is the origin of food exchange lists? How are they best utilized?

 

ANS:

Food group plans are particularly well suited to help a person achieve dietary adequacy, balance, and variety. Exchange lists provide additional help in achieving kcalorie control and moderation. Originally developed as a meal planning guide for people with diabetes, exchange lists have proved useful for general diet planning as well.

 

Unlike the USDA Food Patterns, which sort foods primarily by their vitamin and mineral contents, the exchange system sorts foods according to their energy-nutrient contents. Consequently, foods do not always appear on the exchange list where you might first expect to find them. For example, cheeses are grouped with meats because, like meats, cheeses contribute energy from protein and fat but provide negligible carbohydrate. (In the USDA Food Patterns presented earlier, cheeses are grouped with milk because they are milk products with similar calcium contents.)

 

For similar reasons, starchy vegetables such as corn, green peas, and potatoes are listed with grains on the starch list in the exchange system, rather than with the vegetables. Likewise, olives are not classed as a “fruit” as a botanist would claim; they are classified as a “fat” because their fat content makes them more similar to oil than to berries. Cream cheese, bacon, and nuts are also on the fat list to remind users of their high fat content. These groupings highlight the characteristics of foods that are significant to energy intake.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. Discuss the meaning and significance of foods that are processed, refined, enriched, fortified, or whole-grain.

 

ANS:

Processed foods: foods that have been treated to change their physical, chemical, microbiological, or sensory properties.

Fortified: the addition to a food of nutrients that were either not originally present or present in insignificant amounts. Fortification can be used to correct or prevent a widespread nutrient deficiency or to balance the total nutrient profile of a food.

Refined: the process by which the coarse parts of a food are removed. When wheat is refined into flour, the bran, germ, and husk are removed, leaving only the endosperm.

Enriched: the addition to a food of specific nutrients to replace losses that occur during processing so that the food will meet a specified standard.

Whole grain: a grain that maintains the same relative proportions of starchy endosperm, germ, and bran as the original (all but the husk); not refined.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.

 

  1. List the information that must be displayed on food labels.

 

ANS:

Serving Sizes: Because labels present nutrient information based on one serving, they must identify the size of the serving. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has established specific serving sizes for various foods and requires that all labels for a given product use the same serving size.

 

Nutrient Quantities: In addition to the serving size and the servings per container, the FDA requires that the Nutrition Facts panel on food labels present nutrient information in two ways—in quantities (such as grams) and as percentages of standards called the Daily Values. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the nutrient amount, percent Daily Value, or both for the following:

Total food energy (kcalories)

Food energy from fat (kcalories)

Total fat (grams and percent Daily Value)

Saturated fat (grams and percent Daily Value)

Trans fat (grams)

Cholesterol (milligrams and percent Daily Value)

Sodium (milligrams and percent Daily Value)

Total carbohydrate, which includes starch, sugar, and fiber (grams and  percent Daily Value)

Dietary fiber (grams and percent Daily Value)

Sugars, which includes both those naturally present in and those added to the food (grams)

Protein (grams)

The labels must also present nutrient content information as a percent Daily Value for the following vitamins and minerals:

Vitamin A

Vitamin C

Iron

Calcium

 

The Daily Values: Food labels list the amount of some nutrients in a product as a percentage of its Daily Value, which makes the numbers more meaningful to consumers. The Daily Values reflect dietary recommendations for nutrients and dietary components that have important relationships with health.  The “% Daily Value” column on a label provides a ballpark estimate of how individual foods contribute to the total diet.

 

Front-of-Package Labels: Some consumers find the many numbers on Nutrition Facts panels overwhelming. They want an easier and quicker way to interpret information and select products. Food manufacturers responded by creating front-of-package labels that incorporate text, color, and icons to present key nutrient facts.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Discuss the regulations for nutrient claims and health claims on food labels.

 

ANS:

Nutrient Claims: Have you noticed phrases such as “good source of fiber” on a box of cereal or “rich in calcium” on a package of cheese? These and other nutrient claims may be used on labels so long as they meet FDA definitions, which include the conditions under which each term can be used. For example, in addition to having less than 2 milligrams of cholesterol, a “cholesterol-free” product may not contain more than 2 grams of saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving. The accompanying glossary defines nutrient terms on food labels, including criteria for foods described as “low,” “reduced,” and “free.” When nutrients have been added to enriched or fortified products, they must appear in the ingredients list. Some descriptions imply that a food contains, or does not contain, a nutrient. Implied claims are prohibited unless they meet specified criteria. For example, a claim that a product “contains no oil” implies that the food contains no fat. If the product is truly fat-free, then it may make the no-oil claim, but if it contains another source of fat, such as butter, it may not.

 

Health Claims: Health claims describe a relationship between a food (or food component) and a disease or health-related condition. In some cases, the FDA authorizes health claims based on an extensive review of the scientific literature. For example, the health claim that “Diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure” is based on enough scientific evidence to establish a clear link between diet and health. In cases where there is emerging—but not established—evidence for a relationship between a food or food component and disease, the FDA allows the use of qualified health claims that must use specific language indicating that the evidence supporting the claim is limited. A qualified health claim might claim that “Very limited and preliminary research suggests that eating one-half to one cup of tomatoes and/or tomato sauce a week may reduce the risk of prostate cancer. The FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting the claim.”

 

Structure-Function Claims: Unlike health claims, which require food manufacturers to collect scientific evidence and petition the FDA, structure-function claims can be made without any FDA approval. Product labels can claim to “slow aging,” “improve memory,” and “build strong bones” without any proof. The only criterion for a structure-function claim is that it must not mention a disease or symptom. Unfortunately, structure-function claims can be deceptively similar to health claims, and most consumers do not distinguish between different types of claims.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               2.3 Food Labels

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.

 

  1. Discuss the reasons for why people become vegetarians.

 

ANS:

The health benefits of a primarily vegetarian diet seem to have encouraged many people to eat more plant-based meals. The popular press sometimes refers to individuals who eat small amounts of meat, seafood, or poultry from time to time as “flexitarians.”

 

People who choose to exclude meat and other animal-derived foods from their diets today do so for many of the same reasons the Greek philosopher Pythagoras cited in the sixth century B.C.: physical health, ecological responsibility, and philosophical concerns. They might also cite world hunger issues, economic reasons, ethical concerns, or religious beliefs as motivating factors.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Remember                       REF:   H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. List and discuss the health advantages of a vegetarian diet.

 

ANS:

Vegetarians tend to maintain a lower and healthier body weight than nonvegetarians. In general, those who eat meat have higher energy intakes and body weights. Vegetarians’ lower body weights correlate with their high intakes of fiber and low intakes of fat.

 

Obesity and weight gains are strong risk factors for diabetes, which partially explains why nonvegetarian diets are more often associated with diabetes than vegetarian diets. Even when body weight and life-style factors are taken into account, vegetarian eating patterns seem to protect against diabetes.

 

Vegetarians tend to have lower blood pressure and lower rates of hypertension than nonvegetarians. Appropriate body weight helps to maintain a healthy blood pressure, as does a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fiber, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat milk products, and protein from plant sources.

 

Meat is associated with an increased risk of heart disease and stroke. The incidence of heart disease and related deaths and the concentrations of blood cholesterol are lower for vegetarians than for nonvegetarians, which can partly be explained by their avoidance of meat.The dietary factor most directly related to heart disease is saturated animal fat, and in general, vegetarian diets are lower in total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol than typical meat-based diets. The fats common in plant-based diets—the monounsaturated fats of olives, seeds, and nuts and the polyunsaturated fats of vegetable oils—are associated with a decreased risk of heart disease. Furthermore, vegetarian diets are generally higher in dietary fiber, antioxidant vitamins, and phytochemicals—all factors that help control blood lipids and protect against heart disease. Many vegetarians include soy products such as tofu in their diets. Soy products—with their polyunsaturated fats, fibers, vitamins, and minerals, and little saturated fat—may help to protect against heart disease.

 

Vegetarians have a lower overall cancer incidence than the general population. Their low cancer rates may be due to their high intakes of fruits and vegetables. Some scientific findings indicate that vegetarian diets are associated not only with lower cancer mortality in general, but also with lower incidence of cancer at specific sites as well, most notably, colon cancer. People with colon cancer seem to eat more meat. Some cancer experts recommend limiting consumption of red meat to no more than 11 ounces a week, with very little (if any) processed meat.

 

In addition to obesity, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and some cancers, vegetarian diets may help prevent osteoporosis, diverticular disease, gallstones, cataracts, and rheumatoid arthritis.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

  1. Discuss how vegetarians and vegans can ensure that they have adequate protein intake.

 

ANS:

The protein RDA for vegetarians is the same as for others, although some have suggested that it should be higher because plant proteins are not digested as completely. Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diets that include animal-derived foods such as milk and eggs, deliver high-quality proteins and are likely to meet protein needs. Even vegetarians who adopt only plant-based diets are likely to meet protein needs provided that their energy intakes are adequate and the protein sources varied. The proteins of whole grains, vegetables, legumes, and nuts and seeds can provide adequate amounts of all the amino acids. An advantage of many vegetarian sources of protein is that they are generally lower in saturated fat than meats and are often higher in fiber and richer in some vitamins and minerals.

 

Vegetarians sometimes use meat replacements made of textured vegetable protein (soy protein). These foods are formulated to look and taste like meat, seafood, or poultry. Many of these products are fortified to provide the vitamins and minerals found in animal sources of protein. Some may be high in salt, sugars, and saturated fats. A wise vegetarian learns to read labels and use a variety of whole, unrefined foods often and commercially prepared foods less frequently. Vegetarians may also use soy products such as tofu to bolster protein intake.

 

DIF:    Bloom’s: Understand                                 REF:               H-2 Vegetarian Diets

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.

 

Chapter 5 – The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and Sterols

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In which form are most dietary lipids found?
a. Sterols
b. Glycerols
c. Triglycerides
d. Monoglycerides
e. Polyglycerides

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as ____.
a. oils
b. fats
c. omegas
d. glycerols
e. phospholipids

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Lipids that are liquid at room temperature are known as ____.
a. oils
b. fats
c. omegas
d. glycerols
e. phospholipids

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the chemical composition of fats?
a. Hexose polymers
b. Glycogen granules
c. Fatty acids and glycerol
d. Combinations of long-chain fatty acids
e. Esters of carbon and hydrogen

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which item is a chief source of short-chain and medium-chain fatty acids?
a. Fish
b. Eggs
c. Dairy
d. Soybeans
e. Fruit

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of ____.
a. amino acids
b. double bonds
c. saccharide units
d. peptide linkages
e. oxygen atoms

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a common dietary saturated fatty acid?
a. Oleic acid
b. Stearic acid
c. Linolenic acid
d. Arachidonic acid
e. Lineolic acid

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which compound is missing four or more hydrogen atoms?
a. Monounsaturated fatty acid
b. Polyunsaturated fatty acid
c. Long-chain saturated fatty acid
d. Short-chain saturated fatty acid
e. Triglycerides

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The easiest way to increase intake of oleic acid is to consume more ____.
a. lard oil
b. corn oil
c. olive oil
d. safflower oil
e. tallow oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What product has the highest percentage of its fat in saturated form?
a. Butter
b. Walnut oil
c. Beef tallow
d. Coconut oil
e. Chicken fat

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which product has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form?
a. Butter
b. Corn oil
c. Beef tallow
d. Coconut oil
e. Palm oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which product provides abundant amounts of omega-3 fatty acids?
a. Palm oil
b. Walnut oil
c. Soybean oil
d. Flaxseed oil
e. Corn oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which product is considered a major source of polyunsaturated fat?
a. Corn oil
b. Palm oil
c. Peanut oil
d. Chicken fat
e. Olive oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a conjugated linoleic acid?
a. A type of cis-fatty acid
b. A partially hydrogenated omega-6 lipid
c. A fatty acid with the chemical make-up of linoleic acid but with a different configuration
d. A fatty acid resulting from the partial hydrolysis of dietary phospholipids in the intestinal tract
e. A nitrogen-containing compound found in foods and made in the body from the amino acid methionine.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement describes a feature of trans-fatty acids?
a. In nature, most double bonds are trans.
b. Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids.
c. The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants.
d. In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats.
e. The hydrogen atoms are located on the same side of a double bond.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What type of compound is lecithin?
a. Bile salt
b. Glycolipid
c. Lipoprotein
d. Phospholipid
e. Sterol

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement describes is a feature of choline?
a. It is a part of lecithin.
b. It is a type of cis-fatty acid.
c. It is a type of trans-fatty acid.
d. It is attached to omega-3 fatty acids.
e. It has a multiple ring structure.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. About how much cholesterol is synthesized by the liver every day?
a. 100 to 300 mg
b. 300 to 500 mg
c. 500 to 800 mg
d. 800 to 1500 mg
e. 1500 to 2500 mg

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which food contains cholesterol?
a. Corn
b. Olives
c. Roasted turkey
d. Roasted peanuts
e. Boiled potatoes

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the major source of “good” cholesterol?
a. Fatty fish
b. Fatty meat
c. Endogenous synthesis
d. Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids
e. Dairy foods

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol?
a. It is absorbed directly into the blood
b. It is a precursor for bile and vitamin D synthesis
c. It is not formed in the body when provided by the diet
d. It is found in abundance in tropical fats such as palm oil
e. It has no functions in the healthy body.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What term may be used to describe a hydrophobic substance?
a. Lipophilic
b. Lipophobic
c. Glycerophilic
d. Glycerophobic
e. Emulsifiable

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement characterizes the lipase enzymes?
a. Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults
b. Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for most dietary fat digestion
c. Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants
d. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids
e. Pancreatic lipase forms emulsified fats from monoglycerides

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as ____.
a. enzymes
b. hormones
c. detergents
d. chylomicrons
e. macrophages

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis?
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Esophagus

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Chylomicrons are synthesized within the ____.
a. liver
b. intestinal cells
c. lymphatic system
d. storage compartment of plant seeds
e. spleen

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level?
a. It denatures cholesterol in the stomach.
b. It hydrolyzes cholesterol in the intestinal tract.
c. It traps cholesterol in the intestinal tract and thus inhibits its absorption.
d. It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover.
e. It binds to the fats and denatures them.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Bile is known to assist in the absorption of ____.
a. fat
b. carbohydrate
c. protein
d. vitamins
e. minerals

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Spherical complexes of emulsified fats are known as ____.
a. micelles
b. chylomicrons
c. monolipomicrons
d. endogenous bilayer aggregates
e. polymerized lipids

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which example characterizes enterohepatic circulation?
a. Chylomicron conversion to LDLs and HDLs
b. Recycling of bile from the intestine to the liver
c. Hormonal control of pancreatic digestive secretions
d. Liver secretion of eicosanoids that promote absorption of eicosanoid precursors
e. Cholesterol that is made from bile in the small intestine and transported to the liver

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains ____.
a. less lipid
b. less protein
c. more cholesterol
d. more carbohydrate
e. more triglyceride

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which lipoprotein contains the highest percentage of cholesterol?
a. Chylomicron
b. Low-density lipoprotein
c. High-density lipoprotein
d. Very-low-density lipoprotein
e. Very-high density lipoprotein

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. After a fat-containing meal is absorbed, about how many hours does it take the body to remove the chylomicrons from the blood?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 14
e. 16

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What tissue contains special receptors for removing low-density lipoproteins from the circulation?
a. Liver
b. Adipose
c. Arterial walls
d. Skeletal muscle
e. Smooth muscle

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of ____.
a. free fatty acids
b. high-density lipoproteins
c. low-density lipoproteins
d. very low-density lipoproteins
e. omega-3 fatty acids

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What are the substances resistin and adiponectin?
a. Glycolipids that regulate synthesis of lipoproteins
b. Intestinal cell hormones that regulate secretion of bile
c. Intestinal cell hormones that trigger secretion of pancreatic juice
d. Proteins secreted from fat cells that help regulate energy balance
e. Substances that dampen inflammation and decrease insulin resistance

 

 

 

 

 

  1. An important function of fat in the body is to ____.
a. build muscle tissue
b. regulate blood glucose levels
c. protect vital organs against shock
d. provide precursors for glucose synthesis
e. facilitate reproduction

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which lipid is an essential nutrient?
a. Lecithin
b. Cholesterol
c. Stearic acid
d. Linoleic acid
e. Adipokine

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which acid is an omega-3 fat?
a. Acetic acid
b. Palmitic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Docosahexaenoic acid
e. Arachidonic acid

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the immediate precursor for the eicosanoids?
a. Glucose
b. Hormones
c. Fatty acids
d. Cholesterol
e. Lipases

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of
a. arachidonic acid.
b. certain eicosanoids.
c. certain saturated fatty acids.
d. certain unsaturated fatty acids.
e. certain adipokines

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What are the precursors for synthesis of the eicosanoids?
a. Steroids
b. Short-chain fatty acids
c. Medium-chain saturated fatty acids
d. Long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
e. Monounsaturated fatty acids

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the function of lipoprotein lipase?
a. Synthesizes lipoproteins in liver cells
b. Synthesizes triglycerides in adipose cells
c. Assembles lipid particles into chylomicrons
d. Hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
e. Stimulates the release of triglycerides from the liver

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the function of adipose cell hormone-sensitive lipase?
a. Hydrolyzes hormones involved in fat breakdown
b. Synthesizes new adipose cells from simple fatty acids
c. Hydrolyzes triglycerides to provide fatty acids for other cells
d. Synthesizes long-chain fatty acids to provide precursors for other cells
e. Regulation of blood pressure and blood clotting

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy needs at rest is supplied by fat?
a. 5
b. 25
c. 40
d. 60
e. 75

 

 

 

 

 

  1. How much energy does one gram of fat provide?
a. 3 kcal
b. 5 kcal
c. 7 kcal
d. 9 kcal
e. 11 kcal

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The results of blood tests that reveal a person’s total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a ____.
a. lipid profile
b. circulating fat count
c. personal lipids count
d. degenerative disease assessment
e. lipid balance ratio

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which source of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels?
a. Butter
b. Canola oil
c. Coconut oil
d. Stick margarine
e. Shortening

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement best describes the nutritional value of eggs?
a. Eggs are high in both cholesterol and saturated fat.
b. High omega-3 fat eggs are now available by prescription only.
c. Although it is high in cholesterol, the egg is low in saturated fat.
d. Even in people with a healthy lipid profile, consumption of one egg/day is detrimental.
e. Egg substitutes often have higher levels of cholesterol than do eggs.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement is true of the relationship fat intake and health?
a. Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol
b. High intakes of fish oil lower bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing
c. High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels
d. Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels
e. Trans-fatty acids are not as dangerous as once believed

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the approximate average daily trans-fatty acid intake in the United States?
a. 500 mg
b. 2 g
c. 5 g
d. 12 g
e. 18 g

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. When consumed regularly, which fatty acid helps prevent the formation of blood clots?
a. Oleic acid
b. Stearic acid
c. Arachidonic acid
d. Eicosapentaenoic acid
e. Linoleic acid

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how much saturated fat is in 8 ounces of whole milk?
a. 2 g
b. 5 g
c. 8 g
d. 12 g
e. 15 g

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how much saturated fat is in a plain baked potato?
a. 0 g
b. 1 g
c. 2 g
d. 3 g
e. 4 g

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume ____.
a. eggs and milk c. safflower oil margarine
b. canola oil and walnuts d. corn oil and sunflower oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of ____.
a. EPA
b. DHA
c. mercury
d. cadmium
e. dioxins

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which product is a good source of eicosapentaenoic acid?
a. Tuna
b. Butter
c. Salad oil
d. Shortening
e. Corn oil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed ____.
a. eicosanoids
b. linolenic acid
c. docosahexaenoic acid
d. eicosapentaenoic acid
e. linoleic acid

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer?
a. Fat from milk does not increase risk for cancer.
b. Dietary fat initiates rather than promotes cancer formation.
c. High intakes of omega-3 fatty acids promote cancer development in animals.
d. The evidence linking fat intake with cancer is stronger than that linking it with heart disease.
e. There is a strong link between breast cancer incidence and dietary fat.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum total fat intake as a percentage of energy intake?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 35
d. 50
e. 60

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. For most adults, what is the recommended minimum amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intake?
a. 5
b. 15
c. 20
d. 35
e. 45

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the recommended range of daily fat consumption for an individual on a 2000 calorie diet?
a. 5 to 15 grams
b. 20 to 35 grams
c. 45 to 75 grams
d. 80 to 100 grams
e. 125 to 150 grams

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Surveys show that U.S. adults’ average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is ____.
a. 14%
b. 24%
c. 34%
d. 44%
e. 54%

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The average daily cholesterol intake of U.S. women is about ____.
a. 134 mg
b. 184 mg
c. 224 mg
d. 274 mg
e. 304 mg

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement is true of fat in the diet of athletes?
a. A minimum of 20% fat energy in the diet is needed.
b. Energy derived from fat has very little bearing on performance.
c. Optimal performance is found with a high-carbohydrate, 15% total fat kcalories diet.
d. Diets with at least 10% total kcalories from fat are still able to provide the recommended amounts of micronutrients.
e. It is especially important for female athletes to keep their fat intake to less than 15% of their total kcal.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement describes the lipid content of livestock?
a. The meat from grass-fed animals is similar in composition to soy protein.
b. Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals.
c. Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grass-fed animals.
d. Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals.
e. There are no significant differences between the fat composition of grass and grain fed cattle.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What dietary advice is appropriate for reducing fat intake?
a. Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat.
b. Substitute crackers and cornbread for other starches because they are likely lower in fat.
c. Consume foods with more invisible fat because this type of fat is not absorbed well from the digestive tract.
d. Increase consumption of soups, such as cream-of-mushroom soup prepared with water, because the fat content is usually very low.
e. Increase dairy consumption while decreasing consumption of fats from other sources, because dairy fats do not contribute to disease.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which statement describes a drawback of olestra consumption?
a. It yields 9 kcalories per gram.
b. It imparts off-flavors to foods.
c. It raises blood glucose levels.
d. It inhibits absorption of vitamin E.
e. It can cause severe constipation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Of the total fat content of the most commonly eaten nuts in the United States, what is the approximate percentage of monounsaturated fat?
a. 29
b. 39
c. 49
d. 59
e. 69

 

 

 

REF:   H-5 High-Fat Foods—Friend or Foe?

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-5 Identify which fats support health and which impair it.

 

  1. A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is liberal intake of ____.
a. eggs
b. olive oil
c. lean meat
d. fortified butter
e. cheese

 

 

 

REF:   H-5 High-Fat Foods—Friend or Foe?

OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-5 Identify which fats support health and which impair it.

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. All ____________________ have the same basic structure—a chain of carbon and hydrogen atoms with an acid group (COOH) at one end and a methyl group (CH3) at the other end.

 

ANS:  fatty acids

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acids attached to a(n) ____________________.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. During ____________________, some or all of the points of unsaturation are saturated by adding hydrogen molecules.  .

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The best-known phospholipid is ____________________.

 

 

 

  1. Cholesterol from outside the body is called ____________________ cholesterol.

 

 

 

  1. Monoglycerides and long-chain fatty acids are emulsified by bile, forming spherical complexes known as ____________________.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The ____________________ are the largest and least dense of the lipoproteins.

 

 

 

 

  1. Adipose tissue actively secretes several hormones known as ____________________—proteins that help regulate energy balance and influence several body functions.

 

 

  1. The body uses the longer omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids to make substances known as ____________________.

 

 

 

  1. The DRI suggest that linoleic acid provide ____________________ of the daily energy intake and linolenic acid ____________________.

 

 

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

 

a. Liver k. Oleic acid
b. Olestra l. Stearic acid
c. Micelle m. Cholesterol
d. Aspirin n. Potato chips
e. Lecithin o. Tropical oils
f. Corn oil p. Chylomicron
g. Olive oil q. Linolenic acid
h. Sardines r. Cholecystokinin
i. Pancreas s. High-density lipoprotein
j. Canola oil t. Very-low density lipoprotein

 

 

  1. An 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid

 

  1. A source of medium-chain saturated fatty acids

 

  1. A long-chain saturated fatty acid

 

  1. A good source of monounsaturated fats

 

  1. A phospholipid

 

  1. Major dietary precursor for vitamin D synthesis

 

  1. Source of bile

 

  1. Signals the release of bile

 

  1. Major source of lipase

 

  1. Structure assisting absorption of long-chain fats

 

  1. A lipoprotein synthesized within intestinal absorptive cells

 

  1. A lipoprotein made primarily by the liver

 

  1. The lipoprotein type with the highest percentage of protein

 

  1. Slows the synthesis of eicosanoids

 

  1. An essential fatty acid

 

  1. Common source of trans-fatty acids

 

  1. Good food source of omega-3 fatty acids

 

  1. Good food source of omega-6 fatty acids

 

  1. Fat replacement product made from fat

 

  1. Oil that is characteristic of the Mediterranean diet

 

 

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. What methods are used by the food industry to inhibit rancidity of the unsaturated lipids in foods?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the process of fat hydrogenation and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the meaning and significance of trans-fatty acids in the diet. List four common food sources.

 

 

  1. Discuss the role of dietary cholesterol and the endogenous production of cholesterol and heart disease. What is meant by “good” and “bad” cholesterol?

 

 

 

  1. Discuss in detail the digestion, absorption, and transport of dietary lipids, including the sterols.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the digestion-absorption mechanisms for long-chain vs. short-chain fatty acids.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the composition and function of the major circulating lipoproteins.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the functions of lipids in the body. What is the role of the liver in metabolizing and processing fats?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. List the essential fatty acids (EFA) for human beings. What are the signs of EFA deficiency? What is the minimum amount of EFA required to prevent a deficiency? What foods are rich sources of EFA?

 

 

 

|

 

  1. Discuss the roles of hormone-sensitive lipase and lipoprotein lipase in the metabolism of fats.

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain the possible links between dietary fat intake and cancer.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the relationship of dietary fats to atherosclerosis. What dietary changes bring about the greatest reductions in blood lipids?

 

 

  1. Explain the position of the American Heart Association concerning intake of butter and margarine.

 

 

 

 

  1. How are omega-3 fats thought to protect against heart disease?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the content of traditional Mediterranean diets and explain the benefits of these foods to cardiovascular health.

 

 

 

Chapter 10 – The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of vitamins?
a. Many serve in the role of enzyme inhibitors.
b. Structurally, many are found linked together.
c. Several may be oxidized to yield 4 kcalories per gram.
d. The quantities present in foods are measured in micrograms or milligrams.
e. Some are both water- and fat-soluble.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a precursor?
a. A conditionally essential vitamin
b. A sign or symptom of a clinical vitamin deficiency disorder
c. A substance that is used to synthesize another compound
d. A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines
e. A sign or symptom of a subclinical vitamin deficiency disorder

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food?
a. The total amount available from plant and animal food
b. The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body
c. The amount that escapes destruction from food processing
d. The number of different chemical forms of the same vitamin
e. The number of kcal that can be produced from the vitamin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Milk and milk products provide much of the ____ in people’s diets.
a. Thiamin
b. Vitamin A
c. Riboflavin
d. Vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins?
a. Bile
b. Kidney
c. Intestine
d. Perspiration
e. Feces

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a chief function of the B vitamins?
a. Antioxidation
b. Anticoagulation
c. Antibody stabilization
d. Coenzyme participation
e. Reproductive support

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin?
a. Blood coagulation
b. Formation of red blood cells
c. Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients
d. Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides
e. Production of histamine

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin?
a. Thiaminacide
b. Thiamin pyrophosphate
c. Thiamin adenine dinucleotide
d. Thiamin mononucleotide
e. Thiamin flavin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Beriberi results from a deficiency of
a. niacin.
b. thiamin.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12.
e. riboflavin.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi?
a. High intakes of white rice
b. Low intakes of whole grains
c. High intakes of unrefined rice
d. Low intakes of enriched grains
e. High intakes of corn

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome may be treated with supplements of
a. folacin.
b. thiamin.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12.
e. niacin.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition?
a. It contains pyrosulfate.
b. It is required for regeneration of folate
c. It is required for regeneration of niacin
d. It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane
e. It is integral in carrying activated carbon dioxide.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?
a. Ham
b. Squash
c. Whole milk
d. Whole-grain breads
e. Cheddar cheese

 

 

 

 

 

  1. How does the method of cooking affect thiamin stability?
a. Microwaving the food conserves much of the thiamin.
b. Prolonged heating of the food has little, if any, effect on the thiamin.
c. Boiling the food tends to conserve thiamin by forming a stable, hydrated complex.
d. Steaming the food can lead to substantial thiamin loss due to the high heat needed to form the steam.
e. Blanching the food before cooking it will preserve thiamin content.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin?
a. Pork
b. Fish
c. Beef
d. Chicken
e. Tofu

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is indicative of a dietary deficiency of riboflavin?
a. Beriberi
b. Diarrhea
c. Keratomalacia
d. Inflamed mouth membranes
e. Facial clefts

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following contains the highest amount of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie?
a. Cheddar cheese
b. Pinto beans
c. Tuna (in water)
d. Liver
e. Strawberries

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The signs and symptoms of riboflavin deficiency are known collectively as
a. pellagra.
b. antiflavonosis.
c. ariboflavinosis.
d. flavin adenine dinucleosis.
e. beriberi.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Riboflavin needs are more difficult to meet when the diet is low in
a. meats.
b. grains.
c. vegetables.
d. dairy foods.
e. fruits.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin?
a. Niacin
b. Choline
c. Thiamin
d. Riboflavin
e. Pantothenic acid

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake?
a. Milk
b. Potatoes
c. Orange juice
d. Peanut butter
e. Carrots

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A deficiency of what vitamin produces a characteristic cracking and redness at the corners of the mouth?
a. Biotin
b. Niacin
c. Riboflavin
d. Ascorbic acid
e. B6

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a property of riboflavin in nutrition?
a. Stability to heat is good.
b. Deficiency leads to beriberi.
c. Requirements are proportional to body weight.
d. Significant amounts are found in citrus products.
e. Stability to irradiation is good.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a property of niacin in nutrition?
a. It is susceptible to destruction in foods exposed to light
b. It participates primarily in reactions involving amino acids
c. It is soluble in both water and lipids depending upon its chemical form
d. It can be synthesized in the body from the essential amino acid tryptophan
e. It can increase LDL and decrease HDL in large doses.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can be used by the body to synthesize niacin?
a. Lysine
b. Valine
c. Tryptophan
d. Phenylalanine
e. Glycine

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following nutrients functions to prevent the appearance of a bilateral, symmetrical dermatitis, primarily on areas exposed to the sun?
a. Niacin
b. Choline
c. Inositol
d. Riboflavin
e. Vitamin C

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What vitamin deficiency disease appeared in people who had subsisted on a diet high in corn and low in protein?
a. Scurvy
b. Pellagra
c. Wet beriberi
d. Pernicious anemia
e. Scaly dermatitis

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following overt side effect(s) is likely to appear after a person ingests a high quantity of nicotinic acid?
a. Constipation
b. Mental confusion
c. Painful, tingling, itching sensation
d. Hair loss, bloating, and photophobia
e. Sudden increase in blood pressure

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of niacin nutrition?
a. Low doses may lead to kidney stones.
b. High doses may lower blood cholesterol.
c. Low doses may lead to heartburn and low blood pressure.
d. High doses may elevate red blood cell count in mildly anemic individuals.
e. High doses may cause hypoglycemia.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Your friend Jane just returned from the doctor, who diagnosed her with a specific vitamin B toxicity. However, she doesn’t recall the name of the vitamin. Which of the following is the only possible culprit associated with toxicity symptoms?
a. Niacin
b. Biotin
c. Riboflavin
d. Vitamin B12
e. Thiamin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Among the following, which would be the best source of niacin equivalents?
a. Milk
b. Broccoli
c. Chicken
d. Strawberries
e. Whole wheat bread

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of pantothenic acid in nutrition?
a. Absorption from foods is inhibited by aspirin.
b. A deficiency or a toxicity shows similar symptoms.
c. Deficiencies are seen primarily in children ages 4-10 years.
d. It functions in the metabolism of amino acids, glucose, and fatty acids.
e. It is possible to develop toxic levels on pantothenic acid if too much is ingested.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following foods contains a protein that decreases bioavailability of biotin?
a. Aged wine
b. Aged cheese
c. Raw egg whites
d. Raw cauliflower
e. Citrus fruits

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Biotin can be synthesized by
a. avidin.
b. the skin.
c. the liver.
d. intestinal bacteria.
e. bone marrow.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses during processing of food?
a. Biotin
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin B12
d. Pantothenic acid
e. Inositol

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins is stored primarily in muscle tissue?
a. Biotin
b. Folate
c. Vitamin B6
d. Pantothenic acid
e. Thiamin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism?
a. Biotin
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B6
d. Riboflavin
e. Vitamin C

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A common drug for the treatment of tuberculosis is known to markedly interfere in the metabolism of vitamin
a. B2.
b. B6.
c. B12.
d. C.
e. D.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of vitamin
a. B1.
b. B2.
c. B6.
d. B7.
e. B12.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In what major way does alcohol intake affect vitamin B6 metabolism?
a. It reduces acetaldehyde formation.
b. It increases fecal excretion of the vitamin.
c. It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme.
d. It interferes with synthesis of the PLP coenzyme.
e. It increases urinary excretion of B6.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B6?
a. Meats
b. Fruits
c. Legumes
d. Grains
e. Dairy

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Pteroylglutamic acid is known as
a. folate.
b. choline.
c. inositol.
d. pyridoxamine.
e. niacin.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins undergoes significant enterohepatic circulation?
a. Folate
b. Niacin
c. Thiamin
d. Pyridoxine
e. Pantothenic acid

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins is usually found in a form that is bound to one or more pteroylglutamic acid molecules in food?
a. Folate
b. Thiamin
c. Vitamin B6
d. Ascorbic acid
e. Vitamin B12

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A person with a disorder that limits absorption of bile is at increased risk for deficiency of
a. folate.
b. niacin.
c. riboflavin.
d. ascorbic acid.
e. pantothenic acid

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of
a. niacin.
b. folate.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12.
e. thiamin.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true regarding B vitamins and homocysteine metabolism?
a. Folate catabolyzes homocysteine
b. Biotin supplements reduce blood homocysteine levels
c. Excessive homocysteine intake reduces vitamin B12 absorption
d. High blood homocysteine levels correlate with reduced incidence of colon cancer
e. High folate levels are necessary for the synthesis of homocysteine

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What vitamin contains cobalt?
a. A
b. B6
c. B12
d. Pantothenic acid
e. Ascorbic acid

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in accumulation of homocysteine in the blood?
a. Folate
b. Biotin
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin K
e. Vitamin C

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What vitamin is involved mainly with the replacement of red blood cells and digestive tract cells?
a. Folate
b. Niacin
c. Thiamin
d. Riboflavin
e. Choline

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is representative of folate availability in foods?
a. Good sources are dairy products and meats.
b. Poor sources are fruit juices and vegetable juices.
c. Much of the vitamin is lost due to heat and oxidation.
d. Only about 10% of the amount in foods is bioavailable.
e. Legumes, nuts, and seeds have very little folate.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following foods is highest in folate?
a. Meats
b. Starches
c. Dairy products
d. Green, leafy vegetables
e. Fruits

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. Inadequate intake
b. Increased excretion
c. Inadequate absorption
d. Increased losses in food preparation
e. Inadequate digestion

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of
a. folate.
b. selenium.
c. vitamin B12.
d. iron and copper.
e. vitamin B6.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The absorption of which of the following vitamins is most affected by the disorder atrophic gastritis?
a. Choline
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B12
d. Pantothenic acid
e. Vitamin E

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Normally, the body’s storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12 prevents a primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about
a. 3 days.
b. 3 weeks.
c. 3 months.
d. 1 year.
e. 3 years.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin B12?
a. Pecans
b. Hot dog
c. Cauliflower
d. Whole-grain bread
e. Plain soy or rice milk

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following vitamins has an RDA?
a. Biotin
b. Choline
c. Cobalamin
d. Pantothenic acid
e. Carnitine

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of choline in nutrition?
a. It is an analog of ascorbic acid.
b. It is abundant in green leafy vegetables.
c. The body can synthesize it from cysteine.
d. Average intakes in the United States are lower than recommended.
e. There is no RDA for it.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a free radical?
a. An inactive vitamin
b. An unphosphorylated vitamin
c. A molecule of unbound cobalamins
d. A molecule with at least one unpaired electron
e. A nonbound vitamin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a general function of vitamin C?
a. Antiviral agent
b. Antifungal agent
c. Anticancer agent
d. Antioxidant agent
e. Emulsifying agent

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The synthesis of collagen requires both vitamin C and
a. iron.
b. zinc.
c. cobalamin.
d. beta-carotene.
e. copper.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What organ stores the highest concentration of vitamin C?
a. Liver
b. Muscle
c. Thyroid gland
d. Adrenal glands
e. Hypothalamus

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Why might vitamin C supplements be beneficial in treating the common cold?
a. They deactivate histamine.
b. They reduce episodes of diarrhea.
c. They destroy intestinal pathogens.
d. They alter hypothalamic control of body temperature.
e. They improve blood oxygenation.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?
a. Bleeding gums
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Appearance of a cold
d. Hysteria and depression
e. Oily skin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C?
a. Milk group
b. Meat group
c. Fruit group
d. Grains group
e. Oils group

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian?
a. Milk
b. Eggs
c. Broccoli
d. Whole-grain bread
e. Bananas

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of the U.S. population takes a multivitamin-mineral supplement regularly?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What nutrient is responsible for causing the most accidental ingestion deaths in children?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D
e. Magnesium

 

 

 

 

 

  1. If a dietary supplement poses a significant risk of illness to consumers, what agency must prove harm before removing the product from the market?
a. FDA
b. CDC
c. USDA
d. USPHS
e. DHHS

 

 

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

 

a. Pork k. Broccoli
b. Corn l. Riboflavin
c. Dairy m. Vitamin B6
d. Folate n. Vitamin B12
e. Biotin o. Tryptophan
f. Niacin p. Iron overload
g. Choline q. Ascorbic acid
h. Anemia r. Intrinsic factor
i. Collagen s. Ultraviolet light
j. Beriberi t. Pantothenic acid

 

 

  1. Name of thiamin deficiency disease

 

  1. A food unusually rich in thiamin

 

  1. Exposure to this leads to destruction of riboflavin

 

  1. A food source that supplies a substantial amount of people’s riboflavin intake

 

  1. Deficiency of this vitamin leads to cracks and redness at corners of the mouth

 

  1. Used for synthesis of niacin

 

  1. Overconsumption of this food has resulted in pellagra

 

  1. High doses are known to lower LDL cholesterol

 

  1. Deficiency of this vitamin is induced by feeding raw egg whites

 

  1. This vitamin is a component of acetyl CoA

 

  1. Toxicity from this vitamin is known to cause nerve damage and inability to walk

 

  1. Prevention of neural tube defects is related to increased intake of this substance by pregnant women

 

  1. One of the first symptoms of folate deficiency

 

  1. Required to maintain nerve fiber sheath

 

  1. Required for absorption of vitamin B12

 

  1. Made in the body from methionine

 

  1. The antiscorbutic factor

 

  1. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of this substance

 

  1. Excess intake of vitamin C may aggravate this disorder

 

  1. A concentrated source of vitamin C

 

 

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Compounds that can be converted to vitamins in the body are called ____________________.

 

 

  1. Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into ____________________.

 

 

  1. Prolonged thiamin deficiency can result in the disease ____________________.

 

  1. The niacin-deficiency disease, ____________________, produces the symptoms of diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and eventually death

 

 

  1. In order to protect against ____________________, all women of childbearing age who are capable of becoming pregnant should consume 0.4 milligram of folate daily.

 

  1. Of all the vitamins, ____________________ appears to be most vulnerable to interactions with drugs, which can also lead to a secondary deficiency.

 

 

  1. Older adults with B12 deficiencies may develop ____________________, a condition that damages the cells of the stomach.

 

 

  1. A(n) ____________________ is a molecule with one or more unpaired electrons, which makes it unstable and highly reactive.

 

 

  1. Vitamin C helps to form the fibrous structural protein of connective tissues known as ____________________.

 

 

  1. When vitamin C concentrations fall to about a fifth of optimal levels symptoms of ____________________ appear.

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Provide a brief definition of a vitamin.

 

 

  1. What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin? How is it determined?

 

.

 

  1. Discuss thiamin nutrition including functions, risk factors for deficiency, symptoms of deficiency, food sources, and stability.

 

 

  1. Discuss riboflavin nutrition including functions, risk factors for deficiency, symptoms of deficiency, food sources, and stability.

 

 

  1. What factors are associated with vitamin B12 inadequacy other than low intake?

 

 

  1. Discuss through the use of examples the importance of folate in development of the neural tube during the early weeks of pregnancy.

 

 

  1. What are the associations between folate intake and development and progression of certain cancers?

 

 

  1. Discuss the association between marginal vitamin B12 deficiency and cognitive function.

 

 

  1. Discuss the essentiality of choline, including chief functions and major food sources.

 

 

  1. Explain the modes of action of vitamin C.

 

 

 

 

  1. In what ways have vitamin C supplements been shown to affect nasal congestion from a cold?

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the potential hazards of excessive vitamin C intake.

 

 

 

 

  1. List population groups that have a physiological need for vitamin/mineral supplements.

 

 

  1. What type of testing is done by the U.S. Pharmacopeia to assure the quality and safety of certain vitamin and mineral supplements?

 

 

  1. Explain the major provisions of the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994.

 

 

 

Chapter 15 – Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg?
a. Zygote
b. Fertility
c. Conception
d. Implantation zone
e. Reproductive competence

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the placenta?
a. An organ from which the infant receives nourishment
b. A muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth
c. The developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth
d. The developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception
e. The sac in which the developing infant is contained prior to birth

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A newly fertilized egg is known as a(n)
a. fetus.
b. ovum.
c. zygote.
d. embryo.
e. blastocyst.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of
a. 15 inches.
b. 17 inches.
c. 20 inches.
d. 22 inches.
e. 2 feet.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of
a. 10 weeks, called quarters.
b. 8 weeks, called quintiles.
c. 4 months, called semesters.
d. 3 months, called trimesters.
e. 5 weeks, called periods.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What name is given to the time period during which irreversible damage to the fetus may occur from specific events such as malnutrition or exposure to toxins?
a. Period of maximal sensitivity
b. Critical period
c. Fertility period
d. Conceptual period
e. Teratogenic period

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the term for the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth?
a. Fetus
b. Ovum
c. Zygote
d. Embryo
e. Blastocyst

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. At what stage of pregnancy does an embryo show a beating heart and a complete central nervous system?
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 20 weeks
e. 24 weeks

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The neural tube develops into the
a. umbilical cord.
b. liver and pancreas.
c. gastrointestinal tract.
d. brain and spinal cord.
e. cardiovascular system.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. An infant born with incomplete closure of the spinal cord has
a. spina bifida.
b. macrosomia.
c. anencephaly.
d. FAS.
e. spinal agenesis.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What organ is most affected in anencephaly?
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Pancreas
e. Lungs

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects?
a. Iron
b. Folate
c. Calcium
d. Cobalamin
e. Iodine

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Studies report that folate supplements for women may lower the incidence of neural tube defects of infants when the vitamin is taken during the
a. last trimester of pregnancy.
b. second trimester of pregnancy.
c. second and third trimesters of pregnancy.
d. month before conception through the first trimester of pregnancy.
e. prior to conception but stopping when pregnancy occurs.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of pregnancies in the United States are unplanned?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 35
d. 50
e. 75

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The process by which maternal nutrient intake affects the child’s development of diseases later in life is known as
a. retrogenetics.
b. reverse genetics.
c. fetal programming.
d. postpartum degenerative expression.
e. genetic mutation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most reliable indicator of an infant’s future health status?
a. Infant’s birthweight
b. Mother’s weight before pregnancy
c. Mother’s weight gain during pregnancy
d. Mother’s nutrition status prior to pregnancy
e. Maternal age

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is macrosomia?
a. A neural tube defect
b. A high-birthweight infant
c. Excessive weight gain of the mother
d. Abnormal cravings for carbohydrate during pregnancy
e. Abnormal weakness of uterine muscles

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following increases the risk of macrosomia?
a. Folate deficiency
b. Prepregnancy obesity
c. Postpregnancy infection
d. Gestational oxygen deprivation
e. Very young maternal age

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman?
a. 10-18
b. 19-24
c. 25-35
d. 36-44
e. 45-55

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the recommended range of weight gain, in lbs, during pregnancy for an underweight woman?
a. 15-25
b. 28-40
c. 42-50
d. 55-62
e. 65-80

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from
a. insufficient exercise.
b. poor glycemic control.
c. insufficient folate intake.
d. higher prevalence of cesarean section.
e. inadequate fetal circulation.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following describes a relationship between body weight and pregnancy?
a. Overweight women bear the greatest number of low-birth-weight infants.
b. Weight gain during pregnancy is the sole determinant of fetus’s weight at birth.
c. The increased incidence of neural tube defects of infants born to underweight women is due primarily to folate insufficiency.
d. Underweight women who gain 30 lbs during pregnancy tend to birth smaller babies than heavier women who gain 30 lbs.
e. Amniotic fluid accounts for nearly 1/3 of pregnancy-associated weight gain.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. For the normal-weight woman, weight gain ideally follows a pattern of ____ during the first trimester and ____ per week thereafter.
a. 1 pound; 2 pounds
b. 1½ pounds; 2 pounds
c. 2 pounds; 1 pound
d. 2½ pounds; 2 pounds
e. 3½ pounds; 1 pound

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Usually, what is the first sign of preeclampsia?
a. Fall in blood pressure
b. Elevated blood glucose
c. A large weight gain over a short time
d. Chronic episodes of pica over the last 2 trimesters
e. Mental confusion

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the recommended minimum weight gain, in lbs, of a normal-weight woman who is expected to bear twins?
a. 22
b. 37
c. 45
d. 55
e. 62

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the minimum recommended weight gain for the obese pregnant woman?
a. 5 lbs
b. 8 lbs
c. 11 lbs
d. 14 lbs
e. 17 lbs

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The component of weight gain during pregnancy that is similar to the average weight of the infant at birth is the
a. placenta.
b. amniotic sac fluid.
c. maternal fat stores.
d. uterus and supporting muscles.
e. additional blood volume.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight changes associated with pregnancy?
a. Weight gain is generally steady throughout pregnancy for normal-weight women.
b. Most women are unable to lose all of the weight that was gained during pregnancy.
c. Sudden, large weight gain in pregnancy may signal the development of hypotension.
d. Overweight pregnant women should gain as much weight as underweight pregnant women.
e. Exercise is the best way to lose weight after pregnancy.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Jenny has just learned that she is one month pregnant (1st trimester). She has been looking forward to all the ice cream, chips, and cakes she has seen women on TV and in the movies eating when they are pregnant. What is the most appropriate advice for Jenny?
a. She can eat these foods, but only up to 340 kcalories extra per day.
b. She can eat these foods, but only up to 550 kcalories extra per day.
c. She does not have increased energy needs in the first trimester and should not indulge herself.
d. She should not eat these foods, but rather include one extra serving from each food group per day.
e. While she should avoid salty foods like chips, she is free to indulge in all of the other treats she wants.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake, in kcal, for the third trimester of pregnancy?
a. 200
b. 340
c. 450
d. 540
e. 600

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following nutrients are required in higher amounts during pregnancy due to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells?
a. Protein and chromium
b. Folate and vitamin B12
c. Calcium and vitamin A
d. Vitamin E and vitamin C
e. Selenium and iron

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores?
a. Iron
b. Protein
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B6
e. Essential fatty acids

 

 

 

 

 

  1. During pregnancy, which of the following nutrients show a dramatic increase in absorption?
a. Salt and sugar
b. Protein and fat
c. Calcium and iron
d. Thiamin and ascorbic acid
e. Copper and magnesium

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
a. The RDA increases by over 100%.
b. Calcium absorption increases substantially.
c. Supplements are required for most women due to the increased needs.
d. Transfer of calcium from maternal stores to the fetus increases rapidly at the beginning of the second trimester and falls during the last trimester.
e. During the last trimester, about 500 mg of calcium are transferred from the mother to the fetus each day.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
a. Calcium intakes usually meet the recommendations.
b. The RDA for calcium is the same as before pregnancy.
c. Calcium absorption efficiency is the same as before pregnancy.
d. Calcification of the fetal skeleton begins during the 14th week of pregnancy.
e. It is better for pregnant women to take a calcium supplement than to increase dairy intake.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The amount of vitamin D needed in pregnancy can be obtained by consumption of fortified milk and
a. low-mercury fish.
b. exposure to the sun.
c. tropical fruit juices.
d. vitamin D supplements.
e. tree nuts.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In pregnant women unable to meet their calcium needs, a daily supplement providing how many mg of calcium is advised?
a. 150
b. 300
c. 600
d. 1000
e. 1200

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is one of the recommendations to treat pregnancy-associated heartburn?
a. Eat many small meals.
b. Drink fluids only with meals.
c. Exercise within 30 minutes after eating.
d. Lie down within 30 minutes after eating.
e. Recline while eating.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements reflects current knowledge of food choices in pregnancy?
a. A craving for pickles is a strong indicator that the body needs salt.
b. A craving for milk is a strong indicator that the body needs calcium and/or phosphorus.
c. Careful and appropriate selection of foods can prevent food cravings for most women.
d. Cravings and aversions to certain foods are probably the result of altered taste and smell sensitivities induced by hormones.
e. Aversions to specific foods often indicate that the woman has a deficient diet.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most likely reason for a pregnant woman to crave pickles?
a. A change in hormones
b. A hypoglycemic episode
c. A physiologic need for fluid
d. A physiologic need for sodium
e. Cultural expectations that she will crave them

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the standard classification for a low-birthweight infant?
a. 3 1/2 lbs or less
b. 4 lbs or less
c. 5 1/2 lbs or less
d. 6 1/2 lbs or less
e. 9 lbs or less

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the standard classification for a very-low-birthweight infant?
a. 3 1/2 lbs or less
b. 4 1/2 lbs or less
c. 5 1/2 lbs or less
d. 6 1/2 lbs or less
e. 7 1/2 lbs or less

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of the WIC program?
a. It caps the number of children in the program at 2 million.
b. It is strictly remedial and available chiefly to women living in the inner city
c. It offers assistance to all at-risk pregnant women regardless of economic means
d. It saves an estimated $3 in medical costs in the first two months after birth for every dollar spent
e. It serves pregnant and nursing women as well as children up to age 7

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is gestational diabetes?
a. A severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns.
b. Abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy.
c. Reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy.
d. A temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy.
e. A complication of pre-existing diabetes that can occur during pregnancy.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes?
a. It predicts risk of diabetes for the infant.
b. It leads to type 2 diabetes in some women.
c. It occurs in over one-half of normal weight women.
d. It occurs more often in women with a history of having premature births.
e. It may be dangerous for the woman but has little impact on the developing fetus.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressureand protein in the urine of a pregnant woman?
a. Preeclampsia
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Teratogenic hypertension
d. Pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis
e. Malignant renal hypertension syndrome

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of eclampsia?
a. Convulsions by the mother
b. Convulsions by the newborn
c. Low blood pressure in the mother
d. Low blood pressure in the newborn
e. Poor glycemic control in mother and infant

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic associated with adolescent pregnancy?
a. The recommended weight gain is approximately 35 lbs.
b. The incidence of stillbirths and preterm births is 5-10% lower compared with adult women.
c. The incidence of pregnancy-induced hypertension is 5-10% lower compared with older women.
d. The time in labor is usually shorter than for older women because there are fewer overweight teenagers.
e. Maternal death rates are 5 to 7 times greater among adolescent mothers in the developed world.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General?
a. They should drink absolutely no alcohol.
b. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only.
c. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day.
d. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter.
e. Organic beer and wine is acceptable.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of heavy metal intake and pregnancy?
a. Mercury, but not lead, can easily cross the placenta.
b. Lead and mercury both damage the fetal nervous system.
c. Pregnant women are advised to limit consumption of shark and swordfish to no more than once per week.
d. Pregnant women are advised to avoid shellfish around the critical period of brain development but may resume normal intake thereafter.
e. King mackerel and tilefish are both safe to consume as much as desired.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A feature of heavy caffeine use in human pregnancy is that it may
a. worsen edema.
b. increase the risk of preterm birth.
c. increase the risk of birth defects.
d. increase the risk of stillborn infants.
e. dampen respiratory function

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What causes the “let-down reflex”?
a. Oxytocin
b. Estrogen
c. Prepartum amenorrhea
d. Postpartum amenorrhea
e. FSH

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first six months of lactation is approximately
a. 100.
b. 250.
c. 500.
d. 1000.
e. 1500.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of lactation?
a. Breast milk protein content may be enhanced by moderate exercise.
b. The volume of breast milk may be increased by drinking plenty of fluid.
c. The iron content of breast milk may be increased by taking iron supplements.
d. Breast milk quantity but not quality is most affected by nutritional inadequacies.
e. Breastfeeding is an automatic physiological response.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Why might a lactating woman need to take an iron supplement?
a. To improve the flavor of breast milk
b. To increase iron content of breast milk
c. To replace the iron stores she lost during pregnancy
d. To account for the re-start of menstruation that usually occurs 1-2 months postpartum
e. To increase the volume of breast milk

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements describes an association between nutrient intake and lactation?
a. Milk production is increased by higher fluid intake.
b. Ingestion of garlic may lead to an off-flavor of the milk.
c. Inadequate protein intake lowers the protein concentration of the milk.
d. The energy RDA for milk production calls for an additional 1000 kcalories per day.
e. Nicotine does not pass into a woman’s breast milk.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol intake and lactation?
a. Alcohol easily enters breast milk.
b. Alcohol actually stimulates lactation.
c. Infants drink slightly more breast milk when the mother consumes up to 1 drink per day.
d. The small amounts of alcohol that are secreted along with breast milk stimulate infant digestion.
e. The positive impact of alcohol consumption on the mother outweighs any slight negative impact on the infant.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an effect of alcohol intake in the mother who breastfeeds?
a. It alters the flavor of the breast milk.
b. It stimulates lactation.
c. It passes into the breast milk and stimulates the infant’s acceptance.
d. It first appears in the breast milk approximately 12 hours after ingestion.
e. It has no clinically significant impact.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the benefit of postpartum amenorrhea?
a. It stimulates milk production.
b. It conserves iron in the mother.
c. It stimulates the let-down reflex.
d. It stimulates the suckling reflex in the infant.
e. It is a reliable form of birth control.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements describes a relationship between alcohol intake and fetal development?
a. Birth defects are most severe when the woman drinks around the time of conception.
b. Infants born with fetal alcohol syndrome typically show immediate signs of brain impairment.
c. Eating well and maintaining adequate nutrient stores will prevent alcohol-induced placenta damage.
d. Toxicity to the fetus begins to occur when fetal blood alcohol levels rise above maternal blood alcohol levels.
e. Most of the fetal abnormalities associated with maternal alcohol consumption can be corrected after birth.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the acronym for the food assistance program designed to help nutritionally at-risk children, infants, and pregnant women?
a. FAP
b. WIC
c. EAT
d. MOW
e. ARND

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is an acceptable range of weight (lbs) of a healthy newborn infant?
a. 4-4 ½
b. 5-6
c. 6 1/2-8
d. 8 1/2-10
e. 10 1/2-12

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a blastocyst?
a. The 5-day-old zygote that becomes implanted in the uterine wall
b. The terminal end of the umbilical cord that attaches to the placenta
c. Fingerlike projections on the uterine wall that act to separate fetal from maternal tissues
d. The network of placental blood vessels that exchanges nutrients and waste products from mother to fetus
e. The structure that develops in place of the brain in an anencephalic infant

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of low-birth-weight infants?
a. They show greater prevalence for liver fat infiltration.
b. They demonstrate catch-up growth within 3 months of birth.
c. They have an increased risk for insulin resistance later in life.
d. They have proportionately larger kidneys and greater risks for low blood pressure.
e. They are more commonly born to upper socioeconomic status women.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of being overweight and pregnant?
a. Folate-related neural tube defects
b. Increased prevalence of caesarian section
c. Inability to carry twins to birth completion
d. Increased risk of birthing a small-for-gestational age infant
e. Decreased risk of gestational hypertension

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following physical activities would be permitted for the pregnant woman?
a. Scuba diving
b. Water aerobics
c. Exercising in hot, humid weather
d. Exercising while lying on her back
e. Kick boxing

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of preterm infants?
a. They are often underweight and have difficulty breathing.
b. Even with adequate nutrition support, they rarely show catch-up growth.
c. If they are merely small-for-gestational age, they usually show catch-up growth.
d. They are typically born to women of high socioeconomic status.
e. Even very-low birthweight infants typically have good survival and outcomes.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of hypertension in pregnancy?
a. Chronic hypertension increases risk for stillbirth.
b. Chronic hypertension often leads to macrosomia.
c. Gestational hypertension usually develops in the first trimester.
d. Gestational hypertension is most common in women who had normal blood pressure before pregnancy.
e. Gestational diabetes typically persists after pregnancy.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how many infants each year are born in the United States with fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. 2,000
b. 4,000
c. 6,000
d. 12,000
e. 18,000

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
a. FAS cannot be treated, only prevented.
b. Cognitive function is affected the least when physical abnormalities are most severe.
c. Diagnosis is apparent within 6 months of birth for virtually all children with FAS.
d. The most severe physical abnormalities in most FAS children are covert rather than overt.
e. No harm will result to the infant unless the mother is actually drunk.

 

 

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. The “bag of waters” in the uterus, in which the fetus floats is called the ____________________.

 

 

 

 

  1. The ropelike structure through which the fetus’s veins and arteries reach the placenta is called the ____________________.

 

 

  1. A newly fertilized ovum is called a(n) ____________________.

 

 

  1. The developing infant from 8 weeks after conception until term is called a(n) ____________________.

 

 

  1. The developing infant from 2 to 8 weeks after conception is called a(n) ____________________.

 

 

  1. The embedding of the blastocyst in the inner lining of the uterus is called ____________________.

 

 

  1. The influence of substances during fetal growth on the development of diseases in later life is called ____________________.

 

 

  1. An infant with a birthweight at the 90th percentile or higher for gestational age (roughly 9 pounds or higher) is said to have ____________________.

 

 

  1. The recommended gain for a woman who begins pregnancy at a healthy weight and is carrying a single fetus is ____________________ to ____________________ pounds.

 

  1. Low-birthweight infants are defined as infants who weigh ____________________ or less.

 

 

MATCHING

 

 

a. 1 in 75 k. Zygote
b. 1 in 13 l. Embryo
c. 7 1/2 m. Alcohol
d. 17-30 n. Eclampsia
e. 25 o. Amniotic
f. 35 p. Birthweight
g. 38 q. Preeclampsia
h. Iron r. Breastfeeding
i. Pica s. Eat small, frequent meals
j. Folate t. Drink at least 8 glasses of liquid a day

 

 

  1. A newly fertilized ovum

 

  1. Fluid in which the fetus floats

 

  1. Developing infant from 2 to 8 weeks after conception

 

  1. Number of days after conception during which the neural tube is highly vulnerable to nutrient deficiency

 

  1. Number of U.S. women who report binge drinking during pregnancy

 

  1. Adequate intakes of this nutrient within the 30 days prior to conception are especially important to lower risk of birth defects

 

  1. Most reliable indicator of an infant’s health

 

  1. An infant born prior to this number of weeks of pregnancy is classified as preterm

 

  1. Upper limit for the recommended number of pounds that a pregnant woman of normal weight should gain

 

  1. Approximate weight, in pounds, of average newborn baby

 

  1. Number of grams of extra protein per day recommended for the pregnant woman

 

  1. Dietary supplements of this nutrient are recommended early in pregnancy

 

  1. A recommended practice to prevent or relieve heartburn

 

  1. A recommended practice to prevent or alleviate constipation

 

  1. A craving for non-food substances

 

  1. A condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine

 

  1. A condition characterized by seizures

 

  1. Number of women who report drinking during pregnancy

 

  1. Excess intake of this substance in pregnancy is known to result in mental retardation of the child

 

  1. A practice that conserves maternal iron stores

 

 

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. What is the role of the placenta and how does it develop?

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the term “critical periods” in relation to pregnancy.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the association between maternal nutrition and the risk for development of chronic diseases in her child.

 

  1. Discuss the consequences of being overweight or obese at the time of pregnancy.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the changes in macronutrient needs in pregnancy.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss important concerns for vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation.

 

 

 

  1. List the complications experienced by low-birthweight infants.

 

 

  1. Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed?

 

 

 

  1. Describe the condition known as preeclampsia. What are its risk factors and what is known about its prevention?

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the effects of tobacco use in the pregnant woman and its effects on health of the newborn.

 

 

 

  1. Provide examples of the effects of environmental contaminants on pregnancy outcomes.

 

 

 

  1. List the benefits of breastfeeding for the infant and for the mother.

 

  1. Describe the physical and mental abnormalities associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.

 

 

 

 

  1. Describe the two most common neural tube defects and what is known about their development.

 

 

 

  1. Describe the risks associated with caffeine intake during pregnancy.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 20 – Hunger and the Global Environment

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of the world’s population experiences persistent hunger?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods is termed food
a. insecurity.
b. insufficiency.
c. vulnerability.
d. precariousness.
e. inadequacy.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Melissa works two jobs to support her three children. Her financial priorities are to pay the rent and utilities and provide food and medical necessities for the children. Melissa rarely eats three meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself and her children. Melissa is experiencing which of the following?
a. Food insufficiency
b. Food mismanagement
c. Non-sustainable lifestyle
d. Misallocation of resources
e. Very low food security

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
a. Poverty
b. High cost of food
c. Excessive food waste
d. Lack of nutrition education
e. Lack of physical access to food

 

 

 

| 20.2 World Hunger

|20.2 Identify some reasons why hunger is present in the developing countries of the world.

 

  1. How many people in the United States live in poverty?
a. 19 million
b. 29 million
c. 39 million
d. 49 million
e. 59 million

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the relationship between poverty and hunger?
a. Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household.
b. The highest rates of obesity occur among the wealthiest.
c. The provision of food to the poor increases obesity.
d. Even people below the poverty line have enough money for food.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately what proportion of the world’s food supply is wasted along the way from farm to final consumption?
a. 1/10
b. 1/5
c. 1/4
d. 1/3
e. 1/2

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What fraction of the U.S. population receives food assistance of some kind?
a. 1/25
b. 1/15
c. 1/5
d. 1/3
e. 1/2

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
a. WIC
b. EAT
c. National Food Resource Program
d. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
e. Senior Farmer’s Market Program

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the average monthly benefit for a recipient of SNAP, per person?
a. $85
b. $105
c. $135
d. $185
e. $215

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase which of the following?
a. laundry detergent
b. seeds to produce food
c. cigarettes
d. vitamins
e. diapers

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is a food desert?
a. Worldwide crop failures due to drought and pestilence
b. Absence of fresh fruits and vegetables at certain times of the year
c. A neighborhood having limited access to nutritious and affordable food
d. A low-cost energy-dense snack sold primarily in poor neighborhoods
e. An area in which poverty has made families unable to purchase necessary food

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately how many people, in millions, are served by the U.S. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program?
a. 15
b. 25
c. 35
d. 45
e. 55

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the name of the largest U.S. national food recovery program?
a. Feeding America
b. Goodwill Food Assistance
c. Salvation Army Ready-to-Eat Meals
d. Food Salvage and Rescue Organization
e. We CAN

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of malnutrition in children?
a. Children with kwashiorkor typically have edema.
b. Children with marasmus often have fatty livers.
c. Kwashiorkor results mainly from energy inadequacy.
d. Marasmus results mainly from protein inadequacy.
e. Children with marasmus often have changes in the color of their hair and skin.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor’s office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, “…and thus, hunger worsens poverty….” The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
a. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care.
b. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty.
c. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households.
d. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive.
e. Sometimes, but only when unemployment is high and jobs are scarce.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is best termed
a. a plague.
b. a famine.
c. food poverty.
d. food insecurity.
e. epidemic starvation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Cutting world hunger and malnutrition in half by 2015 would generate a value of more than ____ in longer, healthier, and more productive lives.
a. $40 billion
b. $80 billion
c. $120 billion
d. $160 billion
e. $200 billion

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
a. India.
b. China.
c. Ethiopia
d. Ireland.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of world poverty?
a. Poverty causes hunger in the developing but not the developed world.
b. The poorest do not bear children due to poor health.
c. Poverty affects about 10% of the world’s population.
d. The poorest poor are typically female.
e. Urbanization typically decreases poverty-associated hunger.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. As the newly appointed director of International Supplementation for the World Health Organization (WHO), you propose supplementing the diets of malnourished populations worldwide with nutrients that would markedly improve health and well-being. Which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient?
a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin D
e. Zinc

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Deficiency in which of the following is associated with irreversible intellectual disability?
a. iron
b. iodine
c. protein
d. vitamin A
e. zinc.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to reduce the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working?
a. Implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated
b. Implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished
c. Ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children
d. Distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain
e. Distributing meals-ready-to-eat (MREs) to restore nutrition.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Worldwide, approximately what number of children under 5 die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
a. 1.6 million
b. 3.6 million
c. 5.6 million
d. 7.6 million
e. 9.6 million

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Worldwide, how many children younger than 5 have symptoms of vitamin A deficiency?
a. 70 million
b. 80 million
c. 90 million
d. 100 million
e. 110 million

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
a. Oral rehydration therapy
b. Ozone purified waste water
c. Protein-energy repletion formula
d. Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch
e. RUTF

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
a. The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth’s cultivable land
b. The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
c. The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
d. The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth’s water mass
e. The maximum number of people who can exist on earth without causing environmental damage.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the approximate yearly increase in the world’s population?
a. 50 million
b. 60 million
c. 70 million
d. 80 million
e. 90 million

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger in the developing world bear numerous children?
a. Birth control expenses are prohibitive.
b. The children are less likely to survive to adulthood.
c. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning.
d. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children.
e. It is a cultural custom in those areas to have many children.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The famine Somalia is currently experiencing has left an estimated ____ people starving.
a. 6 million
b. 8 million
c. 10 million
d. 12 million
e. 14 million

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Worldwide, the poorest poor subsist on less than ____ per day.
a. $1
b. $3
c. $5
d. $7
e. $9

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty and population growth?
a. As economic status improves, population growth rises.
b. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes.
c. Lack of natural resources, not poverty, is the most important contributor to overpopulation.
d. Extreme poverty tends to greatly suppress population growth.
e. Economic status and population growth are unrelated in the developing world.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of the world’s population is at risk of zinc deficiency?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
e. 25

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What proportion of children in the developing world are severely underweight by age 5?
a. 1 in 20
b. 1 in 10
c. 1 in 4
d. 1 in 3
e. 1 in 2

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Acute malnutrition in children is characterized by
a. hyperactivity.
b. shrunken liver.
c. low weight for height.
d. short height for weight.
e. stunting

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Chronic malnutrition in children is characterized by
a. hyperactivity.
b. shrunken liver.
c. short height for age.
d. low weight for height.
e. rapid weight loss

 

 

 

 

 

  1. You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher describes the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that most of these observations are characteristic of marasmus, but then you realize that ____ is more consistent with kawashikor.
a. wrinkled skin
b. food intake pattern
c. enlarged fatty liver
d. extremely thin
e. bony appearance

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following would you expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor?
a. Edema
b. Low levels of ADH
c. Muscle wasting
d. Baggy-appearing skin
e. “Match stick” arms and legs

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor?
a. Inadequate intake of water
b. Excessive intake of dietary protein
c. Low concentration of blood protein
d. High concentration of blood protein
e. Low levels of ADH

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus?
a. Increased body temperature
b. Affects brain development only minimally
c. Rapid metabolism
d. Inability to tolerate cold
e. Decreased albumin

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition?
a. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion.
b. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients.
c. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible.
d. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses.
e. Children typically recover well from marasmus if adequate food is provided.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. At the end of your class presentation on “Acute Malnutrition,” a student asks you to clarify how the rapid onset of malnutrition occurs in kwashiorkor. How should you respond?
a. It is the result of an inborn error of metabolism.
b. It is usually synchronized with the drought season in each respective country.
c. It is typically seen in patients who are 2-5 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their dislike for breast milk as they grow older.
d. It is typically seen in patients after weaning due to the sudden change in diet arising from their being weaned from breast milk after the birth of a sibling.
e. It occurs when the family’s finances are no longer able to afford food for all family members.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What term describes the malnutrition syndrome a child develops when the next child is born and the first child no longer receives breast milk?
a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Psychomalnutrition
d. Postbirth malnutrition
e. Sibling-associated anorexia

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The word “marasmus” means
a. terribly thin.
b. without muscle.
c. dying away.
d. empty stomach.
e. lacking food.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In kwashiorkor, the loss of hair color is indirectly related to
a. lack of tyrosine.
b. elevated levels of blood homocysteine.
c. excessive exposure to the sun’s UV rays.
d. being nursed by a poorly-nourished mother.
e. increased blood lead levels.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In kwashiorkor, what mineral is often present in an unbound form that promotes bacterial growth?
a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Arsenic
d. Calcium
e. Sodium

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency?
a. Increased uptake of circulating fats
b. Increased absorption of dietary fats
c. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats
d. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export
e. Paradoxical storage of fats

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor?
a. It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated.
b. It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus.
c. It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present.
d. Children typically have a grossly swollen belly.
e. Children have a “skin and bones” appearance.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is true of RUTF?
a. It restores fluids.
b. It is powdered and must be rehydrated for use.
c. It is administered IV.
d. It is a paste made from local commodities.
e. Children dislike the taste and often must be forced to eat it.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What type of diet is advised to rehabilitate a severely malnourished child?
a. RUTF
b. Large amounts of the local diet
c. Liberal quantities of lactose-free powdered milk until growth rate is restored
d. High energy until normal body mass index is achieved, then moderate energy thereafter
e. BRAT

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of marasmus in children?
a. It leads to inability to maintain body temperature.
b. It promotes hyperactivity and excessive crying for food.
c. It impairs brain development mainly from ages 2-5 years old.
d. It leads to severe edema of the abdomen but insufficient water retention by the brain.
e. It is rare even in very impoverished nations due to UN programs combating hunger.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is RUTF?
a. An advanced stage of kwashiorkor
b. An advanced stage of protein-energy malnutrition
c. A paste of peanut butter and powdered milk plus micronutrients
d. A sustainable agricultural practice that integrates farm-raised animals with aquaculture
e. A fluid used to restore electrolytes in children with diarrhea

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of the world’s children under the age of 5 have short stature for their age?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
e. 25

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What percentage of the world’s children under the age of 5 have low weight for their height?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
e. 25

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The famine in Somalia has left ____ children under the age of 5 dead.
a. 10,000
b. 20,000
c. 30,000
d. 40,000
e. 50,000

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is among the ingredients of a common oral rehydration formula?
a. Iron
b. Sugar
c. Milk
d. Zinc
e. Powdered peanuts

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of common agricultural practices in the developed world?
a. They promote protection of soil and water.
b. They frequently lead to higher crop prices.
c. They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms.
d. They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers.
e. They emphasize “green” practices.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. A sharp rise in the rates of hunger and malnutrition, usually set off by a shock to either the supply of, or demand for, food and a sudden spike in food prices is called a
a. food crisis.
b. famine.
c. food inflation.
d. food imbalance.
e. cost imbalance.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of farm irrigation?
a. It makes the soil more porous.
b. It helps preserve the water supply.
c. It contributes to soil preservation.
d. It increases the salt content in the soil.
e. It raises water tables.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is aquaculture?
a. A seaweed growth system
b. The practice of fish farming
c. Replenishment of fish in the wild
d. The raising of plants in a water environment
e. Raising food crops in fluid rather than soil

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a feature of aquaculture?
a. All farmed fish must be fed to sustain the practice.
b. It provides about 10% of the world’s fish for consumption.
c. It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters.
d. Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable.
e. It provides nearly all of the world’s shellfish for consumption.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
e. 40

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a major contributor to the world’s supply of food energy?
a. Barley
b. Maize
c. Rye
d. Sorghum
e. Adzuki beans

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
a. Integrated production
b. Progressive agriculture
c. Sustainable agriculture
d. Resource management production
e. Balanced farming

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 1 kcalories of grains?
a. <1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
e. 15

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo?
a. The iron content is higher.
b. The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation.
c. The fat content includes more omega-3 fatty acids.
d. There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer.
e. Range-fed buffalo has lower levels of polyunsaturated fats.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much energy.
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
e. 3.5

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Compared to vegetarian diets, meat based diets use ____ times as much water.
a. 1.9
b. 2.9
c. 3.9
d. 4.9
e. 5.9

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people?
a. Twice as much
b. Three times as much
c. Five times as much
d. Ten times as much
e. Twenty times as much

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. On average, how many miles is a food item transported before a consumer eats it?
a. 25
b. 100
c. 750
d. 1500
e. 3000

 

 

 

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Collecting crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest is called ____________________.

 

 

 

 

  1. Individuals who have limited or uncertain access to foods of sufficient quality or quantity to sustain a healthy and active life with reduced quality of life with little or no indication of reduced food intake have ____________________.

 

 

 

  1. Individuals who have access to enough food to sustain a healthy and active life with one or two indications of food-access problems but with little or no change in food intake have ____________________.

 

 

 

 

  1. In the United States, the largest federal food assistance program is ____________________.

 

 

 

 

  1. Neighborhoods and communities characterized by limited access to nutritious and affordable foods are known as ____________________.

 

 

 

 

  1. Of the world’s 7 billion people, ____________________ percent have no land and no possessions at all.

 

 

 

 

  1. Malnutrition caused by recent severe food restriction; characterized in children by underweight for height (wasting) is called ____________________ malnutrition.

 

 

 

  1. Severe malnutrition characterized by failure to grow and develop, edema, changes in the pigmentation of hair and skin, fatty liver, anemia, and apathy is called ____________________

 

 

  1. Severe malnutrition characterized by poor growth, dramatic weight loss, loss of body fat and muscle, and apathy is called ____________________.

 

 

  1. ____________________ is a paste made of local commodities such as peanut butter and powdered milk and fortified with vitamins and minerals and used to rehabilitate children with uncomplicated, severe acute malnutrition.

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

 

a. 1.4 k. Famine
b. 7 l. Methane
c. 8 m. Irrigation
d. 20 n. Dead zones
e. 25 o. Poverty
f. 85.5 p. Sustainable
g. 100 q. SNAP
h. 300 r. Food insecurity
i. 1500 s. Feeding America
j. Fossil t. ORT

 

 

  1. Intermittent hunger caused by lack of money

 

  1. The primary cause of hunger

 

  1. USDA program aimed at preventing or remediating domestic malnutrition and hunger for the poor

 

  1. Name of the largest national food recovery program

 

  1. Approximate number, in billions, of people in the world

 

  1. Extreme scarcity of food

 

  1. How much more pesticides are used to produce a meat-based diet than a vegetarian diet

 

  1. Treatment for diarrhea-related dehydration

 

  1. Percentage of the world’s population with iron-deficiency anemia

 

  1. Number of children, in millions, under age 5 with vitamin A deficiency

 

  1. Percentage of the U.S. population classified as “food secure”

 

  1. Coal is an example of this type of fuel

 

  1. Produced in large quantities by cows

 

  1. This source of water for crops increases the salinity of the soil

 

  1. Oxygen-depleted areas of bodies of water in which marine life cannot survive

 

  1. Number of pounds of grain needed to produce one pound of beef weight gain

 

  1. Percentage of energy used in the U.S. that is consumed by the food industry

 

  1. Number of barrels of oil, in millions, wasted as a result of food waste

 

  1. Term that describes using resources at a replaceable rate with no net accumulation of pollution

 

  1. Number of miles, on average, a food item is transported before it is eaten

 

 

 

 

 

 

ESSAY

 

  1. Define the subcategories of food security and food insecurity.

 

 

 

 

  1. List and discuss the causes of hunger in the United States. What population groups are most vulnerable?

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain how the provision of food to hungry poor people lowers their risk for obesity.

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the role of modern-day political crises as the primary cause of worldwide food shortages.

 

 

 

  1. How does population growth contribute directly and indirectly to hunger?

 

 

 

 

  1. Discuss issues related to specific nutrient deficiencies in the developing world.

 

 

 

  1. Compare and contrast the features of kwashiorkor and marasmus.

 

 

  1. What are the characteristics associated with acute and chronic malnutrition in children?

 

 

  1. Discuss the magnitude and impact of food waste.

 

 

 

  1. List 3 ways the food industry could substantially reduce fossil fuel use and still remain sustainable.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss how biodiversity is changing and how this affects food production.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the effects of water misuse in agricultural production.

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the environmental impact of raising livestock.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. What is meant by a person’s “food footprint,” and how is it determined?

 

 

 

  1. Discuss the advantages of obtaining foods grown locally versus globally.